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Previous Year Paper

BHEL Engineer Trainee
Electrical 2020 Paper
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240 Questions

Que. 1 For complete protection of a 3 – phase transmission line, we require

1. Three phase and three earth fault relays
2. Three phase and two earth fault relays
3. Two phase and two earth fault relays
4. Two-phase and one – earth fault relay
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 2 The area of a hysteresis loop for the magnetic material used in the rotor of a hysteresis motor should be:
1. medium
2. very large
3. infinite
4. very small
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 3 Two incandescent bulbs of rating 230 V, 100 W and 230 V, 500 W are connected in series across the
mains. As a result what will happen?
1. 500 W will glow brighter
2. 100 W will glow brighter
3. both will glow brighter
4. neither will glow brighter
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 4 Determine the time of operation of a relay of rating 5 A, 2.2s IDMT and having a relay setting of 125%,
TMS = 0.6. It is connected to the supply circuit through a CT 400 : 5 ratio. The fault current is 4000 A.
PSM 2 5 8 10
Time 10 8 3.2 2.5
1. 1.89 s
2. 1.87 s
3. 1.93 s
4. 1.92 s
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 5 A shift register with its complement output (Q’) of the last stage connected to the D-input of the first
stage is called:
1. twisted-ring counter
2. synchronous counter
3. asynchronous counter
4. up-counter

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Testbook Solution Correct Option - 1

Que. 6 A 3-phase transformer rated for 33/6.6 kV is connected to a star/delta and the current transfer on the LV
side has a ratio of 500 : 5. Determine the ratio of the current transformer on the HV side.
1. 100 : 5
2. 110 :
5

√3

3. 100 :
5

√3

4. 110 : 5
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 7 SF6 is a:
1. non-attaching gas
2. neutral gas
3. electronegative gas
4. quickly ionising gas
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 8 An induction motor when started on load does not accelerate up to full speed but runs at 1/7th of the
rated speed. The motor is said to be.
1. Locking
2. Plugging
3. Crawling
4. Logging
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 9 In a system of 132 kV, the line to ground capacitance is 0.05 μF and the inductance is 8 H. Determine
the voltage appearing across the pole of a circuit breaker if a magnetising current of 7 A is interrupted.
1. 23.99 kV
2. 54.88 kV
3. 88.54 kV
4. 99.23 kV
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 10 In a dynamometer wattmeter, the moving coil is:

1. current coil
2. low power factor coil
3. compensating coil
4. potential coil
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 11

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A load of three impedances each (6 + j9) is supplied through a line having an impedance of (1 + j2) Ω.
The supply voltage is 400 V at 50 Hz. Determine input and output powers respectively when the load is star
connected.
1. 5469 W and 6591 W
2. 4359 W and 8269 W
3. 6591 W and 5649 W
4. 6688 W and 9854 W
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 12 Match List I (Equivalent circuit parameter) with List II (values) for a 50 MVA three phase alternator
and select the correct answer.
  List I   List II
A. Armature resistance 1. 1 pu
B. Synchronous reactance 2. 0.1pu
C. Leakage reactance 3. 0.01 pu
1. A – 1, B – 2, C - 3
2. A – 3, B – 1, C - 2
3. A – 3, B – 2, C - 1
4. A – 1, B – 3, C - 2
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 13 The function of interpoles in DC machine is to:

1. reduce field winding heating
2. reduce losses
3. compensate for airgap variation
4. improve commutation
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 14 Hay’s bridge is used for measuring:

1. admittance
2. capacitance
3. inductance of high Q factor
4. resistance
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 15 The Laplace transform of t.eat is:

1. 2
1

(s −a)

2.
s

(s+a)

3. 1

(s2 +a)

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4. 1

2
(s−a)

Testbook Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 16 The speed of a 3-phase 2-pole, 60 Hz synchronous motor is controlled by a step-down 3-phase
cycloconverter. The maximum speed of the motor can be:
1. 3600 rpm
2. 1500 rpm
3. 1000 rpm
4. 1200 rpm
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 17 In DC shunt motor, if the terminal voltage is reduced to half and torque remains the same then
__________.
1. speed will be half and armature current also will be half
2. speed will be half, but armature current remains the same
3. speed will be decreased and armature current become double
4. speed and armature current will remain the same
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 18 If J = K in case of J – K flip-flop, then the resulting flip-flop is known as:

1. T FLIP-FLOP
2. D FLIP-FLOP
3. J-K FLIP FLOP
4. S-R FLIP-FLOP
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 1

Que. 19 The value of R for maximum power transfer with reference to the given diagram is:

1. 1.21
2. 1.73
3. 3.27
4. 3.64
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 3

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Que. 20 A split induction motor, if the centrifugal switch of a single-phase resistance does not open after the
starting of the motor, then the motor:
1. will run at the speed that is equal to synchronous speed
2. will run at the speed that is more than the normal speed
3. will draw very less current
4. will draw high current and get over heated
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 21 In measurement, the difference between the true value and indicated value of a quantity is called:
1. Dynamic error
2. Absolute error
3. Gross error
4. Relative error
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 22 An overhead line is equipped with shunt inductive reactor at receiving end to maintain sending end
voltage equal to the receiving end voltage. If the ABCD parameters of line are A = D = 0.9 ∠0, B =
200 ∠90 Ω and C = 0.95 × 10-3 ∠90 s, what should be the ohmic value of the reactor to maintain same voltage
on both sides?   
1. 1055 Ω 
2. 105.26 Ω 
3. 2000 Ω
4. 1052.6 Ω
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 23 The Complementary Coded Decimal (CCD) code for decimal 325 is:
1. 1100 1010 1101
2. 1101 1010 1100
3. 1100 1101 1010
4. 1111 1010 1101
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 24 What is the efficiency of a transformer coupled class A amplifier for a supply of 12 V and output of
V(peak) = 12 V?
1. 1.39%
2. 20%
3. 50%
4. 12.5%
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 25 The pu parameters for a 300 MVA machine on its own base are inertia M = 10 pu and reactance X = 4
pu. The pu values of inertia and reactance on 50 MVA common base, respectively, will be:
1. 60, 0.67

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2. 40, 0.67
3. 60, 0.4
4. 4, 10
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 1

Que. 26 The increased load demand in a synchronous motor is met by:

1. relative shift between stator and rotor poles
2. decrease in stator current
3. increase in speed
4. reduction in speed
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 1

Que. 27 Find the total resistance of a voltmeter if the range of voltmeter is 50 V and sensitivity is 20 kΩ/V. 
1. 10 kΩ
2. 1 MΩ
3. 0.4 kΩ
4. 2.5 kΩ
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 28 The type of DC generator used for arc welding purpose is a

1. Series generator
2. Shunt generator
3. Cumulatively compounded generator
4. Differentially compounded generator
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 29 The Barkhausen criteria is:

1. A = -β 
2. A = β
3. |Aβ| = 1
4. |Aβ| = -1
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 30 In the two-wattmeter method of measurement of three-phase power of a balanced load, if both
wattmeters indicate the same reading, then the power factor of the load is:
1. 0.5 lag
2. < 0.5 lag
3. Unity
4. > 0.5 lag
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 31

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The voltage across R, L and C are 3 V, 14 V and 10 V respectively as in the figure. If the voltage
source is sinusoidal, then the input voltage (r.m.s) is

1. 10 V
2. 5 V
3. 2.5 V
4. 15 V
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 32 Electrolytic meter is basically a/an:

1. DC ampere-hour meter
2. AC ampere-hour meter
3. AC energy meter
4. DC watt-hour meter
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 1

Que. 33 Reactive power compensation in feeders leads to:

1. expensive voltage regulators
2. improved voltage profile
3. negative and zero sequence currents
4. poor voltage profile
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 34 If stability error for step input and speed of response be the criteria for design, what controlled would
you recommend
1. P controller
2. PD controller
3. PI controller
4. PID controller
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 35 If a DC compound machine connected as a generator is run as a motor, the series field connections
must be in _______, as the armature current ______.
1. reverse direction; remains same
2. reverse direction; reverses
3. forward direction; reverses
4. forward direction; remains same

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Testbook Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 36 A flip-flop whose state changes on the rising or falling edge of a clock pulse is called:
1. leading edge flip-flop
2. level-triggered flip-flop
3. edge-triggered flip-flop
4. rising edge flip-flop
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 37 If transformer is working at leading power factor then the voltage regulation can be
1. zero
2. negative
3. positive
4. all of the above
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 38 A lap wound DC machine having 4-poles has 720 armature conductors. Its field winding is excited
from a DC source to create an air-gap flux of 32 mWb/pole. The generator is run from a prime mover
at 1500 rpm and supplies a current of 100 A to an electric load. Calculate the electromagnetic power developed
in the machine?
1. 50 kW
2. 65.7 kW
3. 76.5 kW
4. 57.6 kW
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 39 In a DC series motor, the ratio of back emf (Eb) to supply voltage (V) indicates:
1. running torque
2. efficiency
3. speed regulation
4. starting torque
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 40 For the speed control of AC drive the preferred method using thyristor is:
1. phase control
2. integral cycle control
3. sinusoidal PWM control
4. unipolar PWM control
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 41 Which one of the following does not employ a null method of measurement ?
1. Megger

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2. DC potentiometer
3. Kelvin double bridge
4. AC potentiometer
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 1

Que. 42 If the PSM is 8, the relay setting is 125% and CT ratio is 400 : 1, then the value of fault current will be:
1. 4550 A
2. 5000 A
3. 3000 A
4. 4000 A
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 43 Which diode has negative resistance region in its characteristics?

1. Photodiode
2. Tunnel diode
3. Varactor diode
4. Zener diode
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 44 The definition of synchronous reactance is:

1. reactance either due to armature reaction or leakage flux
2. reactance due to armature reaction of the machine
3. reactance due to leakage flux
4. combined reactance due to leakage flux and armature reaction
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 45 Find the making current for a circuit breaker rated at 1000 A, 3000 MVA, 66 kV, 3 sec, 3 – phase, oil
circuit breaker
1. 86.92 kA
2. 66.92 kA
3. 58.62 kA
4. 76.52 kA
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 46 Normally which of the following has a negative temperature coefficient?

1. Thermistor
2. Nickel
3. Copper
4. Platinum
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 1

Que. 47

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When an induction machine is allowed to run above synchronous speed, then this characteristic exactly
matches which of the following options?
1. Synchronous motor
2. Induction motor
3. Induction generator
4. DC motor
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 48 The transfer function for the state variable representation

X’ = AX + Bu, Y = CX + Du, is given by
1. D + C (SI - A)-1 B
2. B (SI - A)-1 C + D
3. D (SI - A)-1 B + C
4. C (SI - A)-1 D + B
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 1

Que. 49 A unity feed-back system has open-loop transfer function G (s) H (s) = K

s(s+4)(s+16)

Its root locus plot intersects the jω axis at

1. ± j2
2. ± j4
3. ± j8
4. does not intersect the jω axis
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 50 The harmonic restrained relay is used as protection for transformers having:
1. high fault settings and low operating speeds
2. low fault setting and high operating speeds
3. high fault setting and high operating speeds
4. low fault setting and low operating speeds
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 51 The sequence components of the fault current are as follows: Ipositive = j 1.5 pu, Inegative = - j 0.5 pu,
Izero = -j1pu. The type of fault in the system is
1. LG
2. LL
3. LLG
4. LLLG
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 52 A reactance relay is also known as:

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1. Directional restrained overcurrent relay

2. Directional restrained directional relay
3. Voltage restrained directional relay
4. Voltage restrained overcurrent relay
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 1

Que. 53 The initial slope of the Bode plot gives an indication of

1. type of the system
2. nature of the system time response
3. system stability
4. order of the system
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 1

Que. 54 For a total harmonic distortion of 0.1 with I1 = 4A and Rc = 8Ω, calculate total power
1. 50 W
2. 70 W
3. 64.64 W
4. 55.55 W
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 55 −1 2 0
The system Ẋ = AX + Bu with A = [ ], B = [ ]  is
0 2 1

1. Stable and controllable

2. Stable but uncontrollable
3. Unstable but controllable
4. Unstable and uncontrollable 
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 56 The BCD code for decimal 325 is

1. 0011 0010 0101
2. 1101 1010 1100
3. 1111 1010 1101
4. 1100 1010 1101
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 1

Que. 57 For a class B amplifier, using a supply voltage of VCC = 30 V and driving a load of 12 Ω, calculate the
transistor dissipation.
1. 12 W
2. 10 W
3. 5 W
4. 8 W
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 4

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Que. 58 Breakdown is permanent in:

1. solids
2. gases
3. vapours
4. liquids
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 1

Que. 59 In which condition does the voltage source inverter give better performance?
1. Both load and source inductances are less
2. Both load and source inductances are high
3. Load inductance is high and source inductance is less
4. Load inductance is less and source inductance is high
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 60 Conservation of charge law is applied on:

1. Kirchhoff’s Current Law
2. Faraday’s Law
3. Lenz’s Law
4. Kirchhoff’s Voltage Law
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 1

Que. 61 The lag compensator

1. improves both steady state and transient response
2. improves steady state only
3. improves transient only
4. improves steady state and reduced speed of transient response
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 62 In control systems, the type of system depends on the number of:
1. Zero at infinity
2. poles on S plane
3. Poles at infinity
4. Poles at origin of S plane
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 63 Economic size of conductor is decided by _______.

1. Kirchhoff's law
2. Kelvin's law
3. Ampere's law
4. Faraday's law

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Testbook Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 64 In a PMMC type instrument, which type of damping is employed?

1. Fluid friction damping
2. Eddy current damping
3. Air friction damping
4. No damping
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 65 In a control system, the bandwidth of a system roughly measures:

1. Phase crossover frequency
2. Undamped natural frequency
3. Resonant frequency
4. Gain crossover frequency
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 66 The slope of Bode gain plot of transfer function ks

 between ω = 1 and ω = 10 is:
(s+1)(s+10)

1. -20 dB/decade
2. zero
3. -40 dB/decade
4. +20 dB/decade
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 67 If four 10 μF capacitors are connected in parallel, the net capacitance will be:
1. 30 μF
2. 40 μF
3. 20 μF
4. 2.5 μF
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 68 The circuit shown in the given figure is equivalent to a load of

1. 4/3 Ω
2. 8/3 Ω
3. 4Ω

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4. 2 Ω
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 69 The time which elapses between the instant when the actuating quantity exceeds the pickup value and
the instant when the relay contacts close is called:
1. breaker time 
2. reset time
3. operating time
4. present time
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 70 Power dissipation is negligibly small in:

1. SCR
2. BJT
3. MOSFET
4. CMOS
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 71 In a forward biased region of a pn junction diode

1. the diode current increases exponentially with decrease in voltage
2. the diode current decreases exponentially with increase in voltage
3. the diode current increases exponentially with increase in voltage
4. the diode current decreases exponentially with decrease in voltage
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 72 In the given circuit for R1 = 200 kΩ and Rf = 500 kΩ, the output voltage V0 for V1 =2 will be:

1. -10V 
2. +5 V
3. -5V
4. +10 V
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 73 A filter circuit which transmits all the frequencies without any attenuation, but provides some phase
shift between input and output signals is called:
1. Low pass filter

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2. High pass filter

3. Band pas filter
4. All pass filter
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 74 The main requirements of the insulating materials used for cables is:
1. low insulation resistance
2. hygroscopicity
3. tenacity
4. less elasticity
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 75 In a 3-phase inverter fed induction motor drive, the total harmonic distortion is 4 %. If the maximum
value of fundamental component of load current is 4 A, the rms value of net harmonic current is
1. 0.08 A
2. 0.08√2 A
3. 0.16 A
4. 0.16√2 A
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 76 1-ϕ transformer at no load has a core loss of 75 W and current of 5 A (RMS) and has an induced EMF
of 230 V (RMS) Determine the magnetising current and core loss current respectively.
1. 10 A; 0.5 A
2. 5 A; 0.326 A
3. 0.326 A; 5 A
4. 0.5 A; 10 A
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 77 ACSR conductors have ________.

1. all conductors made of aluminium
2. outer conductors made of aluminum
3. inner conductors made of aluminium
4. no conductors made of aluminium
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 78 The active and reactive power of an inductive circuit are 60 W and 80 VAR respectively. The power
factor of the circuit is
1. 0.8 lag
2. 0.5 lag
3. 0.6 lag
4. 0.75 lag
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 3

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Que. 79 The ratio of maximum demand on the power station to the rated capacity of the power station is called:
1. demand factor
2. utilisation factor
3. plant use factor
4. diversity factor
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 80 In the case of transformers, the increase in temperature is directly proportional to:
1. power factor
2. apparent power
3. leakage reactance
4. reactive power
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 81 For protection of rotating machines against lightning surges __________ is used.
1. lightning arrester
2. capacitor
3. combination of lightning arrester and capacitor
4. lightning conductor and arrester
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 82 In a control system, the response is critically damped if:

1. Damping factor is 1
2. Damping factor is > 1
3. Damping factor is < 1
4. Damping factor is 0
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 1

Que. 83 A transformer has an efficiency of 85% and works on 100V, 4 kVA. If the secondary voltage is 200 V
then primary current is:
1. 10 A
2. 40 A
3. 20 A
4. 30 A
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 84 An astable multivibrator has:

1. one quasi-stable state
2. two quasi-stable states
3. one stable states
4. two stable states

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Testbook Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 85 Which of the following is the correct comment on stability based on unknown k for the feedback
system with characteristic s4 + 2ks3 + s2 + 5s + 5 = 0?
1. Unstable for all the values of k
2. Stable for zero value of k
3. Stable for positive value of k
4. Stable for all the values of k
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 1

Que. 86 At t = 0+ an inductor with zero initial condition acts as a/an

1. short circuit with voltage reflected back
2. open circuit with current reflected back
3. open circuit with voltage reflected back
4. short circuit with current reflected back
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 87 RMS value of voltage v(t) = 8 + 6 cos(3t) is

1. 10 V
2. √82 V
3. (2√2 + √6) V
4. V
6

√2

Testbook Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 88 A single phase energy meter is operating on 230 V, 50 Hz supply with a load of 20 A for two hours at
UPF. The meter makes 1380 revolutions in that period. The meter constant is
1. 695 rev/kWh
2. 150 rev/kWh
3. 0.15 rev/kWh
4. 1/150 rev/kWh
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 89 A 50 Hz, 4 Pole, 500 MVA, 22 kV turbo generator is delivering rated MVA at a power factor of 0.8.
Suddenly a fault occurs reducing the electric power output by 40%. Neglect the losses and assume
constant power input to the shaft. The accelerating torque in the generator at the time of fault is
1. 1.528 MNm
2. 1.018 MNm
3. 0.848 MNm
4. 0.509 MNm
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 2

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Que. 90 Admittance is reciprocal of

1. Susceptance
2. Impedance
3. Reactance
4. Conductance
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 91 A separately excited DC motor is energised from a 440 V, 50 Hz, 3 ϕ full converter. The input voltage
to the motor for a firing angle of 45°, in volts, is:
1. 420
2. 297
3. 390
4. 260
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 1

Que. 92 In a 3-phase converter circuit, during commutation when one SCR in one phase is turned on, turning of
an SCR in another phase results is:
1. Voltage sag
2. harmonic distortion
3. voltage notching
4. voltage swell
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 93 The range of a dc milliammeter can be extended by using a

1. Low resistance in series
2. Low resistance shunt
3. High resistance in series
4. High resistance shunt
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 94 The ZPFC characteristics can be obtained by loading the synchronous generator using:
1. synchronous motor
2. DC series motor
3. lamp load
4. DC shunt motor
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 1

Que. 95 A 6 – pole, 50 Hz, 3-phase induction motor is running at 950 rpm and has rotor copper loss of 5 kW. It
rotor input is:
1. 10 kW
2. 95 kW
3. 100 kW

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4. 5.3kW
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 96 Representation of (-20)10 in two’s complement form is: 

1. 101111
2. 110001
3. 101100
4. 101110
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 97 The VCEQ and IEQ for the given network having β = 90 are:

1. 5.09 V; 16.32 mA
2. 16.32 V; 5.09 mA
3. 11.22 V; 4.39 mA
4. 4.39 V; 11.22 V
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 98 The ratio error in current transformer is attributed to:

1. Leakage flux
2. magnetising component of no-load current
3. power factor of the primary
4. energy component of excitation current
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 99 The properties of gases for insulation should be:

1. high dielectric strength only
2. high dielectric strength and thermal stability
3. high thermal stability only
4. high thermal stability and low temperature condensation

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Testbook Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 100 To get minimum harmonic distortion in the output, a 3 – phase to 3 – phase cycloconverter requires:
1. 36 SCRs
2. 72 SCRs
3. 18 SCRs
4. 12 SCRs
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 1

Que. 101 A unity feedback control system has forward path transfer function G (s) = K
.  If the design
s(s+2)

specification is that the steady state error due to unit ramp input is 0.05. The value of gain K will be.
1. 10
2. 20
3. 40
4. 80
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 102 A three-phase synchronous motor draws 200 A from the line at unity power factor at rated load.
Considering the same line voltage and load, the line current at a power factor of 0.5 leading is
1. 100 A
2. 200 A
3. 300 A
4. 400 A
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 103 In an electric machine F2 (rotor mmf) = 920 AT. F1 (stator emf) = 400 AT, alpha = 125° and the
resultant air gap flux per pole is 0.107 Wb. Find out permeance per pole.
Note: AT (Ampere Turn) is a unit.
1. 1.408 × 10-4 Wb/AT
2. 8.408 × 10-4 Wb/AT
3. 2.480 × 10-4 Wb/AT
4. 2.408 × 10-4 Wb/AT
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 1

Que. 104 The equivalent decimal number of (0.4051)8 is:

1. 0.4100028
2. 0.70108
3. 0.6100018
4. 0.5100098
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 4

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Que. 105 What will be the neutralizer inductive reactance in ohms for neutralizing the 90% of line to earth
capacitance of 1 μF at 50 Hz?
1. 1179
2. 1061
3. 1210
4. 950
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 1

Que. 106 In star/delta starting of a 3-phase induction motor, the starting voltage is reduced to:
1. 3 times the normal voltage
2.  times of normal voltage
1

3. 1
 of normal voltage
√3

–
4. √3 times of normal voltage
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 107 A diode whose terminal characteristics are related as Id = Is(eV/ηVT - 1) is biased at Id = 2 mA. Its
dynamic resistance is:
(Given η = 2 and VT = 25 mV)
1. 25 Ω
2. 12.5 Ω
3. 50 Ω
4. 22.5 Ω
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 1

Que. 108 The logic equation of an EX-NOR gate having A and B as its input is:
1. A’B + AB’
2. A’B’ + A’B
3. A’B’ + AB
4. A’B’ + AB’
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 109 Which type of device is JFET?

1. Current controlled device
2. Resistance controlled device
3. Conductance controlled device
4. Voltage controlled device
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 110 Hot reserve is defined as:

1. a reserve generating capacity which is not in service but is in operation
2. a reserve generating capacity which is in service and in operation

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3. a reserve generating capacity which in not in service and not in operation

4. a reserve generating capacity which is in service but not in operation
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 1

Que. 111 Calculate the reading of voltmeter when 110 V 50 Hz is supplied across PMMC voltmeter having
internal resistance 10 kΩ and full-scale range of 0-220 V.
1. 55 V
2. 78 V
3. 110 √2 V
4. 0 V
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 112 The network is said to be under resonance when the voltage and current at the network input
terminals are:
1. in phase quadrature
2. in phase
3. out of phase
4. in phase and have equal magnitude
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 113 Inverted V curve of a synchronous motor represents the relation between:
1. field current and power factor
2. power factor and speed
3. armature current and field current
4. field current and speed
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 1

Que. 114 By conducting Swinburne’s test on a DC machine, which of the following losses can be determined?
1. Friction and windage losses
2. Constant losses
3. Copper losses in both armature and field
4. Armature copper losses
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 115 Which statement is INCORRECT in relation to NYQUIST and BODE analyses?
1. Number of closed-loop poles in the right-half s-plane can be determined using Nyquist Criterion.
2. Bode analysis uses two plots, one for magnitude and another for phase angle
3. Nyquist analysis uses two plots, one for magnitude and another for phase angle
4. Relative stability can be assessed from both Nyquist and Bode analyses
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 116

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The corona loss of a 3-phase transmission line is 100 kW at 60 kV/phase and 25 kW at 50 kV/phase.
The disruptive critical voltage is
1. 40 kV
2. 43.6 kV
3. 49.6 kV
4. 50 kV
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 1

Que. 117 A 4-pole DC motor is lap-wound with 400 conductors. The pole shoe is 20 cm long and the average
flux density over one-pole pitch is 0.4 T, the armature diameter is 30 cm. When the motor is drawing
25 A and running at 1500 rpm, the torque developed will be nearly
1. 30 Nm
2. 40 Nm
3. 50 Nm
4. 60 Nm
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 1

Que. 118 A logic variable in either inverted or non-inverted form is called:

1. minterm
2. literal
3. prime-implicant
4. maxterm
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 119 The voltage drop across a 15 Ω resistor in the circuit is 30 V having the polarity indicated. Find the
value of R.

1. 30 Ω
2. 50 Ω
3. 23 Ω
4. 17.5 Ω
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 120 In BJT when both the junctions are forward biased, then its operating mode is called:

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1. forward active mode

2. cut-off mode
3. saturation mode
4. reverse active mode
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 121 If TEAR is coded as 22-5-3-18, then what is the code for ERGATE?
1. 5-20-9-3-22-5
2. 5-18-9-7-22-5
3. 22-20-20-3-7-7
4. 7-18-9-1-22-5
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 122 Which one of these words will appear third when arranged in alphabetical order as in the English
dictionary?
1. Reign
2. Regent
3. Reinstate
4. Reiterate
5. Riesling
1. Reign
2. Reinstate
3. Reiterate
4. Riesling
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 123 Among five girls in a class, Mia is taller than Tia, Sia is taller than Dia, Dia is taller than Mia and Tia
is taller than Jia. Who among the given girls is the tallest?
1. Mia
2. Tia
3. Dia
4. Sia
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 124 Given below are two statements labelled A and B, followed by two conclusions numbered I and II.
Assuming that the information given in the statements and conclusions are true even if it appears to
be at variance with commonly known facts, select the conclusion(s) that logically and definitely follow(s) from
the two given statements.
Statement A: All mugs are cups
Statement B: Some cups are bowls
Conclusion I: Some bowls are cups
Conclusion II: Some bowls are mugs
1. Both the conclusions follow.

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2. Only conclusion I follows.

3. Neither conclusion follows.
4. Only conclusion II follows.
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 125 The pie-chart below shows the favourite snacks of 300 students of a school. Study the given
information and answer the question that follows.

How many students like pizza?

1. 75
2. 90
3. 60
4. 45
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 1

Que. 126 Five friends, Navya, Atharva, Sakshi, Pranita and Drishtant, were sitting around a circular table
facing the centre of the table. Drishtant was sitting next to neither Navya nor Sakshi. Sakshi had
Pranita sitting to her immediate left. Who among the following was sitting to Navya’s immediate right?
1. Sakshi
2. Atharva
3. Pranita
4. Drishtant
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 127 Ganesh went from his hometown to his grandfather’s village. He started his journey facing west.
First, he went 15 km straight. Then he turned to his left and went 23 km. finally, he turned right and
walked 7 km to reach his grandfather’s village.
In which direction is Ganesh’s hometown located with respect to his grandfather’ village?
1. South-west
2. South-east
3. North-east
4. North-west

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Testbook Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 128 A merchant bought 3 dozen trousers and 3 dozen shirts for Rs. 27,000. The cost of 2 trousers was the
same as the cost of 3 shirts. At what price should he sell each shirt and trouser to make a profit of
10% on each item?
1. Shirt at Rs. 300; trousers at Rs. 445
2. Shirt at Rs. 350; trousers at Rs. 510
3. Shirt at Rs. 330; trousers at Rs. 495
4. Shirt at Rs. 270; trousers at Rs. 405
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 129 The table below presents the data of 6 children’ performances in a mid-term examination. The
maximum marks for each subject are 100. Study the given information and answer the question that
follows.
Marks scored by students of a class

Students
Subjects
Abraham Basant Chinmay Dua Ela Fauzia
Physics 87 97 93 74 61 79
Chemistry 68 63 95 73 41 63
Biology 83 91 66 56 69 55
Mathematics 56 65 42 68 56 99
IT 91 91 93 98 81 85
English 84 63 74 82 74 68
 
Who among the given students scored the highest marks in all the subjects taken together?
1. Abraham
2. Dua
3. Fauzia
4. Basant
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 130 Which one of the pairs of words given in the options shares the same relation as the pair given below
does?
Asia : Malaysia
1. Iceland : Arctic
2. Europe : Frankfurt
3. Greece : Rome
4. Africa : Kenya
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 131

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The pie-chart below shows the favourite snacks of 300 students of a school. Study the given information and
answer the question that follows.

How many more children like noodles and pasta put together than those who like sandwich and patties put
together?
1. 75
2. 60
3. 45
4. 90
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 1

Que. 132 Select the term that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the
first term.
Cynophobia : Dogs : : Arachnophobia : ?
1. Cats
2. Snakes
3. Lizards
4. Spiders
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 133 Ramniklal purchased a piece of agricultural land for Rs. 51 lakh. He spent Rs. 2 lakh on converting
the land into non-agricultural use, Rs. 2 lakh for registration and stamp duty and Rs. 1 lakh towards
administrative expenses. Then, he divided the plot into 8 equal plots and sold each plot at a value of Rs. 10.5
lakh. What was the percentage profit that Ramniklal made in the entire transaction?
1. 25% profit
2. 33.3% profit
3. 50% profit
4. 20% profit
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 134 The pie-chart below shows the favourite snacks of 300 students of a school. Study the given
information and answer the question that follows.

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What is the number of students who like sandwiches, patties and burgers - all put together?
1. 105
2. 45
3. 90
4. 75
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 1

Que. 135 Raheem bought 5 mangoes for a certain amount of money. He bought 8 apples with an equal amount
of money. What is the ratio of the price of a mango of that of an apple?
1. 13 : 5
2. 8 : 5
3. 5 : 13
4. 5 : 8
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 136 Given below are two statements labelled A and B, followed by two conclusions numbered I and II.
Assuming that the information given in the statements and conclusions are true even if it appears to
be at variance with commonly known facts, select the conclusion(s) that logically and definitely follow(s) from
the two given statements.
Statement A: Only postgraduates are managers.
Statement B: No engineer is a manager.
Conclusion I: Some managers are engineers.
Conclusion II: All managers are postgraduates.
1. Both the conclusions follow.
2. Only conclusion I follows.
3. Only conclusion II follows.
4. Neither conclusion follows.
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 137 Select the option that will fill in the blank and complete the series correctly.

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B, C, E, H, L, Q, _____
1. W
2. U
3. X
4. V
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 1

Que. 138 In a horizontal row of 39 students facing north, Chandu is 19th from the right end of the row. There
are 14 students between chandu and Deepa.
What is the position of Deepa from the left end of the row?
1. 9th position
2. 34th position
3. 35th position
4. 6th position
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 139 Select the term that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the
first term.
Beatitude : Happiness : Tranquil : ?
1. Serene
2. Vindictive
3. Perplex
4. Stormy
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 1

Que. 140 Given below are two statements followed by some conclusions. You have to take the given statements
to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of
the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the given statements.
Statements:
I. All hats are caps
II. All caps are crowns
Conclusions:
I. Some caps are hats.
II. All caps are hats.
III. Some crowns are hats.
IV. All crowns are hats.
1. Conclusions II and IV follow
2. Only conclusion I follows
3. Only conclusion III follows
4. Conclusions I and III follow
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 4

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Que. 141 Select the option that will fill in the blank and complete the series correctly.
BC, NO, FG, RS, JK, ____
1. UV
2. WX
3. VW
4. WV
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 142 Consider the given statement and decide which of the given assumptions is/are implicit in the
statement.
Statement: Expressing concerns over rising oil prices, the CEO of Bhoodevi Corp, the world’s largest crude oil
company, has demanded that the United Nations should lift sanctions against several countries in the middle-east
Asia immediately.
Assumption I: The CEO is pained by the humanitarian crisis in the region.
Assumption II: The sanction is affecting the business interests of the company negatively.
1. Both the assumptions are implicit
2. Neither assumption is implicit
3. Only assumption II is implicit
4. Only assumption I is implicit
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 143 The pie-chart below shows the favourite snacks of 300 students of a school. Study the given
information and answer the question that follows.

How many students like burgers?

1. 75
2. 60
3. 90
4. 45
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 2

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Que. 144 In a blindfold game, Suresh was blindfolded and made to turn several times. In the beginning, he was
facing east. Then he turned 45° in the clock-wise direction. Then he turned 135° in the anticlockwise
direction. Finally, he turned 45° to his left and stopped. Which direction was Suresh facing in the end?
1. North-east
2. North-west
3. South-east
4. South-west
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 145 Select the term that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the
first term.
Statesman: Politics : : Cleric : ?
1. Accounts
2. Law
3. Magic
4. Religion
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 146 The table below presents the data of 6 children’ performances in a mid-term examination. The
maximum marks for each subject are 100. Study the given information and answer the question that
follows.
Marks scored by students of a class
  Students
Subjects Abraham Basant Chinmay Dua Ela Fauzia
Physics 87 97 93 74 61 79
Chemistry 68 63 95 73 41 63
Biology 83 91 66 56 69 55
Mathematics 56 65 42 68 56 99
IT 91 91 93 98 81 85
English 84 63 74 82 74 68
 
In which subject did most of the students score more than 75%?
1. IT
2. Physics
3. Maths
4. English
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 1

Que. 147 Read the information given below and answer the question that follows by choosing the most
appropriate option.

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Eight friends, Aditya, Barkha, Candy, Dhram, Ekta, Fehmida, Geeta and Heena, are sitting around a circular
table, all facing away from the centre of the table. All positions are at equal distance from each other.
Dharam is third to the left of Fehmida.
Ekta and Geeta always sit immediately next to each other.
Heena is third to the right of Geeta
Aditya sits to the immediate left of Candy
Fehmida is second to the right of Barkha
Candy sits immediately next to neither Fehmida nor Dharam
Who is sitting second to the left of Ekta?
1. Dharam
2. Barkha
3. Candy
4. Aditya
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 148 Which one of the pairs of words given in the options shares the same relation as the pair given below
does?
Brave : Coward
1. Frugal : Greedy
2. Generous : Stingy
3. Loud : Raucous
4. Blatant : Outright
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 149 Vanita distributed a certain amount of money among her three children, Geta, Lalita and Babita, in the
ratio of 5 : 4 : 3 respectively. If Lalita’s share was Rs. 24,000, what was the total amount that Vanita
distributed?
1. Rs. 84,000
2. Rs. 72,000
3. Rs. 56,000
4. Rs. 48,000
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 150 The total weight of a group of 5 friends is 55 kg. They are joined by Bheem, a new friend, and the
average weight of the new group becomes 12 kg. what is Bheem’s weight in kg?
1. 18 kg
2. 15 kg
3. 14 kg
4. 17 kg
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 151 In the following diagram, the rectangle represents students who like to play football, the circle
represents students who like to play cricket, and the triangle represents students who like to play

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baseball.
How many students like to play either baseball or football or both but do NOT like to play cricket?

1. 39
2. 12
3. 51
4. 58
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 152 The table below presents the data of 6 children’s performances in a mid-term examination. The
maximum marks for each subject are 100. Study the given information and answer the question that
follows.
Marks scored by students of a class
Students
Subjects
Abraham Basant Chinmay Dua Ela Fauzia
Physics 87 97 93 74 61 79
Chemistry 68 63 95 73 41 63
Biology 83 91 66 56 69 55
Mathematics 56 65 42 68 56 99
IT 91 91 93 98 81 85
English 84 63 74 82 74 68
 
What is the difference between the total scores of Abraham and Chinmay?
1. 3 marks
2. 9 marks
3. 15 marks
4. 6 marks
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 153 Select the option that correctly represents the relationship between the classes given below.
Crocodiles, Turtles, Reptiles

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1.

2.

3.

4.

Testbook Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 154 The table below presents the data of 6 children’s performances in a mid-term examination. The
maximum for each subject are 100. Study the given information and answer the question that follows.
Marks scored by students of a class

Students
Subjects
Abraham Basant Chinmay Dua Ela Fauzia

Physics 87 97 93 74 61 79

Chemistry 68 63 95 73 41 63

Biology 83 91 66 56 69 55

Mathematics 56 65 42 68 56 99

IT 91 91 93 98 81 85

English 84 63 74 82 74 68
 
All the students except one scored the highest marks in at least one individual subject. Who among the following
students did NOT score the highest marks in any of the given subjects?
1. Fauzia
2. Chinmay
3. Dua
4. Ela
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 155 Given below are two statements labelled A and B, followed by two conclusions numbered I and II.
Assuming that the information given in the statements and conclusions are true, even if it appears to

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be at variance with commonly known facts, select the conclusion(s) that logically and definitely follow(s) from
the two given statements.
Statement A: All butterflies are fireflies.
Statement B: All fireflies are crickets.
Conclusion I: Some crickets are fireflies.
Conclusion II: Some crickets are butterflies.
1. Neither conclusion follows.
2. Both the conclusion follow.
3. Only conclusion II follows.
4. Only conclusion I follows.
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 156 In a code language, MASTER is written as NZTSFQ, and FRIEND is written as GQJDOC. How will
ADRIFT be written in that code language?
1. ZESHEU
2. BCSHGS
3. BCQJGS
4. ZEQJGS
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 157 The ages of three brothers are three consecutive odd numbers, the sum of which is 69. Which one of
the following numbers is NOT the age of any of the three brothers?
1. 27
2. 25
3. 21
4. 23
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 1

Que. 158 If DO = 35 and NOD = 48, then what is DEMON equal to?
1. 79
2. 51
3. 66
4. 84
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 159 Select the number that is different from the rest.
5, 23, 3, 2, 7, 11, 6, 17, 29
1. 29
2. 2
3. 6
4. 5
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 3

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Que. 160 Select the odd one from the options

1. Bouquet
2. Marigold
3. Hibiscus
4. Tulip
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 1

Que. 161 Read the information given below and answer the questions that follow by choosing the most
appropriate option.
Eight friends, Aditya, Barkha, Candy, Dharam, Ekta, Fehmida, Geeta and Heena, are sitting around a circular
table, all facing away from the centre of the table. All positions are at equal distance from each other.
Dharam is third to the left of Fehmida.
Ekta and Geeta always sits immediately next to each other.
Heena is third to the right of Geeta.
Aditya sits to the immediate left of Candy.
Fehmida is second to the right of Barkha.
Candy sits immediately next to neither Fehmida nor Dharam.
In which of the following pairs is the first person sitting to the immediate left of the second person?
1. Ekta, Candy
2. Heena, Barkha
3. Dharam, Geeta
4. Fehmida, Aditya
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 162 Kanishk runs faster than Garvit. Harpreet runs faster than Tapsee. Which of the following statements
is required (and sufficient) to conclude who among these friends runs the fastest?
1. Garvit runs faster than Harpreet.
2. Harpreet runs faster than Garvit.
3. Kanishk runs faster than Tapsee.
4. Tapsee runs faster than Garvit.
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 1

Que. 163 The pie-chart below shows the favourite snacks of 300 students of a school. Study the given
information and answer the question that follows.

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What percentage of students like patties?

1. 15
2. 10
3. 30
4. 20
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 164 Which one of the pairs of words given in the options shares the same relation as the pair given below
does?
Ophthalmology : Eye
1. Pulmonology: Stomach
2. Oncology : Teeth
3. Dermatology : Children
4. Nephrology : Kidney
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 165 Which one of the number pairs given in the options is similar to the one given below?
13 : 169
1. 9 : 90
2. 17 : 289
3. 12 : 121
4. 15 : 625
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 166 The sum of the ages of a girl and her father is 56 years. Three years ago, the father’s age was four
times the daughter’s then age. What is the daughter’s present age?
1. 12 years
2. 13 years
3. Cannot be determined
4. 14 years

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Testbook Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 167 Given below are two statements followed by conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be
true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the
given conclusions logically follow(s) from the given statements.
Statements:
I. Some flowers are fruits.
II. All fruits are roots.
Conclusions:
I. All roots are fruits.
II. Some roots are flowers.
1. Both I and II follow
2. Only conclusion II follows
3. Neither I nor II follows
4. Only conclusion I follows
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 168 In a code language, ‘huki mil ist’ means ‘bird can fly’; ‘kun tid huki’ means ‘eye of bird’; ‘kun tid
min’ means ‘eye of fish’; ‘jed sil ist’ means ‘frog can swim’; and ‘jed mil ist’ means ‘frog can fly’.
Which one of the following statements in that code language would mean ‘fish can swim’?
1. Jed tid min
2. min tid est
3. min kun tid
4. min sil ist
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 169 Muskaan points towards Jason and says, “He is my father’s sister’s husband’s mother-in-law’s only
daughter-in-law’s father.”
How is Muskaan related to Jason?
1. Daughter
2. Mother
3. Grand-daughter
4. Sister
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 170 Select the option that correctly represents the relationship between the classes given below.
Telephone, Communication Devices, Cordless phone
1.

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2.

3.

4.

Testbook Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 171 Under which article of the Constitution of India does the Supreme Court have the power to punish for
contempt of itself?
1. Article 129
2. Article 137
3. Article 126
4. Article 144
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 1

Que. 172 What is the highest rate of Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) that can be specified by the Reserve Bank
of India for the banks?
1. 35%
2. 45%
3. 40%
4. 30%
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 173 Who was the first Indian woman to win an Olympic medal?
1. PT Usha
2. Mary Kom
3. Anju Bobby George
4. Karnam Malleswari
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 174 Which Indian film has won the Best Cinematography award at Beijing International Flim Festival,
2019?
1. Nagar Kirtan
2. Bhayanakam
3. Baahubali 2
4. Village Rockstars

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Testbook Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 175 Gurjara-Prathiharas originally came to the Indian subcontinent from:

1. Mongolia
2. Western Asia
3. Central Asia
4. Arabia
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 176 What are the tiny pores present on the surface of leaves known as?
1. Cytoplasm
2. Mitochondria
3. Nucleus
4. Stomata
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 177 Which of the following schemes of West Bengal government has won the prestigious World Summit
on the Information Society (WSIS) awards of the United Nations in 2019?
(A) Khadya Sathi
(B) Utkarsh Bangla
(C) Shikshashree
(D) Sabooj Sathi
1. C and D
2. A and C
3. A and B
4. B and D
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 178 With which sport is eminent sportsperson Chanu Saikhom Mirabai associated?
1. Shooting
2. Wrestling
3. Table tennis
4. Weightlifting
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 179 What is India's rank in the World Press Freedom Index, 2019, out of 180 countries in the annual
Reporters Without Borders analysis?
1. 110th
2. 130th
3. 140th
4. 120th
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 3

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Que. 180 Who among the following give assent to a bill passed by the State Legislature under Article 200 of
the Constitution of India?
1. The Governor
2. The Chief Minister
3. The Prime Minister
4. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 1

Que. 181 Which was the biggest export item of India in terms of value in the year 2018?
1. Pearl, precious and semi-precious stones
2. Petroleum products
3. RMG cotton including accessories
4. Gold and other precious metal jewellery
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 182 Awadh was one of the last territories to be annexed by British. In 1801, a subsidiary alliance was
imposed on Awadh and in _______, it was taken over.
1. 1858
2. 1802
3. 1856
4. 1811
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 183 Which among the following states of India shares an international border with Nepal?
1. Bihar
2. Madhya Pradesh
3. Jharkhand
4. Rajasthan
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 1

Que. 184 In which mode of nutrition, organisms make food themselves from simple substances?
1. Dextrophic
2. Hetrotrophic
3. Autotrophic
4. Ambitrophic
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 185 Rajasthan enjoys virtual monopoly in the production of which of the following minerals?
1. Manganese
2. Copper
3. Iron ore

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4. Zinc
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 186 In which state is the Nokrek National Park located?

1. Tripura
2. Manipur
3. Assam
4. Meghalaya
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 187 In which city did famous Sufi saint Muin-ud-din Chisthi live most of his life?
1. Aligarh
2. Delhi
3. Ajmer
4. Lucknow
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 188 Which of the following is a unicellular organism?

1. Ant
2. Sea-anemone
3. Yeast
4. Hydra
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 189 Which of the following Indian wrestlers has won a gold medal at the Asian Wrestling Championships
2019 in China?
1. Rahul Aware
2. Praveen Rana
3. Amit Dhankar
4. Bajrang Punia
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 190 Before giving decision on questions as to disqualifications of Members of Parliament under Article
103 of the Consitution of India, the President obtains the opinion of:
1. the supreme Court
2. the Attorney-General
3. the Election Commission
4. the Prime Minister
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 191 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

1. Simulteneous

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2. Silhouette
3. Significant
4. Situated
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 1

Que. 192 Directions: Fill in the blank with the most appropriate option.
If you want to go on a holiday in summer, you _____ the bookings done at least two months in
advance.
1. had better get
2. have to better get
3. better get
4. had better got
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 1

Que. 193 Select the option that best gives the meaning of the underlined word.
He is absolutely the person you are looking for because I know him to be a very scrupulous young
man.
1. Conceited
2. Enthusiastic
3. Conscientious
4. Responsible
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 194 Select the option in which the usage of the given word is INCORRECT or INAPPROPRIATE.
Court
1. He has been courting Eliza for six months.
2. Don't worry. He will come as a matter of court.
3. The prisoner was brought to court for trial.
4. The court went into mourning when the king's uncle died.
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 195 Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the right
order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.
A. The nuns gather for a two-hour session for prayer and meditation.
B. In Mother's House, the day begins at 4.30 am.
C. There is an enormous amount of washing to be done.
D. Then they get to work.
1. DCBA
2. DBAC
3. BDCA
4. BADC
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 4

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Que. 196 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

1. Extraneous
2. Exuberance
3. Extinguish
4. Extravagence
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 197 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.
Reprobation
1. Commendation
2. Sanction
3. Condemnation
4. Ratification
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 198 Select the option which is NOT an antonym of another word by way of adding the prefix 'in-'.
1. Infinite
2. Indigestion
3. Initiative
4. Infertile
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 199 Select the option in which the usage of the given word is INCORRECT or INAPPROPRIATE.
Figure
1. We are figuring a strong team in the next tournament.
2. A day after the tragedy the figures for the dead and missing kept rising.
3. The blackboard was covered with geometrical figures.
4. A six-figure salary was unimaginable a couple of decades ago.
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 1

Que. 200 Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the right
order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.
A. This was a huge and unfriendly swordfish.
B. A terrifying visitor arrived one day later in the voyage.
C. It followed the raft for twelve hours and sometimes bumped against it.
D. If it had really attacked the rubber raft, that would have been the end of our experiment.
1. BCAD
2. ABCD
3. CDAB
4. BACD
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 4

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Que. 201 Select the option that best gives the meaning of the underlined word.
He has such an inquisitive mind that he annoys people by his constant questioning.
1. Complex
2. Mature
3. Curious
4. Brilliant
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 202 Fill in the blank with the most appropriate option.
The CM was pleased to announce that the elevated corridor _______ by the end of last year.
1. was building
2. has been building
3. had been built
4. is being built
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 203 Select the most appropriate option to complete the sentence.
He shouted ______ the top of his voice, but nobody heard him.
1. on
2. upon
3. with
4. at
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 204 Sentences of a paragraph are given below. While the first and the last sentences are in correct
order, the sentences in between are jumbled up. Arrange the sentences in the right order to
form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.
A. Cyclone Idai hit southern Africa over a month ago, yet the death toll from the storm continues to grow.
B. Officials say that more than 1,000 people have been reported dead in Mozambique, Zimbabwe and Malawi in
its aftermath.
C. Damage assessments are still being conducted in all three countries, but the recovery costs could add up to
more than $2 billion.
D. Thousands of others were injured and millions more affected.
E. There is also big concern over diseases in the flooded areas.
F. The World Health Organization announced a vaccination campaign to combat a cholera outbreak in
Mozambique.
1. CBED
2. DCBE
3. BECD
4. BDCE
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 205 Fill in the blank with the most appropriate option.

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_______ you start preparing for your exams which starts next month.
1. There is a time
2. There's time
3. It's time
4. It's the time
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 206 Fill in the blank with the most appropriate option.
See, how time flies! She has already grown ______ her tricycle.
1. down on
2. up off
3. out of
4. away from
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 207 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.
Enthusiasm
1. Indifference
2. Fervour
3. Eagerness
4. Nervousness
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 1

Que. 208 Select the option in which the usage of the given word is INCORRECT or INAPPROPRIATE.
File
1. He was filed for not returning the book on time.
2. We will walk in a single file on this narrow path.
3. When I met her last, she was filing her nails.
4. I searched for my personal file but couldn't find it.
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 1

Que. 209 Select the option which is NOT an antonym of another word by way of adding the prefix 'dis-'.
1. Discolour
2. Discrepancy
3. Disagree
4. Discredit
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 210 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.
Baleful
1. Rude

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2. Deadly
3. Promising
4. Auspicious
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 211 Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the right
order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.
A. Mars, I knew, was smaller than Earth and probably much older.
B. My astronomer friends also speculated on these strange meteors.
C. I was interested in Mars, interested enough to observe the planet often through the telescope.
D. One night in the observatory, I noticed a small pinpoint of light leave our neighbouring planet.
E. Later I saw three more shooting off into space. 
1. DEACB
2. CADEB
3. CBDAE
4. BCEAD
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 212 Fill in the blank with the most appropriate option.

Trisha remained in the good books of the Headmaster ________ she did what he wanted.
1. so that
2. as long as
3. even though
4. while
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 213 Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the right
order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.
A. A four-year-old girl from Arkansas was on a church bus when the bus door opened.
B. A volunteer firefighter was driving behind the bus.
C. She fell out onto the highway.
D. He would not normally do this, but there was a lot of traffic.
E. He quickly came to the girl and picked her up. 
1. ACEBD
2. BDEAC
3. ACBED
4. BEDAC
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 214 Sentences of a paragraph are given below. While the first and the last sentences are in correct
order, the sentences in between are jumbled up. Arrange the sentences in the right order to
form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.
A. On sunday morning, at least eight explosions in Sri Lanka killed more than 300 people and injured 500.

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B. Sri Lankan officials previously accused a local Islamist militant group, but now people believe that multiple
organisations are behind the deadly bombings.
C. Both locals and foreigners fell victim to the bombings which mark the country' worst violence since the end of
the Sri Lankan Civil War in 2009.
D. Sri Lanka's defense minister said that the explosions might have been in retaliation to the shootings at two
mosques in New Zealand last month.
E. ISIS claimed responsibility for the bombings via its Amaq news agency, but it did not provide any evidence.
F. According to the Associated Press, the Sri Lankan security agencies had previous warning of a suicide
attack.
1. DBCE
2. BECD
3. CBED
4. CDEB
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 215 Fill in the blank with the most appropriate option.
__________ his son sends money, Gopal Prasad cannot buy clothes for the winter.
1. If
2. Still
3. Because
4. Unless
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 216 Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the right
order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

A. It was faster because the current carried me along.

B. On land I picked my way, careful to watch where I put my feet.
C. Whenever I could get a good view ahead, I risked swimming.
D. ''If you tread on a crab'', I had told myself, ''you're done for.''
E. The river that I was following in the jungle was widening.
1. DBEAC
2. CDBEA
3. EACDB
4. ECABD
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 217 Select the most appropriate option to complete the sentence.
Scarcely had I reached the roof to set the antenna right ______ it started raining.
1. when
2. till
3. than
4. before

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Testbook Solution Correct Option - 1

Que. 218 Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the right
order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.
A. The guide warned us that we would have to climb 937 steps to reach the top of the ancient tower.
B. We occasionally passed small windows cut into the wall.
C. At first we started counting the steps ourselves, but we soon lost patience.
D. As these gave little light, we felt as if we were going round and round a dark tunnel.
1. ABCD
2. ADBC
3. ACDB
4. ACBD
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 219 Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the right
order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.
A. Every year autumn and early winter, birds travel from cold northern regions to warm southern lands.
B. They make the return journey again during spring and early summer.
C. They are very punctual too, unless they are delayed by bad weather.
D. One of the greatest mysteries of birdlife is migration or travelling.
1. DCBA
2. ACBD
3. DABC
4. ABCD
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 220 Select the correctly spelt word.

1. quadrilatral
2. quadrilateral
3. quadreleteral
4. qadrilateral
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 221 Select the option in which the usage of the given word is INCORRECT or INAPPROPRIATE.
Control
1. To keep the population in check, birth control methods need to be implemented.
2. Why are you losing control of yourself over this petty matter?
3. We can do nothing except let control take its own course.
4. The pilot began panicking when the controls of the aircraft failed to function.
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 222 Select the correctly spelt word.

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1. Heinous
2. Heineous
3. Henous
4. Heinuous
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 1

Que. 223 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.
Fortitude
1. Apathy
2. Graciousness
3. Courage
4. Lethargy
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 224 Fill in the blank with the most appropriate option.
They have been constructing their house _______ six months now.
1. for
2. from
3. by
4. since
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 1

Que. 225 Select the correctly spelt word.

1. Schitzophrenia
2. Schizofrenia
3. Scizophrenia
4. Schizophrenia
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 226 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.
Distraught
1. Disconnected
2. Disinterested
3. Disciplined
4. Distressed
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 227 Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the right
order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.
A. There was a great deal of trouble in the city the other day.
B. It walked across the public gardens and through a busy street.
C. Then it entered a mall and hid in a shop.

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D. A leopard got out of the forest and came into the town on its own.
1. ABCD
2. ACBD
3. ACDB
4. ADBC
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 228 Select the option in which the usage of the given word is INCORRECT or INAPPROPRIATE.
Expense
1. A man of your expense should do well in life.
2. He became a good scholar, but only at the expense of his health.
3. We had a good laugh at his expense.
4. Most children in India are educated at public expense.
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 1

Que. 229 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.
Incorrigible
1. Legible
2. Irreparable
3. Legal
4. Reformable
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 230 Fill in the blank with the most appropriate option.
The secretary dispensed _______ the services of the dishonest assistant.
1. with
2. of
3. away
4. by
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 1

Que. 231 Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
Americans alone are responsible for producing a whopping 220 million tonnes of waste a year. This
number is far more than any other nation in the world. Because of this fact, both the government and
environmental associations have developed numerous methods of dealing with the problem. Waste management
is that solution. It is collection, transportation, and disposal of garbage, sewage and other waste products.
Waste management offers a variety of solutions for recycling items that don’t belong to trash. It is about how
garbage can be used as a valuable resource. Waste management is something that each and every household and
business owner in the world needs. Waste management disposes of the products and substances that you have
used in a safe and efficient manner.
The easier method of waste management is to reduce the creation of waste materials thereby the amount of waste
going to landfills. Waste reduction can be done through recycling old materials like jars, bags, repairing broken
items instead of buying new ones, and avoiding the use of disposable products like plastic bags and reusing
second-hand items.

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Recycling and compositing are a couple of best methods of waste management. Composting is so far only
possible in areas where waste can be mixed with farming soil or used for landscaping purposes. Recycling is
widely used around the world, with plastic, paper, and metal leading the list of the most recyclable items.
There are certain waste types that are considered hazardous and cannot be disposed of without special handling
which will prevent contamination from occurring. Biomedical waste is one example of such. This is found in
health care facilities and similar institutions. The special waste disposal system for this unit is in place to dispose
of this type of waste.

Which of the following gives a comprehensive definition of waste management?

1. Waste management is recycling items that don't belong to the trash
2. Waste management is disposing of the used products and substances in a safe and efficient manner.
3. Waste management is collection, transportation and disposal of garbage, sewage and other waste
products.
4. Waste management is reducing creation of waste materials.
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 232 Which statement is NOT true according to the passage?

1. Specialised disposal system is required for biomedical waste.
2. Avoiding use of disposable products like plastic bags is a way of recycling waste.
3. Composting is done in areas where farming soil is used.
4. Waste reduction means recycling old materials like jars, bags and repairing broken items.
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 233 What kind of waste is considered hazardous?

1. Biomedical waste
2. Plastic bags
3. Paper and metal
4. Broken jars
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 1

Que. 234 The passage is mainly about:

1. ways to reduce the waste
2. recycling and composting
3. methods of waste management
4. America's solution to waste disposal
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 235 Which of the following items is NOT recyclable?

1. Hospital waste
2. Plastic
3. Metal
4. Paper
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 1

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Que. 236 Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
The first European street lighting, established in the 1660s, marked on extraordinary turning point in
the history of the night. The spread of street lighting across Northern Europe was based in part on the refinement
of lamp and lantern design. The decisive steps were taken in Amsterdam, where the painter and inventor Jan van
der Heyden (1637 – 1712) experimented during the 1660s with oil-lamps in glass-paned lanterns. Lamp-lanterns
of his sophisticated design made Amsterdam the first European city to install truly effective street lighting.
Admiring the city, the German student Friedrich Lucae commented that “in the evening the entire city is
illuminated with lanterns, so that one can pass through the crowds of people just as in broad daylight.”
When we see early modern street lighting as an international development, the political initiative to establish the
lighting becomes especially significant. Despite its presumed benefits, city councils were not eager to incur the
new expense of public lighting. Patricians in self-governing cities such as Amsterdam and Hamburg chose to set
up and pay for street lighting themselves, but they were the exception. In most cases, territorial rulers established
the lighting in their capital cities and forced their subjects to pay for it. In cities including Paris, Turin, Berlin and
Vienna, the initiative came from the monarch. In London and Westminster, private street-lightning companies
contracted with the city to light specific streets and collect the corresponding fees; in Dublin (1697) and Lubeck
(1704), individual entrepreneurs tried to provide the service.
The introduction of street lighting in Paris in 1667 by Louis XIV was the first of many cases of royal initiative to
provide public lighting. Jean Baptiste Colbert proposed the street lighting in December 1666, and he and his
uncle Henri Pussort carried out the lighting project in 1667. The lighting and improved street cleaning were
financed by a new ‘tax of mud and lanterns’. Which became the only significant direct tax on householders in
Paris under the Old Regime. By 1702, there were 5,400 public candle-lanterns in place across the city, lit from
October to March.

How was the concept of street lighting established in London?

1. Individual entrepreneurs provided the service.
2. A private company installed the lights and collected the fees.
3. People themselves carried out the lighting project.
4. The initiative came from the Monarch.
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 237 After reading the passage, it can be said that it is an extract from:
1. an 18th century news
2. a survey of European cities
3. a scientific article on the design of street lamps
4. an article on the history of street lighting
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 238 In which city of Europe did regular street lighting start?
1. Amsterdam
2. Vienna
3. Paris
4. London
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 1

Que. 239

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"Patricians in self-governing cities such as Amsterdam and Hamburg chose to set up and pay for street lighting
themselves, but they were the exception". Here "they were the exception" means:
1. they set an example for others to follow.
2. no one else did what they did.
3. they did as the others did.
4. everybody followed what they did.
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 240 Which inventor designed street lamps that were used to light the streets of Amsterdam?
1. Jan van der Heyden
2. Henri Pussort
3. Jean Baptiste Colbert
4. Friedrich Lucae
Testbook Solution Correct Option - 1

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