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Read the questions carefully and choose the best answer. Use the answer sheet to mark your answers.
c. Great hypostyle hall
I. HISTORY OF ARCHITECTURE d. Great courts

CO1 Describe the evolution of architecture from the Pre-historic 10. Reason why Egyptian columns were gigantic and closely spaced
times to the Byzantine Period. a. The roof was solid block of stone and was very heavy
b. Structural design was based on visual
1. Which of the following is the orientation of the stone henge c. Abundant labor and materials
a. Sunrise of the summer solstice d. Symbol of wealth
b. Sunrise of the winter solstice
c. Sunset of the summer solstice 11. In a Greek Temple, the section of the building from the ground up to
d. None the column base is called;
A krepidoma B entablature
2. Which of the following was not a description of Catal Huyuk C stylobate D stereobate
a. Rooftop served as plaza during summer,
b. no defined streets 12 The 2 new orders introduced during the Roman period are;
c. elevated settlement to escape flooding A Doric and ionic B Ionic and Corinthian
d. none C papyrus and palm D composite and Tuscan

3. The menhir, upright megalithic stones, were erected for 13. Which of the following was not a Characteristic of Egyptian pyramids
a. Processional rituals a. Primary building of a complex of buildings enclosed with
b. As monument for the dead walls
c. As symbol of fertility b. Had an entrance gateway known as pylons
d. None c. Mortuary temple for the pharaoh usually at the north side
d. Valley Building –embalming and interment is carried out.

14. 3 different types of Egyptian Column Capitals are;

A Doric, ionic, Corinthian
B Corinthian, composite Tuscan
C bell capital, palm capital, bud capital
D none of the above

15. In early mediaeval architecture, the watch tower beside the gate is
FIG 1 FIG 2 FIG 3
called
A bartizan B crenel
4. Give the proper description for the temple plan (FIG 1) C barbican D none of the above
a Bistyle in-antis b Distyle in-antis
c Amphi-antis bistyle d Amphi-antis distyle CO2 Distinguish a particular architectural style from another.
5 Give the proper description for the temple plan (FIG 2) 16. This architectural style is characterized by playful use of
A Prostyle Tetrastyle B Peritperal in antis classical ornamentation with minimal focus on proportion, oftentimes
C Quadristyle D Pseudo-dipteral applying the Greek and Roman temple character to buildings of various
uses such as residences, catholic churches and civic buildings.
6 Give the proper description for the temple plan (FIG 3) a. quattrocento
A Bistyle in-antis B Distyle in-antis b. high renaissance
C Amphi-antis bistyle D Amphi-antis distyle c. mannerist
d. baroque
7. Which of the following is not a characteristic of ancient Egyptian
mastaba structure? 17. Which of the following is a character of Romanesque church?
a. Battered wall a. Arcaded facade
b. Wall are windowless suitable for wall surface writing and b. Thin wall with large fenestrations
art in high relief and hieroglyphs c. Presence of flying buttresses
c. Rectangular plan with flat roof d. All of the above
d. None
18. This architectural style is characterized by heightened ornamentation
8. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Egyptian column? using sculptures, reliefs and even curvaceous walls.
a. Large proportion showing vegetative influence a. quattrocento
b. The construction of capital, shaft and base were all b. high renaissance
related to each other c. mannerist
c. Shaft to base were from bundle of plants d. baroque
d. None
19. Which of the following period style was the lower part of the
9. not a characteristic of the Egyptian temples Florence cathedral?
a. Entrances of propylon a. Gothic
b. Flat roofs b. Renaissance
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c. Romanesque a. Henry Savoye c. Walter Gropius
d. Greek b. Le Corbusier d. Eliel Saarinen

20. Which of the following is false when it comes to describing Babylonian 31. Which Brazilian architect is said to have reshaped Brazil’s
structures? identity in the popular imagination with curves mimicking the female form
a. There were double walls made from clay bricks and a style that mesmerized architects around the globe?
b. There were moats that served as navigation channels a.Oscar Niemeyer c.Le corbusier
c. Post and lintel system was frequently used b.Frank Gehry d.Jorn Utzon
d. Archways and domes were a common construction feature
32. He claimed that there is humanism in Architecture and that the
CO3. Make a comparative analysis of the architectural styles during concept of beauty is based on order of numbers and Euclidean geometry
the periods covered. a. Alberti b. Da Vinci
c. Euclid d. Vitruvius
21. An architectural style of the late 18th century and 19th century
predominantly in Europe and America. A product of Hellenism; 33. The architect who claimed that the ultimate goal of the new
it may be looked upon as the last phase in the development of architecture was the composite but inseparable work of art in which the
neoclassical era. old dividing line between monumental and decorative elements will have
a. Roman Revival b. Gothic Revival disappeared forever
c. Greek Revival d. Renaissance a. Frank Lloyd Wright
b. Le Corbusier
22. The architectural style developed in early 15th cent. Italy during the c. Walter Gropius
rebirth (rinascimento) of classical art and learning. Initially d. Mies Van de Rowe
characterized by the use of the classical orders, round arches,
and symmetrical composition. 34. The architect who said that the exterior of the building is the result of
a. renaissance b. Romanesque the interior.
c. Gothic d. Roman a. Ludwig Mies Van De Rohe
b. Le Corbusier
23. A European style of architecture and decoration in the 17th century. It c. . Frank Lloyd Wright
is characterized by the use of oval spaces, curved surfaces, d. William Ruskin
and conspicuous use of decoration, sculpture, and color.
a. Baroque b. Antiquarian 35. He is the architect that used the so-called “5 points of architecture”
c. Rococo d. Palladian namely; (1) pilotis, (2) roof garden, (3) free façade, (4) free plan, (5)
horizontal windows
24. A style of architecture and decoration, primarily French in origin, which a. Giacomo Vignola b. Andrea Palladio
represents the final phase of the Baroque around the middle of c. Filippo Brunelleschid. Le Corbusier
the 18th cent.; characterized by profuse, often semiabstract
ornamentation and lightness of color and weight. CO5. Describe evolution of architecture from Romanesque to the
a. Baroque b. Antiquarian Post-modern architecture
c. Rococo d. Palladian
36. Postmodernism can be described as;
25. House plan with formal symmetry a. buildings stripped of all but most essential elements
a Japanese House b Chinese House
b. Korean House d None of these b. buildings with open floor plans
c. theatrical and trying to create immediate neo-history
CO4. Articulate personal philosophies on the architectural
expressions of man’s relationships to self, society and environment. d. having no ornamentation

26. Which Modernist architect labeled his buildings "Skin & Bones" 37. A cult of the machine age and even a glorification of war and violence
architecture were among the themes of this Movement
a.Christopher Wren a. Brutalism b. Green Revolution
b.Louis Kahn c. Constructivism d. Futurism
c. Frank Lloyd Wright
d.Ludwig Mies Van der Rohe 38. Architectural style after the 1917 Russian war where new architecture
is a remedy for Russian social discontentment
27. The Kaufmann house is an example of Organic architecture by a. Brutalism
which architect of the Modern era? b. Futurism
a.Adolf Loos c. Techno tecture
b.Louis Kahn d. constructivism
c. Frank Lloyd Wright
d .Ludwig Mies Van der Rohe
39. Which of the following is a characteristic of International Style
28. Proponent of “New Urbanism” a. The curtain wall used as building envelop
a. Alvar Aalto b. Andres Duaney b. the treatment of the building parts in classical motif
c. Kevin Lynch d. Michael Graves c. the curvilinear appearance of the building
d. the color motif applied in the building
29. Who founded the Bauhaus Movement in 1919?
a.Walter Gropius b.Sir Christopher Wren 40. Expressionism was characterized by;
c. Renzo Piano d.Frank Lloyd Wright a. free use of abstract form
b. using form of the building to evoke feelings
30. Whose early design concept was "above ground", the example c. both a & b d. none of the above
of which can be seen in the Villa Savoye?
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41. Which architectural movement was formed by a group of Japanese

architects and believed that cities of the future inhabited by a
mass society are characterized by large scale, flexible and
expandable structures that evoked the processes of organic
growth?
a. Metabolism b. Eclecticism
c. Futurism d. None of the above

42. What popular version of the Modern movement in the 1900s 50. One of the most famous examples of Byzantine Architecture
was said to be related to fashionable vehicle-inspired design?
a. Arts and crafts b. International Style a. Hagia Sofia b. St. Peter c. St.Mary
c. Streamline Moderne d. Futurism d. Church of the Nativity
43. What are the characteristics of International Style high-rise CO7. Identify different architectural styles in selected Asian
building? countries
a. Curtain wall; medium-rise; dynamic form; angular lines
b. Medium articulation; primary solids; grid windows 51. Blind doors and windows is an architectural feature of _____ A.
c. Square or rectangular footprint; "extruded rectangle" Cambodia B Nepal
form; windows forming a grid; all facade angles are 90 C Tibet D None of the above
degrees
d. None of the above 52. A large, porch like hall leading to a Hindu temple and used for religious
dancing and music.
44. Which of the following is not a principle the International Style A. gopuram B finial
was striving for:
a. “ornament is a crime” C mandapa D vihara
b. “material symbolism”
c. “form follows function” 53. Original Islamic design involving various combinations of three-
d. “machines for living” dimensional shapes, corbelling, etc. also known as honeycomb work.
A Muristan B Arabesque
45. This approach in Architecture is also known as the C Muqarna D Maqsura
Functionalist movement.
a. De Stijl b. Constructivism 54. Technique in timber structure of ancient Chinese architecture (pillar-
c. Deconstructivism d. Post Modernism beam system)
A. chuandao B dougong
CO6 Distinguish a particular architectural style from another by C huabiao D tailiang
illustration and identification
55. The imperial color of China
46. The architectural style of Leandro Locsin as seen in the CCP A. red B yellow
and PICC where concrete and its texture is used into full advantage.
A. brutalism B. Art Nouveau C black D green
C. Expressionism D. Art Deco 56. The lifting of the corbelled brackets of the domestic buildings Chinese
roof details determine
47. Far Eastern University A. wealthy residence B Buddhist residence
A. Brutalism C. Expressionism
B. Art Nouveau D. Art Deco C commoner’s residence D royal residence
48. The style with which the Manila Cathedral is built 57. Bilateral symmetry the characteristic of Chinese structures is seen in
a. Neo- Gothic b. Baroque A. vertical axis B. horizontal Axis
c. Neo- Romanesque d. Classical Roman
C. X and y axis D. none

58. The storage of important document in a imperial complex is

A. pagoda B. pavilion

C. courtyard D. palace

59. A straw mat in Japan which has a standard size and used as a unit
49. Originally built in Byzantine style, name this famous church in Venice in measuring and planning the size of the room
a. San Venezia b. San Marco c. San Sofia d. A. Tatami B. Shoji
Church of the Nativity C. roji D. mizuya

60. The small garden of the Japanese tea House

A. Tatami B. Shoji
C. roji D. mizuya
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CO8 Explain the evolution of Filipino architecture from influences of A. neo-classical B. International
local culture and traditions as well as effects of colonization; C. Post modernism D. Art Deco

61. The basic act of building shelter by the early nomads before 77. A tower constructed atop the Torogan as a place to hide sultan’s
starting a food-gathering journey; it is also the early dwelling of the Aeta; daughter during conferences or gatherings
a. Lean-to b. Tree-house c. Tent d. tripod huts a. Atep b. Pasuk
c. Lamin d. Gibon
62. Of the given tropical characteristics of the Austronesian
dwelling below, which one is manifested in the bahay kubo? 78. The house is compared to a woman figure: the ladder is the stretched
a. an elevated living floor b. voluminous thatched roof leg and the house is the belly. Womb-the house has no windows only front
c. raised pile foundation d. all of the above and back door. Dark due to the soots. Suggests womb-dark warm and
enfolding
63. Carved wooden finials on top of the roof of a traditional tausug A. Bontoc house C. Isneg house
house B. Ifugao House D.Kankanai House
a. tadjuk pasung b. pasang tadjak
c. tasung padjuk d. padjuk tasung 79. The house was mentioned in the epic of Bugan and Wigan where their
carnal relationship consummated in a house
64. A wood carving motif of the Moro-Islamic architecture representing a A. Bontoc house C. Isneg house
serpent B. Ifugao House D.Kankanai House
a. lauya b. lamin
c. naga d. pako rabong 80. House or the binuron is influenced by boat design. The roof
suggested inverted hull, and floor joist resemble the profile of the boat.
65. These are the main posts of a Bale that sit on a cobbled base and A. Bontoc C. Isneg
support the main structure of the house. B. Ifugao D. Kalinga
a. Halipan b. Tukud
c. Kuling d. Taknang 81. The community have large compact settlements built along rice
terraces and divided into wards called ato.
66. The reason why the bahay na bato shifted from clay roofing to G I A. Bontoc C. Isneg
sheet roofing B. Ifugao D. Kalinga
a. laws of Indies b. Strong rain
c. fire d. Earthquake 82. What is the Ivatan tradition referring to the cooperative system where
the community builds together?
67. The part of the bahay na bato located on the ground floor which a. Kaynenefvren b. Sinadumparan
served as storage for the andas or the saint’s floats c. Kayvayvanaan d. Kanuyan
a. volada b. cuadra
c. bodega d. Zaguan 83. Floor- not a perfect octagon since corners are not floored over. At one
side of the entrance, the floor is eliminated to provide a working space that
68. A cantilevered gallery or patio enclosed by windows that was reaches the ground floor level. The design of octagonal floor and roof form
opened or closed at any time of the day a dome-like space which suggest expansion rather than enclosure.
A. volada B. cuadra A. Bontoc C. Isneg
C. caida D. Zaguan B. Ifugao D. Kalinga

69. The lower windows of the bahay na bato 84. Four posts or tukud raised 1.50to 2.0 m above the ground made of
A. ventana B. ventanilla hardwood posts with rat guards halipan placed just below the girders
C. calado D. Persiana A. Bontoc house C. Isneg house
B. Ifugao House D. Kankanai House
70. The service balcony located at the back of the bahay na bato
A. batalan B. bano 85. Granaries located outside the house or near the farm
C. cocina D. Azotea A. Bontoc house C. Isneg house
B. Ifugao House D. Kankanai House
71. A second floor space right after the stairs and before entering
the sala CO9. Develop strong awareness of the natural and built heritage
A. zaguan B. cocina C. entresuelo through the conduct of research.
D. Caida
86. Basilica Constantine is a fine example of reused building from
72. Instead of a ceiling, the Maranao house uses a colorful cloth as A. Hall of justice to Christian church
canopy used to catch falling dust from the roof called B. Temple to Christian church
a. Sinamay b. Taritib C. Palace to Christian Church
c. Garatib d. Panolong D. None

87. Half-breed architecture that uses wood in the upper floor and stone in
73. The colossal order of Post Office its ground floor to make it resistant to earthquakes.
A. Doric B. Corinthian A. Mudejar B. Antillan
C. ionic D. Tuscan C. Arquitectura Mestiza D. Bahay Kubo

74. The architectural style adapted by Carlos Arguelles 88. The architectural style adapted by Tomas Mapua in the design of
A. neo-classical B. International Mapua Main Building
C. Post modernism D. Art Deco A. neo-classical B. International

75. The architectural style adapted by Tomas Mapua in the design of C. Post modernism D. Art Deco
Mapua Main Building
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89. Which of the following churches is an example of fortified/fortress A. shade B. chroma
church? C. value D. tint
A. Paoay church B. Manila Cathedral
C. Miag-ao Church D. Pakil church 13. color added with BLACK
A. shade B. chroma
90. The temple compound, a UNESCO World Heritage Site, is the C. value D. tint
largest Hindu temple site in Indonesia, and one of the biggest in Southeast
14. Which of the following is not a definition of form
A PRAMBANAN CANDI B SEWU CANDI a. refer to an external appearance that can be recognize, as that
C SHIVA CANDI D PAWON CANDI of a human body that sits in it
b. refer to particular condition in which something act or manifest
itself, as when we speak of ice or steam
II. THEORY OF ARCHITECTURE c. refer to simple geometrical objects that are recognized
independent of rotation, translation, and scale
CO1. Identify principles of design by relating architecture to other d. the manner of arranging and coordinating the elements and
art forms parts of a composition so as to produce a coherent image

1. Color, texture are some elements that one manipulates to 15. What category of metaphor is the relationship between Gothic
make an object beautiful cathedrals and forest of northern Europe?
A. Elements of aesthetics B. principles of aesthetics a. tangible b. intangible
C elements of gestalt D. principles of theory c. combined d. none of the above

2. 13. Manila Cathedral and San Agustin Churches during the Spanish 16. What is an awareness derived by the visual system in response
Period were known churches due to the principle to an external stimulus?
A. Balance B. Unity C. Proportion a. spatial perception b. visuospatial
D. Dominance c. visual perception d. visual acuity

3. the principle of design denoting opposition 17. What separates the viewer from objects which visual space separates
A. balance B. proportion C. rhythm D. contrast objects from each other?
a. tactile space b. thermal space
4. the principle of design based on visual weight c. kinesthetic space d. olfactory space
A. balance B. proportion C. rhythm D. contrast
18. Anthropometry is;
5. the principle of design showing appearance of objects in regular interval a. the proportions of a room
A. balance B. proportion C. rhythm D. contrast b. the measurements of the human body
c. the dimensions of a building
6. What is the common principle of aesthetics seen in these structures: d. a proportioning system invented by Greeks
Mapua Main Building, St. Peter basilica, Eifel Tower, The white House
A. Symmetrical balance 19. Visual Scale is;
B. Radial balance a. the size or proportion an element appears to have
C. Biaxial balance relative to other elements
D. Asymmetrical balance b. the size or proportion of something relative to an
accepted standard of measurement
7. What is the common characteristic among these structures: c. the actual dimensions of an element
Guggenheim Museum Bilbao, Falling Water, Sydney opera House d. none of the above
A. Symmetrical balance
B. Radial balance
C. Biaxial balance 20. The Kinesthetic experience of a space is;
D. Asymmetrical balance a. the visual experience of the space
b. the sensation of movement when experiencing the space
8. What is the theory of mind and brain positing that the c. related to the illumination level of the space
operational principle of the brain is holistic, parallel, and analog, with self- d. none of the above
organizing tendencies?
a. Gestalt psychology b. visual perception 21. The Human Scale of a space would have an effect on;
c. color psychology d. none of the above a. How we feel inside that space
b. How furniture can be arranged in that space
9. What is the direction of a form relative to the ground plane, the c. How windows are placed in that space
compass points, other forms, or to the person viewing the form? d. What colors the space could have
a. orientation b. position
c. color d. shape 22. Determine the succeeding number 1.1, 2,3,5, 8,13,21, 34.

10. A line has the following properties except for: 55, ___
a. length b. direction a. 89 b. 95
c. shape d. position c. 85 d. 109
11. combination of color opposite the color wheel 23. Gestalt principle-Complete figure that are incomplete
A. analogous B. complimentary A. Continuity B. Proximity
C. triad D. split complimentary C. Figureground D. closure
12. color added with white
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24. In Gestalt Principle, when objects that are close to each other are of D. Interrelationship diagram
the same group is known as
A. Reversible figure B. Continuity 35. Development of design strategies
C. Proximity D. Figureground A. Project objectives
B. Design considerations
25. Gestalt principle- tendency to perceive objects, or figures, as existing C. Flowchart programming
on a background. D. Technical space analysis
A. Continuity B. Proximity
C. Figureground D. closure CO3. Assess proxemic requirements of space
26. The method by w/c the brain takes all the sensations people 36. Specify the distance if you are designing a space for public
experience at any given moment and allows them to be interpreted in speaking
some meaningful fashion. A, 12-25 feet B. 10-15 ft C. 20-30 ft
A. Visual acuity B. Perception D 0 .5 to 1.5 feet
C. Aesthetics D. Creativity
37. Specify the distance where families can enjoy.
27. Not a rule for achieving unity, a. 10-15 ft b. 2-3 ft. c. 0 .5 to 1.5 feet d.
A. Different element are united using one color scheme 1.5 to 4 ft
B. Different elements are united when positioned close
to one another 38. The behavior shown by a person/ animal when establishing and
C. Different elements are united following the same defending its territory
theme a. Behavior setting b. standing pattern c. proxemics
D. The same elements are united having common d. territoriality
theme
39. Which of the following is not a characteristic of territoriality
28. the arrangement of classrooms spaces along corridors are examples A. The ownership or of rights to a place
of B. Personalization
A. Linear organization B. radial organization C. The right to defend against intrusion
C. overlapping organization D. Subtractive organization D. Common spaces
29. arranging visually equal elements in each of the four quadrants 40. A person’s house is and example of
created by a pair of crossed axes. A. Primary territory
A. Biaxial symmetry B. Radial Symmetry C. B. Secondary territory
informal symmetry D. formal symmetry C. Tertiary territory
D. None of the above
30. Which of the combination of colors stimulate gastronomic sensation
A. Red, yellow, orange CO4. Assess current thoughts on architectural design.
B. Red, violet, green
C. Blue green, violet 41. The formulation of design concept from the inspiration of plants and
D. Pink, red, orange animals such as the copying the tactile response of the makahiya leaves
in the design of touch lamp or the water repellent character of the taro
leaves used as inspiration to paint materials
CO2. Describe broader issues of architectural design process A. sustainable architecture
B. organic architecture
31. This is the phase of Architectural design devoted to documentation of C. Bio-mimicry
conditions, in-depth analysis of needs and identification of goals and D. vernacular architecture
objectives of the design process
a. Programming 42. The use of renewable sources of energy such as solar panels,
b. Schematic design renewable materials such as lumber from commercial farming and the
c. Design development minimal use of natural materials thru reduce, reuse, recycle is
d. Construction documentation A. sustainable architecture
B. organic architecture
32. Which of the following statement is not a description of a C. Bio-mimicry
concept? D. vernacular architecture
A. a statement made up of diagrammatic solutions arising
from design analysis 43.Large abstract forms, Sharp geometric designs , Glass-clad structures
B. a statement that is general and rudimentary in character. and traditional combining with modern elements are design characteristics
C. It requires and must embrace further development. of
D. All a. I.M. Pei b. Tadao Ando
c. Antoni Gaudi d. Le Corbusier
33. A technique in analyzing space adjacency where one space is
compared to all spaces using table.
A. Matrix B. Interaction net 44.Biotecture is known to be reflected on the works of
C. Grid D. Table a. Duany b. Calatrava
c. Ebenezer Howard d. Rem Koolhaas
34. Graphical diagrams used to represent spaces with no consideration
to actual areas of the spaces 45. An adjective used to describe an artist who selects forms and ideas of
A. Bubble diagram different periods and combines them to produce a harmonious whole
B. Interaction diagram a. eclectric buildings b. style
C. Space diagram c. warm colors d. analogous colors
01-29-19
concern as applied to architecture in the form of program concept would
46. The use of renewable sources of energy such as solar panels, mean
renewable materials such as lumber from commercial farming and the A. design of an office where the needs of future users of the
minimal use of natural materials thru reduce, reuse, recycle is building will be considered
a. organic architecture b. sustainable architecture B. design that of an office that will consider the budget of the
c. Bio-mimicry d. vernacular architecture corporation so that the workers will be productive in the structure
C. design of an office with materials that are taken from
47. If Sustainability is the parti of the proposed office, the application of renewable sources
the concept D. a design of an office that economical.
A. Covers the entire problem of the project
B. Deals with the partition concept of the plan 58. If sustainable development is the “central theme” of a project, which
C. Deals with the part of financing the project of the following stages of the design process should the development of
D. Covers the landscaping to make the project green the concept be stopped.
A. scope of the project B. Project Objectives
48. From the abstract program concept “sustainability”, which of the C. design Objectives
following statement is a performance requirement (PR) D. Final design proposal and presentation
A. A maximum of 100% of the light is coming from the sun
during day time
B. A minimum delay of 30% for delivery of materials 59. Which of the following programmatic concepts does not reflect the
C. A maximum of 100% productivity for the workers central idea of sustainability
D. A maximum of 100% return of investment for 10 years A. Harnessing renewable sources
B. Reuse, reduce, recycle
CO5. Apply the analytical tools in determining the relevance of C. Zero waste
architectural design theories to cultural development. D. None of the above

51. The expressionism style of structures manifest 60. The proper positioning of structure taking into consideration solar,
A. The Character of the building was from the emotional view, privacy
interpretations of the architect and materials showed poetic A. orientation B. rendering
expression C. diagramming D. doodling
B. The characteristic of the raw material used was revealed
C. The building has no classical ornamentation III. PROFESSIONAL PRACTICE
D. The shape of the structure was futuristic
CO1 Discuss and apply the different laws that affect the
52. The use of information such as climate, laws and codes, culture and practice of architecture in the Philippines
traditions are examples of
A. Design concept B. Project concept 1. Which of the following must be secured by foreign nationals
C. Design considerations D. Design criteria allowed to practice under a temporary /special permit?
a. Professional liability insurance
53. Internet cafes are an example of the architectural application of which b. Comprehensive insurance
of Maslow’s levels of needs? c. performance bond
a. self-actualization b. security d. professional competence insurance
c. social acceptance d. self-esteem
2. What does the PRC issue to all practicing professionals which
54. It has been found out that colors with longer wavelengths create shows an evidence of registration and is renewable every three years?
stronger stimuli for the human retina than colors with shorter wavelengths, a. Professional Identification Card
hence the color blue is highly recommended to spaces where ___. b. PRC ID Certificate
a. relaxation takes place c. PRC Registration Certificate
b. hyper activities must take place d. PRC Certificate of Registration
c. visual stimulants are needed
d. none of the above 3. Which of the following is not considered an unprofessional or
dishonorable conduct and hence not a ground for the revocation of
55. The 2018 Philippine national artist in the field of architecture A. certificate?
Fransisco Mañosa B. Jose Mañosa a. Signing and sealing plans not prepared under his
M. Leandro Locsin D. George Formoso supervision
b. Falsely impersonating a practitioner
CO6. Utilize the critical methods for analyzing design c. Aiding in the practice of architecture any person not duly
concepts in relation to national development. authorized to practice architecture in the Philippines
d. None of the above
56 This is an approach in building design where a major aim is to 4. Which of the following is not a prohibition in the practice of
minimize building construction and utilization’s carbon footprint by architecture?
integrating energy efficient utility systems such as solar power generation, a. Practicing architecture without being registered
wind energy & rain water harvesting and (grey) water recycling. b. Using the seal of another architect
a. Environmental design b. Sustainable architecture c. Forging evidence to secure certificate of registration
c. Vernacular architecture d. Regional style d. Supervising the preparation of contract documents

57. Brundtland Commission of the United Nations on March 20, 1987 5. In the Architect’s Code of Ethics, to whom does the architect
states that “sustainable development is development that meets the needs have responsibility to issue corresponding certificates of payment and final
of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to certificate of completion?
meet their own needs”. This definition of environmental and human a.Client c. manufacturers/dealers
b. contractor d. public
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b. 1.20m d. 1.5m
6. What requirement regulates the entry of foreign nationals to the
practice of architecture? 22. As per BP 344, accessible public washrooms and toilets shall
a. Reciprocity b. bilateral agreement permit easy passage of wheelchair and must allow how much turning
c. unilateral agreement d. parallel space for wheelchairs?
a. 1.50sqm. c. 2.0sqm
7. For residential occupancies, how many percent of an interior lot b. 1.70sqm. d. 2.25sqm.
is open space?
a. 25% c. 40% 23. As per BP 344, what is the maximum distance between
b. 30% d. 50% reststops of turn-around spaces in walkways?
a. 5m b. 6m c. 10m d. 12m
8. As per PD 1096, what is the minimum clear ceiling height for
mezzanine floors above and below it? 24. How many caliper diameter of suitable trees shall be preserved
a. 1.70m c. 1.90m per Department of Environment and Natural Resources?
b. 1.80m d. 2.00m a. 200 millimetres b. 200 millimetres or less
c. 200 millimetres or more d. 150 millimeters
9. As per PD 1096, what is the minimum dimension of a court?
a.1.20m c. 2.00m 25. As per BP 344, how long is the extension of handrails which
b. 1.80m d. 2.10m shall be provided from the start and end of ramps and stairs?
a. 150mm c. 250mm
11. Minimum ceiling height measured from the floor to the ceiling of b. 200mm d. 300mm
habitable rooms with natural ventilation
a. 2.0m c. 2.7m 26. Any person or operation who shall violate any of the provisions of
b. 2.4m d. 3.0m NBCP or commit unlawful act shall upon conviction, be punished by a fine
of not more than 20K pesos or by a fine of not more than
12. Rooms for human habitations shall have a minimum area of ________________ years or both;
____________ with a least dimension of ____________. a. Three b. Two c. Six d. Ten
a. 4sqm;2m c. 6sqm;3m
b. 6sqm;2m d. 9sqm.;3m 27. Eaves over required windows shall not be less than
________millimeters from the side and rear property lines.
13. Failure to commence the work within a period of ____ months a. 75 b. 65
from the date of issuance of permit is a basis for non-issuance, c. 750 d. 705
suspension or revocation of a Building Permit.
a. 3 b. 6 c. 8 d. 12 28. The design, construction and operation of deep wells for the
abstraction of groundwater shall be subject to the provisions of the
14. As per PD 1096, how many percent of parking requirements ______________________________.
may be provided if adequate public parking lots/multi-floor parking a. Water Sanitation
garages are available within 200 meters of the proposed b. Water Code of the Philippines
building/structures? c. Maynilad Water System
a. 10% b. 20% c. 30% d. 40% d. Water Concessioners of the Philippines

15. As per PD 1096, what is the size of automobile parking slots for 29. As per Fire Code, buildings over this height shall be required
perpendicular or diagonal parking? throughout with automatic fire sprinkler system.
a. 2x5m c. 2.15 x 6m a. 15 m c. 18 m
b. 2.5 x 5m d. 3 x 5m b. 16 m d. 21 m

16. As per PD 1185, what is the minimum opening width of doors? 30. As per Fire Code, what is the minimum number of exits for Class A
a. 0.71m c. 0.90m places of assembly with a capacity more than 1,000 persons?
b. 0.81m d. 0.91m a. 1 c. 3
b. 2 d. 4
17. As per PD 1185, what is the unit of exit width used to measure
means of egress? 31. As per Fire Code, what is the maximum number of seats in rows of
a.50cm c. 60cm seats between aisles for places of assembly?
b. 55cm d. 65cm a. 6 c. 14
b. 7 d. 16
18. As per BP 344, a level area of not less than how many meters
shall be provided at the top and bottom of any ramp? 32 How much is the minimum fire resistive rating for the firewall?
a. 1.4m b. 1.5m c. 1.8m d. 1.9m a. One-hour b. Two-hour c.Three-hour d. Four-hour

19. As per BP 344, how much is the parking slot width for 33. As per Fire Code, buildings over this height shall be required
handicapped drivers and passengers providing sufficient clear space throughout with automatic fire sprinkler system.
between parked cars to allow them to transfer to a wheelchair? a. 15m b. 16m
a. 3.6m b. 3.7m c. 3.8m d. 3.9m c. 18m d. 21m

20. As per PD 1185, what is the maximum travel distance for

places of assembly if not protected by automatic fire suppression system? CO2 Explain the laws used in the planning of subdivisions,
a. 46m b. 56m c. 61m d. 71m condominiums and economic and socialized housing.

21. As per BP 344, what is the required minimum walkway width to

permit a person in wheelchair to traverse it with safety? 34. Batas Pambansa 220 is also known as __.
a. 1.10m c. 1.25m a. National Building Code
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b. Law for Economic & Socialized Housing in Urban & d. professional fee plus expenses
Rural Areas
c. Subdivision & Condominium Presidential Decree 47. In the architect’s regular design services, under which phase
d. Act to Enhance Mobility of Disabled Persons does preparation of forms for contract letting, invitation/instruction to
bidders, and bidders’ proposals fall?
35 What is the minimum lot frontage for rowhouse units in socialized a. Construction phase
housing as provided for in BP 220? b. Design development phase
a. 3.5 m c. 4.5 m c. schematic design phase
b. 4.0 m d. 5.0 m d. contract document phase

36. As per PD 1185, dwelling units in row apartments shall be separated 48. In the architect’s regular design services, under which phase
from each other by partition walls having a fire resistance rating of how shall the preparation of construction drawings, specifications and Bill of
many hours? Quantities fall?
a.1 hour c. 3 hours a. Schematic design phase
b. 2 hours d. 4 hours b. Design development phase
c. contract document phase
37. As per PD 1096, what is the minimum front setback for a d. construction phase
Residential R-1 lot?
a. 3.00m c. 4.00m 50. Upon completion of contract documents phase, what
b. 3.50m d. 4.50m percentage of the fee is expected to have been given to the architect by
the owner?
38. As per PD 957, what is the minimum width for roads right-of- a. 65% c. 70%
way for residential condominium projects? b. 85% d. 90%
a.6m b. 8m .
c. 10m d. 12m 51. If the architect’s professional fee is P200,000.00, which of the
following amount shall be paid to the architect upon signing of the
39 As per PD 957, what is the maximum block length without an Agreement?
alley? a. 10,000.00 c. 15,000.00
a.250m c. 350m b. 20,000.00 d. 5,000.00
b. 300m d. 400m .
52 For a residential project worth P 3,000,000.00, which of the
40 As per PD 957, what is the minimum area for a single following amount shall be the architect’s professional fee if the method of
park/playground in a residential condominium project? compensation used is percentage of construction cost and the rate is
a. 50 sqm. C. 150sqm. based on UAP Schedule of Minimum Basic Fee?
. 100sqm. D. 200 sqm. a. 300,000.00 c. 200,000.00

41. As per PD 957, what is the minimum floor area for a b. 100,000.00 d. 400,000.00
condominium unit?
a. 18 sqm. c. 25 sqm. 53. An architect has done the renovation of a residence in
b. 20 sqm. d. 30 sqm. Valenzuela. Project construction cost is P 3,000,000.00. Using UAP
Standards, how much does the architect expect to receive as a minimum
42. As per BP 220, what is the minimum clear width of stairways? basic fee from his client?
a. 0.60m c. 0.71m a. 450,000.00 c. 600,000.00
b. 0.70 d. 0.75m
43 As per BP 220, what is the maximum length of an alley in a b. 200,000.00 d. 300,000.00
residential block?
a. 20m c. 60m 54. What percentage of construction cost is the architect’s
b. 40m d. 80m minimum basic fee for monumental buildings/other facilities requiring
consummate design skills/precise detailing?
a. 20% c. 15%
CO3 Explain the Standards of Professional Practice in the b. 12% d. 10%
delivery of Pre-design and Regular Design services of an
Architect. 55. What is generally the basis of the architect’s minimum basic
fee?
44. Which method of selecting an architect is often used by an a. Owner’s offer
individual undertaking a relatively small project? b. Type of structure
a. Architectural competition c. architect’s professional/community standing
b. Comparative selection d. project construction cost
c. direct selection
d. bidding 56. In a typical owner-architect agreement, who is responsible for
payment of taxes on professional services (exclusive of income taxes)?
45 Which compensation method for architect’s services is made a. Architect c. owner
by adding all costs of technical services and uses a multiplier to take care b. Contractor d. project manager
of overhead and profit?
a. Multiple of direct personnel expenses 57. In a typical-owner agreement, which of the following is
chargeable to the owner?
46. Which compensation method for architects’ services is flexible a. Structural/electrical/sanitary engineering
and any change will not affect owner-architect agreement? b. Drafting fee
a. Multiple of direct personnel expenses c. miniature models
b. Percentage of construction cost d. Five sets of contract documents
c. per diem
01-29-19
58. Who is responsible for payment of professional services a. Economic Feasibility Studies
required by architect such as normal structural, electrical, plumbing, and b. Financial Feasibility Studies
mechanical engineering services? c. Commercial Feasibility Studies
a. Architect c. project manager d. Income-expense studies
b. Owner d. contractor
. 67. For the preparation of detailed engineering drawings and
59. Which of the following is not included in the Project specifications on roads, drainage, sewerage, power and communication
Construction Cost? system, an additional fee of how many percent of the cost of the
a. Plumbing development is to be charged?
b. Sprinkler a. 2% c. 4%
c. Architect’s fee
d. salaries of construction inspector b. 3% d. 5%

68 This covers the range of all services from primary data

CO4 Explain the Standards of Professional Practice in the delivery gathering through the formulation of the MDP and the parallel preparation
of Specialized Allied and Comprehensive Design services of an of the environmental impact assessment.
Architect. a. Comprehensive Development Planning Services
b.Site Development Services
60. In master development plan formulation, which component is c. Physical Development Services
concerned with movement of people/goods from one place to another? d. Environmental Development
a. Economic c. physical
b. Socio-cultural d. transport 69 The suitably trained and experienced consulting architect in this
area of architectural practice provides research, assessment,
61. In the architect’s specialized allied services, under which documentation and management of cultural matters.
category does the architect prepare plans of contiguous sites for industrial a. Republic Act 10066
estates, tourist center, housing subdivisions and the like? b. Historic & Heritage Conservation & Planning
a. Landscape design c. Republic Act 10086
b. Industrial planning d. Conservation Management
c. interior design
d. physical planning CO5 Discuss the different techniques used in project and
construction management.
62. In the architect’s specialized allied services, under which
category does the architect prepare schedule of shrubs, trees and other
plants and other landscaping elements? 70. For every day of delay in construction time, contractor is
a. Environmental planning obligated to pay the owner. What do you call this payment?
c. Industrial planning a. Performance bond
c. landscape design b. Retention fee
d. physical planning c. liquidated damages
d. security
63 Which of the following conditions:
1. 10 percent maximum excess over guaranteed 71. Within what period is the effectivity of a contractor guarantee
maximum cost bond ensuring all materials/workmanship installed are of good quality?
2. Savings on project construction cost divided equally a. Three years c. one year
between architect and client
3. 10 percent excess of guaranteed maximum cost b. Two years d. five years
divided equally between architect and client .
4. More than 10 percent excess of guaranteed 72. Within how many days from receipt of request for payment
maximum cost paid by architect must the architect check the billing of the contractor?
5. All items listed a. 10 days c. 15 days
Describe the design-build services on guaranteed maximum b. 20 days d. 30 days
cost?
a. 1,2,3 c. 1,3,4 73. Within how many days from receipt of written notice by the
owner must the contractor rectify defective work?
b. 2,3,4 d. 5 a. 10 days c. 15 days
b. 20 days d. 30 days
64 Which of the following post construction services is concerned
with the monitoring of security and janitorial services? 74. Which of the following is not a requirement for the release of
a. Building and equipment maintenance final payment?
b. Building and grounds administration a. Certificate of Occupancy
c. Post-construction evaluation b. Guarantee Bond
d. None of items listed c. Keying Schedule
d. retention
65 A component to be considered in the formulation of a Master
Development Plan is a 75. Which of the following cannot be considered Act of God?
a. Legal and administrative component a. Earthquakes c. flood
b. Construction component b. Typhoon d. mutiny
c. competition component
d. social component 76. What do you call the amount of money that is being deducted
from the contractor every billing until 50% of the contract has been
66. Which of the following is a study to determine the viability of a accomplished and which shall be released 3 months after the date of final
project? payment?
01-29-19
a. Guarantee c. retention b. drainage system
b. Performance bond d. securityIt is signed c. Plumbing lay out
d. sanitary lay out
77. immediately when the contractor is awarded the contract.
a. Notice to Proceed 8. The art and technique of installing in buildings the pipes,
b. Owner-Contractor Agreement fixtures, and other apparatuses for bringing in the water supply,, liquids,
c. Schedule of Work & Corresponding Value substances and or ingredients and removing them and such water, liquid
d. General Conditions and other carried wastes affecting health and sanitation and hazardous to
life and property.
78. During the renovation of an old house, several hidden pipe chases A. plumbing C. piping
were found. Drawings need to be adjusted to suit this new field condition B. fire protection D. ventilation
as necessary during construction. The construction contract recognizes
the essence of this as long as resulting overruns & under runs do not 9. Total developed length of a pipeline is being applied
exceed a. When there’s a need to offset the alignment of other utility
a.5% b. 10% systems
c.15% d. 20% b. If are conditioning duct increase in size
c. When springlkle piping is suspended from the slab having
79. Who will shoulder the cost of the retrofitting of a structural column if differential elevations
the compressive testing of the ready mixed concrete failed to meet its d. None of the above
minimum strength?
a. general contractor 10. A water distribution system in which no elevated storage is provided,
b. structural engineer who approved the concrete and the required distribution pressures are maintained only by pumping
mixing and placing methodology facilities.
c. Ready-mix concrete supplier
d. Site architect who oversaw the concrete pouring of a. a. Indirect pressure distribution system
the structural column
b. b. Direct-pressure distribution system
80 The release of 10% retention by the owner shall be done after how c. c. combination of both
many months from date of payment? d. none of them
a. 1 month c. 6 months
b. 3 months d. 9 months CO2 Know the different plumbing fixtures and fittings used in
sanitary drainage system in buildings.
IV. UTILITIES
11. A gooseneck is installed in the individual water supply system
CO1 Know the basic concepts of water sources and distribution a. If there is less pressure from the main
system in buildings. b. If there is a need to increase the pressure form the
main
1. A water supply pipe that extends vertically one full storey or more to c. If the water sources is inefficient to supply the
convey water to branches or fixtures. branches
A. riser C. stack d. If the flow of the water to the distribution pipe need
B. distribution pipe D. supply pipe to be throttled

2 .The code that prescribed regulation on water piping installations inside 12. Plastic pipes are favored as against the other pipe materials because
building and premises is the a. They are easily installed
a. National Building Code b. National Pluming code b. They are light weight
c. Water code of the Philippines c. They do not corrode
d. National Standard of drinking water d. They offer wide variety of choices

3. Water for rural domestic use is usually obtained from

a. Wells b. Springs 13. Pipe cleanouts is a requirement
c. City mains d. Artesian wells a. At the upper end of the fixture branch
b. At every turn of every sanitary branch
4. A test of pressure tightness in plumbing line, using water under c. For every degree change of slope gradient
pressure. d. For situation “b” most of the time
A. pressurized test C. smoke test
B. line test D. hydraulic test 14. What is the waste outlet size of a wash basin?
a. 1½ b. 1 1/8
5. In a water service pipe, a control valve for the water supply of a building c. 1 ¼ d. 1 ¾
usually placed between the sidewalk and curb, used to shut off the water
supply in case of emergency. 15. What is a device used in drainage system to prevent the reversal flow
A. corporation cock C. gate valve of liquid?
B. curb cock D. service valve A. reverse pressure valve B. check valve
C. back flow valve D. ventilation valve
6. The installation of certain parts (CWL roughing-in) of the
plumbing system is done before installation of the 16. There are various forms of water sealed traps which could be used to
a.structural system b. electrical roughing in serve plumbing fixtures. Listed below are classified as permissible traps
c.sanitary roughing in d.mechanical roughing in EXCLUDING:
A. bag trap B. p-trap
7. all water supply, drainage and venting system and all fixture C. drum trap D. low hub trap
and their traps complete with their connection
a. plumbing system
01-29-19
17. Of the given sewage disposal system, which is no longer permitted by 28. How it works: a piping network (line is directly connected to the main
the authorities? water line) connects to all levels of a building (at least 1
A. septic vault B. cesspool standpipe on each level)
C. public sewer line D. privy a. Dry standpipe b. wet standpipe
c. wet standpipe with Siamese connection
18. Used for closing the end of a pipe through the used of bolts d. None of the above
a. Cap b. Plug
c. Union d. Bling flange 29. A type of fire alarm system usually designed to produce four rounds of
signals to identify the location of fire or the initiating device.
19. It is classified as water seal device intended for fixtures that are set on a. automatic system c. zoned system
the floor, like bathtub and foot bath or other similar fixtures. b. supervised system d. coded system
A. grease trap B. bag trap
C. drum trap D. floor trap 30. This shuts off the well way at a given floor, thus preventing draft and
20. A pipe fitting to change in one single direction (course) the flow of the spread of fire upward through escalator wells. The movement is
sewage or drainage line is: actuated by temperature and smoke relays.
A. wye B. 45° elbow a. rolling shutter c. door closer
C. cross tee D. clean-out b. stopper d. preventor

CO3 Discuss the basic principles of sanitary drainage system in CO5 Discuss the basic concepts of storm drainage system in
buildings. buildings.

21. Air is needed to ventilate the VSTR this is important so that a 31. The piping system that receives clear water drainage from leaders,
a. Pressure inside the vent pipe normalized downspouts, surface run-offs, ground water, subsurface water, or other
b. Pressure can penetrate the vacuum of the air similar discharges and conveys them to the point of disposal.
present inside the pipe a. storm drainage system c. sanitary drainage system
c. Pressure build up inside the pipe b. soil drainage system d. none of them
d. None of the above
32. all of the drainage piping within a building that conveys to a legal point
22. The principal vent pipe of a system to which vent connections ca be of disposal exclusive of public and private exterior lines or systems
made a. rainwater b. liquid wastes
a. Branch vent b. Main vent c. sewage d. all of the above
c. Main d. Yoke vent
33. Which of the following storm water system brings collected water
23. all of the drainage piping within a building that conveys and other to a directly to the reservoir?
legal point of disposal exclusive of public and private exterior lines or a. Natural system b. combined system
systems c. independent system d. none of them
a. rainwater b. liquid wastes
c. sewage d. all of the above 34. Which of the following storm water system combines storm water with
sanitary waste?
24. Septic tank digestive chamber requires a. Natural system b. combined system
a. A cleanout b. A manhole c. independent system d. none of them
c. An air space d. All of the above
35. A roofing element used for collecting rainwater made of plastic or
25. The normal commercial designation, normally the inside metal pipe usually located every 8 to 10 meters & at every
diameter of the pipe is applicable for use in corner of the roof (but, to avoid clogging of pipes, it is best to
a. Brass pipe b. copper pipe locate them every 4 to 6 m)
b. Cast iron pipe D. polyethylene pipe a. Gutter c. catch basin
b. downspout d. roof drain
CO4 Discuss the basic concepts of fire protection system in
buildings. CO6 Discuss the fundamental principles of electrical,
electronic, telecommunication and signal alarm systems in
26. Often times in a high rise a designer has to work around fixed pipes buildings.
and pipe chases that cannot be moved. One of those pipe systems is
often a standpipe. Which of the following is the best description of a 36. A unit or assembly units or sections and associated fittings
standpipe system? forming a rigid structural system used to support cables.
a. A secondary fire-suppression system a. Cable bus b. Cable tray
b. A dry chemical extinguishing system c. Busway d. Wireway
c. A standby alarm system
d. Piping and valves for use as a fire protection system 37. It is also known as electric panel or load center.
a. Convenience outlet b. Panelboard
27. A fire suppression system that comprises a series of pipes and valves c. Outlet d. Branch circuit
which connect a water supply to hose connections and allied equipment
that are designed to provide a pre-piped water system for fire suppression 39. A transformer is ______.
purposes for building occupants or the fire department. A. An ac device B. A dc device
a. standpipe-and-hose system C. A mechanical device used to step up or step down
b. pipe-and-hose system voltage in ac
c. automatic pipe-and-hose system D. Both a and c
d. automatic standpipe-and-hose system
40. A type of raceway specially constructed for the purpose of pulling in or
the withdrawing of wires or cables after the conduit is in place.
A. Intermediate metal conduit (IMC)
01-29-19
B. Rigid metal conduit (RMC)
C. Surface metal raceway (SMR) 52. Acoustics is a science that concerns with ______.
D. Electrical metallic tubing (EMT) a. Transmission of sound b. Effect of sound waves
c. Generation of sound d. All of the above
CO7 Know the basic concepts of mechanical, transportation
and fire protection systems in buildings. 53. In Inverse Square Law, it states that: “sound intensity ______ the
square of the distance from the source.”
41. Is the vertical passageway for the car and counterweight? a. Varies inversely with
a. sleeve b. counterweight b. Varies proportionally with
c. shaft d. dumbwaiter c. Is equal to
d. Is less than
42. Is a device to absorb the impact of car or counterweight at the lower
limit of travel? 54. Creep is the phenomenon whereby sound travels in a ______.
a. compensation rope b. spring buffer a. Straight line direction inside an anechoic chamber
c. buffer d. guide shoes b. Rectangular shaped cavity
c. Flat surface
43. What is the minimum distance between the handrails of escalators? d. Curve surface
a. 600mm b. 558mm
c. 658mm d. 650mm 55. Sound Transmission Loss (STL) is/are affected by the following ____.
a. Intensity of sound from source
44. .In electric elevator machine room is located at the b. Material density
a.First floor b. ground floor c. Medium
c. basement d. pent house d. All of the above

45. It is a three – section built up welded steel trussed framework, which CO 10 Explain the basic concepts of the psycho-physics of
supports the moving stairway component. lighting systems in buildings.
a. Guide rails b. handrails c. Truss d. railings
56. The new clothing store wants to make sure their lighting is
humanizing. What is meant by humanizing light?
CO8 Explain the basic principles of heating, ventilating and air a. Making light come alive.
conditioning systems in buildings. b. Making light personal to fit the stores design.
c. To use characters and designed lighting to look like
46. Device for heating water or generating steam above atmospheric mannequins
pressure. d. Designing lighting to have people look their best and feel
a. broiler b. water heater c. radiator comfortable.
d. boiler
57. Options for task lighting systems include
a. indirect luminaires mounted atop cabinetry or workstations
47..A device use for moistening the air at the desired degree? b. Suspended luminaires
a. humidistat b. humidifier c. Recessed luminaires
c. hygrostat d. thermostat d. All of the above

48. An air-conditioning system in which the air is treated by equipment at 58. Incorporating day lighting in the lighting design can be done
one or more central locations outside the spaces served and by:
conveyed to and from these spaces by means of fans and a. Proper control of the fenestration luminance
pumps through duct and pipes. b. Daylight sensing and compensation control systems which
a. Window type air-con b. split type allow adjustments to electric electrical lighting system
c. package type d. centralized air con c. New techniques for “piping” light into interior spaces
d. All of the above
49. What aspect/s of environment or surroundings is/are
considered in air-conditioning system for human comfort? 59. A system where light sources are shielded by a panel parallel to the
a. Temperature of the surrounding air wall and attached to the ceiling to distribute light downwards over the wall.
b. Motion of air c. Both a and b This is considered as direct lighting.
d. None of these a. cornice lighting b. cove lighting
c. valance lighting d. None of them
50. The following are elements of centralized air-conditioning system
except _______. 60. Lighting can be separated into 3 different schemes:
A. Air handling unit B. Control equipment a. Task, general and accent
C. Method of cooling D. All of these b. Accent, energizing and task
c. General, mood and spot
CO9 Discuss the fundamental principles of the psycho-physics d. Direct, indirect and general
of acoustic systems in buildings.

51. . The following statements are true with regards to sound except ___. V. STRUCTURAL CONCEPTUALIZATION
a. That sound is an aural sensation
b. That sound is caused by oscillation in an elastic CO1. Determine the values of reactions at the supports, values
medium of shearing, force and bending moments of statically
c. That sound travels in a vacuum determinate beams;
d. That sound is caused by the vibration of particles
which move in an infinitesimal amount causing particles to
impart motion and energy to them.
01-29-19
1. A simple beam supports a 20 kN/m load
occupying the whole span of 8m. The maximum
moment developed is
a. 120 kN-m b. 150 kN-m
c. 160 kN-m d. 200kN-m

2. Calculate the “second moment of area” of a rectangular section with

base of 50mm and height of 100mm.
9. Determine is the distribution factor for member
a. 5000 mm4 b. 500000 mm4 AB.
c. 4166667 mm4 d. 343333 mm4 a. 0 b. 0.545
c. 0.455 d. 1
3. A 4kg mass is supported by three parallel springs with spring constants
of 1.5kn/m, 1.0kn/m, and 1.5kn/m respectively. If the mass is given a 10. The Final moment for member AB is shown to be
50mm displacement and then released, what would be the maximum a. 35.7 kN-m b. -101.4 kN-m
acceleration? c. 101.4 kN-m d. -174.3 kN-m
a. 40 m/sec^2 c. 50 m/sec^2
b. 60 m/sec^2 d. 70 m/sec^2 CO3. Design and investigate simple timber and steel structures

4. A simply beam supported of a 8 meter span carries 11. A wide flange section is used as a beam to carry
a linearly increasing distributed load of 50 kN/m a total shear of 900KN. If the depth of the wide
starting from the left most portion until the center of flange section is 600mm, determine the required web
the span. Determine the support at left most portion. thickness. Fy= 250Mpa.
a. 33.33 kN b. 66.67 kN a. 20mm b. 25mm
c. 90.33 kN d. 133.33 kN c. 15mm d. 10mm

12. A Wide-Flange Section W21x62 has a nominal

5. A simple beam supports a 20 kN/m load
depth of ___millimeters.
occupying the whole span of 8m. The maximum
a. 472 b. 533
moment developed is
c. 635 d. 826
a. 120 kN-m b. 150 kN-m
c. 160 kN-m d. 200kN-m
13. The steel materials are to be butt joined using a
fillet weld. The thicker material is 8.5mm. What is
CO2. Determine the of values of reactions at the supports, values of the minimum size of the fillet weld?
shearing force and bending moments of statically indeterminate a. 3.0mm b. 7.5mm
beams (continuous beams and restrained beams) using the Three- c. 6.0mm d. 5.0mm
Moment Equation and the Moment Distribution Methods
14. A wide flange section is used as a beam to carry a total shear of
6. The maximum bending stress a wood beam must resist is 3000 ft- 900KN. If the depth of the wide flange section is 600mm, determine the
pounds. If the maximum allowable bending stress is 1500 psi, what is the required web thickness. Fy= 250Mpa.
minimum section modulus the beam, must have to resist bending?
a. 20mm c. 15mm
a. 10011.13 mm3 b. 20022.25 mm3 b. 25mm d. 10mm
c. 33370.4mm3 d. 393,289.5 mm3
15. The maximum bending stress a wood beam
7. Determine the maximum moment for continuous must resist is 3000 ft-pounds. If the maximum
beam with two equal spans having a uniformly allowable bending stress is 1500 psi, what is the
distributed load? minimum section modulus the beam, must have to
resist bending?
a. wL2/8 b. wL3/12 a. 10011.13 mm3 b. 20022.25 mm3
c. wL /8
3 d. wL2/12 c. 33370.4mm 3 d. 4004451 mm3

8. What is the carryover moment (COM) for a fixed CO4. Incorporate relevant provisions of the National
support at the end of a beam? Building/Structural Code upon the results of such design and
investigations.
a. 0 b. 1
c. M/2 d. None of the above
16. Under the AISC, in the Method of evaluating the maximum safe load
For No. 9 – 10: Using moment distribution method of a steel column, the column constant is
determine the following unknowns for a two-span a. 2π2E b. π2E c. 5π2E d. 3π2E
continuous beam shown. EI is constant. √ Fy √ Fy √ Fy √ Fy

17. Where parallel reinforcement is placed in two or more layers, bars in

the upper layers shall be placed directly above bars in the bottom layer
with clear distance between layers not less than
a. 20mm b. 25mm
01-29-19
c. 30mm d. 40mm c. i, iii and iv
d. i, ii, iii and iv
18. In spirally reinforced or tied reinforcement compression
members, clear distance between longitudinal (vertical) bars shall not be 29. Increase in water content in a cement concrete
less than 40mm nor
a. 1.5d b. 2.0d
(i) Increases workability
c. 5.0d d. 1.0d (ii) Increases the strength

19. The total lateral force or based shear V given by V = ZIKCSW a. i b. ii c. both (i) and (ii)
where Z is a numerical coefficient that depends on the seismic zone in d. neither (i) nor (ii)
which the structure is located. The Philippines is in zone 4 where Z has
the value of:
a. 3/16 c. 3/8 The most important factor affecting the strength of concrete is:
b. 1.0 d. 1-1/411. a. Water-Cement Ratio
b. Void-Cement Ratio
c. Quantity of Cement
20. In a long column (slenderness ratio> 160) which of the d. All of the above
following has the greatest influence on its tendency to buckle under a
compressive load? 32. The milk layer composed of cement and fine aggregate on the
a. modulus of elasticity upper surface of the concrete mass during curing process due to an
b. compressive strength of the material excess amount of water used:
c. length of column a. Laittance c. Mortar
d. radius of gyration of the column b. Groul d. Plaster

33. The stresses that cause crack in reinforced concrete beams

that are vertical at the center of the span and become more inclined as
21. As stated in the NSCP 2010 provisions 407.7.5 they approach the supports where they slope at an angle of about 45
for one-way slab design it shall not be spaced father degrees:
apart of 3 times the slab thickness (3t) or ____. a. Shear Stress c. Vertical-Stress
b. Diagonal Tension d. Torsional Stress
a. 300 mm b. 350 mm
c. 400 mm d. 450 mm
34. A type of pressure in an upward direction against the bottom of
a structure, or a dam, a road, slab, or a basement floor:
30. Maximum usable strain extreme concrete compression fiber shall be a. Buoyancy c. Uplift Pressure
assumed to be equal to b. Hydraulic Pressure d. Active Pressure
a. 0.001 b. 0.002
c. 0.003 d. 0.004 35. A bearing Pile surrounded by earth and supported entirely by
friction; carries no load at its end:
CO5. Design/Investigate simple reinforced concrete structures a. Load Bearing Pile c. Raymond Pile
b. Friction Pile d. Pre-cast Pile
36. The slow volume reduction of a cohesive soil (clayed soil)
26. The entrained air in concrete under applied loads as in foundation:
a. Increases the strength a. Settlement c.Consolidation
b. Decreases the resistance to weathering b. Creep d. NOTA
c. Increases the workability
37. The filling of waste spaces, embankments or construction
d. Decreases the workability cavities by sediment or debris carried by water or a pipe or a flume:
a. Tremie
27. Concrete is unsuitable for compaction by vibration if it is b. Plastic Flow of Concrete
c. Hydraulic Fill
a. Semi – plastic d. NOTA
[ b. Plastic
c. Earth moist 38. The moisture content of soil at which a given amount of
compaction produces the highest value of dry density
d. Dry
a. Plastic Limit
b. Optimum moisture
28. The strength and quality of concrete depends upon c. Elastic Limit
(i)Grading of aggregates d. Plasticity Index
ii)Shape of aggregates
(iii)Surface area of aggregates 39. Have effect of delaying the onset of hardening and usually also
(iv)Surface texture of aggregates of reducing the rate of the reaction when it does start.
a. Retardant c. plasticizer
b. Pozzolana d. NOTA
a. i, ii and iv
b. ii, iii and iv
01-29-19
40. Used to give plasticity or cohesion, mainly to mortars, but _____5. A hollow steel tube with a diameter of 100
sometimes also to concrete. They function by entraining large, amount of mm must carry a tensile load of 400 kN. Determine
air and they therefore reduce strength the stress of the tube.
a. Plasticizer c. Air Entrainment a. 12.56 MN/m2 b. 50.92 MN/m2
b. Pozzolana d. NOTA c. 31.14 MN/m2 d. 80.24 MN/m2
41. Means of spreading foundation loads over a wide are thus
minimizing bearing pressure and limiting
_____6. Determine the elongation of a rod having a
a. Strap Foundation
diameter of 36mm with a length of 1000mm. A
b. Matt Foundation
c. Combined Foundation 300kN tensile load is exerted at the lower end.
d. NOTA Assume that is E=200x103 N/m2.
a. 1.534 mm b. 3.142 mm
42. In a long column (slenderness ratio> 160) which of the following has
c. 1.473 mm
the greatest influence on its tendency to buckle under a compressive
load?
a. modulus of elasticity ____7. When a beam is loaded, the new position of
b. compressive strength of the material its longitudinal centroid axis is called
c. length of column a. deflected shape b. parabolic curve
d. radius of gyration of the column c. elastic curve d. inelastic curve

_____
43. What is the size of a column at the ground floor of a 15-storey _ 8.
building with a beam span at around 8.5-10m? In
a. 2.25 b. 1.60 the
c. 1.25 d. 0.80 conj
ugat
44. A column of gravel or punched through less pervious material e beam method, the actual slope equals
to permit water to bleed off: a. fictitious shear b. fictitious moment
a. Filter drain b. Column drain c. fictitious load d. none of the above
c. Sand drain d. capillary drain
____9. A simple beam supports a 20 kN/m load
45. Flexural members will overall depth to clear span of ratios occupying the whole span of 8m. The maximum
greater than 2/5 for continuous spans, 4/5 simple spans, is known as and moment developed is
should be designed as: a. 120 kN-m b. 150 kN-m
a. Spandrel beams c. Deep beams c. 160 kN-m d. 200kN-m
b. Upstand beam d. Cross girders
CO2. Determine the of values of reactions at
the supports, values of shearing force and
CO1. Determine the values of reactions at the bending moments of statically indeterminate
supports, values of shearing, force and bending beams (continuous beams and restrained
moments of statically determinate beams; beams) using the Three-Moment Equation and
the Moment Distribution Methods
____1. It is synonym to bending stress
a. flexural stress b. torsional stress ____10. Determine the maximum moment for
c. tangential stress d. normal stress continuous beam with two equal spans having a
uniformly distributed load?

____2. If all the line of action of the forces meet at a a. wL2/8 b. wL3/12
common point, the force system is said to be? c. wL /8
3 d. wL2/12
a. Noncurrent b. Concurrent
c. Parallel d. None of the above
____11. What is the carryover moment (COM) for a
____3. A simply beam supported of a 8 meter span fixed support at the end of a beam?
carries a linearly increasing distributed load of 50
kN/m starting from the left most portion until the a. 0 b. 1
center of the span. Determine the support at left c. M/2 d. None of the above
most portion.
a. 33.33 kN b. 66.67 kN For No. 12 – 14: Using moment distribution method
c. 90.33 kN d. 133.33 kN determine the following unknowns for a two-span
continuous beam shown. EI is constant.
____4. A material behaves linearly elastic in terms of
application of load and deflection behavior due to ____12. Determine is the distribution factor for
a. It has no effect between each other member AB.
b. Being inversely proportional to each other a. 0 b. 0.545
c. Being directly proportional to each other c. 0.455 d. 1
d. None of the above
____13. The Final moment for member AB is shown
to be
01-29-19
a. 35.7 kN-m b. -101.4 kN-m a. 50 b. 60 c. 75 d. 85
c. 101.4 kN-m d. -174.3 kN-m
____23. Which of the following criterion is NOT
____14. The Rotation for the moment for member applicable for plug and slot welds?
AB is a. the thickness of plug/slot welds in material 16mm
a. Counter-clockwise b. Clockwise or less in thickness shall be equal to the thickness of
c. All of the above d. None of the above the material
b. the minimum center to center spacing in a
____15. The theoretical value of k-factor for both longitudinal direction on any line shall be 2 times the
ends restrained. length of the slot
a. 0.5 b. 1.0 c. the thickness of plug or slot welds in material over
c. 0.7 d. 2.0 16mm in thickness shall be at leas ½ times the of
the material but not less than 16mm
CO3. Draw the shear and moment diagram d. the width of the slot shall not be less than the
thickness of the part containing it plus 8mm nor shall
For No. 16 – 17: Using the figure below determine it be greater than 2-1/2 times the thickness of the
the following weld

___24. The maximum deflection for a simply

supported beam with concentrated loads at midspan
is equal to:
a. PL3 b. _PL3
84EI 48EI
c. PL3 d. PL3
4EI 3EI
____16. Determine the reaction (RA) at point A.
a. -40 kN b. 40 kN ____25. The greatest stress which a material is
c. -80 kN d. 80 kN capable of developing without a permanent
____17. Determine the maximum moment of the deformation remaining upon the complete release of
beam. stress is called
a. -40 kN-m b. 40 kN-m
c. -80 kN-m d. 80 kN-m14. a. allowable stress
b. moment of inertia
____18. The One of the purpose of using the shear c. bending stress
and moment diagram of analyzing a beam is to d. proportional limit
a. Determine the mass M of the beam
b. Determine the inertia I of the beam ____26. Is a horizontal truss system that serves the
c. Determine the shear force V and bending moment same function as a diaphragm?
M
d. None of the above a. Building frame system b. Braced frame
c. Horizontal bracing system d. Collector

CO4. Design and investigate simple timber and ____27. The modulus of elasticity of steel is
steel structures a. 100GPa b. 200GPa
c. 200MPa d. 100MPa
___19. A wide flange section is used as a beam to
carry a total shear of 900KN. If the depth of the wide ____28. (Using the same EI) which member will
flange section is 600mm, determine the required web resist most of the moment?
thickness. Fy= 250Mpa.
a. 20mm b. 25mm
c. 15mm d. 10mm

___20. A Wide-Flange Section W21x62 has a

nominal depth of ___millimeters.
a. 472 b. 533
c. 635 d. 826

____ 21. The steel materials are to be butt joined

a. member A b. member
using a fillet weld. The thicker material is 8.5mm.
c. member C d. all members
What is the minimum size of the fillet weld?
a. 3.0mm b. 7.5mm
_____29. What is the distance from the extreme
c. 6.0mm d. 5.0mm
fiber in compression to the centroid of the tension
steel area?
___22. The allowable stresses for tension in
a. Tension depth
structural steel in terms of gross area is taken ___%
b. extreme distance
of specified allowable yield stress.
c. Effective depth
01-29-19
d. centroid distance ___38. In the strength design method (NSCP 2010),
the ultimate load is mostly computed as:
_____30. What is the condition where the tension a. 1.4LL + 1.7DL b. 1.6LL + 1.4DL
steel strain reaches the yielding strain c. 1.2DL + 1.4WL d. 0.8LL + 1.77FL
simultaneously with the concrete reaching the
crushing strain which is usually 0.003? ___39. Which of the following is important to
a. under-reinforced protect the structural integrity of reinforcing bars?
b. over reinforced a. Fire Retardant Factor
c. simply reinforced b. Clearance from Embedded Concrete
d. balanced strain c. Concrete Cover
d. Rebar Bending Requirements
_____31. The allowable stresses for tension in
structural steel in terms of gross area is: ____40. The minimum reinforcement ratio provided
a. 0.60Fu b. 0.40Fy by the code is taken ___ / fy.
c. 0.60Fy d. 0.50Fu a. 1.0 b. 1.2
c. 1.4 d. 1.6
______32. The maximum bending stress a wood
beam must resist is 3000 ft-pounds. If the ____41. Maximum usable strain extreme concrete
maximum allowable bending stress is 1500 psi, what compression fiber shall be assumed to be equal to
is the minimum section modulus the beam, must a. 0.001 b. 0.002
have to resist bending? c. 0.003 d. 0.004
a. 10011.13 mm3 b. 20022.25 mm3
c. 33370.4mm3 d. 4004451 mm3 ____42. Which of the following values can be used
as a concrete cover for the primary reinforcement of
____33. Design yield stress for steel in tension and concrete beams as per NSCP 2010?
compression is a. 20mm b. 75mm
a. 0.65 fy b. 0.87 fy c. 40mm d. 85mm
c. 0.75 fy d. None of the above
____43. A standard hook may consist of a 180 deg.
CO5. Incorporate relevant provisions of the bend plus a 4d extension (at the free end) not less
National Building/Structural Code upon the than
results of such design and investigations. a. 55mm b. 60mm
c. 75mm d. 85mm
____34. As stated in the NSCP 2010 provisions
407.7.5 for one-way slab design it shall not be ___44. Under the AISC Method of evaluating the
spaced father apart of 3 times the slab thickness (3t) maximum safe load of a steel column, the column
or ____. constant is
a. 300 mm b. 350 mm
c. 400 mm d. 450 mm a. 2π2E b. π2E c. 5π2E d.
3π2E
____35. It is the ability of a material like steel to √ Fy √ Fy √ Fy √ Fy
undergo large inelastic deformation without failure.
a. malleability b. tenacity ___45. Which of the following criteria for bundled
c. hardness d. ductility bars, do not apply as stated in the NSCP 2010?
a. Bars larger than 32mm shall not be bundled in
____36. For spiral reinforcement it is said that the beams
splicing shall be laps splices of 48d but not less than b. Bundle bars shall be enclosed within stirrups or
a. 50mm b. 400mm ties
c. 300mm d. 600mm c. Group of parallel reinforcing bars bundled in
contact to act as a unit shall be limited to four in any
_____37. In addition to consideration of direct wind one bundle
pressure on a building’s surface, model building d. Individual bars within a bundle terminated within
codes require consideration of which of the following? the span of flexural members shall terminate at
different points with at least 40db staggered
a. A roof uplift force of approximately 50 to 75
percent of lateral pressure ___46. The inside diameter of bend for stirrups and
ties for 16mm bar and smaller shall not be less than
b. A negative pressure of 4 times the positive a. 4d b. 6d
pressure when the windward wall is open c. 8d d. 10d

c. A vibration load equal to lateral force at a ____47. When designing of one-way slab which of
frequency equal to the building frequency the following holds true?
d. A 50 percent increase of pressure on windward a. The slab is supported in two directions
walls in which windows occur b. The slab is supported in only one direction
c. The ratio of the longer span to shorter is less than
or equal to 2
d. None of the above
01-29-19

___48. The allowable tensile stress of structural steel ___58. It is the ability of a material like steel to
based on effective net area is taken ___% of undergo large inelastic deformation without failure.
specified ultimate tensile stress. a. malleability b. tenacity
a. 50 b. 60 c. hardness d. ductility
c. 75 d. 85
____59. For offset bent longitudinal bars, the
___49. The minimum outside diameter of pipe piles horizontal support at offset bends shall be provided
when used must be? (NSCP 307.6.3) by lateral ties, spiral or parts of the floor
a. 250 mm b. 300 mm construction. Horizontal support provided shall be
c. 350 mm d. 400 mm designed to resist 1-1/2 times the horizontal
component of the computed force in the inclined
portion of on offset bar.
___50. Roof liveloads shall be assumed to act:
Lateral ties or spiral shall be placed not more than
a. vertically upon the area projected on the
______ from points of bend
horizontal
a. 100mm b. 150 mm
b. normal to the surface area of the roof
c. 200mm d. 250 mm
c. vertically upon the surface area of the
roof
___60. It is an imaginary distance from the
d. d. all of the above
centroidal axis at which the entire area can be
assumed to exist without affecting the moment of
___51. It refers to the occupancy load which is either
inertia.
partially in place or fully in place or may not be
a. centroid b. shear center
present at all is called:
c. eccentricity d. radius of gyration
a. Live load b. Dead load
c. Concentrated load d. Distributed load
____61. In the strength design method (NSCP
2010), the ultimate load is computed as:
___52. Ratio of unit stress to unit strain:
a. 1.4LL+1.7DL b. 1.4DLx1.7LL
a. Ratio and proportion b. Moment of Inertia
c. 1.6LL+1.4DL d. 1.2DLx1.7LL
c. Modulus of elasticity d. Slenderness ratio
____ 62. In joist construction, consisting of
___53. In T-beam construction, the flange and web
monolithic combination of regularly spaced ribs and a
being built integrally, the width of the slab effective
top slab, the ribs shall not be less than 100mm in
as T-beam flange shall not exceed one quarter of the
width and shall have a depth of not more than
span length of the beam and the effective
______ times the minimum width of rib
overhanging flange width on each side of the web
a. 2 b. 2-1/2
shall not exceed:
c. 3 d. 3-1/2
a) eight times the slab thickness
b) one-half the clear distance to the next web
____63. A composite member with laterally tied
c) smaller of the above
concrete around a steel core (of design yield strength
d) 500mm
not to exceed 350MPa) shall have vertical spacing of
lateral ties shall not exceed
___54. The critical slenderness ratio is the upper
limit of elastic buckling failure, where its average
a. 16 longitudinal bar diameter or 48 tie diameter
column stress is equal to ___.
b. ½ times the least side dimension of the composite
a. 0.5Fy b. 1.0Fy
member
c. 0.75Fy d. 2.0Fy
c. any of the above
d. none of the above
____ 55. Depth of footing above bottom
reinforcement shall not be less than 150mm for
____64. In spirally reinforced or tied reinforcement
footing on soil, nor less than ________ for footing on
compression members, clear distance between
piles
longitudinal (vertical) bars shall not be less than
a. 200 mm c. 250 mm
40mm nor
b. 300 mm d. 400 mm
a. 1.5db b. 2.0db
c. 5.0db d. 1.0db
___56. In computing net area, the width of a rivet or
____65. Minimum grade of concrete for R.C.C.
bolt hole shall be taken as ___mm greater than the
should be _________ , as per IS. 456-2000
nominal dimension of the hole normal to the
a. M10 b. ] M14
direction of applied stress.
c. M20 d. M25
a. 1.2 b. 2.5 c. 1.6
____66. As per IS: 456-2000, modulus of elasticity
d. 2.0
of concrete (in N/mm2) is given by
a. 5700 vfCK b. 5000 vfCK
___57. A quantity which measure the resistance of
c. ] 3700 vfCK d.] 3000 vfCK
the mass to being revolved about line is called
a. tension b. torsion
___67. As per IS: 456-2000, the maximum size of
c. variation d. deflection
aggregate is
01-29-19
a. 1/4 of maximum thickness of member a. 0.0011 b. 0.0033
b. 1/4 of minimum thickness of member c. 0.0021 d. 0.0051
c. 1/5 of maximum thickness of member
d. 1/5 of minimum thickness of member ____75. Determine the actual steel-concrete ratio
(ρmin)
____68. As stated in the NSCP 2010 provisions a. 0.011 b. 0.033
407.7.1 for one-way slab design the minimum clear c. 0.021 d. 0.051
spacing between parallel bars shall be either
diameter of the bars or ___. ____76. Determine the max. steel-concrete ratio
a. 25 mm b. 35 mm (ρmax)
c. 30 mm d. 40 mm a. 0.0131 b. 0.0373
c. 0.0213 d. 0.0512
___69. The diameter of the stirrups according to IS
: 456-2000 should not be less than ____77. Which of the following assumptions holds
a. 5 mm b. 6 mm true?
c. 8 mm d. 10 mm a. Concrete would yield first
b. Steel would yield first
____70. The Minimum bar spacing should not be c. Concrete and steel would both yield
less than d. None of the above
a. Diameter of the largest bar
b. Maximum size of aggregate ____78. Find the depth of the equivalent stress block
c. Greater of diameter of the largest bar and (a)
maximum size of aggregate a. 101.210 mm b. 272.130 mm
d. Greater of diameter of the largest bar and c. 121.410 mm d. 216.302
maximum size of aggregate plus 5 mm mm

CO6. Design/Investigate simple reinforced ____79. Determine the maximum allowable moment
concrete structures (Mn)
a. 127.210 kN-m b. 476.020 kN-m
____ 71. What is a steel element such as wire, b. 221.760 kN-m d. 584.380
cable, bar, rod or strand, or a bundle of such kN-m
elements, used to impart pre-stress to concrete?
a. Pre stress cables b. Tenon cables ____80. To achieve the most economical design, the
c. Reinforcements d. Tendon spacing of stirrups at mid span section _______
compared to that of support section
_____72. The design is said to be under reinforced if a. Must be equal b. Must be decreased
the ρact is ____ ρmin? c. Must be increased d. None of the above.
a. equal to b. less than
c. greater than d. none of ____81. What is the minimum concrete cover for
the above primary reinforcement of beams or columns not
exposed to earth or water for precast manufactured
_____73. Buckling of column can be reduced by under plant control conditions?
which of the following? Check the four that apply. a.db but not less than 25mm
A. Increasing the size of the member b.db but not less than 15mm and need not
B. Rotating the column exceed 40mm
C. Bracing the column c.db but not less than 20mm and not to exceed
D. Changing the type of the restraints 50mm
E. Reducing the length of the column d.db but not less than 30mm
F. Reducing the radius of gyration
___82. A structure will have a better chance of
a. A, B, D, F b. C, D, E, F surviving an earthquake if which of the following is
c. A, C, D, E d. A, B, C, D true?
a. The load-bearing members are not equally
_____ For No. 74 – 79: Using Ultimate strength loaded
design, determine the unknown of the following, b. All columns and walls are discontinuous.
shown below is the cross-section of the beam. c. Principal members change section abruptly
Given: d. The structure has redundancy

____83. Slab should be design as one-way slab if

600mm AT = 2580 mm2
the ratio (m) of the shorter side over the longer side
of the slab is
fc’ = 28 MPa
75mm a. m>0.5 b. m<0.5
b. c. m=1 d. m=0
fy = 420 MPa
375
mm ____84. The recommended deflection criteria due to
Es = 200
____74. Determine the minimum GPa
steel-concrete ratio wind loading on a brick vender wall utilizing a metal
(ρmin) stud back-up system is:
01-29-19
a. L/600 b. L/400 a. Accelerator
c. L/360 d.L/720 b. Plasticizer
c. Air-entraining agent
____ 85. A joint where two successive placement of d. Accelerator and Air-entraining agent
concrete meet is called
a. truss joint b. construction joint ____ 94. A structure will have a better chance
c. contraction joint d. expansion joint of surviving an earthquake if which of the following is
true?
_____ 86. A _______________ is a vertical element a. The load-bearing members are not equally loaded
that resists lateral forces in the plane of the wall
through shear and bending. Such a wall acts as a b. The structure has redundancy
beam cantilevered out of the ground or foundations, c. Principal members change section abruptly
and part of its strength derives from its depths. d. All columns and walls are discontinuous.
Examples are interior wall of a multi-storey building,
enclosing stairways, elevator shafts and mechanical ____ 95. Which of the following criterion precludes
chases which are mostly solid and run the entire good condition practice for conduits and pipes
height of the building. embedded in concrete
a. Tension Wall b. Shear Wall
c. Standing Wall d. Screen Wall a. conduits and pipes embedded is slab, wall or beam
shall not be larger in outside dimension than 1/3 the
_____87. A reinforcing steel of grade 60 has yield overall thickness of slab, wall or beam in which they
strength of ____ Mpa? are embedded
a. 414 b. 40 b. reinforcement with an area not less than 0.002
c. 248 d. 276 times area of cross-section shall be provided normal
to piping
_____ 88. In column, the ratio of its effective length c. conduits and pipes, with their fittings embedded
to its least radius of gyration is called: within the column shall not displace more than 5% of
a. Moment of Inertia the area of cross-section which strength is calculated
b. Development length d. concrete cover for pipes, conduits, and fittings hall
c. Slenderness ratio not be less than 40mm for concrete exposed to each
d. Ratio and proportion of the weather

_____89. A joint where two successive placement of _____96. A building form that is ideal for resistance
concrete meet is called: to earthquake forces would be characterized of the
a. Truss joint following? Check the two that apply.
b. Contraction joint A. Symmetrical about a reentrant corner
c. Construction joint B. Symmetrical in plan.
d. Expansion joint C. Heavier at the base than at the top
D. Asymmetrical in plan
____90. In any one bundle, groups of parallel E. Long linear plan
reinforcing bars bundled in contract to act as a unit F. Asymmetrical in elevation
shall be limited to a maximum of
a. three b. four a. A, F b. A, E
c. five d. six c. B, C d. C, D

____91. Development length or the development of _____99. One-way concrete slab are used when:
a required length of rebar is provided in a reinforced
concrete beam is for what major purpose? a. The slab is being supported by two parallel beams
a. To hold the bars in place during pouring of fresh b. The slab has no cantilevered portion
concrete c. The concrete slab is reinforced on the near bottom
b. To provide additional strength against torsion side
c. To allow the steel to reach its maximum strength d. The concrete slab is sloping to the all side
and prevent slippage of bars
d. To prevent vertical shearing of concrete ____ 100. Concrete is unsuitable for compaction by
vibration if it is
____92. The purpose of prestressing concrete a. Semi – plastic
members is to b. Plastic
a. respond to the characteristics of concrete c. Earth moist
b. eliminate beam deflection d. Dry
c. reduce tensile stresses resulting from loads
d. transfer loads to non-structural members VI. BUILDING MATERIALS AND TECHNOLOGY

____93. . Which of the following admixtures would CO1 Describe the basic properties and characteristics of building
you recommend to use in a construction project in a materials
northern climate that was built during the summer
months if the concrete will be exposed to the 1. Common size of plywood
weather? a. 4’ x 8’ b. 5’ x 10’
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c. 2’ x 4’ d. 4’ x 7’ a. asphalt b. paint c. cement d. glass

2. Which is more fire-resistant? 15. Which type of plastic is a styrenic resin with improved
a. Wood b. metal toughness and heat resistance and exhibits high gloss, low shrinkage, and
c. concrete d. Plastic good dimensional stability, is widely used in injection molding of
appliances, furniture, and automotive partsused for construction joints?
3. How can you prevent wood from shrinking and expanding? a. Acrylonitrile Butadiene Styrene b. Epoxy
a. Seasoning b. cutting c. c. Polyester d. PVC
preservative treatment
16. Which is used in buildings for its remarkable adhesive qualities.
4. How can you prevent wood from decaying? It may also be used for special paints that are chemically resistant and for
a. Seasoning b. cutting special caulking compound?
c. preservative treatment a. Epoxy b. Acrylonitrile Butadiene Styrene
c. Polyester d. Structural glue
5. Which is bigger?
a. Timber b. board 17. Which type of plastic is most commonly used in large glass-
c. dimension lumber fiber reinforced translucent panels that are strong, rigid, and impact-
resistant? Also used for impregnating paper and wood, as laminating
6. What do you call the test to determine the consistency of material, and for contact adhesive.
concrete? a. Epoxy b. Acrylonitrile Butadiene Styrene
a. Sloyh test b. soil test c. polyester d. Resin
c. slump test
18. Which type of plastic combines the transparency of glass (but
7. Which is more resistant to corrosion? not scratch-proof quality) with plastics’ shatterproof quality. Used
a. Cast iron b. galvanized iron principally for skylights, skydomes, safety glass, paints, adhesives, finish
c. aluminum hardware, & lighting fixtures?
a. Polystyrene b. Acrylic c. Polycarbonate
8. Which is harder?
a. Limestone c. marble 19. Which type of thermosetting plastic is used in paint coatings,
b. granite d. brick and as foams, are self-adhesive.?
a. Silicone b. Acrylic
9. Which glass breaks into small, square pieces when broken? c. Urethanes
a. Low-e glass b. tempered glass
c. spandrel d. annealled glass 20. It is a kind of lumber used for light construction
a. shop lumber
10. It is a kind of metal that has iron as a principal element. b. structural lumber
a. ferrous c. aluminium c. yard lumber
b. non-ferrous d. none of the above d. rough lumber

10. An artificial stone like building material made by mixing cement and CO3 Determine the appropriate installation method for a given
various mineral of aggregates with sufficient water to cause the cement to building material
set and bind the entire mass.
a. Cement c. Grout 21. Process of concrete treatment to avoid evaporation of moisture and
b. Mortar d. Gravel temperature conditions.
a. drying
CO2 Enumerate the uses and application of building materials in b. curing
construction. c. additive inclusion
e. waterproofing
11. In a tropical climate, windows should ideally be shaded from direct
sunlight all year round and should open to allow air flow. Where effective 22. Used during very hot weather to slow down the hydration of the
shading cannot be achieved, insulating windows against heat transfer can cement.
reduce cooling costs. The following measures can help reduce heat input a. Retarders
through glass: b. colored pigments
a. Tinted glass c. accelerators
b. Reflective coatings d. air-entraining agent
c. Advanced glazing technologies
d. All of the above 23. What is the purpose of subflooring?
a. It is the nonstructural material that lays under the flooring as
12. It is a type of glass used where clear vision is not required a vapor bearer to the outside elements.
a. rolled and rough cast glass b. It is the drywall layer underneath vinyl flooring so there is a
b. tempered glass smooth finish to work with.
c. annealled glass c. It is the structural material that spans across floor joists, and
d. none of the above. a base for finished flooring.
d. It acts as the cushion layer for carpeting when it’s laid over
13. The rebars commonly used for construction and structural load- concrete.
bearing members are:
a. round bars b. deformed bars c. steel sections 24. What type of wall system employs mullions which are fabricated in the
d. none of the above shop and then installed, and “glazed”/assembled in the field?
This is considered the cheapest in terms of shipping and
14. It is an insoluble material used for waterproofing
01-29-19
handling costs from factory to the jobsite, however, it requires 34. Street line elevation is +10.00m, the reference point is 2.00m above
skillful labor to install and assemble this system on-site. street line, the natural grade line is 3.00 below the reference
a. Unit system b. Stick system c. Unit and Mullion system d. point. Column footing depth is 2.00m from the natural grade
Point-loaded line. What is the elevation of the foundation bed?
A. +9.00m B. +5.00m
25. What pipe should not be buried underground? C. +7.00m
a. Black Iron pipe c. poly-ethylene pipe
b. Galvanized iron pipe d. cast – iron pipe 35. Which comes first when construction a slab on fill?
a. FDT b. Concrete Mixing
CO4 Enumerate essential concepts and principles relative to c. Temperature Bars d. DLM
construction, erection, assembling and fabrication of a simple low-
rise building. CO5 Enumerate essential concepts and principles relative to
construction, erection, assembling and fabrication of a medium- rise
26. What is the proper method of installing a steel window frame? building through the production of working drawings.
a. Install the frame before finishing the window opening
b. Finish the window opening first before installing the frame 36. What is the size of a column at the ground floor of a 15-storey building
c. Either way is good, depends on the installer with a beam span at around 8.5-10m?
d. It doesn’t matter a. 2.25 b. 1.60
c. 1.25 d. 0.80
27 What is the fastest way to install wooden cladding to masonry wall
plastered unevenly? 37. Piles that are driven at an inclination to resist forces that are not
a. Nail the wooden cladding directly on it vertical are called:
b. Nail properly treated wooden studs to masonry wall then cover a. batter piles c. slanting piles
with cladding b. spur piles d. all of the above
c. Chip the walls then replaster before placing the wooden
cladding
d. Fix steel turning to masonry wall then cover with wooden 38.A method used advantageously in driving piled in sand, gravel or soft
cladding packed clay due to high resistance offered by this materials to piles driven
by hammer is called:
28. Which comes first when constructing a gypsum board finished a. Splitting c. Stream Hammer
ceiling? b. Jetting d. NOTA
a. Wall angle installation
b. MEPF Roughing-in completion 39. A bearing Pile surrounded by earth and supported entirely by friction;
c. Board Installation carries no load at its end:
d. Metal studs a. Load Bearing Pile c. Raymond Pile
b. Friction Pile d. Pre-cast Pile
29. What is the appropriate size of aggregates for the reinforced
concrete columns? 40. What rebar grade is used for medium-rise structures and and
a. G-1 infrastructure works?
b. ¾ crushed gravel a. Structural or Gr33 b. Intermediate or Gr40
c. Neither of the choices c. High-tensile or Gr60 d. Gr70
d. Either of the choices
41. The filling of waste spaces, embankments or construction cavities by
30. What is the disadvantage of using steel scaffolding over wood sediment or debris carried by water or a pipe or a flume:
scaffolding? a. Tremie
a. More expensive b. Plastic Flow of Concrete
b. requires more space c. Hydraulic Fill
c. takes longer time to assemble d. NOTA
d. can only support to light loadings
42. A system of framing for a building of wood construction several stories
31. When used in the construction site “retaso” means: high, in which the studs are only one story high;
a. excess, cut-off materials from wood ,composites, a.Stud Framing c.Platform Framing
lumber, tiles, etc. b. Balloon Framing d. Combined Framing
b. removal of existing
c. additional mortar or concrete or cement
d. pulling of strings 43. The stressing of unbounded tendons after concrete has cured is
a.Pre Stressing c. Pre Stressing
32. A concrete is already mixed in the plant, but there is an b. Post Tensioning d. Pre Tensioning
anticipated rain, what is the best thing to do?
a. put tarpaulin on concrete after pouring 44. One method of leveling batterboards without the transit is the use of
b. add enhancer a.Level c. Plastic Hose
c. reschedule the pouring b. Braces d. Plum bob
d. purchase pre-cast members at the local hardware
45. Due to temperature effects in materials, concrete walls, slabs of long
33. A R3 maximum residential is bull on a former rice field. On buildings, new buildings adjoining existing buildings should be provided
what strata should the foundation have in rest on? with
a. soft to very soft a.Flashing c. Welded joints
b. soft to medium b. Expansion Joint d. Furring
c. hard to very hard
d. Romblon marble 46. A method of building construction in which floor and roof slabs are cast
at ground level and raised into a position by jacking.
01-29-19
a.Flemish Bond c. English Bond a. The more complex the network of triangles, the
b. Common Bond d. None of the Above closer the shape of the ture sphere was achieved by the said
dome
47. Standard size overlap for corrugated G.I. roofing is b. Triangles are much more stable when subjected to
a.2” b. 11/1” c. 21/2” d. 3” external forces, compared to squares.
c. Consists of interlocking set of 60° triangles.
48. Given a riser equals six inches and using the stair tread-riser d. All of the above
proportion formula 2R + T = 25, how many risers will there be between
two levels having a vertical distance of 9’-0” 58. Composed of thin, deep elements joined rigidly along their boundaries
a.15 Risers c.17 Risers and forming sharp angles to brace each other against lateral buckling.
b. 16 Risers d. 18 Risers a.Folded plate b. space frame c. thin shell

49. Means of spreading foundation loads over a wide are thus 59. Three dimensional structural frames based on the rigidity of a triangle
minimizing bearing pressure and limiting and composed of linear elements subject only to axial tension or
a. Strap Foundation b. Matt Foundation compression.
c. Combined Foundation d. NOTA a. Folded plate b. space frame c. thin shell

50. A buried plate or block tied to and forming an anchorage for sheet 60.This is an example of
pilling or for a retaining wall is a:
a. Anchor Plate c. Dead Man
d. Block Plate d. NOTA

CO6 Identify new trends in construction technology

51. Most thin shell concrete structures use this profile

a. dome b. synclastic c. prismatic d. hypar

52. He invented the ferro-cemento, marrying structural possibilities

of concrete with its aesthetic side.
a. Tedesko b. Nervi c. Torroja d. Candela
a.Tensegrity b. space frame
53. The figure shown below uses what type of thin shell form? c. deployable structure

CO7 Understand the application and construction of pre-fabricated

members

61. The difference between modular construction with pre-cast

construction is that
a. Pre-cast construction usually eats up more space
during transport to the site
b. Modular construction is fabricated at the factory
while the other is not.
c. Modular construction is not efficient in terms of
transporting it to the jobsite
a. hypar b. elliptic paraboloid c. saddle d. barrel shell d. None of the above

54. The figure shown below uses what type of thin shell form? 62. A manner of concrete-based construction by placing concrete over
tendons that have been stressed to the desired degree.
a.Post-tensioning b. Pre-stressing
c. Steel decking d. Cold-rolled beams

63. What did Eugene Freyssinet invent in 1928?

a. Post-tensioning b. Pre-stressing concrete
c. Steel decking d. Space

64. Is a construction product produced by casting concrete in a reusable

a. hypar b. elliptic paraboloid c. saddle d. barrel shell mold or "form" which is then cured in a controlled environment,
transported to the construction site and lifted into place.
55. A three-dimensional set of lightweight, rigid triangular elements a. Precast concrete b. prestressed concrete
which comes in many forms and shapes, constructed from interlocking c. reinforced concrete
struts in a geometric pattern.
a. Truss system b. Space Frame c. Geodesic Dome d. None 65. Refers to multistory structures composed of large wall and floor
of the above concrete panels connected in the vertical and horizontal directions so that
the wall panels enclose appropriate spaces for the rooms within a building.
56. The inventor and proponent of Geodesic Domes was a.Large-panel systems b. Frame systems
a. Frei Otto b. Eugene Freyssinet c. Buckminster Fuller d. c. Slab-column systems with shear walls
Zeiss-Dywidag
CO8 Understand the application and construction of membrane
57. Which of the following statements hold true about geodesic and pneumatic structures
domes?
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66. A type of pneumatic structure which needs constant intake of 76. How many rebars of 9-meter and 7.50-meter lenghts spaced at
air to fulfill its sheltering function. 300mm OCBW are needed to reinforce a slab-on-grade measuring 7.50m
a. air-inflated b. air-supported x 9.00m?
c. cable-restrained d. active intake a. 31-9.00m and 26-7.50m lengths
b. 30-9.00m and 25-7.50m lengths
67. A type of pneumatic structure which is a stand-alone structure, c. 30-7.50m and 25-9.00m lengths
once the pressurized air has been supplied, because of the sealing d. 31-7.50m and 26-9.00m lengths
mechanism of its membrane.
a. air-inflated b. air-supported c. cable-restrained d. 77. Identify the required bags of cement for a concrete slab measuring
active intake 3.00m x 3.00m x 0 .10m using 40-kg cement Class C mixture. Use table
below.
68. These are the structures which are supported by air. Mixture Class Proportion . Cement Sand Gravel
a. Pneumatic structure b. Tensile structure 40 kg Cu.m .Cu.m.
c. thin shell AA 1: 1 ½: 3 12 .50 1.0
69. This is an example of a A 1:2:4 9 .50 1.0
B 1:2 ½: 5 7.5 .50 1.0
C 1: 3: 6 6 .50 1.0

a. 9 bags b. 10 bags c. 11 bags d. 12 bags

78. How many places of gypsum board will you use for a flat ceiling with
an area of 24 sqm?
a. 14 b. 8
a. Pneumatic structure b.Tensile structure c. 9 d. 15
c. thin shell
79.An 8sqm wall is to be converted with tiles, if you will use 0.20m x
0.25m tiles will be needed?
CO9 Apply the knowledge of specifications writing in a. 40 b. 16
architectural design c. 160 d. 32

80.If the total volume of the concrete to be used for the structural parts of
70. "In the numbering system of the MasterFormat, for example 04 the project is 120 cubic meters, how many cum of gravel will be used for a
42 16 for Masonry Works, which 2-digit number refer to various sections Class a concrete mix?
within the division?" a. 60 b. 120
c. 50 d. 100
a. 04 b. 42 c. 16 d. all of them

71. For a concrete mix used for a structural beam, how many bags VII. ARCHITECTURAL DESIGN AND SITE PLANNING
of cements is needed for a 1 cubic meter volume of concrete (using class
A mixture) I. RESIDENTIAL (High-Density Residential)
a. 11 c. 7
b. 9 d. 6 The project site is a rectangular inside lot with a 20 m. lot
frontage facing on the north a 16 m. wide street. The road- right- of-
72. The dimension of commercial acoustic boards for aluminum T-runners way (RROW) slopes at 1% uniformly draining west. The road has a
used for dropped-ceiling in offices is 0.8 wide sidewalk at each side. The project site slopes at 8% from
a.28”x48”x1/2” b. 28”x40”x1/4” the road right of way toward the end of the rear of the property.
c. 30”x60x1” d. 30”x40”x1/2” The surface of the sidewalk shall be generally considered as
elevation 0.0m.
73. Which is not a commercial length of a steel reinforcing bar?
a. 10 m c. 6m To the left of the site is a vacant lot (as viewed from the
b. 9m d. 7.5m RROW) and to the right of the Project Site is a proposed 2-storey
single-detached residence. At the rear of the project site is a creek
74. Which of the following joint sealants has the highest abrasion eight meters wide to its high water line level. The high water line is
resistance? three meters below the grade elevation at the rear of the site and
has a five meter wide embankment.
a. Polyisobutylene b.Polysulfide
1. What shall be the maximum allowable building footprint for the project?
c. Polyurethane d. Silicone a. 480 sq m b. 450 sq m.
c. 420 sq m d. 380 sq m
75 This type of specification is difficult to write because the architect must
include all pertinent information for the construction and installation of the 2. For kitchen in studio units, what is the preferred clear distance between
product. the kitchen counter top and the bottom of an overhead cabinet?
a. 40mm to 45mm b. 30mm to 50mm
a. Descriptive Specifications b. Reference Standard Specifications c. 40mm to 60mm d. 50mm to 60mm
c. Closed Specifications d. Performance Specifications
3. What shall be the minimum area for the kitchen? (in square meters)
a. 2.40 b. 3
CO10 Prepare an estimate of materials used in building c. 3.60 d. 4
construction.
4. What is the area for a square dining table for six persons (in square
meter)?
01-29-19
a. 1.21 b. 1.69 The projects Site is a rectangular corner lot. The shorter side,
c. 1.96 d. 2.25 measuring sixty meters (60.00m) faces west, and the longer side faces
north. The Project Site uniformly slopes at the three percent (3.00%)
5. What is the area allocated or a bedside table (in square meters)? towards the thirty-six meters (36.00m) wide main stress at the north side,
a. 0.25 b. 0.12 i.e. the road right-of-way (RROW) that is relatively flat (at a slope of 0%)
c. 0.22 d. 0.16 and which has a 5m wide sidewalk at both sides. The west side of the
property faces a twenty-six meter (26.00m) wide RROW and which has
6. Which is not good for wardrobe cabinet depth (in meters)? 4m wide sidewalks at both sides. The west side of the properly faces a
a. 0.40 b. 0.50 twenty-six meter (26.00m) wide RROW and which has 4m wide sidewalks
c. 0.55 d. 0.60 at both sides. The surface of the sidewalk at the center of the project. Site
wester frontage is considered as elevation 0.0m
7. If the site would have a slope of 30% from the sidewalk level, which part
of the lot would you start the excavation? 1. What shall be the Maximum Allowable Building Footprint (AMBF) for
a. front of lot b. side of the lot the project (in square meters)?
c. rear of the lot d. center of the lot a. 4,368 b. 4,860
c. 4,320 d. 4,428
8. Which of the following structural elements can be erected along a side
or rear property line if the property is resting on relatively flat terrain? 2. What is the applicable Percentage of Site Occupancy (PSO) for
a. firewalls b. endwall theProject, if the building shall NOT have a firewall?
c. retaining wall d. zocalo wall a. 70 b. 80
c. 90 d. 65
9. Which is NOT a good characteristic of a tree that can be harmful in the
site? 3. For the project, zoned as C-3 under the NBCP, how much is the
a. arboreal b. shallow rooted maximum allowable ISA (in square meters), if the building shall NOT
c. rounded root d. deep root have a firewall?
a. 270 b. 540
10. What tree is medium trunk, medium spread leaves, deep rooted, small c. 810 d. 1,080
diameter roots, resistant to strong winds, relatively safe to plant
near a building/structure? 4. For the projects, using the prescribed FLAR designation/rights under
a. palm tree b. coconut tree the NBCP, what shall be the maximum Gross Floor Area (GFA, in
c. mahogany d. acacia square meters) that can be generated for the Project?
a. 183,600 b. 8,100
11. What tree is rigid, medium spread leaves, shallow rooted, small c. 48,600 d. 150,552
diameter roots, not resistant to strong winds and may be a 5. For the project, based on the maximum GFA under the NBCP, what
hazard if planted near a building? shall be the maximum Total Gross Floor Area (TGFA, in square
a. palm tree b. coconut tree meters) that can be generated for the Project?
c. mahogany d. acacia a. 275,400 b. 12,150
c. 72,900 d. 225,828
12. The toilet and bath measures 1.5m x 2.5m. What is the nearest
minimum size for the window opening? 6. Which furniture should NOT be in the Senior Manager’s room?
a. 0.4m x 0.5m b. 0.30m x 0.4m a. filing cabinet b. executive desk
c. 0.4m x 0.6m d. 0.375m x 0.5m c. clerical chair d. visitor’s chair

13. What is not allowed for a toilet and bath dimension? 7. Which should you use to minimize disturbance to adjoining properties?
a. 0.9m x 1.2m b. 0.9m x 1.4m a. bored piles b. driven piles
c. 0.80m x 1.5m d. 1.0m x 1.2m c. floating foundation d. matt foundation

14. Area for a single bed? (in square meter?) 8. Which is not a service provision?
a. 1.425 b. 1.52 a. security office b. maintenance room
c. 1.71 d. 1.90 c. motor pool d. executive lounge

15. What shouldn’t be located at the basement, if introduced? 9. Which should NOT be in a private office area?
a. MBF b. workshop a. conference space b. executive table
c. den d. dry storage c. visitor’s chair d. filing cabinet

Il. COMMERCIAL (High-Rise Office Building) 10. What is not a preferred height for a workable surface from FFL?
a. 74mm b. 75mm
A Proposed High-Rise OFFICE CONDOMINIUM Project, i.e a c. 76mm d. 78mm
development with a Basement, a Podium (with covered parking) and a
Tower component and on Project Site having a three percent (3.00%) 11. Which is NOT a utility provision?
slope. a. generator room b. cistern
c. parking d. sump pit
STATEMENT OF THE PROBLEM:
A Privately owned Company has decided that its C-3 zoned 12. Which is not a service prevision?
property with a Total Lot Area (TLA) of five thousand four hundred square a. security office b. AHU room
meters (5,400sqm) located in rising new urban center be developed into a c. water tank d. carpentry room
High-Rise OFFICE CONDOMINIUM. The project development shall
consist of two (2) types: (1st) forty (40) sqm GFA Office Units; (2nd) eighty 13. Which is not a facility?
(80) sqm GFA Office Units. a. game room b. cafeteria
cbusiness center d. gym
PROJECT SITE FEATURES:
01-29-19
14. If there are 2 cars in between columns, which cannot be the clear span
distance between columns? A Proposed Garment and Undergarment FACTORY Project Site
a. 4.90m b. 5.20m having Four percent (4%) slope.
c. 6.00m d. 5.50m
STATEMENT OF THE PROBLEM:
15. Shall not precede the architectural design activity for the project? A privately owned company has decided to erect a building on
a. outline specifications its property with a Total Lot Area (TLA) of eight thousand square meters
b. user identification (8,000sqm) located in an industrial zone . The structure to be erected shall
c. space planning be an industrial building.
d. arch’l programming
PROJECT SITE FEATURES:
16. Shall not precede the architectural design activity for the project? The project Site is a rectangular inside (regular) lot with an
a. specification eighty meter (80m) wide frontage facing west. The project site uniformly
b. user identification slopes at four percent (4%) towards a creek six meter (6m) wide at the
c. arch’l programming east. The side facing west is a road for regular access of container vans
d. space brief preparation and trucks on a 24-hour basis. The road right-of-way (RROW) is a thirty
meter (30m) wide street having a slope of 2/3 or 1% draining north and
17. Which is not a good keyhole height from FFL? which has 2.4 meter wide sidewalks at both side. The surface of the
a. 0.975m b. 0.963m sidewalk at the center of the Projects Site frontage is considered as
c. 1.055m d. 1.15m elevation 0.0.
The primary RROW is intersected at right angles by two minor
18. What is the best paint color for exterior walls? streets, each with six meters (6m) RROW. The two (2) corners have six
a. dark gray b. dark beige meters (6m) “chaflans” with legs of 4.25 meters. To the left of the sites a
c. light gray d. light beige private office building, to the right is a ceramics factory, across the site are
two (2) videoke bars and a restobar with live-band performances, and
19. On a swampy area, what type of soil should the foundation rest on? across the creek are 2-storey row houses.
a. hard b. soft
c. sandy d. coarse 1. What is the maximum allowable impervious surface area (ISA) for
the Project, if the building shall NOT have a firewall? The answer is a
20. If an artificially ventilated habitable area on the 10 th floor allocates percentage (%) of the Total Lot Area (TLA).
square meters per person, what will be the minimum celling a. 5 b. 10
height? c. 15 d. 20
a. 1.7m b. 2.4m
c. 2.0m d. 2.1m 2. For the Project Site (zoned as Industrial 2 under the NBCP) how
much is the combined total for the maximum allowable ISA plus the
21. What shall be the clear span of columns if located on a driveway that minimum USA (in square meters)?
could accommodate two cars simultaneously? a. 2,410 b. 1,600
a. 5m b. 6m c. 3,600 d. 1,040
c. 4.8m d. 5.6m
3. For the Project Site (zoned as 1-2 under the NBCP), how much is
22. If the building is a high-rise government office building, what kind of the maximum allowable construction area MACA (in square meters),
treatment should best fit the façade? if the building shall NOT have a firewall?
a. more on concrete with less on glass and steel a. 6,000 b. 6,800
b. more on glass and steel and less on concrete c. 7,290 c. 7,600
c. combination of concrete and plastic
d. more on steel 4. For the project, using the prescribed FLAR designation/rights under the
NBCP, what shall be the maximum Gross Floor Area (GFA, in
23. Which of the following should NOT be provided at the basement square meters) that can be generated for the Projects?
component of the project? a. 16,800 b. 24,000
a. parking b. service stairs c. 20,000 d. 19,200
c. telecom room d. garbage room
5. For the project, under the NBCP an based on the maximum PSO
24. Under the 1977 National Building Code of the Philippines (NBCP), and BHL, what shall be the maximum Total Gross Floor Area (TGFA)
what is covered by the Building Height Limit (BHL) for the for the Project (in square meters)?
Project? a. 39,200 b. 117,600
a. mast b. antennae c. 44,800 d. 134,400
c. lightning rod d. parapet wall
6. Which is NOT a resilient floor finish for the factory?
25. Given its orientation, what are the dominant sun-paths for the a. vinyl strip b. vinyl tile
property? c. ceramic tile d. carpet tile
a. SE to SW; NE to NW
b. SW to SE; NW to NE 7. Which of the following is not a recommended type of lightning for
c. SE to NW; SW to NE factory?
d. SE to NE; SW to NW a. LED b. pendant lightning
c. CFL d halogen
26. If the ground floor FFL is 500mm above the sidewalk level, how long is
the ramp to be provided? 8. What kind of treatment should best fit the façade of a garment
a. 3m b. 6m factory?
c. 10m d. 12m a. more on concrete with less on glass and steel
b. more on glass and steel and less on concrete
lll. INDUSTRIAL (Medium Industrial/Manufacturing Building) c. combination of concrete and plastic
01-29-19
d. more on steel 21. Which of the following is a good lightning device for a general
production area with the celling consisting of the soffit of a
9. What is the best architectural style for the factory? suspended slab?
a. classical b. utilitarian a. Pendant lightning (suspended incandescent lamps)
c. post-modern d. neoclassical b. Industrial Lightning (suspended fluorescent lamps
with reflectors)
10. Which is not a sanitary spatial requirement? c. Pendant lightning (suspended CFI.s with housing)
a. sump pit b. pump room d. Troffer lightning (fluorescent lamps with soffit-
c. STP d. Solid waste mounted lightboxes and diffusers)
storage
22. For the administrative office area, what is the best lightning to
11. If the factory area allocates three square meters per person, what shall be used?
be the minimum celling height? a. daylight b. cool white
a. 2.7m b. 3m c. warm white d. none of the above
c. 3.5m d. 4m
23. If an elevator shall be provided, what should be the minimum
12. Given its orientation what are the dominant sun-paths for the inside dimension for the elevator car as per BP 344
property? requirements?
a. SE to SW; NE to NW a. 1.10w x 1.20d b. 1.20w x 1.40d
b. SW to SE; NW to NE c. 1.10w x 1.40d d. 1.20w x 1.20d
c. SE to NW; SW to NE
d. SE to NE; SW to NW 24. If cement boards shall be used for the walls separating the
administrative offices, how many places will be used if the wall
13. Considering structural stability and economy, where is the best area is 160 sqm?
place to position the perimeter beams of a building? a. 55 b. 56
a. along the center line of the column c. 110 d. 112
b. along the exterior face of the columns
c. along the interior face of the columns 25. What should be the wall footing width for a 3m high wall?
d. at a point 1/3 from the center of the column a. 300mm b. 400mm
c. 500mm d. 600mm
14. Considering maintenance, where is the best place to position the
downspouts of the rood deck?
a. embedded in columns
b. CHB pipe chase
c. In the exterior of building, near the columns but
outside the cladding
d. in the exterior of the building , but far from the
columns

15. What waterproofing color is the best for roof deck?

a. light gray b. dark gray
c. black d. white

16. Which should not be placed inside a building’s basement level?

a. incinerator b. garbage disposal
c. sump pit d. parking

17. Assuming a heavily forested location for the Project Site, what
type of roof structure should be introduced?
a. steel deck roof
b. steep gable roof
c. RC deck roof
d. low-slope metal roofing

18. If the eighteen (18.00) meters wide cluster street will be provided
with sidewalks at both sides, what should be the preferred side
walk width at each side (including planting strip)?
a. 2.4m b. 3m
c. 1.5m d. 3.6m

19. Under the 1977 National Building Code of the Philippines

(NBCP), what is covered by the Building Height
c. parapet d. lightning rod

20. What should be the prominent line for the industrial building
with a frontage of 80m?
a. horizontal b. vertical
c. diagonal d. curve
HISTORY OF ARCHITECTURE- 7 GATES

Identification:

1. First clear cut example of large scale communal architecture CATAL HUYUK

2. Large vertical stones with a covering slab like a giant table DOLMENS

3. Large standing or upright stones MENHIR

4. A famous site with concentric arrangements of dolmens and or trilithons with an altar in the

middle and serves to predict both lunar and solar eclipses STONE HENGE

5. Greek period marked by the death of Alexander and is known to mark the increase in interest

over civic buildings HELLENISTIC

6. A Greek column order that represents the proportions of a man’s body, its strength and its beauty

DORIC ORDER

7. A Greek column order that represents the shape of a women with its delicacy and feminine

slenderness IONIC ORDER

8. Corinthian order is a bell-like capital that is decorated with rows of carved ACANTHUS leaves.

9. One of the most important Greek building on the Acropolis dedicated to the Goddess Athena for

her dedication of giving the gift of the Olive tree. PARTHENON

10. The Largest Theater in all of Greece. EPIDAURUS

11. The Erechtheum was named after Erechtheus, the legendary king of Athens. Famous for its

caryatids and its architect is known as the famous MNESIKLES.

12. The famous building of Athens, Greece that was a space used for social, commercial and political

activities such as the marketplace. AGORA

13. A classical portico or roofed colonnade structure. STOA

14. The Roman public bath building. THERMAE

15. Famous Structure whose architects was Apollodorus of Damascus. It is a circular building with a

portico of composite columns under a pediment. It has the most famous oculus and coffered

ceiling. PANTHEON

16. Also known as the Flavian Amphitheatre, is an oval amphitheater in the Centre of the city of Rome,

Italy. COLOSSEUM

17. Mythical monster with a body of a lion and head of a man is SPHINX. While if having the head of
a woman is ANDROSPHINX then having the head of a ram is CRIOSPHINX, lastly having the head

of a hawk is HIERACOSPHINX.

18. An ancient Egyptian rectangular, flat topped funerary mound with battered (sloping sides)

covering a burial chamber below the ground. Also known as the earliest forms of a pyramid.

MASTABA

19. The two types of the evolution of a Mastaba before achieving the perfect pyramid is known as the

BENT & STEP pyramids.

20. It is a Sacred Symbol of the Sun God Heliopolis, a huge monolith, square in plan and tapering to

an electrum-capped pryamidion at the summit. One of the best example of this is “Cleopatra’s

Needle”. OBELISK

1. The church that was dedicated to the Wisdom of God, the Logos, the second person of the Holy

Trinity. HAGIA SOPHIA

2. A lofty, often slender, tower or turret attached to a mosque, surrounded by or furnished with one

or more balconies, from which the muezzin calls the people to prayer. MINARETS

3. A Papal major basilica and the largest Catholic Marian church in Rome, Italy, from which size it

receives the appellation "major". BASILICA DI SANTA MARIA MAGGIORE

4. A decorative system of slender, intersecting stone bars which form a geometrical or flowing

pattern in Gothic windows. TRACERY

5. Period of architecture that was highly symmetrical and carefully proportioned. RENAISSANCE

I. Enumeration

1. Enumerate atleast 7 Styles of Modern Architecture

CHICAGO I

CHICAGO II

FUTURISM

BAUHAUS

DESTIJL

CONSTRUCTIVISM

EXPRESSIONISM
 ART-DECO

STREAMLINE

COMMUNISM / NAZISM

TOTALITARIANISM

ORGANIC ARCHITECTURE

INTERNATIONAL STYLE

BRUTALISM

NEO EXPRESSIONISM

GOOGIE

2. Enumerate the 3 Types of Domes

SIMPLE

COMPOUND

SPECIAL DESIGN

1. The first emperor of china who’s one of the legacy was the terra cotta army? Shi Huang Di
2. The largest ancient palatial structure in the world. Forbidden City
3. A circular-based stone-constructed Buddhist pagoda built in 523 AD during the southern and
Northern Dynasties period. It is the oldest existent stone Chinese pagoda. Songyue Pagoda
4. It has over 100 buildings with 200 years of royal history and architectural experimentation.
Considered Thailand’s primary and most important temple. Wat Phra Kaew
5. One of the most impressive Hindu temples in Thailand. It is home to all the gods of the Hindu
religion and reveals a detailed, colorful structure. Sri Mariamman
6. Which period is considered the golden age of Thai culture where it gained independence in 1238
and quickly expanded its boundary of influence. Sukhothai
7. Architecture during this Thai period was constructed during the reign of king Rama III had either
one of the two distinctive characteristics (‘in’ or ‘out’). Rattanakosin
8. It is the largest, the most puzzling and historically important Buddhis temple form the Sukhothai
period. Wat Si Chum
9. The bot is reserved for monks to perform ceremonies, meditate and sermonize. It faces east and
usually houses the main Buddha image. Bot
10. A solid dome-shaped structure where relics of buddha may be housed, such as a bone fragment
or hair, or the ashes of a past king. Chedi
11. It means, ‘tassel of air’ and is perhaps the most recognizable architectural detail in any wat.
Chofa
12. These are dwelling places used by wandering monks during rainy season but eventually evolved
into centers of learning in Buddhist Architecture. Viharas
13. These are mound-like or hemispherical structure containing relics usually remains of Buddhist
monks or nuns; also a place for meditation. Stupa
14. Generally called Rumah Adat, a traditional ancestral house by Toraja, having a distinguishing
boat-shaped and oversized saddleback roof. Tongkonan House
15. It is the world’s largest Buddhist. The monument consists of nine stacked platforms, six square
and three circular, topped by a central dome. The temple is decorated with 2,672 relief panels
and 504 Buddha statues. Borobodur Temple
16. It is considered the largest and finest example of Hindu architecture in Java also a UNESCO
World Heritage Site and is the largest Hindu Temple site in Indonesia, and one of the biggest in
Southeast Asia. Prambanan Complex
17. It is known as a standard measurement of intercolumnation in Japanese Architecture. Ken
18. Built by prince Shotoku, it is considered the most important temple in Japan due to its great
antiquity, beauty and architectural integrity. Horyuji Temple
19. It is the term was first used to describe a period in the history of Japanese fine-arts and
architecture. Asuka
20. Dimensions of a tatami floor mat. 1.80mx.90m
21. Malaysia largest mosque and also the second largest mosque in southeast asia. Its most
distinguishing feature is its large blue and silver dome. Sultan Salahuddin Abdul Aziz Shah
Mosque
22. It has the honot of being the highest ancient palace in the world, with its highest point reaching
3,750 meters ( 12,300 feet) above sea level. Potala palace
23. What do you call the gatewat, which is a feature of Chinese architecture and erected only by
government permission as memoria; to deceased persons of distinction? Pai-lou
24. In modern Muslim mosques, which of the following is/ are to be applied? Minarets
25. Stupa or temples cut in rock formation is a contribution of what style of architecture? Indian
26. Who is the architect of the central bank of the Philippines? Gabriel Formoso
27. Toranas or gateways are characteristics features of what style of architecture? Indian
28. In the bahay na bato, what do you call the space on the ground floor used for storing the
caroza? Zaguan
29. In the bahay kubo, what do you call the space found underneath the house used as storage and
it is also where the people do some of their livelihood such as weaving, cooking and etc. Silong
30. In the bahay kubo, what do you call the space used for drying & storing pots & pans, etc.
Bongorangan

PARTS OF THE BAHAY NA BATO:

31. ZAGUAN – space for the caroza

32. CUADRA- horse stable
33. BODEGA- storage room
34. CAIDA- ante sala from stairs
35. SALA- living room
36. COMEDOR- dining room
37. KUSINA / COCINA –kitchen
38. DISPENSA- Pantry
 39. LATRINA- toilet
40. PALIGUAN/ BANYO- bath
41. AZOTEA- open terrace
42. ALJIBE- cistern
43. ENTRESUELO- vault
44. BALCON- balcony
45. PATIO- courtyard

Name Architect Picture

AEG TURBINES FACULTY PETER BEHRENS

PARLIAMENT BUILDING IN LE CORBUSIER

CHANDIGARGH INDIA

PAVILLION L’ ESPRIT LE CORBUSIER

COLOSSEO QUADRATO GIOVANNI GUERRINI, ERNESTO

LAPADULA, MARIO ROMANO

BOSTON CITY HALL KALLMAN MCKINNELL AND

KNOWLES

GLASS HOUSE PHILIP JOHNSON

CASA BATTLO ANTONIO GAUDI

TALIESIN FRANK LLOYD WRIGHT

HABITAT OF MONTREAL MOSHE SAFDIE

NOTRE DAME DU HAUT LE CORBUSIER

SALK INSTITUTE FOR LOUIS KHAN

BIOLOGICAL STUDIES

FARNSWORTH HOUSE LUDWIG MIES VAN DER ROHE

NAME COUNTRY PICTURE

THE GREAT MIYAJIMA TORII JAPAN
OF ITSUKUSHIMA SHRINE

HIMEJI CASTLE JAPAN

KEK LOK SI TEMPLE MALAYSIA

TEMPLE OF HEAVEN CHINA

RANAKPUR JAIN TEMPLE INDIA

NAME ARCHITECT LOCATION PICTURE

MANILA CENTRAL JUAN M. MANILA CITY
POST OFFICE ARELLANO,
TOMAS MAPUA

MANILA JUAN M. MANILA CITY

METROPOLITAN ARELLANO
THEATER, 1931

THE MERALCO JOSE MARIA ORTIGAS

BUILDING, A.K.A. ZARAGOZA AVENUE, PASIG
LOPEZ BUILDING CITY

PHILIPPINE HEART JORGE Y. QUEZON CITY

CENTER RAMOS
QUEZON HALL- JUAN NAKPIL QUEZON CITY
UNIVERSITY OF
THE PHILIPPINES
DILIMAN, 1950S

NICANOR REYES PABLO MANILA CITY

HALL- FAR ANTONIO
EASTERN
UNIVERSITY
COMPLEX

PHILIPPINE LEANDRO MANILA CITY

INTERNATIONAL LOCSIN
CONVENTION
CENTER, 1976

NATIONAL LEANDOR MANILA CITY

THEATER- LOCSIN
CULTURAL CENTER
OF THE
PHILIPPINES
COMPLEX
TANGHALANG LEANDRO LOS BANOS,
MARIANG LOCSIN LAGUNA
MAKILING-
NATIONAL ARTS
CENTER

SAN MIGUEL MANOSA ORTIGAS

CORPORATION BROTHERS CENTER,
BUILDING (MANUEL, MANDALUYONG
FRANCISCO, CITY
AND JOSE)

PHILAM LIFE CARLO MANILA CITY

BUILDING, 1961 ARGUELLES

PARISH OF THE LEANDRO UNIVERSITY OF

HOLY SACRIFICE LOCSIN THE
PHILIPPINES-
DILIMAN,
QUEZON CITY
IGLESIA NI CRISTO CARLOS A. QUEZON CITY
CENTRAL TEMPLE SANTOS-VIOLA

MANILA CITY HALL ANTONIO M. MANILA CITY

TOLEDO

COCONUT PALACE FRANCISCO MANILA CITY

MANOSA

ST. LA SALLE HALL TOMAS MAPUA TAFT AVENUE,

MANILA CITY

ROMAN/ GREEK/BYZANTINE ARCHITECTURE

1. Dolmen tomb is a prehistoric megalithic tomb

2. Houses in catal huyuk- Anatolia were entered through a hole in the roof
3. Monumental architecture of Egypt was essentially a columnar and trabeated style
4. Egyptian Mastabas were, the earliest tombs of the Pharaohs
5. Main Parts of an Egyptian Cult Temple are: pylons, hypostyle hall, mortuary temple
6. The best example of a Greek doric temple is: the Parthenon
7. A ziggurat is a temple tower
8. The Greek entablature has: architrave, frieze and cornice
9. The Corinthian order: first used only for internal colonnades
10. One of the important contributions to architecture which was introduced during the roman
period is: complete mastery of concrete for vaulting
11. During the roman period, Circuses were used for: chariot races
12. During the Early Christian period churches were used for; ceremonies, services and a covered
cemetery
13. The building which influenced all byzantine church architecture is the Church of Hagia Sophia
14. The byzantine dome was constructed using pendentives
15. During the prehistoric period the residential settlements had: small communities composed of
single-roomed houses
16. Temple of Hatshepsut in Thebes, In Egypt is; A mortuary Temple of New Kingdom
17. The Obelisk is a huge monolith
18. The pyramids at Gizeh in Egypt were a part of a complex with many other related buildings
19. The sphinx has a: human head and animal body
20. 3 different types of Egyptian Column Capitals are; bell capital, palm capital, bud capital
21. In a Greek temple, the section of the building from the ground up to the column base is called
stylobate
22. The 2 new orders introduced during the roman period are; composite and Tuscan
23. What are the 3 main section of a Greek theatre none of the above
24. Pantheon in Rome has a; a rotunda crowned by a dome
25. During roman empire aqua ducts were used; to transport water
26. Early inhabitants of Italy who were great builders whose methods of construction influenced
roman architecture. Estruscans
27. One of the greatest contributions of Romans to construction, it is generally a composite material
which consist essentially of binding medium within which are embedded particles or fragments
or aggregate. Concrete
28. An arch covering, in stone or brick. Vault
29. Architecture of the Eastern Roman Empire which was developed in the 4th century. Byzantine
30. A spherical triangle which acts as a transition between a circular dome and a square base on
which the dome is set. Pendentive
31. Triangular plane between two arches in an arcade. Spandrel
32. The lower voussoir or bottom stone of an arch. Springer
33. Transverse portion of a church crossing the main axis at right angle and producing a cruciform
plan. Transept
34. An exterior mass of masonry set an angle to, or bonded into a wall which it strengthens or
supports and acts against the lateral force. Buttress
35. Rectangular feature in the shape of a pillar but projecting only about 1/6 of its breadth from
wall. Pilaster
36. Projection anchored in a wall or column used to support an overhanging member above; Corbel
37. Exterior curve or boundary of the visible face of the arch. Extrados
38. A square or a public open space surrounded by buildings. Plaza
39. A sculptured female used as a column. Caryatid
40. All columns are monolithic shaped from a single block of stone. Roman Architecture

41. Hagia Sophia- Istanbul

42. The colosseum, rome

43. The parthenon, Athens

44. Stonehenge, Salisbury

45. The pantheon, rome

46. Cinque foil

47. Barrel vault

48. Fan vault

49. Turret

50. Lancet arch

51. Niche

52. Cross vault

53. Façade

54. Oculus
 55. Composite capital

GOTHIC, RENAISSANCE, BAROQUE, EARLY MODERN

1. The moulding on a flat or vaulted ceiling: in Gothic work, it is a raised moulding forming part of
the vault, framing the panels or webs often with elaborate sections. Coffer
2. The ceiling of Westminster Abbey in London is an example of what type of vaulting system. Fan
Vault
3. A decorative course of stones that lead up the corners of a building meant to give the
impression of strength and firmness to the outline of a building. Quoins
4. One of the wedge- shaped stones forming the curved parts of an arch or vaulted ceiling.
Voussoirs
5. A masonry arch extending off the outside of a building, often along the length of the nave of the
cathedral, which transfers the thrust of the roof outwards and down to a pier. One of the
greatest innovations of the Gothic architecture that allowed for the creation of the great
soaring, light-filled, gothic cathedrals if medieval Europe. Flying Buttress
6. In gothic architecture and derivatives, an upward oriented ornament regularly spaced along
sloping or vertical edges of spires, pinnacles and gables. Finial
7. An Austrian variant of Art Nouveau. Sezession
8. The Chrysler building built in the 1930s in New York is the best example of what architectural
style? Art Deco
9. “ornament is crime” is attributed to which early Modern Architect? Adolf Loos
10. Le corbuseir’s real name. Charles- Edouard Jeanneret-
11. First female architect in the English renaissance. Elizabeth Willbraham
12. Zaha Hadid, the first female architect to be awarded the Pritzker Architecture Prize for which
year? 2004
13. The oldest among 20th century architects who will celebrate 104th birthday on Dec 15 2011.
Oscar Niemeyer
14. Modernist architect of Pruitt- Igoe in Saint Louis in Missouri. Minoro Yamasaki
15. Developed the theory of defensible space. Le Corbusier
16. Founder of Bauhaus Walter Gropius
17. Architect of Falling water Frank Lloyd Wright
18. Father of Post Modern Architecture Robert Venturi
19. Proponent of “New Urbanism” Andres Duanet
20. Applying new engineering to Old buildings. Retrofit

ASIAN/ISLAMIC/BUDDHISM/HINDUISM
1. An archway into an Indian sacred site. Torana
2. An archway that marks the approach to a Japanese Shinto shrine. Torii
3. A pyramidal entrance building to an Indian temple complex. Gopuram
4. A Korean archway. Hongsalmun
5. An archway with multi-layered carving roof. Palou
6. A specific style that describes the Islamic influence in Indian architecture. Muslim
7. A principle of design that best describes the layout of a Chinese floor plan. Balance
8. A temple where Chinese emperor prays to the gods for good harvest. Temple of Heaven
9. A multi-leveled structure holds a relic. Pagoda
10. An Indian burial mound surmounted by a parasol. Stupa
11. the finishing material of the exterior wall of Taj Mahal. Marble
12. Dabotap and seokgatap are pagodas of which Korean temple. Bulguksa
13. The basis for the size of a Japanese interior space. Tatami
14. An opaque sliding door in Japanese architecture. Fusuma
15. A translucent door, window or partition in Japanese architecture. Shoji
16. A 13-storey structure that is formerly home to the Dalai Lama. Potala Palace
17. What is the official residence of the thai monk? Kuti
18. Characteristic of Tibet wall. Slanting outward
19. Top most lintel of the torii is called. Kasagi
20. which of the following describes traditional Chinese plan layout. Symmetrical
21. Which or the following does not fall under basic architectural types in Nepal. Shikkara
22. A structure with 3 levels of trailekyas. Borobodur
23. Chinese entrance archway. Pailou
24. Katusogi & chigi are emblems of which structure? Shinto temple
25. An Indonesian hindu-buddhist temple. Candi
26. Japanese entrance archway. Torii
27. A thai stupa- chedi
28. Design concept of the petronas towers- Double square
29. Location of petronas towers. Kuala lumpur
30. Multi-layered structure that may be only one storey in its interior. Pavilion
31. Architect of petronas towers. Cesar pelli
32. Roof color of Chinese imperial palace. Yellow
33. House plan with formal symmetry. Chinese house
34. Refers to raising the finish floor line using posts. Stilt
35. The Chinese roof-framing consists of a system of trusses in rigid rectangles and are supported by
complicated bracketing system called dou-goung
36. The axis oriented towards mecca; in plan, usually refers to the wall that terminated this axis.
Qibla
37. Original Islamic design involving various combinations of three-dimensional shapes, corbelling,
etc, also known as honeycomb work. Muqarna
38. A tower in, or contiguous to, a mosque with stairs leading up to one or more balconies from
which the faithful are called to prayer. Minare
39. A fusion of perisan, Arabic and hindu elements. Mudejar
40. Pierced screen or lattice window, which is so characteristic feature of Indian as of all Eastern art,
was designed primarily. to maintain a harmonious visual connection with the exterior

PHILIPPINE ARCHITECTURE

1. How many churches have been identified as national heritage treasure by the ncca, including
the 4 baroque churches? 30
2. Which term refers to a style of houses built partly of wood and partly of stone? Arquitectura
Mestiza
3. Which term according to ncca refers to a style of houses whose facades were flat and
articulated by heavy cornices and pilasters dividing bays? Vigan style
4. Which revival style said to be favored by the American colonial authorities in the early 20th
century to mark their presence in the Philippines? Neo Classical
5. Who is the first registered architect in the Philippines, whose greatest contribution to the
country aside from stately buildings and construction is architecture education. Tomas Mapua
6. What is the name of the American architect who did the plans for the city of manila during the
American colonial era? Daniel Burnham
7. Who is the original designing architect of the Manila City hall? Antonio Toledo
8. Who is the architect of iglesia ni cristo complex in quezon city? Carlos santos-viola
9. Which of the following was not by the National Artist (1990) Leandro Locsin? The coconut
palace, CCP complex
10. Which of the following was not by the national artist (1990) Leandro Locsin. Bangko Sentral
Complex Pasay
11. Who did the architectural design of post-world war 2 manila cathedral? Juan Arellano
12. What is the term describing the rat guards on each of the posts of the ifuago rice granary?
Halipan
13. Which filipino indigenous community follows an octagonal shape in plan? Kalinga
14. Declared as national cultural treasure, is the traditional house of the upper-class maranao in the
Lanao region of Mindanao belonging to the Datu. Torogan
15. What building stone was used in the UNESCO decalred Miag-ao Church in Iloilo? Yellow Lime
stone
16. First High rise building in Manila to use the elevator in 1916? Perez-Samanillo Bldg

17. Antonio Toledo

18. Juan Arellano

19. Juan Nakpil

20. Daniel Burnham

I. Elements of Form a. Solid
1. It indicates a position in space. b. Void
a. Line c. All of the above
b. Plane d. None of the above
c. Point
d. Volume II. Primary Elements of Form
2. It serves to define the limits or boundaries 11. What is the product or result of two
of a volume intersecting planes?
a. Line a. Intersection
b. Plane b. Line
c. Point c. Point
d. Volume d. None of the above
3. It represents stability of the ground plane, 12. It has no direction and is static
the horizon, or the body at rest a. Line
a. Vertical line b. Plane
b. Curve line c. Point
c. Horizontal line d. Volume
d. None of the above 13. This can show direction
4. A mark on the surface that describes a a. Shape
shape, outline, or edge. b. Contour
a. Line c. Line
b. Plane d. None of the above
c. Point 14. The floor plan of a house can be considered
d. Volume as the ____
5. It expresses a state of equilibrium with the a. Base plane
force of gravity b. Foundation of the structure
a. Vertical line c. Shape of the building
b. Oblique line d. All of the above
c. Horizontal line 15. What in the following is the primary
d. None of the above element that is used in linking or joining
6. A derivation from the vertical line falling two visual elements?
horizontal line rising a. Link
a. Vertical line b. Line
b. Oblique line c. Motif
c. Horizontal line d. Color
d. None of the above 16. In architectural design, what in the
7. It it the space contained enacted by planes following do we not manipulate?
a. Void a. Base plane
b. Plane b. Overhead plane
c. Solid c. Wall plane
d. Volume d. None of the above
8. Taut, bold and graceful is the characteristic 17. _____ becomes _____ when it is given
of _________ length and direction
a. Line a. Square – volume (according to OT)
b. Plane b. Point – line
c. Point c. Plane – wall
d. Volume d. All of the above
9. It is where several planes comes together 18. This has three measurements
a. Points a. Plane
b. Surfaces b. Line
c. Edges c. Box
d. None of the above d. volume
10. A space displaced mass
 19. It is space defined by walls, floors and c. Proportion
ceilings. d. Contrast
a. Room 28. Which of the following is a type of contrast?
b. Floor plan a. Contrast of tone
c. House b. Contrast of line
d. All of the above c. Contrast of size
20. What lines can represent other elements d. All of the above
that define space? 29. It refers to the proper or harmonious
a. Collonade relation of one part to another to the
b. Railing whole.
c. Post a. Contrast
d. All of the above b. Scale
c. Character
III. Basic Principles of Design d. Proportion
21. It is the basis of rhythm 30. What does character suggest into a design?
a. Architecture a. Variety
b. Movement b. Harmony
c. Music c. Expressiveness
d. Harmony d. Repetition
22. In architecture, which of the following is
NOT a type of Character? IV. Anthropometrics/Ergonomics
a. Function 31. Anthropometry comes from the greek
b. Personality words ____
c. Expression a. Anthropos and Metron
d. Association b. Athropos and metron
23. It is the perfect rectangle c. Apthromos and merton
a. Golden section d. Anthropos and temron
b. Golden measurement 32. In human body measurements,
c. Golden rule approximately how many heads is the
d. All of the above height of a man
24. There are three types of Balance such as a. 2.63 or 3
Symmetrical, Asymmetrical and ______. b. 3.62 or 4
a. Centralized c. 6.23
b. Formal d. 7.85 or 8
c. Radial 33. Anthropometrics is the study of?
d. Gravitational a. Earth measurement
25. Its principle implies that in most b. 2D (2-dimensional)
architectural compositions, real differences c. Human dimension
exist among their forms and spaces. d. None of the above
a. Heirarchy 34. Static anthropometry refers to the ____.
b. Symmetry a. Study of the human perspective
c. Accent b. Function of a material
d. Size c. Measurement of the human
26. It refers to how we perceive a size of a individual at rest
building. d. Natural movements of an individual
a. Scale 35. It is the measurement of abilities related to
b. Magnitude completing tasks
c. Proportion a. Paleoanthropology
d. Space b. Functional anthropometrics
27. Which of the following is NOT a principle of c. Forensic anthropometry
design composition? d. Craniometry
a. Balance 36. The science of making the work
b. Surface environment safer and more comfortable
 for workers using design and a. Personal distance
enthropometric data b. Semifixed-feature space
a. Egoronomics c. Fixed-feature space
b. Enogoromics d. Informal space
c. Erogonomics 44. It is a proxemic behavior category which
d. Ergonomics deals with how close participants are to
37. It is the data used to determine the size, touching, from being completely outside of
shape and/or form of a product, making it body-contact distance to being in physical
more comfortable for humans to use and contact, which parts of the body are in
easier to use. contact, and body part positioning.
a. Anthropometrical data a. Touching code
b. Ergonomical data b. Kinesthetic factor
c. Scientific data c. Visual code
d. Mathematical data d. None of the above
38. In the dimensions of a man, how long is 45. What personal territory is ranging from 2 to
your shoulder with respect to heads? 4 feet and is used among friends and family
a. ½ of the head members, and to separate people waiting in
b. 5 hands lines at teller machines for example.
c. 2 heads a. Public space
d. 3 legs b. Intimate space
39. The full length of both arms is equivalent to c. Social space
the ____ of a man? d. Personal space
a. Spinal cord 46. What way fo proxemics when, desks face
b. Height the front of a classroom rather than
c. Head & shoulders towards the center aisle.
d. All of the above a. Physical territory
40. To seek a formula to produce a comfortable b. Social territory
height for individual persons is the main c. Personal territory
goal of “Furnicube”. The word Furnicube d. None of the above
comes from the words ____ and ____ 47. The arrangement of an office space show
a. Furniture and Tube the attitude or personality of the manager.
b. Furniture and Cube To establish a democratic and friendly style,
c. Furnishings and Cube speak with an employee side by side, such
d. Furniture and Furnished Cube as at a table rather than from behind a
large, imposing desk.
V. Proxemics a. True
41. _______ is the study of the distance b. Maybe
individuals maintain between each other in c. False
social interaction. d. None of the above
a. Anthropometrics 48. Who introduced the term ‘Proxemics’?
b. Ergonomics a. Edward hall
c. Proxemics b. Emma hall
d. None of the above c. Edward thompson
42. This type of distance is for interactions d. Jennifer simons
among good friends or family members. 49. Ranges out to one foot nad involves a high
a. Intimate distance probability of touching.
b. Social distance a. Social space
c. Personal distance b. Intimate space
d. Public distance c. Private space
43. This type of distance comprises of individual d. Public space
space around the body and travels around 50. This comprises movable objects, like mobile
with it, determining the personal distance furniture, while fixed-furniture is a fixed-
among people. feature
 a. Informal space 58. Over-all design of a work of art describes
b. Semi fixed-feature space the structure
c. Fixed-feature space a. Form
d. Thermal code b. Flows
c. Circulation
VI. Concept d. Design
51. A statement of an ideal set of relationship 59. General term that describes
among several elements under an environmentally conscious design
architect’s control. techniques in the field of architecture
a. Concept a. Design
b. Static b. Green architecture
c. Flows c. Sustainable architecture
d. Monumental d. Architecture
52. Made up of simple diagram plus a few 60. Mother of all art
words a. Drawing
a. Flows b. Architecture
b. Concept c. Form
c. Articulate d. Spaces
d. Space
53. It is a term used to describe the VII. Inter-relationship and Circulatory
phenomenon when building of the same 61. In a residential house, which space is not
function cluster together in an are or a city direct to Toilet & Bath?
town? a. Guest room
a. Directional b. Powder room
b. Circulation c. Bedroom
c. Functional zoning d. Master’s bedroom
d. Shape 62. What is the significance of studying Inter-
54. Is the physical separates between the relationship and circulation
interior and exterior and environments or a a. To determine the areas is direct,
building. indirect and not related
a. Wall b. To have preferable division of
b. Piles spaces
c. Beams c. To make a good circulation within a
d. Building envelope building
55. A diagrammatic solution to implement the d. All of the above
requirements of the project 63. This means “to introduce the next space
a. Space (inside)”?
b. Function zoning a. Lanai
c. Concept b. Foyer
d. Directional c. Porch
56. Is the over-all structure of a work of art. d. Kitchen
a. Design 64. What is the quality of space is ideal for a
b. Circulation museum?
c. Shape a. Static
d. Form b. Articulated
57. Used in research to outline possible courses c. Amorphous
of action or to present a preferred approach d. Directional
to an idea or thought 65. What do you call the transitional space used
a. Flows in hotels
b. Concept a. Anthe room
c. Articulate b. Anther room
d. Design framework c. Ante room
d. Hante room
 66. In a residential house, what space is usually c. Designing
indirect to each other? d. Making
a. Maid’s room and master’s bedroom 74. How many types of design process are there
b. Kitchen and dining in architecture?
c. Master’s bedroom and bedroom a. 9
d. Carport and dining b. 6
67. This type of circulation is commonly used c. 8
for connecting different routs of road d. 5
a. Circulation within circulation 75. Which of the following does not belong to
b. Point generated circulation the group?
c. Stacked circulation a. Linear
d. Line generated circulation b. Centralized
68. Considering students arrived from school, c. Division
what spaces are direct to each other? d. Regular
a. Guest room and maid’s room 76. The activity of determining the “program”
b. Living and dining or set of needs that a building needs to
c. Powder room and utility areas fulfill.
d. Kitchen and dining a. Programming phase
69. In a residential house, what space has no b. Design development phase
relation? c. Schematic Phase
a. Porch and Foyer d. Construction Phase
b. Kitchen and dining 77. The focus is on the “scheme”, or overall
c. Bedroom and toilet & bath high-level design.
d. None of the above a. Programming phase
b. Design development phase
70. How should the spaces in a mall be c. Schematic design phase
arranged? d. Construction document phase
a. The places where people spend a lot of 78. During _____ it becomes important to give
time should be put far from the individual attention to each aspect, each
entrance space, and each detail of the project.
b. The cinemas should be at the top floor a. Programming phase
c. The food court must be near the b. Design development phase
entrance c. Schematic design phase
d. The department store must be near the d. Construction document phase
parking lot 79. The focus shifts from design to
VIII. Design Process communicating the design and providing all
71. There are ___ steps in designing process? information necessary for construction
a. 3 a. Programming phase
b. 8 b. Design development phase
c. 5 c. Schematic design phase
d. 4 d. Construction document phase
72. Which of the following are the steps in 80. During the ___________, additional spatial
design process? requirements will arise for mechanical
a. Reading, organizing, creating, rooms, structural columns, storage,
production circulation space, wall thickness, and a
b. Sketching, analyzing hundred other things not anticipated when
c. Brainstorming, layouting, the building program was created.
production, analyzing a. Programming phase
d. None of the above b. Design process
73. Design process is a process of ____ a c. Schematic design phase
building space or structure d. Construction document phase
a. Creating
b. Thinking IX. Movements in Architecture
81. It is an approach to architecture that strives b. Futurism
to counter the plainness and lack of c. Modern Architecture
meaning in Modern Architecture by using d. Rationalism
contextual forces to give a sense of place 88. This principles are based on architectural
and meaning theory and one of its main contributors is
a. Brutalism Vitruvius who had already established that
b. Futurism architecture is a science that can be
c. Critical Regionalism comprehended rationally
d. Sustainable Architecture a. Rationalism
82. This movement emerged in the 1970s which b. Eclecticism
described as a style that incorporates c. Vitruvian Triad
elements of a high-tech industry and d. Classical Architecture
technology into its building design. 89. In architecture, it is the principle that
a. Deconstructionism architects should design a building based on
b. Late modern or structural the purpose of the building
expressionism a. Modern Architecture
c. Functionalism b. Functionalism
d. Eclecticism c. Rationalism
83. The Salk Institute complex in La Jolia, d. Critical Regionalism
California is one example of what 90. It is a social movement which emphasizes
movement that started during the 20th and glorifies themes associated with
century? contemporary concepts of the future
a. Sustainable Architecture a. Futurism
b. Futurism b. Post-modern Architecture
c. Post-modern Architecture c. Rationalism
d. Modern Architecture d. Modern Architecture
84. Which of the following structures is an
example for an Eclecticism approach? X. Pioneer Architects
a. Boston city hall 91. An architecture who called his building “skin
b. New york palace & bones”
c. The Sony Building a. Christopher Wren
d. UFA-Palast b. Louis Isadore Khan
85. This movement began in the late 1980s. It c. Robert Charles Venturi, Jr
is characterized by ideas of fragmentation, d. Ludwig Mies Van der Rohe
an interest in manipulating ideas of a 92. The architect of Falling water
structure’s surface, non-rectilinear shapes a. Adolf Loos
which serve to distort some of the element b. Louis Isadore Kahn
in architecture. c. Frank Lloyd Wright
a. Art Nouveau d. Ludwig Mies Van der Rohe
b. Expressionism 93. Who are/is the designer of St. Peter’s
c. Deconstructivism Basilica?
d. Eclecticism a. Vitale Faliero
86. This movement emerged from the wider b. Michelangelo
constructivist art movement, which grew c. Donato Bramante
out of Russian Futurism d. Edward V and Edward VIII
a. Constructivism 94. His masterpiece was the St. Paul’s Cathedral
b. Post modern a. Vitale Faliero
c. Constructivism b. Henry Hobson Richardson
d. Sustainable Architecture c. Donato Bramante
87. Roger Stevens Building at the University of d. Sir Christopher Wren
Leeds is one example of what architectural 95. Well known for “Less is a Bore”
movement? a. Ludwig Mies Van der Rohe
a. Brutalism b. Robert Venturi
 c. Renzo Bramante
d. Henry Richardson
96. The founder of the Bauhaus School are the
following: Mies Van der Rohe, Le Corbusier
and ________
a. Walter Gropius
b. Christopher Wren
c. Renzo Piano
d. Paolo Soleri
97. What is Charles-Edouard Jeanneret’s
nickname?
a. Charles Eames
b. Le Corbusier
c. Renzo Piano
d. None of the above
98. 2011 Pritzker Prize Awardee
a. Frank Lloyd Wright
b. Christopher Wren
c. Eduardo Souto de Moura
d. None of the Above
99. The architect of the community buildings of
Brazil
a. Oscar Niemeyer
b. Christopher Wren
c. Louis Kahn
d. None of the Above
100. The architect of Sydney Opera House
a. Adolf Loos
b. Aldo Rossi
c. Charles Eames
d. None of the above
1 The act of defining the allocation, utilization, and development and management of lands within a
given territory of jurisdiction according to the inherent qualities of land itself and supportive of
sustainable, economic, demographic, socio cultural, and environmental objectives.

a. Site planning
b. Land planning
c. Urban planning
d. Master planning

2 A comprehensive data base describing the geographical, biological, and socio-economic environment
and their relationship in a geographical unit.

a. Comprehensive plan
b. Master plan
c. Site development plan
d. Area ecological profile

3 The map that serves as a working map and provides the standard configuration of planning units for
the preparation of thematic maps. Shows such features as political boundaries, main river streams, main
road system, and other important topographic features.

a. Derived map
b. Base map
c. General map
d. Thematic map

4 In the four policy areas of the CLUP, urban town centers are considered part of protected areas

a. Settlement areas
b. Infrastructure areas
c. Production areas
d. Entertainment areas

5 The phlippine ecological solid waste management act (PESWMA) of 2000

a. RA 9003
b. RA 8749
c. RA 7586
d. RA 9275

6 In the four policy areas of the CLUP, croplands are considered part of

a. Protected areas
b. Settlement areas
c. Infrastructure areas
d. Production areas

7 The national integrated protected areas system (NIPAS) act of 1992

a. RA 9003
b. RA 8749
c. RA 7586
 d. RA 9275

8 This development option is needed in order to address the dependence of communities on forest
resources

a. Community based forest management

b. Agricultural
c. Tourism
d. Costal areas

9 This urban stereotype is characterized by a dominant core surrounded by secondary centers

distributed along main radials

a. Dispersed sheet
b. Galaxy of settlements
c. Urban star
d. Core city

10 In this urban stereotype, development is packed into one continuous body

a. Dispersed sheet
b. Galaxy of settlements
c. Urban star
d. Core city

11 The development option chosen by cities and municipalities with natural attractions

a. Agricultural
b. Industrialization
c. Tourism
d. Commercial

12 A land supply management strategy that involves producing new urban land by filling or draining
portions of waterfront areas

a. Infilling
b. Urban renewal/development
c. Densification
d. Reclamation

13 A land supply management strategy that involves increasing density of buildings per land surface
area as indicated by the floor-area ratio (FAR)

a. Infilling
b. Urban redevelopment
c. Densification
d. Agricultural land conversion

14 The long-term guide for the physical development of the local areas, the framework for the
management and co-management of the local territory.

a. ELA
 b. CLUP
c. CDP
d. CLPD

15 A polynuceated metropolitan area that includes a number of identifiable municipalities that have
merged.

a. Conurbation
b. Urban sprawl
c. Segregation
d. Decentralization

16 An urban design concept that refers to the need to maintain a balance between new development
and the existing natural or man-made environment

a. Design fit
b. Design philosophy
c. Design concept
d. Design problem

17 Street classified a CARDO or the north-south orientation and DECUMANOS or the east-west street
orientation

a. Roman street layout

b. Greek street layout
c. Egyptian street layout
d. West asia street layout

18 Which of the following is not an element of legibility in Kevin Lynch Image of the City?

a. Nodes and landmarks

b. Edges and paths
c. Districts
d. City capital

19 Element if urban form which are considered channels where observer customarily, occasionally or
potentially moves.

a. Landmark
b. District
c. Edges
d. Path

20 Are medium to large sections of the city, conceived of as having two dimensional extent, which the
observer mentally enters the “inside of” and which are recognizable as having some common identifying
character.

a. Landmark
b. District
c. Edges
d. Path
21 Are points, strategic spots in the city into which the observer can enter, which are the intensive foci
to and from which he is travelling

a. Landmark
b. District
c. Edges
d. Path

22 These are point of references but in this case, the observer does not enter within them, They are
simply defined physical objects, buildings, stone and mountains

a. Landmark
b. District
c. Edges
d. Path

23 Component of the urban form that connect spaces and places. They are defined by their physical
dimension and character as well as the size and scale of the building that line along them

a. Street
b. Transportation
c. Landscape
d. Public open spaces

24 Component of the urban form considered the green part of the city comprising park, trees, plants,
etc

a. Street
b. Transportation
c. Landscape
d. Public open spaces

25 Element of urban aesthetics which may be man-made or natural. It is the focal point or terminus that
is strongly emphasized and is framed and balanced by minor element forming masses to enclose it.

a. Vista
b. Landmark
c. Edge
d. District

26 A development concept focusing on land regulation which promote large scale unified land
development by means of mid-range, realistic program in case of physically curable social and economic
deficiencies in land and cityscapes

a. Planned unit development

b. Urban renewal
c. Gentrification
d. On-site improvement

27 Urban development concept which is typically involved destruction of businesses, relocation of

people use of eminent domain and renewal of residential slums
 a. Planned unit development
b. Urban renewal
c. Gentrification
d. On-site improvement

28 A spatial concept consisting of a small residential area, considerable social interaction between
neighbors and some degree of homogeneity.

a. Neighborhood concept
b. City concept
c. Regional concept
d. Metropolitan concept

29 The art of arranging structures on the land and shaping the spaces in between. An art linked to
architecture, landscape architecture, and engineering and city planning. Site plans locate objects and
activities in space and time.

a. Urban planning
b. Landscape architecture
c. Site planning
d. Community planning

30 It is an art and science of designing the outdoor space for biological and psychological well-being of
man. The outdoor space design is basically inspired by the beauty of nature and supported by the
science of engineering.

a. Urban planning
b. Landscape architecture
c. Site planning
d. Community planning

31 The public document showing information such as ownership of the land, location, needed to start
the activity of site planning

a. Transfer certificate title

b. Deed of sale
c. Certificate of lease
d. Real state certificate

32 Formulated as early as the first stage of the planning process and up to the analysis stage containing
the vague, generalized statements on what to achieve at the end of the planning process.

a. Goal
b. Objective
c. User program
d. Site inventory

33 Formulated as early as the first stage of the planning process and up to the analysis stage containing
doable, specific, achievable, prioritized activities on what to achieve at the end of the process

a. Goal
 b. Objective
c. User program
d. Site inventory

34 A cultural information which is considered as a legal tool in implementing city plans

a. Zoning
b. Land use
c. Subdivision regulation
d. Ordinance

35 A legal tool which contains and regulates the development of real estates by requiring developers to
meet specific requirements and design standards that are established so a plot can be recorded and lots
be sold.

a. Zoning
b. Land use
c. Subdivision regulation
d. Ordinance

36 Which of the following is not needed for classification of soil in the site planning and landscape
architecture?

a. As a requirement for plant habitat

b. Absorption for playing field, street and parking
c. Material for sculptural work
d. Recreation, dwelling, ponds and reservoir absorption of soil

37 Which of the following is not an information on hydrology?

a. Aquifer
b. Marshes
c. Swampland
d. Fish pond

38 Which of the following is not an information on traffic?

a. Origin-destination
b. Volume of traffic and people
c. Purpose of travel
d. Number of traffic enforcers

39 Which of the following is not covered by zoning?

a. Height and bulk of buildings

b. Land use activities
c. Setback
d. Building budget

40 Pertains to the information about age, gender, socio-economic status, income.

a. Demographic profile
 b. Land use
c. Zoning
d. Vista

41 Reshaping of the ground of the site to achieve more suitable topography for buildings, facilities, and
other land uses; helps to control surface runoff, soil erosion, sedimentation during and after
construction.

a. Landscaping
b. Surveying
c. Grading
d. Staking

42 The type of grading done in golf courses

a. Geomorphic
b. Naturalistic
c. Natural
d. Architectonic

43 The shape of ground forming part of the architectural design of a structure

a. Geomorphic
b. Naturalistic
c. Natural
d. Architectonic

44 Explain gentrification.

a. Process of invasion wherein the rich and those who can afford occupy substandard housing or
industrial environment
b. A social economic change within an area focusing on poor population move into standard
housing or indsutrial neighborhood
c. People and activities concentrate in one area
d. Grouping of people with the same economic status, ethnicity, economic activities

45 Which of the following is not a description of garden city concept?

a. Compact development with greenbelt encircling it

b. 58,000 population for the main city and 30,000 for the satellite cities
c. Self-sustained community where ever citizen is given one acre of land for agriculture
d. A green community where the primary industry is vegetable and cut-flower industry hence got
its name

46 Determine, from the following statements, the characteristic which is not a description of the British
new town movement?

a. Inspired by the garden city concept of Howard

b. Planned town with houses, employment, shopping, recreation, workplace, and other facilities
c. Neoclassical styles of civic buildings aligned the boulevard
d. Neighborhood concept
47 Which of the following does not fit the description of a Planned Unit Development

a. Comprehensive planning as whole

b. Compact, clustering of structures to preserve usable open spaces
c. Mixture of housing types and residential units
d. Segregation of residential znoes according to income, commercial areas, and open spaces at
periphery

48 Which of the following is not a description of city beautiful movement of the Columbian exposition?

a. Buildings of neo-classical style along major routes

b. Presence of mixed use structures in neo-classical style
c. Presence of landscaped boulevards and plazas and parks
d. With water features and grand public spaces

49 The science of human settlement developed by constantinos doxiades, a greek architect and planner.
This study emphasizes

a. The importance in which human beings function in all of their environments to enable better
planning to take place
b. The relationship of human beings or the biotic to the abiotic environment
c. The relationship of human beings to their social environment
d. The relationship of human beings to the economic environment

50 Which of the following is not included in the Growth theory?

a. Generalization from studies of urban geography concering location theory

b. City growth
c. Land use patterns within cities and regions
d. Decline of cities

51 Describe the characteristic of the ancient Greek cities

a. The layout of the street was straight with intersections at more or less 90 degrees known as
Hippodamian layout
b. The layout of streets was radial since all major streets were radiating towards the center which
is the Agora
c. The layout of the street was curvillinear since Greece is mountanious, street followed the
contour of the terrain
d. The streets were linear becaues of Greek coastal towns

52 Describe the behavious of people having ‘sense of place’ in urban design

a. Allows people to orient themselves to a unique area

b. Helps people to identify with other people
c. Helps people to establish friendship with the place
d. Separates people from place

53 In the study of kevin lynch, the image of the city (1960), he used the LEGIBILITY as is a a term used to
describe

a. The ease with which people can understand the layout of a place
 b. The economic status of people as consideration for their position of space
c. The political status of people as a consideration for their position of space
d. Ecological condition of the space as occupancy determinant for people

54 Which of the following is not a description of variety as an element for the responsive environment?

a. Mixed-use shopping, housing, business, commercial area

b. Compatible activities and services
c. Human experieneces present in a given space
d. People and activities are segregated according to certain criteria and standard

55 Describe the idea of Ian Bentley in ‘Responsive Environment’

a. The greater the number of alternative routes through an environment, the greater the people’s
freedom of movement and therefore the greater the responsiveness of the place
b. The cheaper the transport fare, the greater the people’s freedom of movement and therefore
the greater the responsiveness of the place
c. The more private cars, the greater the people’s freedom of movement and therefore the greater
the responsiveness of the place
d. The more traffic enforces, the greater the people’s fre freedom of movement and therefore the
greater the responsiveness of the place

56 Describe the most economical way of site grading is

a. The cut is more than the fill

b. The cut is more or less equal to the fill
c. The fill is more than the cut
d. No cut so that there is no fill

57 Explain the underlying principle in providing easement or the public spaces besides natural bodies

a. The community enjoys the benefit of the natural resource

b. The barangay, city or municipality can use the easement for LGU projects like barangay hall
c. The community can use the space for extension of their domestic activites like laundry
d. The space, since it is public, can be used for housing for the informal settlers

58 What will the urban designer specify the width of each sidewalk if the RROW is 10 meters or less?

a. 1.50 m
b. 2.00 m
c. 1.20 m
d. 2.50 m

59 In estimating the width of the planting strip for a street, the uran design must consider the
requirements of the National building code that the width of the planting strip is based on

a. width of the carriageway

b. width of the road right of way
c. species of the planting material
d. volume of vehicles

60 Describe a walkalble street?

 a. Has active store front
b. Has 24 hour activity
c. Has weather protection and consideration
d. Has principal arterial road

61 Examine the grid layout of street applied by Hippodamus in Greece

a. The street layout did not consider the wind and sun orientation
b. The street layout did not consider the terrain which resulted to streets with steps
c. The street layout did not consider the cost of construction
d. The street layout did not consider the users of the area

62 Compare mecca, medina, and medieval cities. All these represents

a. Linear layout of cities

b. Star shape layout of cities
c. Radiocentric layout of cities
d. Constellation

63 Select, from the statements below, the types of street layout/that does not fit the description during
the medieval times?

a. Radiating outside the center which was composed of the castle and cathedrals
b. Meandering confuse the enemies
c. Grid layout for ease access of citizens form one place to another
d. Heavily vegetated

64 Which of the following contradicts the principle of New Urbanism of 1993?

a. To create compact, mixed-use development

b. To promote walkable, transit-oriented developments in local communities
c. To promote the cycle of urban sprawl
d. To enhance the concept of neighborliness, a strong emhpasis on the community

65 Who among the following did not share the new communities movement to urban design?

a. Metabolism group
b. Louis mumford
c. Clarence stein
d. Henry wright

66 Who among the following urban designers/landscape architects was not an advovate of
conservationist and park movement?

a. George perkin march

b. Frederick law olmstead
c. Daniel burnham
d. Soria y mata

67 What is common characteristic of these cities accd’g to functions: Mecca, vatican, jerusalem,
medina?
 a. Entertainment cities
b. Production centers
c. Pilgrim cities
d. Production centers

68 Categorize the following factors: BP 220, PD957, R-1, R-2, NBC

a. Cultural factors
b. Aesthetic factors
c. Natural factors
d. Environmental factors

69 In analyzing slope, the formula is

a. Slope is the vertical distance divided by horiontal distance multiplied by one hundred percent
b. Slope is the horizontal distance divided by vertical distance multiplied by one hundred percent
c. Slope is the interval divided by one hundred percent multiplied by the horizontal distance
d. Slope is the run over rise multiplied by one hundred percent

70 Break down the process of coming up with a slope map

a. Using contour map, compute slope using S=V/h x 100%

b. Using the base map, compute the slope using S-V/h x 100%
c. Using the ridge map, compute the slope using S-V/h x 100%
d. Elevation map, compute slope usng S-V/h x 100%

71 Categorize the following: golf courses, chinese and japanese gardens are fine examples of what type
of grading?

a. Architectonic
b. Natural
c. Naturalistic
d. Geomorphic

72 Which of the following imposed plaza as an important public space in the early planning of cities in
the Philippines?

a. Laws of garden cities

b. Laws of city beautiful movement
c. Laws of park movement
d. Laws of indies

73 Which of the following is not an activity in a plaza?

a. Socializing
b. People watching
c. Viewing the world as time passes by
d. Playing basketball

74 Which of the following is not a description of a plaza?

a. More hardscaping than softscaping

 b. More softscaping than hardscaping
c. Street as boundaries/enclosures
d. Buildings as boundaries/enclosures

75 Determine below the statement that fits the description of parks and gardens

a. Living room of the city

b. Lungs of the city
c. Production center of the city
d. Disposal center of the city

76 Determine below the statement fits the description of plaza

a. Living room of the city

b. Lungs of the city
c. Production center of the city
d. Disposal center of the city

77 An urban designer plans an interesting street if the layout is

a. Straight at 90 degrees intersection

b. Meandering
c. Zigzag
d. Slightly curved

78 In making the streets efficient, plan the street with the minimum angle at

a. 10
b. 60
c. 20
d. 0

79 To prevent blind spots that resulted to accidents, site planner should shape site with

a. setback
b. chaflan
c. easement
d. variance

80 How will an urban design plan a street following the principle of no dead ends?

a. Incorporate turn about in the street layout

b. Use cul-de-sac
c. Use loop layout
d. Use grid layout

81 How will an urban design plan a street following the principle of less cross intersections

a. Incoroprate turn about in the street layout

b. Use cul-de-sac
c. Use loop layout
d. Use grid layout
82 According to the NBC, what will be the distance of entry and exits of sites for shopping centers
located at major intersections?

a. 50 m from intersection
b. 100 m from intersection
c. 50 ft from intersection
d. 100 ft from intersection

83 Specify parking lot dimension for PWD according to BP 344

a. 3.70m x 5.00m
b. 3.75m x 6.00m
c. 2.50m x 5.00m
d. 2.50m x 6.00m

84 Present the most effective location for the parking slot for the PWD?

a. Parking slot should be near the security guard

b. Parking slot should be near the building entrances
c. Parking slot should be near the site gates
d. Parking slot should be near the back door

85 Specify the parking lot dimension for jeepney and shuttle

a. 3.70m x 5.00m
b. 3.90m x 9.00m
c. 3.0m x 9.00m
d. 3.60m x 12.00m

86 One approach in lessening the island heat effct in urban areas is

a. green roof, green wall

b. use of solar panel
c. use of rainwater harvesting approach
d. recycling, reuse and reduce

87 The principle of aesthetics applied to landscape architecture where the landscaping materials and
elements sizes are related according to human body

a. symmetry
b. repetition
c. scale
d. proportion

88 The principe of aesthetics applied to landscape architecture where landscape materials and elements
are specified in moderation

a. symmetry
b. variety
c. simplicity
d. balance
89 Landscape component involving the provision of facilities to adequately remove surface and sub-
surface water

a. waterscape
b. landscape
c. drainage
d. irrigation

90 Landscape component involving the provision of facilites necessary to water all planned areas

a. waterscape
b. landcape
c. drainage
d. irrigation

91 Which of the following is not part of the hardscape in landscape architecture?

a. Fences
b. Gates
c. Driveways
d. Benches

92 Specify plant species is good for hedges

a. Narra
b. Santan
c. Carabao grass
d. Acacia

93 Specify plant species for an aroma therapy garden

a. Sampaguita
b. Santan
c. Gumamela
d. Calachuchi

94 What will you specify as, hardscape element, a structure to define outdoor living activity?

a. Grotto
b. Lawn
c. Pergola
d. Meadow

95 Specify a garden element which uses plant material as medium for sculpural work

a. Toplary
b. Grotto
c. Hedge
d. Carpet bedding

96 Specify a garden element as a bed or cover the ground and place the logo of the company using the
plant material
 a. Carpet bedding
b. Maze
c. Hedge
d. Lawn

97 Specify the planting material for carpet bedding

a. Calachuchi
b. Sampaguita
c. Boungainvilla
d. Purple heart

98 Specifiy shade tree for park

a. Aratilis
b. Coconut
c. Banana
d. Mahogany

99 What will you specify as garden type for outdoor sports like croquet, football.. etc

a. Lawn
b. Carpet bedding
c. Meadow
d. Parterre

100 What will you specify for soil stabilization as a protective cover placed over the soil, to retain
moisturem reduce erosiom, supress weed growth.. etc

a. Mulch
b. Sandbag
c. Retaining wall
d. Piling
BUILDING UTILITIES. 7 GATES OF ARCHITECTURE

1. It Is a faucet opened or closed by the fall or n of a ball floating on the surface of water
a. Ball float
b. Ball joint
c. Ball cock
d. Hose Bibb
2. A pump in which the pressure is imported to the fluids by centrifugal force produced by a
rotating
a. Submersible pump
b. Centrifugal pump
c. Rotating pump
d. Pressure pump
3. The portion of a rainfall or other precipitation in which runs off over the surface of the
ground.
a. Surface water
b. Evaporation
c. Aquifer
d. Transpiration
4. A white, water insoluble thermoplastic resin especially used in the manufacturer of pipe
and pipe fitting
a. ABS
b. GI
c. PPR
d. PVC
5. An automatic device used for converting high, fluctuating inlet water pressure to a lower!
constant pressure.
a. Pressure device
b. Pressure reducing valve
c. Control valve
d. Heat regulating valve
6. A water supply pipe that extends vertically one full store or more to convey water to
branches or fixtures
a. Riser
b. Distribution pipe
c. Stack
d. Supply pipe
7. The art and technique of installing in buildings the pipes, fixtures, and other apparatuses
for bringing in the water supply, liquids, substances and or ingredients and removing them
 and such water, liquid and other carried wastes affecting health and sanitation and
hazardous to life and property.
a. Plumbing
b. Fire protection
c. Piping
d. Ventilation
8. A test of pressure tightness in plumbing line, using water under pressure
a. Pressure test
b. Line test
c. Smoke test
d. Hydraulic test
9. A valve used for flushing a fixture by using water directly from the water supply pipes or in
connection with a special flush tank
a. Flushometer valve
b. full way valve
c. Flush valve
d. Globe valve
10. In a water service pipe, a control valve for the water supply of a building usually placed
between the sidewalk and curb, used to shut off the water supply in case of emergency
a. Corporation cock
b. Curb cock
c. Gate valve
d. Service valve
11. The following are popular and widely accepted material for the construction of septic
tank. except: a. Reinforce concrete b. Thin metal and plastic c. Plastered concrete hollow
blocks d. Asbestos prefab
12. A pipe fitting to change in one direction ( course ) the flow of sewage or drainage line is:
a. Wye
b. 45 elbow
c. Cross tee
d. Clean out
13. The following are the list of purposes of providing a venting system. Which in the list is
NOT a purpose
a. To convey the foul smell present in the pipes
b. To enable drains to drain faster and better
c. To protect seal in the trap it serves
d. To carry the combustible server gas out in the building
14. The general conditions for a good waste pipes installation are given below, EXCEPT:
a. Right size of pipe
b. Conservative use of fittings
c. Proper choice of materials
d. 5% slope of pipeline
15. What is the general term used (or any vertical line of soil; waste or vent piping?
a. Shaft
b. Stand pipe
c. Stack
d. Riser
16. At least one stack of the plumbing system must extend full size through the roof, for the
following purposes EXCLUDING:
a. To maintain economical use of material
b. To prevent possibility to back pressure
c. To prevent siphonage of traps by suction
d. To dispose off the sewer gas above the roof
17. In installing soil pipes fittings and connections, the national plumbing code of the
Philippines prohibits the use of the following EXCEPT:
a. Dead end connection
b. Double tee or double y-branch
c. Drilling and tapping of house drain
d. Sanitary or long sweep elbow
18. What is considered the portion of the horizontal drainage system which starts from the
outer face of the building and terminate at the main sewer in the street or septic tank?
a. Street sewer
b. House sewer
c. House drain
d. Combined sewer
19. What is the result of the minus pressure in the drainage system?
a. Siphonage
b. Back flow
c. Air gap
d. foul smee
20. What is a device used in drainage system to prevent reversal flow of liquid?
a. Reverse pressure
b. Check valve
c. Back flow valve
d. Ventilation valve
21. There are various forms of water scaled traps which could be used to serve plumbing
fixtures. Listed below are classified as permissible traps EXCLUDING:
a. Bag trap
b. Pimp
c. Drum trap
d. Low hub trap
22. What do you call a minor problem that happens only on floor drain which are not regularly
used to admit Water but exposed to extreme temperature?
a. Condensation
 b. Back pressure
c. Evaporation
d. Trap seal loss
23. It is a recent development in drainage installation which Is suitable in tall buildings. It
almost completely eliminates the vent stack and other forms of ventilation with the same
effectiveness
a. Two line system Installation
b. One line pipe method
c. Wet pipe venting
d. Sovent system
24. Of the given sewage disposal system, which is no longer permitted by the authorities?
a. Septic vault
b. Cesspool
c. Public sewer line
d. Privy
25. What is the minimum waste pipe diameter size for a sink waste?
a. 1 ½”
b. 2”
c. 2 ½”
d. 1 ¼”
26. Which of the following is not a classification of a storm drain? A
a. Rear storm drain
b. Inside storm drain
c. Outside storm dram
d. Overhead storm drain
27. What is a receptacle designed to catch the surface water corning from cemented courts.
driveways and yards?
a. Garage catch basin
b. Area drain
c. Yard catch basin
d. Floor drain
28. It is the direct effect of the minus and plus pressure inside the drainage system as long as
the ventilation of the traps continues to be inadequate.
a. Siphonage
b. Air gap
c. Back flow
d. Trap seal loss
29. Which of the following is the semiliquid substance formed through the sedimentation of
the suspended solid during the retention period inside the septic tank?
a. Scum
b. Digestion
c. Sludge
 d. Grease
30. It is classified as water seal device intended for fixtures that are sent on the floor. like
bathtub and foot bath or other similar fixtures.
a. Grease trap
b. Bag trap
c. Drum trap
d. Floor trap
31. Mho as used in electrical system calculation is defined as
a. The reciprocal of ohm
b. A unit of inductance
c. A unit of resistance
d. The reciprocal of siemen
32. A unit mechanical power is horsepower. What is electrical power?
a. Watt
b. Volt-ampere
c. Ampere
d. Both a and b
33. A type of raceway specially constructed for the purpose of pulling in or the withdrawing of
wires or cables al ter the conduit is in place.
a. Intermediate metal conduit (IMC)
b. Rigid metal conduit (RPC)
c. Surface metal raceway (SMR)
d. Electrical metallic tubing (EMT)
34. In Selling and illumination calculation, what is the unit for lux?
a. 1 fx candela per sqm
b. 1 lumen per sqm
c. 1/pi candela sqm
d. 1 lumen per sqm
35. The following are elements of centralized air conditioning system except:
a. Air handling unit
b. Control equipment
c. Method of cooling
d. All of there
36. A transformer is
a. An AC device
b. ADC device
c. mechanical device used to step up or down voltage in AC
d. Both a and c
37. The following are ways in which heat may be transferred except
a. Conduction
b. Convection
c. Polarization
 d. Radiation
38. Acoustics Is a science that concerns with
a. Transmission of sound
b. Effect of sound waves
c. Generation of sound
d. All of the above
39. In inverse square law, it states that: sound Intensity the square of the distance from the
source
a. Varies inversely with
b. Varies proportionally with
c. IF equal to
d. Is less than
40. Creep is the phenomenon whereby sound travel In a
a. Straight line direction inside an anechoic chamber
b. Rectangular shaped cavity
c. Flat surface
d. Curve surface
41. Sound transmission loss (STI) is affected by the following
a. Intensity of sound from source
b. Material density
c. Medium
d. All of the above
42. This acoustical material is manufactured from rock wool, glass fiber, wood fibers, hair felt,
etc. generally installed on wood or metal framing system.
a. Acoustical tile
b. Acoustical plaster
c. Acoustical blanket
d. Acoustical foam
43. Acoustical cotton fiber composite board is manufactured using BAP. What does BAP stand
for?
a. Boarded acoustical panel
b. Beaded and pressed
c. Bent and polished
d. Bonded acoustical panel
44. A unit or assembly units or sections and associated fittings forming a rigid structural
system used to support cables.
a. Cable bus
b. Cable tray
c. Busway
d. Wireway
45. It affects the resistance of a conductor
a. Length
 b. Area
c. Temperature
d. All of the above
46. It is also known as electrical panel or load center.
a. Convenience outlet
b. Panelboard
c. Outlet
d. Branch conduit
47. A cylindrical conduit or conductor, the wall thickness is sufficient to receive a standard
pipe.
a. Conduit
b. Pipe
c. Fitting
d. Leader
48. It is analogous to pressure in water flow.
a. Resistance
b. Voltage
c. Current
d. Power
49. A branch of acoustic that involves the control of noise pollution, environmental noise,
which include motor vehicles, aircraft noise, etc.
a. Environmental acoustics
b. Musical acoustics
c. Architectural acoustics
d. Psychological acoustics
50. Pyramid Is a type of commercial produces acoustical tile, which of the following is not a
characteristic of this materials?
a. Made of open celled polyurethane acoustical foam
b. Available in 2,3 and 4 inch thickness
c. Tetrahedral In shape
d. Ideal for audio room application
51. Alternating current is characterized as having
a. Positive and negative polarity
b. Average value Is zero
c. Has frequency
d. All of the above
52. Any of a variety of soft floor finishes made of synthetic materials such as nylon or natural
material such as wool. It Is either glued directly to the floor or Installed over an under
laymen{ of hair felt or foam rubber. What is it?
a. Panel absorber
b. Carpet
c. Curtain and fabrics
 d. Volume resonator
53. When sound impinges on a surface such as walls, floor, ceiling, etc it is referred to as
a. Liquidborne sound
b. Solidborne sound
c. Airborne sound
d. Structurebome sound
54. This material is so named in honor of a German physicist, consist of a hollow material with
a small hole on one side. This is used to detect individual frequency of complex acoustic
wave configuration
a. Transondent
b. Herrnholtz resonator
c. Pyramid
d. Panel absorber
55. What is the minimum distance between the handrails of escalators?
a. 600mm
b. 556mm
c. 658mm
d. 650mm
56. The rustling of leaves in breeze is said to be within the
a. threshold of hearing
b. Threshold of hearing loss
c. Threshold of Inaudibility
d. Threshold of feeling
57. The over-all covering of underground feeder and branch circuit cables shall be
a. Fungus resistant
b. Corrosion resistant
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
58. . Theses consists of loose fibers or granules and is made from cellulose, fiberglass, rock
wool, cotton or other materials. These materials come In bags and are usually blown Into
cavities using special equipment. What are these?
a. Acoustical foams
b. Foam panels
c. Loose fill insulations
d. Fireflexes
59. A circuit type where components are electrically connected end to end.
a. Series circuit
b. Parallel circuit
c. Series parallel circuit
d. None of these
60. Unit of capacitance is
a. Henry
 b. Coulomb
c. Farad
d. Weber
61. A factory assembly of two or more insulated conductors having an outer sheath of
moisture resistant, flame retardant, non metallic material.
a. Service entrance cable (type SE and USE)
b. Shielded non metallic sheathed cable (type SNM)
c. Non metallic sheathed cable (type NM and NMC)
d. Mineral insulated metal sheathed cable (type MI)
62. The basic elements of an electric circuit are the following except
a. Source
b. Switch
c. Conducting path
d. Electrical load
63. Cables are conductors that are
a. Larger than wires
b. Standard (no.6 AWG and larger)
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
64. Copper as a conductor has the property Of being
a. Ductile
b. Malleable
c. A only
d. A and b
65. The velocity of sound is affected by
a. Temperature
b. Kind of medium
c. Material density
d. All of the above
66. Examples of conductors on insulator wiring is are
a. Concealed knob and tube
b. Open wiring on insulators
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
67. Which of the following metallic is considered as the best conductor of electricity?
a. Copper
b. Aluminum
c. Iron
d. Gold
68. What aspects of environment or surrounding is considered in air conditioning system for
human comfort?
a. Temperature of the surround air
 b. Motion of air
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
69. What is the refrigerant name of R.12?
a. Monochlorotrilfuoromethane
b. Dichlorodifluormethane
c. Monochlorodifluromethane
d. Trichloromonofluoromethane
70. Transondent facings are those transparent facings with holes. Which facing will reflect
more sound?
a. 10% opening
b. 20% opening
c. 30% opening
d. 40% opening
71. A type of surface flush raceway designed to receive conductors and receptacles assembled
In the field or in the factory
a. Underfloor raceway
b. Multi outlet assembly
c. Cellular metal floor raceway
d. Surface metal raceway (SMR)
72. Which of the following sources of sound produces the highest sound pressure level (SPL)?
a. Loud street noise
b. Accelerating motorcycle 50ft away
c. Office activities
d. Cafeteria with people in it
73. A type of switch used for transferring one or more load conductor connections from one
power source to another.
a. Transfer switch
b. Isolating switch
c. General use switch
d. General snap switch it
74. What are the property of concrete as an acoustical material are important
a. Aerated concrete Is fairly absorptive
b. Isolating switch
c. General use switch
d. General snap switch
75. Are substances that carry or allow the flow of electric current?
a. Minerals
b. Convertor
c. Insulator
d. Conductor
76. One horsepower
 a. 746 kilowatts
b. 746 megawatts
c. 746 volts
d. 746 watts
77. In electric elevator machine room is located at the
a. First floor
b. Ground floor
c. Basement
d. Pent house
78. It Is a three — section built up welded steel trussed framework which supports the moving
stairway component.
a. Guide rail
b. Handrails
c. Truss
d. Railings
79. Is mechanical device for transporting persons between two levels
a. Elevator
b. Escalator
c. Conveyor
d. Dumbwaiters
80. The ratio of the maximum demand of a system or part of a system, to the total connected
of a system or the part of a system under consideration is called
a. Demand factor
b. Safety factor
c. Fuse current rating
d. Fuse voltage rating
81. Consist of platform or car traveling in vertical guides in a shaft or hoist way, with related
hoisting and lowering mechanism.
a. Scaffolding
b. Elevator
c. Escalator
d. Conveyor
82. . Device for heating water of generating steam above atmospheric pressure
a. Broiler
b. Water heater
c. Radiator
d. Boiler
83. Machine that decreases the volume and increases the pressure of a quantity of air by
mechanical means.
a. Compressor
b. Relay
c. Motor
 d. Condenser
84. A device that maintains, control of the indoor environment is desirable temperature,
humidity, air circulation, and purity for the occupants of the space or for the industrial
materials that are handled or stored there.
a. Humidistat
b. Thermometer
c. Electric fans
d. Air conditioning
85. A system for transporting materials from one site to another, especially in a factory.
a. Car
b. Steps
c. Conveyor
d. Escalator
86. Device that convert electrical energy into mechanical energy, by electromagnetic means
a. Motor
b. Generator
c. Rectifier
d. Alternator
87. A machine that converts mechanical energy into electrical energy called
a. Motor
b. Generator
c. Rectifier
d. Alternator
88. Device for reducing the temperature of a liquid, usually water, by bringing it into contact
with an airstreams where a small portion of the liquid is evaporated and the major portion
is cooled.
a. Cooling water
b. Cooling shower
c. Cooling tower
d. Cooling
89. A machine often provides the most convenient and economical means of transporting
relatively small articles between levels,
a. Dumbwaiters
b. Escalators
c. Conveyors
d. Elevator
90. Give stability to governor ropes.
a. Tension sheave
b. Guide shoes
c. Counter weight
d. Car
91. Are vertical tracks that guide the car and counterweight
 a. Guide shoes
b. Guide rails
c. Handrails
d. Rail guard
92. Are rectangular blocks of cast iron stacked in a frame. which it supported at the opposite
ends of the cables to car is fastened
a. Elevator machine
b. Counterweight
c. Ropes
d. lend switches
93. the vertical passageway for the car and counterweight
a. Sleeve
b. Countowedht
c. Shaft
d. Dumbwaiter
94. Is a device to absorb the impact of car or counterweight at the lower limn of travel
a. Compensation rope
b. Spring buffer
c. Buffer
d. Guide shoes
95. A device use for moistening the air at the desired degree
a. Hurnidistat
b. Humidifier
c. HVgrostat
d. Thermostat
96. An air conditioning system n which the air is treated by equipment at one or more central
locations outside the spaces served and conveyed to and from these by means of tans and
pumps through duct and pipes
a. Window type aircon
b. Split type
c. Package type
d. Centralized air con
97. Type of elevator that u raised or lowered page simple by means of movable rod or
plunger?
a. Freight elevator
b. Passenger elevator
c. Hydraulic elevator
d. Electric elevator
98. It is a device to control the temperature
a. limmidistat
b. Humidifier
c. HygroStat
 d. Thermostat
99. The following statements are true with regards to sound except a.
a. That sound is an aural sensation
b. That sound Is caused by Oscillation in an elastic medium
c. That sound travels in a vacuum
d. That sound caused by the vibration of particles which move in an inflows mat
amount causing panicles to impact motion and energy to them
100. A vertical pee which conveys only wastewater or liquid waste free or fecal matter
a. Wastepipe
b. Soil pipe
c. Soil stack
d. Waste stack

NOTE: KULANG NG ITEMS. PAGARALAN NIYO NALANG DAW ‘YUNG IBANG TERMS NA NASA
CHOICES SABI NG OT

LEGEND: “…” MEANS DI DAW NIYA GETS ANONG WORD UNG NANDON BASE SA
KINOKOPYAHAN NIYA. GINAYA KO NALANG DIN

COI

1. The art and technique Installing pipes, fixtures, and other apparatuses In buildings for
bringing In the supply, liquids. substances and/or Ingredients and removing them
a. Sanitary
b. Plumbing
c. Drainage
d. Piping
2. The most common type of well, usually dug manually and around 15 meters deep…
a. Shallow well
b. Driven well
c. Deep well
d. Driven well
3. A type of pump that is design to be fully immersible within a tank or other media storage
receptacle
a. Sump pump
b. Rotary pump
c. F…
d. 41 Submersible pump
4. A type of valve that is used mainly to completely close or 5 completely open the water line
….
 a. Globe valve
b. Check valve
c. Angle valve
d. Gate valve
5. A type of valve that is used to prevent reversal of now in the line.
a. Globe valve
b. Check valve
c. Angle valve
d. Gate valve

CO2

6. A water supply pipe extending vertically to one full story, or more to convey water Into the
pipe branches or plumbing figures
a. Riser
b. Stack
c. Service pipe
d. Downspout
7. The pipe from the street water main car other source of water supply to the building
served,
a. Riser
b. Stack
c. Service Pipe
d. Downspout
8. A device used to measure In liters Or gallons that amount of water that passes through the
water sewer
a. Water meter
b. Megameter
c. Hydrometer
d. Maynllad meter

CO2

9. A type of water closet that flushes through a simple wash down action, discharges waste
into at….. the front of the bowl
a. Reverse tr a p water close
b. Washdown water total
c. Siphon vortex wen closet
10. A type of water dose that flushes through a siphon action created in that trapway
a. Reverse trap water closet
b. Washdown water closet
c. Siphon vortex water closet
 11. A type of water dour where the flushing action is started by a whirlpool followed by a
complete flush down
a. Reverse trap water closet
b. Washdown water closet
c. Siphon vortex water closet
12. A plumbing fixture the is used for cleaning private parts
a. Bade
b. lavatory
c. Water closet
d. Sink
13. This Is used for control, isolation and repair of the water distribution system
a. Control and valves
b. Pipes and fitting
c. Risers and fixture branches
14. Pipe fining used In connecting.
a. Nipple
b. Coupling
c. Union
d. Cap
15. Flowing back used, contaminated or polluted water from a plumbing feature a vessel Into
a pipe supplying potable water due to a negative pressure In the pipe.
a. Back-siphonage
b. Siphonage
c. Oackflow
d. Reversal flow

CO3

16. Pipe that conveys waste water or liquid waste free of fecal matter
a. Soil pipe
b. Vent pipe
c. Waste pipe
d. Waste pipe
17. Used for ensuring the circulation of air In a plumbing system and for relieving 1Ae negative
pressure exerted on trap seals
a. Vent pipe
b. Waste pipe
c. Soil pipe
d. Vent stack
18. A fitting or device designed and constructed to provide, when properly vented, a liquid
seal which prevents backflow of foul air or methane gas without the flow of ,sewage or
wastewater through it
a. Fitting
b. Coupling
c. Trap
d. Ventilation
19. The vertical main of a system of sod. waste or venom extending through one or more
stories and extend to the roof
a. Riser
b. Stack
c. Stock
d. Drainage pipe

20. Part of the lowest horizontal piping of a plumbing system which receives the discharges
from the soil. water and other drainage pipes inside the building and conveys it to the
outside of the building
a. House drains
b. House sewer
c. House drainage
d. House pipe
21. Extends from the house drain at a point 0.60meters from the outside face of a foundation
wall of a building junction with the street sewer or to any point of discharge and conveying
the drainage of one building
a. House drain
b. House sewer
c. House drainage
d. House pipe
22. A device designated and Installed to separate and retain deleterious. hazardous or
undesirable matters for wastes and permits normal; sewage or liquid wastes to discharge
into the disposal terminal by gravity
a. Grease trap
b. Trap
c. Interceptor
d. Seprator
23. Portion of the drainage pipe Installation intended to maintain a balanced atmospheric
pressure inside
a. siphonage
b. Ventilation
c. Atmospheric balance
d. Trap
24. The extension of a son or waste stack above the highest horizontal drain connected to the
stack.
a. Stack vent
b. Vent stack
c. Vent pipe
d. Circuit vent
25. The vertical pipe installed primarily for providing circulation of air to and from any part of
the soil, waste of the drainage system.
a. Stack vent
b. Vent stack
c. Vent pipe
d. Circuit vent
26. The uppermost end vent stack above the roof has traditionally been reefed to as
a. Vent stack through roof
b. Vent stack above the roof
27. Pipe that does not connect directly with the drainage system but conveys liquid wastes by
discharging Into a plumbing fixture, Interceptor, or receptacle directly Connected to the
drainage sytem.
a. Direct waste pipe
b. Indirect waste pipe
c. Indirect soil pipe
28. Used in the house drain to prevent unlikely occurrence of back flows.
a. Angle valve
b. Gate valve
c. Backflow valve
d. Globe valve
29. Pups the wastes up from the sump pit to the sewers which are usually higher than
basement
a. Sewage ejectors
b. Sewage lifter
c. Sewage suction
d. Sewage
30. Used for fixtures where vent may be introduced into the drainage or sewer system in
quantities that can effect line stoppage or hinder sewage treatment or private sewage
disposal
a. Grease trap
b. Grease interceptor
c. Grease catcher
d. Grease-
31. Direct effect of the Minus & Plus Pressure inside the system due to inadequate ventilation
of the.
a. Siphonage
 b. Trap teal lost
c. Trap seal
d. Atmospheric..
32. That portion of a vent pipe through which wastewater also flows through
a. Wet vent
b. Dry vent
c. Waste vent
d. Main vent
33. A vent that does not carry a liquid or water-borne wastes
a. Wet vent
b. Dry vent
c. Waste vent
d. Main vent
34. A vertical vent connection on a horizontal soil or waste me branch at a point downstream
of the last fixture connection and turning to a horizontal line /bare the highest overflow
level of the highest future connected there. Used in spaces without partitions
a. Looped vent
b. Circuit vent
c. Relief vent
d. Yoke vent
35. A group vent pipe starts in front of the extreme (highest) fixture connection on a hO..
connects to the vent stack
a. looped
b. Circuit vent
c. Relief vent
d. Yoke vent
36-84

CO6

85. what Is an automatically operated electrical switch used to protect an electrical circuit
from damaged caused by overload or short circuit and its basic function is to detect a fault
condition and Interrupt current flow?
a. fuse
b. circuit breaker
c. transformer
d. capacitor

C07

86. What do you call a safety device designed to stop an elevator automatically before the
car's speed becomes excessive,
a. governor
 b. break
c. buffers
d. final limit switches
87. What do you call a safety device usually placed in the elevator zit and their purpose is not
to stop a falling car but to bring it to a partially cushioned Stop if it would over travel the
lower terminal?
a. governor
b. breaker
c. buffers
88. Which escalator arrangement is simpler to visualize and also more com.. escalators, which
is used in stores to display special sale merchandize
a. Diagonal
b. Horizontal
c. Parallel
d. crisscross
89. What do you call the equipment, which is also known as ejection lift. This device is ideally
suited for delivery of food carts, linens, dishes and bulk.
a. Inclined elevator
b. Automated dumbwaiter
c. Horizontal conveyor
d. Pneumatic tube
90. What is a vertical shaft for travel of one or more elevator which includes the pit and
terminates at the underside of the overhang machinery space floor for electric elevators,
or at… of hydraulic elevator?
a. Hoistway
b. Machine room
c. Counter weight

91. -113 items pagaralan niyo daw ung sprinkler systems *sad face*

114. Which of the following is a…. to reduce noise pollution

a. Noise mitigation
b. Sound making
c. Noise blocking
d. Noise control
115. Which acoustic material is much less denser than masonry and provides much less in the
way sound… ation for that reason?
a. Concrete
b. Drywall and plaster
c. Wood
d. Stone and bricks
116. Which of the following conductor will make the sound travel fastest?
 a. Amplitude
b. Wavelength
c. Magnitude
d. pressure
117. What do you call the distance between similar(?) points on successive waves or distance
of the sound in one cycle of vibration that is in 1/second?
a. Amplitude
b. Wavelength
c. Magnitude
d. pressure
118. What is the maximum distance between the top and bottom curve of the sound wave and
characterize the sound loudness
a. Amplitude
b. Wavelength
c. Magnitude
d. pressure

What is a variously defined as unwanted sound with no intelligible content and/or

broadbrand sound depending upon the listener and the situation?
a. Speech
b. Music
c. Noise
d. vibration
119. Which of the following is composed of phenomena which are individual and distinct
sounds that to an extent, vary from language to language
a. Speech
b. Music
c. Noise
d. Vibration

*wala talaga siyang sagot dun sa OT*

CO10

121. The candela is the unit of intensity, its abbreviation is

e. Cp
f. Dc
g. Pc
h. cd
122. The amount of luminous energy) emenating from one square foor (meter) of surface on
the sphere is one..
 a. lm
b. ml
c. fl
d. fc
123. The ___ is the unit of light quantity and in terms of power is equal to 0.0015.
a. Reflectance
b. Lumen
c. Candle power
d. flux
124. _____ is the degree to which light is shadowless and is a function of the number of
directions from… ranges on a particular point and the relative intensities
a. Transparency
b. Transmission
c. Opaqueness
d. Diffusion

1. This kind of pump attached to the end of a deep well pipe enclosed in a casing where the
pump is capable of functioning submerged
a. underground pump
b. reversible pump
c. submarine pump
d. submersible pump
2. A tank using air pressure from a suction tank to distribute water from tell buildings which
cannot be reached by normal pressure
a. pneumatic tank
b. air pressure
c. force pump
d. power pump
3. A kind of GI fitting that has one end external threads, white the other end has internal
threads
a. Interchangeable tee
b. Close open elbow
c. two-way fitting
d. street elbow or tee
4. The white tape used around the thread before tightening the fittings when a GI pipe is
threaded to ensure no leakage
a. Teflon
b. plastic
c. PVC
d. sealer
5. describes the reflection of sound along curved surface ..from a source near the surface.
Although the sounds can be heard at points along the surface, it is inaudible way from the
surface.
a. steep
b. bleep
c. creep
d. keep
6. What method is used to specify the maximum allowable intensity of background sounds?
a. noise criteria
b. noise insulation class
c. noise reduction
d. inverse square law
7. What is one variable affecting reverberation time?,
a. sound
b. room volume
c. noise reduction coefficient
d. phon
8. In an office, a copy machine Is found to produce 65 dB. If a computer printer is added to
the room and it produces a sound Intensity of 69 dB, what will be the resulting sound
level?
a. 70d8
b. 71 dB
c. 72 dB
d. 73 dB
9. A system of sprinklers with its pipe constantly filling both mains and distribution pipes
a. water-filled system
b. liquid enhanced system
c. wet pipe system
d. soaking System
10. An Wet placed outsIde the building close to ground level, having two openings so that the
fire engines can pump water to the dry standpipes and spunkier system of the building
a. double header
b. dual entrance
c. Siamese Twin
d. Two way system
11. A fitting or device so constructed as to Prevent the passage of tr, gas andwc' wYe materis
system the flow of sewage or wastewater through it
a. trap
b. closer
c. water plug
d. clogged
12. A pit or receptacle at a low point to which the Itgvld wastes arc dra ned
 a. basement pit
b. house drain
c. low point pit
d. house trap
13. in cak tAat ing solar heat gam. what value must you have in addition to the area of the
tan?
a. sensible heat
b. design cooling load factor
c. effective temperature
d. neon radiant temperature
14. A geared traction elevator would be most appropriate for which of the following
applications?
i. A five-storey medical office building
ii. A sixteen-storey office building
iii. A four-storey department store
iv. An eight-storey apartment
a. I, III, and IV
b. Il, III, and IV
c. I,II, and III
d. I, II, II, and IV
15. It is a part of a piping system other that the main, riser, or stack
a. branch
b. B. catch basin
c. Circuit vent
d. branch
16. It is the most popular and generally specified pipe for drainage installation
a. Cast iron pipe
b. Asbestos pipe
c. Lead pipes
d. Clay pipes
17. It is the device designed to prevent backflow of gases into the fixture
a. Vent
b. Trap
c. Grease trap
d. Gate valve
18. In the plumbing system, it refers to the resistance producers by the flowing water inside
the pipe.
a. Pressure
b. Water main
c. Friction
d. backflow
19. A valve use mainly to completely close or completely open the line but not necessarily to
control the flow of water
a. gate valve
b. check valve
c. angle valve
d. globe valve
20. One of the oldest plumbing materials used by the Egyptians, Greeks and Romans
a. Lead pipe
b. Virtrified clay pipe
c. Angle valve
d. Globe valve.
21. A valve used on pipe lines to prevent backflow of water
a. gate valve
b. check valve
c. angle valve
d. globe valve
22. That portion of the plumbing system that receives discharges of all soil and waste stacks
a. house drain
b. floor drain
c. drainage
d. none of the above
23. Part of the Plumbing system which maintains the atmospheric pressure etude the pipe
a. trap
b. vent
c. siphonage
d. branch
24. It is the available commercial length for rigid type pipe
a. 12m
b. 150 m
c. 6m
d. 10n
25. . A vertical supply pipe which extends upward from one floor to the next is called
a. Water main
b. pressure
c. house service
d. riser
26. It is a receptacle or vault used to collect discharge from the house sewer
a. Cesspool
b. privy
c. sewer line
d. septic tank
27. This refers to the maximum water discharge for plumbing fixtures in terms of fixture units
 a. a. Peak load
b. maximum demand
c. pressure
d. pipe site
28. It a pipe which receives discharge of any fixture except water closets and conveys it to the
soil pipe
a. Waste Pipe
b. sod branch
c. soil pipe
d. sewer line
29. A general term for any vertical line of soil, waste and vent pipe
a. Branch
b. stack
c. house drain
d. vent pie
30. A pipe installed horizontally or vertically which receives the discharge of water closets
a. waste pipe
b. soil branch
c. soil pipe
d. sewer line
31. that portion of the vent pipe through which hosed waste flow
a. Waste pipe
b. wet vent
c. dry vent
d. individual vent
32. A vent used where two or more fixture traps are installed horizontal or waste branch
a. Looped vent
b. Circuit vent
c. Common vent
d. Yoke vent
33. How many fixture unit values does one bathroom group has?
a. 3
b. 5 ½
c. 8
d. 6
34. What is the fixture unit value of water closet?
a. 3
b. 5 ½
c. 8
d. 6
35. At seal loss which is Caused by a suspension of foreign object as string extended over the
outlet
 a. mini
b. evaporation
c. capillary action
d. trap
36. A trap used for fixtures suspended from walls not receiving large amount of water
discharge
a. trap
b. grease trap
c. seal
d. P-trap
37. A pipe fitting which is used to join two pipes
a. Coupling
b. union
c. tee
d. wye
38. Portion of the horizontal drainage system which starts from the outer face of the building
and terminate at the main sewer in the street or the septic tank
a. waste pipe
b. house drain
c. house sewer
d. sewer line
39. Also known as dual or common vent
a. loop vent
b. unit vent
c. back vent
d. waste vent
40. Based on the Numbing Code, no vent shall be less than 38 mm except for 32 mm
a. soil pipe
b. waste pipe
c. waste pipe
d. main vent
41. It connects roof terminals to the storm drain
a. gutter
b. roof leader
c. catch basin
d. drain
42. A pipe which is considered as the most expensive of all types of pipe
a. copper
b. lead
c. brass
d. PVC
43. It serves as dean-out and an access for inspection and repair in storm sewer
 a. manhole
b. storm drain
c. culvert
d. vault cover
44. A type of house drain that receives discharges of sanitary waste as well as storm water
a. house drain
b. sewer drain
c. combined drain
d. none of the above
45. A device designed to convey wastes from garage, wash rack, grease pit and repair floors
into the house drain
a. garage catch basin
b. catch basin
c. drainage
d. none of the above
46. An acoustical analogy to the regular or specular reflection of light where the angle of
incidence of an inverting sound wave equals the angle of direction
a. laser
b. ray diagram
c. acoustical diagram
d. none of the above
47. Distribute sounds to a larger or more distant audience
a. Sound attenuating system
b. Sound reinforcing system
c. Sound distribution system
d. None of the above
48. Is the combination of microphones, signal processors, amplifiers, and loudspeakers that
makes Ira or pre recorded sounds louder Ray diagram
a. Sound attenuating system
b. Sound reinforcing system
c. Sound distribution system
d. Non* of the above
49. Boost a low-voltage level signal and provide electrical power to drive a loudspeaker
a. electrical power
b. power speaker
c. power amplifier
d. None of the above
50. This system provides maximum realism, as the listener will hear amplified sound from the
direction of the natural sound
a. A central loudspeaker system
b. Loudspeaker system
c. Central paging system
 d. None of the above
51. Is the return of a sound wave from a surface
a. Reflection
b. Diffusion
c. Refraction
d. None of the above
52. Is the scattering or random distribution of a sound ware from a surface
a. reflection
b. diffusion
c. refraction
d. none of the above
53. Is the bending or flowing of a sound wave around an object
a. Diffraction
b. diffusion
c. refraction
d. none of tht abate
54. Resonate at certain audible frequencies; this is called the effect
a. Larsen effect
b. Bathroom tenor
c. Side effect
d. none of the above
55. A sound with a tower frequency wave generates a Pitch
a. lower
b. higher
c. lower-higher
d. none of Oat above
56. Refers to sound that is absorbed, and not
a. Total Sound Absorption
b. Sound Absorption
c. Sound Transmission
d. None of the above
57. The persistence of sound in a particular space after the original sound is produced
a. Refraction
b. Reverberation
c. Reflection
d. none of the abort
58. Tubing that contains individual insulated wires
a. Armored cable
b. Conduit
c. Metallic Tubing
d. none of the abase
59. Wire that carry current from the appliance back to the source
 a. Positive wire
b. Neutral wire
c. Green wire
d. none of the above
60. A flexible metal sheath with individual wires inside
a. Armored cable
b. conduit
c. metallic Tubing
d. none of the above
61. Electricity flow through the circuit and back to its source rapidly
a. Circuit
b. Open Circuit
c. Short Circuit
d. none of the above
62. Electrical conductors which are 89 sq. m (AWG #8) or smaller in size
a. Conductors
b. Wires
c. Cables
d. none of the abate
63. Are used to ground all metal boxes and appliances
a. positive wire
b. Neutral wire
c. Green wire
d. none of the above
64. Box with a blank cover where conductors meet sin
a. junction box
b. Pull box
c. Outlet box
d. none of the above
65. Box with a blank cover inserted to one or more raceways to facilitate pulling of the
conductors
a. Junction box
b. Pull box
c. Outlet box
d. None of the above
66. An enclosure designed for surface mounting and having swinging doors or covers secured
directly to and telescoping with the walls of the box proper
a. Cut-out box
b. Panel box
c. Direct box
d. None of the above
67. The methods means of governing the performance of an electric apparatus, equipment,
fixtures, machines, or system
a. Cut-out-box
b. Control panel box
c. Direct box
d. None of the above
68. A conductor encased within a material of composition and thickness that is recognized by
this code as electrical insulation
a. Cut-out-box
b. Insulated
c. Wire
d. None of the above
69. A measure of the rate of flow of electricity
a. Amperes
b. Volts
c. Watts
d. None of the above
70. A measure of electric pressure
a. Amperes
b. Volts
c. Watts
d. None of the above
71. A special switch which is an essential part of a standby power arrangement, basically a
double throw
a. Remote control switch
b. Time controlled switch
c. Automatic transfer switch
d. None of the above
72. A measure of the amount of energy or work that can be done
a. a. Amperes
b. Volts
c. Watts
d. none of the above
73. A form) of air switch in which hinged copper blade is placed between two clips
a. Knife switch
b. Single Air switch
c. Air switch
d. none of the above
74. An assembly of module conductors used to carry large amount of current (power). Instead
of writ several parallel or single large conductor, a bar assembly is adapted
a. Sunray
b. Busway
 c. Raceway
d. none of the above
75. The most common conductor used in different types of house wires and cables. Its
frequent use is due to its good electrical conductivity, low resistance, and mechanical
strength
a. Copper
b. Iron
c. Aluminum
d. none of the above
76. A switch In which the interruption of a circuit occurs in air
a. Knife switch
b. Single air switch
c. Air switch
d. none of the above
77. Tubing that contains individual insulated wires
a. Armored cable
b. Conduit
c. Metallic Tubing
d. none of the above
78. A point in the wiring system at which current is taken to supply utilization equipment, any
point that supplies an electric load
a. Switch
b. Outlet
c. Panel
d. none of the above
79. Ratio between the true power and the apparent power of a load in an AC circuit
a. Power Factor
b. Power
c. Energy
d. none of the above

P.S. baka may mga type sa questions, di ko na pinroof read gaano pagkaconvert HAHAHAH em
sorry
BUILDING TECHNOLOGY PRIME

PART I

Pantile A roofing tile which has the shape of an "S" laid on its side is a

Foundation wall That part of the building foundation which forms the permanent
retaining wall of the structure below grade is a

Control joints Joint employed to reduce restraint by accommodating movement of

masonry walls are known as

Balloon framing system Framing of a building in which the studs are continuous to roof
supporting second floor joints is known as

Tyrolean finish Rough plaster finish obtained by flinging plaster on a wall with a hand
operated machine is

Chord A principal member of the truss which extends from one end to the other
primarily to resist bending is a

Casein A protein the chief nitrogenous ingredient in milk

Alloy a composition of two or more metals fused together usually to obtain a desired
property

Backset The horizontal distance from the face of a lock or latch to the center of the
knob or lock cylinder

Wrought iron A commercially pure iron of fibrous nature, valued for its corrosion
resistance and ductility is

Pabalagbag The Filipino term for horizontal stud is

Takip silipan The Filipino term for riser

Sinturon The Filipino term for collar plate is

Poleva The Filipino term for temper (metal work)

Hulog The Filipino term for plumb line is

Cantilever A beam that projects beyond one or both its support

Shear A wall (bearing or non-bearing) designed to resist lateral forces parallel to the
wall

15 Using stair tread-riser proportion formula RT = 75, given riser equals 614 "how many
risers will there be between two floors having floor line to floor line distance of 7.8125
feet?

Gluing/pasting A modern method of installing wood parquet flooring on wooden

boards sub flooring is by
0.90 meters The standard height of window sills for office rooms in upper floors is

24" x 48" x 2" The dimension of commercial acoustic boards for aluminum T-runners used
for dropped-ceiling in offices is

1,098 bf The total floor area 16 feet wide by 60 feet deep needs one inch (1") x 4"
(commercial size) T & G flooring. Assuming that the available T & G is 1" x 4" x 16" and
the effective width is 3.5", the total board feet needed is

Post-tensioning in the design of a large shopping centers where space is required,

intervals of columns can be wider than the ordinary by adopting a structural method of
construction called

Providing building paper sheathing and space filled Humidification and condensation
in exterior walls can be minimized by

Wood Heat gain through the structure of a habitable room occur in tropical region at
walls and roofs by conduction. This can be minimized by the use of

Glossy surfaced asphalt flow saturated paper, 50 lbs or more A material used to remedy
vapor

Lath and plaster Dry walls do not require appreciable amount of moisture and they are
customarily finished with

Furring Wallboards or plywood maybe applied over studs. They can also be applied
over CHB masonry wall by using Identify the miter joint from the following

Flashing material To turn back water whenever joints occur in which dissimilar materials
come together, it is necessary to provide

Grade beam The part of a foundation system which supports the exterior walls of a
superstructure and bears directly on the column footing is a

Batten A narrow strip of wood applied to cover a joint along the edges of two parallel
boards in the same plane is a

Post-tensioning The stressing of unbounded tendons after concrete has cured is

Beam blocking The boxing in of covering a jo ist, beam or girder to give the
appearance of a larger beam is known as

Western framing A system of framing a building on which floor joists of each storey rest
on the top plates of the storey below and the bearing walls and partitions rest on the
subfloor of each storey is known as

Atmospheric pressure Pressure exerted against the underground portion of a building

created by the presence of water in the soil is known as

Bay window A window which projects outside the main line of a building and the
compartment in which it is located extends to the floor is known as
Flemish bond A form of brick bond in which each course is alternately composed of
entirely of headers or of stretchers is known as

Cold joint A joint formed when a concrete surface hardens before the next batch of
concrete is placed against it is

Cast iron An iron alloy usually including carbon and silicon which has high compressive
strength but low tensile strength is

Kusturada The Filipino term for plastered course is

Reostra The Filipino term for purlin is

Sopo The Filipino term for eave is

Tahilan The Filipino term for top chord is

1" thick V-cut wood boards The capacity of a wall to hold moisture is important in the
design of dwelling units. Select the best material which will reduce moisture in a wall
when used

Adequate insulation Plaster or plywood ceiling on nailers or joists below a ventilated

roof space may show “pattern staining" on the ceiling. This can be prevented by

Combination of wood boards and plywood with cavity between Heat gain through the
walls in buildings exposed to afternoon sun intensifies discomfort of inhabitants because
of conductivity. However, this can be minimized by the use of

Double wall plywood on horizontal and vertical studs with absorbents Sound or noise
between bedrooms may be reduced by using less expensive materials with the
application of construction techniques

3.69 meters The staircase of a house has a total run of 3 meters and a total rise of 2.16
meters, the tread width is 11 inches and riser is 7 7/8", therefore, the stringer length is

Lath and plaster Dry walls are customarily finished with

12.2247 inches The riser of a stair is 6 22 inches. What is the run using formula R/T = tan (R
3) x 8 degrees

1/40 plastic hose filled with water One method of leveling batter boards without the
transit is the use of

3-4-5 multiples with the use of steel tape measure A manual method of squaring the
corners of a building lines in building layout, is the use of

Felt paper below sub-slab then WP on top of the sub-slab When dry conditions are
demanded of asphalt tile floor finishes on concrete over earth, apply the waterproofing
(WP) steps

Expansion joints Due to temperature effects in materials, concrete walls, slabs of long
buildings, new buildings adjoining existing buildings should be provided with
Corkboard A typical block or panel type insulating material used in flat roof of
commercial or industrial building

4.16 meters What is the height of the RC curtain wall surrounding a water tank located
at the penthouse whose capacity is 5000 U.S. gallons? The diameter of the tank is 2.5
meters (I.D.) and freeboard of 0.30 meters. The wall shall be as high as the water tank.

Columns, splices, materials, lot Select the grouping one subject of which is a criterion
used by architects in planning and design of buildings

Ceiling only Narrow, high ceiling spaces where ceiling area is small compared to wall
area, will normally require acoustical treatment of the

Nickel steel A ferrous metal that offers great resistance to abrasion and finds important
use in the cutting edges of heavy digging tools is a

Serpentine A building stone of igneous origin and composed of quartz, hornblende and
mica is a

Flemish bond A form of brick bond in which the course consists of alternate stretchers
and headers in known as

Western framing A system of framing a building on which floor joist of each storey rests
on the top plates of the storey below and the bearing walls and partitions rest on the
subfloor of each storey is known as

Vaciada The Filipino term for rabbet

Bolada The Filipino term for projection is

18 risers Given a riser equals six inches and using the stair tread-riser proportion formula
2R + T = 25, how many risers will there be between two levels having a vertical distance
of 9'-0"

Soil bearing pressure A geological or ground condition considered in determining the

size and type of foundation of the building

Aluminum foil sheets These are materials excellent as vapor barrier in the roofing system
of residential buildings

Reinforced concrete and high grade steel The chief structural materials, used for tall
buildings are

Porous concrete, glass fibers, guilt materials These are classified as good and less
expensive insulating materials used in buildings

Asbestos-cement shingles This is a material that holds less moisture, is very light, less
water absorptive capacity and is very good in sidings of dwelling units

6 1/4 inches The toilet bathroom floor finish is designed to be at least one inch below
the bedroom floor finish. What should be the vertical distance between the bedroom
floor finish and the top line of the 2" X 6' yacal floor joists which carry the toilet bath floor
system assuming that 1/4" thick mosaic vitrified tiles will be used in the toilet bathroom
on 4" RC slab with membrane waterproofing, using standard acceptable measurement
of materials for residential houses

7.906 meters A Howe Truss is being considered to support the roofing system of a
residential building. The pitch of the truss is 1 vertical 3 horizontal. What is the total length
of the top chord, if the span of truss is 12 meters and the eave is 1.5 meters horizontally?

Door jamb The finished frame surrounding a door is a

Knob bolt A door lock with a spring bolt controlled by one or both knobs and dead bolt
controlled by a key is a

Dutch door A door consisting of two separate leaves, one above the other, this leaves
may operate independently or together is a

Lap seam A joint formed by overlapping the edges of metal sheet or plated and joining
them by riveting, soldering or brazing is a

Mission tile A clay roofing tile approximately semi cylindrical in shape laid in courses with
units having their convex side alternately up and down is a

Grade beam The part of a foundation system which supports the exterior wall of the
super structure and bears directly on the column footing is a

Wrought iron A commercially pure iron of fibrous nature, valued for its corrosion
resistance and ductility is a

A fortification The wall of Intramuros

Kilo is The Filipino term for rafter

Rodapis is The Filipino term for baseboard

Lightning is A climatic factor that is considered in the structural and architectural design
of tall buildings

Soil bearing pressure This is a ground condition that determines the size, type and shape
of the building footing/foundation

3.513 meters What is the height of a curtain wall for a down feed water tank at the
deck roof with 60,000 gallons capacity and diameter of 3 meters, freeboard of 0.30
meters, shall be as high as the water tank

Concrete, steel and wood, type of floor finish Select the grouping one subject of which
is a general criterion used by architects in planning and design of buildings

G.I. Sheets The most common materials used for roofing of urban residential houses
Space frames, light steel skeleton structures For very large roof spans (for auditoria,
transport buildings, exhibition halls) of over 150 ft. these structures are suggested
economical solutions

"Going" Rise is the vertical distance between the upper surfaces of two consecutive
steps. The horizontal distance between the nosing of two consecutive steps is the

1/4” double wall on 2" x 4" studs Noise inside the building is o two kinds, namely, airborne
noise and impact noise. Insulation must be provided against both of these by internal
walls and floors. Examples of better sound insulation are

Pitch or bituminous felt When the soil beneath the building is not exceptionally well
drained and it is necessary to exclude dampness, the best material to be used which is
installed beneath the concrete slab is

Asbestos cement shingles This material holds less moisture, is very light with less
absorptive capacity and is very good in exterior sidings of residential houses in tropical
regions

2 1/2 corr. Standard size overlap for corrugated G.I. roofing is

Sheet piling A barrier or diaphragm formed to prevent the movement of soil to stabilize
foundation, etc. is

Wood siding The term stone-cut refers to a

Kalamein Wood with metal cladding is called

Soleras The Filipino term for floor joist

Tirante is The Filipino term for bottom chord

"Aa" is Standard concrete mix for beams, girders, slabs, stairs and columns is

Split-ring Chord splice connectors for trusses is

Plumb bob A vertical line check uses a

Clamp nail A specialized fastener used to pull on to hold mitered joints together is

Weathered Most waterproofed type of mortar joints for wall is

Hip rafter Rafters laid diagonally from corner of a plate or girts to the ridge

Batter boards The horizontal boards nailed to corner post to assist in the accurate layout
of foundation and excavation lines are called

Composite Columns in which a concrete core is reinforced with a steel or cast-iron core
designed to support a part of load is

Kostilyahe The Filipino term for ceiling joist is

Biga The Filipino term for concrete beam is

Spirit level Instrument or tool capable of vertical and horizontal line check is called

Construction joint The vertical and horizontal surface is reinforced concrete where
concreting was stopped and continued later is called

Torsion A twisting force

Chase A continuous recess built into a wall to receive pipes, ducts, etc. is called

Hybrid girder It is a special type of plate girder consisting of tees, angles and multiple
web

One-way slab When the ratio of short span to the long span of a slab is less than 0.50,
slab is

Purlins Longitudinal beams which rest on the top chord and preferably at the joints of
the truss

Space frame A three-dimensional structural system without bearing walls composed of

interconnected laterally supported so as to function as a complete self-contained unit
with or without the aids of horizontal diaphragms or floor bracing system

15 mm Concrete slab should have a minimum clearance of

Shear wall It is designed to resist lateral forces parallel to the plane of the wall

Inflection point The section of which the moment changes from positive to negative is
called

Zinc chromate What is the appropriate painting material type for wood surfaces?

Aluminum coating Commercially made corrugated G.I. sheets, of gauge 26, having
standard corrugation are coated both sides with

7 & 6 wood planks Wood flooring finishing material

Staple wire What hardware/material is needed to fasten an asphalt strip roof shingle on
wooden sheets/planks?

24 hours The time required for the removal of a form works of a concrete footing

Studs Wall partition wooden framing is called

1 1/2 How many corrugation is required as the minimum side lap of an ordinary

standard G.I. sheet roofing?

Acrylic latex type What is the appropriate paint material for G.I. sheet roofing?

Acrylic paint The paint finishing material of long-span pre-painted roofing sheet is

L hook bolt What hardware/material is needed to fasten corrugated asbestos cement

roofing sheet on a steel purlin
Chalking A common paint film defect where progressive powdering from the surface
inward occurs. It is called

Construction joint A joint where two successive placement of concrete meet is called

Bearing wall A wall which supports vertical loads in addition to its weight without the
benefit of a complete vertical load carrying space frame is called

Flat slab A type of concrete floor which has no beam is called

The slab is being supported by two parallel beams A one-way concrete slab are used
when

Tool used for guiding and a testing the work to a vertical and horizontal position Level
tool is

Tool for testing and for framing work Steel square is a

Riser The vertical surface on face of a stair step is called

Masonry tool Tin shear is a

Bearing tool Auger bit is part of

2 years The complete records of test conduction (slump, compression test, etc.) shall be
preserved and made available for inspection during the progress of construction and
after completion of the projects for a period of not less than

Not less than 1" thick x 4" and up wide Wood board should have a thickness
specification of

2" to 5" thick Wood plank is a piece of lumber that is

Run The distance from the first to the last riser of a stair flight is called

Portable hand router A high-speed rotary shaping hand power tool used to make
smooth cutting and curving on solid wood is called

Girder The major horizontal supporting member of the floor system is called

Knots Wood defects are heart shake, cup shake, star shake and

Smoothed or planed lumber Dressed lumber is referred to

Cross-cut The other kind of handsaw other than rip-cut saw is

Load bearing walls Walls that support weight from above as well as their own dead
weight

Live load It refers to the occupancy load which either partially or fully in place or may
not be present at all is called

Effective length The distance between inflection point in the column when it breaks is
called
Volume The amount of space measured in cubic units

Contraction joint An expansion joints adjacent parts of a structure to permit expected

movements between them is called

Height To find the volume of water in a cylindrical tank, multiply the area of its base by
its

Cement The most important component to determine the strength of a concrete mix is

Cantilever beam A beam that projects beyond one or both its support is called

Hip roof support Jack rafter is used for

Total run The total of all the tread widths in a stair is called

Facade The face or front elevation of a building

Sump A pit in a basement floor made to collect water into which a pump is placed to
pump the liquid to the sewer pipe

Pre-construction of components as a part of a whole Prefabrication refers to

Skylight An opening in the roof for admitting light is called

Softwood Wood coming out from trees with needle leaves, rather than broad leaves
are called

Firebrick A kind of brick used for high temperature Balloon framing The building frame
construction system that uses one piece structural stud from the foundation to the roof

Plaster ground A nailer strip incorporated in rough concrete wall to be plastered to act
as guide and support for finish trim around openings and near the base of the wall

Span The distance between two structural supports

Xylem The scientific name for wood is

Risers In designing a stair, to find the height of the riser, divide the height of the stair by
the number of

Hip roof A kind of roof that has four sloping sides

Rip-rap Stone placed on a slope to prevent erosion

Moat A tough used for carrying off water

Stripping The process of removing concrete forms from the cured concrete

Purlin A structural member spanning from truss-to-truss or supporting rafters

Anchor bolt A threaded steel bent inserted of masonry construction for securing wood
or metal plates to concrete construction
Lintel A horizontal piece of wood, stone, steel or concrete across the top of door or
window opening to bear the weight of the walls above the opening

Glazing The placing of glass in windows or doors

Cult A rejected building material because of its below standard grade is called

Banister Another word for handbill on a stair construction

Lap joint A joint produced by lapping two pieces of materials

Lumber that still contains moisture or sap Green lumber is

Valley The internal angle formed by the two roof slopes of a roof is called

Fascia A vertical board attached on the ends of the rafters. It is a part of the cornice

Spike A large heavy nail is referred to as

Risers In designing a stair, to find the number of riser divide the height of the stair by the
height of each

Caisson Underwater watertight chamber to allow construction work to be done

Vertical and horizontal wood sticks and lumber used to determine the elevation and
ditances of the reference points of the proposed building Stakes and batter board in a
construction lay outing procedure refers to

Smooth on four sides Lumber specification S4S means

Chord The term used to indicate top and lower principal member of a roof or bridge
truss

Wood saddle Strips of hardwood, usually 2x2" laid over a concrete slab floor

45 Miter square is a guiding and testing tool that has a permanent blade set at

Retaining wall A wall that holds back on earth embankment

Oxy/acetyline welding In structural steel section joints, it is recommended NOT to use

Common wall A wall that serves two (2) dwelling units, known also as party wall

Alabaster Pertaining to a material description that resembles glass

Stabilize To allow concrete to dry by keeping it moist to attain maximum strength

Escutcheon The hardware on a door to accommodate the knob and lockset keyhole

Flashing The material used for the process of making watertight the roof intersection
and other exposed areas on the exterior of a building

Chase A vertical space in a building intended for ducts, pipes, wire and cables

Formworks The term to describe the putting up of the skeleton of the building
Carpenter measuring tool The zig-zag rule is a

A wedge-shaped stone of an arch Keystone is

A fireproof door with metal covering Kalomein door is

Milled lumber Lumber that is not squared or finished

90 degree bend plus 12 db extension, at free end of ba How is a 90 degree bend

standard hook for concrete reinforcement constructed

Surface in contact with the bolth head and nut shall have a slope of not more than 1:10
with respect to a plane normal to the bolt axis Good high-strength-bolted connection
for steel should have the following physical characteristic for good workmanship. Which
of the following listed is NOT ideal?

Batter piles What are piles at an inclination to resist forces that are not critical?

Group of parallel reinforcing bars bundled in contact to act as a unit shall be limited to
three in any one bundle Which of the following criteria for bundle bars, do NOT apply?

Grade beam What is a concrete beam placed directly on the ground to provide
foundation for the superstructure?

Foundation bolts What is a round steel bolt embedded in concrete or masonry use to
hold down machinery, steel columns or beams, casting, shoes, beams plates and
engine heads?

Stucco floor finish A concrete flooring and finish which transforms ordinary plain
concrete into an elegant and decorative textured surface. This is done by adding dust-
on color pigments to the concrete to give a fast color and imprinted with a patented
pattern and texture while the concrete is still plastic to create the look and finish of
stone, slate or brick.

Asintada Vernacular term for Concrete Hollow Block (CHB) laying

Inset or interior An installation method where the cabinet covers is recessed and flushed
with the cabinet sidings

Velvet Type of carpet weave important for an architect/designer to know to guide him
as to what type of construction and specification should he recommend. What simplest
type of fiber carpet weaving where pile forms as the wrap yarns loop over removable
"wires" inserted consecutively across the loom?

Scratch coat A pretreatment of poured concrete such as walls beams and columns
where a thin layer of lean cement grout mixed with flexible base additives is splattered
by Tampico brush or masonry spoon to the surface to give a "tooth" for excellent plaster
adhesion
Mahogany Local species of wood commonly used for wall studding, cabinet framing,
and flush door framing, though scarcely available in the market now due to forestry
ban. This type of species is due to cheaper cost than the other listed below

Polyurethane floor coating A special coating system with a high gloss shine while
maintaining the natural wood qualities, maintenance free, used to finish and topcoat
wood flooring

Sandblast A common and cheap masonry finish wherein dry consistency mortar mix is
sprayed by mechanical or pneumatic means. The sprayed cement is left to dry and
give a rustic finish. Optional paint coat maybe required

Scarf A type of wood end joint where both wood are cut at equal angles diagonally

Standard sizes, shapes and forms When utilizing "knock-down" modular system of
cabinets and furniture, an end user is constrain of using

Standard terazzo A type of terrazzo floor described by its physical appearance

whereby the stone or pebble is intentionally exposed while the cement matrix is
depressed

Concrete shall be carried on at such a rate that concrete is at all times plastic and
flows readily into space between reinforcement Which of the following concrete
handling criterion impairs the quality of

Pivoted A type of window where the ventilating sash rotates 90 degrees to 180 degrees
about the header and sill or about the side jamb

Keep the cement plaster as thin as possible To prevent cement plaster from improper
adhesion, the substrate must be roughened while observing the following:

Left hand A type of "hands of door” where the hinge is at the left and the door leaf
swings inside the room to the left

Rabbet What type of joint is used to install a glass into a lite of a French window?

Notch trowel An equipment to uniformly distribute tile adhesive at the underside of a

tile during installation

Masonry neutralizer A water-mixed product mixed to a ratio of 1:20 to stabilize lime

activity in new masonry surface. Without preparing the surface with this mixture will
cause the subsequent painting to be defective

Peeling A paint defect which indicates imperfect adhesion of paint to the surface, with
the film getting stripped off in a relatively large pieces due to application on damp or
greasy surface

Figured wired glass A type of shutter proof opaque glass used to construct a door with
glass to allow natural light only

Rebokada Vernacular term for rough plastering

Db but not less than 30 mm What is the minimum concrete cover for primary
reinforcement of beams and columns not exposed to earth or weather for precast
manufactured under plant control conditions?

Grading What is the act of excavating or filling of earth or any sound material or
combination thereof, in preparation for a finishing surface such as paving?

Vigan tiles A floor finish commercially size 1" x 12" x 12" utilizing clay and fired in
traditional manner making interesting and attractive rustic clay shade patterns.
Because of the rustic effect the floor is finished rough and simply adhere by cement
with some irregularities

Tendon What is a steel element such as wire, cable, bar, rod or strand, or a bundle of
such elements, used to impart pre-stress to concrete?
BUILDING TECHNOLOGY PRIME
PART II

Identify the basic properties and composition of building construction and finishing materials
including the application and articulation in the building envelope.

Wood coming out from trees with needle leaves, rather than broad leaves are called
a. ironwood
b. mahogany
c. softwood
d. hardwood

A composition of two or more metals fused together usually to obtain a desired property.
a. annealing
b. alloy
c. built-up
d galvanized

A commercially pure iron of fibrous nature, valued for its corrosion resistance and ductility is
a. cast iron
b. black iron
c. wrought iron
d. all of the above

An iron alloy usually including carbon and silicon which has high compressive strength but
low tensile strength
a. pig iron
b. cast iron
c. wrought iron
d. none of the above

A typical block or panel insulating material used in flat roof of commercial or industrial
building
a. Corkboard
b. Acacia lumber
c. Washed pebble
d. Styropore

The term stone cut refers to a

a. masonry finish
b. adobe stone work
c. wood siding
d. tile trim

A ferrous metal that offer great resistance to abrasion and finds Important use in the cutting
edges of heavy dining tools is a
a. alloy wheel
b. nickel steel
c. manganese steel
d. stainless

A building stone of igneous origin and composed of quartz, hornblende and mica is a
a. travertine
b. serpentine
c. granite
d. None of the above
A door lock with a spring ball controlled by one or both knobs and dead bolt controlled by a
key is a
a. knob bolt
b. knob latch
c. knob lock
d. None of the above

A clay roofing tile approximately semi cylindrical in shape laid in courses with units having
their convex side alternately up and down is a
a. pantile
b. mission file
c. roman tile
d. tegula

Wood with metal cladding is called

a. channell strip
b. reinforced wood
c. kalamein
d. None of the above

Wood flooring finishing material

a. T&G wood planks
b. V-cut wood planks
c. gypsum board
d. All of the above

Wood defects are heart shake, cup shake, star shake and
a. knots
b. discoloration
c. deterioration
d rotten

Dressed lumber is referred to

a. covered with plastic for shipment
b. lumber of exact measurement
c. smoothed or planed lumber
d. lumber used for fine carpentry works

These are materials excellent as vapor barrier in the roofing system of residential buildings
a. particle board
b. lawanit boards
c. aluminum foil sheets
d. plastic sheets

COZ. Describe the practical application of building materials its application, Installation,
fabrication and maintenance methods and techniques relative to building design and
Construction

Joint employed to reduce restraint by accommodating movement of masonry walls are

known as
a. cold joints
b. control joints
c. blockouts
d. None of the above

2
The capacity of a wall la hold moisture is important in the design of dwelling units. Select the
best material which will reduce moisture in awall when used
a. CHB S-cut joint finsh
b. thick V-cut wood boards
c. Synthetic adobe finish on R.C. wall
d. All of the above

This is a material that holds less moisture is very light, less water absorptive capacity and is
very good in siding of dwelling units
a. vinyl shingles
b. asbestos cement shingles
c. wood boards
d. Polyurthane panels

When the soil beneath the building is not exceptionally well drained and it is necessary to
exclude dampness, the best material to be used which is Installed beneath the concrete
slab is.
Pitc or bituminous felt
graver course
aluminum foil
plastic sheets

To turn back water whenever joints occur in which dissimilar materials come together, it is
necessary to provide
flashing material
finding material
counter flashing
all of the above

He came through the walls in building exposed afternoon sun intensifies discomfort of
inhabitants because of conductivity. However, This can be minimized by the use of
combination of wood boards and plywood with cavity between
thick reinforce concrete wall
steel sheets
all of the above

A narrow strip of wood applied to cover a joint along the edges of two parallel boards in the
same plane is a
fillet
cant strip
batten
filler

A material used to remedy vapor flow

glossy surfaced asphalt saturated paper, 50 lbs or more
wall paper
asbestos cement board
gypsum board

Auger bit is part of

Fastener tool
testing tool
bearing tool
none of the above

3
 A door consisting of two separate leaves, one above the other, this leaves may operate
independently or together is a
Dwarf door
Dutch door
Window door
Twin door

Wood board should have a thickness specification of

Not less than 2” thick x 5” and up wide
Not less than 1” thick x 4” and up wide
Not less than 2” thick x 4” and up wide
Not less than 3” thick x 7” and up wide

Wood plant is a piece of lumber that is

2” to 5” thick
6” to 8” thick
5” to 7” thick
8” up thick

When dry conditions are demanded asphalt tile floor finishes on concrete over earth, apply
the waterproofing steps
felt paper below sub slab then WP on top of the sub slab
felt paper below the top slot then WP the area
WP the earth under slab
none of the above

The horizontal distance from the face of a lock or latch to the centre of the knob or lock
cylinder
backset
backfill
built-up
none of the above

Tin Shear is a
painter tool
masonry tool
tinsmithry tool
gardening tool

The measure horizontal supporting member of the floor system is called

rafter
girder
purlin
girt

Rough plaster finish obtained by flinging plaster on a wall with a hand operated machine is
Tryolean finish
Trowel finish
Broom stripped finish
NOA

A principle member of the trucks which extends from one end to the other primarily to
receive spending is a
web member
cute
chord

4
beam

a beam that projects be on one or both its support

continuous
cantilever
tie
girt

A wall (bearing or non-bearing) designed to resist lateral forces parallel to the wall
Non-bearing
prefabricated
shear
Bearing

identify the miller joint from the following

page 12. A - diagonal line

The part of a foundation system which supports the exterior walls of a superstructure and
bears directly on the column footing is a
foundation course
grade beam
foundation wall
wall footing

Longitudinal beams which rests on the top chord and preferably at the joints of the truss
Purlins
Rafters
Girders
Girt

Distressing of unbounded pendence after concrete has cured is

post tensioning
precasting
lift slab
pre-fab

the vertical surface on face of a stair step is called

stair clip
stair head
nosing
riser

The distance from the first to last riser of a star flight

spandrel
pitch
run
rise

Pressure exerted against the underground portion of a building created by the presence of
water in the soil is known as
soil bearing pressure
hydrostatic pressure
atmospheric pressure
ground pressure

5
a form of brick bond in which each course is alternately composed of entirely of headers or
of stretchers is known as
common bond
Flemish bond
English bond
none of the above

A joint form when a concrete surface gardens before the next batch of concrete is placed
against it is
Block out
cold joint
control joint
tool joint

Plaster or plywood ceiling or nailers or joists below a ventilated roof space may show pattern
staining on the ceiling. this can be prevented by
cleaning
adequate insulation
repainting
washing

Drywalls our customarily finished with

Lath and plaster
mortar and hollow blocks
reinforced concrete
soil

what method of levelling batter boards without the transit is the use of
1/4 plastic hose filled with water
eyesight
plumb bob
all of the above

a manual method of squaring the corners of a building lines in building layout, is the use of
234 multiples with the use of transit
345 multiples with the use of steel tape measure
454 multiples and strings
all of the above

A form of brick bond you wish the course consists of alternate stretchers and headers
In known as
Flemish bond
English bond
common bond
none of the above

the finished frame surrounding a door is a

door frame
door jamb
door casing
architrave

A joint form by overlapping the edges of metal sheet Or plated have in joining them by
reveting, soldering or brazing is a
Lap joint
Lap seam

6
Lap splice
None of the above

Rise is the practical distance between the upper surfaces of two consecutive steps. the
horizontal distance between the nosing of two consecutive steps is the
going
string
newel
thread

a continuous recess built into a wall receive pipes, etc is called

alcove
ductwork
chase
pipe box

A vertical line uses a

meter stick
try square
plumb Bob
all of the above

a specialised fastener used to pull on to hold mitered joints together

vise
wood screw
clamp nail

Rafters laid diagonally from corner of a plate or girts to the ridge

Jack rafter
Valley plate
hip rafter
girt

The horizontal boards nailed the corner post to assist in the accurate layout of foundation
and excavation lines are called
Foam boards
Box boards
Batter boards
Level board

Columns in which a concrele core is renforced with a steel or cast-iron core designed to
support a part of load is
Lally
composite
cast-in-place
Metal pipe

A joint where two successive placement of concrete meet is called

contraction joint
construction joint
expansion joint
None of the above

The Filipino term for ceiling joist is

Kostilyahe
Tirante

7
Espejo
pamakuan

The Filipino term for concrete beam is.

Biga
Gulilhan
Sinturon
Balikat

The Filipino term for collar plate is

Hardinera
Guilitan
sinturon
balikat

The Filipino term for rafter is

guililan
sepo
kilo
biga

The Filipino term for baseboard is

rodapis
perdano
batidora
moldura

The Filipino term for floor joist is

suelo
gullilan
soleras
pamakuan

The Filipino term for eave is

sepo
tabike
sibe
bubong

The Filipino term for top chord is

tahilan
baytang
sinturond
kilo

Identify which figure is a dado wood joint

Page14 - 2

Wall partition wooden framing is called

joist
jambs
studs
nailers

8
A common paint film detect where progressive powdering from the surface inward occurs. It
is called
blisering
peeling
chalking
alligatoring

COS. Describe the basic principles of construction systems in terms of function, application,
operation and maintenance

Humidification and condensation in exterior walls can be minimized by

Providing stud space between exterior finish and interior finish
to providing building paper sheathing
providing building paper sheathing and space filled
None of the above

72. A type of concrete floor which las no team is called

Flat slab
b.2-way slab
cone way slab
d None of the above

Heat gain through the structure of habitable room oCcurs in tropical region at walls and roofs
by conduction. This can be minimized by the use of
wood
b. concrete
d None of the above

Dry walls do not require appreciable amount of moisture and they are customarily finished
with
mortar and cement
b plywood on studs
lath and plaster

The most important component to determine the strength of a concrete mix is

a cement
b sand
gravel
d lime

Due to temperature effects in materials, concrete walls, slabs of long buildings. new buildings
adjoining existing buildings should be provided with
a flashing
b. welded joints
expansion joints
d all of the above

A geological or ground condition considered in determining the size and type of foundation
of the building
a soll chemistry
soil bearing pressure
particle size distribution
all of the above

9
A system of framing a building on which floor joists of each storey rest on the top plates of the
storey below and the bearing walls and partitions rest on the subfloor of each storey is known
as
a balloon frarning
b. tank framming
western framing
d. none of the above

A system of framing a building in which the studs are continuous to roof supporting second
floor joints is known as a
post and beam b
western framing
balloon framing

C06. Apply the knowledge of building systems in architectural design

81 The standard height of window sills for office rooms in upper floors is
a 1.2 meters
0.60 meters
0.90 meters

In the design of a large shopping centers where space is required intervals of columns can
be wider than the ordinary by adopting a structural method of construction called
a compressioning
post-tensioning
C.pre-casting

A window which projects outside the main line of a building and the compartment in which it
is located extends to the floor is known as
bay window
b.hopper window
conel window

Wallboards or plywood maybe applied over studs. They can also be applied over CHB
masonry wall by using
a wood battens
furring
sheathing

Narrow, high ceiling spaces where ceiling area is small compared to wall area, will normally
require
Acoustical treatment of the
waltor part of several walls
floor and ceiling
ceiling only

The boxing in of covering a joist, beam of girder to give the appearance of a larger beam
is known as
a bean formworks
beam blocking
C grade beam

What is the most suitable flooring material for children and elderly people which is low
maintenance and has a homey feeling?
Vinyl tiles

10
vinyl Sheet
T&G Wood parquet
Carpet

Atypical block of panel type insulating material used in flat roof of commercial or industrial
building
corkboard
bacacia lumber
washed pebbles
none of the above

These are materials excellent as vapor barrier in the roofing system of residential buildings
patice board
towanit boards
alurninum foil sheets
d plastic sheets

The chief structural materials used for all buildings are

a built-tip beans, gliders, foundations
boemant, defomed wrought iron gravel and sand
reinforced concrete and high grade steel
d none of the above

Identify new trends in construction technology

A modern method of installing wood parquet flooring on wooden boards sub-Hooring is by
gluing pasting
b alling into ballens
wainscoting
laminating

A 3 dimensional truss composed of linear structural members that form a series of

triangulated polyhedrons
planar truss
A none of the above

Prefabricated normally reinforced concrete which have been poured and cured in factory,
then delivered to jobsite and installed by welding together all the components.
Precast concrete
b. ficem board
cement boards
d. none of the above

Materials of tensile fabric

a Polycarbonate
PTFE fiberglass membrane
Tarpaulin fabric
d. Vinyl

95. A roof of a building that is partially or completely covered with vegetation and a growing
medium, planted over a waterproofing membrane
a Breen roof
b. living roof
all of the above
d. None of the above

11
C015. Apply the knowledge of specifications writing in architectural design
96. The dimension of commercial acoustic boards for aluminum T-runners used for dropped-
ceiling in offices is
a 30 x 60 x 1"
4x 50 x 718
24" x 48 x 1/2

Noise Inside the building is of two kinds, namely, airborne noise and impact noise Insulation
must be provided against both of these by internal walls and floors Examples of better sound
insulation are
a concrete hollow block walls
1/4 double wall on 2"x4" studs
asbestos board walls on wooden studs

98. Identify the board foot of a 2 x4 x10 (150)?

a. 6000
1000
C. 500
d.600

99. Material best used for stairs in a fire restrictive zone?

a Steel
Reinforced concrete
c. wood
d. Wrought iron

100. What material should be used in a walkway pavement to prevent accidents?

a Tile/brick on cement
Flagstones
c. Asphalt
d. Concrete tile

12
1. Design-build by maximum cost, how much is the architect remunerated?
a. built in the max cost exclusive of arch reg fee
b. 10% inclusive of arch fee
c. 7% inclusive of arch fee
d. Lump sum inclusive of arch fee

2. If an Architect is hired to design a supermarket with construction cost of less than 50M pesos,
how much should he/she charge as minimum basic fee?
a. 7%
b. 8%
c. 2%
d. 3%

3. How is the architect remunerated for basic services?

4.1 Payments on account of the Architect’s basic services shall

be as follows:

a. Upon the signing of the agreement a minimum payment equivalent to five (5%) of the
compensation for basic services.

b. Upon the completion of the Schematic Design Services, but not more than 15 days after
submission of the Schematic Design to the Owner, a sum equal to fifteen percent (15%) of the
Basic Fee, computed upon a reasonable estimated construction cost of the structure.

c. Upon the completion of the Design DevelopmentServices, but not more than15 days after
submission of the Design Development tothe Owner, a sum sufficientto increase the totalpayments
on the fee tothirty -five (35%) of the Basic Fee computed upon the same estimatedconstruction
cost

d. Upon the completion of the Contract DocumentsServices but not more than15 days after
submission of the Contract Documents to the Owner, a sum sufficient to increase the totalpayments
on the fee toeighty-five percent (85%) ofthe Basic Fee, computedupon a reasonable

estimated construction cost of the structure as in (b).

e. Within 15 days after theawards of Bids, thepayment to the Architectshall be adjusted so that
itwill amount to a sumequivalent to eighty-fivepercent (85%) of the Basic Fee, computed upon
thewinning Bid Price

f. Upon completion of theconstruction work, thebalance of the Architect’sfee, computed on the

FinalProject Construction Cost ofthe structure shall be paid.

4. The Architect’s fee for repetitive housing (3rd unit)

a. 60%
b. 40%
c. 30%
d. 20%

5. When is the First Payment for an Architect?

Upon the signing of the Agreement

6. Given the cost of the project, how much is the VAT?

12%
7. Questions regarding the fees that an architect is supposed to collect from his client under
different types of projects
Percentage of Construction Cost
Multiple of Direct Personnel Expenses
Professional Fee Plus Expenses
Lump Sum or Fixed Fee
Per Diem Plus Reimbursable Expense
Mixed Methods of Compensation

8. If the owner wants to build a house after 1 year, how much is the fee?

3.4 GROUP-4

Residences (Single Detached or Duplex), small apartment houses and town houses.

Minimum Basic Fee............................................. 10 Percent of Project Construction

Cost

3.6 GROUP-6 Repetitive Construction of Buildings

When the design of the Architect is used again for the repetitive construction of
similar

structures, without amending the drawing and the specifications, the Architect’s fee
is

computed as follows:

First structure.......................................................Minimum Basic Fee

Second structure ..................................................80% of Basic Fee

Third structure......................................................60% of Basic Fee

Succeeding structure............................................40% of Basic Fee

9. What should the Architect do if the Owner makes Change Orders?

a. Check with the contractor
b. Follow the Owner
c. Neglect Owner
d. Call the supplier

10. If the Owner continuously makes changes, what methods of compensation should the Architect
employ?
a. Cost Method
b. Lump Sum
c. Percentage of Construction Cost
d. Professional Fee Plus Expense

11. Percentage fee if Owner gets all Contract Documents

a. 75%
b. 85%
c. 100%
d. 90%
 12. The _________ can order changes in the construction any time.
a. Architect
b. Construction Manager
c. Project Manager
d. Owner

13. The Architect’s professional fee for a Bakery project worth 2 million pesos
6% or Php 120,000.00

14. The Architect’s minimum basis fee for a Residential project

10% of Project Construction Cost

15. If an Architect performs full time supervision, what is his professional fee?
Percentage Fee Method or Multiple of Direct Personnel Expense Method

16. Mr. Juan Zubiri commissioned you for a restaurant project last year. Due to the success of the
restaurant, he wants you to do a 2nd restaurant using the same design, what would be your fee?
a. 60% of basic fee
b. 80% of basic fee
c. 30% of basic fee
d. 40% of basic fee

17. What among the following should the Architect’s fee NOT be based on?
a. Project Construction Cost
b. Contractor’s Fee
c. Client’s Profile Directory
d. Market Value

18. How many % of tax should the Architect pay?

“Minimum Basic Fee” is net to the Architect. Any tax imposed on the Architect by the government
(Exclusive of income tax) shall be paid by the owner

19. How many % of tax is taken from the MBF?

80%

20. An Architect makes a miniature model of the project for his own design study. Who should pay for
it?

a. Architect c. Contractor

b. Project Manager d. Owner

21. It is the most common method of compensation which is also fair to both the client and architect

a. Percentage based on Project cost c. Lump Sum

b. Professional Fee plus Expenses d. MDPE

22. After all the contract documents have been given to the Owner, how much is the liability from the
remaining professional fee?

a. 15% c. 5%

b. 10% d. 20%
23. What is the standard progress of payment for an Architect’s fee based on the project phase?

a. 5%-10%-35%-85%-95%-100% c. 5%-15%-30%-85%-100%

b. 5%-15%-35%-85%-95%-100% d. 5%-15%-35%-85%-100%

24. If the owner requests for a model of the project, who pays for it?

OWNER

25. Who is responsible for the compensation of a Specialized Allied Professional?

a. Architect c. Contractor

b. Owner d. Sub-Contractor

26. A client wanted your services for his new house with a Total Project Cost of Three Million
(3,000,000.00) pesos?

a. What is the percentage of your professional fee?

Php 300, 000.00

b. Will the percentage of your fee change if the client decides to postpone the project for the
following year?

YES.

c. How much will you get if the client decides to defer the start of construction for a year?

Php 270, 000.00

27. A client hires an Architect to prepare the plans and corresponding documents for his project.
However, after the completion of all plans and documents, the client changes his mind and decided
not to implement the plans for construction. How much is the Architect compensated?

a. 85% c. 75%

b. 60% d. 90%

28. A Client is very happy with the Plans his Architect made for his house. He decided that he will use
the same Design/Plans for his son’s house. How much will the client pay the Architect for this 2 nd
house?

a. 90% c. 70%

b. 80% d. 60%

29. Who is responsible for the fee of an additional Full-time Supervisor at the Project?

a. Architect c. Contractor

b. Owner d. Sub-contractor
30. How is the Architect compensated if the clients asked for a Feasibility Study?

The Architect’s service for the Pre-Design Phase which includes the feasibility studies
and where creative designing is not included are often compensated for on the basis
of multiple of direct personnel expense.

31. As a Registered and Licensed Architect (RLA), you made a very good working Contractor ABC (the
client) wanted your services as the Architect for their new building. All things went smoothly until
the Client wanted you to alter your plans to accommodate their additional requirements. You
implemented their revisions but the Client was not satisfied with the result. They requested for
another set of changes to the plans but you disagreed with the proposed changes since the
alterations being requested will result to violations with the local zoning regulations and the building
code. The conflict eventually leads to a dispute between you and the Client.

a. Based on the Architect’s Code of Ethical Conduct, you have a responsibility to whom in this kind
of situation?

Client/ Owner

b. Where should the Client go if they wanted to file a complaint against you?

Professional Regulation Commission

c. Who should initiate the first move to settle this dispute?

Architect

32. Who is liable for a project if there is a Foreign Concept Architect hired by the Owner with a
Registered and Licensed Architect (RLA) as an architect-on-record?

a. The RLA c. The Foreign Concept Architect

b. The Owner d. The All of above

33. Is it ethical and legal, for an Architect to hire employees on a per project basis since SSS and
Medicare is not required but only group insurance and employees can be terminated even after 6
months?

No, it’s not ethical.

34. Ethics --- regarding rebates and discounts from Suppliers and Manufacturers

The Architects shall not at any time receive commissions, discounts, fees,, gifts or favors from
agents or firms handling building materials or equipment which may place him in a reciprocal
frame of mind. He may however, accept market discounts which shall be credited to the Client.

35. What shall the Architect not ask from sources such as material suppliers given the fact that he
already receives a professional fee from the client?

The Architect shall not avail or make use of engineering or other technical services
offered by manufacturers, or suppliers of building materials or equipment which may
be accompanied by an obligation detrimental to the best interest of the Client or which
may adversely affect the Architect’s professional opinion.
36. A news editor approaches an architect for an interview

a. Is it ok to ask to be paid on an interview?

Yes.

b. Is it unethical to endorse a product?

Yes.

37. A client wants you to be his architect but you found out that there is another architect involve.
What would you do?

Answer: Answer: The owner or the representative should seek for the approval of the
former architect to continue his work under your provision provided that it is within
his knowledge and consent.

38. What must the client do if he wants to build another building of the same type?

Answer: He should seek for the consent of the architect before duplicating the design
of the former project that architect designed for him.

39. A client wants your design to be the same with another architect. What should you do?

Answer: No

40. You had a project for a client, a residential building. After the construction, you found out the client
used your design for another project without your consent. What would you do?

a. Forgive and forget

b. Inform the mayor

c. File a case with PRC

d. File as case in court

41. A 5th year Architecture student is asked and contracted by his aunt to design a 2-storey residence
for her. After the student finish preparing all the Architectural plans, he asked his professor to sign
and seal it. The professor agrees to do it for the sum of Php. 6,000 pesos. Is there any wrong in
the practice? If yes, who is liable? What is the case if ever?

Answer: No there is none. The student is allowed to make the drawings and ask for the
guidance of the architect/professor provided that the architect shall be fully
responsible in all the architectural plans signed by him. It is in the RLA’s responsibility
but the student’s name should take part in the preparation of the drawing and not by
the architect alone.

42. Change orders

Answer: CHANGE ORDER is a written order to the Contractor issued by the Owner after
the execution of the Contract, authorizing a change or variation in the work or an
adjustment in the Contract Price or Contract time.

43. Supplementary Specs

Answer: SUPPLEMENTARY SPECIFICATIONS refers to additional information which

may be issued as an addition to or amendment of the provisions of the Specifications.
44. What is meant by Fabricate and Delivered to Jobsite?

a. Install

b. Furnish

c. Provide

d. Fabricate

45. How do you specify pipes?

a. Inside diameter

b. Outside diameter

c. Gauge

d. Millimeter

46. Architect of Record

Answer: "Architect-of-record" means the architect registered and licensed under this
Act, who is directly and professionally responsible for the total design of the project
for the client and who shall assume the civil liability for the plans, specifications and
contract documents he/she has signed and sealed;

47. What is not a qualification of a Specs Writer

a. Degree and experience in construction management

b. Contract with suppliers

c. Library of References

d. Degree and experience in latest construction trends and materials

48. It is the stage when construction manager informs bidders of supplementary info prior to bidding.
Answer: Bidding or Negotiation Phase

49. It is signed immediately when the contractor is awarded to contract

Answer: Bid Documents.

50. The first phase for Architect’s regular services

Answer: SPP Doc. 202.1.2 Project Definition Phase. This phase involves the definition
of the requirements of the project by the Owner. The Architect in turn informs the
Owner of the technical requirements of the project and the concomitant professional
fees. In this phase, the Architect:

51. Before submitting sketches to the client, what must the architect first do?
a. Sign a service agreement

b. Discuss about image board for presentation

c. Ask for construction schedule

d. Look for supplier

e. All of the above

 52. The third phase of the Architect’s services

Answer: SPP Doc 202.2.3. Design Development Phase. Based on approved schematics
and conceptual plans, the Architect prepares: (1)the Design Development documents
consisting of plans, elevations, sections and other drawings, (2)outline specifications
to fix and illustrate the size and character of the entire project as to type of materials,
type of structural, electrical, mechanical, sanitary, electronic and communications
systems. (3) diagrammatic layout of construction systems, and (4) an updated SPPCC
for submission to the Owner.
53. An architect needs to show his client the entire project in full 3D and realistic form, what
is the best way to do this?

a. Animation

b. Scale Model

c. Perspective

d. Photomontage

54. In the development of new technology, 3D and computer graphics had been widely used.
What is benefit?

a. More efficient and realistic

b. Cheaper

c. Easy Access

d. More Accurate

55. If the Project’s budget is constrained, what means should be used to achieve 3D
understanding of the project?

a. Manual Sketch

b. Scale Model

c. Animation

d. Computer Aided Design

56. What stage of the Architect’s services are site utilization and feasibility studies?

SPP Doc 201, PRE-DESIGN SERVICESnominally include consultation, pre-feasibility studies, feasibility studies, site selection and
analysis, site utilization and land-use studies, architectural research, architectural programming, space planning, space
management studies, value management, design brief preparation, promotional services and other related activities.

57. When must the Architect properly locate/site a building with respect to the Road Right-
of-Way (RROW), legal easement and the like?

a. Answer not among the choices

b. At the Predesign and Schematic Design Phases of the work

c. During Contract Documentation

d. Sometime during Design Development

58. When must the Architect apply the pertinent principles and techniques of orienting a
building in the Philippine setting?

a. During Contract Documentation

b. Sometime during Design Development

c. At the Pre-design and Schematic Design Phase of the work

d. At the Pre-design and Schematic Design Phase of the work

59. When must the architect properly locate/site a building with respect to natural and man-
made hazards that may be found or proximate to the site and like consideration?

a. Answer not among the choices

b. During Contract Documentation

c. Sometime during Design Development

d. At the Pre-design and Schematic Design Phase of the work

60. When must the architect properly apply the pertinent principles and techniques of
Tropical design to match the hot-humid tropical environment in the Philippines?

a. Sometime during Design Development

b. During Contract Documentation

c. At the Pre-design and Schematic phase of the work

d. Sometime during Design Development

61. When must the Architect properly locate/site a building with respect to the topography
of a site, natural drainage characteristics of a site and the like?

a. Answer not among the choices

b. During Conrtract Documentation

c. At the Pre-design and Schematic phase of the work

d. Sometime during Design Development

62. At what stage does the provisions of the Fire Code Requirement adopted?

a. Schematic

b. Preliminary

c. Design Development

d. Initial Conceptualization
63. During what stage are the provisions of BP 344 adopted?

a. Schematic

b. Preliminary

c. Design Development

d. Initial Conceptualization

64. During which stage are the provisions of the National Building Code incorporated into
the design?

a. Schematic

b. Preliminary

c. Design Development

d. Initial Conceptualization

65. Where does Planning Services fall?

a. Regular Services

b. Special (Allied) Services

c. Design and Planning Services

d. Pre-design Services

REFERENCE: SPP Doc. 203

66. What architectural Service/Phase is the part where the architect and client are choosing
the contractor?

a. Contract Document Phase

b. Construction Phase

c. Design Development Phase

d. Bidding Phase

67. If an architect assumes the function of going to the project site for monitoring and
supervision, what services is being provided?

a. Full-time project supervision

b. Project supervision

c. Construction Management

d. Contract Document Services

68. At what stage are specifications done?

SPP Doc 202 , Contract Document Phase

69. After completion of contract drawings, specifications and other documents upon
submission to a client, what stage is this?

a. Contract Document Phase

b. Construction Phase

c. Design Development Phase

d. Bidding Phase

70. What service is performed by an architect if activities such as physical, economical, social, and
infrastructure are accomplished?

No choices given

Answer: Comprehensive Planning Services

71. Where does Contract Document fall in the Architect’s Services?

a. Pre-Design Services

b. Regular Services

c. Contract Document Services

d. Special (Allied) Services

72. Where does assessing the Needs of the Client fall?

a. Feasibility Study

b. Pre-Design Services

c. Regular Services

d. Contract Document Services

73. Where do Planning services fall in the Architect’s Services?

a. Pre-Design Services

b. Regular Services

c. SAS

d. Contract Document Services

74. For special allied services, what is the aesthetic designing of the space of a structure?

Answer: Interior Design Services

75. For special allied services, what is the activity of the total planning that encompasses social, physical
and environmental factor (Comprehensive Planning)

Answer: Comprehensive Development Plan (CDP)

76. Under what type of service is “sound insulation treatment?”

According to UAP Docs, page 48 under 204 Construction Services, the full time supervision states “The
fundamental functions and primary responsibilities of the construction supervision group are: Quality
Control of Work - He makes certain that the Contractor complies with the plans, specifications and called
other contract documents and assures that workmanship is in accordance with sound and accepted
construction practices.

77. In Bidding, what is the Role of the Architect?

a. Organize the bidding

b. Award the Project to the Contractor

c. Choose the Construction Manager

d. Chairman of PBAC (Pre-Bidding Award Committee)

78. Situation questions regarding bidding, what should be considered in the selection of the winning bid?

Answer: Quality-Cost Based Evaluation (QCBE), Fixed Budget Selection procedure.

79. The Owner likes a particular bidder he is delayed and fails to beat the deadline, what factors can be
considered so that he can still join the bid?

Answer: It is still on the assistance of the Architect to the Owner

80. The Architect has chosen a bidder but the Owner doesn’t approve. What can be done?

a. Rebid

b. Ask the Bidder to adjuct the bid

c. Ask the client to choose his approved bidder

d. Do nothing
81. If the Owner wants to change the estimated cost after awarding to a winning bidder due to
economic basis, what should he do?

a. Change Order

b. Revise scope of contract

c. Change Architect

d. Talk with the bidder

82. Which is not part of Contract Documents?

a. Agreement

b. Contract Drawings

c. Model

d. Working Drawings
83. If there is a discrepancy between the text and drawing, which one will prevail?

a. Drawing

b. Text

c. Ask the designing Architect

d. Ask the Contractor

84. Who does the Architect approach for Sound Control?

a. Electronics Engr.

b. Acoustics Engr.

c. Electrical Engr.

d. DJ

85. A large project sometimes requires different phases involving different architects/consultants per
phase. A concept architect does the overall concept of the project, what is the liability?

a. Same as the Architect-on-Record

b. He has no liability

c. He has civil/administrative liability

d. They all share the same liability

86. Who is responsible for the Site Development Plan?

a. Architect

b. Civil Engineer

c. Environmental Planner

d. Landscape Architect

104. Who prepares the Shop Drawing?

a. Contractor b. Architect

105. Who checks the Shop drawings?

a. Contractor b. Architect c. Engineer d. supplier

106. Who performs Soil Investigation in Site?

a. Contractor b. Architect c. Geodetic engineer d. Civil Engineer

107. Who prepares preliminary estimates?

a. Architect b. Project Engineer c. Contractor d. Supplier

108. Who secures the building permit?

a. architect b. Contractor c. Engineer d. Owner

109. Approval of Sample of Finishing Materials is the sole functions of the.

a. architect b. Contractor c. Engineer d. Owner

110. Who is responsible for shortening the time of construction?

a. Architect b. Construction Manager c. Construction supervisor d. Foreman

111. In a medium-sized construction, who plans the time-schedule?

a. Supervisor b. construction managerc. Architect d. Contractor

112. Who should orient the contractor and make sure that he understand the Contract Document?

a. Project Manager b. Architect c. Owner d. none, it’s the contractor responsibility

113. Who is responsible in asking for a Final inspection of a project?

a. Architect b. Owner c. Engineer d. Contractor

114. Who seeks permit and licenses?

a. Owner b. Architect c. General Contractord. Supplier

115. Who is responsible for carrying out the Architectural Design Plans and Details in the actual
construction?

a. Project architect b. Project Engineer c. Project Owner d. Owner

116. Who is the professional responsible for the design of the overall appearance of the project proposal?

a. Project Manager b. Project Engineer c. Owner d. Registered and Licensed Architect

117. Who is the RLP (registered and licensed professional) required to sign the architectural drawing of
the house

a. Project Manager b. Structural Engineer c. Registered and Licensed Architect d. Registered

and Licensed Civil Engineer

118. Who is the RLP (registered and licensed professional) required to sign the specification document of
the house.

a. Draftsman b. Structural Engineer c. Registered and Licensed Architectd. Registered and

Licensed Civil Engineer

119. Who is the RLP (registered and licensed professional) required to sign the electrical plans of the
house.

a. Master electrician b. Electrician c. Registered and Licensed Electrical Engr. d. none of the
above
120. Who is the RLP (registered and licensed professional) required to sign the structural plans of the
house.

a. Structural Engineer b. Architect c. Registered and Structural Engr. d. Registered and

Licensed Civil Engineer

138. HLURB – definition/function - Housing and Land Use Regulatory Board (HLURB)

139. HUDCC – definition/function - Housing and Urban Development Coordinating Council

140. NEDA – definition/function - National Economic and Development Authority

141. NHA – definition/function - National Housing Authority

142. HDMF – definition/function - Home Development Mutual Fund

143.UHLP–definition/function - Unified Home and Lending Program

144. SEC – The Securities and Exchange Commission

145. PRC – Professional Regulation Commission

146. CLUP - Comprehensive Land Use Plan

147. What plan is approved by HLURB after such is adopted by the Sandigang Bayan/Panlungsod?

Comprehensive Land Use Plan (CLUP)

148. Who accredits the national organization of architects?

The Professional Regulation Commission (PRC). The United Architects of the Philippines (UAP) was granted
Certificate No. 001, the first professional organization to be accredited by the PRC. The PRC is the central
agency of the Philippine Government charged with the licensing and regulation of professionals and the
professions, as well as the Accredited Professional Organizations (APOs).

149. What do you call an Architect who wishes to practice architecture and is registered with the DTI?

Sole Proprietorship

150. For a Partnership, which agency should they register with?

a. DTI c. DOLE

b. SEC d. UAP

151. If an Architects wants to register a “single proprietorship” firm, where will he register?

a. UAP c. DTI

b. PRC d. SEC

152. What should be secured first before applying for a Business Permit?

a. Mayor’s Permit c. Brgy Permit

b. DOLE Permit d. DTI Permit

153. Where will they apply for a Business Permit?

a. City Hall c. DTI

b. SEC d. BIR

154. What is RA 9266?

It is the Architecture Act of 2004

155. Who is responsible for the implementation of RA9266?

a. PRBoA c. DPWH
b. OBO d. DTI

156. Who provides the Continuing Professional Education (CPE)?

a. IAPOA c. UAP
b. PRC d. PIA

157. What is an architect?

Answer: A person professionally and academically qualified, registered and licensed under R.A.
No. 9266 with a Certificate of Registration and Professional Identification Card issued
by the Professional Regulatory Board of Architecture and the Professional Regulation
Commission, and who is responsible for advocating the fair and sustainable
development, welfare and cultural expression of society’s habitat in terms of space,
forms and historical context.

158. Who is entitled to be an architect?

Answer: A person professionally and academically qualified, registered and licensed under R.A.
No. 9266 with a Certificate of Registration and Professional Identification Card issued
by the Professional Regulatory Board of Architecture and the Professional Regulation
Commission, and who is responsible for advocating the fair and sustainable
development, welfare and cultural expression of society’s habitat in terms of space,
forms and historical context.

159. What is a successful architect?

a. High Profile c. Good workmanship and ethics
b. Many project due to low fees d. Good looking

160. When planning to start an Architectural Firm in a certain locality, what should you secure?
a. SEC Permit c. Mayor’s Permit
b. DTI Permit d. DOLE Permit

161. Zoning Variance.

Answer: A device which grants a property owner relief from certain provisions of the Zoning
Ordinance where, because of the particular physical surrounding, shape or
topographical condition of the property, compliance on applicable Building Bulk and
Density Regulations, Building Design Regulations and Performance Standards would
result in a particular hardship upon the owner, as distinguished from a mere
inconvenience or a desire to make more money.
162. How do you apply for a Zoning Exception? Reclassification?

Answer: Client should file a written application for Exception or Reclassification wuth the Land
Zoning Board of Appeals (LZBA) citing the section(s) of this Ordinance (CLUP Volume
3) under which is the same is sought and stating grounds thereof.

163. Who or what body is responsible for Zoning Exemption, Reclassification, or Change of Zoning
Ordinance?
a. Mayor c. City Council
b. Governor d. HLURB

164. What is another term for C-3 or Commercial 3?

a. Metropolitan 3 c. Business and Mercantile
b. Metropolitan Commercial d. Circumferential 3

165. Where no repair work is done except change of parts and maintenance.
a. Division G-1 c. Division D-3
b. Division E-3 d. Division E-2

166. Group A Residential Dwellings under PD1096.

Answer: Residential building/structure for exclusive use of single family occupants; Residential
building for the exclusive use of non-leasing occupants not exceeding 10 persons.

167. Under the NBC, what is the minimum dimension of a kitchen?

a. 1.5 m c. 1.20 m
b. 2 m d. 0.90 m

168. Under the NBC, what is the minimum area of a kitchen?

a. 6 sqm c. 1.20 sqm
b. 3 sqm d. 8 sqm

169. Under the NBC, what is the minimum area of a room for Human Habitation?
a. 6 sqm c. 1.20 sqm
b. 3 sqm d. 8 sqm

170. Under the NBC, what is the minimum dimension of a room for Human Habitation?
a. 1.5 m c. 1.20 m
b. 2 m d. 0.90 m

171. Under the NBC, what is the minimum area for a T & B?
a. 6 sqm c. 1.20 sqm
b. 3 sqm d. 8 sqm

172. Under the NBC, what is the minimum dimension for a T & B?
a. 1.5 m c. 1.20 m
b. 2 m d. 0.90 m
172. Under the NBC, what is the least dimension for T & B?

a. 1.5 m

b. 2 m

c. 1.20 m

d. 0.90 m

173. What is minimum headroom when a duct crosses the hallway?

a. 2.36 m

b. 2.10 m

c. 2.63 m

d. 2.21 m

175. Under BP 220, how much in terms of % of Gross Area is allocated for Community Facilities if there
are 152 Dwelling Units?

a. 1.00

b. 1.25

c. 1.50

d. 2.00

176. Under BP 220, the required setback of the sides and front is 1.50 meters. What then is the required
yard at the rear? (Asked twice)

a. 2.00 m

b. 1.00 m

c. 1.50 m

d. 3.00 m

177. Under BP 220, what is the minimum lot area of a single detached socialized housing? (Asked twice)

a. 36 sqm

b. 54 sqm

c. 64 sqm

d. 72 sqm

178. Under BP 220, what is minimum floor area for a Single-Family Economic dwelling?

a. 18 sqm

b. 22 sqm

c. 28 sqm
d. 36 sqm
179. As per BP 220, doors for economic and socialized housing shall have a minimum height of _____
except for bathroom and mezzanine doors which shall have a minimum height of 1.80 m.

a. 2.00 m

b. 1.85 m

c. 2.10 m

d. 1.90m

180. As per BP 220, the minimum ceiling height for habitable rooms shall be

a. 1.80 m

b. 2.00 m

c. 2.10 m

d. 1.90 m

181. Under BP 220, Minor Roads shall have a minimum Right-of-Way of

a. 5.00

b. 5.50

c. 6.00

d. 6.50

182. Under BP 220, cul-de-sac shall have a maximum length of

a. 80.0 m

b. 100.0 m

c. 120.0 m

d. 150.0 m

185. Under PD 1185 for mercantile occupancy, what is the exit width?

Exit Details

 Corridors with a required capacity of more than 50 persons shall be of sufficient width to accommodate
the required occupant load but shall have a width of not less than 112 cm.

 Corridors with a required capacity of not more than 50 persons shall not be less than 91 cm.

186. What is the minimum door width?

1. Door openings in means of egress shall not be less than seventy one centimeters (71 cm)in clear
width. When a pair of doors is provided, not less than one of the doors shall provide at least seventy one
centimeters (71 cm) clear width opening.

188. As per RA 9514, what is the minimum width of egress?

a. 0.900 m

b. 0.915 m
 c. 1.000 m

d. 1.100m

223. Combustible liquid is any liquid having a flashing point at or above ___°C.

a. 37.8

b. 93.3

c. 60.00

d. 100

189. Under the Fire Code what is the minimum width of stairs where there are less than 50 occupants?

B. 0.915m

190.Under the RCP, the minimum width if egress shall not be less than

B. 0.915m

191. What is the fire rating of fire exit doors?

C. 2.00 Hrs

192. A releasing device installed in fire exit doors that causes the door to latch to open in the direction of
exit travel once a force of no more than 7 kilograms is applied

C. Panic Bar

193. Which is not a fire safety device?

C. Helmet

194. For a 3-storey structure or less, the exit enclosure shall be protected by a separation with fire
resistance rating of

A. 1 hr

195. Dwelling units in Row Apartments shall be separated from each other by a partition wall having a
fire resistance rating of

D. 4 hrs.

196. Under RA 9514, a dead-end corridor may be allowed provided that

B. it shall no extend more than 6 m beyond the stairways or other means of exit (FCP, DIVISION
5., SECTION 10.2.5.2 GENERAL PROVISIONS, Dead-End Limits)

197. What does FALAR stand for?

FIRE AND LIFE SAFETY ASSESSMENT REPORT

198. Who prepares FALAR 1

A. Architect
199.Who prepare FALAR 2?

C. Contractor and Construction Manager

200.Who prepare FALAR 3?

D. Building Owner

201.If the plans and specification of the project does not conform to the requirements of the fire code of
the Philippines, who disapproves it?

C. Building Official

202.Capacity of fire escape stairs

Shall not constitute more than 50% of required exit capacity (FCP, DIVISION 5. MEANS OF
EGRESS, SECTION 10.2.5.10 FIRE ESCAPE STAIRS, LADDERS AND SLIDE ESCAPES, A. Fire Escape
Stairs, 1. General, A.)

203. Questions from Fire code about the following:

a. Occupant load, number of egress for sleeping institution

b. Occupant load, number of egress for nursing institution

c. Exit, corridor length

d. Door width for nursing institution

204. What do you call the portion of a roadway or public-way that should be kept opened and
unobstructed at all times for the expedient operation of fire fighting units

A. Fire lane

205. What do you call the space in another building provided just after a horizontal exit on approximately
the same level

C. Area of refuge

206. It is a way of passage through or around a wall or partition to an Area of Refuge on approximately
the same level in the same building which affords safety from fire or smoke from the area of escape and
areas communicating therewith.

a. Fire Lane

b. Horizontal Exit

c. Corridor

d. Safety Exit

207. A Fire caused by Burning Paper, Cloth, etc. what Type of Fire is this?

a. Class A

b. Class B
 c. Class C

d. Class D

208. What is the size of a Dry Stand Pipe if the Height of the building is more than 23 m?

a. 2”

b. 2 ½”

c. 3”

d. 4”

Ans.: 6”

209. What is the width of Zebra Crossings?

Ans.: 2.50 meters minimum

210. What is a Performance Bond?

Ans.: PD 957 Sec. 6. Performance Bond

211. What insurance borne by the Contractor will cover injuries, deaths and other unwanted incidents at
the site?

Ans. Contractor’s all-Risk Insurance (CARI) Policy

212. What is the Fire Code of the Philippines?

a. RA 951

b. BP 1096

c. BP 344

d. RA 1185

213. What is the fire rating for a hotel room door?

a. 1.5 hrs

b. 30 mins

c. 1 hr

d. 20 mins

214. It is a Zone wherein only non-combustible materials are allowed to be used as construction material

a. Non-Fire Restrictive Zone

b. Moderate

c Restrictive Zone

d. High-Restrictive Zone
215. What do you call a structure that is not in the Fire Restricted Zone?

Ans.: NBC: Section 507; Non-Fire Restricted Zones

216. What is not covered by Fire Regulation?

a. Unrestricted Fire Zone

b. Critically Declared Zone

c. Environmental Zone

d. High-Restrictive Zone

217. What is a Type C Fire Extinguisher?

Ans.: FCP: Section 10.2.6.7; 2d.Fire extinguishers with Class C ratings shall be required
where energized electrical equipment can be encountered that would require a non-
conducting extinguishing medium. This requirement includes situations where fire
either directly involves or surrounds electrical equipment. Since the fire itself is a Class
A or Class B hazard, the fire extinguishers shall be sized and located on the basis of the
anticipated Class A or class B hazard.

218. Electrical Fire should be suppressed by?

Ans. FCP: SECTION 10.2.6.3. C. Automatic Sprinklers Where approved, supervised

automatic sprinklers is installed, interior finish with flame spread rating not over Class
C may be used in any location where Class B is normally specified, and with rating of
Class B in any location where Class A is normally specified, unless specifically
prohibited in this IRR

219. Building Classification under the Fire Code

FCP: Places of assembly, Educational occupancies. Health care occupancies, Detention

and correctional occupancies, Residential occupancies, mercantile occupancies,
Business occupancies, Industrial occupancies, Storage occupancies, miscellaneous
structures

220. What is not covered by the Fire Regulation?

a. Unrestricted Fire Zone– (Non-Fire Restricted Zone) NCP: Section 507

b. Restricted Fire Zone

c. Partially Restricted Fire Zone

d. Highly Restricted Fire Zone

221. A Wall designed to prevent or delay the spread of Fire.

a. Fire Block

b. Fire Wall

c. Partition Wall
 d. Curtain Wall

222. When any 2 living units abut each other, a ________ shall be required. It shall be of masonry
construction, at least 100mm and shall extend from the lower portion of the wall adjoining the living units
up to the point just below the roof covering or purlins.

a. Firewall

b. Fire block

c. Partially Restricted Fire Zone

d. Highly Restricted Fire Zone

224. What agency has jurisdiction over the quality of effluent of septic tanks?

a. DENR

b. Local Government

c. DOH

d. NGO

225. As of 2008, who is in-charge of allowing/ disallowing buildings near Philippine Airports?

a. (ATO) Air Transportation Office

b. (OBO) Office of the Building Official

c. (CAAP) Civil Aviation Authority of the Philippines

d. (FAA) Federal Aviation Authority

226. Who manages the sewage water treatment plant?

a. DOH

b. DENR

c. Local Government

d. DPWH

227. What is now allowed in RA9266 which was not allowed in RA545?

a. Corporate Practice

b. Signing of plans by an architect not prepared by him.

c. Experience before graduation

d. Experience in the ailed field

228. Under RA 9266, can a Registered and Licensed Architect perform Interior Design for small projects?

a. Yes

b. No

c. Yes, Provided consent from PRBoA

d. Yes, if personal project.

229. If the Architect assists the Owner in planning Promotional Services for the project, who should the
Owner hire to coordinate the overall activities concerning the project?

a. Building Administrator

b. Full Time Supervisor

c. Construction Manager

d. Project Manager

230. In construction, what is usually awarded as a sub-contract by the contractor or the client and not
part of the general contract?

a. Waterproofing

b. Tiling

c. Roofing

d. Allof the above.

231. What is given to the client by the contractor after all the work is done, to ensure a properly
functioning and efficient building?

a. Building operations manual

b. Post construction evaluation

c. Shop drawings

d. As built plan

232. Who should be held responsible for damages/accidents at the site?

a. Owner

b. Contractor

c. Architect

d. Supplier
233. A truck hit a Meralco post cutting the cables. Two blocks away, the light become intermittent and
the appliances explode. There is a power outage.

a. Why are the lights intermittent?

b. Why did the appliances explode?

c. What is needed to prevent the explosion or damages to appliances?

d. Why is the Utility company not liable for the damages?

e. Who will be responsible for the damages?

234. A building permit will be cancelled after how many days since work is stopped?

120 days

235. What is NOT needed in applying of a Building Permit if the applicant is the Original Owner or
permitee?

a. Property or Real Estate Tax

b. NSO copy if Birth Certificate

c. OCT/TCT

d. BIR/ITR

236. Possible problem that may arise due to too many employees.

Having too many employees work from home drains a company's office of its traditional value and
appeal, which in turn prompts more employees to want to work remotely.

237. It is required if the lot Owner intends to abut the building to his property line if that side of the lot
has an existing neighbor.

Demolition

238. What should you do if a subdivision is fronting a busy highway?

[According to PD957 ,Subdivision projects abutting main public road must provide a setback of 3-meter
deep by 5-meter in length at both sides of the subdivision entrance to accommodate loading and
unloading of passengers]

239. What law protects the Architect from the reproduction of copies of the contract?

SPP 1979

240. An Architect refuses to give the original plan to the Owner. Why?

A. The owner is entitled only to the blueprint

B. The Architects' work is covered by intellectual property rights/law
C. In order to prevent the owner from making duplicates and/or constructing without his
knowledge
D. All of the above
 241. What papers are usually seen at the jobsite?
-Working Drawings
(No stated standard on any laws, IRR, or codes.)

242. Based on NSO standards, by how much number of population should a place have before it is
categorized as a barangay?

(*ACCORDING TO ADMINISTRATIVE ORDER NO.270- PRESCRIBING THE IMPLEMENTING RULES AND

REGULATIONS OF THE LOCAL GOVERNMENT CODE OF 1991; ARTICLE 14. BARANGAYS, (1) POPULATION-

243. Composition of PRBoA

(*ACCORDING TO R.A 9266, ARTICLE II SEC. 4. Creation and Composition of the Professional Regulatory
Board.

244. Responsibilities of an Architect

(*ACCORDING TO ADOPTION AND PROMULGATION OF THE CODE OF ETHICAL CONDUCT FOR

REGISTERED AND LICENSED ARCHITECS AND FOR HOLDERS OF TEMPORARY/SPECIAL
PERMITS UNDER R.A. NO. 926, KNOWN AS “THE ARCHITECTURE ACT OF 2004”, ARTICLE I.
GENERAL PROVISIONS, SECTION 2. DUTIES AND RESPONSIBILITIES

245. Responsibilities of Owner

(*ACCORDING TO SPP 1979, DOC. 202. 5. OWNER’S RESPONSIBILITIES)

The Owner shall undertake the following acts:

a. provide full information as to his requirements for the Project;

b. when necessary, designate a representative authorized to act on his behalf;
c. promptly examine and render decisions pertaining to documents submitted by the Architect to avoid
unreasonable delay in the progress of the Architect’s work; the Owner shall issue orders to the General
Contractor only through the Architect;
d. furnish or direct the Architect to obtain at Owner expense, a certified survey of the site, giving, as may be
required, topographical and/or relocation surveys covering grades and lines of streets, alleys, easements,
encroachments and related information, boundaries, with dimensions and complete data pertaining to existing
buildings, structures, trees, plants, water bodies, wells, excavations/ pits, etc. and other improvements and full
information as to the available utility/ service lines both public and private; zoning compliances, clearances,
deed/s of restrictions, encumbrances and annotations to titles, association guidelines and standards, and soil
investigations/ tests, borings and test pits necessary for determining soil and sub-soil conditions;

e. promptly pay for architectural and all other engineering and allied services required for the
Project;

f. pay for the design and consulting services on acoustic, communication, electronic, and other specialty systems
which may be required for the Project;
g. arrange and pay for such legal, auditing, insurance, counseling and other services as may be required for the
Project;
h. pay for all reimbursable expenses incurred in the project as called for in ART 5: “Other Conditions on Services”
and all taxes including VAT (but not including income tax) that the Government may impose on the Architect
as a result of the services rendered by the Architect for/ on the Project, whether the services were performed
as a natural person i.e. an individual practitioner or as a juridical entity i.e. as a sole proprietorship, partnership
or corporation; and

i. if the Owner observes or otherwise becomes aware of anything that may impair the successful implementation
of the Project, he must give prompt written notice to the Architect.)
 246. Coverage of Pre-Design Services
(*ACCORDING TO SPP 1979, DOC. 201. 3. PRE-DESIGN SERVICES)

3. PRE-DESIGN SERVICES The several activities that fall under Services are as
follows:

2.1 Consultation
When a Client calls upon the Architectto give oral or written advice and direction, to attend
conferences, to make evaluations and appraisals regarding a contemplated project and similar
activities, the Architectrenders valuable inputs whether or not the Client pursues the project.

2.2 Pre-Feasibility Studies

These preliminary studies involve the procurement, analysis and use of secondary
information gathered for the project to aid the Client in early decision-making. They represent the
Architect’s initial assessment of a project’s soundness, allowing the Client to promptly explore available/
readily identifiable directions / options. Researched / processed / validated secondary data are generally
used for such studies e.g. electronic, print, etc.

2.3 Feasibility Studies

Detailed analysis of the project based on pre-feasibility studies will determine the viability
of a proposed development. The studies will set the project against present and future trends to forecast
how it will perform over time. This requires primary data gathering and analysis.

2.4 Site Selection and Analysis

This entails the formulation of site criteria, assistance to the Client in site evaluation as
well as analysis to determine the most appropriate site/s for a proposed project or building program.

2.5 Site Utilization and Land-Use Studies

The detailed analysis of the site involves the identification of a site’s development potentials
through the proper utilization of land. The analysis covers the context of the site as well as that of its
surrounding environment and the development controls that apply to the site and its environs.

2.6 Architectural Research

Architectural research entails the conduct of primary and secondary researches and
assembled facts used as basis for conclusion.

2.7 Architectural Programming

This analytical problem-seeking process will lead to the statement and identification of both
horizontal and vertical requirements in offering a solution. It incorporates a space program with
characterizations of the envisioned spaces such as ambiance, cost range, etc.

2.8 Space Planning

The Architect determines the adequate size and appropriate configuration and assemblage for a
proposed project in consideration of the use, allocation and interface of spaces for given activities. Space planning is
done mainly through primary data gathering such as interviews, consultations, interfaces, focus group discussions
(FGDs), space planning surveys, space audits, etc. and subsequent analyses i.e. spatial layouts with stacking concepts,
particularly for multi-storey structures.
 2.9 Space Management Studies
An analysis of the space requirements of the project based on organizational structure and
functional set-up pinpoints linkages and interaction of spaces. The formulation of the space program will
serve as the basis for the development of the architectural plan / design.

2.10 Value Management

This technique is applied in the cost management process to minimize the negative effect
of simplified operations associated with many cost-reduction programs. The goal of value management is
to achieve an unimpaired program at minimum cost. Thus, a plan, design or system that has been
successfully value-managed will still satisfy the same performance criteria as the costlier alternatives.

2.11 Design Brief Preparation

Under design brief preparation, the Architect states the project terms of reference (ToR)
including the concept, objectives and other necessary requirements to bid out architectural services
(whether public or private).

2.12 Promotional Services

Projects may require promotional activities in order to develop and generate financial support and
acceptance from governing agencies or from the general public. In such cases, the Architect can act as the
agent of the Owner by producing and coordinating the additional activities necessary to complete the
services. In all such activities, the Architect must maintain his professional status as the representative of
the Owner.

247. Scope of Design Services

(*ACCORDING TO SPP 1979, DOC. 202. 1. DESIGN/REGULAR SERVICES)

The Architect's Basic (Regular) Services shall consist of the following:

2.01 Schematic Design Phase

a. The Architect shall consult with the Owner to ascertain the requirements of the Project and
shall officially confirm such requirements to the Owner:

b. The Architect shall prepare the Schematic Design Studies leading to a recommended solution
together with a general description of the Project for approval by the Owner.

c. The Architect shall submit to the Owner a Statement of Probable Project: Construction Cost
(SPPCC) based on current cost parameters (refer to Annex “A” of this Agreement, as supplied
by the Architect).

2.02 Design Development Phase (Preliminary Studies)

a. The Architect shall prepare from the approved Schematic Design Studies, the Design
Development Documents consisting of plans, elevations and other drawings, and outline
specifications, to fix and illustrate the size and character of the entire Project, in its essential
as to kinds of materials, type of structure, mechanical, electrical and sanitary systems and such
other work as may be required.

b. The Architect shall submit to the Owner a further Statement of Probable Project Construction
Cost (SPPCC).
2.03 Contract Documents Phase

a.The Architect shall prepare from the approved Design Development Documents, the
Construction Drawings, Plans, Designs and Specifications setting forth in detail the work
required for the architectural, structural, electrical, electronic, mechanical, plumbing, sanitary,
service-connected equipment and site development work.

b. The Architect shall prepare specifications describing the type and quality of materials,
finishes, manner of construction and the general conditions under which the Project is to be
constructed.

c. The Architect shall furnish not more than seven (7) sets of the required plans, designs,
drawings, specifications and estimates for the purpose of securing the Building Permit for the
Project. Complete sets of contract drawings, specifications and general conditions for purposes
of bidding shall be issued by the Architect to prospective Constructor-Bidders only upon the
Owner’s official instruction/s and only upon payment of an amount representing the lease or
rental of such documents to the Architect. The said Bid documents shall be returned complete
to the Architect together with the submitted Bid. In case of withdrawal by the Bidder from the
bidding process, the Bidder shall still return the documents to the Architect, or be held liable
for possible criminal violations of intellectual property rights (IPR) of the Architect.

d. The Architect shall keep the Owner informed of any adjustments to the previous Statement
of Probable Project Construction Cost (SPPCC) indicated by changes in scope, requirements or
market conditions.

e. The Architect shall assist the Owner in filing the required documents to secure approval of
governmental authorities having jurisdiction over the design of the Project.

2.04 Construction Phase

a. The Architect shall prepare forms of contract letting documents for construction, including
forms for invitations and instructions to construction bidders and forms for bidder proposals.

b. The Architect shall assist the Owner in obtaining proposals from Constructors and in
awarding and preparing construction contracts.

c. To the extent provided by the contract between the Owner and the Constructor, the Architect
shall make decisions on all claims of the Owner and Constructor and on all other matters
relating to the execution and progress of the work or the interpretation of the Contract
Documents. The Architect shall check and approve samples, schedules, shop drawings and
other submissions only for the conformance with the information given by the Contract
Documents, prepare change orders and assemble written guarantees required of the
Constructors for submission to the Owner.

d. The Architect will make periodic visits to the site to familiarize himself generally with the
progress and quality of the work and to determine in general if the work is proceeding in
accordance with the Contract Documents. The Architect will not be required to make exhaustive
or continuous on-site inspections to check the quality or quantity of the work and will not be
responsible for the Constructor's failure to carry out the construction work in accordance with
the Contract Documents. During such visits and on the basis of his observations while at the
site, the Architect will keep the Owner informed of the progress of the work, will endeavor to
guard the Owner against defects and deficiencies in the work of Constructors, and he may
condemn work as failing to conform to the Contract Documents.
e. Based on his observations and the Constructor’s Applications for Payment, the Architect will
determine the amount owing to the Constructor and will issue Certificates for Payment in such
amounts. These Certificates will constitute a representation to the Owner, based on such
observations and the data comprising the Application for Payment, that the work has
progressed to the point indicated. By issuing a Certificate for Payment, the Architect wilt also
represent to the Owner that, to the best of his knowledge, information and belief based on
what his observations have revealed, the quality of the work is in accordance with the Contract
Documents. He will conduct inspections to determine the dates of substantial and final
completion and issue a final Certificate of Payment.

f. If more extensive representation and inspection of the construction onsite is required, a

separate full-time inspector or supervisor shall be hired by the Owner. The conditions under
which said inspectors or supervisors shall be selected, employed and directed, shall be agreed
to by the Owner and the Architect and set forth as an exhibit to this Agreement.

248. Speciallized Allied Services

1.6 Design services needed within and outside the building which fall under Specialized
Architectural Services as listed under the pertinent provisions of R.A. No. 9266 and its 2004
IRR, include but are not limited to the following:

1.6.1 Architectural Interiors (AI)

1.6.2 Acoustic Design

1.6.3 Architectural Lighting Layout and Design

1.6.4 Site Development Planning (SDP)

1.6.5 Site and Physical Planning Services (including Master Development Planning,
Subdivision Planning and Urban Design)

1.6.6 Comprehensive Development Planning

1.6.7 Historic and Cultural Heritage Conservation and Planning

1.6.8 Security Evaluation and Planning

1.6.9 Building Systems Design

1.6.10 Facilities Maintenance Support

1.6.11 Building Testing and Commissioning

 1.6.12 Building Environmental Certification

1.6.13 Forensic Architecture

1.6.14 Building Appraisal

1.6.15 Structural Conceptualization

1.6.16 Preliminary Services

1.6.17 Contract Documentation and Review

1.6.18 Post-Design Services (including Construction Management Services)

1.6.19 Dispute Avoidance and Resolution

1.6.20 Architectural Research Methods

1.6.21 Special Building / Facility Planning and Design

1.6.22 Building Components

1.6.23 Management of Architectural Practices

249. Construction Services

1.1 Quality Control

1.2 Evaluation of Construction Work
1.3 Preparation of Daily Inspection Reports
1.4 Filing of documents

1. FUNCTIONS AND DESCRIPTION OF TASKS

1.1 The responsibilities of the Construction Manager (CM) include the functions of
the Construction Supervision Group (CSG). (reference Doc. 204-A and
Architect’s Guidelines)

1.1.1 Coordination and Supervision

1.1.2 Cost and Time Control
1.1.3 Quality Control of Work and
1.1.4 Keeping of Records
 1.2 The Construction Manager (CM) may hire the CSG to be under his employ or
may supervise the CSG hired directly by the Owner.

250. Post-Construction Services

2. SCOPE OF SERVICES

2.1 Building and Facilities Administration

2.1.1 Building Maintenance. The Architect shall:

a. see to it that the building and all the parts thereof (structure, plumbing,
electrical, partitions, finishes, etc.) are all in good condition.

b. formulate and enforce rules for the proper use of the building and facility,
particularly in the common areas and the emergency/ egress/ exit areas.

c. monitor security services, and

d. monitor maintenance and upkeep services (cleanliness of corridors,

lobbies, stairs and other common areas, exits, parking areas, garbage
collection)

1.1.1 Grounds and Landscaping Supervision. The Architect shall:

a. supervise landscape contractors and gardeners for the proper watering,

pruning, trimming and maintenance of the landscape (both hardscapes
and softscapes);

b. maintain orderly entrances, exits and parking areas; and

c. maintain streets i.e. road rights-of–way (RROWs), walkways, and ramps.

1.1.2 Building Equipment Maintenance. The Architect shall:

a. assist the proper third parties in seeing to it that all equipment (air-conditioning,
sprinkler system, generators, transformers, telecommunications equipment, etc.) are
properly maintained and in good working condition

1.1.3 Business Development and Management. The Architect shall:

a. innovate schemes to attain maximum building occupancy

b. bill the tenants for rentals and utilities (electricity, water, telephone, cable, gas and
other/ related dues)
 1.2 Post-Construction Evaluation

2.2.1 Upon the request of the Owner, the Architect shall:

A. evaluate the initial design program vs. the actual use of the facility;
B. determine the effectiveness of the various building systems and the materials systems in use;
C. assist the proper third parties in evaluating the functional effectiveness of the design and
construction process undertaken, and
D. study, research, and give solutions to any discovered/ emerging/ evolving defects and failures such
as shrinkage, water seepage and other problems in the building. This is referred to as “forensic
investigation” of the building’s systems (Reference Doc 203).

251. Design Build Services

SCOPE OF DESIGN-BUILD SERVICES

Project Definition Phase
Schematic Design Phase
Design Development Phase
Contract Document Phase
Construction PhasE
252. Method of Compensation

3. METHODS OF COMPENSATION

3.1 Percentage of Construction Cost

3.2 Multiple of Direct Personnel Expenses

3.3 Professional Fee Plus Expenses

3.4 Lump Sum or Fixed Fee

3.5 Per Diem Plus Reimbursable Expense

3.6 Mixed Methods of Compensation

3.1 Percentage of Construction Cost

This is a world-wide used method of compensation for architectural services. The amount of the percentage
is related to the size and the type of the Project. This method is fair to both the Client and the Architect as
the fee is pegged to the cost of the Project the Client is willing to undertake. It is similar to the percentage
fee concept being charged by realtors, developers and lawyers. It is flexible and easy to apply since if there
will be changes, additions or deductions of the work demanded by the Project or required by the Client,
the Owner-Architect Agreement need not be supplemented.

3.2 Multiple of Direct Personnel Expenses

This cost-based method of compensation is applicable only to non-creative work such as accounting,
secretarial, research, data gathering, supervision, preparation of reports and the like.

This method may therefore be applied only on Pre-Design Services, Supervision Work and other works
which the Architect may perform other than the Regular and Specialized Allied Design Services. The
computation is made by adding all costs of technical services (man-hours x rate) and multiply it by a
multiplier to take care of overhead and profit.

The multiplier ranges from 2 or 2.5 depending on the office set-up, overhead and experience of the
Architect and the complexity of the Project.

3.3 Professional Fee Plus Expenses

This method of compensation, frequently used where there is a continuing relationship on a series of
projects. It establishes a fixed sum over and above reimbursement for the Architect’s technical time and
overhead. An agreement on the general scope of the work is necessary in order to set an equitable fee.
3.4 Lump Sum or Fixed Fee

Some governmental agencies sometimes request a form of contract which establishes a fixed sum for
architectural and engineering services.

This concept of compensation is more than not, disadvantageous to both the Client and the Architect.
Firstly, it represents a risk situation to the Architect, since his costs may exceed the agreed amount.

3.5 Per Diem Plus Reimbursable Expense

In some cases a Client may request an Architect to do work which will require his personal time such as:
a. Attend Board Meetings or Conferences b. Ocular inspection of possible sites c. Confer with others
regarding prospective investments or ventures and the like For these particular activities, the Architect may
be paid on a per diem basis plus out-ofpocket expenses such as travel, accommodations and subsistence,
long-distance telephone calls, secretarial service, etc.

3.6 Mixed Methods of Compensation

The UAP Documents provide for more than one method of compensation on a Project. Each Project should
be examined to determine the most appropriate method of establishing an equitable method of
compensation between the Architect and the Owner. There is no reason that an assortment of
compensation methods should not be used if appropriate in a single Project. For example, Pre-Design
Services and Construction Work Services could be compensated on a multiple of Direct Personnel Expense,
while the Regular and Specialized Allied Design Services could be paid on a Percentage of Construction
Cost basis.

253. Methods of Architect’s Selection

2. METHODS OF SELECTION

Three basic methods of selection are available to a Client seeking the services of an Architect:

2.1 Direct selection is most often used by an individual person undertaking a relatively small project.

2.2 Comparative selection is most often employed by committees representing institutions, corporations
or public agencies.

2.3 Design Competitions are most frequently used for civic or monumental projects and prestigious
private buildings.

5.1 When the Environmental Planner is commissioned to do town and regional planning or urban renewal
projects, he performs the following:

a. Identifies existing land use, resources, social behavior and interaction

b. Undertakes environmental analysis, feasibility studies, demographic analysis.

c. Examines existing laws, ordinances, political/social constraints

d. Prepares concept development plans, policies, implementing strategies to arrive at the

Master Development Plan.
255. Other function of an Architect

A. Project Manager C. Manufactuer

256. A person found preparing architectural plans without the necessary license is guilty of
what?

Guilty of Misdemeanor

257. What are surety bonds performance bonds, and guarantee bonds?

Guarantee bond- 10% of the contract price, contractor agrees to guarantee its work against qualitative
defects, poor workmanship and the like for a period of 1 year reckoned from the date of final acceptance
of the project

Performance bond- contractor shall be coterminous with the date of final acceptance of the project

Surety Bond- promise to perform in accordance to its contract obligations

(article6,7 owner contractor agreement)

258. Specs writing should be _____ (manner)

describing type and quality of materials, finish, manner of construction and the general conditions under
which the project is to be constructed

(2010 SPP RLA’s under scope of services 2.4.4)

259. In specs writing, how do you refer to money?

a. How many

b. How much

c. Amount

d. Volume

260. Study UAP documents

261. Study RA 926 its IRR and terminologies

262. Interior Design- a practice concerned with anything that is found inside a space (walls, windows,
doors, finishes, textures, light, furnishings and furniture). All of these elements are used by interior
designer draws upon many disciplines including environmental psychology, architecture, product design,
and traditional decoration (aesthetics and cosmetics). They plan the malls, restaurants, theatres, and
airport terminals. Today, interior designers must by attuned to architectural detailing including: floor
plans, home renovations, and construction codes.
263. Scope of Specialized Allied Services (situational questions)

264. Bidding Rules and Methods

Invitation to bid, preparation of bidding, submission and opening of bids, evaluation and comparison of
bids, awarding of contract

(Philippine Bidding Documents page 17-18)

265. When can a contractor terminate a contract?

- there exists right-of-way problems which prohibit the contractor from performing work in accordance
with the approved construction schedule

- requisite construction plans, which must be owner-furnished, are not issued to the contractor precluding
any work called for by such plans

-peace and order conditions make it extremely dangerous, if not impossible to work

- there is a failure of the owner to deliver government furnished materials and equipment as stipulated in
the contract

- delay in the payment of contractor’s claim for progress billing beyond 15 calendar days from the time
the contractor’s claim has been certified by the owner’s authorized representatives
266. When should a Building Operations Manual (BOM) be submitted to the owner by the contractor?

a. 30 days after issuance of certificate of occupancy

b. As soon as the building is finished and ready for occupancy

c. As soon as the owner asks for it and all billings paid

d. After 60 days after issuance of certificate of occupancy

267. Considering office space, what is the minimum clearance of a service zone so as not to obstruct
walkways between 2 work units?

a. 0.60m

b. 0.80m

c. 1.00m

d. 1.20m

268. Considering office space, what is the minimum width that will also serve as access from the work
unit to the wall?

a. 1.00m

b. 1.20m

c. 1.30m

d. 1.50m

269. What is preferred to control the movement of people inside a building?

a. Limit to access to 4

b. Well lighted hallway and stair

c. Provided with CCTV camera

d. With roaming janitor

270. What do you call the raised edge at the sidewalk?

a. Zocalo

b. Gutter

c. Curb

d. Nosing
271. What is between 2 lots and is intended only for pedestrians?

a. Corridor

b. Walkway

c. Alley

d. Lanai

272. What type of street is used for pedestrian, animals, and bikers?

a. Sidewalk

b. Narrow Lane

c. Main Artery

d. Alley

273. In a 15 storey high-rise building situated within a through lot with a frontage of 20 meters facing a
major road and 15 meters depth. The rear of the lot faces a service road. The front and side has a
setback of 8 and 5 meters respectively. What is the minimum number of fire exits?

a. 2 main exits including the service stair

b. Provide 3 exits from ground to 8th floor, and 2 exits from 9th to the 15th floor

c. One fire exit every floor

d. 4 fire exits every floor

(ra 9514, SECTION 10.2.15.2 EXIT DETAILS)

274. What is the minimum floor area for Economic and Socialized Housing?

BP220 RULE II: MINIMUM DESIGN STANDARDS AND REQ. FOR ECONOMIC AND
SOCIALIZED HOUSING PROJECTS; C. DESIGN PARAMETERS; 2. LOT REQUIREMENT; B.
MINIMUM LOT AREA: (TABLE 7)

TYPES OF HOUSING ECONOMIC (SQM.) SOCIALIZED (SQM.)

SINGLE DETACHED 72 64
DUPLEX/SINGLE ATTACHED 54 48
ROWHOUSES 36 32

275. What is the Minimum width of minor road for Economic and Socialized housing Subdivision?

ROAD RIGHT OF WAY UNDER BP 220 MINOR ROADS FOR ECONOMIC AND SOCIALIZED
HOUSING SUBDIVISION SHALL BOTH HAVE A MINIMUM WIDTH OF 6.5M

276. Specs – Given the Ceiling Heights

276.1. BP220; Minimum ceiling height for habitable rooms shall be measured from the
finished floor line to the ceiling line. Where ceilings are not provided, a minimum
headroom clearance of 2.0 meters shall be provided. (See Fig. 5: Minimum Ceiling
Heights)
277. Specs – Given the Mezzanine Floor
277.1. BP220; Mezzanine floors shall have a clear ceiling height of not less than 1.80
meters above and below it, provided that it shall not cover 50% of the floor area
below it. (See Fig. 6: Mezzanine Floor)

278. When can an architect do design concepts parallel to other designing architects?
278.1. During Design Competition – Under the SPPs, the Architect/Architects can do
design concepts parallel to other designing architects if and only if; they are joined in
a design competition. Clients can only consult 1 architect during any concept or design
development stage.
278.2. Before Project is Conceived
278.3. During Design Development
278.4. After the Design Competition
279. When is the best time for an Architect to do several development projects?
279.1. During Design Competition
279.2. Before Project is Conceived – Under the SPPs, the Architect is not yet bound by
any legal contracts before any project is conceived to which he is still viable to do
several development projects
279.3. During Design Development
279.4. After the Design Competition
280. What is a Bottom-up system/development?
280.1. Barangay – Systematized development of a Community
280.2. President
280.3. Mayor
280.4. Congressman
281. It links the skills of human with existing and available resources for development
281.1. Human Resource Development – Development of human skills for Recruitments
281.2. Bldg. Technology & Methodology
281.3. Construction Skills Development
281.4. Design Development
282. Prior to construction, a building permit should be obtained. What may the processed subject do
to the payment of corresponding fees?
282.1. Bending/Cutting of Rebars
282.2. Fabrication of Forms
282.3. Ground Preparation and Excavation
282.4. Design Development – Conceptual Stage that does not require any legal form of
bond.
Note: Other activities allowed but not a choice covered under Accessory Permits like:
i. Encroachment of Foundation to Public Area
ii. Fencing for fence not exceeding 1.80m high
iii. Sidewalk Construction
iv. Temporary Sidewalk Enclosure and Occupancy
v. Erection of Scaffoldings
vi. Erecting, Repair and Removal of Sign; Demolition

283. What is known as the “Architecture Acts of 2004?”

283.1. RA 9622
283.2. RA 9266 - Republic Act 9266 Also known as Architecture Acts of 2004
283.3. PD 1097
283.4. PD1185
284. It is a bond that is an approved form of security furnished by the contractor as a guarantee to
execute work in accordance with the terms of the contract?
284.1. Performance Bond
284.2. Proposal Bond
284.3. Payment Bond
284.4. Guarantee Bond - A performance bond, also known as a contract bond, is a
surety bond issued by an insurance company or a bank to guarantee satisfactory
completion of a project by a contractor. A job requiring a payment and performance
bond will usually require a bid bond, to bid the job.
285. It is also known as UAP Doc. 200?
285.1. Code of Ethical Conduct – Also known as UAP DOC. 200
285.2. Standards of Professional Practice
285.3. Architect Responsibilities
285.4. Pre-design Services
286. The code of Ethical Conduct is an integral part of?
It is an integral part of the SPPs or STANDARDS OF PROFESSIONAL PRACTICE constituted
by the PRBoA or Professional Regulatory Board of Architecture PRBoA.
287. The minimum number of elevator for a 4 storey-building?
287.1. 0 – For BP220; Elevators shall only be provided starting from 6 storeys and up.
287.2. 1
287.3. 2
287.4. 3
288. What is Remodeling? Rule I of PD1096(NBC) DEFINITION OF TERMS; Also known as ALTERATION
Construction in a building/structure involving changes in the materials used, partitioning
location/size of openings, structural parts, and existing utilities and equipment but does
not increase the overall area or height thereof.
289. What is Renovation? Rule I of PD1096(NBC) DEFINITION OF TERMS;
Any Physical change made on a building/structure to increase its value, utility and/or
improve its aesthetic quality
290. What is Addition? Rule I of PD1096(NBC) DEFINITION OF TERMS;
Any new construction which increases the height or area of an existing
building/structures.
291. What is Reconstruction?
-The construction or renewal of any part of an existing building/ structure for maintenance
purposes. The term shall not apply to any change of construction.

292. Study the following:

a. Code of Ethics
b. Liabilities / Responsibilities of Architect to Owner, Contractor, Public Supplier, etc.
c. Minimum Basic Fee
d. Legal Actions to be taken, Civil Court
293. After a Change of Use of a building, what should be secured?
a. FSIC c. Sanitary Permit
b. Building Permit
294. Before a building can be used, what should be secured?
a. FSIC c. Sanitary Permit
b. Building Permit
295. Where do you secure a Building Permit?
a. DPWH c. OBO
b. MWSS d. DENR
296. Plans, Models and Perspectives are
a. Instruments of Practice c. Instrument of Service
b. Documents for Presentation d. Instrument for billing
297. What do you call Working Drawings, Specifications, Estimates and General Conditions?
a. Construction Drawings c. As-built plans
b. Contract Documents d. Presentation Drawings
298. What is NOT usually employed by the Owner in commissioning a small residential project?
a. Referral c. Direct-Hiring
b. Design-Competition d. None of the above
299. In what instance do several architects submit a design proposal at the same time?
a. Referral c. Direct-Hiring
b. Design-Competition d. None of the above
300. A client commissions you for a project. Since the Client has a hardware, he insisted that he should
be the one to supply the materials and delivers them to the jobsite. The contractor uses them and
installs the same. Everything is fine until you noticed that the materials being used are substandard
and does not follow the specifications you prepared. This angers you and you refused to sign the
Contractor’s billing. The Contractor complains to the Owner and stops all work. The Owner is angry
too because of the work stoppage and also feels insulted by you. Now everybody is angry and
everything grinds to a halt. Who should say sorry first?
a. Architect c. Contractor
b.Owner d. No one. Let’s settle this in court
301. Grab bar for the disabled (height in mm)
a. 600 c. 800
b. 900 d. 700
302. Basic function of an open door
a. Fire Safety c. Aesthetic purposes
b. Means of access d. Required by law
303. Allowable projection for a signage of a building that is NOT arcaded
a. 0.90 c. 1.20
b. 1.00 d. 700
304. The minimum arcade height is
a. 4.0m c. 1.20
b. 3.0m d. none of the above
305. Allowable projection for a signage of a building that is NOT arcaded
a. 0.90 c. 1.20
b. 1.00 d. 700

308. Identify the types of lots in the figure below indicated as #1 and #2.

No given figure.

309. Who adopts the land use plan when HLURB already approved it?

a. Office of the mayor

b. SangguniangPanglungsod

c. UAP

d. City Building Officials

310. What is being planned by the HLURB?

a. Housing and Development (CLUP)

b. Urban Land Use Map (ULUM)

c. Comprehensive Land Use Plan

d. CGD Plan

311. After passing the Sanggunian, who implements it?

a. NHA

b. DPWH

c. CBO

d. LGU

312. What is meant by R3 in residential zone?

a. Medium density housing

b. High density housing

c. General Density housing

d. Socialized housing
313. What is meant by R2 in residential zone?

a. Medium density housing

b. High density housing

c. General Density housing

d. Socialized housing

314. Seek permit from the DENR when

a. Cutting of large trees

b. Excavation

c. Concreting of driveway

d. Roofing

315. Drawing, specifications, budgetary cost, models, furnished by an architect are called

a. Construction document

b. Architect's proposal

c. Contract documents

d. Bid

316. What is the purpose of Bill of Materials?

a. Bidding

b. Loan

c. Construction Guide

d. Reference on Cost

317. Who is responsible for making/ producing Architectural Drawings

a. Draftsman

b. Architect

c. Engineer

d. Office Staff
318. Who can best interpret Architectural Drawings

a. Foreman

b. Trade Professional

c. Architect

d. Draftsman

319. Who should sign Architectural Drawings

a. Foreman

b. Architect

c. Consultant

d. Draftsman

320. Which is not a Structural Plan?

a. Foundation Plan

b. Schedule of Beams

c. Floor Framing Plan

d. Roof Framing Plan

321. What are needed for the application of Building Permit?

a. TCT

b. Construction Drawings

c. Specifications

d. Survey Plan

322. You were commissioned to do a Master plan. What should you do first?

a. Study the existing laws

b. Survey the location

c. Coordinate with the local government for tracing of history

d. Direct all department heads

323. Responsibilities of an Architect: when she/he conducts the checking of materials and works done
if in adherence with the specification

a. Job site management

b. Project supervision

c. Quality surveying

d. Full time supervision

324. An architect was commissioned for a project amounting Php 3,500,000 including 12% Vat broken
down as follows. 30% overhead expenses; 40% expenses; and 30% profit

a. How much would it be without 12% VAT?Php 3,080,000

Solution:

3,500,000 x .12= 420,000

3,500,000 – 420,000 = Php 3,080,000

b. His net profit? Php 113, 400

Solution:

420,000 x .30 = Php 126,000

126,000 – 12,600 (10 % tax) = Php 113,400

c. How much would be his tax to the government?Php 12,600

According to the BIR, Revenue Regulations No. 30-2003, Section 3. Income Payments
Subject To Creditable Withholding Tax. Professional fees, talent fees, etc., for services rendered
by individuals. – On the gross professional, promotional and talent fees or any other form of
remuneration for the services of the following individuals - Fifteen percent (15%), if the gross
income for the current year exceeds P720,000; and Ten percent (10%), if otherwise; (1) Those
individually engaged in the practice of professions or callings; lawyers; certified public
accountants; doctors of medicine; architects; civil, electrical, chemical, mechanical, structural,
industrial, mining, sanitary, metallurgical and geodetic engineers; marine surveyors; doctors of
veterinary science; dentist; professional appraisers; 4 connoisseurs of tobacco; actuaries;
interior decorators, designers and all other profession requiring government licensure
examinations and/or regulated by the Professional Regulations Commission, Supreme Court,
etc.

Answer: a. Replan and find a better solution that may meet the required budget.
325. The records of test materials and all concrete must be preserved after the completion of the
project for at least
a. 2 years c. 5 years
b. 3 years d. 4 years

326.Who makes the Comprehensive Land Use Plan?

a. HLURB c. Environmental Planner
b. Architect d. LGU

327. After a Change of Use (Renovation) of the Building, what should be secured?
a. Fire Inspection Certificate c. Certificate of Completion
b. Certificate of Occupancy d. certificate of Final Payment

328.A permit secured prior to the Commencement of a Project

a. Evacuation Permit c. ECC
b. Building Permit d. Sidewalk Permit

329. A permit secured prior to the Occupancy of a Building

a. Building Permit c. Occupancy permit
b. ECC d. Demolition Permit

330. What are the qualifications of someone who wished to take the Licensure Examination for
Architects?
a. Filipino Citizen c. At least 2 years of experience in Arch. Firm
b. A graduate of Architecture d. All of the Above

331. After how many days can a Contractor stop work if the Architect’s approval for the change of
work delayed?
a. 10 days c. 30 days
b. 15 days d. 45 days

332. A bond furnished by the Contractor and his surety as a guarantee to execute the work in
accordance with the terms of the contract is a
a. Performance bond c. Surety bond
b. Guarantee bond d. Proposal bond.
333. An Outline Specification enumerating the type or trade names of materials to be used and finishes
is known as
a. Estimates c. Bill of Materials
b. PERT-CPM d. Schedule of Materials and Finishes

334. Under PD 957 and BP 220, how many units shall be the maximum number for row houses per
block/ cluster? -
a. 15 c. 10
b. 20 d. 30

335. Under PD 957, what is the minimum lot frontage for Row Houses?
a. 8 m c. 4 m
b. 3.5 m d. 6 m

336. Under BP 220, what is the minimum lot frontage for Socialized Row Houses?
a. 8 m c. 4 m
b. 3.5 m d. 6 m

337. Which of the following is not part of RROW? PD1096

a. Curb c. Yard
b. Sidewalk d. Carriageway

338. Minimum Front Setback for R-1

a. 4.50 c. 4.00
b. 6.00 d. 5.00
339.

Minimum Side Setback for R-1 ––PD1096- SECTION 804. SIZES AND DIMENSIONS OF COURTS – 2 m
a. 4.50 c. 4.00
b. 6.00 d. 5.00
340.

Minimum Rear Setback for R-1 ––PD1096- SECTION 804. SIZES AND DIMENSIONS OF COURTS – 2 m
a. 4.50 c. 4.00
b. 6.00 d. 5.00
342. Using the 1977 National Building Code, what is the minimum setback for R-1?
a. 3.0m c. 5.0m
b. 4.0m d. none of the above

343. What is the minimum front setback for R-4?

a. 3.0m c. 5.0m
b. 4.0m d. none of the above

344. Maximum height for a Party wall.

345. What is the minimum ceiling height for Habitalbe Rooms with Artificial Ventilation of a
single-storey structure?
a. 2.10m c. 2.40m
b. 2.70m d. 1.80m

346. What is the minimum ceiling height for Habitable Rooms with Artificial Ventilation at the
second floor?
a. 2.10m c. 2.40m
b. 2.70m d. 1.80m

347. Height of ceiling at 5th floor with Natural Ventilation.

a. 2.10m c. 2.40m
b. 2.70m d. 1.80m

348. (from Qatar Exam) If the residential condominium units are to be airconditioned, what
shall be the minimum distance (in meters) between the finished floor line (FFL) and the
finished ceiling line (FCL) at the 5th floor?
a. 2.40 (ans… if 2nd floor) c. 2.10 (ans… if succeeding storeys)
b. 2.70 (ans… if 1st floor) d. 1.80 (for mezzanine)

349. What is the minimum dimension of a kitchen?

a. 2.00m x 3.00m c. 1.50m x 1.50m
b. 1.50m x 2.00m d. 2.00m x 2.00m

350. In a sidewalk with a width of 1.80m, how many elderly people can walk side-by-side at
the same time?
a. 2 c. 4
b. 3 d. 5

351. What is the width of a walkway as access going to the parking for the physically
challenged?
a. 1.50m c. 1.30m
c. 1.20m d. 1.40m

352. Width of Drop Curb.

a. 0.90m c. 0.80m
b. 1.00m d. 0.70m
353. Maximum height of Spire, if made of combustible material, above the BHL?

a. 6.0m c. 6.50m

b. 7.0m d. limited only by structural design

354. Maximum height of Spire, if made of combustible material, above the BHL?

a. 6.0m c. 6.50m

b. 7.0m d. limited only by structural design

355. Allan, a 5th year student of Architecture was asked by his Aunt and Uncle to prepare Architectural
house for their dream house. Both parties manually agreed on their contract stipulation as well as Contract
price. However, since Allan is still NOT licensed, he asked his professor, Architect Luna to sign and seal his
work. Architect Luna obliges, asks and receives a Signing Fee. Is there something illegal in this situation?
If yes, what is it?

a. Yes, Estafa

b. Yes, violation of intellectual property

c. None, because everybody involved mutually agreed as evidence by their contract

d. Yes, unethical to be signing a contract that is not his work

356. Who is liable for this unprofessional act?

a. Allan c. Owner

b. Architect Luna d. All of them

357. Who is liable for aiding in this unprofessional act?

a. Allan c. Owner

b. Architect Luna d. All of them

358. Mr. Ayala wanted to have the interiors of his house renovated. Upon learning that his long-time friend
Architect D is now a registered Architect, he went to give him a visit at Architect D’s office at D & Z Partners.
Mr. Z, Arch. D’s partner is an Interior Designer. After several visits, Mr. Ayala was convinced and decided
to push through the project since the estimated projected cost was within his budget. To whom should the
project be rewarded?

a. Architect D, since Mr. Ayala is a personal friend

b. D & Z Partners, since in a partnership they should share everything plus Arch. D was using his
office/resources at the partnership to conclude the deal

c. Mr. Ayala can rightfully hire another Designer and he can use the estimates/suggestions provided by his
friend

d. Mr. Z, since he is the Interior Designer

359. A group of newly licensed architects and their friends wanted to put-up Architectural firm. How many
percentage (%) of the corporation should be owned by the architects.

a. 50% c. 75%

b. 70% d. 50%

360. An Architect, an Interior designer and an Engineer, who are all siblings, are planning to set-up a
company. How many percentage (%) will be the Architect’s share?

a. 50% c. 75%

b. 70% d. 50%

361. It is a type of Business Organization wherein if the company fails and has to close operation, the
individual shareholders are NOT liable for the company’s debts. Each shareholder loses only the money he
spent in buying his shares/

a. Partnership c. Corporation

b. Single Proprietorship d. Limited Liability Company

362. What is Value Engineering? (No Multiple choices available)

ans: Value engineering (VE) is systematic method to improve the "value" of goods or products and
services by using an examination of function. Value, as defined, is the ratio of function to cost. Value can
therefore be increased by either improving the function or reducing the cost.

ans: can be defined as an organized effort directed at analyzing designed building features,
systems, equipment, and material selections for the purpose of achieving essential functions at the lowest
life cycle cost consistent with required performance, quality, reliability, and safety.

363. what is the unit area per occupant of a Conference Room (Occupant Load)?

a. 1.00sqm c. 1.40sqm

b. 1.20sqm d. 1.60sqm

364. What is the unit area per occupant of a Classroom?

a. 1.50 c. 2.00

b. 1.80 d. 1.60

365. What is the unit area per occupant of an Office Building?

a. 18.60 c. 22.40

b. 20.00 d. 9.30

-
1. Situation: During the summer holidays, a couple decided to have their house
repaired. They acquired the services of Architect “A” for this project. However, they
specifically asked Architect “A” to give the Roofing Repairs to their father who
happens to be a roofing contractor. Everything went well until the rains came. Now,
the house is flooding and leaks coming everywhere. They asked Architect “A” to
make good the defects but the Architect refused. Who is liable for the damages?
a. Architect “A”, he should have checked the work of the Roofing contractor
b. The Roofing Contractor, he was the one who repaired the roof
c. The Couple, they were the ones who asked that their father do it.
d. The supplier, they are the ones who supply the material for the roofing

Ref: SPP Docs # 3a: The Architect’s Responsibilities in Relation to the Contractor

The Architect shall give the Contractor every reasonable aid to enable him to fully
understand the contents of the Contract Documents by furnishing clear, definite and
consistent information in all pertinent contract documents to avoid unnecessary mistakes
that may involve extra costs to the Contractor.

Situation: Big scale projects sometimes have a lot of phases and areas that may
require the help from numerous architects and consultants per phase

1. A concept architect does the overall concept of the project. What is his
liability on the project? (Question on liability asked 6 times)
a. Same as the architect-on-record
b. He has no liability
c. He has civil and administrative liability
d. They all share the same amount of liability

Situation:An Architect drew up plans for a family… the owners went abroad, after
a year, the owners returned but instructed the architect to help them find a new
lot… the task would entail the architect’s personal time…

1. What stage in the Architect’s service will the Architect perform?

a. Pre-design Services
b. Regular Design Services
c. Comprehensive Architectural Services
d. Specialized Allied Services

Ref: 2.1 Pre-Design Services (UAP Doc. 201)

a. Economic Feasibility
b. Project Financing
c. Architectural Programming
 d. Site Selection and Analysis
3.4 Site Selection and Analysis Assisting the client in locating sites for the
proposed project and evaluating their adequacy with regards to topography, sub-
surface conditions, utilities, development costs, climate, population, legal
considerations and other factors.

2. What will be the ideal method of compensation that the Architect should use
if he is to find a new site for the project?
a. Percentage of Construction Cost c. MDPE (Multiple of
Direct Personnel Expenses)
b. Per diem plus reimbursable expenses d. Professional Fee +
Expense reimbursable

Ref: SPP DOCUMENT 201

4. METHOD OF COMPENSATION
4.4 Per Diem, Honorarium Plus Reimbursable Expenses
In some cases a Client may request an Architect to do work which will require his
personal time such as:
4.4.1 Attending project-related meetings, conferences or trips;
4.4.2 Conducting ocular inspection of possible project sites; and
4.4.3 Conferring with others regarding prospective investments or ventures and
the like. basis plus out-of-pocket expenses such as but not limited to travel,
accommodations and subsistence.

For these particular activities, the Architect as agent of the Owner may be paid on
a per diem and honorarium basis plus out-of-pocket expenses such as but not
limited to travel, accommodations and subsistence.

3. What can the Architect suggest to the owners to minimize spending?

- The Architect could present a value-managed plan, design, or
system that would achieve an unimpaired program at a minimum cost.

Ref: SPP DOCUMENT 201 PRE-DESIGN SERVICES

2. SCOPE OF PRE-DESIGN SERVICES
2.13 Value Management
This technique is applied in the cost management process to minimize the negative
effect of simplified operations associated with many cost-reduction programs. The
goal of value management is to achieve an unimpaired program at minimum cost.
 Thus, a plan, design or system that has been successfully value-managed will still
satisfy the same performance criteria as the costlier alternatives.

4. How much is the Architect compensated after he completed all plans and
documents for construction?
a. 65% c. 85%
b. 75% d. 80%

Ref: CODE OF ETHICAL CONDUCT

UAP DOC 202. DESIGN SERVICES
4. PAYMENT SCHEDULE
d. Upon the completion of the Contract Documents Services but not more thanm15
days after submission of the Contract Documents to the Owner, a sum sufficient
to increase the total payments on the fee to eighty-five percent (85%) of the Basic
Fee, computed upon a reasonable estimated construction cost of the structure as
in (b).

Situation: Juan has been studying in Saudi Arabia for almost 15 years but he feels incomplete
since he was not able to take the licensure examination when he was still in the Philippines.
He heard that the PRBoA is going to conduct FLEA at Jeddah. He asks his family to send his
transcript of record, birth certificate and diploma.

1. What else does he need to be able to take the FLEA?

a. Diversified Training Logbook signed and sealed by a Filipino RLA
b. Certificate of employment from his company showing his tenure and position
c. Recommendation letter from the consulate
d. Certificate of Good Moral Character
Reference: prc.gov.ph

Special Professional Licensure Board Examinations for OFWs in the Middle East

Basic Document requirement:

 Photocopy of Transcript of Records (with or without scanned picture and remarks

“For Board Examination Purposes Only”)
 Photocopy of Valid Passport
 Four (4) passport-size pictures with complete name-tag in white background
For Architects:
  Accomplished logbook for Diversified Experience for local/overseas experience
(certified by mentor-architect) and/or Certificate of Related Work Experience for
overseas experience signed by the employer(s) for a minimum of 3,840 hours.
Scanned copies shall be submitted through email to the Board of Architecture for
conditional approval.
 Updated PRC ID of mentor, PTR, IAPOA
 Affidavit must be signed and sealed by Architect-mentor

2. After passing the FLEA, his company has a big project. He was the one who made all
the drawings. To whom he is liable to?
a. To the Company
b. To the Philippine government
c. To the Saudi government
d. None
Reference: An architect (Arch. Ivy Uy) who currently took the FLEA in Dubai

3. After passing the FLEA, who can administer his professional oath?
a. Any registered and licensed architect working abroad
b. The ambassador of the Philippine embassy
c. The PRBoA will hold a special ceremony
d. UAP National President
Reference: An architect (Arch. Ivy Uy) who currently took the FLEA in Dubai

Situation:After graduating from a BS Architecture course in the Philippines, Juan

decided to work in Singapore. He worked there for 2 years and decided to go back
to Philippines to take the Architecture Licensure Exam.

1. What should he do to file his requirements?

a. Fill out the DTE and let his Singaporean mentor sign it for him
b. His mentor should be a Filipino RLA if working abroad to qualify
c. He should just take the ALE in Singapore if it was offered there.
d. Have his DTE signed by another Filipino Architect in the Philippines

Ref: Sec. 13 of Republic Act No. 9266, Have a specific record of at least two years or
equivalent of diversified architectural experience duly certified by a registered
licensed architect
 Situation:Juan passed the ALE with flying colors and came back to his old job in
Singapore. His boss was so impressed, that he wanted to put up an architectural
firm here in the Philippines.

1. What should Juan’s boss do to practice architecture in the Philippines?

a. He should collaborate with a Filipino Firm/Architect and be partners, to
be able to practice architecture in the Philippines
b. He should register his firm and begin practicing architecture in the
Philippines
c. He is not allowed to put up an architectural firm in the Philippines
d. He could practice architecture in the Philippines anytime he wants

Ref: Sec. 38 of Republic Act No. 9266, That foreign nationals shall be required to work
with a Filipino counterpart

2. If juan’s boss could put up an architectural firm in the Philippines, what

should be his first move to register his business?
a. Register his company at DTI
b. Register his company at SEC
c. Get a license to practice architecture in the Philippines as a Foreign
partner in PRC
d. Get a license to practice architecture in the Philippines as a Foreign
partner in UAP

Ref: Sec. 38 of Republic Act No. 9266, Agencies, organizations or individuals, whether
public or private, who secure the services of foreign professional authorized by law
to practice in the Philippines for reasons aforementioned, shall be responsible for
securing a special permit from the Professional Regulation Commission (PRC)

3. If Juan and his boss were to be partners in a firm in the Philippines, where
should their company be registered?
a. DTI only
b. SEC only
c. DTI, SEC AND PRC only
d. DTI and SEC only

Ref: According to R.A. 9266, page 3 of Rule 1 number 6, “Architectural Firm” means a
sole proprietorship, a partnership or a corporation registered with the DTI AND/OR
SEC and then with the Board of Architecture and PRC;
 Situation:Owner A Hired Architect B to design his condominium located in a
commercial area. After several meetings, Architect B was able to produce a
Schematic Design which Owner A subsequently approved. However, Owner A had
a change of heart and decided that he doesn’t want Architect B for the project
anymore.

1. How much compensation is Architect B entitled?

a. 15% of the Contract plus 5% for Breach of Contract
b. 15% of Construction Cost
c. 15% of Contract Price
d. 10% of Construction Cost
Ref: According to UAP Docs, page 35 of Architect’s Design Services 4. Payment
Schedule b. Upon the completion of the Schematic Design Services, but not
more than 15 days after submission of the Schematic Design to the Owner, a
sum equal to fifteen percent (15%) of the Basic Fee, computed upon a
reasonable estimated construction cost of the structure.
Situation:Arch. Casia was commissioned by his friend as the Architect for a
Townhouse project. He was specifically asked to prepare brochures for the
marketing of the project.

1. What type of service did Arch. Casia rendered for the project?
a. Regular Design Services
b. Pre-Design Services
c. Construction Services
d. Post Construction Services
Ref: According to UAP Docs, page 26 under Pre Design Services states that “The
several activities that fall under Pre-Design Services are as follows: 3.7
Promotional Services In some cases, the project would require promotional
activities in order to generate financial support and acceptance from governing
agencies or from the general public. The Architect, with his own staff, can
accomplish many of these activities including preparation of promotional designs,
drawings, brochures and the like. As the agent of the Owner, the Architect can
produce and coordinate the additional activities necessary to complete the
services.

2. For helping his friend market the project, what type of compensation should
Arch. Casia receive?
a. Multiple of direct Personnel Expenses c. Professional Fee +
Expense Reimbursable
 b. Professional Fee + Expense Reimbursable d. Percentage of
Construction Cost

Ref: (SPP 208b Methods of Compensation)

3.2 Multiple of Direct Personnel Expenses
This cost-based method of compensation is applicable only to non-creative work
such as accounting, secretarial, research, data gathering, supervision, preparation
of reports and the like.

Situation:Architect A is the Principal Architect of an architectural firm. Architects

B and C are Junior Partners and they are in charge of the Design Team. However,
it is still Architect A who signs and seals all the drawing. Recently, they hired
Architects D and E, both RLAs, to be in charge of the Production Team.

1. What is the position or Architects D and E?

a. Draftsman c. Junior Partner
b. Junior Architect d. Architect-of-Record

2. Who is responsible for the drawing under the law?

a. Arch. A only c. Arch. A, B & C
b. Arch. B & C d. The Company

Situation:A lot has a depth of 30m and a frontage facing northeast. It has a 20m
RROW with 1.5 sidewalk on both sides. The left side of the lot is a school building
while at the right is an office mid-rise building. Located in the middle part of the
intended façade of your project is a post. The site is still vacant and there is no
water connection yet.

3. What is the Effect/Function of the following on your project?

a. Meralco - Meralco is the largest distributor of electrical power in the
Philippines. Meralco is responsible for providing a structure’s electrical
power. In this question, Meralco will be the one responsible for removing
the post. [Meralco Mission, Vision, Values, and Principles]

b. DPWH - Department of Public Works and Highways; DPWH is currently

responsible for the planning, design, construction and maintenance of
infrastructure, especially the national highways, flood control and water
resources development system, and other public works in accordance with
national development objectives.[Department of Public Works and
Highways Citizen’s Charter, Mandate and Functions]
 c. MWSS – The Metropolitan Waterworks and Sewerage System (MWSS)
is responsible for the supply of water to the structure / building construction.
[Metropolitan Waterworks and Sewerage System (MWSS); Legacy 1:
Water Resources and Infrastructure Management, Development and
Protection]

d. OBO – Office of the Building Official. Responsible for issuance of building

permits and other legal requirements needed before, during, and after
construction. [See Chapter 3, Sec. 301 of PD 1096]

4. What is the AMBF of the site?

a.60% c. 75%
b.50% d. 80%

Ref: [The National Building Code; RULE VII – Classification and General Requirements
of All Buildings by Use or Occupancy, Table VII.1. Allowable Maximum Total Gross Floor
Area (TGFA) Based in Allowable Percentage of Site Occupancy (PSO) of the Total Land
Area (TLA); pages 79-81]

Situation:Arch. X is celebrating the 25th year anniversary of his office. He wants

to be featured in a magazine. To lessen the amount that will be spent on being
published, with his consent, he allowed his friend who is a writer to solicit from
advertisers under his name.

1. Is there anything wrong here? If there is, what/who is wrong in this situation?
a. Nothing is wrong. This was done with everybody’s consent and nobody
was coerced into doing anything.
b. Architect is liable
c. The writer friend of Architect X
d. The advertisers

Ref: [UAP DOC. 200 Code of Ethical Conduct; The Architect’s Responsibilities in
Relation to the People: 1-e The Architect shall not solicit nor permit to solicit in his
name, advertisements or other support towards the cost of any publication presenting his
work. He should refrain from taking part in paid advertisement endorsing any
materials of construction or building equipment. (Page 13)]

2. Who do you approach to have the “post” removed?

a. DPWH c. OBO
b. Meralco d. Maynilad
 3. Where should Architect Y file a complaint?
a. RTC c. Mayor’s Office
b. PRC d. NBI

Ref: IRR of RA 9266; Rule 2, Section 7: Powers and Functions of the Board. Page 7.

4. What will happen to Architect X, if found guilty?

a. Suspension of Registry and c. His name will be deleted from the list of
License Registered Architects
b. Suspension of License d. Revocation of his Certificate of
Registration

Ref: IRR of RA 9266; Rule 3: Examination, Registration and Licensure. Section 23:
Suspension and Revocation of Certificates of Registration, Professional
Identification Card or the Special/Temporary Permit. Page 15

Situation:As per Clients request, the Architect made some revisions. Since time
is of the essence, he decided not to coordinate with the Engineering Consultants.
After concrete pouring, he discovered that a beam is set lower than the required
headroom clearance.

1. What is the lesson learned?

a. Always coordinate with consultants and project engineers
b. Being the “Boss” other Allied practitioners should adjust their design to
conform to yours
c. Make immediate adjustments on site
d. (Note: sometimes the answer is already in the situation given and you
just need your common sense)
Situation:Batas PambasaBilang 344, etc..

1. What is the least dimension of a parking slot for the disabled?

a. 2.70 m
b. 3.00 m
c. 3.70 m
d. 3.85 m
Ref: Appendix A. Minimum Requirements for Accessibility Illustrations for
Minimum Requirements
B. PARKING 1.4 Accessible parking slots should have a minimum width of 3.70 m.

2. What is the minimum dimension of a PWD toilet?

a. 1.70 m
b. 1.80 m
c. 1.50 m
d. 1.60 m

Ref: Appendix A.Minimum Requirements for Accessibility Illustrations for

Minimum Requirements
C. INSIDE BUILDINGS AND STRUCTURES
8. WASHROOM & TOILETS
8.3 A turning space of 2.25 sq.m. with a minimum dimension of 1.50 m. for
wheelchair shall be provided for water closet stalls for lateral mounting;

3. What is the best way to provide for the convenience of both people in wheelchair and
blind persons?

A. Railings (BP 344 Appendix A – Minimum Requirement for Accessibility, D.

SAFETY, 1. FENCING FOR ROADWORKS AND FOOTWORKS)

4. In order to aid visually impaired persons to readily identify the men’s washroom this
signage is use.

A. An equilateral triangle with Vertex Pointing upward (BP 344 Appendix A –

Minimum Requirement for Accessibility, C. INSIDE BUILDINGS AND STRUCTURES, 8.
WASHROOMS & TOILETS)

5. According to BP344, what is the comfortable clearance for knee and leg spaces
under tables for wheelchair users?

B. 0.70 m (BP 344 Rule II-Minimum Requirements for Accessibility, 2.

ANTHROPOMETRICS AND DIMENSIONAL DATA AS GUIDES FOR DESIGN, No. 3)

6. As per BP344, what is the minimum width for a Corridor?

a. 1.10 m
b. 1.20 m
c. 1.40 m
d. 0.90 m
Ref: BP 344: Appendix A; C. 7.1 Corridors shall have minimum clear width of 1.20 m

7. As per NBC, what is the minimum width for a Corridor?

a. 1.10 m
b. 1.20 m
c. 1.40 m
d. 0.90 m

Ref: NBC: Section 1207; 4.a. Every corridor or exit balcony shall not be less than 1.10
meters in width.

8. As per FCP, what is the minimum width of a Corridor for Apartments with a
required capacity of MORE than 50 persons?
a. 0.91m
b. 1.00 m
c. 1.10 m
d. 1.12 m

Ref: FCP: Section 10.2.8.2; D. The width of any exit access corridor serving 50 or more
persons shall not be less than one hundred twelve centimeters (112 cm)

9. What is the distance of the Building Main Entrance to the Elevator?

a. 40 m
b. 30 m
c. 20 m
d. 0.85 m

Ref: [According to BP344, 10.1 Accessible elevators should be located not more 30.0m
from the entrance and should be easy to locate with the aid of signs]

10. What is the minimum dimension of an elevator door width?

a. 0.70 m
b. 0.75 m
c. 0.80 m
d. 0.85 m
Ref: [According to BP 344, 10.0 the minimum dimension of an elevator door is 0.80m]

11. As per BP 344, what is the minimum size of an elevator car?

a. 1.10 x 1.40 m
b. 1.20 x 1.50 m
 c. 1.30 x 1.60 m
d. 1.70 x 2.00 m

Ref: [According to BP344, 10.2 accessible elevator shall have a minimum dimension of
1.10m x 1.40m.]

12. What is the minimum size of an elevator shaft, considering BP 344?

A. 1.10 X 1.40 m C. 1.30 X 1.60 m
B. 1.20 X 1.50 m D. 1.70 X 2.00 m
NOTE: It’s NOT among the choices but as per OTIS specs, a 1.10m X 1.40m
elevator should have A 1.74m X 1.94m elevator shaft. For KONE elevators, the
elevator shaft is 1.65m X 1.80m. Other brands recommended a larger elevator shaft.

Ref: (*ACCORDING TO B.P. 344, 10.2 ACCESSIBLE ELEVATORS SHALL HAVE A

MINIMUM DIMENSION OF 1.10 M. X 1.40 M)

13. As per B.P 344, what is the minimum door opening for elevators (single
door)?
(*ACCORDING TO B.P. 344, UNDER TOPIC (10. ELEVATORS), DOOR
OPENINGS FOR ELEVATORS SHOULD HAVE A MINIMUM DIMENSION OF
0.80 M)

14. What is the maximum distance of Elevators considering the handicapped?

A. 30 m C. 40 m
B. 35 m D. 45 m
Ref: (*ACCORDING TO B.P. 344, 10.1 ACCESSIBLE ELEVATORS SHOULD BE
LOCATED NOT MORE THAN 30.00M FROM THE ENTRANCE AND SHOULD
BE EASY TO LOCATE WITH THE AID OF SIGNS.)

16. Under BP 344, walks should have __________ turn/grove in order to guide
the blind
a. 45 degrees
b. 60 degrees
c. 90 degrees
d. 30 degrees

Ref: (bp344 p.102)

17. Parking for R1, R2, R3
 Units with a lot measuring 32.00 to 72.00 sq. meters and/or with a dwelling
unit having a gross floor area of from 18.00 to 22.00 sq. meters - a minimum
of one (1) pooled off-street cum on-site parking slot* for every six (6) lots or
lots with dwelling units;

Units with a lot measuring 50.00 to 96.00 sq. meters and/or with a dwelling
unit having a gross floor area of from 30.00 to 42.00 sq. meters - a minimum
of one (1) pooled off-street cum on-site parking slot* for every four (4) lots
or lots with dwelling units;

Ref: (page 101 PD1096)

18. Distance of parking for disabled from the building entrance?

a. 50 m
b.60 m
c.80 m
d.30 m

Ref: (bp344 p105)

19. What is the minimum width for parking slots for PWD?
290.1. 3.50m
290.2. 3.60m
290.3. 3.70m
290.4. 3.80m

Ref: Minimum width of PWD Parking under BP344 with length of 5.00m

20. For Parking Areas of PWD, a walkway between the front ends of parked
cars shall have a minimum clear width of?
a. 1.10m
b. 1.12m
c. 1.14m
d. 1.20m

Ref: A walkway from accessible spaces of 1.20 m. clear width shall be provided
between the front ends of parked cars under BP344.

21. Under BP 344, the Maximum slope/gradient is?

a. 1:10
b. 1:12
c. 1:14
 d. 1:16

Ref: BP344;RAMPS; The maximum gradient shall be 1:12

22. As per BP 344, a ramp that leads down towards a sidewalk should be
provided by railing across the full width of its lower end, not less than
______ from the foot of the ramp.
a. Provided by railing across the full width of its lower end, not less than
1.80m from the foot of the ramp.
b. Equipped with curbs on one side only with a minimum height of 0.20m
c. Provided by handrails on one side
d. Provided a 90 degree turn

Ref: [Professional Regulatory Board of Architecture (2011). BP 344 IMPLEMENTING

RULES AND REGULATIONS (IRR) AMENDMENTS MINIMUM
REQUIREMENTS FOR ACCESSIBILITY (C. Inside Buildings and Structures,
Section C.2: Ramps, p.15). Manila.]

23. Under BP 220, the minimum clear width of a Main Door is

a. 0.60 m c. 0.80 m
b. 0.70 m d.0.90 m

Ref: [Housing and Land Use Regulatory Board (2008). Revised Implementing Rules
and Regulations for BP220 (Rule II, Section 6, p.25). Makati, Metro Manila.]

24. Under BP 220, the minimum clear width of a Bedroom Door is

a. 0.60 m c. 0.80 m
b. 0.70 m d. 0.90 m

Ref: [Housing and Land Use Regulatory Board (2008). Revised Implementing Rules
and Regulations for BP220 (Rule II, Section 6, p.25). Makati, Metro Manila.]

25. Under BP 220, the minimum clear width of a Bathroom Door is?
a. 0.60 m
b. 0.70 m.
c. 0.80 m.
d. 0.90 m.

Ref: According to BP 220, Section 6. Building Design Standards and Guidelines,

minimum clear width of Bathroom Door is 0.60 m.
 26. Minimum opening in room?
a. 10 % of floor area
b. 15 % of floor area
c. 20 % of floor area
d. 35 % of floor area

Ref: According to BP 220, Section 6. Building Design Standards and Guidelines, rooms
for habitable use shall be provided with windows with a total free area of openings
equal to at least 10% of the floor area of the room.

27. Preferable height of Door knobs?

a. 0.82 m
b. 0.90 m.
c. 1.00 m.
d. 1.06 m.

Ref: According to BP 344, Appendix A. (Minimum Requirements for Accessibility

Illustrations for Minimum Requirements) 3.8 Doorknobs and other hardware
should be located between 0.82 m. to 1.06 m. above the floor; 0.90 m. is preferred.

Which is not a recommended Doorknob Height? - –BP344-DOORS

a. 1.06m c. 0.90m
b. 0.82m d. 1.06m

28.
A circle of ___ in diameter is suitable guide in the planning of wheelchair turning
spaces. BP344- CORRIDORS
a. 1.10m c. 1.75m
b. 1.50m d. 2.00mm
29.

Angle of turn of embossed tiles for the blind – BP344-WALKWAYS

a. 45 degrees c. 30 degrees
b. 90 degrees d. 60 degrees
31. Under Accessibility Code, what is the maximum height of handrail?

ans: 1.06m

- Based on Accessibility Law (Batas Pambansa Bilang 344) and its Amended
Implementing Rules and Regulations in Philippines: Appendix A - Minimum
 Requirements for Accessibility on page 17 of 22, on number 4. Handrails - Section
2: Handrails shall be installed at 0.90 m and 0.70 m above steps or ramps.
Handrails for protection at great heights may be installed at 1.0 m to 1.06 m.

32. Minimum clearance of a table from the floor considering the handicapped?

ans: 0.76m

- The Accessibility Law (Batas Pambansa Bilang 344) and its Amended
Implementing Rules and Regulations in Philippines does not state any specific
requirements on the clearance of floor to table considering the handicapped.
However, on the Graphic Standard – Timesavers updated on March 2011, Part 36.
Nondiscrimination on the basis of disability by public accommodations and in
commercial facilities, Figure 45 paragraph 2 states that If wheelchair seating
locations are at fixed tables, clear floor space 30 in by 48 inches (760 mm by 1220
mm) minimum must be provided for each wheelchair seating location.

33. What is the preferred design for a stair considering users of crutches?

a. Slanted Nosing c. Open Riser Stairs

b. Projected Nosing b. Right Angle Stairs

- Based on Accessibility Law (Batas Pambansa Bilang 344) and its Amended
Implementing Rules and Regulations in Philippines: Appendix A - Minimum
Requirements for Accessibility on page 20 of 22, on number 9. Stairs – Section 2
Slanted nosings are preferred to projecting nosings so as not to pose difficulty for
people using crutches or braces whose feet have a tendency to get caught in the
recessed space or projecting nosings. For the same reason, open stringers should
be avoided.

34.Maximum height for a stair riser

a. 150mm c. 250mm

b. 200mm d. 300mm

- Based on Accessibility Law (Batas Pambansa Bilang 344) and its Amended
Implementing Rules and Regulations in Philippines: states that on Tables of
 Figures, Appendix A, on page 13 of 38, on number 6 Stairs – Section 6.1 - Uniform
risers of 150 mm (maximum) and treads of 300 mm (minimum) shall be used.

35. Under the 1977 NBCP, what are the maximum Rise and minimum Run Dimension
(Meters) of a stairway

a. 0.175and 0.275 c. 0.2 and 0.25

b. 0.2 and 0.275 d. 0.2 ans 0.28

- Based presidential decree (P.D.) no. 1096 Adopting a national building code
of the Philippines (NBCP) thereby revising republic act numbered sixty-five hundred forty-
one (R.A. no. 6541) series 1977: on Chapter Xii

General Design and Construction Requirements Section 1207. Stairs, Exits and
Occupant Loads, (e) Stairways. Except stairs or ladders used only to access, equipment,
every stairway serving any building or portion thereof shall conform to the following
requirements: (2) states that Rise and Run; The rise of every step in a stairway shall not
exceed 200 millimeters and the run shall not less than 250 millimeters. The maximum
variations in the height of risers and the width of treads in any one flight shall be 5
millimeters: Except, in case of private stairways serving an occupant load of less than 10,
the rise may be 200 millimeters and the run may be 250 millimeters, except as provided
in sub-paragraph (3) below.

36. What is the minimum stair width under PD 1096

a. 0.90m c. 0.75m

b. 0.70m d. 0.80m

- Based presidential decree (P.D.) no. 1096 Adopting a national building code
of the Philippines (NBCP) thereby revising republic act numbered sixty-five hundred forty-
one (R.A. no. 6541) series 1977: on Chapter Xii

General Design and Construction Requirements Section 1207. Stairs, Exits and
Occupant Loads, (e) Stairways. Except stairs or ladders used only to access, equipment,
every stairway serving any building or portion thereof shall conform to the following
requirements: (1) states that Width. Stairways serving an occupant load of more than 50
shall not be less than 1.10 meters. Stairways serving an occupant load of 50 or less may
be 900 millimeters wide. Private stairways serving an occupant load of less than 10 may
be 750 millimeters. Trim and handrails shall not reduce the required width by more than
100 millimeters.

37. Under the new Fire Code, if there are 50 or less occupants, what is the minimum stair
width?

a. 0.715 c. 1.12

b. 0.915 d. 1.42

- Based implementing rules and regulations (IRR) of republic act no. 9514
Otherwise known as the “fire code of the Philippines of 2008” or New Fire Code states
that on Rule 10. Fire Safety Measures, Division 5. Means of Egress, Section 10.2.5.4
Stairs - B. Dimensional Criteria: 2. Minimum New Stair Width Where the total occupant
load of all storeys served by the stair is fewer than 50, the minimum width clear of all
obstructions, except projections not more than one hundred fourteen millimeters (114
mm) at or below handrail height on each side, shall be nine hundred fifteen millimeters
(915 mm).

38. What is the minimum clear width of hallway under BP334?

a. 0.90m c. 1.10m

b. 1.00m d. 1.20m

- Based on Accessibility Law (Batas Pambansa Bilang 344) and its Amended
Implementing Rules and Regulations in Philippines: Appendix A - Minimum Requirements
for Accessibility on page 19 of 22, on number 6. Doors - Section 4 states that where a
door shall open onto but not into a corridor, the required clear, level space on the corridor
side of the door may be a minimum of 1.20 m. corridor width

39. Dimensions of Doors and Windows conforming to accessibility Law

ans: Door 0.90m x 2.10m

ans: Window 0.90m x 1.20m

- Based on Accessibility Law (Batas Pambansa Bilang 344) and its Amended
Implementing Rules and Regulations in Philippines: Appendix A – Architectural Standard
on BP334 follows same at door and window on NBCP
40. What general conditions of design are important for the aged

a. Size, location, design c. Grab bar

b. Height of lavatory is from the waist d. All of the above

- No stated specific answer on any Laws, IIR and other condition, including
Timesavers.

1-78 QUESTIONNAIRES

41. What is the minimum floor area of the water closet stalls for the handicapped?
a. 1.70 x 1.80m c. 1.50 x 2.25m
b. 1.50 x 1.70m d. 1.70 x 1.90m

According to BP 344, Appendix A: Accessible water closet stalls shall have a minimum
area of 1.70 x 1.80 meters. One movable grab bar and one fixed to the adjacent wall shall
be installed at the accessible water closet stall for lateral mounting; fixed grab bars on
both sides of the wall shall be installed for stalls for frontal mounting.

42. What is the height of lighting switches?

a. 1.50m c. 1.20 to 1.30m
b. 0.90 to 1.20m d. 1.30 to 1.40m

According to BP 344, Appendix A: Manual switches shall be positioned within 1.20m to

1.30m above the floor.

43. Minimum door width for hospital nursing units.

a. 1.20m c. 1.05m
b. 0.80m d. 1.50m

According to BP 344, Appendix A: All doors shall have a minimum clear width of 0.80 m.

44. What is the minimum width of a door considering BP 344 only?

a. 0.80m c. 0.70m
b. 0.90m d. 1.00m

According to BP 344, Appendix A: All doors shall have a minimum clear width of 0.80 m.
45. Considering PD 1096, what is the maximum Door Leaf width?
a. 0.90m c. 1.10m
b. 1.00m d. 1.20m

According to PD 1096, Chapter 12 - GENERAL DESIGN AND CONSTRUCTION

REQUIREMENTS, Section 1207 - Stairs, Exits, and Occupant Loads; (4) Door Leaf
Width. No leaf of an exit door shall exceed 1.20 meters in width.

46. What is a Central Refuge?Midcrossing shelter

According to BP 344, Appendix A: Crossings should have central refuges of at least 1.50
m in depth and preferably 2.00 m, provided as a midcrossing shelter, where the width of
carriageway to be crossed exceeds 10 m.
47. When is a Central Refuge required?When carriageway exceeds 10m

According to BP 344, Appendix A: Crossings should have central refuges of at least 1.50
m in depth and preferably 2.00 m, provided as a midcrossing shelter, where the width of
carriageway to be crossed exceeds 10 m.

48. What should be provided in the immediate vicinity of crossings as an aid to the
blind?Tactile blocks

According to BP 344, Appendix A: Crossings should provide tactile blocks in the

immediate vicinity of crossings as an aid to the blind. The tactile surface has to be
sufficiently high enough to be felt through the sole of the shoe but low enough not to
cause pedestrian to trip, or to effect the mobility of wheelchair users.

49. What is the minimum depth of a Central Refuge?

a. 1.00m c. 2.00m
b. 1.50m d. 2.20m

According to BP 344, Appendix A: Crossings should have central refuges of at least 1.50
m in depth and preferably 2.00 m, provided as a midcrossing shelter, where the width of
carriageway to be crossed exceeds 10 m.

50. From BP 344, what is the maximum width of a carriageway where a central
refuge is not required?
a. 6.00m c. 10.00m
b. 8.00m d. 12.00m

According to BP 344, Appendix A: Crossings should have central refuges of at least 1.50
m in depth and preferably 2.00 m, provided as a midcrossing shelter, where the width of
carriageway to be crossed exceeds 10 m.
STRUCTURAL EXIT EXAM
a. diameter
1. In T-beam construction, the flange and web being b. radius
built integrally, the width of the slab effective as T- c. height
beam flange shall not exceed one quarter of the d. none of these
span length of the beam and the effective
overhanging flange width on each side of the web 7. Two forces equal in magnitude and oppositely
shall not exceed: directed is called

a. eight times the slab thickness a. moment
b. one-half the clear distance to the next web b. couple
c. smaller of the above c. reaction
d. 500mm d. equilibrant

2, Which of the following criteria for bundled bars do 8. A force system to be in static equilibrium, the
not apply? algebraic sum of the forces along any direction

a. bars larger than 32mm shall not be bundled in a. minimum
beams b. 100%
b. bundle bars shall be enclosed within stirrups or c. maximum
ties d. zero
c. group of parallel reinforcing bars bundled in
contact to act as a unit shall be limited to four in any 9. What is the minimum requirement for
one bundle development for at least 1/3 of the total
d. individual bars within a bundle terminated within reinforcement provided for the negative moment as
the span of flexural members shall terminate at an embedment length beyond the point of infection
different points with at least 40db staggered.
a. not less than the effective depth of member of 12
th
3. A wall that holds back on earth embankment db or 1/16 the clear span, whichever is greater
th
b. L/3 + D OR 24 db or 1/12 the clear span,
a. shoring wall whichever is greater
th
b. retaining wall c. Not less than 1.5 d or 14 db or 1/12 the clear
c. buttress wall span, whichever is greater
th
d. foundation wall d. L/4 2D OR 12 db or 1/12 the clear span,
whichever is greater
4. The process of removing concrete forms from the
cured concrete 10. What is a round, steel bolt embedded in concrete
or masonry use to hold down machinery, steel
a. stripping columns or beams, castings, shoes, beam plates and
b. deforming works engine heads?
c. clearing
d. none of these a. Retaining bolts
b. Foundation bolts
5. Maximum usable strain at extreme concrete c. Anchor bolts
compression fiber shall be assumed to be equal to d. Friction bolts

a. 0.001 11. The ultimate strength of the material divided by
b. 0.002 the allowable working load
c. 0.003
d. 0.004 a. Maximum strength
b. strength limit
6. To find the volume of water in a cylinder tank, c. safety factor
multiply the area of its base by its d. none of these
12. The stress per square unit area of the original 17.The standard hooks for the stirrups and ties shall
cross section of a material which resists its mean
elongation is
a. a 90-degree bend plus 6 db extension at the free
a. allowable stress end of bar, for 16mm bar and smaller
b. tensile stress b. a 90-degree bend plus 12 db extension at the free
c. flexural stress end of bar, for 20mm bar and and 25mm bar
d. bending stress c. a 135-degree bend plus 6 db extension at the free
end of bar, for 25mm bar and smaller
13. What is the minimum concrete cover for primary d. All of the above
reinforcement of beams or columns not exposed to
earth or water for precast manufactured under plant 18. Inside diameter of bend for stirrups and ties for
control conditions? 16mm bar and smaller shall not be less than

a. db but not less than 25mm a. 4 db
b. db but not less than 15mm and need not exceed b. 6 db
40 mm c. 8 db
c. db but not less than 20mm and not to exceed d. 10 db
50mm
d. db but not less than 30mm 19 Ratio of unit stress to unit strain is:

14. What is a steel element such as wire, cable, bar, a. Ratio and proportion
rod or strand, or a bundle of such elements _______ b. Modulus of Elasticity
prestress forces to concrete? c. Moment of Inertia
d. Slenderness Ratio
a. prestress cables
b. reinforcement 20. Aggregates should conform to PNS or ASTM
c. tenon cables standards and must be well graded, easy workability
d. tendon and method of consolidated are such that the
concrete can be poured without honeycomb or
15. It is a circular beam that transmit power to the voids. What is the nominal maximum size of a course
machinery aggregate when working spaces between
reinforcements for proper bonding?
a. shaft
b. spandrel a. Course aggregates shall be no longer than ½ the
c. rafter minimum clear spacing between individual
d. lintel reinforcing bars or wires, bundles or bars, or
prestressing tendons or ducts
16. It is the arrangement of any two or more forces b. Course aggregates shall be no longer than 5/8 the
that act on a body or on a group of related bodies minimum clear spacing between individual
reinforcing bars or wires, bundles or bars, or
a. Force system prestressing tendons or ducts
b. transmissibility c. Course aggregates shall be no longer than 7/8 the
c. reluctant minimum clear spacing between individual
d. equilibrium reinforcing bars or wires, bundles or bars, or
prestressing tendons or ducts
d. Course aggregates shall be no longer than 3/4 the
minimum clear spacing between individual
reinforcing bars or wires, bundles or bars, or
prestressing tendons or ducts


21. As tie reinforcements for compression, all b. Elongation
nonprestressed bars shall be enclosed by lateral ties, c. Equal forces
at least 10mm in size for longitudinal bars, 32mm or d. Modulus of Elasticity
smaller, and at least _____ in size for 36 mm and
bundled longitudinal bars 26. Slab thickness for joist construction shall not be
less than one-twelfth the clear distances between
a. 12mm ribs nor less than
b. 15mm
c. 20mm a. 50mm
d. 22mm b. 75mm
c. 100mm
22. A brochure of a steel bar manufacturers claims d. 125mm
the following specs, Yield strength=275MPa, tensile
strength = 480 MPa. A sample of 32mm x1000mm 27. It is designed to resist lateral forces parallel to
long steel bar was cut for sampling with the the plane of the wall:
following test results: yield stress = 28.54kg/sq.mm.
Ultimate Sterss= 50.55kg/sq.mm. Judge the actual a. Bearing wall
test result against what is claimed in the brochure d. curtain wall
and if test results meet minimum PS standards c. grade wall
d. shear wall
a. The test result surpasses the claims on the
brochure and surpasses PS standards 28. The section at which the moment changes from
b. The test results is below the claims in the positive to negative is called:
brochure but surpasses PS standards
c. The test results are equal to the claims on the a. neutral axis
brochure b. inflection point
d. The tests results is below the claims in the c. point of zero shear
brochure and below the PS standard d. maximum moment

23. How is 90-degere bend standard hook for 29. In column, the ratio of its effective length to its
concrete reinforcement constructed? least radius of gyration is called;

a. 90 degree bend plus 10db extension, at free end a. moment of inertia
of the bar b. development length
b. 90 degree bend plus 12db extension, at free end c. slenderness ratio
of the bar d. ratio and proportion
c. 90 degree bend plus 6db extension, at free end of
the bar 30. A joint where two successive placement of
d. 90 degree bend plus 4db extension, at free end of concrete meet is called
the bar
a. truss joint
24. The steel materials are to be butt joined using a b. contraction joint
fillet weld. The thicker material is 8.5mm. What is c. construction joint
the minimum size of the fillet weld? d. expansion joint

a. 3.0mm 31. Depth of footing above bottom reinforcement
b. 7.5mm shall not be less than 150mm for footing on soil, nor
c. 6.0mm less than ______ for footing on piles
d. 5.0mm
a. 200mm
25. In formula e=PL/AE, E stands for: b. 300mm
c. 250mm
a. Total deformation d. 400mm
32. Loads that change position within the span of a 38. A. structural member spanning from truss-to-
beam in short amount of time. These loads are often truss or supporting rafters.
exemplified by wheel loads.
a. floor joist
a. varying loads b. purlin
b. snow loads c. girt
c. dead loads d. girder
d. moving loads
39. It is a twisting force that rotates or tends to
33. A bended rust to resist shear and diagonal rotate a shaft
stresses in a concrete beam is called
a. dead load
a. bottom bar b. elasticity
b. stirrups c. stress
c. metal plate d. torque
d. temperature bar
40. It is synonym to bending stress
34. Walls that support weight from above as well as
their own dead weight a. flexural stress
b. torsional stress
a. load bearing walls c. tangential stress
b. curtain walls d. normal stress
c. shoring walls
d. none of these 41. a standard hook may consist of a 180 deg. bend
plus a 4db extension (at free end) not less than
35. Which statement is flase?
a. 55mm
a. development length of main reinforcements is b. 60mm
always a function of the reinforcement diameter c. 75mm
b. transverse reinforcements provide additional d. 85mm
flexural support
c. spiral hoops have stronger confining effect than 42. The major horizontal supporting member of the
ties floor system is called
d. none of the above
a. rafter
36. a point in each normal section of member b. purlin
through which the axis passes and about which the c. girder
section twists d. girt

a. centroid 43. a wall which support a vertical loads in addition
b. shear center to its weight without the benefit of a complete
c. center of gravity vertical load carrying space frame is called
d. none of the above
a. retaining wall
37. A quantity which measure the resistance of the b. curtain wall
mass to being revolved about line is called c. shearing wall
d. bearing wall
a. tension
b. torsion
c. variation
d. deflection


44. a standard 90 degree hook consists of a bend 49. Splices in spiral reinforcement shall be lap splices
plus and extension of of 48db but not less than

a. 8db a. 300mm
b. 10db b. 300mm
c. 12db c. 500mm
d. 16db d. 600mm

45. For offset bent longitudinal bars, the horizontal 50. stone placed on a slope to prevent erosion
support at offset bends shall be provided by lateral
ties, spiral or parts of the floor construction. a. rip rap
Horizontal support provided shall be designed to b. flag stone
resist 1-1/2 times the horizontal component of the c. embankment
computed force in the inclined portion of an offset d. border stone
bar. Lateral ties or spiral shall be placed not more
than _____ from points of bend 51. In any one bundle, groups of parallel reinforcing
bars bundled in contract to act as a unit shall be
a. 100mm limited to a maximum of
b. 150mm
c. 200mm a. three
d. 250mm b. four
c. five
46. The greatest stress which a material is capable of d. six
developing without a permanent deformation
remaining upon the complete release of stress is 52. it is a single force, or a force and a couple which
called acting alone will produce the same effect as the
force system
a. allowable stress
b. moment of interia a force
c. bending stress b. resultant
d. proportional limit c. equilibrium
d. transmissibility
47. the failure in a base when a heavily loaded 53. A horizontal piece of wood, stone, steel or
column strikes a hole through is called concrete across the top of door or window opening
to bear the weight of the walls above the opening
a. flexural stress
b. punching moment a. lintel
c. punching shear b. transom beam
d. single shear c. transverse rafter
d. none of these
48. Bundled bars shall be enclosed within supports
or ties but bars larger than the size below shall not 54. Underwater watertight chamber to allow
be bundled in beams. construction work to be done

a. 40mm a. bent chamber
b.36mm b. submersible air chamber
c. 32mm c. caisson
d. 28mm d. none of these




55. When a beam is loads, the new position of its 60. The minimum thickness of non-prestressed
longitudinal centroid axis is called beams of span L whose supports are simply
supported
a. deflected shape
b. parabolic curve a. L/16
c. elastic curve b. L/18.50
d. inelastic curve c. L/2
d. L/8
56. What is a design analysis requirement,
considered as basis for the structural design of 61. Which of the following criterion precludes good
building and structures where the total lateral forces condition practice for conduits and pipes embedded
are distributed to various vertical elements of the in concrete
lateral force-resisting system in proportion to their
rigidities considering the rigidity of the horizontal a. conduits and pipes embedded is slab, wall or
bracing system or diaphragm? beam shall not be larger in outside dimension than
1/3 the overall thickness of slab, wall or beam in
a. shear and moment diagram which they are embedded
b. distribution of horizontal shear b. reinforcement with an area not less than 0.002
c. stability against overturning times area of cross-section shall be provided normal
d. horizontal torsional moments to piping
c. conduits and pipes, with their fittings embedded
57. The actual stress in a material under a given within the column shall not displace more than 5% of
loading the area of cross section which strength is calculated
d. concrete cover for pipes, conduits, and fittings
a. working stress shall not be less than 40mm for concrete exposed to
b. axial stress each of the weather
c. bending stress
d. allowable stress 62. The most important component to determine
the strength of a concrete mix is
58. Where parallel reinforcement is placed in two or
more layers, bars in the upper layers shall be placed a. cement
directly above bars in the bottom layer with clear b. sand
distance between layers not less than c. gravel
d. lime
a. 20mm c. 30mm
b. 25mm d. 40mm 63. The greatest stretching stress a structural
member can bear without cracking or breaking
59. In spirally reinforced or tied reinforcement
compression members, clear distance between a. tension limit
longitudinal (vertical) bars shall not be less than b. tensile stress
40mm nor c. elasticity limit
d. none of these
a. 1.5db
b. 2.0db 64. A beam that project beyond one or both its
c. 5.0db support is called
d. 1.0db
a. overhanging beam
b. continuous beam
c. intermediate beam
d. cantilevered beam


65. How is camber treated in a steel truss 25 meters 70. A composite member with laterally tied concrete
and longer around a steel core (of design yield strength not to
exceed 350MPa) shall have vertical shaping of lateral
a. camber shall be approximately equal to 1% of the ties shall not exceed
span
b. camber shall be approximately equal to the dead a. 16 longitudinal bar diameter or 48 tie diameter
load deflection b. ½ times the least side dimension of the composite
c. camber shall be approximately equal to 0.8% member
d. camber shall be approximately equal to 0.5% of c. any of the above
the span plus ½ the live load deflection d. none of the above

66. It refers to occupancy load which is either 71. It means that by which a body develops internal
partially or fully in place or may not be present at all resistance to stress
is called
a. strain
a. live load b. strength
b. dead load c. slenderness
c. concentrated load d. stress
d. distributed load
72. One-way concrete slab are used when:
67. What is the method of analyzing indeterminate
modular building frames by assuming hinges at the a. The slab is being supported by two parallel beams
center of the beam, spans and column height b. The slab has no cantilevered portion
c. The concrete slab is reinforced on the near bottom
a. cantilever method side
b. moment distribution method d. The concrete slab is sloping to the all side
c. free body diagram method
d. portal method 73. In joist construction, consisting of monolithic
combination of regularly spaced ribs and a top slab,
68. Which of the following criterion is NOT the ribs shall not be less than 100mm in width and
applicable for plug and slot welds? shall have a depth of not more than ______ times
the minimum width of rib
a. the thickness of plug/slot welds in material 16mm
or less in thickness shall be equal to the thickness of a. 2
the material b. 2-1/2
b. the minimum center to center spacing in a c. 3
longitudinal direction on any line shall be 2 times the d. 3-1/2
length of the slot
c. the thickness of plug or slot welds in material over 74. Again, for joist construction, the clear spacing
16mm in thickness shall be at least ½ times the of between ribs shall not exceed
the material but not less than 16mm
d. the width of the slot shall not be less than the a. 250mm
thickness of the part containing it plus 8mm nor shall b. 750mm
it be greater than 2-1/2 times the thickness of the c. 50mm
weld d. 1000mm

69. The minimum clear spacing between parallel
bars in a layer shall be db but not less than

a. 20mm
b. 25mm
c. 40mm
d. 50mm
75. As a seismic requirement for flexural members 80. Any material change in shape when subjected to
where hoops are required. How are the remaining the action of force is called
portions of a beam treated with transverse
reinforcement other than those required with a. reflection
hoops? b. deflection
c. deformation
a. Where hoops are not required, stirrups shall be d. acceleration
spaced at no more than d/2 throughout the length of
the member 81. For normal weight concrete, the modulus of
b. Where the hoops are required, corss ties shall be elasticity of concrete Ec, may be taken as
spaced at no more than d/3 throughout the length of
the member a. 1700√𝑓𝑐′
c. Where hoops are not required, hoops shall b. 2700 𝑓𝑐 %
continue except that spacing shall not be more than
c. 3700 𝑓𝑐 %
d/2
d. 4700√𝑓𝑐′
d. Where hoops are not required, closed stirrups

shall be spaced at no more than d/4 throughout the
82. An expansion joints adjacent parts of a structure
length of the member
to permit expected movements between them is

called
76. What is a concrete beam placed directly on the

ground to provide foundation for the superstructure
a. contraction joint

b. truss joint
a. strap beam
c. construction joint
b. Gerber beam
d. conduction joint
c. grade beam

d. tie beam
83. The deformation of a structural member as a

result of loads acting on it is called
77. The point in the moment diagram at which the

curvature reverses as it changes from concave to
a. strength
convex is called
b. stress

c. strain
a. point of deflection
d. deflection
b. moment of inertia

c. point of inflection
84. The force adhesion per unit area of contact
d. magnitude
between two bonded surface


78. For beam with a slab on one side only, the
a. Axial stress
effective overhanging flange width shall not exceed
b. Bond stress

c. Allowable stress
a. 1/12 the span length of the beam
d. Flexural stress
b. 6 times the slab thickness

c. ½ the clear distance to the next web
85. A kind of roof that has four sloping sides
d. any of the above


a. gable roof c. hip roof
79. The tendency for one part of a beam to move
b. mansard roof d. lean roof
vertically with respect to an adjacent part is called


86. A type of concrete floor which has no beam is
a. shear
called:
b. moment

c. force
a. flat slab c. one-way slab
d. strength
b. 2-way slab d. ribbed floor


87. A concrete slab should have a minimum
clearance of

a. 20mm
b. 40mm
c. 15mm
d. 30mm

88. In walls and slabs other than concrete joist
construction, primary flexural reinforcement shall
bespaced not farther apart than three times the wall
or slab thickness, nor

a. 300mm
b. 400mm
c. 450mm
d. 550mm



89. If the depth of web exceeds 900mm longitudinal
skin reinforcement shall be uniformly distributed
along both side faces fo the members for the
distance d/2 nearest the flexural tension
reinforcement. The maximum spacing of the skin
reinforcement shall not exceed the lesser of the
d/6 and 300mm. The total area of the longitudinal
skin reinforcement in both faces need not exceed
_______ of the required flexural tension
reinforcement

a. ¼
b. 1/3
c. ½
d. 2/3

90. The connection between two structural elements
joined at their ends to form a single, longer element

a. splice
b. stiffness
c. stress
d. slender action










STRUCTURAL OT-cont’d forces, Q, during the deformation caused by the P
forces?
1. Ratio of the sliding force required to the weight of
the material being pushed. It is the measure of the a. Hooke’s Law
resistance to the sliding of one material resting on b. Pythagorean theorem
another. c. Varignon’s Theorem
d. Betti’s Law
a. Sliding Coefficient
b. Coefficient of restitution 7. Snow loads, wind, pressure suction and
c. Factor of Safety earthquake loads and the like are what types of
d. Coefficient of Friction loads?

2. For a force system to be in static equilibrium, the a. Dead Loads
algebraic summation of forces is: b. Live Loads
c. Seismic Loads
a. 100% d. Environmental Loads
b. minimum
c. maximum 8. This states that the external effect of a force on a
d. zero body is the same for all points of application along its
line of action) i.e., it is independent of the point of
3. Two forces equal in magnitude but oppositely application.
directed and produce moment is called
a. Principle of Compatability
a. torque b. Principle of Transmissibility of a Force
b. Moment c. Principle of Action and Reaction
c. Couple d. Principle of Moment]
d. coupling
9. Among the following axioms of mechanics, which
4. “A force may be moved anywhere along its line of of the following is INCORRECT?
action without producing a change in external
effect.” This statement is a. The parallelogram law: The resultant of two forces
is the diagonal of the parallelogram formed on the
a. true vectors of these forces.
b. false b. Two forces are in equilibrium only when equal in
c. maybe magnitude, opposite in direction, and collinear in
d. not sure action
c. A set of forces in equilibrium may be added to any
5. What states the “the moment of the resultant of 2 system of forces thus changing the effect of the
concurrent forces about any axis ⊥ to the plane of original system
forces is equal to the algebraic sum of the moments d. Action and reaction forces are equal but
of the 2 forces about the same axis”? oppositely directed.

a. Hooke’s Law 10. An elevator cable will have its greatest tension
b. Pythagorean theorem when the elevator car is moving
c. Varignon’s Theorem
d. Betti’s Law a. downward but coming to rest
b. upward at a constant speed
6. In a structure whose material follows Hooke’s Law c. upward at a constant speed
and in which the supports are unyielding and the d. downward at a constant speed
temperature is constant, what law states that the
external virtual work done by a system of forces, P,
during the deformation caused by a system of forces,
Q, is equal to the virtual work done by a system of
11. Calculate the “second moment of area” of a 16. It is a type of truss having both vertical and
rectangular section with base of 50mm and height of diagonal members between the upper and lower
100mm. chords, with the diagonals sloping toward the
center.
4
a. 5000 mm
4
b. 500000 mm a. Fink truss
4
c. 4166667 mm b. pratt truss
4
d. 343333 mm c. arch truss

d. warren truss
12. These are referred to permanent loads or
unmovable loads. 17. It states that stress is proportional to strain.

a. dead loads a. Pascal’s law
b. live loads b. Law of Gravity
c. seismic loads c. Hooke’s Law
d. environmental loads d. Varignon’s Theorem

18. The normal force exerted by a smooth horizontal
surface towards a 100-lb block acting on it is

a. 100 lbs
b. zero
c. 50 lbs
d. 200 lbs

19. It refers to occupancy load which is either
partially or fully in place or may not be present at all
is called:
13 – 15. A plane truss as shown in the figure is acted
upon by 480 N downward load at joints C and E and a. Dead Loads
a 1200 N load at J directed as shown. b. Live Loads
c. Seismic Loads
13. Find the reaction at G d. Environmental Loads

a. 512 N 20. Ratio of unit stress to unit strain
b. 1132 N
c. 811 N a. Moment of Inertia
d. 625 N b. modulus of rigidity
c. modulus of elasticity
14. Find the vertical reaction at A. d. slenderness ratio

a. 512 N
b. 1132 N
c. 1954 N
d. 998 N

15. Find the force acting on member AH.

a. 2678 N
b. 2351 N
c. 1954 N
d. 998 N

REINFORCED CONCRETE DESIGN
7. What method of pre-stressing in which tendons
1. The maximum moment of a simply supported are tensioned before concrete is cast in place?
beam whose span length is L, in meter, carrying a
uniformly distributed load of w in N/m, is: a. Pre-tensioning
b. Pre-poisoning
2
a. wL /2 c. Pre-casting
2
b. wL /2 d. Pre-stressing
2
c. wL /8
2
d. wL /10 8. This refers to the substance other than aggregate,
cement or water added in small quantity normally
2. Loads that are movable or replaceable on less than 5% of the weight cement, to alter the
structure are known as: properties of the concrete mix or the hardened solid.

a. dead load a. grout
b. live load b. inert materials
c. seismic load c. steel bars
d. envtl load d. admixture

3. It is one in which the lateral stiffness is less than II. NSCP
70% of the stiffness of the story above it?
9. The minimum bend diameter for 10mm ∅ through
a. soft story 25mm ∅ bars
b. weak story
c. story drift a. 12db
d. ordinary moment resisting system b. 6db
c. 10db
4. A horizontal or nearly horizontal system acting to d. 8db
transmit lateral forces to the vertical resisting
elements. It includes horizontal bracing system. 10. Bars larger than ____mm shall not be bundled in
beams.
a. Shear wall chord
b. Boundary elements a. 25mm
c. Diaphragm b. 16mm
d. Dual system c. 28mm
d. 36mm
5. These are inert material used in concrete which
occupy more than 75% of the volume of the 11. Minimum concrete cover cast against and
hardened concrete product. permanently exposed to earth

a. Sand a. 500mm
b. Gravel b. 75mm
c. Debris c. 100mm
d. Aggregates d. 150mm

6. Steel elements such as wire, cables, bars, rods or 12. In ultimate strength design, the strength
strands of wires or a bundle of such elements used in reduction factor ∅ for shear and torsion
pre-stressed concrete structures are called:
a. 0.70
a. hangers b. 0.75
b. stirrups c. 0.85
c. bundled bars d. 0.90
d. tendons
13. The minimum one way slab thickness for a BOTH 19. The allowable deflection for any structural
ends continuous slab is member loaded with dead load and live load only.

a. L/20 a. L/200
b. L/24 b. L/240
c. L/10 c. L/300
d. L/28 d. L/360

14. Deep simple span flexural members has overall 20. Spacing for a lateral support for a beam shall not
depth to clear span ratio greater than exceed _____ times the least width b of compression
flange or face.
a. 0.40
b. 0.60 a. 30
c. 0.70 b. 40
d. 0.75 c. 50
e. None of the above d. 60

15. Before commencing the excavation work, the III. MISCELLANEOUS
person making the excavation shall notify in writing
the owner of the adjoining building not less than 21. It is an isolated column of masonry or a bearing
____ days before such excavation is to be made. wall not bonded at the sides into associated
masonry, when its horizontal dimension measured
a. 10 days the right angles or the thickness does not exceed
b. 15 days four times its thickness.
c. 30 days
d. 45 days a. pedestal
b. pier
16. The maximum spacing of ties and spirals in a c. slender column
driven pre-cast concrete pile center to center. d. wall

a. 75mm 22. Method of pre-stressing in which tendons are
b. 100mm tensioned after concrete has hardened.
c. 125mm
d. 150mm a. pre-stressing
b. pre-tensioning
17. Aviation control towers fall to what type of c. post-tensioning
occupancy? d. pre-casting

a. special occupancy structures 23. A material, other than aggregate, cementitious
b. essential facilities material or water, added in small quantities to the
c. hazardous facilities mix in order to produce some (desired)
d. standard occupancy modifications, either to the properties of the mix or
of the hardened product.
18. The allowable deflection for any structural
member loaded with live load only. a. admixture
b. accelerator
a. L/200 c. hydraulic cement
b. L/240 d. air entraining agent
c. L/300
d. L/360



24. A simply supported beam, L meters long, carrying other elements of roof systems, which use bitumen
a uniformly distributed load of w in N/m, produces a or other materials as the cementing agent.
maximum shear force of:
a. Bond
a. wL/2 b. Shear
2
b. wL /4 c. Bend
2
c. 1/2wL d. Epoxy
2
d. 1/8 wL

31. A wall that resists horizontal forces applied in the
25. Structures that are subjected to transverse loads plane of the wall.
are called:
a. Bearing wall
a. tie rods b. Shear wall
b. piles c. dike
c. columns d. dam
d. beams
32. If the ratio of the short direction to the long
26. Members that are generally vertical, subjected to direction of a slab is less than 0.5, then the slab is
compressive loads, sometimes with bending, are considered:
called:
a. two-way slab
a. trusses b. flat slab
b. columns c. ground slab
c. towers d. one-way slab
d. beams
33. In ultimate strength design, the reduction factor
27. These are referred to permanent loads or ∅ for bending is:
unmovable loads.
a. 0.6
a. Dead Loads b. 0.7
b. Seismic Loads c. 0.8
c. Live Loads d. 0.9
d. Environmental Loads
34. The actual strain by which a concrete fails is
28. Loads that change position within the span of a 0.004. For safety purposes, the ACI code allows
beam in short amount of time. These loads are often designers to use:
exemplified by wheel loads.
a. 0.001
a. Dead Loads b. 0.002
b. Snow loads c. 0.003
c. Varying loads d. 0.004
d. Moving loads
35. The minimum clear cover allowed by the code
29. It is a synonym to bending stress. for slabs, not exposed to weather is:

a. normal stress a. 20mm
b. tangential stress b. 30mm
c. flexural stress c. 40mm
d. torsional stress d. 75mm

30. Adherence between materials such as
bricks/mortar, or piles of felt, of between felts and
36. A number 8(#8 steel reinforcing bar) has a 42. The steel ratio, p for spiral columns ranges from
diameter of:
a. 0.10-0.80
a. 16mm b. 0.01-0.08
b.20mm c. 0.001-0.008
c. 25mm d. 0.0001-0.0008
d. 28mm
43. The temperature bars are 10-mm diameter steel
37. What do you call those structures that are bars placed on top and perpendicular to the main
necessary for emergency operations subsequent to a reinforcement of:
natural disaster?
a. beams
a. essential facilities b. spread footings
b. hazardous facilities c. two-way slabs
c. special occupancy structures d. one-way slabs
d. standard occupancy structures
44. Which is the correct factored load for Strength
38. It is one in which the lateral stiffness is less than Design Method?
70% of the stiffness of the story above or less than
80% of the average stiffness of the three stories a. 1.4 DL + 1.7LL + 1.4 EL
above. b. 1.4 DL + 1.7LL + 1.7 EL
c. 1.4 DL + 1.7LL ß 2001
a. weak story d. 1.4 DL + 1.7EL
b. soft story
c. story drift P.S. 2010 – 1.2DL + 1.6LL
d. multi-story
45. It is defined as the unit strength of a material
39. A structural system without a complete vertical
load-carrying space frame a. Rigidity
b. Hardness
a. shear wall system c. Stress
b. bearing wall system d. Stiffness
c. bracing system
d. frame 46. The stress developed when the applied load
causes adjacent sections within a body to slide past
40. The minimum reinforcing steel for Spiral Columns each other.
allowed by the ACI Code is:
a. axial stress
a. 4-16mm-diameter bars b. bearing stress
b. 6-16mm-diameter bars c. shearing stress
c. 6-25mm-diameter bars d. flexural stress
d. 4-25mm-diameter bars
47.It is the contact pressure developed two bodies.
41. The ACI Code states that “bars larger than #11
should not be bundled in beams or girders”. This a. bearing stress
means that one should not bundle the steel bars if b. thermal stress
the diameter is larger than: c. allowable stress
d. strain
a. 36mm
b. 34mm
c. 32mm
d. None of the Above

48. The stress induced as a result of restrained
deformations due to changes in temperature.

a. rupture stress
b. thermal stress
c. yield stress
d. creep

49. The actual stress in a material under a given
loading.

a. axial stress
b. bending stress
c. allowable stress
d. working stress

50. It is the maximum safe stress that a material can
withstand

a. ultimate stress
b. allowable stress
c. rupture stress
d. strain






























CONSTRUCTION MATERIALS, METHODS & 7. Important property of concrete to be able to
EQUIPMENTS withstand deterioration due to weathering action

1. A testing machine that may be used to conduct a. workability
tensile, compressive, bend, and shear test. b. strength
c. durability
a. L.A. Abrasion Machine d. impermeability
b. Stability Machine
c. Brinell Testing Machine 8. The case in which a uniform mass of freshly mixed
d. Universal Testing Machine concrete can be moved without segregation into
final position in which the concrete is allowed to
2. Test that determines the stress level a metal can harden
withstand without failure when subjected to an
infinitely large number of repeated alternating a. workability
stresses b. strength
c. durability
a. hardness d. impermeability
b. fatigue
c. tension 9. Test that manifests the resistance of cement
d. bending against deformation caused by temperature change.

3. Test that determines the resistance of a metal to a. compressive
penetration b. soundness
c. time setting
a. hardness d. (di mabasa yung choice)
b. fatigue
c. tension 10. Comprises tests performed by a company
d. bending receiving new supplies ----- that the product meets
the manufacturer’s standard.
4. The minimum stress required to create permanent
deformation in a metal a. research
b. quality assurance
a. tensile strength c. analysis
b. yield strength d. quality control
c. minimum strength
d. ultimate strength 11. Involves test done by a company on their own
product ----- that the product meets the
5. A testing machine that may be used to conduct manufacturer’s standard
hardness test on metals
a. research
a. L.A. Abrasion Machine b. quality assurance
b. Stability Machine c. analysis
c. Brinell Testing Machine d. quality control
d. Universal Testing Machine
12. Required gage length (GL) of the specimen in the
6. The process of treatment of concrete against Tension Test of Rebars
evaporation of moisture and temperature condition
a. 500mm
a. laitance b. 400mm
b. curing c. 300mm
c. proportioning d. 200 mm
d. screeding

13. Structural units cast in molds in a factory that 19. The lifetime of an equipment over which it can
have reinforcing members not under tension as they profitably survive in the face of improved models,
are being cast change in methods and techniques etc.

a. prestressed a. physical life
b. non-prestressed b. economic life
c. pre-tensioned c. profitable life
d. post-tensioned d. productive life

14. Tension is applied to steel reinforcing after the 20. Type of foundation that transmits load to the soil
concrete has been poured and allowed to harden through the footing

a. prestressed a. spread
b. non-prestressed b. caisson
c. pre-tensioned c. pile
d. post-tensioned d. strap

15. Structural units cast in molds in a factory that 21. These are relatively long, slender members that
have stresses introduced as they are being cast or transmit foundation loads thru soil strata or low
after casting. bearing capacity to deeper soil or rock strata having
a high bearing capacity
a. prestresed
b. non-prestressed a. pier
c. pre-tensioned b. footing
d. post-tensioned c. foundation
d. pile
16. The process used to lower the subsurface water
on a site so that the excavation remains dry and 22. Cement which does not only harden by reacting
stable with water but also form a water-resistant product

a. consolidation a. non-hydraulic
b. dewatering b. natural
c. compaction c. hydraulic
d. underpinning d. alumina

17. Construction equipment primarily used for 23. Raw material used to produce cement
lifting, lowering and transporting loads. They move
loads horizontally by swinging or traveling a. slurry
b. limestone
a. crane c. clinker
b. shovel d. slag
c. scraper
d. forklift 24. The measure of the relative fineness of sand

18. Process of bringing earthwork to the desired a. sieve analysis
shape and elevation. b. fineness modulus
c. wash test
a. densification d. abrasion test
b. underpinning
c. backfilling
d. grading

25. This test determines the silt and clay composition
in aggregates. It also indicated the cleanliness of the
aggregates.

a. sieve analysis
b. fineness modulus
c. wash test
d. abrasion test

26. This test evaluates the structural strength of
aggregates

a. sieve analysis
b. fineness modulus
c. wash test
d. abrasion test

27. Moisture condition of an aggregate where the
surface is dry but the voids and interior of the
aggregate are fully saturated.

a. damp
b. oven dry
c. SSD
d. air dry

28. The most important material in concrete which is
held together by cement paste

a. curing
b. aggregates
c. admixture
d. binder

29. A standard test done on reinforcing steel bars to
check its amenability to bending in structural
applications

a. hardness
b. fatigue
c. tension
d. cold bending

30. A mechanical test used to evaluate the tensile
properties of steel

a. hardness
b. fatigue
c. tension
d. bending



AR – BOARD EXAM REVIEW - STRUCTURAL
RC Technology
by: Eng’r. Edgar Cruz, MSCE
Name: _____________________________________ Date: ___________ Score: ______
DIRECTION: Choose the correct answer from the given choices. Write the letter of the correct
answer in the space provided before each number. GOOD LUCK!

IDENTIFICATION: Choose the letter of the correct answer from the choices below.

a_____1. A mixture of water, cement, sand, gravel, or other aggregates.

i_____2. The nominal maximum sizes of coarse aggregate should be greater than _(2)__ the narrowest
j_____3.dimension between sides of forms, _(3)_ the depth of slabs,
g_____4. or _(4)_ the minimum clear spacing between individual reinforcing bars.
y_____5.The shortest length in meters of a commercially available rebar.
m_____6.Aggregates that passes through a No. 4 sieve (about 6mm in size).
o_____7.The nominal diameter of #8 rebar in mm
p_____8.It is the 28th day compressive strength of concrete.
k_____9.The maximum number or rebar in a bundled bar.
n_____10.The longest length in meters of a commercially available rebar.
b_____11.The load factor for a dead load.
d_____12.The load factor for a live load.
d_____13.The load factor for a wind load.
c_____14.A composite member consisting of concrete and reinforcing bars.
t_____15.The strength reduction factor for flexure is ___.
e_____16.The nominal diameter of #3 rebar in mm
q_____17.It is the yield strength of steel rebar.
s_____18.The maximum usable strain for concrete is ___.
h_____19.Aggregates that are retained through a No. 4 sieve (about 6mm in size).
r_____20.The Code limits the tensile steel percentage to ensure what kind of failure?
u_____21.Over reinforced design of concrete will experience what kind of failure?
w_____22. What is the standard weight in kilograms of one bag Portland cement?
l_____23. The value of ß1 if the fc’ is less than 30MPa.
v_____24. The maximum reinforcement ratio provided by the code is taken ___% of p bal.
b_____25. The minimum reinforcement ratio provided by the code is taken ___ / fy.

Choices:
a. concrete b. 1.4 c. reinforced concrete d. 1.7 e. 10
f. 1.87 g. ¾ h. coarse aggregates i. 1/5 j. 1/3
k. 4 l. 0.85 m. fine aggregates n. 12 o. 25
p. Fc’ q. Fy r. ductile s. 0.003 t. 0.9
u. Brittle v. 75 w. 40 x. 1.4 y. 6

TRUE OR FALSE

f_______1.Water coming from clear canals can be mixed in concrete.

t_______2. Reinforcing steel is strong in tension.
t_______3. The higher the water cement ratio, the lower the strength of the concrete.
t_______4. Deformed rebar is better than plain rebar.
f_______5. Tables and chairs inside a classroom is considered Dead Load.
f_______6. Live loads for classrooms are larger than that of the libraries.
f_______7. Elongated gravel is much better than rounded gravel.
t_______8. Under reinforced design is more preferred by designers other than the over reinforced design.
f_______9. A slump of zero means high workability.
t_______10. Concrete is strong in compression
AR – BOARD EXAM REVIEW
REINFORCED CONCRETE DESIGN
Name: ________________________________ Date: ___________ Score: ______
DIRECTION: Choose the correct answer from the given choices. Write the letter of the correct
answer in the space provided before each number. GOOD LUCK!

1. For a reinforced concrete spandrel beam, the effective overhanging flange shall not exceed the smallest
a. 1
/4 Lb
b. 1/12 Lb
c. 8t
d. 6t
2. A reinforced concrete beam simply supported only. b=380mm, h=700mm, cover=80mm, f'c =35Mpa,
fy=400Mpa. Determine the maximum allowable area of the steel reinforcement in mm2.

3. For the reinforced concrete beam shown, what is the depth of the neutral axis from the compression face
at the ultimate strength level?
As = 4000 mm2 f y 7 00 M P a f ' c 3 0
MPa
Mu 619 KN-m

Ans. 110.73 mm
4. What is the mode of failure for short columns at which the concrete reaches its limit strain εu at precisely
the same instant that the tensile steel on the far side of the column reaches yield strain εy?
Answer: Balance Failure

5. Given: Es = 29, 000 ksi

Econcrete = 6, 00 ksi
What is the modular ratio?
Solution:
Es
n=
Ec
29,000
n=
6,000
n = 4.833
Ans. n = 4.833

6. What is the max Vs (shear carried by the stirrups)?

2
Ans. f 'c
3

7. Determine the maximum allowable steel area Asmax ro the rectangular steel section.
f’c= 5000 psi
Fy= 50 000 psi

Ans. Asmax= 9.75 in2

8. Determine the nominal flexural shear strength Mn of the rectangular section. ( answer in ft-kips)

Ans. 398.61 ft-kips

AR – BOARD EXAM REVIEW
REINFORCED CONCRETE DESIGN
Name: ________________________________ Date: ___________ Score: ______
DIRECTION: Choose the correct answer from the given choices. Write the letter of the correct
answer in the space provided before each number. GOOD LUCK!
9. What is the distance from the extreme fiber in compression to the centroid of the tension steel area?
Ans. Effective depth

10. The maximum useable strain at the extreme concrete compression fiber shall
be assumed to be equal to ____
0.003
11. A burried plate, wall or block attached at some distance from and forming an
anchorage for retaining wall.
a. deadman
b. pile
C. curb
d. anchor plate

12. It is a beam especially provided over an opening for a door, window, etc. to carry
the wall over the opening. LINTEL BEAM
13. What will happen to the concrete strength if the water-to-cement ratio decreases?
A) Concrete strength increases, porosity decreases, solid-to-space ratio increases
B) Concrete strength increases, porosity decreases, solid-to-space ratio decreases
C) Concrete strength decreases, porosity increases, solid-to-space ratio increases
D) Concrete strength decreases, porosity increases, solid-to-space ratio decreases
Answer: A

14. What is the property of concrete by which it continues to deform with time under sustained loads at unit
stresses within acceptable elastic range?
a. Shrinkage
b. Creep
c. Elasticity
d. Rigidity
Answer: B

15. Honeycomb structures exhibit:

I. small arches with chain particles
II. has a void ratio of 0.91 for a simple cubic packing
III. has a void ratio of 0.35 for pyramidal packing
IV. Negative relative densities
a. I,II, III only
b. I, III only
c. I, II, III, IV
d. I, IV
e. None of the above
Answer: d

16. What is the condition where the tension steel strain reaches the yielding strain simultaneously with the
concrete reaching the crushing strain which is usually 0.003?
a.under-reinforced
b.over reinforced
c.simply reinforced
d.balanced strain
Answer: D

17. What is a material that has adhesive and cohesive properties enabling it to bound mineral fragments into
a solid mass in the presence of water
a. adhesives
b. hydraulic cement
c. aggregates
d. admixtures
Ans. b.

18. What materials have adhesive and cohesive properties necessary to bond inert aggregates into a solid
mass of adequate strength and durability?
a. Admixtures d. Cementitious Materials
b. Adhering Materials e. None of the above
c. Inorganic Materials
Answer: d. Cementitious Materials

19. What is generated when compounds in cement react with water to acquire stable low-energy states? Give
the specific term.
Answer: Heat of Hydration

20. What compounds reduce the interparticle forces that exist between cement grains in the fresh paste;
thereby increasing the paste fluidity/
AR – BOARD EXAM REVIEW
REINFORCED CONCRETE DESIGN
Name: ________________________________ Date: ___________ Score: ______
DIRECTION: Choose the correct answer from the given choices. Write the letter of the correct
answer in the space provided before each number. GOOD LUCK!
a. Admixtures d. Asphalts
b. Plasticizers e. None of the above
c. Bitumens
Answer: b. Plasticizers

21. In mixes exposed to water, what is the term used to refer to the separation of aggregate from the
bitumen due to the faster adsorption of water on the aggregate surface? Answer: slippage
22. A parameter used for estimating strength of concrete .
a. air entrainment –contains small amount of entrapped air which is present in the form of small
disconnected air bubbles uniformly distributed throughout the mass.
b. water-cement ratio
c. bleeding – natural separation of a liquid from a liquid-solid or semisolid mixture.
d. segregation- keeping apart of process streams, non-uniform distribution of alloying elements,
impurities or microphases, resulting in localized concentrations.
e. none of the above
Ans. b. water-cement ratio

23. It is the property of fresh concrete which is the ability to flow under momentum transfer or under
mechanical stress?
a. air entrainment
b. stability - property of completed mixture that enables it to withstand the stresses
imposed on it by moving wheel loads without sustaining substantial
permanent deformation.
c. mobility
d. placeability
Ans. C. mobility

24.True or False: As water to cement ratio increases, there is progressive weakening due to increase in
porosity.
Ans. True

25. It is a temporary dam-like structure constructed around an excavation to exclude water.

a. cofferdam
b. earth dam
c. excavation wall
d. retaining wall

26. Which of the following is NOT a property of hardened hydraulic cement concrete?
a. economy
b. durability
c. density
d. workability
Ans. D

27. Which of the following properties of aggregates has the LEAST influence to the quality of concrete?
a. grading or maximum comparative sizes of the particles
b. amounts and kinds of impurities in the aggregates
c. color, texture, and shape of the aggregates
d. durability of the aggregates, or their resistance to fire and exposure to weathering
Ans. C

28. Which of the following will minimize the cracking of pavement due to thermal expansion?
a. compaction of subgrade
b. provide expansion joints and sectional pouring of concrete
c. consistency of concrete mixed
d. insurance of strength of materials
I. STRUCTURAL

1. For a force system to be in static equilibrium, the algebraic summation of forces is:
a. 100 % b. minimum c. maximum d. zero

2. The maximum moment of a simply supported beam whose span length is L, in meter, carrying a
uniformly distributed load of w in N/m, is:
a. wL2/2 b. wL2/4 c. wL2/8 d. wL2/10

3. Loads that are movable or replaceable on structure are known as:

a. Dead Load b. Live Load c. Seismic Load d. Envtl Load

4. A large beam supporting a smaller beam is called:

a. Joist b. Girder c. Purlin d. Lintel Beam

5. The modulus of elasticity of structural steel is:

a. 100 GPa b. 200 GPa c. 200 MPa d. 450 GPa

6. What is the force developed in a 50mm x 50mm bar subjected to an axial tensile force of 100N?
a. 100N b. zero c. 0.04 MPa d. 200N

7. It is one in which the lateral stiffness is less than 70% of the stiffness of the story above it.
a. Soft story b. Weak story c. Story drift d. Ordinary moment resisting system

8. A horizontal or nearly horizontal system acting to transmit lateral forces to the vertical resisting
elements. It includes horizontal bracing system.
a. Shear wall chord b. Boundary elements c. Diaphragm d. Dual system

9. These are inert material used in concrete which occupy more than 75% of the volume of the
hardened concrete product.
a. Sand b. Gravel c. Debris d. Aggregates

10. A cantilevered beam, 5m long is loaded with 10KN concentrated load at the free end. What is the
maximum moment developed at the fixed end?
a. 10KN b. 50KN c. 50KNm d. 5KNm

11. Steel elements such as wire, cables, bars, rods or strands of wires or a bundle of such elements
used in pre-stressed concrete structures are called:
a. Hangers b. Stirrups c. Bundled bars d. Tendons

12. What method of pre-stressing in which tendons are tensioned before concrete is cast in place?
a. Pre-tensioning b. Pre-poisoning c. Pre-casting d. Pre-stressing

13. Two forces equal in magnitude but oppositely directed and produce moment, is called:
a. Torque b. Moment c. Couple d. Coupling
14. This refers to the substance other than aggregate, cement or water added in small quantity
normally less than 5% of the weight cement, to alter the properties of the concrete mix or the
hardened solid.
a. Grout b. Inert Materials c. steel bars d. Admixture

15. What do you call the distance between supports?

a. Span b. Moment arm c. Bay length d. Center-center distance

II. NSCP
 1. The minimum bend diameter for 10mm Ǿ through 25mm Ǿ bars
a. 12db b. 6db c. 10db d. 8db

2. Bars larger than ____mm shall not be bundles in beams.

a. 25mm b. 16mm c. 28mm d. 36mm

3. Minimum concrete cover cast against and permanently exposed to earth

a. 50mm b. 75mm c. 100mm d. 150mm

4. In ultimate strength design, the strength reduction factor Ǿ for shear and torsion
a. 0.70 b. 0.75 c. 0.85 d. 0.90

5. The minimum one way slab thickness for a BOTH ends continuous slab is
a. L/20 b. L/24 c. L/10 d. L/28

6. Deep simple span flexural members has overall depth to clear span ratio greater than
a. 0.40 b. 0.60 c. 0.70 d. 0.75 e. None of the above

7. Before commencing the excavation work, the person making the excavation shall notify in writing
the owner of the adjoining building not less than _____ days before such excavation is to be made.
a. 10days b. 15days c. 30days d. 45days

8. The minimum distance that the toe of fill slope made to the site boundary line
a. 0.60m b. 0.80m c. 1.50m d. 2.0m

9. When grillage footings of structural steel shapes are used on soils, they shall completely embedded
in concrete. Concrete cover shall be at least ____mm on the bottom.
a. 10mm b. 12mm c. 200mm d. 250mm

10. The minimum nominal diameter of steel bolts when wood plates or sill shall be bolted to foundation
wall in zone 4 seismic area in the Philippines.
a. 10mm b. 12mm c. 16mm d. 20mm

11. The maximum spacing of ties and spirals in a driven pre-cast concrete pile center to center.
a. 75mm b. 100mm c. 125mm d. 150mm

12. Aviation control towers fall to what type of occupancy?

a. special occupancy structures b. essential facilities
c. hazardous facilities d. standard occupancy

13. The allowable deflection for any structural member loaded with live load only.
a. L/200 b. L/240 c. L/300 d. L/360

14. The allowable deflection for any structural member loaded with dead load and live load only.
a. L/200 b. L/240 c. L/300 d. L/360

15. Spacing for a lateral support for a beam shall not exceed _____ times the least width b of
compression flange or face.
a. 30 b. 40 c. 50 d. 60

III. MISCELLANEOUS
1. It is an isolated column of masonry or a bearing wall not bonded at the sides into associated
masonry, when its horizontal dimension measured the right angles or the thickness does not
exceed four times its thickness.
a. pedestal
b. pier
c. slender column
d. wall

2. Method of pre-stressing in which tendons are tensioned after concrete has hardened.
a. pre-stressing
b. pre-tensioning
c. post-tensioning
d. pre-casting

3. A material, other than aggregate, cementitious material or water, added in small quantities to
the mix in order to produce some (desired) modifications, either to the properties of the mix or
of the hardened product.
a. admixture
b. accelerator
c. hydraulic cement
d. air-entraining agent

4. A simply supported beam, L meters long, carrying a uniformly distributed load of w in N/m,
produces a maximum shear force of:
a. wL/2
b. wL2/4
c. 1/2wL2
d. 1/8wL2

5. Structures that are subjected to transverse loads are called:

a. tie rods
b. piles
c. columns
d. beams

6. It states that Stress is proportional to Strain.

a. Pascal’s Law
b. Law of Gravity
c. Hooke’s Law
d. Varignon’s Theorem

7. Members that are generally vertical, subjected to compressive loads, sometimes with bending
moments, are called:
a. trusses
b. columns
c. towers
d. beams

8. These are referred to permanent loads or unmovable loads.

a. Dead Loads
b. Seismic loads
c. Live loads
d. Environmental Loads

9. A force system to be in static equilibrium, the algebraic sum of the forces along any direction:
a. 100%
 b. Zero
c. Minimum
d. Maximum

10. The normal force exerted by a smooth horizontal surface towards a 100-lb block acting on it is:
a. 100N
b. 100%
c. Zero
d. 100 lbs

11. It is a twisting force that rotates or tends to rotate a shaft.

a. stress
b. dead load
c. elasticity
d. torque

12. Loads that change position within the span of a beam in short amount of time. These loads are
often exemplified by wheel loads.
a. Dead loads
b. Snow loads
c. Varying loads
d. Moving Loads
13. It is synonym to bending stress.
a. normal stress
b. tangential stress
c. flexural stress
d. torsional stress

14. These are used to connect shafts.

a. welds
b. splices
c. steel bolts
d. flanged bolt couplings

15. Adherence between materials such as bricks/mortar, or piles of felt, of between felts and other
elements of roof systems, which use bitumen or other materials as the cementing agent.
a. Bond
b. Shear
c. Bend
d. Epoxy

16. A mixture of aggregate, cement and water, with or without admixtures is called:
a. concrete
b. reinforced concrete
c. pre-cast concrete
d. concrete block

17. A wall that resists horizontal forces applied in the plane of the wall.
a. Bearing wall
b. Shear wall
c. dike
d. dam

18. If the ratio of the short direction to the long direction of a slab is less than 0.5, then the slab is
considered:
a. two-way slab
 b. flat slab
c. ground slab
d. one-way slab

19. In ultimate strength design, the reduction factor Ǿ for bending is:
a. 0.6
b. 0.7
c. 0.8
d. 0.9

20. The actual strain by which a concrete fails is 0.004. For safety purposes, the ACI code allows
designers to use:
a. 0.001
b. 0.002
c. 0.003
d. 0.004

21. The minimum clear cover allowed by the code for slabs, not exposed to weather is:
a. 20mm
b. 30mm
c. 40mm
d. 75mm

22. A number 8(#8 steel reinforcing bar) has a diameter of:

a. 16mm
b. 20mm
c. 25mm
d. 28mm

23. What do you call those structures that are necessary for emergency operations subsequent to a
natural disaster?
a. essential facilities
b. hazardous facilities
c. special occupancy structures
d. standard occupancy structures

24. It is one in which the lateral stiffness is less than 70% of the stiffness of the story above or less
than 80% of the average stiffness of the three stories above.
a. weak story
b. soft story
c. story drift
d. multi-story

25. A structural system without a complete vertical load-carrying space frame.

a. shear wall system
b. bearing wall system
c. bracing system
d. frame

26. The minimum size of fillet weld is:

a. 3mm
b. 5mm
c. 6mm
d. 12mm
27. A cantilever beam whose length is 4 m, loaded with a concentrated load 20 KN at the free end,
produces a maximum bending moment of:
a. 20 KNm
b. 40 KNm
c. 60 KNm
d. 80 KNm

28. Two forces equal in magnitude and oppositely directed is called:

a. couple
b. reaction
c. equilibrant
d. moment

29. The minimum reinforcing steel for Spiral Columns allowed by the ACI Code is:
a. 4-16mm-diameter bars
b. 6-16mm-diameter bars
c. 6-25mm-diameter bars
d. 4-25mm-diameter bars

30. It is a point in a beam or column where there is no moment developed.

a. midspan
b. d-distance from support
c. point of zero shear
d. point of inflection

31. The ACI Code states that “bars larger than #11 should not be bundled in beams or girders”.
This means that one should not bundle the steel bars if the diameter is larger than:
a. 36mm c. 32mm
b. 34mm d. None of the Above

32. The steel ratio, ρ for spiral columns ranges from

a. 0.10-0.80
b. 0.01-0.08
c. 0.001-0.008
d. 0.0001-0.0008

33. The temperature bars are 10-mm diameter steel bars placed on top and perpendicular to the
main reinforcement of:
a. beams
b. spread footings
c. two-way slabs
d. one-way slabs

34. Which is the correct factored load for Strength Design Method?
a. 1.4 DL + 1.7 LL + 1.4 EL
b. 1.7 DL + 1.4 LL + 1.7 EL
c. 1.4 DL + 1.7 LL
d. 1.4 DL + 1.7 EL

35. It is defined as the unit strength of a material

a. Rigidity
b. Hardness
c. Stress
d. Stiffness
 36. The stress developed when the applied load causes adjacent sections within a body to slide past
each other.
a. axial stress
b. bearing stress
c. shearing stress
d. flexural stress

37. It is the contact pressure developed between two bodies.

a. bearing stress
b. thermal stress
c. allowable stress
d. strain

38. The stress induced as a result of restrained deformations due to changes in temperature.
a. rupture stress
b. thermal stress
c. yield stress
d. creep

39. The actual stress in a material under a given loading.

a. axial stress
b. bending stress
c. allowable stress
d. working stress

40. It is the maximum safe stress that a material can withstand.

a. ultimate stress c. rupture stress
b. allowable stress d. strain

Multiple Choice (Encircle the letter that corresponds to the best answer).

A wall which support vertical roads in addition to it's weight without the benefit of a complete vertical load
carrying space frame is called:
a.) retaining wall c.)Shearing wall
b.) Curtain wall d.) Bearing wall

2. The point in the moment diagram at which the curvature reverses as it changes from concave to
convex is called:
a.) Point of deflection c.) Point of inflection
b.) Moment of Inertia d.)Magnitude

3. For beam with a slab on one of side only, the effective overhanging flange width shall not exceed:
a.) one-twelfth the span length the beam.
b.) Six-times the slab thickness, one-half the clear distance to the next web.
c.) one-half the clear distance to the next web
d.) any of the above

4. Underwater watertight chamber to allow construction work to be done

a.) Bent chamber c.) Caisson
b.) Submersible air chamber d.) None of these
5. The minimum clear spacing between parallel bars in a layer shall be db but not less than:
a.) 20 mm b.) 25 mm c.) 40 mm d.) 50 mm

6. Where parallel reinforcement is placed in two or more layers, bars in the upper layers shall be
placed directly above bars in the bottom layer with clear distance between layers not less than:
 a.) 20 mm b.) 25 mm c.) 30 mm d.) 40 mm

7. Which statement is false?

a.) Development length of main reinforcement is always a function of the reinforcement diameter.
b.) Transverse reinforcement provides additional flexural support.
c.) Spiral hoops have stronger confining effect than ties.
d.) None of the above

8. A point in each normal section of a member through which the axis passes and about
which the section twists
a.) centroid c.) center of gravity
b.) shear center d.) none of the above

9. When the beam is loaded, the new position of its longitudinal centroid axis is called:
a.) Deflected Shape c.) Elastic curve
b.) Parabolic Curve d.) Inelastic Curve

10. What is a round steel bolt embedded in concrete or masonry use to hold down machinery, steel
columns or beams, casting, shoes, beam plates and engine heads?
a.) Retaining bolt c.) Anchor bolts
b.) Foundation bolts d.) Friction bolts

11. Aggregates should conform to PNS or ASTM standards and must be well graded. Easy workability
and method of consolidated are such that the can be poured without honeycomb or voids. what is the
nominal maximum size of a course aggregate when working spaces between reinforcements for proper
bonding?
a.) Course aggregates shall be no large than 1/2 the minimum clear spacing between individual
reinforcing bars or wires. bundles or bars. or prestressing tendons or ducts.
b.) Course aggregates shall be no large than 1/2 the minimum clear spacing between individual
reinforcing bars or wires, bundles of bars, or prestressing tendons or ducts.
c.) Course aggregates shall be no larger than 7/8 the minimum clear spacing between individual
reinforcing bars or wires. Bundles of bars. Or prestressing tendons or ducts.
d.) Course aggregates shall be no larger than 3/4 the minimum clear spacing between individual
reinforcing bars or wires. Bundles of bars. Or prestressing tendons or ducts.

12. In any one bundle, groups of parallel reinforcing bars bundled in contract to act as a unit shall be
limited to a maximum of
a.) three c.) five
b.) four d.) six

13. The most important component to determine the strength of a concrete mix is:
a.) Cement b.) Sand c.) Gravel d.) Lime

14. The greatest stretching stress a structural member can bear without cracking or breaking
a.) Tension limit
b.) T tensile stress
c.) Elasticity limit
d.) None of these

15. Slab thickness for joist construction shall not be less than one-twelfth the clear distance ribs nor
less than
a.) 50mm b.) 75mm c.) 100mm d.) 125mm

16. In T-beam construction, the flange and web being built integrally, the width of the slab effective as
T-beam flange shall not exceed one quarter of the span length of the beam and the effective overhanging
flange width on each side of the web shall not exceed:
 a.) eight times the slab thickness
b.) one-half the clear distance to the next web
c.) smaller of the above
d.) 500mm

17. The steel materials are to be butt joined using a fillet weld. The thicker material is 8.5mm.What is the
minimum size of the fillet weld?
a.) 3.0mm c.) 7.5mm
b.) 6.0mm d.) 5.0mm

18. Depth of footing above bottom reinforcement shall not be less than 150mm for footing on soil nor less
than _________ for footing on files
a.) 200mm b.) 250mm c.) 300mm d.) 400mm

19. Maximum usable strain at extreme concrete compression fiber shall be assumed to be equal to
a.) 0.0001 b.) 0.003 c.) 0.002 d.) 0.004

20. In joist construction consisting of monolithic combination of regularly spaced ribs and a top slab, the
ribs shall not less be less than 100mm in width and shall have a depth of not more than _________times
the minimum width of rib
a.)2 b.) 2 1/2 c.) 3 d.)3 ½

21. In spirally reinforced or tied reinforcement compression members, clear distance between longitudinal
(vertical) bars shall not less than 40mm nor
a.) 1.5 db b.) 2.0 db c.) 5.0db d.)1.0db

22. In walls and slabs other than concrete joist construction, primary flexural reinforcement shall be
spaced not farther apart than three times the wall or slab thickness nor
a.) 300mm b.) 400mm c.) 450mm d.) 550mm

23. It is designed to resist lateral forces parallel to the plane of the wall
a.) bearing wall b.) curtain wall c.) grade wall d.) shear wall

24. The section at which the moment changes from positive to negative is called
a.) neutral axis c.) point of shear
b.) inflection point d.) maximum moment

25. Which of the following criterion precludes good condition practice for conduits and pipes embedded in
concrete?
a.) Conduits and pipes embedded in slab, wall or beam shall not be larger in outside dimension than 1/3
the overall thickness of slab, wall or beam in which they are embedded
b.)Reinforcement with an area not less than 0.002 times area of cross-section shall be provided normal to
Piping
c.)Conduits and pipes with their fittings, embedded within the column shall not displace more than 5% of
the area of cross-section on which strength is calculated
d.)Concrete cover for pipes, conduits, and fitting shall not be less than 40mm for concrete exposed to
each of the weather.

26. A 1000mmx25mm nominal diameter deformed steel bar is subjected to test. The following results
were obtained: actual length is 999 mm: actual diameter-23.5mm :actual weight is 3.90 kg: Yield
force=22099.14kg: yield stress = 45.02kg/sqmm: ultimate force = 31425.74kg :ultimate stress = 64.02
kg/sq mm: actual strain =127 %.Judge the quality of the steel bar as per PS standard 681-04.02:1975
a.) Nominal diameter of steel bar .23.5 mm is less than the required diameter of 25 mm, thus of poor
quality
b.) The steel bar is an intermediate steel bar.
c.) Steel bar results is less than the minimum standard of PS grade 410 thus maybe categorized only as
PS grade 275
d.) Steel bar is PS grade 410 and posses the minimum standard for PS grade 410 thus the good quality

27. Which of the following criterion is NOT applicable for plug and slots weld?
a.) The thickness of plug/slot welds in material 16 mm or less in thickness shall be equal to the thickness
of the material
b.) The minimum center to center spacing in a longitudinal direction on any line shall be 2 times the
length of the slot
c.) The thickness of plug or slot welds in material over 16mm in thickness shall be at least 1/2 the
thickness of material but not less than 16mm
d.) The width of the slot shall not be less than the thickness of the part containing it plus 8 mm nor shall it
be greater than 2 1/2 times the thickness of the weld

28. Which of the following criteria for bundled bars do not apply?
a.) Bars larger than 32 mm shall not be bundled in beams
b.) Bundled bars shall be enclosed within stirrups or ties
c.) Group of parallel reinforcing bars bundled in contact to act as a unit shall be limited to four in any one
bundled.
d,) Individual bars within a bundle terminated within the span of flexural members shall terminate at
different points with at least 40db staggered

29. A structural member spanning from truss or supporting rafters:

a.) Floor Joist b.) Purl in c.) Girt d.)Girder

30. A horizontal piece of wood, stone, steel, or concrete across the top of door or window opening to bear
the weight of the walls above the opening
a.)Lintel b.) Transom beam c.) Transverse rafter d.)None of these

31.A wall that holds back on earth embankment

a.) Shoring wall c.) Buttress wall
b.) Retaining wall d.) Foundation wall

32. Using the data given below, determine the ultimate moment capacity of the given beam as a singly
reinforced elements.(See Figure 1)
Given: fc* = 21 MPa
fv = 275 MPa clear concrete cover =40 mm
a.) 167.60 kn-m b.) 147.9 kn-m c.) 187.4 kn –m d.) 227.9 kn-m

33. The process of removing concrete forms from the cured concrete.
a.) Stripping b.) Clearing
c.) Deforming works d.) None of these

34. The ultimate strength of the material divided by the allowable working load.
a.) Maximum strength c.) Safety factor
b.) Strength limit d.) None of these

35. A kind of roof that has four sloping sides

a.) Gable roof b.) Mansard roof c.) Hip roof d.) Lean

36. Stone placed on a slope to prevent erosion.

a.) rip-rap c.) embankment
b.) flag stoone d.) border stone

37. A standard hook may consist of a 180 deg.bend plus a 4 db extension (at the free end)not less than
a.) 55 mm b.) 60 mm c.) 75 mm d.)85 mm
38. A standard 90 degree hook consist of a bend plus an extension of
a.) 8 db b.) 10 db c.) 12 d b d.) 16 db

39. Concrete slab should have a minimum clearance of

a.) 20 mm b.) 40 mm
c.) 15 mm d.) 30 mm

40. An expansion joint adjacent parts of a structure to permit expected movements between them is
called:
a.) Contraction joint c.)Construction joint
b.)Truss joint d.) Conduction joint

41. To find the volume of water in a cylinder tank, multiply the area of its base by its
a.) Diameter c.) Height
b.) Radius d.) none of these

42. It refers to occupancy load which is either partially or fully in place or may not be present at all is
called:
a.) Live load
b.) Dead load
c.) Concentrated load
d.) Distributed load

43. What is the method of analyzing indeterminate modular building frames by assuming hinges at the
center of the beam spans and column height?
a.)Cantilever method b.) Moment distribution method
c.) Free body diagram method d.)Portal method

44. The deformation of a structural member as a result of loads acting is called:

a.) Strength b.) Strain
c.) Stress d.) Deflection

45. The major horizontal supporting member of the floor system is called:
a.) Rafter b.)Girder c.) Purl in d.) Girt

46. How is camber treated in a steel truss 25 meters longer?

a.) Camber shall be approximately equal to 1% of the span
b.) Camber shall be approximately equal to the dead load deflection
c.) Camber shall be approximately equal to 0.8 % of the span plus 1/3 the dead load deflection
d.) Camber shall be approximately equal to 0.5 % of the span plus 1/2 the live load deflection

47. What is the design analysis requirement, considered as a basis for the structural design of buildings
and structure, where the total lateral forces are distribute to various vertical elements of the lateral force-
resisting system in proportion to their rigidities considering the rigidity of the horizontal bracing system or
diaphragm?
a.) Shear and moment diagram c.)Stability against overturning
b.) Distribution of horizontal shear d.) horizontal torsional moments

48. Bundled bars shall be enclosed within stirrups or this but bars larger than the size below shall not be
bundled in beams
a.) 40 mm b.) 36 mm c.) 32 mm d.) 28 mm

49. Splices in spiral reinforcement shall be lap splices of 48db but not less than
a.) 300 mm b.)400 mm c.) 500 mm d.) 600 mm
50. Again, for joist construction, the clear spacing between ribs shall not exceed
a.) 250mm b.) 50mm
c.)750mm d.)1000mm

51. The force adhesion per unit area of contact between two bonded surfaces is
a.) Axial stress c.) allowable stress
b.) Bond stress d.) flexural stress

52. A kind of roof that has four sloping sides

a.) Gable roof b.) Mansard roof c.) hip roof d.)Lean
53. The stress per unit area of the original cross section of a material which resists its elongation is
a.) allowable stress c.)Flexural stress
b.) Tensile stress d.)Bending stress

54. A beam that projects beyond one or both its supports is called:
a.) Overhanging beam
b.) Continuous beam
c.) Intermediate beam
d.) Cantilevered beam

55. A simple beam has a span of 6 m with two concentrated load of 20kN each placed at the third points
of the span. If the extreme fiber stress is 10MPa, determined the required section modulus
a.) 2000000 mm3 b.) 6000000 mm3 c.) 4000000 mm3 d.) 1000000 mm3

56. Walls that support weight from above as well as their own dead weight
a.) Load bearing wall c.) Shoring wall
b.) Curtain wall d.) None of these

57. In formula e=PL/AE,E stands for

a.)Total deformation c.) Equal forces
b.) Elongation d.) Modulus elasticity

58. A bended rust to resists shear and diagonal stresses in a concrete beam is called:
a.) Bottom bar c.) Metal plate
b.) Stirrups d.) Temperature bar

59. Ratio of unit strain is:

a,) Ration and proportion b.) Moment of inertia
c.) Modulus of elasticity d.)Slenderness Ratio

60. The stress per square unit area of the original cross section of a material which resists its elongation
is
a.) allowable stress c.) Flexural stress
b.) Tensile stress d.) Bending stress

61. A beam that project beyond one or both its support is called:
a.) Overhanging beam
b.) Continous beam
c.) Intermidiate beam
d.) Cantievered beam

62. A simple beam ha a spam of 6 m with two concentrated loads of 20 kN,each placed at the third points
of the span.If extreme fiber stress is 10MPa,determine the required section modulus.
a.) 2000000 mm3 b.)6000000 mm 3 c.) 4000000 mm3 d.)1000000 mm3
63.Walls that support weight from above as well as their own dead weight
a.) Load bearing walls c.) Shoring walls
b.) Curtain wall d.) None of these
64. Any material change in shape when subjected to the action of a force is called:
a.) Reflection b.) Deflection c.) Deformation d.) Acceleration

65. Which is not among the following arrangement, a seismic requirement for transverse reinforcement?
a.)Maximum spacing of hoops shall not exceed 24 times the diameter of the hoop bars
b.) Maximum spacing of hoops shall not be eight times the diameter of the smallest longitudinal bars
c.)Maximum spacing of hoops shall not be more than d/4
d.)The first hoop shall be located not more than 75 mm from the face of the supporting member

66. How is 90-degree bend standard hook for concrete reinforcement constructed?
a.) 90 degree bend plus 10 db extension, at free end of the bar
b.) 90 degree bend plus 12 db extension, at free end of the bar
c.) 90 degree bend plus 6 db extension, at free end of the bar
d.) 90 degree bend plus 4 db extension, at free end of the bar

67.As tie reinforcement for compressions, all non pre stressed bar shall be enclosed by lateral ties, at least
10 mm in size for longitudinal bars
a.) 12 mm b.) 15 mm
c.)20 mm d.) 22 mm

68. As a seismic requirement for flexural members where hoops are required. How are the remaining
portions of a beam treated with transverse reinforcement other than those required with hoops?
a.) Where hoops are not required, stirrups shall be spaced at no more than d/2 throughout the length of
the member
b.) Where hoops are not required, crossties shall be spaced at no more than d/3 throughout the length of
the member.
c.)Where hoops are not required, hoops shall continue except that spacing shall not be more than d/2
d.) Where hoops are not required, closed stirrups shall be spaced at no more than d/4 throughout the
length of the member

69. What is a concrete beam placed directly on the ground to provide foundation for the superstructure?
a.) Strap beam b.) Gerber beam
c.) Grade beam d.) Tie beam

70. A type of concrete floor which has no beam is called:

a.) Flat slab b.) 2-way slab c.) one-way slab d.) Ribbed floor

71.If the depth of a web exceeds 900 mm longitudinal skin reinforcement shall be uniformly distributed
along both sides faces of the members for the distance d/2 nearest the flexural tension reinforcement.
The total area of the longitudinal skin reinforcement in both faces need not exceed _________of the
required flexural tension reinforcement
a.) one-fourth b.) one-third c.) one-half d.) two-thirds

72. For normal weight of concrete, the modulus of elasticity of concrete Ec may be taken as
a.)1700 f'c b.)2700 f'c
c.) 3700 fc d.) 4700 f'c

73. One-way concrete slab are used when:

a.) The slab is being supported by two parallel beams
b.) The slab has no cantilevered portion
c.) The concrete slab is sloping to the all side
d.) The concrete slab is sloping on the near bottom side
74. The tendency for one part of a beam to move vertically with respect to an advancement part is called:
a.) Shear b.)Moment c.)Force d.) Strength

75. The standard hooks for the stirrups and ties shall mean
a.) a 90 degree bend plus 6 db extension at the free end of a bar,for 16mm bar and smaller
b.)a 90 degree bend plus 12 db extension at th free end of a bar,for 20mm and 25mm bar
c.)a 135 degree bend plus 6 d b extension at the free end of a bar plus 25mm and smaller
d.) none of the above

76. Inside diameter of a bend for stirrups and ties for 16mm bar and smaller shall not be less than
a.) 4 db b.) 6 db c.) 8 db d.) 10db

77. A composite member with laterally tied concrete around a steel core (of design yield strength not to
exceed 350 MPa) shall have vertical spacing of lateral ties shall not exceed
a.) 16 longitudinal bar diameter or 48 tie diameter
b.) 1/2 times the least side diameter of the composite member
c.) any of the above
d.) none of the above

78. In column ,the ratio of its effective length to its least radius of gyration is called:
a.)Moment of inertia b.) Development leght
c.) Slenderness ratio d.) Ratio and proportion

79. A joint where two successive placement of concrete meet is called:

a.) Truss joint c.) Construction joint
b.) Contraction joint d.) Expansion joint

80. A quantity which measure the resistance of the mass to being revolved about line is called:
a.) Tension b.) Torsion c.)Variation d.) Deflection

81. It means that by which a body develops internal resistance to stress:

a.) strain b.) strength c.) slenderness d.) stress
82. For offset bent longitudinal bars, the horizontal support at offset bend shall be provided by lateral ties,
spiral or parts of the floor constructions. Horizontal support provided shall be design ed to resist 1-1/2
times the horizontal component of the computed force in the inclined portion of on offset bar. Lateral ties
or spiral shall be placed not more than____________ from points of bend.
a.)100mm b.) 150mm c.) 200mm d.) 250mm

83. The minimum thickness of non-prestressed beams of span L whose supports are simply supported is
a.) L/16 b.) L/18.50 c.) L/21 d.) L/8

84. The greatest stress which a material is capable of developing without a permanent deformation
remaining upon the complete release of stress is called
a.) Allowable stress c.) Bending stress
b.) moment of inertia d.) Proportional limit

85. The failure in a base when a heavily loaded column strikes a hole through is called:
a.)Flexural stress
b.) Punching moment
c.) Punching shear
d.) Single shears
AR – BOARD EXAM REVIEW - STRUCTURAL
Steel Design
by: Eng’r. Edgar Cruz, MSCE
Name: __________________________________ Date: ___________ Score: ______
DIRECTION: Choose the correct answer from the given choices. Write the letter of the correct
answer in the space provided before each number. GOOD LUCK!

_____1. In structural steel design, structures carrying liveload which induce impact, the assumed liveload
shall be increased sufficiently to provide for it. If not otherwise specified, the increase for supports of
elevators shall be:
a. 50% b. 100% c. 150% d. 200 %

_____2. Based on the AISC, what is the maximum slenderness ratio kL/r for tension members?
a. 100 b. 200 c. 250 d. 300

_____3. The slenderness ratio of compression members shall not exceed:

a. 100 b. 200 c. 250 d. 300

_____4. A wide flange section is used as a beam to carry a total shear of 900KN. If the depth of the wide
flange section is 600mm, determine the required web thickness. Fy= 250Mpa.
a. 20mm b. 25mm c. 15mm d. 10mm

_____5. The point on the cross section of a member where a transverse load must pass to minimize
twisting
a. centroid b. shear center c. torsional center d. center of mass

_____6. The maximum size of fillet weld that may be used along edges of materials less than 6mm thick:
a. Not greater than thickness of material
b. Not greater than thickness of material less 1.6mm
c. 8mm
d. 6mm

_____7. The maximum size of fillet weld that may be used along edges of materials 6mm or more in
thickness:
a. Not greater than thickness of material
b. Not greater than thickness of material less 1.6mm
c. 8mm
d. 6mm

_____8. It is the sidewise bending or displacement accompanied by twisting about minor or weaker axis
usually at the compression section.
a. crippling b. buckling c. torsion d. sagging

_____9. Riveted and bolted splice and gusset plates and other connection fittings subject to tensile force
shall be design in accordance with AISC requirements where the effective net area shall be taken as the
actual net area except that, for the purpose of design calculations, it shall not be taken as greater than __.
a. 85% of gross area b. 90% of gross area c. 70% of gross area d. 75% of gross area

_____10. Roof liveloads shall be assumed to act:

a. vertically upon the area projected on the horizontal
b. vertically upon the surface area of the roof
c. normal to the surface area of the roof
d. all of the above

_____11. The Euler Column Formula for finding the critical load on a long column is P cr=2EI/L2 where L is
the effective length of the column. For a column hinged at the top, fixed at the bottom and 20 inches high,
the critical load is equal to:
a. Pcr=2EI/100 b. Pcr=2EI/196 c. Pcr=2EI/400 d. Pcr=2EI/1600

_____12. The shear strength of a steel I-beam is dependent on the

a. thickness of flange b. width of flange c. thickness of web d. area of web

_____13. The allowable stresses for tension in structural steel in terms of gross area is:
a. 0.60Fu b. 0.40Fy c. 0.60Fy d. 0.50Fu
AR – BOARD EXAM REVIEW - STRUCTURAL
Steel Design
by: Eng’r. Edgar Cruz, MSCE
Name: __________________________________ Date: ___________ Score: ______
DIRECTION: Choose the correct answer from the given choices. Write the letter of the correct
answer in the space provided before each number. GOOD LUCK!

_____14. The allowable stresses for tension in structural steel in terms of effective net area is:
a. 0.60Fu b. 0.40Fy c. 0.60Fy d. 0.50Fu

_____15. It is an imaginary distance from the centroidal axis at which the entire area can be assumed to
exist without affecting the moment of inertia.
a. centroid distance b. moment of inertia c. radius of gyration d. eccentricity

_____16. A Wide-Flange Section W21x83 weighs ____ kg/m.

a. 123 b. 196 c. 300 d. 92

_____17. A Wide-Flange Section W21x83 has an overall depth of approximately___millimeters.

a. 450 b. 530 c. 600 d. 720

_____18. In computing net area, the width of a rivet or bolt hole shall be taken as ___mm greater than the
nominal dimension of the hole normal to the direction of applied stress.
a. 2.0 b. 1.2 c. 0.85 d. 1.6

_____19. It is the ability of a material like steel to undergo large inelastic deformation without failure.
a. elasticity b. ductility c. ductility d. strength

_____20. For relatively short fittings such as splice or gusset plates used as statically loaded connecting
elements, the net area An shall not exceed ___% of the gross area Ag.
a. 85 b. 65 c. 50 d. 75

_____21. Modulus of Elasticity of structural steel in MPa.

a. 100000 b. 200000 c. 300000 d. 400000

_____22. It is also known as the second moment of area.

a. centroid distance b. moment of inertia c. radius of gyration d. eccentricity

_____23. Steel is an alloy comprising of two elements. They are __ and __.
a. carbon & copper b. copper & tin c. iron & copper d. carbon & iron

_____24. This type of fastener is installed by heating to a light cherry-red color, inserting it into a hole and
then applying pressure to the preformed head while at the same time squeezing the plain end to form a
rounded head.
a. bolt b. rivet c. weld d. NOTA

_____25. The allowable bending stress of a non-compact channel section bent about their weaker axis is
taken ___ Fy.
a. 0.6 b. 0.66 c. 0.75 d. 0.45

_____26. It is a roof beam spanning between trusses or rigid frames subjected to flexure or bending.
a. lintel b. purlin c. girt d. truss

_____27. The allowable bending stress of a compact wide-flange section bent about their weaker axis is
taken ___ Fy.
a. 0.6 b. 0.66 c. 0.75 d. 0.45

_____28. The maximum bending moment for a purlin may be taken as:
a. wL2/12 b. wL2/10 c. wL2/8 d. wL2/20

_____29. What is the weight of 32mm diameter deformed steel bar 9m long? Weight of steel = 7850
kg/cu.m.
a. 40.34 kgs b. 51.39 kgs c. 54.49 kgs d. 56.87 kgs

_____30. What is the weight of 40mm diameter deformed steel bar 1m long?
a. 9.56 kgs b. 10.39 kgs c. 11.40 kgs d. 12.69 kgs
AR – BOARD EXAM REVIEW - STRUCTURAL
Strength of Materials
by: Engr. Ivan D.L. Marquez, MSCE
Name: _____________________________________ Date: ___________ Score: ______
DIRECTION: Choose the correct answer from the given choices. Write the letter of the correct
answer in the space provided before each number. GOOD LUCK!

_____1. What is the type of beam wherein no rotation or vertical movement can occur at either ends?
a. simple beam b. restrained beam c. cantilever beam d. continuous beam

_____2. The property of materials that enable it to absorb energy before rupturing, represented by the area
under stress-strain curve derived from a tensile test of the material.
a. ductility b. brittleness c. rigidity d. toughness

_____3. The property of a material to resist a change in its physical shape.

a. ductility b. brittleness c. rigidity d. toughness

The property of a material to fracture at low stress without appreciable deformation.

a. ductility b. brittleness c. rigidity d. toughness

_____4. The property of a material to undergo plastic deformation after being stressed beyond the elastic
limit before rupturing.
a. ductility b. brittleness c. rigidity d. toughness

_____5. A force that acts perpendicular to the cross section of a structural member and at its centroid.
a. axial load b. eccentric load c. moment load d. direct load

_____6. The twisting of a structural member about its longitudinal axis by two equal and opposite torques.
a. moment b. elongation c. torsion d. couple

_____7. A type of beam with fixed support and a roller support at the other end.
a. simple beam b. restrained beam c. cantilever beam d. propped beam

_____8. The stress beyond which the ratio of stress and strain for a material no longer remains constant.
a. Proportional Limit b. Yield Strength c. Ultimate Strength d. Rupture Strength

_____9. The change in length caused usually by a force applied to a piece, the change being expressed as a
ratio, the increase or decrease divided by the original length.
a. stress b. force c. strain d. moment

_____10. A spherical pressure vessel with an internal diameter of 540 mm is to be generated using a 3 mm
thick steel. The yield stress of the material is 450 MPa and the maximum allowable shear stress is 240 MPa.
Determine the maximum allowable internal pressure in MPa.
a. 10 MPa b. 15 Mpa c. 20 MPa d. 25 Mpa

_____11. The ratio of the transverse strain to longitudinal strain

a. Stress Ratio b. Hooke’s Ratio c. Poisson’s Ratio d. Strain Ratio

_____12. The bending moment for the patterned loading to produce maximum moments are given as
follows:
Mux = 56x – 4x2 0' < x < 20’
Mux = -0.5x2 + 25x – 200 20’ < x < 30’
Find the max. moment (units in ft-lb)

a. 112.5 ft-lb b. 153.4 ft-lb c. 196 ft-lb d. 210.2 ft-lb

_____13. This represents the ability of the mat’l to absorb energy without any permanent damage to the
material.
a. Modulus of Toughness
b. Modulus of Elasticity
c. Modulus of Resilience
d. Modulus of Rigidity

_____14. What class of black or dark-colored cementitious substances is composed principally of high-
molecular weight hydrocarbons?
a. Gypsum c. Bitumen
b. Pozzolans d. Lime

_____15. Give the flexibility of a truss member with length L, cross sectional area A, modulus of elasticity E
and moment of inertia I.
Express answer in terms of L, A and E.
AR – BOARD EXAM REVIEW - STRUCTURAL
Strength of Materials
by: Engr. Ivan D.L. Marquez, MSCE
Name: _____________________________________ Date: ___________ Score: ______
DIRECTION: Choose the correct answer from the given choices. Write the letter of the correct
answer in the space provided before each number. GOOD LUCK!
a. AE/L b. EL/A c. E/AL d. L/AE

_____16. What terms refers to roof beams spanning between trusses?

a. Girt b. Purlin c. Sagrods d. Lintel Beam

_____17. What do you call the horizontal wall beams serving principally to resist bending due to wind on the
side of an industrial building
a. Girt b. Purlin c. Sagrods d. Lintel Beam

_____18. A metal specimen with 36mm diameter and has a length L=360mm. A force of 300KN
elongates the length by 1.2mm. What is the elastic modulus?
a. 200000 MPa b. 95233 MPa c. 59246 MPa d. 88419 MPa

_____19. This element is added to the steel to make the steel corrosion resistant,
when this element is more than 16%, the material is called stainlesss steel.
a. aluminum b. zinc c. brass d. chromium

_____20. A heat treatment of steel which is done through shock cooling by immersing it to liquid or molten
material into a cooling medium (liquid or gas)
a. annealing b. over-heating c. quenching d. abrupt cooling

_____21. It is the largest stress based on the original cross-sectional area which a material can stand. Thus,
it is the maximum ordinate of the stress-strain curve.
A. Proportional Limit b. Yield Strength c. Ultimate Strength d. Rupture Strength

_____22. Given is the shape of the typical stress-strain curve for steel under tension force. Where is the
region in the curve where the material experiences a reduction in cross-sectional area?

ε
a.
b.
c.
a. region A
b. region B
c. region C
d. region D

σ
A B C D

_____23. It is a measure of the stiffness that refers to the ratio of the unit stress to unit strain of a material.
a. Modulus of Rigidity b. Modulus of Elasticity c. Modulus of Rupture d. NOTA

For #24-25: A 2m solid shaft having a radius of 35mm is subjected to a torque of 950N-m. Using
G=80000MPa,

_____24. Calculate the maximum torsional shearing stress developed.

a. 8.06 MPa b. 10.23 MPa c. 14.11 MPa d. 21.65 MPa

_____25. Calculate the maximum angle of twist.

a. 0.01 radians b. 0.02 radians c. 0.03 radians d. 0.04 radians

_____26. A cantilever beam 6m long is supported by a roller at the right end. It carries a uniform load of
400KN/m throughout the span. Ix =1.7x109 mm4 and E=200000 MPa. What is the deflection at the right end if
the roller support is removed?
a. 265.22 mm b. 128.24 mm c. 162.78 mm d. 190.59 mm
AR – BOARD EXAM REVIEW - STRUCTURAL
Strength of Materials
by: Engr. Ivan D.L. Marquez, MSCE
Name: _____________________________________ Date: ___________ Score: ______
DIRECTION: Choose the correct answer from the given choices. Write the letter of the correct
answer in the space provided before each number. GOOD LUCK!

_____27. From the given shear diagram +30

+25
shown (Shear forces are in kN)
Determine the maximum moment in B C D
A E
the beam. -10
a. 15 KN-m -20
b. 20 KN-m 2m 2.5m 1.5m 2m
c. 25 KN-m
d. 30 KN-m

1000 kN
For # 28-29: From the simply supported beam
shown. 40 kN/m
_____28. Calculate the reaction at A? 500 kN.m
a. 342.72 KN b. 502.73 KN
c. 657.27 KN d. 817.27 KN A B
_____29. Calculate the reaction at B?
a. 342.72 KN b. 502.73 KN
RA RB
c. 657.27 KN d. 817.27 KN 4m 4m 4m 6m 4m

For # 30: A rigid block is attached as shown in the figure. If the elongation of the bronze is 5mm longer than
that of the steel,

0.6m.
Steel
A=600 mm2 Bronze Steel
E=200 GPa
1.0m.
Bronze
A=900 mm2
E=83 GPa

_____30. Calculate the weight of the block.

a. 526.32 KN b. 485.77 KN c. 659.34 KN d. 394.19 KN
AR 505 – STRUCTURAL SYSTEMS
Theory of Structures
by: Engr. Ivan Marquez, MSCE
Name: _____________________________________ Date: ___________ Score: ______
DIRECTION: Choose the correct answer from the given choices. Write the letter of the correct
answer in the space provided before each number. GOOD LUCK!
_____1. (Using the same EI) which member will resist most of the moment?

a. member A b. member B c. member C d. all members

_____2. What is the carryover factor for prismatic members?

a. 0.25 b. 0.5 c. 1.0 d. 2.0

_____3. A beam that project beyond one or both its support/s is called
a. Overhanging beam b. continous beam c. intermediate beam d. cantilever beam
_____4. What is the third requirement to guarantee the correct solution to a structural analysis problem?
(The two being equilibrium and stress-strain relationship). HINT: It has something to do with constant
deformation.
a. Plastic condition b. Uncracked condition c. Compatibility d. Discretization

_____5. What states that given a linear transformation relationship between two force vectors P = HQ, the
corresponding displacement vector transformation H∆’ such that UO = H∆’UP, is simply the transpose of the
force transformation matrix H?
a. Bettis Law
b. Maxwell’s Law
c. Method of Consistent Deformation
d. Principle of Contragradience

_____6. In the conjugate beam method, the actual slope equals

a. fictitious shear
b. fictitious moment
c. fictitious load
d. none of the above

_____7. What is the max moment for a restrained beam?

a. wL2/8 b. wL3/12 c. wL3/8 d. wL2/12

_____8. Which of the ff. statements is/are false about the positions of the live load moment envelope?
a. For max + moment w/in a span, load and all other alternate spans.
b. For max –moment w/in a span, load the two spans adjacent to that span and all other alt spans.
c. For max-moment at a support, load the two spans adjacent to that support and all other alt spans.
d. For max + moment at a support, load the two supports, load the 2 spans beyond each of the 2 spans
adjacent to the support and all other alt spans.
e. None of the above

_____9. The equivalent spring constant K for a vibrating system with two springs having
spring constant K1 and K2 respectively in
parallel is..
a. K=K1+K2 b. K=(1/K1)+(1/K2) c. K=[1/(K1+K2)] d. K=(K1*K2)/2

_____10. A simple beam has a span of 6m with two concentrated loads of 20KN each placed at the third
points of the span. If the extreme fiber stress is 10MPa, determine the required section modulus.
a. 2x106mm3 b. 4x106mm3 c. 6x106mm3 d. 10x106mm3
AR – BOARD EXAM REVIEW - STRUCTURAL
Timber Design
by: Engr. Ivan Marquez, MSCE
Name: __________________________________ Date: ___________ Score: ______
DIRECTION: Choose the correct answer from the given choices. Write the letter of the correct
answer in the space provided before each number. GOOD LUCK!

A timber has a circular cross section having a diameter of 250 mm. It has a simple span of 4 m. NSCP
specs. states that in a circular beam the strength is equal to the strength of square section having the same
area.
Allowable stresses of wood are as follows:
Shearing stress parallel to the grain, fv = 1.73 MPa
Bending stress , fb = 16.5 MPa
1
Allowable deflection= of span
240
Modulus of elasticity of wood= 7.31 GPa

w kN/m
250 mm.

4 m.

__________1. Calculate the maximum uniform load so that the allowable shear stress parallel to the grain
is not exceeded?
a. 35.26 KN/m b. 28.31 KN/m c. 46.21 KN/m d. 52.36 KN/m

__________2. Calculate the maximum uniform load so that the allowable bending stress is not exceeded?
a. 24.95 KN/m b. 44.95 KN/m c. 14.95 KN/m d. 34.95 KN/m

__________3. Calculate the maximum uniform load so that the allowable deflection is not exceeded?
a. 7.34 KN/m b. 8.32 KN/m c. 5.95 KN/m d. 10.29 KN/m

The T-section shown is formed by joining two rectangular pieces of wood together. The beam is subjected to
a maximum shearing force of 60 kN.
200
20
40
90

100

20

__________4. Calculate the moment of inertia about the neutral axis in mm4?
a. 20.573 x 106 b. 30.573 x 106 c. 40.573 x 106 d. 10.573 x 106

__________5. Calculate the shearing stress at the neutral axis?

a. 2.28 MPa b. 3.28 MPa c. 4.28 MPa d. 5.28 MPa

__________6. Calculate the shearing stress at the junction between two pieces of wood?
a. 54.26 MPa b. 25.19 MPa c. 31.78 MPa d. 23.58 MPa
AR – BOARD EXAM REVIEW - STRUCTURAL
Timber Design
by: Engr. Ivan Marquez, MSCE
Name: __________________________________ Date: ___________ Score: ______
DIRECTION: Choose the correct answer from the given choices. Write the letter of the correct
answer in the space provided before each number. GOOD LUCK!

A rectangular wooden beam has a span of 6 m. and carries a total uniform load of 25 kN/m including its
own weight. The beam is made up of 80% stress grade Apitong with allowable stresses shown below.

Allowable Stress for Apitong 80% Stress Grade:

Allowable bending = 16.5 MPa
Compression parallel to grain = 9.56 MPa
Compression perpendicular to grain = 2.20 MPa
Shear parallel to grain = 1.73 MPa
Modulus of elasticity = 7310 MPa
L
Allowable defection =
240
__________7. Which of the following gives the smallest dimension of beam that will not exceed the
allowable bending stress?
a. 220 x 440mm b. 220 x 550mm c. 220 x 660mm d. 220 x 770mm

__________8. Which of the following gives the smallest dimension of the beam that will not exceed the
allowable shearing stress?
a. 150 x 300mm b. 200 x 400mm c. 200 x 500mm d. 250 x 500mm

__________9. Which of the following gives the smallest dimension of the beam that will not exceed the
allowable deflection?
a. 300 x 500mm b. 220 x 440mm c. 250 x 500mm d. 300 x 500mm

__________10. A timber column of height 5m has a square cross section of side 200mm. It is supporting a
load of 320KN. At midheight, a recess is cut in one face of the column to receive a girt. The cut is 250mm
vertical and 50mm deep. Calculate the strain energy in Newton-meter if E=13600MPa.
a. 523.19 b. 924.16 c. 384.16 d. 478.431

__________11. Determine the most economical commercial size of a Yakal beam which can replace a
100mm x 200mm Apitong beam. The allowable bending stress for Apitong and Yakal are 13.8MPa and
19.3MPa, respectively. Assume lateral stability is not a problem.
a. 50 x 200mm b. 75 x 200mm c. 50 x 250mm d. 75 x 250mm

__________12. A cantilever wooden beam 60mm wide by 200mm high and 6m long carries a load that
varies uniformly from zero at the free end to 1000N/m at the wall. Compute the flexural stress in a fiber
40mm from the top of the beam at a section 3m from the free end.
a. 1.125 MPa b. 2.265 MPa c. 5.219 MPa d. 6.298 MPa

__________13. A 2"x4"x1' lumber is:

a. 2/3 bd.ft. b. 1 bd.ft. c. 1.5 bd.ft. d. 2 bd.ft

__________14. What do you call the type of cut that is parallel to the axis of the tree and radially across
the annual rings?
a. flat sawing b. quarter sawing c. direct sawing d. cross sawing

__________15. What type of defect in lumber is described as the longitudinal cracks following the growth
rings? This develops prior to cutting the lumber and sometimes caused by heavy winds.
a. knots b. cut c. rot d. shake

__________16. True/ False : Wood is stronger when load is ┴ to the grains.

a. True b. False c. Maybe d. Not Sure
 Structural Exit Exam 23 June 2018

CO1. Determine the values of reactions at the supports, a. 0 b. 1

values of shearing, force and bending moments of c. M/2 d. None of the above
statically determinate beams;
CO3. Draw the shear and moment diagram
1. Compute the shear modulus of a steel if E=200,000Mpa and the
Poisson’s ratio is 0.50. 11. The normal force exerted by a smooth horizontal surface towards
a. 71428.57 MPa b. 67870.04 MPa a 100-lb block acting on it is
c. 76923.07 MPa d. 68670.06 MPa a. 100 lbs b. zero c. 50 lbs d. 200 lbs

2. What states the “the moment of the resultant of 2 concurrent 12. What is the maximum moment of the beam shown? Ignore the
forces about any axis ┴ to the plane of forces is equal to the weight of the beam.
algebraic sum of the moments of the 2 forces about the same axis”?
a. Hooke’s Law b. Pythagorean theorem 2.6 kN/m
c. Varignon’s Theorem d. Betti’s Law

3. Among the following axioms of mechanics, which of the following

is INCORRECT? 12 m. 3 m.
a. The parallelogram law: The resultant of two forces is the
diagonal of the parallelogram formed on the vectors of a. 37.44 kN-m.b. 67.39 kN-m.
these forces. c. 84.2 kN-m. d. 137.76 kN-m.
b. Two forces are in equilibrium only when equal in
magnitude, opposite in direction, and collinear in action. For No. 13 – 15: Using the figure below determine the following
c. A set of forces in equilibrium may be added to any system
of forces thus changing the effect of the original system. 12 kN/m
d. Action and reaction forces are equal but oppositely
directed.

4. Snow loads, wind, pressure suction and earthquake loads and the
like are what type of loads? 8m
a. Dead Loads b. Live Loads 13.
c. Seismic Loads d. Environmental Loads Determine the reaction (RA) at point A.
a. -48 kN b. 48 kN c. -96 kN
5. These are referred to permanent loads or unmovable loads. d. 96 kN
a. Dead Loads b. Live Loads
c. Seismic Loads d. Environmental Loads 14. Determine the maximum moment of the beam.
a. -40 kN-m b. 40 kN-m
6. Calculate the moment of inertia of a rectangular section with a c. -96 kN-m d. 96 kN-m
base of 40 mm and height of 60 mm.
a. 160,000 mm4 b. 320,000 mm4 15. Determine the shear diagram of the beam.
c. 416,667 mm4 d. 720,000 mm4

7. A simple beam supports a 30 kN/m uniform load occupying the

whole span of m. The maximum moment developed is
a. 120 kN-m b. 135 kN-m
c. 270 kN-m d. 540 kN-m

8. A continuous beam simply supported over an 8 meter span carries

a linearly increasing distributed load of 50 kN/m starting from the left
most portion until the center of the span. Determine the support at
left most portion.
a. 33.33 kN b. 66.67 kN
c. 90.33 kN d. 133.33 kN

CO2. Determine the of values of reactions at the supports, a. A. b. C.

c. B. d. D.
values of shearing force and bending moments of
statically indeterminate beams (continuous beams O4. Design and investigate simple timber and steel structures
and restrained beams) using the Three-Moment
Equation and the Moment Distribution Methods 16. It is a type of truss having both vertical and diagonal members
between the upper and lower chords, with the diagonals sloping
9. A type of beam with fixed support and a roller support at the other toward the center.
end. a. Fink truss b. pratt truss
a. simple beam b. restrained beam c. arch truss d. warren truss
c. cantilever beam d. propped beam
17. An elevator cable will have its greatest tension when the elevator
10.. What is the distribution factor (DF) for a fixed support at the end car is moving
of a beam?
 Structural Exit Exam 23 June 2018
a. downward but coming to rest ___26. It is the ability of a material like steel to undergo large
b. upward at a constant speed inelastic deformation without failure.
c. upward but coming to rest a. malleability b. tenacity
d. downward at a constant speed c. hardness d. ductility

18. In structural steel design, structures carrying live load which ___27. In the strength design method (NSCP 2001), the ultimate load
induce impact, the assumed live load shall be increased sufficiently is computed as:
to provide for it. If not otherwise specified, the increase for supports a. 1.4LL+1.7DL b. 1.4DLx1.7LL
of elevators shall be: c. 1.7LL+1.4DL d. 1.2DLx1.7LL
a. 50% b. 100% c. 150% d. 200 %
____28. The minimum reinforcement ratio provided by the code is
19. The maximum size of fillet weld that may be used along edges of taken ___ / fy.
materials less than 6mm thick: a. 1.0 b. 1.2
a. Not greater than thickness of material
c. 1.4 d. 1.6
b. Not greater than thickness of material less 1.6mm
c. 8mm
d. 6mm ____29. maximum usable strain extreme concrete compression fiber
shall be assumed to be equal to
20. The maximum size of fillet weld that may be used along edges of a. 0.001 b. 0.002
materials 6mm or more in thickness: c. 0.003 d. 0.004
a. Not greater than thickness of material
b. Not greater than thickness of material less 1.6mm ____30. Which of the following values can be used as a concrete
c. 8mm cover for the primary reinforcement of cast-in-place concrete (non-
prestressed) beams as per NSCP?
d. 6mm
a. 20mm b. 75mm
21. The allowable stresses for tension in structural steel in terms of b. c. 40mm d. 60mm
gross area is:
a. 0.60Fu b. 0.40Fy c. 0.60Fy
d. 0.50Fu ___31. Under the AISC Method of evaluating the maximum safe
load of a steel column, the column constant is
22. The allowable stresses for tension in structural steel in terms of
effective net area is: a. 2π2E b. π2E c. 5π2E d. 3π2E
a. 0.60Fu b. 0.40Fy c. 0.60Fy √ Fy √ Fy √ Fy √ Fy
d. 0.50Fu
___32. The critical slenderness ratio is the upper limit of elastic
23. True/ False : Wood is stronger when load is ┴ to the grains. buckling failure, where its average column stress is equal to ___.
b. False c. Maybe d. Not Sure a. 0.5Fy b. 1.0Fy c. 0.75Fy
d. 2.0Fy
24. What is the distance from the extreme fiber in compression to the
centroid of the tension steel area? ___33. The allowable stress for compression members whose
a. Tension depth b. extreme distance largest effective slenderness ratio of any unbraced segment is less
c. Effective depth d. centroid distance than the square root of [22E / Fy] as per AISC Standards is___.
a. {1 – [(kL/r)2 / 2Cc2]} * Fy/FS
25. The shear strength of a steel I-beam is dependent on the b. 122E / [23*(kL/r)2]
a. thickness of flange b. width of flange c. . 2E Fy / [1.6 – (L/200r)
c. thickness of web d.. area of web
d. d. 5/3 + 3(kL/r) / 8Cc – (kL/r)3 / 8Cc3
CO5. Incorporate relevant provisions of the National
Building/Structural Code upon the results of such design and ___34. The allowable tensile stress of structural steel based on
investigations. effective net area is taken ___% of specified ultimate tensile stress.
a. 50 b. 60
26. Based on the AISC, what is the maximum slenderness ratio kL/r c. 75 d. 85
for tension members?
a. 100 b. 200 c. 250 d. 300 As per Section 5.3.3 of NSCP, the nominal maximum sizes of
coarse aggregate should be greater than
27. The slenderness ratio of compression members shall not exceed:
a. 100 b. 200 c. 250 d. 300 35.____ the narrowest dimension between sides of forms,
a. 1/3 b. 1/4
28. Riveted and bolted splice and gusset plates and other connection b. c. ¾ d. 1/5
fittings subject to tensile force shall be design in accordance with
AISC requirements where the effective net area shall be taken as the 36____ the depth of slabs, or
actual net area except that, for the purpose of design calculations, it a. 1/3 b. 1/4
shall not be taken as greater than __. b. c. ¾ d. 1/5
a. 85% of gross area b. 90% of gross area
c. 70% of gross area d. 75% of gross area 37.____ the minimum clear spacing between individual
reinforcing bars.
a. 1/3 b. 1/4
b. c. ¾ d. 1/5
 Structural Exit Exam 23 June 2018
___38 The minimum outside diameter of pipe piles when used must For No. 49 – 55: Using Ultimate strength design, determine the
be? (NSCP 307.6.3) unknown of the following, shown below is the cross-section of the
a. 250MM c. 350MM beam, having both an unfactored live load of 100kN and dead load of
200kN.
b. 300MM d. 400MM
Given:
___39. The minimum nominal diameter of steel bolts when wood db = 12 mm
475mm fc’ = 28 MPa
plates or sill shall be bolted to foundation wall in zone 4 seismic area
Fy = 475 MPa
in the Philippines. (NSCP 305.60) Es = 200 GPa
a. 16MM c. 12MM 75mm
b. 14MM d.10MM
300mm

____40. Before commencing the excavation work, the person

making the excavation shall notify in writing the owner of the 49. Determine the maximum allowable moment (Mn)
a. 400.00 kN-m c. 488.889 kN-m
adjoining building not less than _____days before such excavation is
b. 444.444 kN-m d. 734.800 kN-m
to be made. (NSCP 302.2.4)
a. 10days c. 30 days 50. Determine the minimum steel-concrete ratio (ρmin)
b. 20days d. 40days a. 0.0016 b. 0.0033
c. 0.0020 d. 0.0035
____41. As per IS: 456-2000, the maximum size of aggregate is
a. 1/4 of maximum thickness of member 51. Determine the actual steel-concrete ratio (ρact)
b. 1/4 of minimum thickness of member a. 0.011 b. 0.028
c. 1/5 of maximum thickness of member c. 0.016 d. 0.033
d. 1/5 of minimum thickness of member
52. Determine the max. steel-concrete ratio (ρmax)
_____ 42. As per IS: 456-2000, modulus of elasticity of concrete (in a. 0.0131 b. 0.0183
N/mm2) is given by c. 0.0227 d. 0.0316
a. 5700 vfCK b. 5000 vfCK
c. 3700 vfCK d. 3000 vfCK 53. Which of the following assumptions holds true?
a. Concrete would yield first
_____ 43. As per IS:1139, the characteristic yield strength for cold b. Steel would yield first
twisted deformed bars is c. Concrete and steel would both yield
a. 250 N/mm2 b. 415 N/mm2 d. None of the above
c. 500 N/mm2 d. 550 N/mm2
54. Determine the area of the steel reinforcement (AT)
_____ 44. The development length of bars in compression is taken a. 470.25 mm2 b. 2607.75 mm2
as c. 2280.0 mm2 d. 3990.00 mm2
a. 30 times bar diameter
b. 40 times bar diameter [ 55. Determine the number of the tension reinforcement (n)
c. 50 times bar diameter a. 5 b. 24
d. 12 times bar diameter c. 21 d. 35

_____45. Minimum number of bars for a circular column 56. Which of the following is NOT a property of hardened hydraulic
a. Four b. Five c. Six d. Eight cement concrete?
a. economy
CO6. Design/Investigate simple reinforced concrete structures b. durability
c. density
46. What is the max Vs (shear carried by the stirrups)? d. workability
1 2 2
a. f ' c b. f 'c c. f 'c d. f 'c 57. The process of hardening of concrete in the presence of water is
3 5 3
called
a. Creep
47. The maximum useable strain at the extreme concrete
b. Hydration
compression fiber shall
c. Shrinkage
be assumed to be equal to ____
d. Curing
a. 0.003 b. 0.002 c. 0.001 d. 0.004
58. The continuous strain, which the concrete undergoes due to
48. What will happen to the concrete strength if the water-to-cement
ratio decreases? application of external loads is called
a. Creep
a. Concrete strength increases, porosity decreases, solid-to-
b. Bleeding
space ratio increases
c. Workability
b. Concrete strength increases, porosity decreases, solid-to-
d. Segregation
space ratio decreases
c. Concrete strength decreases, porosity increases, solid-to-
59. Slump test of concrete is a measure of its
space ratio increases
a. Consistency
d. Concrete strength decreases, porosity increases, solid-to-
space ratio decreases b. Compressive strength
c. Tensile strength
d. Impact value Answer : A
 Structural Exit Exam 23 June 2018

60. Specific weight of Reinforced cement concrete is

a. 24 N/m3 b. 24 kN/m3
c. 25 N/m3 d. 25 kN/m3