CPP-24 FOR

REGULAR
MEDICAL-2021-22

Physics
Chapterwise Practise Problems (CPP) for NEET
Chapter - Wave Optics

1. The light waves having wave equations y 1 = 7. In Youngs double slit experiment, if the widths of
10Sin(t – kx) and y2 = 5Sin(kx – t + ) interfere. the slit are in the ratio 4:9, ratio of intensity of
The ratio of maximum to the minimum intensity of maxima to intensity of minima will be (width of slit
light in the interference pattern is is directly proportional to amplitude of interfering
waves)
(1) 9 : 1 (2) 3 : 1
(1) 25 : 1 (2) 9 : 4
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 81 : 1
2. First diffraction minima due to slit of width 1.0 × 10– (3) 3 : 2 (4) 81 : 16
5cm is at 30°. Then wavelength of light used is
8. In a YDSE how many maxima can be obtained on
(1) 400Å (2) 500Å screen (excluding central maxima) on both sides of
central fringe if  = 2000Å and d = 7000Å?
(3) 600Å (4) 700Å
(1) 12 (2) 6
3. When white light is incident normally on an oil film
of thickness 10–4 cm and refractive index 1.4 then (3) 18 (4) 9
the wavelength which will be seen in the reflected
system of light 9. In the far field diffraction pattern of a single slit under
polychromatic illumination, the first dark fringe of
(1) 7000Å (2) 8000Å wavelength 1 is found to be coincident with the
(3) 5600Å (4) All of these third bright fringe of 2. Which of the following is
correct?
4. For what distance is ray optics a good
approximation when a plane light wave is incident (1) 31 = 0.32 (2) 61 = 2
on a slit aperture of width 2mm having wavelength (3) 1 = 3.52 (4) 62 = 1
600nm ?
10. A light has amplitude A after coming out from
(1) 6m (2) 8m
polariser. Angle between transmission axis of
(3) 6.7m (4) 4m analyser and polariser is 60°. Light passing through
analyser has amplitude
5. What is the approximate radius of the central bright
diffraction spot of light of wavelength  = 0.5µm, if
A
focal length of the lens is 20cm and radius of (1) 2A (2)
2
aperture of the lens is 5cm?
(1) 1.22µm (2) 2.30µm
3A A
(3) 4.22µm (4) 6.23µm (3) (4)
2 2
6. An unpolarized light passes through 2 polarizer. If
the intensity of the transmitted light is 20% that of 11. The diameter of the objective lens of a telescope is
the original light, what is the angle between the 5.0 m and wavelength of light is 6000Å. The limit of
transmission axes of the 2 polarizing sheets ? resolution of this telescope will be (1° = 3600)

(1) 0.03 (2) 3.03

(1) Cos1 0.3 (2) Cos1 0.4
(3) 0.06 (4) 0.15
(3) Cos1 0.6 (4) Cos1 0.7

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Wave Optics Aakash Institute
12. Huygens’ principle of secondary wavelets may not
1.22 a
be used to (1) (2)
a 1.22
(1) Find the new position of a wavefront
(2) Explain Snell’s law m a
(3) (4)
1.22a 1.22m
(3) Explain laws of reflection
(4) Explain particle behaviour of light 19. A beam of unpolarised light passes through a
tourmaline crystal A and then it passes through a
13. It is found that when waves from two identical second tourmaline crystal B oriented so that its
coherent sources superpose at certain point with principal is parallel to that of A. The intensity of the
same individual intensity, then the resultant emergent light is Io. Now B is rotated by 45° about
intensity is equal to the intensity of one wave only. the ray. The emergent light have intensity
This means that phase difference between the two
waves at that point is Io Io
(1) (2)
(1) Zero (2) /3 4 2

(3) 2/3 (4) 

Io Io
(3) (4)
14. Two slits are separated by a distance of 1 mm are 2 2 2
illuminated with red light of wavelength 6.5 × 10–7
metre. The interference fringes are observed on a 20. In Young’s double slit experiment, interference
screen placed 1 metre away from the slits. The pattern is found to have an intensity ratio between
distance between 3rd dark fringe and fifth bright bright and dark fringes as 9. Then amplitude ratio
fringe is equal to of the wave reaching the screen from two sources
is -
(1) 0.65 mm (2) 1.63 mm
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3.23 m (4) 4.68 mm
(3) 9 (4) 3
15 When a thin transparent plate of thickness t and 21. A beam of monochromatic green light is diffracted
refractive index  is placed in the path of one of the by a slit of width 0.550mm. The diffraction pattern
two interfering beam of light, then path difference forms on a wall 2.06m beyond the slit. The distance
between two waves at the position central maxima between the positions of zero intensity on both
is sides of central bright fringe is 4.10mm. Wavelength
of the light used is
(1) ( + 1)t (2) ( – 1)t
(1) 400nm (2) 525nm
   1 (3) 642nm (4) 547nm
(3) (4) t
t 22. A soap bubble 250nm thick is illuminated by white
light. The index of refraction of the soap bubble is
16. The minimum thickness of a soap bubble film ( =
1.36. W hich wavelength is missing in range of
1.33) that results in constructive interference in the
visible light for reflected rays ?
reflected light if the film is illuminated with light
whose wavelength in free space is  = 600 nm is (1) 300nm (2) 600nm

(1) 112.50 nm (2) 225.26 nm (3) 400nm (4) 680nm

23. Maximum distance from diffraction slit of slit width
(3) 400 nm (4) 176.5 nm a upto which ray optics holds for wavelength  is-
17. The light of wavelength 6328Å is incident on a slit
of width 0.2 mm perpendicularly, the angular fringe a2 3
(1) (2)
width of central maxima will be  a2

(1) 0.36° (2) 0.18°

a3 2
(3) (4)
(3) 0.72° (4) 0.09° 2 a

18. The diameter of the objective of a telescope is a,

its magnifying power is m and wavelength of light
is . The resolving power of the telescope is

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Aakash Institute Wave Optics
24. A light of wavelength 5000Å is coming from distant illuminated by the light of wavelength 6000 Å. If slit
star. What is the limit of resolution of a telescope is illuminated by light of another wavelength angular
whose objective has a diameter of 200cm ? width decreases by 30% wavelength of light used
(1) 3.05 × 10–7rad (2) 6.6 × 10–7rad is
(1) 3500 Å (2) 4200 Å
(3) 8 × 10–7rad (4) 2.23 × 10–7rad
(3) 4700 Å (4) 6000 Å
25. A poloroid sheet and an analyzer are placed such 30. A person with normal vision can just resolve two
that their transmission axes are parallel. The poles separated by a distance of 10m. If the limit
analyzer is then rotated by 22.5°. W hat is the of resolution be 1, then the distance of the poles
intensity of the transmitted light as a fraction of from the person is
intensity of light incident on analyser ?
(1) 34 km (2) 3.4 km
(1) 0.45 (2) 0.68 (3) 34 m (4) 3.4 m
(3) 0.41 (4) 0.87 31. A ray of light is incident on the surface of a glass
26. The observed wavelength of light coming from a plate of refractive index 3 at the polarising angle.
distant galaxy is found to increase by 0.5% as The angle of refraction is
compared with that coming from a terrestrial source. (1) 60° (2) 30°
The galaxy is
(3) 45° (4) 50°
(1) Stationary with respect to earth 32. When a thin film is illuminated by a parallel beam
(2) Approaching earth with a velocity of 1.5 × of light of wavelength 6000 Å,
106 m/s 7 fringes are observed in a certain region of the
film. How many fringes will be observed in the
(3) Receding from earth with velocity of light same region of the film if light of wavelength 4200
(4) Receding from earth with a velocity equal to 1.5 Å is used?
× 106 m/s (1) 6 (2) 10
(3) 14 (4) 18
27. In young double slit experiment, D equals the
33. Young’s double slit experiment is performed with
distance of screen from slits and d is the separation
light of wavelength 5000 Å. If a glass plate of
between the slits. The distance of the nearest point
thickness 1 m and refractive index 1.5 is kept in
to the central maxima where intensity is same as
front of one of the slits, then number of fringes that
that due to a single slit, is equal to
passes through the field of view, is
D D (1) 1 (2) 2
(1) (2)
d 2d (3) 3 (4) 4
34. In YDSE, distance between two slits is 4 mm, D
D 2D = 1 m and  = 12000 Å. If intensity of coherent
(3) (4)
3d d light from two slits are I0 and 16 I0 , then find
28. Consider the arrangement shown in figure. The intensity at y = 0.1 mm, on the screen
distance D is large compared to the seperation d (1) 7 I0 (2) 10 I0
between the slits. A monochromatic beam of light (3) 13 I0 (4) 16 I0
of wavelength ‘’ falls on the slit as shown. Find the
distance x at which the first order bright fringe is 35. Two polarising sheets are placed with their planes
formed parallel, so that light intensity transmitted is
maximum. Through what angle must either sheet
P
be turned so that light intensity drops to half the
x maximum value?
Incident d
O
ray (1) 30° (2) 45°
(3) 60° (4) 90°

D screen  I1 
D
36. The intensity ratio   of the two interfering waves
D 2 D  I2 
(1) (2)
d d
 Imax 
in a Young’s experiment is 4. The ratio   in
3 D D  d 2
 Imin 
(3) (4)
2 d d resulting wave is
29. Angular width of central maximum in the (1) 4 : 1 (2) 2 : 1
Fraunhoffer’s diffraction pattern is measured. Slit is (3) 3 : 1 (4) 9 : 1
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Wave Optics Aakash Institute
37. When angle of incidence on a material is 60°, the
reflected light is completely polarized. The velocity 1  1 
of the refracted ray inside the material is,
(1) 3,sin1  3 (2)
3
,sin1 
 3


(1) 3 × 108 m/s (2) 3 × 108 m/s

1  1 
3
(3)
3
,sin1  3 (4) 3,sin1 
 3

(3) 1.5 × 108 m/s (4) × 108 m/s
2 43. In a double slit experiment, n fringes are observed
38. Light from n incoherent sources of intensity I, 2I, 3I to be formed on a screen, placed at a distance D
.... nI are super imposed in a region. Resultant from the slits, when light of wavelength  is used.
intensity at a point in the region of superposition Now the screen starts moving from rest with
will be constant acceleration a. Then the time after which
the first maxima disappears from screen and the
(1) Zero direction of motion of screen are respectively
(2) nI
2D  n  1
n  n  1 (1) , away from slits
(3) I a
2
(4) Can not be determined
2D  n  1
39. A spaceship is moving with a velocity 10 8 m/s (2) , towards slits
a
towards a star that emits radiations of wavelength
6000 A°. The wavelength of radiation received by the
crew in the spaceship will be 2D  n  1
(3) , away from slits
(1) 4000 A° (2) 4500 A° a
(3) 5500 A° (4) 6500 A°
2D  n  1
40. Two polariser have polarising directions parallel to (4) , towards slits
each other so as to transmit maximum intensity.
a
By keeping one of the polariser fixed, other is 44. Between two coherent waves phase difference at a
rotated through different angles(). The graph which particular position is:
represents the variation of transmitted intensity
versus  is (1)   x     t 

I I (2)   t   cons tant

(1)  (2)  (3)   x     t   cons tan t

(4)   x   cons tan t

I I 45. Two coherent waves of intensities I and 4I
superpose, then the maximum and minimum
(3)  (4)  intensities produced are
(1) 5I and 3I (2) 9I and I
41. A star is emitting radiation of wavelength 5000Å. (3) 9I and 3I (4) 5I and I
The star is approaching the earth with a velocity of 46. In young’s double slit experiment the y-co-
1.5×105 m/s. The change in the wavelength of the ordinates of central maxima and 10th maxima are
radiation as received on the earth is 2cm and 5cm respectively. W hen the YDSE
apparatus is immersed in a liquid of refractive index
(1) 25 Å (2) 100 Å
1.5 the corresponding y co-ordinates will be
(3) 2.5 Å (4) Zero (1) 2cm, 7.5cm (2) 2cm, 4cm
42. When light of particular wavelength falls on a plane (3) 3cm, 6cm (4) 3cm, 7.5cm
surface at an angle of incidence of 60°, the 47. In young’s double slit experiment the two slits are
reflected light becomes completely plane polarised. d distance apart. Interference pattern is observed
The refractive index and the critical angle of the on a screen at a distance D from the slits. A dark
material are respectively fringe is observed on the screen directly opposite to
one of the slit. The wavelength of light may be

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Aakash Institute Wave Optics

D2 d2 2 
(1) (2) (1) (2) 2 
2d 2D 1 

D2 d2 2 1 
(3) (4) (3) (4)
d D 1  2 
48. A parallel beam of mono chromatic light of
wavelength 5000 A° is incident normally on a single 55. Light from a sodium lamp  = 590 nm is diffracted by
narrow slit of width 0.001 mm. The light is focused a slit of width d = 0.30 mm. The distance from the slit
by a convex lens on a screen placed on the focal to the screen is D = 0.87 m. The width of central
plane. The first minimum will be formed for the maxima will be
angle of diffraction equal to
(1) 3.9 mm (2) 3.4 mm
(1) 30° (2) 60°
(3) 15° (4) 0° (3) 3.0 mm (4) 4 mm
49. A telescope, whose objective lens has an aperture 56. In an electron microscope if the potential is increased
of 1mm for the wavelength of light 500Å, then limit from 20 KV to 80 KV, the resolving power of the
of resolution of the telescope is: microscope will change from R to
(1) 2.1 × 10–4 rad (2) 4.1 × 10–4 rad
–4
(3) 5.1 × 10 rad (4) 6.1 × 10–4 rad R
(1) (2) 4R
50. A ray of light is incident on a glass plate at the 4
polarising angle 57°. Then (Given  = tan57°)
R
(1) The reflected ray and transmitted ray both will (3) 2R (4)
be completely polarised 2
(2) The reflected ray will be completely polarised 57. A beam of light strikes a piece of glass at an angle of
and the transmitted ray will be partially incidence 60° and the refracted beam is completely
polarised plane polarised. The refractive index of the glass is
(3) The reflected ray will be partially polarised and
the transmitted ray will be completely polarised. (1) 1.5 (2) 3
(4) The reflected and transmitted both rays will be
partially polarised 3
(3) 2 (4)
51. Which of the following phenomena is not explained 2
by Huygen’s construction of wavefront. 58. A star is going away from the earth. Then it shows
(1) Refraction (2) Reflection (1) Red shift (2) Blue shift
(3) Diffraction (4) Origin of spectrum
(3) Yellow shift (4) Green shift
52. The equivalent path length in air for thickness t of
a medium of refractive index  is 59. Two light sources are coherent when

(1) t (2) (–1)t (1) Their amplitudes are equal

(2) Their frequencies are equal
t    1 t
(3) (4) (3) Their wavelengths are equal
 1 
(4) Their frequencies are equal and their phase
53. When a YDSE is performed using a monochromatic
difference is constant
source of light, fringe width is found to be 1.2 mm.
The minimum distance above central maxima at which 60. In a Young’s double slit experiment using a
monochromatic light the fringe width is 4 mm. Now
3
intensity is th of the maximum value is  4
4 the whole arrangement is dipped in water    .
 3 
(1) 0.1 mm (2) 0.2 mm Then the fringe width will be now
(3) 0.3 mm (4) 0.4 mm
(1) 4 mm (2) 2 mm
54. The intensity ratio for the two interfering beams of
(3) 3 mm (4) 6 mm
 
light is . What is the value of max min
max  min

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Wave Optics Aakash Institute
61. Two slits are separated by a distance of 1 mm are (3) 12.5 mm (4) 6 mm
illuminated with red light of wavelength 6.5×10–7 m.
The interference fringes are observed on a screen  
68. If two waves y1  3 sin  t   and y2 = 3cos
placed 1m from the slits. The distance between the  3 
third dark fringe and the fifth bright fringe is equal to
t interfere at a point, then the amplitude of
(1) 0.65 mm (2) 1.63 mm resulting wave will be
(1) 5.8 (2) 2.7
(3) 3.25 mm (4) 4.88 mm
(3) 4.6 (4) 6.8
62. If the screen (in YDSE) is perpendicular to y-axis
(line joining the sources), i.e., x–z plane, the fringes 69. A single slit of width 12 × 10–5 cm is illuminated
will be with light of wavelength 6000 Å. Angular width of
central maxima is
(1) Hyperbolic (2) Straight
(1) 2 rad (2) 3 rad
(3) Circular (4) Parabolic
(3) 1 rad (4) 8 rad
63. Choose the correct statement
70. An ordinary light has amplitude A and angle
(1) In interference and diffraction the width of all between the axes of polariser and analyser is 60°.
maximas are equal Light emerging from the analyser has amplitude of

(2) In interference width of all maximas are equal A A

but the width of central maxima is triple the (1) (2)
2 2
width of secondary maixma in diffraction
(3) In interference width of all maixmas are same A 3A
and in diffraction width of central maxima is (3) (4)
2 2 2
double of the width of secondary maixma
71. Which of the following produces coherent sources?
(4) None of these
(1) Ordinary prism (2) Biprism
64. The resolving power of a telescope depends upon
(3) Nicol prism (4) Achromatic prism
(1) Length of telescope
72. For what approximate distance is the ray optics a
(2) Focal length of objective good approximation, when the aperture is 4 mm
wide and wavelength of the light used is 400 nm?
(3) Diameter of objective
(1) 10 m (2) 80 m
(4) Focal length of eye-piece
(3) 40 m (4) 4 m
65. Two nicol prisms are first crossed and then one of
73. A microscope is focussed on a mark on a piece of
them is rotated through 60°. The percentage of
paper and then a slab of glass of thickness 3 cm and
incident light transmitted is refractive index 1.5 is placed over the mark. How
(1) 1.25 (2) 25 should the microscope be moved to get the mark
again in focus?
(3) 37.5 (4) 50 (1) 1 cm downward (2) 1 cm upward
66. A light source emitting a light of frequency 6×1015 (3) 2 cm upward (4) 4.5 cm upward
Hz, is moving away from an observer with a speed 74. When a film of transparent material of thickness
of 4 m/sec. Then the apparent change in the 2.5×10–3 cm is placed over one of the slit in YDSE.
frequency of light as observed by the observer will The fringe pattern shifts by a distance equal to 20
be fringes widths. The R.I of material of the film is
(=5000 A°)
(1) 8×107 Hz (2) 4×107 Hz
(1) 1.25 (2) 1.35
(3) 2×107 Hz (4) 8×108 Hz (3) 1.40 (4) 1.50
67. In a YDSE, the fringe width obtained in air is 5 75. In YDSE with light of wavelength =5000 A°, the
mm. W hen the whole experimental setup is distance between the slits is 0.2 mm and distance
between the plane of slits and screen is 2m. The
5 central maximum is at y=0. The fourth maximum will
immersed in oil having refractive index , then the
2 appear at y equal to
fringe width will become (1) 1.75 cm (2) 2 cm
(1) 2 mm (2) 4 mm (3) 1.5 cm (4) 2.5 cm

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Aakash Institute Wave Optics
76. In Young’s double slit experiment two slit are d 78. When the light is incident at the polarizing angle on
distance apart. Interference pattern is observed on the transparent medium then the completely
screen at a distance D from the plane of slit. A polarized light is
bright is observed on the screen directly opposite (1) Refracted light
to one of the slits. The wavelength of light is
(2) Reflected light
2 2
D d (3) Refracted and reflected light
(1) (2)
2d 2D (4) Neither Reflected nor Refracted light
79. The first diffraction minimum due to a single slit
D2 d2 diffraction is at angle  = 30° for a light of
(3) (4)
d D wavelenth 5000A°. The width of the slit is
77. A plate of thickness t made of a material of (1) 5 × 10–5cm (2) 1 × 10–4cm
refractive index µ is placed infront of one of the slit (3) 2.5 × 10–4cm (4) 1.25 × 10–5cm
in a double slit experiment. What should be the
minimum thickness t which will make the intensity
at the centre of fringe pattern zero.

(  1)
(1) (2) (µ – 1)
2

 
(3) 2    1 (4)
  1



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Wave Optics Aakash Institute

CPP-24 FOR
REGULAR
MEDICAL-2021-22

ANSWERS

1. (1) 2. (2) 3. (3) 4. (3) 5. (1) 6. (2) 7. (1)

8. (2) 9. (3) 10. (4) 11. (1) 12. (4) 13. (3) 14. (2)

15. (2) 16. (1) 17. (1) 18. (2) 19. (2) 20. (2) 21. (4)

22. (4) 23. (1) 24. (1) 25. (4) 26. (4) 27. (3) 28. (4)

29. (2) 30. (1) 31. (2) 32. (2) 33. (1) 34. (3) 35. (2)

36. (4) 37. (2) 38. (3) 39. (1) 40. (3) 41. (3) 42. (4)

43. (1) 44. (2) 45. (2) 46. (2) 47. (4) 48. (1) 49. (4)

50. (2) 51. (4) 52. (1) 53. (2) 54. (1) 55. (2) 56. (3)

57. (2) 58. (1) 59. (4) 60. (3) 61. (2) 62. (3) 63. (3)

64. (3) 65. (3) 66. (1) 67. (1) 68. (3) 69. (3) 70. (3)

71. (2) 72. (3) 73. (2) 74. (3) 75. (2) 76. (2) 77. (3)

78. (2) 79. (2)



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 CPP-24 FOR
REGULAR
MEDICAL-2021-22

Chemistry
Chapterwise Practise Problems (CPP) for NEET
Chapter - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic acids

1.   x
CH3  CH  CH  CH2OH  CH3  CH  CH  CHO
(1) (2) OH
Select the correct oxidising agent among the OH
following
(1) PCC (2) KMnO4 / OH(–) (3) (4)
(3) K2Cr2O7 / H+ (4) Conc. HNO3
2. The product of the following reaction will be 7. The product for the following reaction will be

O O
P2O5 / 
CH3 C   Product
OH C
OH
O O (i) NaBH4
Cyclic
(1) CH C (2) CH2 – C – H (ii) H + /H 2O Product
CH 3 CH3 C 
3
H
O
O O

(3) CH3 — CH3 (4) CH3 C C

O CH3 O
3. What is the major product of the following reaction? O
(i) B2H6 .THF O
H3 C — C  C – H  ()
 Major Pr oduct (1) (2) O
(ii) H2 O2 , O H
O
OH OH
(1) H 3 C — CH C — H (2) H3C — C CH2 O
O O
(3) O (4) Both (2) and (3)
(3) C H 3 — C C H3 (4) H3 C — CH2 — C — H
4. The correct acid strength order of the following is :
O
COOH COOH COOH COOH
8. dil.KOH
NO2  Product

NO2 Product is
NO2
O
I II III IV
O
(1) IV > II > III > I (2) II > III > IV > I
(1) (2)
(3) II > IV > III > I (4) I > II > III > IV
()
5. HCN
Acetaldehyde   X 
H /H2 O
 Y
O O
The product Y is
O
(1) Tartaric acid (2) Lactic acid (3) (4)
(3) Malonic acid (4) Adipic acid OH

SH 9. Which among the following give(s) negative test with

6.
SH Ni/H 2 Fehlings reagent ?
O A B (1) Aliphatic aldehyde (2) Aromatic aldehyde
or Rancy Nickel (3) -hydroxy ketone (4) Both (1) and (3)
(1)
(1)
(1)
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Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic acids Aakash Institute

O O

H2 SO5 C CH2 CH 3
10.  
 Major
 CH 3
Reduction
14.

The major product is OH OH

O Suitable reagent among the following for above

O
product will be -
(1) O (2) O
(–)
(1) Zn-Hg/conc.HCl (2) (i) NH2NH2, (ii) OH
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) HI/Red P, 
OH
OH 15. NaHSO3
A   opticaly active compound
(3) (4) O
Compound ‘A’ is

O O
11. In Cannizzaro’s reaction, the intermediate that will
(1) C (2) C
be the best hydride donor is - C2 H5 C2H5 CH3 H

H
H O OH
–
– O (3) (4)
O C
O– H H CH3 – CH 2
(1) OH (2) O2N
16. For the reaction

H OH
H
O
–
MnO2 A (major), A is
O–
– O–
(3) O (4) H3C
O
O
O (1) O (2)
C
Cl
(i) CH3 MgBr
12. 
(ii) H(  ) /H2 O
 Product
(1 mol) O
OH OH
(3) (4)
Number of moles of CH3MgBr required
(1) 2 (2) 3
17. Consider the following sequence of reactions
(3) 4 (4) 5
CH3
RCO3H H3O+
(–) A B
13. The correct order of reactivity with HCN / OH
addition, among the following will be The product B in the above sequence is
O O CH3 OH
O
C H C (1) OH (2)
CH3
H C
CH 3
OH OH
O2 N MeO
NO2
OH OCH3
I II III
CH3
(1) I > II > III (2) II > I > III (3) (4)
OH OH
(3) III > I > II (4) III > II > I

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Aakash Institute Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic acids
18. W hich of the following will give Cannizaro’s 23. Acetone on distillation with conc.H2 SO4 gives
reaction ?
(1) Xylene (2) Phorone
(1) CH3 – CHO (2) H – CHO
CH3 (3) Mesitylene (4) Mesityl oxide
(3) CH3–CH–CHO (4) Both (2) and (3)

19. Consider the following reaction sequence 24. NO2 CHO + (C 6 H 5 – CH 2 CO) 2 O
OH
C6H5  CH2COONa
 
X, X will be
–
PCC OH (aq)
A B (1) C6H5 – CH = CH – COOH

The final product B is
(2) NO2 CH = CH – COOH
O O

(1) (2)
(3) NO2 CH = C – COOH
O O C6H5
(3) (4)
(4) C6H5 – CH = C – COOH
20. Consider the following sequence of reaction
O NO2
NH2–OH H2SO4
A B 25. Which of the following compounds will give aldol
(pH=4.5)  condensation ?
Which of the following is incorrect regarding the (1) CH3 – CH = CH – CHO
above reaction sequence ?
(1) The product A is cyclohexanone oxime CH = CH –CHO
(2)
(2) The product B is a cyclic amide
(3) The conversion of A to B is known as Benzoin O
condensation
(3) Ph – C – Ph
(4) The conversion of A to B is known as
Beckmann rearrangement O
H3C
21. Which of the following statements is incorrect ? (4) C – CH – C – CPh3
H3C
(1) Aldehydes impart magenta color to Schiff’s
reagent 26. Which of the following compound does not give
Cannizzaro reaction ?
(2) Sterically hindered ketones do not produce
bisulfite addition product (1) C6H5COCHO (2) CHO–CHO
(3) Benzaldehyde responds to Fehling’s test
(3) CCl3CHO (4) HCHO
(4) Formic acid reduces with Tollen’s reagent
22. Which of the following is incorrect ? 27. Which of the following species acts as Nucleophile
during Benzoin condensation ?
(1) Phenyl or aryl sulfonyl chloride is known as
Hinsberg’s reagent (1) : CN
(2) Sulfonamides are produced when Hinsberg’s ••–
••O
reagent reacts with 1° or 2° amine
(2) C6H5 – C – CN
(3) 3° amines produce a sulfonamide which H
dissolves in alkali
OH
(4) Sulfonamides of 2° amines are insoluble in
alkali (3) C6H5 – C – CN
••

(4) Both (1) and (3)

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Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic acids Aakash Institute

O O O
(i) Zn CF3COOOH
28. R – C – H + R – CH – C – OR Product 32. CH3 – CH – C – CH2 – CH3   Product
(ii) H3O+
Br CH3
aldehyde -bromoester
Product is
Product is
O
(1)  - hydroxy ester
(1) CH3 – CH – O – C – O – CH2 – CH3
(2)  - hydroxy ester
CH3
(3)   - unsaturated ester
(4)  - haloketone O
29. Which of the following reactions can take place ? (2) CH3 – CH2 – C – O – CH – CH3
CH3
R
(1) C=O + NH 2 – NH 2 O
H (3) CH3 – C – OC(CH3)3
R
basic medium
  C = N – NH2
H (4) CH 3 – CH – C – CH – CH 3

R CH 3 CF3
(2) – NH 2 strong acidic medium
C = O + NH2  
H 33. Which reaction is used for the preparation of -
chloroacetic acid ?
R
C = N – NH2 (1) Perkin reaction
H
(2) Stephens reaction
R
(3) C = O + NH2 – NH 2 weak acidic medium
  (3) HVZ reaction
H (4) Gatlerman-koch reaction
R
C = N – NH2 (i) Mg/ether
H 34. CH2 = CH – Br X. Identify X
(ii) CO2
+
(iii) H3O
(4) All of these (1) CH3 – CH2 – COOH
30. A compound C 4 H 10 O on oxidation forms a (2) CH3CHO
compound, C 4 H 8 O which gives an oxime and a (3) HCHO
positive iodoform test. The original compound on
treatment with conc.H 2 SO 4 give C 4 H 8 . The (4) CH2 = CH – COOH
structure of compound is O
(1) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – OH 35. R
CH2 = CH – CH2 – OH CH2 = CH – C – H
(2) (CH3)3COH
best reagent R will be
(3) CH3 – CHOH – CH2 – CH3
(1) MnO2/CH2Cl2 (2) K2Cr2O7 / H+
(4) CH3 – CH2 – O – CH2 – CH3
(3) KMnO4 / H+ (4) OsO4/NaHSO3
COOH
36. Which of Carbonyl compound gives tertiary alcohol
OH with Grignard reagent followed by acidic hydrolysis?
31. + (CH3CO)2O  Product
(1) Formaldehyde (2) Acetaldehyde
(3) Acetone (4) Methyl formate
UPAC name of product is
(1) Phenyl salicylate 37. Formic acid does not react with

(2) Ortho salicylate benzoic acid (1) Tollen’s reagent (2) Fehling Solution
(3) 2-Acetoxybenzoic acid (3) HCN (4) NaHCO3
(4) Oil of wintergreen

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Aakash Institute Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic acids
COOH 42. The most suitable reagent for the given conversion
COOH is
Cl O
38. (i) (ii)
R—CH2OHR—C—H
Cl (1) KMnO4 , H2SO4 (2) K2Cr2O7 , H2SO4
+ –
COOH COOH NH CrO3Cl
(3) CrO3, H2SO4 (4)
(iii) (iv)
O
Cl
NaCN
Decreasing order of Acidic strength is 43. 
HCl
x  , (x) is
(1) (i) > (iii) > (ii) > (iv) (2) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)
(3) (iii) > (ii) > (i) > (iv) (4) (iii) > (i) > (iv) > (ii) HO CN CN

39. The reaction of CH 3–CH=CH OH with (1) (2)

HBr mainly gives
O OH
(1) CH 3–CH–CH 2 OH
Br (3) (4)
CN CN
(2) CH 3–CH 2–CH Br 44. Select the structure from the following that contains
Br a hemiacetal group
O OH H 3C O OCH3
(3) CH 3–CH 2–CH OH (1) (2)
Br
OH OCH3
(4) CH 3–CH–CH2 Br (3) H3C–C–CH3 (4) C6H5–CH
OCH3 OCH3
Br
45. In the given reaction sequence
O
H2N OH H2SO4
40. (i) CH 3 – C – OH C 6H5CHO   A  B
H ,

(ii) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – OH A and B respectively are

(iii) CH3 – CH2 – O – CH3 (1) C6H5 – CH = N–OH, C6H5CN
Order of Boiling point will be O
(1) (i) > (ii) > (iii) (2) (ii) > (i) > (iii) (2) C6H5 – CH = N–OH, C6H5C–NH2
(3) (i) > (iii) > (ii) (4) (iii) > (ii) > (i)
(3) C6H5 – CH = N – OH, C6H5CHO
41. Select the most acidic compound from the following
(4) C6H5 – CH = N–OH, C6H5COOH
COOH COOH CH3
KOH
46. A
 CH3
(1) (2)
NO2 CN O
Compound A is
COOH COOH
O O O

(3) (4) (1) (2)

O
CH3 NH2
O O
(3) (4) None

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Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic acids Aakash Institute
47. When anhydrous acetaldehyde is treated with a few
drops of concentrated sulphuric acid following is
O O
formed: C C
O
(3) O (4)
(1) Paraldehyde OH
(2) Polyoxymethylene
(3) Trioxane 51. Select from the followings that can yield an
aldehyde with Grignard Reagent
(4) Paraformaldehyde
O
18
O Ph  (1) R – C – Cl (2) Ester
H ,H2O
48.   Products
O (3) Hydrogen cyanide (4) Carbon dioxide

Products are 52. Tollen’s reagent is reduced to metallic silver by

(1) CH3CHO (2) CH3COOH
18
OH OH O
(1) (2) COOH
O O (3) (4) CH 3 – C – CH 3

18 53. Least acidic compound among the following is

OH
(3) (4) Both (1) and (3)
(1) o-chlorobenzoic acid
Ph
(2) m-chlorobenzoic acid
49. An ester A of the formula C 4 H 8 O 2 on acidic,
hydrolysis gives an acid B, which reduce Tollen’s (3) p-chlorobenzoic acid
reagent and alocohol C, which given iodoform test.
Ester A can also be converted into alcohol C by (4) o-Toluic acid
reaction with excess of Grignard reagent. Identify
Br NaOH (aq.) H3O+
correct option(s). 54. CH 3 – CH A HCN B C
Br
CH3
The product C is
(1) A is H—C—O—CH
CH3 (1) Lactic acid (2) Pyruvic acid
O
(3) Tartaric acid (4) Crotonic acid
(2) B is H—C—OH
55. The one that has highest boiling point is
O
(1) Ethanol (2) Ethanoic acid
CH3
(3) C is HO—CH (3) Acetone (4) Methoxyethane
CH3
O
(4) All of these
56. CH3 – C – Cl + CH 3 – OH  Products, the
reaction is

50. 1. NaBH (1) Electrophilic addition

 4
2. H O , 

3
(2) Nucleophilic addition
(3) Nucleophilic substitution
Identify structure of major product
(4) Electrophilic substitution
O 57. If allyl alcohol is oxidised with MnO 2 the final
OH OH product will be
(1) (2)
OH OH (1) Prop 2-en 1-al (2) 2-propanone

O (3) Propanal (4) Propanoic acid

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Aakash Institute Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic acids

Br2, Red P alcKOH COOH

58. CH3 CH2 COOH X  Y COOH
aq.KOH NO2
(3) <
Z NO2
Y and Z are respectively
COOH COOH
O O (4)
+ – + <
(1) CH2 = CH–C–OK , CH3–CH–C–O K
OH CH3
– + – +
(2) CH 3 CH COO K , CH 3 CH COO K 66. The least reactive compound towards nucleophilic
addition reaction is
OH OH
(1) HCHO (2) CH3CHO
(3) CH2 CH – COOH, CH2 CHCOO–K+
(3) C6H5CHO (4) CH3COCH3
– +
(4) CH3 CH COO K , CH2 CH – COO–K+
O O
OH
R–C–OR OH –
R–C–O + ROH
59. Select from the followings forms that will give 67.
crystalline addition compound on reaction with Practically this reaction is
saturated solution of NaHSO3
(1) Tetramolecular (2) Bimolecular
(1) Diethyl ketone (2) Acetophenone
(3) Trimolecular (4) Unimolecular
(3) Benzophenone (4) Acetone
60. Select from the following that will give positive 68. C2H5OH
PCl5
iodoform test
A alc.KOH B Br2 (i) alc. KOH, H2O
(1) Formaldehyde (2) Propanal C
(ii) NaNH2,
D 2+
E
CCl4 Hg | H+
(3) Pentan-2-one (4) Methanol
E is
OH OH
61. C = O + HCN C , It is an (1) Acetone (2) Acetaldehyde
CN
example of
(3) Acetic acid (4) Formic acid
(1) Electrophilic addition reaction
(2) Nucleophilic substitution reaction PCC PCl NaNH
69. A   B 
5
 

2
 CH  CH, starting
(3) Nucleophilic addition reaction material A is
(4) None of these (1) Acetone (2) Propanal
62. W hich of the following carboxylic acid is least (3) Ethanol (4) Formaldehyde
reactive towards esterification reaction ?
(1) R3CCOOH (2) R2CHCOOH O
NaOEt /EtOH
(3) RCH2COOH (4) CH3COOH 70. CH 3–CH 2–C–OR    ? The product
63. Select the one that is not oxidised by Fehling’s formed is
solution
O O
(1) Formaldehyde (2) Acetaldehyde
(1) CH3–CH2C–CH–C–OR
(3) Benzaldehyde (4) -Hydroxyketone
64. Benzoic acid can react with CH3
(1) NaOH (2) NaHCO3 O O
(3) KNH2 (4) All of these
(2) CH3–CH2–C–CH2–CH2–C–OR
65. Correct relation regarding acidic strength
O O
(1) COOH > CH3COOH
(3) CH3–CH2–C–CH–C–OR

COOH COOH OR

(2) > O
+
NO2 (4) CH3–CH2 –C–ONa
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Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic acids Aakash Institute
O OH OH
18 H2SO4
71. CH3CH2OH + CH3COOH Ester. (1) (2)
The formula of ester is
O O
O (3) (4)
(1) CH3 C O CH2 CH3 OH OH
O 76. The correct order of reactivity of PhMgBr with

(2) CH 3 C O CH2 CH3 O O O

Ph – C – Ph CH3 – C – H CH3 – C – CH3 is
O
(I) (II) (III)
(3) CH3 C O CH2CH3
(1) I > II > III
(4) Both (1) and (2) (2) III > II > I

H2 CHO (3) II > III > I

COCl
Pd/BaSO4, S or + HCl (4) I > III > II
72.
quinoline
77. The acids obtained through the following sequence
This is known as of reaction is
(1) Stephen’s reduction Alc.KOH Br2 KCN H3 O 
C2H5Br   P 
CCl
 Q 
excess R 
S
4
(2) Rosenmund’s reduction
(3) Etard’s reaction (1) Succinic acid (2) Malonic acid

(4) Gattermann reaction (3) Maleic acid (4) Oxalic acid

73. Benzaldehyde doesn’t give positive test with 78. The compound that can not be prepared by
Rosemund’s Reduction is
(a) Tollen’s test (b) Benedict test (c) 2,4 - DNP
(1) Acetaldehyde (2) Fomaldehyde
(1) Only (b)
(3) Benzaldehyde (4) Propanal
(2) (a) and (b) only
79. Acetone reacts with Brady’s reagent to form
(3) (b) and (c) only
(1) Propanone phenylhydrazine
(4) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) Propanone semicarbazone
O
|| (3) Propanone - 2,4 - dinitrophenylhydrazine
dil. NaOH NaBH4/MeOH
74. A B ; (4) Acetone oxime
compound (B) is 80. Correct statement ragarding role of dry HCl in
hemiacetal formation is

(1) (1) Dry HCl gas acts as catalyst in the reaction

OH OH (2) Dry HCl increases electrophilicity of carbonyl

OH carbon
(3) It helps ketone to react with monohydric alcohol
(2)
(4) Both (1) and (2)
OH
CH 2 – CH 2 – COO
Zn – Hg
(3) 81. Ca X Y
CH2 – CH2 – COO  HCl, 
OH
O Y is
(1) Ethane (2) Ethene
(4)
(3) Cyclopentane (4) Cyclobutane
75. W hich of the following will be most readily
dehydrated in acidic medium ?

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Aakash Institute Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic acids
82. Select the one that is most acidic in nature 89. W hat is the major product in the following
reaction?
(1) Formic acid (2) Benzoic acid
(3) Acetic acid (4) Phenol OH O
+
83. Rate of esterification is maximum in case of + Ph MgBr ?
(1 mole)
(1) Methanol
(2) Ethanol OH OH O
(3) Propan-2-ol (1) (2)
(4) 2-Methyl propan-2-ol Ph
O O
O
+ (3) (4)
Mg CH2 – CH2 H3O P.C.C
84. CH3 – I x y z A
Dry ether Dry ether 90. Which of the following is most acidic ?
COOH COOH
The final product A is
NO2
(1) Ethanol (2) Ethanal (1) (2)
OCH3
(3) Propanal (4) Acetone
COOH COOH
O
Anhyd. AlCl3 (3) (4)
85. +A C + HCl
NO2 OH
91. Rate of nucleophilic addition to carboxylic acid
The reactant A is derivative follow the order

(1) Benzoyl chloride (2) Phosgene (1) alkanoyl halide > amide > ester > anhydride
(3) Carbon tetrachloride (4) Both (1) and (2) (2) ester > anhydride > amide > alkanoyl halide

Pyridine (3) alkanoyl halide > anhydride > ester > amide
86. CH3COCl  C2H5OH  CH3COOC2H5  HCl
(4) amide > ester > anhydride > alkanoyl halide
Pyridine is used O
(1) To remove HCl H2O18
92. O–CH3 ?
H+
(2) To increase electrophilicity of carbonyl carbon
(3) To control the nucleophilic strength of alcohol Product(s) obtained is/are
(4) All of these O
Br2/P NH3 18
O H
87. CH3–COOH A B, (1) CH3O18H (2)
 (large excess)
O
The product B is
(3) OH (4) Both (1) and (3)
(1) -aminoacid (2) -aminoacid
(3) Propanedioic acid (4) Glucosamine CHO
88. Most acidic among the followings is conc OH–
93. ?

COOH NO2
(1) HCOOH (2) Product(s) obtained in the given reaction is/are
–
NO2 COO
COOH
(3) (4) (1) (2)
NO2
OH NO2
CH2OH

(3) (4) Both (2) and (3)

NO2
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Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic acids Aakash Institute
94. Clemmensen reduction of a ketone is carried out P and B respectively are
in presence of which of the following ?
NH2
(1) H2 /Pt
(1) CH2 = CH – COOH and CH3CH
(2) Hydrazine/Glycol/KOH COOH
(3) Zn(Hg), HCl
OH NH2
(4) LiAlH4

–
(2) CH3 – CH – COOH and CH3CH
95. The compound that undergoes decarboxylation
most readily under mild condition is COOH
COOH CH 2COOH
O O NH2
(1) (2) CH3CH and CH2 = CH – COOH
(3)
COOH
COOH
COOH NH2
(3) (4)
COOH (4) CH2 = CH – COOH and CH3CH
COOH CN
96. Find the product for the reaction
one equivalent
O
C2H5OH/HCl gas
1. Ag2O, 100. CH3 – CHO (A) . Product (A) is
CH3–C–Cl + CH2N2 +
?
2. H3O (1) Acetic acid (2) Hemiacetal
O O
(1) CH 3–C–OH (2) CH3–C–NH2 (3) Acetal (4) Ketal
101. An aldehyde on reaction with NH3 forms a
(3) CH3CH2COOH (4) CH3 – C  N compound which is used as an antiseptic drug. The
aldehyde is
CHO
+ (1) CH3CHO (2) CH3CH2CHO
97. H CH3 (i) Et MgBr products (3) CCl3CHO (4) HCHO
(ii) H3O+
Ph 102. How many aldol. condensation products will be
The correct relation between the products is/are obtained considering stereoisomers on reaction with
(1) Enantiomer (2) Tautomer dilute alkali ?

(3) Diastereomer (4) Homomer

O
Ph – CH = O and CH3 – C – H
(1) 4 (2) 3
CrO3 Cl– (3) 2 (4) 6
N+
103. Compound containing active methylene group is
–

H prepared by
98. OH A (Major)
(1) Perkin’s reaction
Br
(2) Cannizzaro's reaction
Major product A is (3) Darzen reaction
(4) Claisen condensation
(1) Br COOH (2) Br CHO
OH
PCl5
104. A ‘A’ is
H
Br COOH
(3) (4)
O Cl Cl
(1) (2)
+
COCl Cl COCl
H /H2O H+/ B
CH3 C
pH = 9 – 10 Cl
C = O + HCN A
99.
H NH Cl
4
Q HCl P (3) Cl (4) (2) and (3)
KCN H2O
COCl

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Aakash Institute Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic acids
105. The correct order of acidic strength of following –
CH2OH CH2–O
compounds is
(3) (4)
–
OH COOH CH2OH CH2–O

(i) (ii) 109. Which of the following can give positive haloform
test ?

O
COOH OH
C H
Cl CH3 (1)
(iii) (iv)
O
(1) (iii) > (ii) > (i) > (iv) (2) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv) C CH2–CH3
(2)
(3) (ii) > (i) > (iii) > (iv) (4) (iii) > (ii) > (iv) > (i)

16 O CH3
106. 18 D +

R – C – OR  + D 2O A and B are respectively O

16 OH
16 O C
(3) CH3
16
(1) R – C – OD + R – O – D
18 O CH3
C
16 (4)
(2) R – C – OD + R – OD

O O
1618
O CH 2–CH=CH–C
(3) R – C – OD + R – O – H
H
110.
18 16
(i) LiAlH4
(4) (2) and (3)
(ii) H2O
107. An organic compound A with molecular formula
C 7 H 12 gives Baeyer's test for unsaturation, but
Product
absorbs single mole of H2 to form a compound of
molecular formula C7H14(B).
Product of the reaction will be
(A) on ozonolysis gives the only compound (c)
(c) is identified as hepta – 2, 6 – dione, O
compound [A] is CH2–CH2–CH2–C
(1) 1,3–dimethylcyclopentene (1) H
(2) 1, 2–dimethylcyclopentene
(3) 1, 4–dimethylcyclobutene
O
(4) 1, 2–diethylcyclobutene
CH2–CH2–CH2–C
(2)
H
O
C
108. PCC/CH2Cl2 CH2–CH2–CH2–CH2OH
O A B C – D
PCl5 LiAlH4 1 eqv. OH , (3)
O
Product ‘D’ is
CH2–CH=CH–CH2OH
CH2OH COO
–
(4)
(1) (2)
– –
COO COO

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Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic acids Aakash Institute

COOH OH
O O (4)
C C
111. H OH Me OH O
   V
115. What is the product of the following reactions ?
The correct order of acidic strength will be
1. HBr, Peroxide
(1)  >  >  > V (2)  >  >  > V 2. Mg, Ether
(3)  >  > > V (4)  > V > >  3. CO2
Product
112. Among the following the correct order of reactivity with 4. H +/H O 2

5. SOCl2, pyridine
HCN/ OH will be
O Cl
O
O O O (1)
C
C C C H
H H H3C H H3C CH3
   V

(1)  >  >  > V (2)  >  > V >  (2)
(3)  > V >  >  (4)  >  >  > V O
113. Which among the following give negative test with
O
Tollens reagent ?
(3) Cl
(1) Aldehydes (2) -hydroxy ketone
(3) But-1-yne (4) But-2-yne O
(4)
114. The major product should be
Cl

O Br O
OH O
CH3 116. H
H H
O
Select the correct sequence of reagents for this
NaOH(dil.) reaction.

(1) Et OH NaOH, KOH (aq.), H(+)/H2O
Major product
(2) Et OH / TsOH, KOH (aq.), H(+)/H2 O

O OH NaOH, H3 O
(+)
(3) KOH (aq.)
OH
C–CH3
(1) (4) Et MgBr, H3O(+), KOH (aq.)

(i) O3
117. Product
(ii) H2O2
CH3
(2) Product of above reaction is
C H
(1) Malonic acid (2) Succinic acid
O (3) Adipic acid (4) Fumaric acid

O
C
(3) CH3

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Aakash Institute Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic acids

O CH3
O SO3H
C Zn–Hg C
118. H Product(P) (4) CH3
HO conc. HCl O SO3H
Product (P) will be
122. Which of the following reactions involve carbanion
CH3 enolate as reactive intermediate?
(1) I. Aldol condensation
HO
II. Benzoin condensation
CH3
(2) III. Claisen condensation
IV. Fries rearrangement
CH3
(1) I, II (2) I, III
(3)
Cl (3) I, IV (4) I, II and III
CH3 CHO conc. NaOH CH2OH H O+
3 conc
123. A B
(4)  H2SO4
Cl CHO COONa

119. Which of the following compound(s) give(s) positive B is

Iodoform test ?
(i) CH3CH2OH (ii) C6H5CHO CH2
O CH2OH
OH C
(1) (2)
(iii) C6H5COCH3 (iv) CH3–CH–CH2–CH3 CHO
O
(1) Only (iii)
(2) (i), (iii) and (iv) only CH2OH
(3) (ii) and (iii) only (3) (4) None of these
(4) All of these COOH
PCC 124. Which compound will be most reactive for Perkin
120. PhCH 2OH + Product
CH 2Cl2 condensation with acetic anhydride?
(PCC pyridinium chlorochromate)
The organic product formed is CHO
(1) Benzoic acid (2) Benzophenone (1)
(3) Benzaldehyde (4) Acetophenone
2+ CHO
CH3 Hg (2) CH 3O
121. [X] .
H2SO4
C CH (3) O2N CHO
[X] will be

CH3 (4) CH 3 CHO

(1) C — CH3 125. Which will give Haloform reaction?

O (1) C2H5OH

CH 3 OH
(2)
CH 2 CHO (2) CH3 – CH – CH3

CH3 O O
C = CH2 (3)
(3) CH3 – C – CH2 – C – CH3
O SO3H
(4) All of these

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Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic acids Aakash Institute

O 127. Which will give Tollen’s reagent Test?

O
+
126. CH3 – C –OCH3 + C2H5OH H CH3 – C – OC2H5 + CH3OH (1) HCOOH

Above reaction is called CHO

(2)
(1) Transesterification
(2) Esterification (3) CH3CHO
(3) Hydroboration oxidation (4) All of these
(4) Saponification

  

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Aakash Institute Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic acids

CPP-24 FOR
REGULAR
MEDICAL-2021-22

ANSWERS

1. (1) 2. (4) 3. (4) 4. (3) 5. (4) 6. (4) 7. (3)

8. (1) 9. (2) 10. (1) 11. (2) 12. (3) 13. (2) 14. (2)

15. (2) 16. (3) 17. (3) 18. (4) 19. (3) 20. (3) 21. (3)

22. (3) 23. (3) 24. (3) 25. (1) 26. (3) 27. (4) 28. (2)

29. (3) 30. (3) 31. (3) 32. (2) 33. (3) 34. (4) 35. (1)

36. (3) 37. (3) 38. (1) 39. (3) 40. (1) 41. (1) 42. (4)

43. (3) 44. (1) 45. (1) 46. (2) 47. (1) 48. (4) 49. (4)

50. (3) 51. (2) 52. (1) 53. (3) 54. (1) 55. (2) 56. (3)

57. (1) 58. (1) 59. (4) 60. (3) 61. (3) 62. (1) 63. (3)

64. (4) 65. (1) 66. (4) 67. (2) 68. (2) 69. (3) 70. (1)

71. (4) 72. (2) 73. (1) 74. (2) 75. (1) 76. (3) 77. (1)

78. (2) 79. (3) 80. (4) 81. (3) 82. (1) 83. (1) 84. (3)

85. (4) 86. (1) 87. (1) 88. (3) 89. (4) 90. (2) 91. (3)

92. (2) 93. (4) 94. (3) 95. (1) 96. (3) 97. (3) 98. (2)

99. (3) 100. (2) 101. (4) 102. (1) 103. (4) 104. (1) 105. (1)

106. (1) 107. (2) 108. (1) 109. (3) 110. (4) 111. (2) 112. (2)

113. (4) 114. (3) 115. (4) 116. (2) 117. (3) 118. (3) 119. (2)

120. (3) 121. (1) 122. (2) 123. (1) 124. (3) 125. (4) 126. (1)

127. (4)

  

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