QUALIFYING EXAM - SCIENCE

MULTIPLE CHOICES. Read each statement carefully. Choose the best answer.
1. Which of the following qualities is NOT true among considerations that humans are the masters of other
living organisms, as well as of the nonliving on earth?
A. Most developed species
B. Most dominant species
C. Most intelligent species
D. Most reproductive species

2. Of the following, which is not among the uses of the Phylogenetic Tree that explains the genealogical
history of groups of organisms?
A. Visualize point at which species diverge
B. Provide chronology of evolutionary events
C. Trace common ancestry
D. Estimate the age of living things

3. In the hierarchy of biology taxonomy, if domain is at the top, which is at the bottom?
A. Kingdom
B. Species
C. Genus
D. Family

4. The domains included in Wooese’s in 1990 classification are:

i. Archaea
ii. Bacteria
iii. Chromista
iv. Eukarya
A. I,ii,iv
B. I,ii,iii,iv
C. Ii,iii,iv
D. I,ii,iii

5. Which of the following is an example of a useful function for bacteria?

A. Can clean up an oil spill by digesting hydrocarbon in petroleum
B. Can synthesize new form of heavy metals
C. May cause foul-smelling odor when it invades the outer dermal layer
D. May be pathogenic and cause human disease

6. Which is the most basic process performed in the science of Taxonomy?

A. Naming organisms
B. Identifying organisms
C. Classifying organisms
D. Understanding organisms

7. Which protest causes malaria?

A. Plasmodium
B. Staphylococcus
C. Euglena
D. Kneallhazia

8. Under the Five Kingdom System recognized by most biologist today, where do the true bacteria,
bacteria-like organisms, and the blue-green algae belong?
A. Kingdom plantae
B. Kingdom monera
C. Kingdom Protista
D. Kingdom Fungi

9. How does energy first enter our living Planet Earth?

A. As energy manufactured through photosynthesis
B. As molecular energy from the biosphere
C. As radiant energy from the sun
D. As heat energy from outer space
10. There are main food rich in proteins that provide energy for man, but this is NOT an example of these
foods:
A. Butter
B. Nuts
C. Fish
D. Meat

11. There are main foods rich in carbohydrates that provide energy for man, but this is NOT an example of
these foods:
A. Bread
B. Meat
C. Rice
D. Cereals

12. Among the following, which is considered Prokaryotic organisms which lack a true nucleus in their
cells?
A. Animals
B. Bacteria
C. Fungi
D. Protest

13. According to the level of classification of living things, what next lower/ smaller grouping compromises a
kingdom?
A. Phyla
B. Order
C. Species
D. Class

14. Under the six-kingdom system of the living world, how are cellular forms with specialized eukaryotic
cells ability to locomote (sponges, worms, insects etc.) classified?
A. Fungi
B. Plantae Protista
C. Animalia
D. Protista

15. Whose works marked the beginning of modern taxonomy that developed a scheme of classification
with hierarchical categories based on the physical and behavioral characteristics of organisms?
A. Charles Darwin
B. Ernest Mayr
C. Jean Baptiste Lamarck
D. Carolus Linnaeus

16. Among the following, which is considered Eukaryotic organisms which possess a true nucleus in their
cells?
A. Blue-green algae
B. Bacteria
C. Archaen
D. Animal and plants

17. Under the six kingdom system, how are multicellular forms with specialized eukaryotic cells e.g.
mosses and ferns but no ability for locomotion classified?
A. Protista
B. Animalia
C. Plantae
D. Fungi

18. The process of synthesis occurs not only in plants, but is also in one of the following:
A. Archaea
B. Viruses
C. Green fungi
D. Algae
19. Which organism is an example of a fungus?
A. Algae
B. Entamoeba
C. Euglenoids
D. Yeast

20. Among the following animals in the class mammalian, which are categorized as Carnivora?
A. Elephants
B. Pigs
C. Monkeys
D. Cats

21. Among organisms which is capable of regeneration when cut into parts?
A. Yeast
B. Molds
C. Bacteria
D. Sea star

22. What is NOT an example of ways of asexual reproduction through cellular division in plants?
A. Saprophytes generation
B. Formation of a bud
C. Germination of runners in grasses
D. Stem cutting

23. Among eukaryotes, in what cell organelle does the electron transport chain occur?
A. Nucleus
B. Mitochondria
C. Vacuoles
D. Golgi apparatus

24. What type of asexual reproduction occurs when a new organism develops from an outgrowth as
exemplified corals?
A. Fission
B. Sexual reproduction
C. Budding
D. Fertilization

25. An organism has a natural environment where it lives and thrives. This is called its:
A. Habitat
B. Country
C. Migration pattern
D. Culture medium

26. Humans reproduce when an ovum is combined with a sperm leading to the development of an embryo.
This form of reproduction is called:
A. Asexual reproduction
B. Fertilization
C. Binary fission
D. Budding

27. Which of the following animals does NOT need hard-shell to protect its fertilized eggs?
A. Lizard
B. Eagle
C. Duck
D. Frog

28. True of noble gases:

A. Classified as group 7 in the periodic table of elements
B. Able to react with or any other atoms
C. Includes hydrogen and argon
D. Includes neon and helium
29. In the human life cycle, what process maintains chromosome number once a spermatozoon unites with
ovum during fertilization?
A. Oogenesis
B. Mitosis
C. Meiosis
D. Spermatogenesis

30. What is the process in the human sexual reproduction wherein the zygote undergoes a series of cell
division needed for the growth and maturation of the fetus?
A. Mitosis
B. Spermatogenesis
C. Oogenesis
D. Meiosis

31. Which of the following is an isomer of glucose?

A. Fructose
B. Maltose
C. Pentose
D. Ribose

32. What functional group differentiate chitin from cellulose?

A. Amino group
B. Phosphate group
C. Carboxyl group
D. Hydroxyl group

33. The rise in the temperature of Earth’s atmosphere due to increased greenhouse gases is called
A. Microwave effect
B. Summer phenomenon
C. Heat wave
D. Global warming

34. What is an organism that is capable of making its own food by producing complex organic compound
from simple substance using light or chemical energy?
A. Parasites
B. Commensals
C. Autotrophs
D. Heterotrophs

35. Which of the following statements about meiosis is true?

A. It allows organisms to repair tissue
B. It allows organisms to grow
C. It allows organisms to reproduce asexually
D. It allows organisms to promote genetic diversity

36. What is true of the cell theory?

A. Cells come from preexisting theory
B. Cell membrane dictate data needed for protection
C. Some organisms are not composed of cells
D. Cytoplasm regulates what goes in and out of the cell.

37. What is an example under the order carnivora?

A. Lemur
B. Termites
C. Polar bears
D. Koala bears

38. In the case of babies born through In vitro Fertilization or IVF, how are IVF babies commonly referred
to?
A. Blue babies
B. Rock-a-bye babies
C. Baby boomers
D. Test tube babies
39. True of a functional group:

A. Specific combination of bonded atoms that has consistent chemical properties

B. They are usually non polar
C. Does not affect the reactivity of the organic molecule to which it is attached
D. A particular functional group can react in varied forms depending on the carbon skeleton

40. A tiger that hunted and ate deer is an example of

A. Parasite and host
B. Prey and predator
C. Commensalism
D. Mutualism

41. Which is the simplest atom that is made up of 1 proton and 1 electron?
A. Carbon
B. Oxygen
C. Helium
D. Hydrogen

42. What are the hormones responsible for plant growth, promoting axillary bud growth and apical
dominance?
A. Cytokinis and Gibberelins
B. Cytokinis and Auxins
C. Auxins and Gibberelins
D. Auxins and abscisate

43. Among the elements useful for the body, which is the most abundant mineral in the body that aids in
the blood-clotting process?
A. Iron
B. Potassium
C. Calcium
D. Fluorine

44. Animals that are only able to eat animal meat are called
A. Obligate carnivores
B. Omnivores
C. Selective carnivores
D. Facultative carnivores

45. True of junction proteins:

A. Enable to discriminate between one’s own cell and cell from foreign organisms
B. Assists cell-to-cell adhesion and communication
C. Form an electrical connection between 2 cells
D. Participate in enzymatic metabolic reactions

46. Which of the following undergoes replication during cell division?

A. Cell membrane
B. Chromosome
C. Centromeres
D. Cytoplasm

47. Which of the following is a type of potential energy?

A. Energy in motion
B. Mechanical energy
C. Solar energy
D. Kinetic energy

48. A mango tree is planted beside a sampaguita plant in a garden. They demonstrate the following
relationship
A. Commensalism
B. Mutualism
C. Compensation
D. Predation
49. Which of the following is true of cell transport?
A. Homeostasis is maintained because the plasma membrane controls the flow of particles in and
out of the cell
B. Passive transport requires energy for it to occur
C. Active transport is exemplified by facilitated diffusion
D. The plasma membrane does not allow any molecule to freely pass and enter the cell

50. The flow of water in our planet as it undergoes the processes of evaporation, condensation,
precipitation, runoff and subsurface flow is called
A. Snow cycle
B. Rain cycle
C. Water cycle
D. Hale cycle

51. Which of the following is an acellular infectious agent not capable of undergoing cell division, but
instead requires a living cell in order to replicate?
A. Protozoa
B. Bacteria
C. Fungus
D. Virus

52. True enzymes

A. An enzyme needs to change its size in order to accommodate in a chemical reaction
B. The substance acted on by enzyme is called a product
C. The included fit model explains the binding between two enzymes to form a production
D. Proteins that decrease the amount of energy needed for a chemical reaction to occur

53. What happens to a plant cell placed in a hypotonic solution?

A. The plant will shrivel
B. No effect on the plant cell
C. The plant will develop a thickened wall
D. The plant cell will swell

54. True of photosynthesis

A. It is a type of redox reaction
B. Oxygen and water combines to produce carbohydrates
C. Carbon dioxide is oxidized from fructose
D. Water gains a carbon atom forming carbon dioxide

55. Which of the following metabolic process takes place in the cytoplasm?
A. Citric acid cycle
B. Electron transport chain
C. Glycolysis
D. Krebs cycle

56. Just like humans and animals, plants relate with one another. What relationship occurs when a mango
tree is planted beside a sampaguita plant in a garden?
A. Predatism
B. Competition
C. Mutualism
D. Commensalism

57. Which organisms are found at the top of the ecological pyramid?
A. Secondary consumers
B. Primary consumers
C. Producers
D. Tertiary consumers

58. These are plants or animals that were first to populate a previous ecosystem.
A. Climax community
B. Early population
C. Pioneer species
D. Serial occupants
59. An ant colony stores food in the summer, defends itself by stinging enemies and invades a competing
ant colony and steals larvae and use them as them as new workers. What is the term to best describe
how this species cope with everyday life?
A. Ecological success
B. Ecological niche
C. Ecological defeat
D. Environmental habitation

60. True of radiant energy

A. Lower-energy wavelengths are screened out by the ozone
B. It exists in a wide range of wavelengths
C. Only very short wavelengths such as gamma rays are capable of photosynthesis
D. Among several wavelengths of visible lights, energy content is highest for red light

61. What is the maximum total ATP energy yield for every glucose molecule metabolized?
A. 34
B. 38
C. 32
D. 36

62. What transport system in plants moves water from its roots to the top of the tree.
A. Photosynthesis
B. Transpiration
C. Capillarity
D. Respiration

63. Of the following which is not an example of biome?

A. Forest
B. Lake
C. Grassland
D. Desert

64. How are original or primary forest referred to?

A. Virgin forest
B. Green forest
C. Rainforest
D. Verdant forest

65. What is the substrate that enters the citric acid cycle?
A. Glucose
B. Lactate
C. Pyruvate
D. Acety-A

66. What is the possible consequence of eutrophication?

A. Significantly diminished sea harvest by fisherman
B. Decreased toxicity of bodies of water
C. Less turbidity of water
D. Water that is colorless and odor free

67. Which of the following are most likely consequences of air pollution?
A. Enriched flora and fauna
B. Enhanced cardiovascular endurance
C. Decreased incidence of cancer
D. Exacerbation of lung disease such as COOPD

68. What is the maximum number of ATP produced by electron transport chain?
A. 36
B. 38
C. 40
D. 34
69. What does a virus release into a bacterial cell when it infects it?
A. Viral genomic nucleic acid
B. Viral plasma membrane
C. Viral nucleus
D. Viral cytoplasm

70. A species lived in a lake. When a dam was constructed in the area, a group of fish was separated and
populated a new pond. They then develop differing characteristics and became a distinct species.
Which of the following concepts explain this speciation?
A. Geographical isolation
B. Episodic isolation
C. Chronoscopic isolation
D. Behavioral isolation

71. What is the Philippine species known as Pithecophaga Jefferyl that was listed as an endangered
species by the 1975 Convention on International Trade of Endangered Species?
A. Philippine tamarraw
B. Bohol tarsier
C. Palawan peacock pheasant
D. Monkey-eating eagle

72. The protein shell of a virus is called:

A. Nucleus
B. Nucleic acid
C. Capsid
D. Nucleolous

73. True of recessive genes:

A. Will only have phenotypic expression if present as a homozygous genotype
B. Have more superior phenotypic traits
C. Should be paired with a dominant gene for it to be expressed
D. Will prevent a dominant gene from expressing its phenotype

74. In what particular step of protein synthesis do ribosome participate in?

A. Translation
B. Cell division
C. Replication
D. Transcription

75. What is the natural cause for what is known as a fish kill in lakes and estuaries?
A. Excessive fishing
B. Acid rain
C. Use of oxygen by decaying algae
D. Lowering water level

76. A scientist puts nucleotide chains UUU in a test tube under conditions allowing protein synthesis. Soon
the test tube is full of amino acid phenylalanine. This demonstrates
A. Proteins can only contain 1 type of amino acid
B. Uralic is the basis molecule of phenylalanine
C. UU is the genetic code of phenylalanine
D. Protein synthesis cannot be stimulated by vitro

77. The study and science of heredity is called

A. Pathology
B. Pediatrics
C. Geriatrics
D. Genetics

78. What are the four most abundant elements found in living matter?
A. Nitrogen, oxygen, phosphorus and carbon
B. Hydrogen, oxygen, carbon and nitrogen
C. Oxygen, nitrogen, carbon and sulfur
D. Nitrogen, oxygen, hydrogen and phosphorus
79. True of Trisomy 21
A. An abnormality of chromosome inheritance in which there are 3 copies of chromosomes 21
B. Also known as the Turner’s syndrome
C. Present with the superior mental intelligence, tall stature and protruding eye balls
D. Results when an individual is missing 3 chromosomes

80. True of essential amino acid:

A. Obligated to be taken in the diet because it cannot be produced by the body
B. Can be synthesized by the body if water is present
C. Least important of all nutrients
D. Are more important than others

81. The following is true of circulatory system

A. It is an open system
B. Synovial fluid flows through the circulatory system
C. It includes the system and pulmonary circulation
D. The main organ is this system is the liver

82. True of DNA replication:

A. DNA replication is said to be non-conservative
B. Replication proceeds only in one direction
C. DNA is translated to give rise to proteins
D. Each new DNA molecule contains one old and one new strand

83. Eula has bacterial pneumonia. What medication should be given to manage her illness?
A. Antibiotics
B. Antiviral
C. Analgesic
D. Anti-inflammatory drugs

84. An 80-year old man has sudden severe chest pain due to insufficient blood flood to the heart causing
death of cardiac muscles. This condition is called
A. Myocardial infarction
B. Pneumonia
C. Costochondritis
D. Dyspepsia

85. Which of the following states that in a given species, the amount of adenine is equal to thymine, and
the amount of guanine is equal to the amount of cytosine?
A. Crick’s law
B. Franklin’s theory
C. Watson’s hypothesis
D. Chargaff’s rule

86. True to natural selection:

A. Majority of the population will possess unfavorable traits and becomes maladapted to the
environment
B. The most adapted individuals die and becomes extinct
C. Humans choose and breed selected animals with particular traits to reproduce
D. Members of a population have heritable variations

87. A person diagnosed with diabetes mellitus, if not treated adequately, will have the following:
A. Uncontrolled elevated blood sugar level
B. Insufficient oxygenation of the blood
C. Uncontrolled elevated blood carbon dioxide
D. Uncontrolled elevated uremic toxins in the blood

88. True of reproductive cloning:

A. The goal is to produce organs that are genetically modified
B. Results in an organism genetically distinct from an original organism
C. The goal is to produce an organism genetically identical to the original organism
D. Results in production of tissue that can be radioactive
89. What is the term for the evolutionary history of a group of organisms?
A. Genetics
B. Systematics
C. Phylogeny
D. Speciation

90. What is produced by the mating or interbreeding of two closely related species namely female horse
and a male donkey?
A. Mare
B. Stallion
C. Mule
D. Hinny

91. Who was the author of principles of geology who gave evidence that Earth was subject to slow but
continuous geological cycles of erosion and uplift?
A. Charles Lyell
B. Charles Darwin
C. Charles Lamarck
D. Charles Windser

92. Of the following, which is NOT one of the reason why Mendel selected garden peas for his
experiments?
A. They reproduce at a fast rate
B. They need much caring and cultivating
C. They exhibit contrasting traits
D. Their flowers are structurally adapted for self-pollination

93. When is a prenatal screening with the use of DNA technology applied in order to detect congenital
metabolic disorders in babies?
A. 9 months of the fetus in the womb
B. Within 48 hours after delivery
C. Within 36 hours after delivery
D. 8 months of the fetus in the womb

94. A normal mother and a normal father produced two children, one normal child and one albino child.
What kind of genes controlled the albino such that he had an abnormal skin pigmentation?
A. Mixture of dominant and recessive genes of Aa
B. Both dominant or AA
C. Both recessive or aa
D. Dominance of recessive over dominant genes or aaA

95. Gene therapy corrects detectable gene disorders but this is NOT one of its procedures:
A. Addition of functional cells
B. Cells extraction from patient
C. Reintroduction of corrected cells into patient
D. Newborn screening

96. What is true about herbivores?

A. They are main producers in the food chain’
B. They are at the apex of the food chain
C. They can be producers if given adequate water and food
D. They are only consumers

97. Which combined tissues are directly involved when a boy kicks, a frog leaps or bird flies?
A. Nerves and muscles
B. Bones and nerves
C. Muscles and bones
D. Blood and muscles
98. Which of the following pertains to slight quantifiable evolutionary modifications within a population from
generation to generation?
A. Microevolution
B. Artificial selection
C. General selection
D. Evolution upheaval

99. Which protest causes malaria?

A. Euglena
B. Plasmodium
C. Fungi
D. HIV

100. Of the following which does not characterize the bacteria, which is believed to be the earliest
life-forms having lived 3.8 million years ago?
A. Has nuclear membrane to separate nuclear materials from cytoplasm
B. Made up of prokaryotic cells
C. Has cell wall made up of protein-carbonate complex
D. Has single circular DNA
Answer:
1. D 62. C
2. A 63. B
3. B 64. A
4. A 65. D
5. A 66. A
6. C 67. D
7. A 68. D
8. B 69. A
9. C 70. A
10. A 71. D
11. B 72. C
12. B 73. A
13. A 74. A
14. C 75. B
15. D 76. C
16. D 77. D
17. C 78. B
18. D 79. A
19. D 80. A
20. D 81. C
21. D 82. D
22. A 83. A
23. B 84. A
24. C 85. D
25. A 86. D
26. B 87. A
27. D 88. C
28. D 89. C
29. C 90. C
30. A 91. A
31. A 92. B
32. A 93. D
33. D 94. D
34. C 95. D
35. D 96. D
36. A 97. C
37. C 98. A
38. D 99. B
39. D 100. C
40. B
41. D
42. A
43. A
44. A
45. B
46. B
47. C
48. C
49. A
50. C
51. D
52. D
53. D
54. A
55. C
56. B
57. D
58. C
59. B
60. B
61. B