“Learning Together, Leading Together”

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Approved by Directorate General of Shipping, Govt. of India (Approval No.: TR/A/1(32)/2010)

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1. When fighting a large fire on your vessel and attacking it from ABOVE the space on fire, it is important to .
A. rotate personnel, due to heat stress
B. station personnel on the hot deck immediately above the fire
C. stay low by crouching or kneeling on deck
D. All of the above

2. When fighting a large fire on your vessel and attacking it from ABOVE the space on fire, it is important to .
A. Not rotate personnel, as the consistent attack can extinguish the fire quickly.
B. stand erect, to avoid the heat of the deck
C. station personnel on the hot deck, immediately above the fire, to observe for its potential spread
D. All of the above

3. When fighting a large fire on your vessel and attacking it from ABOVE the space on fire, it is important to _______.
A. rotate personnel, due to heat stress
B. cool the deck directly above the space on fire
C. stand erect, to avoid the heat of the deck
D. D. All of the above

4. Control of fire should be addressed .

A. immediately after restoring vital services
B. following control of flooding
C. immediately
D. D. following establishment of fire boundaries

5. When fighting fires in spaces containing bottles of LPG (liquefied petroleum gas), you should .
A. attempt to isolate the fire from the LPG
B. cool the bottles or remove them from the fire area
C. see that the valves on all LPG bottles are closed
D. place insulating material over the bottles

6. The success of an indirect attack on a fire depends on the .

A. size of the fire when initially observed
B. cooling ability of the firefighting agent
C. complete containment of the fire
D. D. class of the fire

7. Which firefighting method is an example of an indirect attack on a fire?

A. Bouncing a straight stream of water off the overhead to create spray effect
B. Spraying foam on a bulkhead and letting it flow down and over a pool of burning oil
C. Flooding a paint locker with CO2 and sealing the compartment
D. Cooling adjacent bulkheads with water to prevent the spread of the fire by conduction

8. A fire starts on your vessel while refueling. You should FIRST .

A. stop the ventilation
B. determine the source of the fire
C. sound the general alarm
D. D. attempt to extinguish the fire

9. If there's a fire aboard your vessel, you should FIRST .

A. notify the Coast Guard
B. sound the alarm
C. have passengers put on life preservers
D. cut off air supply to the cut off air supply to the fire

10. What should be your FIRST action if you discover a fire aboard ship?
A. Sound the alarm.
B. Attempt to put out the fire.
C. Confine it by closing doors, ports, vents, etc.
D. Call the Master. .
11. You are on watch at night in port and discover a fire in #1 hatch. Which action should you take FIRST?
A. Advise the Chief Mate and Master.
B. Sound the general alarm.
C. Release carbon dioxide into the hatch.
D. D. Lead a fire hose to the hatch.

12. You are on watch at sea, at night, when the ordinary seaman reports a fire in number five upper 'teen deck. Which of the
following should NOT be done immediately?
A. Sound the general alarm
B. Secure mechanical cargo hold ventilation
C. Call for water on deck
D. Release carbon dioxide into the affected compartment

13. You detect an odor of burning cotton fabric and then see smoke coming from the top of an open laundry room doorway.
After activating the fire alarm, you might do any of the following next, EXCEPT ____________.
A. begin breaking out the nearest fire hose
B. secure ventilation to the room
C. close the door to the room
D. acquire the nearest self contained breathing apparatus

14. You detect an odor of burning electrical insulation and then notice smoke coming from an open laundry room doorway.
After activating the fire alarm, which of the following is the LEAST likely of your next actions?
A. Close the door to the room.
B. Locate the nearest CO2 or dry chemical extinguisher.
C. Secure power to the washers and dryers.
D. Break out the nearest fire hose.

15. You notice smoke coming from an open laundry room doorway. After activating the fire alarm, which of the following
would you do FIRST?
A. Attempt to determine what is burning.
B. Acquire the nearest self contained breathing apparatus.
C. Break out the nearest fire hose.
D. Wait for the fire team to arrive and assist as directed.

16. Overhauling a fire in the living quarters on a vessel must include .

A. opening dead spaces to check for heat or fire
B. sounding the "all clear" signal
C. evacuation of the vessel
D. D. operation of the emergency generator

17. What is meant by the term "overhaul" in firefighting?

A. Slow down the spread of fire by cooling adjacent structures
B. Cover the fire with foam
C. Smother the fire with a blanket or similar object
D. Break up solid objects to ensure that any deep seated fires are extinguished

18. A fire of escaping liquefied flammable gas is best extinguished by .

A. cooling the gas below the ignition point
B. stopping the flow of gas
C. cutting off the supply of oxygen
D. D. interrupting the chain reaction

19. A fuel line breaks, sprays fuel on the hot exhaust manifold, and catches fire. Your FIRST action should be to .
A. batten down the engine room
B. apply carbon dioxide to the fire
C. start the fire pump
D. D. shut off the fuel supply

20. If you have a fire in the engine room, your FIRST act should be to___ .
A. discharge the fixed CO2 system into the engine room
B. secure the fuel supply and ventilation to the engine room
C. maneuver your vessel into the wind
D. have all of your crew get into the life raft
21. Oil fires are best extinguished by
A. Cutting off the supply of oxygen C. cooling below the ignition temperature
B. removing the fuel D. spraying with water

22. When possible, what is the FIRST step in fighting an engine fuel-pump fire which results from a broken fuel line?
A. Secure all engine room doors, hatches, and vents.
B. Close the fuel line valve.
C. Check the spread of the fire with foam.
D. Cast the barge off the wharf.

23. When possible, what should be the FIRST step in combating a fire on deck resulting from a cargo overflow or a leaking
cargo line?
A. Blanket the cargo spill with foam. C. Apply CO2 on burning fuel at its source.
B. Prevent the spread of fire with a foam dam. D. Shut off the transfer of cargo.

24. Fires are grouped into what categories?

A. Class A, B, C, and D C. Combustible solids, liquids, and gases
B. Type 1, 2, 3, and 4 D. Flammable solids, liquids, and gases

25. A fire in a pile of canvas is classified as class_______

A. A C. C
B. B D. D

26. A fire in a pile of damage would be classified as class .

A. A C. C
B. B D. D

27. A fire in trash and paper waste is classified as class .

A. A C. C
B. B D. D

28. A stored-pressure water extinguisher is most effective against fires of class .

A. A C. C
B. B D. D

29. burning wood is which class of fire?

A. A C. C
B. B D. D

30. A class B fire is most successfully fought by .

A. preventing oxygen from reaching the burning material
B. cooling the burning material below its ignition temperature
C. using the extinguishing agent to make the burning material fire-resistant
D. using the extinguishing agent to absorb the heat

31. A galley grease fire would be classified as which class of fire?

A. A C. C
B. B D. D
32. An oil fire is classified as class .
A. A C. C
B. B D. D

33.An oil fire is classified as class .

A. D C. B
B. C D. A
34. If ignited, which material would be a class B fire?
A. Magnesium C. Wood
B. Paper D. Diesel Oil
35. The class of fire on which a blanketing effect is essential is class .
A. A C. C
B. B D. D

36. A class C fire would be burning .

A. fuel oil C. celluloid
B. wood D. electrical insulation

37. A fire in the radio transmitter would be of what class?

A. A C. C
B. B D. D

38. A fire starts in a switchboard due to a short circuit. This is which class of fire?
A. A C. C
B. B D. D

39. An important step in fighting any electrical fire is to .

A. stop ventilation C. de-energize the circuit
B. stop the vessel D. apply water to extinguish the fire

40. Any extinguishing agent used on a Class "C" fire must have which important property?
A. Cooling ability C. Penetrating power
B. Leaves no residue D. Nonconductivity

41. Fires which occur in energized electrical equipment, such as switchboard insulation, are class___________.
A. A C. C
B. B D. D

42. What is the MOST important consideration when determining how to fight an electrical fire?
A. Whether the fire is in machinery or passenger spaces
B. Danger of shock to personnel
C. The amount of toxic fumes created by the extinguisher
D. Maintaining electrical power

43. What is the primary hazard, other than fire damage, associated with a class C fire?
A. Possibility of reflash C. Explosion
B. Electrocution or shock D. Flashover

44. A magnesium fire is classified as class .

A. A C. C
B. B D. D

45. An aluminum powder fire is classified as class .

A. A C. C
B. B D. D
46. Fires in combustible metals, such as sodium or magnesium, are classified as class .
A. A C. C
B. B D. D

47. Fires of which class would most likely occur in the engine room of a vessel?
A. Classes A and B C. Classes C and D
B. Classes B and C D. Classes A and D

48. Which toxic gas is a product of incomplete combustion, and is often present when a fire burns in a closed compartment?
A. Carbon dioxide C. Carbon monoxide
B. Hydrogen sulfide D. Nitric oxide

49. You are releasing carbon dioxide gas (CO2) into an engine compartment to extinguish a fire. The CO2 will be most
effective if the .
A. compartment is closed and ventilators are opened
B. compartment is left open to the air
C. compartment is closed and airtight
D. air flow to the compartment is increased with blowers
50. In the event of fire in a machinery space, .
A. the fixed carbon dioxide system should be used only when all other means of extinguishment have failed
B. the fixed carbon dioxide system should be used immediately, as it is the most efficient means of
extinguishment
C. water in any form should not be used as it will spread the fire
D. the space should be opened 5 minutes after flooding CO2 to prevent injury to personnel

51. A crew member reports that the high-pressure alarm light of a low-pressure CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system is
illuminated. The most probable cause of this condition would be that _________.
A. an air leak has developed in the tank
B. the tank cooling system has malfunctioned
C. the pilot cylinder discharge valve is leaking
D. an excessive amount of insulation has been installed on the tank and piping

52. The normal designed CO2 storage tank temperature and pressure associated with a ship's low-pressure CO2 fixed fire
extinguishing system is approximately .
A. 0°F at 50 PSI C. 0°F at 300 PSI
B. 70°F at 150 PSI D. 70°Fat 500 PSI

53. What would be a major consequence of the refrigeration system for a low-pressure CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system
remaining inoperable?
A. The entire charge might eventually be lost due to CO2 venting out through the relief valve.
B. Liquid CO2 would vent out through the safety valve as the temperature increases.
C. Excessive condensation inside the tank would freeze, causing a restriction in the discharge piping.
D. The warmed charge of CO2 would not be effective in extinguishing a fire.

54. When a ship's low-pressure CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system is activated from a remote location, what determines the
quantity of CO2 being released into a selected space?
A. The number of discharge nozzles in the space determines the quantity released.
B. The discharge will continue until the temperature of the space returns to its normal ambient temperature.
C. The main CO2 tank is partitioned into sections that are individually designated for each of the protected spaces.
D. A pneumatic timer controls each discharge selector valve, and is preset for each space.
55. The safety discs on carbon dioxide cylinders are set to release at 2,700 psi. Under normal circumstances this pressure
will be reached at a temperature of ________________.
A. 70°F C. 125°F
B. 100°F D. 135°F

56. Fixed carbon dioxide extinguishing systems, for machinery spaces that are normally manned, are actuated by one
control to open the stop valve in the line leading to the space, and_____________.
A. the same control releasing the CO2 C. two separate controls to release the CO2
B. a separate control to release the CO2 D. three separate controls to release the CO2

57. In a fixed carbon dioxide extinguishing system for a machinery space, designed WITH a stop valve in the line leading to
the protected space, the flow of CO2 is established by actuating________________.
A. one control C. three controls
B. two controls D. none of the above

58. The C02 flooding system is actuated by a sequence of steps which are .
A. break glass, pull valve, break glass, pull cylinder control
B. sound evacuation alarm, pull handle
C. open bypass valve, break glass, pull handle
D. open stop valve, open control valve, trip alarm

59. The wooden plug fitted tightly in the vent of a damaged tank may prevent the tank from .
A. filling completely C. developing free surface moments
B. developing free surfaces D. collapsing

60. A fire starting by spontaneous combustion can be expected in which condition?

A. Paints, varnish, or other liquid flammables are stowed in a dry stores locker.
B. Inert cargoes such as pig iron are loaded in a wet condition.
 C. Oily rags are stowed in a metal pail.
D. Clean mattresses are stored in contact with an electric light bulb.

61. Oily rags stored in a pile that is open to the atmosphere are a hazard because they may .
A. deteriorate and give off noxious gasses
B. spontaneously heat and catch fire
C. attract lice and other vermin and serve as a breeding ground
D. None of the above

62. Spontaneous combustion is caused by .

A. an outside heat source heating a substance until it ignites
B. conduction of heat through a wall of material to the substance
C. chemical action within a substance
D. All of the above

63. A Spontaneous combustion is most likely to occur in .

A. rags soaked in linseed oil C. dirty swabs and cleaning gear
B. overloaded electrical circuits D. partially loaded fuel tanks

64. Spontaneous ignition can result from .

A. an unprotected drop-light bulb C. smoking in bed
B. careless disposal or storage of material D. worn electrical wires on power tools
65. Which substance might be subject to spontaneous combustion?
A. Coal C. Leather
B. Scrap rubber D. All of the above
66. You have been carrying a liquid with flammable limits of 1% to 7% mixture with air. If your instructions say that no one
shall enter the tank if the vapor concentration is over 15% of the LEL, what is the maximum allowable percentage of vapors
for men to enter?
A. 0.0015 C. 0.0105
B. 0.0085 D. 0.07
67. Ambient air, which you normally breathe, contains what percent of oxygen?
A. 0.06 C. 0.15
B. 0.1 D. 0.21
68. Normally, the percentage of oxygen in air is .
A. 0.16 C. 0.21
B. 0.18 D. 0.25
69. What is the maximum oxygen content below which flaming combustion will no longer occur?
A. 0.01 C. 0.15
B. 0.1 D. 0.21
70. What is the percentage of oxygen in a typical sample of uncontaminated air?
A. 12 percent C. 18 percent
B. 15 percent D. 21 percent

71. You will extinguish a fire when you remove .

A. nitrogen C. sodium
B. oxygen D. carbon dioxide

72. All of the following are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT .
A. electricity C. oxygen
B. fuel D. heat

73. Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a shipboard fire by .

A. removing the fuel C. removing the oxygen
B. interrupting the chain reaction D. removing the heat

74. The spread of fire is prevented by .

A. cooling surfaces cooling surfaces adjacent to the fire
B. removing combustibles from the endangered area
C. shutting off the oxygen supply
 D. All of the above
75. What is required in addition to the heat, fuel, and oxygen of the fire triangle to have a fire?
A. Electricity C. Pressure
B. Chain reaction D. Smoke

76. What, when removed, will result in the extinguishment of a fire?

A. Nitrogen C. Oxygen
B. Sodium D. Carbon dioxide

77. Fire alarm system thermostats are actuated by .

A. smoke sensors
B. the difference in thermal expansion of two dissimilar metals
C. pressure loss due to air being heated
D. an electric eye which actuates when smoke interferes with the beam

78. Which fire detection system is actuated by sensing a heat rise in a compartment?
A. Manual fire detection system C. Smoke detection system
B. Automatic fire detection system D. Watchman's supervisory system

79. Which types of portable fire extinguishers are designed for putting out electrical fires?
A. Foam and water (stored pressure) C. Foam and dry chemical
B. Foam and carbon dioxide D. Dry chemical and carbon dioxide

80. Which types of portable fire extinguishers are designed for use on electrical fires?
A. Dry chemical and carbon dioxide C. Carbon dioxide and foam (stored pressure)
B. Foam (stored pressure) and soda-acid D. Dry chemical and soda-acid

81. A carbon dioxide fire extinguisher should be recharged .

A. at least annually C. only if the extinguisher has been used
B. whenever it is below its required weight D. before every safety inspection

82. A deck-stowed 40-foot container is giving off smoke, and one end is discolored from heat. The cargo is valuable and
easily damaged by water. You want to extinguish the fire without further damage if possible. What action should you take?
A. Connect a portable line from the ship's fixed system and discharge CO2 into the container.
B. Flood the container with water and disregard any cargo damage as the fire threatens the entire vessel.
C. Pierce the container and discharge 6 or more portable CO2's then add more CO2 hourly.
D. Cool the exterior of the container with water and close all vents; then keep it cooled until it can be off- loaded.

83. A squeeze-grip type carbon dioxide portable fire extinguisher has been partially discharged. It should be .
A. labeled empty and recharged as soon as possible
B. replaced in its proper location if weight loss is no more than 25%
C. replaced in its proper location regardless of weight
D. replaced in its proper location if weight loss is no more than 15%

84. After using a C02 portable extinguisher, it should be .

A. put back in service if some C02 remains C. retagged
B. hydrostatically tested D. recharged

85. How do you operate a portable CO2 fire extinguisher?

A. Point the horn down. C. Break the rupture disc.
B. Turn cylinder upside-down. D. Pull pin, squeeze grip.

86. In continuous operation, the effective range of the 15 pound CO2 extinguisher is limited to .
A. 2 to 4 feet C. 9 to 12 feet
B. 3 to 8 feet D. 10 to 15 feet

87. In order to discharge a CO2 portable fire extinguisher, the operator must FIRST .
A. invert the CO2 extinguisher C. remove the locking pin
B. squeeze the two trigger handles together D. open the discharge valve

88. Portable CO2 fire extinguishers should NOT be used to inert a space containing flammable liquids due to the danger of__.
A. the CO2 being inhaled by personnel C. vapor condensation on the extinguisher
B. reflash of burning liquids D. the discharge causing a static spark
89. To operate a portable CO2 extinguisher continuously in the discharge mode .
A. slip the "D yoke" ring in the lower handle over the upper handle
B. reinsert the locking pin
C. open the discharge valve
D. invert the CO2 extinguisher

90. When discharging a portable CO2 fire extinguisher, you should NOT hold the horn of the extinguisher because the
horn___
A. becomes extremely hot C. could come off in your hands
B. becomes extremely cold D. is placed directly in the flames

91. When fighting a fire on a bulkhead using a portable carbon dioxide extinguisher, the stream should be directed at the___.
A. base of the flames, moving the horn from side to side, following the flames upward as they diminish
B. top of the flaming area, moving the horn from side to side, following the flames downward as they diminish
C. center of the flaming area, moving the horn vertically from top to bottom
D. bottom of the flaming area, moving the horn vertically to the top following the flames upward as they diminish

92. Which is the proper method of determining whether a portable CO2 fire extinguisher needs recharging?
A. Check the tag to see when the extinguisher was last charged.
B. Release a small amount of CO2; if the CO2 discharges, the extinguisher is acceptable.
C. Weigh the extinguisher and compare the weight against that stamped on the valve.
D. Recharge the extinguisher at least once each year.

93. Which portable fire extinguisher is normally recharged in a shore facility?

A. Dry chemical (cartridge-operated) C. Water (pump tank)
B. Water (cartridge-operated) D. Carbon dioxide

94. Which portable fire extinguisher should be used on a class C fire on board a vessel?
A. Carbon dioxide C. Foam
B. Water (stored pressure) D. Carbon tetrachloride

95. You are having a Coast Guard inspection. All carbon dioxide fire extinguishers aboard will be_________.
A. weighed C. checked for pressure loss
B. discharged and recharged D. sent ashore to an approved service facility

96. You can determine that a CO2 fire extinguisher is fully charged by .
A. looking at the gauge C. weighing by hand
B. checking the nameplate data D. weighing on a properly calibrated scale

97. A portable dry chemical fire extinguisher discharges by .

A. gravity when the extinguisher is turned upside down
B. pressure from a small CO2 cartridge on the extinguisher
C. air pressure from the hand pump attached to the extinguisher
D. pressure from the reaction when water is mixed with the chemical

98. Dry chemical extinguishers extinguish class B fires to the greatest extent by .
A. cooling C. oxygen dilution
B. smothering D. breaking the chain reaction

99. Recharging a previously used cartridge-operated dry-chemical extinguisher is accomplished by_________.

A. authorized fire equipment servicing personnel only
B. replacing the propellant cartridge and refilling with powder
C. puncturing the cartridge seal after installation
D. recharging the cartridge and refilling it with powder
100. What is an advantage of a dry chemical extinguisher as compared to a carbon dioxide extinguisher?
A. It has a greater duration.
B. It provides a heat shield for the operator.
C. It is nontoxic.
D. It offers lasting, effective protection against burn-back.
101. When electrical equipment is involved in a fire, the stream of dry chemicals should be .
A. aimed at the source of the flames C. shot off a flat surface onto the flames
B. fogged above the equipment D. used to shield against electrical shock

102. Which action is routinely performed at the annual servicing and inspection of a dry-chemical cartridge- operated
portable fire extinguisher?
A. Insure the chemical is powdery.
B. Replace the cartridge.
C. Pressures test the discharge hose.
D. Test the pressure gauge for proper operation.

103. Which action is routinely performed at the annual servicing and inspection of a dry-chemical cartridge-operated
portable fire extinguisher?
A. Test the pressure gauge for correct reading. C. Replace the dry chemical.
B. Weigh the cartridge. D. Pressure test the discharge hose.

104. Which statement(s) is(are) TRUE concerning the use of dry chemical extinguishers?
A. You should direct the spray at the base of the fire.
B. You should direct the spray directly into the fire.
C. You should direct the spray at a vertical bulkhead and allow it to flow over the fire.
D. All of the above

105. You are fighting a class "B" fire with a portable dry chemical extinguisher. The discharge should be directed .
A. to bank off a bulkhead onto the fire C. over the top of the fire
B. at the seat of the fire, starting at the near edge D. at the main body of the fire

106. You are fighting a class "B" fire with a portable dry chemical extinguisher. The discharge should be directed .
A. at the seat of the fire, starting at the near edge C. over the top of the fire
B. to bank off a bulkhead onto the fire D. at the main body of the fire

107. All portable fire extinguishers must be capable of being .

A. carried by hand to a fire C. recharged in the field
B. carried or rolled to a fire D. used on class "B" fires

108. All portable fire extinguishers must be capable of being .

A. carried by hand to a fire C. recharged in the field
B. carried or rolled to a fire D. used on class "B" fires

109. Size I and II fire extinguishers are designated as .

A. portable C. fixed
B. semi-portable D. compact

110. Fire extinguishers of sizes III, IV, and V are designated as .

A. portable C. fixed
B. semi-portable D. disposable

111. Size III, IV, and V extinguishers are considered .

A. hand portable C. fixed extinguishers
B. all purpose D. semi-portable

112. Which type of portable fire extinguishers is NOT designed for use on flammable liquid fires?
A. Foam (stored-pressure) C. Dry chemical
B. Water (cartridge-operated) D. Carbon dioxide

113. Which type of portable fire extinguishers is NOT designed for use on flammable liquid fires?
A. Foam C. Water (cartridge-operated)
B. Dry chemical D. Carbon dioxide

114. Which extinguishing agent is suitable to combat a class B fire in an engine compartment?
A. Carbon dioxide C. Foam
B. Dry chemical D. All of the above

115. A fire in electrical equipment should be extinguished by using .

A. salt water C. low-velocity fog
 B. foam D. CO2

116. After extinguishing a fire with CO2, it is advisable to_____.

A. use all CO2 available to cool the surrounding area C. thoroughly ventilate the space of CO2
B. stand by with water or other agents D. jettison all burning materials

117. Before using a fixed CO2 system to fight an engine room fire, you must .
A. secure the engine room ventilation C. evacuate all engine room personnel
B. Secure the machinery in the engine room D. All of the above

118. Carbon dioxide as a fire fighting agent has which advantage over other agents?
A. It causes minimal damage. C. It is cheaper.
B. It is safer for personnel. D. It is most effective on a per unit basis.

119. CO2 extinguishes a fire by .

A. cooling C. chemical action
B. smothering D. All of the above

120. Fire in an engine compartment is best extinguished with carbon dioxide gas (CO2) and by .
A. closing the compartment except for the ventilators
B. completely closing the compartment
C. leaving the compartment open to the air
D. increasing the air flow to the compartment by blowers

121. Fixed CO2 systems would not be used on crew's quarters or .

A. the paint locker C. cargo holds
B. spaces open to the atmosphere D. the engine room

122. In areas where CO2 piping is installed, such piping may not be used for any other purpose EXCEPT .
A. in connection with the fire-detecting system C. to ventilate the space
B. in connection with the water sprinkler system D. to run the emergency wiring to the space

123. Large volumes of carbon dioxide are safe and effective for fighting fires in enclosed spaces, such as in a pumproom,
provided that the .
A. persons in the space wear gas masks
B. persons in the space wear damp cloths over their mouths and nostrils
C. ventilation system is secured and all persons leave the space
D. ventilation system is kept operating

124. The danger associated with using carbon dioxide in an enclosed space is .
A. frostbite C. asphyxiation
B. skin burns D. an explosive reaction

125. The extinguishing agent most likely to allow reignition of a fire is .

A. carbon dioxide
B. foam
C. water fog
D. water stream

126. There are two disadvantages to CO2 as a firefighting agent. One of these is the limited quantity available, and the other
is
A. the lack of cooling effect on heated materials
B. that it cannot be used in a dead ship situation with no electrical power to the CO2 pump
C. that it breaks down under extreme heat to form poisonous gases
D. there is no effect on a class A fire even in an enclosed space

127. What is NOT a characteristic of carbon dioxide fire-extinguishing agents?

A. Effective even if ventilation is not shut down C. Non-corrosive
B. Will not deteriorate in storage D. Effective on electrical equipment
128. When used to fight fire, carbon dioxide .
A. is effective if used promptly on an oil fire C. is lighter than air
B. has a greater cooling effect than water D. is harmless to cargo and crew
129. Which danger exists to people when CO2 is discharged into a small enclosed space?
A. Damaged eardrums C. Frostbite
B. Electric shock D. Respiratory arrest

130. Which extinguishing agent is most likely to allow reflash as a result of not cooling the fuel below its ignition
temperature?
A. CO2 C. Water spray
B. Water stream D. Foam

131. Which extinguishing agent is the best for use on electrical fires?
A. Foam C. Dry chemical
B. CO2 D. Water fog

132. Which statement concerning carbon dioxide is FALSE?

A. It displaces the oxygen in the air.
B. It cannot be seen.
C. It cannot be smelled.
D. It is safe to use near personnel in a confined space.

133. Which statement is TRUE concerning carbon dioxide?

A. It is lighter than air. C. It is used mostly on class A fires.
B. It is an inert gas. D. All of the above

134.Which statement is TRUE concerning carbon dioxide?

A. It is heavier than air. C. It is used on class B and C fires.
B. It is non-conductive. D. All of the above are true.

135. While you are working in a space, the fixed CO2 system is accidentally activated. You should .
A. secure the applicators to preserve the charge in the cylinders
B. continue with your work as there is nothing you can do to stop the flow of CO2
C. retreat to fresh air and ventilate the compartment before returning
D. make sure all doors and vents are secured

136. Why is carbon dioxide (CO2) better than dry chemical for fighting a class "C" fire?
A. The dry chemical is a conductor.
B. The dry chemical leaves a residue.
C. CO2 will not dissipate in air.
D. It takes smaller amounts of CO2 to cover the same area.

137. You are fighting a fire in the electrical switchboard in the engine room. You should secure the power, then______.
A. use a portable foam extinguisher C. use a portable CO2 extinguisher
B. use a low-velocity fog adapter with the fire hose D. determine the cause of the fire

138. An "ABC" dry chemical fire extinguisher would be LEAST effective against a fire in .
A. a mattress C. high voltage electrical gear
B. spilled liquids such as oil or paint D. a trash can

139. An advantage of an ABC dry chemical over a carbon dioxide extinguisher is .

A. lack of toxicity C. burn-back protection
B. the multipurpose extinguishing ability D. cooling ability

140. As compared to carbon dioxide, dry chemical has which advantage?

A. Cleaner C. Greater range
B. Effective on metal fires D. More cooling effect

141. Dry chemical extinguishers may be used on what class of fires?

A. A only C. B and C only
B. B only D. A, B or C as marked on the extinguisher

142. Dry chemical fire extinguishers are effective on which type(s) of fire?
A. Burning oil C. Paint
B. Electrical D. All of the above
143. One disadvantage of using regular dry chemical (sodium bicarbonate) in firefighting is that .
A. it can break down under high heat and emit noxious fumes
B. it will decompose under prolonged storage and lose its effectiveness
C. fire has been known to flash back over the surface of an oil fire
D. it is ineffective in fighting fires in high-voltage electrical equipment

144. The most effective extinguishing action of dry chemical is .

A. breaking the chain reaction C. smothering
B. the CO2 that is formed by heat D. shielding of radiant heat

145. When dry chemical extinguishers are used to put out class B fires, there is a danger of reflash because dry chemical.
A. is not an effective agent on Class B fires C. dissipates quickly
B. does little or no cooling D. is rapidly absorbed by the liquid

146. Which advantage does dry chemical have over carbon dioxide (CO2) in firefighting?
A. Compatible with all foam agents
B. Cleaner
C. More protective against re-flash
D. All of the above

147. Which statement concerning the application of dry chemical powder is FALSE?
A. At temperatures of less than 32°F, the extinguisher must be recharged more often.
B. When possible, the fire should be attacked from windward.
C. The stream should be directed at the base of the fire.
D. Directing the stream into burning flammable liquid may cause splashing.

148. Which statement describes the primary process by which fires are extinguished by dry chemical?
A. The stream of dry chemical powder cools the fire.
B. The dry chemical powder attacks the fuel and oxygen chain reaction.
C. The powder forms a solid coating over the surface.
D. The dry chemical smothers the fire.

149. If a powdered aluminum fire is being fought, the correct extinguishing agent would be .
A. dry powder C. CO2
B. water fog D. steam

150. Which type of portable fire extinguisher is best suited for putting out a Class D fire?
A. Dry chemical C. Foam
B. CO2 D. Dry powder

151. Fire extinguishing agents used on Class C fires must be .

A. able to absorb heat C. nonconducting
B. water based D. nontoxic

152. What is the most important characteristic of the extinguishing agent in fighting a class "C" fire?
A. Weight C. Electrical non conductivity
B. Temperature D. Cost

153. A foam-type portable fire extinguisher would be most useful in combating a fire in .
A. solid materials such as wood or bales of fiber
B. flammable liquids
C. a piece of electrical equipment
D. combustible metallic solids

154. A large oil fire on the deck of a ship can be fought most effectively with .
A. dry chemical C. high-velocity fog
B. foam D. Water (cartridge-operated)operated)

155. A portable foam (stored-pressure type) fire extinguisher would be most useful in combating a fire in _____.
A. generators C. the bridge controls
B. oil drums D. combustible metals
156. An advantage of a dry chemical over a carbon dioxide fire extinguisher is its .
A. greater range C. cleanliness
B. cooling ability D. All of the above

157. As an extinguishing agent, foam .

A. conducts electricity
B. should be directed at the base of the fire
C. is most effective on burning gases which are flowing
D. extinguishes by cooling oil fires below ignition temperature

158. Compared to the amount of concentrated foam liquid used, the amount of low expansion mechanical foam produced is
A. 97 times greater C. 10 times greater
B. 94 times greater D. 2 times greater

159. Lighting foam is only effective when the foam .

A. penetrates to the bottom of the fire
B. is kept saturated with low-velocity water fog
C. mixes with the burning fuel oil
D. completely covers the top of the burning liquid

160. Foam extinguishes a fire by .

A. smothering the burning material C. absorbing the burning material
B. chemical combination with burning material D. organic destruction of the burning material

161. Foam extinguishes a fire mainly by

A. cooling C. smothering
B. chemical action D. inerting the air

162. Foam is a very effective smothering agent and .

A. it provides cooling as a secondary effect
B. works well on extinguishing electrical fires
C. can be used to combat combustible metal fires
D. All of the above

163. Foam is effective in combating which class(es) of fire?

A. A C. A and B
B. B D. B and C

164. How does foam extinguish an oil fire?

A. By cooling the oil below the ignition temperature
B. By removing the fuel source from the fire
C. By excluding the oxygen from the fire
D. By increasing the weight of the oil

165. In addition to weighing the cartridge, which other maintenance is required for a cartridge-operated dry chemical
extinguisher?
A. Weigh the powder in the canister.
B. Discharge a small amount to see that it works.
C. Check the hose and nozzle for clogs.
D. Check the external pressure gage.

166. In the production of chemical foam by a continuous-type generator .

A. the maximum water pressure to be used is 50 psi
B. the speed of foam production is slower at lower water temperatures
C. each pound of foam powder produces about 800 gallons of chemical foam
D. fresh water only should be used

167. One gallon of high expansion foam solution will produce .

A. 8 to 10 gallons of foam C. 100 to 200 gallons of foam
B. 25 to 50 gallons of foam D. 500 to 1000 gallons of foam
168. One gallon of low expansion foam solution will produce about .
A. 10 gallons of foam C. 100 gallons of foam
B. 25 gallons of foam D. 500 gallons of foam

169. One of the limitations of foam as an extinguishing agent is that foam .

A. cannot be made with salt water C. is corrosive and a hazard to fire fighters
B. is heavier than oil and sinks below its surface D. conducts electricity

170. Portable foam fire-extinguishers are designed for use on class .

A. A and class B fires C. B and class C fires
B. A and class C fires D. A, class B, and class C fires

171. Portable-foam fire extinguishers are designed for use on what classes of fires?
A. A and B C. B and C
B. A and C D. A, B, and C

172. Production of mechanical foam by a portable in-line foam proportioner .

A. increases the size of foam bubbles formed
B. increases the rate of foam production
C. improves the extinguishing properties of foam
D. gives the nozzleman more freedom of movement, since it can be placed anywhere in the hose line

173. Regular foam can be used on all but which flammable liquid?
A. Motor gasoline C. Crude petroleum
B. Jet fuel D. Alcohol

174. The BEST method of applying foam to a fire is to .

A. spray directly on the base of the fire C. sweep the fire with the foam
B. flow the foam down a nearby vertical surface D. spray directly on the surface of the fire

175. The preferred agent used in fighting a helicopter crash fire is .

A. CO2
B. dry chemical
C. water
D. foam

176. What would be the most effective agent to use to extinguish a fire in drums of flammable liquids stowed on the
weather deck of a vessel?
A. Carbon dioxide C. Steam
B. Foam D. Water fog

177. When compared to a high-expansion foam, a low-expansion foam will .

A. be dryer C. be more heat resistant
B. be lighter D. cling to vertical surfaces

178. When compared to a high-expansion foam, a low-expansion foam will .

A. be dryer C. be less heat resistant
B. be lighter D. not cling to vertical surfaces

179. When compared to low-expansion foam, a high-expansion foam will .

A. be drier C. be more heat resistant
B. be heavier D. not cling to vertical surfaces
180. When compared to low-expansion foam, a high-expansion foam will .
A. be wetter C. be more heat resistant
B. be lighter D. not cling to vertical surfaces

181. When must a dry chemical fire extinguisher be recharged?

A. After each use C. Every 6 months
B. When the air temperature exceeds 90°F D. Every 12 months

182. When water pressure of 100 psi is used in conjunction with an inline proportional for the production of the mechanical
foam, a 5-gallon can of liquid foam will last .
A. 1-1/2 minutes C. 5 minutes
 B. 2-1/2 minutes D. 15 minutes

183. Which extinguishing agent is best for use on a magnesium fire?

A. Water C. CO2
B. Sand D. Dry chemical

184. Which statement about firefighting foam is TRUE?

A. Foam conducts electricity.
B. To be most effective, foam should be directed at the base of the fire.
C. Foam is most effective on burning liquids which are flowing.
D. Foam can ONLY be used to extinguish class A fires.

185. Which statement is TRUE about fire fighting foam?

A. The air bubbles in foam act as an insulator in fighting a class C fire.
B. The effectiveness of foam in forming a blanket over a burning liquid increases as the temperature of the liquid increases.
C. Foam can be used to control gases escaping from compressed gas cylinders.
D. Foam sets up a vapor barrier over flammable liquid preventing flammable gases from rising.

186. Which statement is TRUE concerning the application of foam on an oil fire?
A. It cools the surface of the liquid.
B. It gives protection to fire fighting personnel against the heat of the fire.
C. It forms a smothering blanket on the surface of the oil.
D. It should be used at the same time a solid stream of water is being applied.

187. Why should foam be banked off a bulkhead when extinguishing an oil fire?
A. To coat the surrounding bulkheads with foam in case the fire spreads
B. To cool the bulkhead closest to the fire
C. To prevent any oil on the bulkheads from igniting
D. To prevent agitation of the oil and spreading the fire

188. Your tank ship has 40 gallons of 6% foam concentrate aboard. Approximately how much foam solution can be produced
from this supply?
A. 200 gallons C. 667 gallons
B. 420 gallons D. 986 gallons

189. A definite advantage of using water as a fire extinguishing agent is its characteristic of .
A. alternate expansion and contraction as water in a liquid state becomes a vapor
B. absorption of smoke and gases as water is converted from a liquid to a vapor
C. rapid contraction as water is converted from a liquid to a vapor
D. rapid expansion as water absorbs heat and changes to steam

190. An extinguishing agent which effectively cools, dilutes combustible vapors, removes oxygen, and provides a heat and
smoke screen is .
A. carbon dioxide C. dry chemical
B. Halon 1301 D. water fog

191. On a class "B" fire, which portable fire extinguisher would be the LEAST desirable?
A. Carbon dioxide C. Dry chemical
B. Water (stored pressure) D. Foam

192. The best method of extinguishing a class A fire is to .

A. remove oxygen from the area C. smother with CO2
B. cool fuel below ignition temperature D. smother fire with foam

193. The extinguishing agent most effective for combating wood fires is .
A. water C. foam
B. carbon dioxide D. dry chemical

194. The main advantage of a steady stream of water on a class "A" fire is that it .
A. breaks up and cools the fire C. removes the oxygen
B. protects the firefighting crew D. washes the fire away
 195. The most effective cooling agent among those normally used to fight fires is .
A. water fog or spray C. mechanical foam
B. chemical foam D. carbon dioxide

196. The most effective fire extinguishing agent to use on burning linen is .
A. water C. dry chemical
B. carbon dioxide D. foam

197. The primary method by which water spray puts out fires is by .
A. removing the oxygen C. removing combustible material
B. cooling the fire below the ignition temperature D. diluting combustible vapors

198. What are the most important reasons for using water fog to fight fires?
A. Smothers burning surfaces, organically destroys fuel
B. Cools fire and adjacent surfaces, provides protective barrier
C. Reaches areas not protected by steam or CO2 smothering systems
D. Allows fire to be attacked from leeward, saturates liquid surfaces

199. When choosing extinguishers to fight a Class "B" fire do NOT use .
A. carbon dioxide C. foam (stored-pressure type)
B. dry chemical D. water (cartridge-operated)

200. When fighting an oil or gasoline fire in the bilge, which of the following should NOT be used?
A. Foam C. All-purpose nozzle
B. Solid stream water nozzle D. Carbon dioxide

201. Which extinguishing agent is most effective on a mattress fire?

A. CO2 C. Dry Chemical
B. Foam D. Water

202. Which extinguishing agent will absorb the most heat?

A. CO2 C. Water
B. Foam D. Dry chemical

203. Which extinguishing agent will cool down a heated bulkhead in the least amount of time?
A. Water stream
B. Water fog or spray
C. Steam
D. Dry chemical

204. Which fire-fighting agent is most effective at removing heat?

A. Water spray C. Carbon dioxide
B. Foam D. Dry chemical

205. What is the BEST conductor of electricity?

A. Carbon dioxide C. Fresh water
B. Distilled water D. Salt water

206. What does the term "head" mean when applied to a fire pump?
A. Length of the discharge pipe C. Difference between the discharge and suction pressures
B. Height of the discharge pipe D. Sum of discharge and suction pressures

207. You should be most concerned about a possible explosion or fire in fuel tanks .
A. during fueling when the fuel first strikes the tank bottom
B. during fueling when the fuel strikes fuel already in the tank
C. when underway as the fuel is moved by wave action
D. shortly after fueling when fuel vapors gather

208. A fire in the galley ALWAYS poses the additional threat of .

A. contaminating food with extinguishing agent C. causing loss of stability
B. spreading through the engineering space D. a grease fire in the ventilation system
209. A galley grease fire on the stove may be extinguished using .
A. water C. the range hood extinguishing system
B. foam D. fire dampers

210. A large fire, involving class "A" material, has developed in the ship's galley. In combating this fire, you should .
A. keep the galley door closed until all the class "A" material has been consumed by the fire
B. have a hose team cool the galley door, then open the door and extinguish the fire using a type B-II extinguisher
C. cool adjoining horizontal and vertical surfaces before opening the galley door
D. advance the hose team into the galley without any preparatory action

211. Fighting a fire in the galley poses the additional threat of .

A. contaminating food with extinguishing agent C. loss of stability
B. spreading through the engineering space D. a grease

212. Which of the following would be of immediate concern after discovering a large fire in the ship's galley?
A. An adjacent storeroom, containing spare parts
B. A storeroom directly above, containing combustible fluids
C. An adjacent storeroom, containing mattresses and linen
D. An adjacent storeroom, marked "Stewards Stores"

213. The primary danger in helicopter fires is .

A. burning jet fuel running on to quarters or other areas
B. loss of stability
C. rotating and flying debris
D. heat damage to helicopter structure

214. A fire hose has a .

A. male coupling at both ends
B. female coupling at both ends
C. female coupling at the nozzle end and a male coupling at the hydrant end
D. male coupling at the nozzle end and a female coupling at the hydrant end
215. A spanner is a .
A. cross connection line between two main fire lines C. tackle rigged to support a fire hose
B. special wrench for the couplings in a fire hose line D. None of the above

216. Approximately how far could a straight stream of water reach if the fire hose pressure is reduced to 60 PSI?
A. 50 feet C. 150 feet
B. 100 feet D. 200 feet

217. Each fire hose coupling on a MODU must have threads that meet the specifications of the .
A. American Petroleum Institute C. American Society of Mechanical Engineers
B. National Standard Fire hose Coupling D. Underwriter's Laboratories, Inc.

218. Fire hose should be washed with .

A. salt water and a wire brush C. mild soap and fresh water
B. caustic soap D. a holystone

219. The canvas covering of fire hose is called the .

A. casing C. line cover
B. outer hose D. jacket

221. The danger of a charged hose left unattended on deck with the nozzle open is .
A. the hose could burst
B. the nozzle end will whip about causing damage or injury
C. water damage to vessel's cargo or structure
D. personnel might trip over the hose

222. Under normal firefighting conditions, approximately how far could a straight stream of water reach when the hose
pressure is 100 PSI?
A. 50 feet
B. 100 feet
 C. 150 feet
D. 200 feet

223. What is the minimum number of people required to safely handle a 1-1/2 inch fire hose?
A. 1 C. 3
B. 2 D. 4

224. What is the minimum number of people required to safely handle a 2-1/2 inch fire hose?
A. 1 C. 3
B. 2 D. 4

225. What is the most vulnerable part of the fire main system?
A. The fire pump C. The hydrant valve
B. Exposed hard piping D. The fire hose

226. Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning the proper procedure in handling a fire hose?
A. A 1½ inch hose should be deployed with a minimum of a nozzleman and hoseman.
B. Back-up hosemen should be placed wherever the hose makes a significant turn.
C. Use of a spanner wrench when attaching nozzles or additional lengths of hose is always critical.
D. The nozzleman should always hold the nozzle with one hand on top, to prevent kickback.

227. Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning the proper procedure in handling a fire hose?
A. A 1½ inch hose should be deployed with a minimum of a nozzleman and hoseman.
B. The nozzleman should always hold the nozzle with one hand on top, to prevent kickback.
C. Back-up hosemen should be positioned wherever the hose makes a significant turn.
D. The fire hose should be partially charged before deploying it from the fire station.

228. Which statement about stowing spare hose is TRUE?

A. Fold the hose so that the male coupling is about 4 feet from the female coupling, then roll it up.
B. Roll the hose starting at the female end.
C. Roll the hose starting at the male end.
D. Fold the hose into lengths about 6 feet long and then lash the folds together.

229. Why is spare fire hose rolled for storage?

A. Water in the hose is forced out the end in the rolling process.
B. The threads on the male end are protected by the hose.
C. Rolling provides maximum protection against entry of foreign objects into the couplings.
D. Rolling provides maximum protection to the outer covering of the hose.

230. A double male coupling is one that .

A. has left hand twist C. has outside threads on both ends
B. has inside threads on both ends D. takes two men to operate

231. Fire hose couplings ____________.

A. are made of bronze, brass, or soft alloy metals
B. should be painted red in order to identify hose lengths
C. are specially hardened to prevent crushing
D. should be greased frequently

232. To lubricate the swivel or remove corrosion from a fire hose coupling, you should use .
A. glycerine C. kerosene
B. graphite D. fresh water and soap

233. To remedy a leaking fire hose connection at the hydrant, secure the valve and .
A. replace the gasket in the male coupling C. replace the gasket in the female coupling
B. reduce fire pump pressure D. rethread the male coupling

234. What should be used to remove corrosion from the swivel on the female coupling of a fire hose?
A. Bearing grease and a wire brush C. Fish oil and a soft brush
B. Talc and fine sandpaper D. Fresh water, soap, and a stiff brush
235. When joining the female coupling of the fire hose to the male outlet of the hydrant, you should make sure that the .
A. threads are lubricated C. female coupling has a gasket
 B. nozzle is attached to the hose D. hose is led out

236. When fighting a fire in an enclosed space, the hose team should crouch as low as possible to _____.
A. maneuver with the hose more easily C. allow the heat and steam to pass overhead
B. obtain the best available air for breathing D. None of the above

237. When two fire hose teams are attacking a fire they should .
A. use different fire hose pressures C. not attack the fire from opposite sides
B. use fire hoses of different sizes D. not wear protective clothing

238. Good housekeeping on a vessel prevents fires by .

A. allowing better access in an emergency C. eliminating trip hazards
B. eliminating potential fuel sources D. improving personnel qualifications

239. Paints and solvents on a vessel should be ______.

A. stored safely at the work site until work is completed
B. returned to the paint locker after each use
C. covered at all times to protect from ignition sources
D. stored in a suitable gear locker

240. What is LEAST likely to cause ignition of fuel vapors?

A. Static electricity C. Loose wiring
B. An open running electric motor D. Explosion proof lights

241. Which may ignite fuel vapors?

A. Static electricity C. Loose wiring
B. An open and running motor D. All of the above

242. A combustible gas indicator meter is calibrated to read the percentage of .

A. vapor to oxygen C. the autoignition concentration
B. the flammable limit concentration D. the lower explosive limit concentration

243. A combustible gas indicator will operate correctly ONLY when the .
A. hydrocarbon content of the atmosphere is less than the U.E.L.
B. atmosphere is deficient in oxygen
C. compartment to be tested is free of CO2
D. All of the above

244. A pump room is suspected of accumulating gases after a ventilation machinery breakdown. Where should the
combustible gas indicator case be placed when testing the pump room atmosphere for combustible gases?
A. In the lower level of the pump room C. In the upper level of the pump room
B. In the middle level of the pump room D. On the deck outside the pump room

245. Combustible gas indicators measure the presence of combustible gas as a percentage of the .
A. flash point C. lower explosive limit
B. upper explosive limit D. fire point

246. Combustible gas indicators operate by drawing an air sample into the instrument .
A. over an electrically heated platinum filament C. where it is ignited by a sparking device
B. where it is mixed with nitrogen D. where its specific gravity is measured

247. The flammable limits of gasoline are 1.3 to 7.6 percent volume of air. You are testing a tank that contained gasoline by
using a combustible gas indicator. Under testing, the tank sample caused the needle to move rapidly to 100 on the dial and
remain there. What is the concentration of flammable gas?
A. 0 C. over 7.6%
B. 1.3 to 7.6% D. over 100%

248. The flammable limits of gasoline are 1.3 to 7.6 percent volume of the air. You are testing a tank that contained gasoline
by using a combustible gas indicator. Under testing, the tank sample registered 55 on the instrument's dial. What is the
concentration of flammable gases?
A. 0.007 C. 0.055
B. 0.041 D. 0.55
249. When using the combustible gas indicator, a special filter for filtering the incoming sample must be used if the
atmosphere being tested contains vapors of .
A. sour crude C. CO2
B. leaded gasoline D. chlorine

250. Which instrument is suitable for determining the presence of explosive concentrations of fuel oil vapors in tanks?
A. A flame safety lamp C. A liquid cargo meter
B. A combustible gas indicator D. All of the above

251. Which statement is TRUE concerning a combustible gas indicator?

A. Several seconds will elapse between the taking of a sample and the reading appearing on the dial.
B. The instrument will operate in any atmosphere.
C. Toxicity of the atmosphere is measured by the instrument.
D. All of the above

252. Which statement is TRUE concerning combustible gas indicators?

A. One sample of air is adequate to test a tank.
B. They do not work properly where there is a lack of oxygen.
C. They will detect a lack of oxygen.
D. They are calibrated to read the percentage chance of explosion.

253. While using a combustible gas indicator, if the hydrocarbon content of the atmosphere exceeds the U.E.L., the needle
of the indicator will .
A. remain at zero without moving
B. move to the maximum reading and stay there
C. move halfway up the scale
D. move to the maximum reading and immediately return to zero

254. You are testing a tank that contained gasoline by using a combustible gas indicator. Under testing, the tank sample caused
the needle to move rapidly to 100 on the dial then fall to zero. What is the concentration of flammable gas?
A. Less than the flammable range
B. Within the flammable range
C. Over the flammable range
D. The explosi meter is defective and giving a false reading.

256. After each reading of an oxygen indicator, the instrument should be purged with .
A. CO2 C. the tested compartment's air
B. fresh air D. water

257. An oxygen indicator can be used to determine if there is .

A. sufficient oxygen in a compartment to support life C. hydrogen gas present
B. combustible gases present D. All of the above

258. Deficient oxygen content inside a chain locker can be detected with .
A. litmus paper C. an oxygen breathing apparatus
B. a combustible gas indicator D. an oxygen indicator

259. Deficient oxygen content inside a chain locker can be detected with .
A. litmus paper C. oxygen breathing apparatus
B. combustible gas indicator D. oxygen indicator

260. If the meter needle of the oxygen indicator cannot be set to zero, what should be done?
A. Replace the batteries.
B. Check the sampling tube for blockage.
C. Adjust the final reading by the amount the needle is displaced from zero.
D. Replace the platinum filament.

261. The oxygen indicator is an instrument that measures the .

A. amount of oxygen in the atmosphere of a confined space
B. amount of combustible gas as a percentage of the lower explosive limit in a confined space
C. concentration of CO2 as a percentage of oxygen in a confined space
D. None of the above
262. What can be used to measure the percentage of oxygen inside a chain locker?
A. Flame safety lamp C. Oxygen indicator
B. Combustible gas indicator D. H2S meter

263. What could result in an incorrect oxygen concentration reading on the oxygen indicator?
A. Exposure to carbon dioxide for no more than 1 minute
B. Exposure to carbon dioxide for more than 10 minutes
C. Exposure to a very low concentration of sulfur dioxide for no more than 2 minutes
D. None of the above
264. When using the oxygen indicator, which reaction from the needle should you expect as a sample is drawn into the
instrument?
A. Rise to the correct reading and then, slowly fall to zero as the oxygen in the sample is consumed
B. Move back and forth and finally stabilize at the correct reading after about 10 seconds
C. Rise to the correct reading immediately and then rise slowly to a false reading as the operating temperature increases
D. Slowly rise to the correct reading and then remain stationary

265. Which statement is TRUE concerning the oxygen indicator?

A. Exposure to flue gas has no effect on the instrument.
B. Only one level of the tested space need be sampled by the instrument.
C. Prolonged exposure to CO2 can result in false readings.
D. The instrument can detect hydrogen gas.

266. While testing a cargo tank, your oxygen indicator reads 25% oxygen in the tank. You would then .
A. enter the tank safely C. ventilate the tank
B. suspect the accuracy of the reading D. test for nitrogen

267. You are using an oxygen indicator. How long should you wait after the sample is drawn into the instrument before
reading the meter?
A. No wait is necessary, the reading occurs immediately.
B. At least 5 seconds
C. At least 10 seconds
D. At least 20 seconds

268. The international shore connection .

A. allows hook up of fire fighting water from shore facilities
B. satisfies pollution prevention requirements
C. allows emergency use of the fire main for deballasting
D. permits discharge of waste oil to shore facilities

269. The most likely location for a liquid cargo fire to occur on a tanker would be .
A. in the midships house C. at the vent header
B. at the main deck manifold D. in the pumproom

270. The primary hazard of liquefied petroleum gas and liquefied natural gas is .
A. pressure C. temperature
B. toxicity D. flammability

271. A self-contained breathing apparatus is used to .

A. make underwater repairs to barges
B. determine if the air in a tank is safe for men
C. enter areas that may contain dangerous fumes or lack oxygen
D. resuscitate an unconscious person
272. After putting on a self-contained breathing apparatus, you open the air supply and hear a continuous ringing of a bell.
What does this mean?
A. The unit is working properly. C. The air bottle needs to be refilled.
B. The face mask is not sealed properly. D. The air supply hose has a leak.

273. The bypass valve on a self-contained breathing device should be opened if .

A. you are entering a space containing poisonous vapors
B. you are entering a space containing explosive gases
C. the regulator of the breathing apparatus malfunctions
D. the facepiece of the breathing device is too tight
274. The function of the bypass valve on the self-contained breathing apparatus is to .
A. control the pressure of the oxygen as it enters the body
B. allow the wearer to manually give himself oxygen
C. release excess heat which would otherwise cause the bottle to explode
D. allow exhaled gases to pass outside the bottle

275. The rated operating time of a self-contained breathing device may be reduced in actual use because of
A. pressure differences in pressure differences in the atmosphere
B. the length of the hose attached to the facepiece
C. the physical exertion of the person wearing the device
D. spaces containing poisonous vapors

276. The self-contained breathing device should not be used in which situation?
A. Oxygen deficient spaces C. Fighting fires that produce heavy smoke
B. Compartments containing poisonous vapors D. Underwater search

277. D To safely enter a compartment where CO2 has been released from a fixed extinguishing system, you should .
A. wear a canister type gas mask C. test the air with a pure air indicator
B. test the air with an Orsat apparatus D. wear a self-contained breathing apparatus

278. What is the function of the bypass valve on the self-contained breathing apparatus?
A. The valve opens in excessive heat to release the oxygen in the bottle and prevent the bottle from exploding.
B. In the event of a malfunction in the equipment, the valve can be operated manually to give the wearer air.
C. When pressure in the apparatus exceeds 7 psi above atmospheric pressure, the valve opens to release pressure.
D. The valve reduces the high pressure in the bottle to about 3 psi above atmospheric pressure.

279. When the alarm bell sounds on a positive-pressure, self-contained breathing apparatus, how long will reserve air supply
last?
A. About 4-5 minutes C. About 12-15 minutes
B. About 8-10 minutes D. About 18-20 minutes
280. When the bypass valve of a self-contained breathing apparatus is opened, the mainline valve should be .
A. completely open C. pinched to check the air flow
B. completely closed D. immediately disconnected
281. When the bypass valve of a self-contained breathing device is opened, the air flows .
A. directly to the facepiece C. through the regulator
B. directly to the air supply bottle D. from the bottle into the atmosphere
282. When the mainline valve of a self-contained breathing apparatus is open, the bypass valve should be .
A. completely open C. disconnected
B. completely closed D. partially opened
283. You are in a tank wearing a breathing apparatus and you desire to return topside. How many tugs of the lifeline mean
"Take up slack"?
A. 1 C. 3
B. 2 D. 4
284. You are in a tank wearing the self-contained breathing apparatus and you desire to return topside. How many tugs of
the lifeline mean to take up the slack?
A. One C. Three
B. Two D. Four

285. You are tending the lifeline of a man who entered a compartment using a breathing apparatus. How many tugs on the
lifeline indicate the man should advance?
A. 1 C. 3
B. 2 D. 4

286. You are tending the lifeline of a man who entered a compartment using a breathing apparatus. How many tugs on the
lifeline indicate the man should back out?
A. 1 C. 3
B. 2 D. 4

287. You are tending the lifeline of a man who entered a tank using a breathing apparatus. How many tugs on the lifeline
 indicate that the man should come out immediately?
A. 1 C. 3
B. 2 D. 4

288. You are tending the lifeline of a person who has entered a compartment wearing a breathing apparatus.
How many tugs of the lifeline mean "Are you all right"?
A. One C. Three
B. Two D. Four

289. You are wearing a breathing apparatus inside a tank. How many tugs on the lifeline indicate that you are all right?
A. 1 C. 3
B. 2 D. 4
290. You are wearing a breathing apparatus inside a tank. How many tugs on the lifeline should you give to indicate that you
are advancing?
A. 1 C. 3
B. 2 D. 4

291. You are wearing a breathing apparatus inside a tank. How many tugs on the lifeline should you give to indicate that you
need help?
A. 1 C. 3
B. 2 D. 4

292. According to the regulations, what fire safety control feature is required in quick-closing shut off valves?
A. Electrical cut off switch C. Manual cut off switch
B. A fusible link D. A water spray actuator

293. A combination or all-purpose nozzle produces .

A. low-velocity fog only C. a solid stream and foam
B. a solid stream only D. a solid stream and fog

294. A high-velocity fog stream can be used in fire fighting situations to drive heat and smoke ahead of the fire fighters in a
passageway. This technique should only be used when .
A. using a 2-1/2 inch hose
B. there is an outlet for the smoke and heat
C. the fire is totally contained by the ship's structure
D. at least two fog streams can be used

295. High-velocity fog .

A. is a finer, more diffuse water spray than low-velocity fog
B. requires that the water pressure be no greater than 60 psi
C. produces an effective fog pattern no more than 6 feet beyond the nozzle
D. extinguishes a fire by absorbing heat and reducing the supply of oxygen

296. If a firefighting situation calls for low-velocity fog you would .

A. order the engine room to reduce pressure on the fire pump

B. put the lever on an all-purpose fire nozzle all the way forward
C. attach a low-velocity fog applicator with the nozzle shut down
D. put the lever on an all-purpose fire nozzle all the way back

297. On the all-purpose nozzle, the position of the valve when the handle is all the way forward is .
A. shut C. solid stream
B. fog D. spray

298. One advantage of the "all-purpose nozzle" is that it .

A. can fit any size hose
B. converts a stream of water into a fog
C. increases the amount of water reaching the fire
D. can spray two streams of water at the same time
299. The 12-foot low-velocity fog applicator .
A. has a spray pattern 12 feet in diameter
B. can be used in conjunction with both 11/2 inch and 2-1/2 inch all-purpose nozzles
C. has a 90° bend at its discharge end
D. has a screw thread end which connects to the all-purpose nozzle

300. The all-purpose nozzle will produce a fog spray when you .
A. pull the nozzle handle all the way back toward the operator
B. pull the nozzle handle back to a position where the handle is perpendicular to the plane of the nozzle
C. push the nozzle handle forward as far as it will go
D. insert a fog applicator between the fire hose and nozzle

301. The difference in water spray pattern between the high-velocity tip and low-velocity applicator used with the all-
purpose nozzle is due to .
A. a difference in water pressure C. the length of the applicator
B. the method of breaking up the water stream D. All of the above

302. The high-velocity fog tip used with the all-purpose fire fighting nozzle should always be .
A. attached by a chain
B. coated with heavy grease to prevent corrosion
C. painted red for identity as emergency equipment
D. stored in the clip at each fire station

303. The spray of water in low-velocity fog will have .

A. greater range than high-velocity fog C. about the same range as high-velocity fog
B. lesser range than high-velocity fog D. greater range than a solid stream

304. The spray of water produced by using the high-velocity fog position on an all-purpose nozzle will have .
A. greater range than low-velocity fog C. about the same range as low-velocity fog
B. lesser range than low-velocity fog D. greater range than a solid stream

305. The straight stream capability of an all-purpose nozzle is used in fighting a class A fire to .
A. shield fire fighters from radiant heat C. get the most water possible on the fire
B. break up burning material D. drive heat and smoke ahead of the fire fighters

306. To get low-velocity fog from an all-purpose nozzle, you would .

A. attach the bronze nozzle tip to the fog outlet of the nozzle
B. attach an applicator to the nozzle in place of the bronze nozzle tip
C. attach an applicator to the solid stream outlet on the nozzle
D. simply move the handle to the vertical position on the nozzle

307. Water fog from an all-purpose nozzle may be used to .

A. fight an electrical fire C. eliminate smoke from a compartment
B. fight a magnesium fire D. All of the above
308. What is an advantage of water fog or water spray over a straight stream of water in fighting an oil fire?
A. It has a smothering effect on the fire.
B. It requires less water to remove the same amount of heat.
C. It gives more protection to fire fighting personnel.
D. All of the above

309. When approaching a fire from leeward you should shield fire fighters from the fire by using .
A. a straight stream of water C. high-velocity fog
B. foam spray D. low-velocity fog

310. When approaching a fire from windward, you should shield firefighters from the fire by using .
A. low-velocity fog C. a straight stream of water
B. high-velocity fog D. foam spray
311. When attempting to enter a compartment containing a fire, which method of applying water is best?
A. High-velocity fog stream directed toward the overhead
B. Straight stream directed into the center of the fire
C. Sweeping the compartment with a fog stream
D. Solid stream directed toward the overhead
312. When the handle of an all-purpose nozzle is in the forward position, the nozzle will .
A. produce high-velocity fog C. produce a straight stream
B. produce low-velocity fog D. shut off the water

313. When the handle of an all-purpose nozzle is in the vertical position and without an applicator, the all- purpose nozzle
will .
A. produce high-velocity fog C. produce a straight stream
B. produce low-velocity fog D. shut off the water

314. When the handle of an all-purpose nozzle is pulled all the way back, it will .
A. produce high-velocity fog C. produce a straight stream
B. produce low-velocity fog D. shut off the water

315. When using a high-velocity fog stream in a passageway, the possibility of a blow back must be guarded against. Blow
back is most likely to occur when .
A. pressure builds up in the nozzle which causes a surge of water
B. the only opening in a passageway is the one from which the nozzle is being advanced
C. pressure in the fire hose drops below 100 psi
D. a bulkhead collapses due to heat and pressure

316. With an approved combination nozzle, low-velocity fog is produced by .

A. inserting an applicator in the nozzle
B. putting the handle of the nozzle in the forward position
C. directing a straight stream of water against the ship's structure
D. the combination nozzle only when the water pressure exceeds 125 psi

317. You are operating a fire hose with an applicator attached. If you put the handle of the nozzle in the vertical position you
will .
A. produce high-velocity fog C. produce a straight stream
B. produce low-velocity fog D. shut off the water

318. Fire may be spread by which means?

A. Conduction of heat to adjacent surfaces C. Convection
B. Direct radiation D. All of the above

319. The spread of fire is NOT prevented by .

A. shutting off the oxygen supply
B. cooling surfaces adjacent to the fire
C. removing combustibles from the endangered area
D. removing smoke and toxic gases by ensuring adequate ventilation

320. To prevent the spread of fire by conduction you should

A. cool the bulkheads around the fire C. close all openings to the area
B. remove combustibles from direct exposure D. shut off all electric power

321. To prevent the spread of fire by convection you should

A. cool the bulkhead around the fire C. close all openings to the area
B. remove combustibles from direct exposure D. shut off all electrical power

322. Blocking open or removing fire dampers can cause .

A. fixed foam systems to be ineffective C. the accumulation of explosive gases
B. faster cooling of the fire D. the fire to spread through the ventilation system

323. Convection spreads a fire by .

A. transmitting the heat of a fire through the ship's metal
B. burning liquids flowing into another space
C. heated gases flowing through ventilation systems
D. the transfer of heat across an unobstructed space

324. Fire dampers prevent the spread of fire by .

A. convection C. radiation
B. conduction D. direct contact

325. In the event of a fire, the doors to a stair tower must be closed to prevent the spread of fire by .
 A. ventilation C. convection
B. radiation D. conduction

326. Radiation spreads a fire by .

A. transferring heat across an unobstructed space
B. heated gases flowing through ventilation systems
C. burning liquids flowing into another space
D. transmitting the heat of a fire through the ship's metal
327. The primary function(s) of an automatic sprinkler system is(are) to .
A. extinguish the fire which triggers it
B. limit the spread of fire and control the amount of heat produced
C. protect people in the areas which have sprinkler heads
D. alert the crew to the fire

328. If you are fighting a fire below the main deck of your vessel, which action is most important concerning the stability of the
vessel?
A. Shutting off electricity to damaged cables
B. Pumping fire-fighting water overboard
C. Maneuvering the vessel so the fire is on the lee side
D. Removing burned debris from the cargo hold

329. You are fighting a fire in a cargo hold on your vessel. Which action is most important concerning the stability of the
vessel?
A. Shutting off electricity to damaged cables
B. Draining fire-fighting water and pumping it overboard
C. Maneuvering the vessel so the fire is on the lee side
D. Removing burned debris from the cargo hold

330. You are fighting a fire in a watertight compartment using hoses and salt water. Stability may be reduced because of
A. progressive downflooding
B. reduction of water in the storage tanks
C. increase in free surface which reduces the metacentric height
D. reduction of KG to the minimum allowable

331. In setting the valves on a steam-smothering system on a tank vessel, the master control valve to cargo tanks should be
A. open and individual tank valves open C. closed and the individual tank valves closed
B. open and the individual tank valves closed D. closed and the individual tank valves open

332. Automatic fire dampers in ventilation systems are operated by use of .

A. heat or smoke detectors C. remotely operated valves
B. C02 system pressure switches D. fusible links

333. Fusible-link fire dampers are operated by .

A. a mechanical arm outside the vent duct C. electrical controls on the bridge
B. the heat of a fire melting the link D. a break-glass and pull-cable system

334. Fusible-link fire dampers are operated by .

A. a break-glass and pull-cable system C. a mechanical arm outside the vent duct
B. electrical controls on the bridge D. the heat of a fire melting the link

335. The ventilation system of your ship has fire dampers restrained by fusible links. Which statement is TRUE?
A. A fusible link will automatically open after a fire is extinguished and reset the damper.
B. Fusible links must be replaced at every inspection for inspection for certification.
C. Fusible links must be replaced if a damper is activated.
D. Fusible links are tested by applying a source of heat to them.

336. A fire must be ventilated .

A. when using an indirect attack on the fire such as flooding with water
B. to prevent the gases of combustion from surrounding the firefighters
C. to minimize heat buildup in adjacent compartments
D. if compressed gas cylinders are stowed in the compartment on fire
337. After extinguishing a paint locker fire using the fixed CO2 system, the next action is to have the space .
A. opened and burned material removed
B. left closed with vents off until all boundaries are cool
C. checked for oxygen content
D. doused with water to prevent reflash

338. Automatic fire dampers in ventilation systems are operated by use of a .

A. remote operated valve C. fusible link
B. C02 system pressure switch D. heat or smoke detector
339. If heavy smoke is coming from the paint locker, the FIRST firefighting response should be to .
A. release the CO2 flooding system C. enter and use a portable extinguisher
B. open the door to evaluate the extent of the fire D. secure the ventilation
340. It is necessary to secure the forced ventilation to a compartment where there is a fire to .
A. allow the exhaust fans to remove smoke
B. extinguish the fire by carbon monoxide smothering
C. prevent additional oxygen from reaching the fire
D. protect fire fighting personnel from smoke
341. The hoods over galley ranges present what major hazard?
A. Grease collects in the duct and filter and if it catches fire is difficult to extinguish.
B. In order to effectively draw off cooking heat they present a head-injury hazard to a person of average or more height.
C. They inhibit the effective operation of fire fighting systems in combating deep fat fryer or range fires.
D. They concentrate the heat of cooking and may raise surrounding flammable material to the ignition point.

342. The ventilation system of your ship has fire dampers restrained by fusible links. Which statement is TRUE?
A. A fusible link will automatically open after a fire is extinguished and reset the damper.
B. Fusible links must be replaced at every inspection for certification.
C. Fusible links are tested by applying a source of heat to them.
D. Fusible links must be replaced if a damper is activated.

343. There is a fire in the crew's quarters of your vessel. You should .
A. ventilate the quarters as much as possible
B. prepare to abandon ship
C. close all ventilation to the quarters if possible
D. attempt to put the fire out yourself before sounding the alarm

344. Ventilation systems connected to a compartment in which a fire is burning are normally closed to prevent the rapid
spread of the fire by .
A. convection C. radiation
B. conduction D. spontaneous combustion

345. When flammable liquids are handled in a compartment on a vessel, the ventilation for that area should be .
A. operated continuously while vapors may be present
B. operated intermittently to remove vapors
C. available on standby for immediate use
D. shut down if an explosive mixture is present

346. When should a fire be ventilated?

A. When attacking the fire directly C. When using the fixed CO2 system
B. When using a steam smothering system D. All of the above

347. A fire has broken out on the stern of your vessel. You should maneuver your vessel so the wind .
A. blows the fire back toward the vessel C. comes over the stern
B. comes over the bow D. comes over either beam

348. A fire is discovered in the forepeak of a vessel at sea. The wind is from ahead at 35 knots. You should .
A. remain on course and hold speed
B. change course and put the stern to the wind
C. change course to put the wind on either beam and increase speed
D. remain on course but slack the speed
349. There is a fire aft aboard your vessel. To help fight the fire, you should .
A. put the wind off either beam
B. head the bow into the wind and decrease speed
C. put the stern into the wind and increase speed
D. put the stern into the wind and decrease speed

350. You are underway when a fire breaks out in the forward part of your vessel. If possible, you should .
A. put the vessel's stern into the wind C. call for assistance
B. abandon ship to windward D. keep going at half speed