LÊ TRUNG KIÊN

(Sưu tầm và biên soạn)

TUYỂN TẬP
ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI VÀ
CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN QUỐC GIA
NĂM 2017
(LƯU HÀNH NỘI BỘ)
 SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH
SÓC TRĂNG Năm học 2016-2017

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC SỐ PHÁCH

(do Chủ tịch
Môn: TIẾNG ANH - Lớp 12 hội đồng chấm
thi ghi)
(Thời gian làm bài 180 phút, không kể phát đề)
Ngày thi: 17/9/2016

Đề thi này có 7 trang

Họ tên – chữ ký Họ tên – chữ ký Điểm Điểm

Giám khảo 1 Giám khảo 2 (bằng số) (bằng chữ)

- Thí sinh làm bài trên đề thi.

- Thí sinh làm phần nghe hiểu trước.
A. Listening (3.6 points)
Part 1. You will hear people talking in eight different situations. For questions 1-8, choose the
best answer (A, B or C). (1.6 points)
1. You overhear a young man talking about his first job. How did he feel in his first job?
A. bored B. confused C. enthusiastic
2. You hear a radio announcement about a dance company. What are listeners being invited to?
A. a show B. a talk C. a party
3. You overhear a woman talking to a man about something that happened to her. Who was she?
A. a pedestrian B. a driver C. a passenger
4. You hear a woman talking on the radio about her work making wildlife films. What is her main
point?
A. Being in the right place at the right time is a matter of luck.
B. More time is spent planning than actually filming.
C. It is worthwhile spending time preparing.
5. You hear part of a travel programme on the radio. Where is the speaker?
A. outside a café B. by the sea C. on the lake
6. You overhear a woman talking about a table-tennis table in a sports shop. What does she want
the shop assistant to do about her table-tennis table?
A. provide her with a new one
B. have it put together for her
C. give her the money back
7. You hear part of an interview with a businesswoman. What is her business?
A. hiring out boats B. hiring out caravans C. building boats
8. You hear a man talking on the radio. Who is talking?
A. an actor B. a journalist C. a theatre-goer
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Part 2. You will hear an announcement about an evening’s programmes on Radio Pearl. For
questions 9-18, complete the sentences. (2.0 points)
7.30 pm ‘Art Review’: Student Art Exhibition
This evening’s programme is taking place at the (9) ____________________ in London.
The exhibition is of work by students in the (10) _______________ year of their art course.
At the exhibition, you can see things as different as curtains and (11) ____________________.
Some of the works of art have been made using (12) ____________________ technology.
8.00 pm Play: ‘The Vanishing Lady’
In the play, a young couple on a train think they hear the sound of someone using a (13)
____________________.
A (14) _______________ tells the couple about an old lady whom he has seen.
After writing this play, the author, Porten, became a writer for (15) ____________________.
9.30 pm ‘Business Scenes’: Interview with Peter Field
Peter used to work for a (16) ____________________.
Peter says the material he uses for his boats is a particular kind of (17) _______________.
Peter collects (18) ____________________ as a hobby.
B. Lexico - Grammar (7.4 points)
Part 1. Circle the best answer to complete each sentence. (1.6 points)
1. Linda was full of ______ to achieve her goals.
A. confidence B. obligation C. decision D. determination
2. I don’t know how we can ______ this problem.
A. show off B. deal with C. do over D. grow up
3. We are a very ______ family and support each other through any crises.
A. close-knit B. hard-up C. well-to-do D. old-established
4. Unfortunately, not all candidates can be offered a job, some have to be ______.
A. resigned B. remained C. rejected D. required
5. You have to _______ the offer before accepting it.
A. put away B. take on C. pick up D. think over
6. For _______ reasons, passengers are requested not to leave any luggage unattended.
A. security B. securing C. secure D. securely
7. _______ irritating they are, you shouldn’t lose your temper with your children.
A. Because of B. No matter C. However D. Despite
8. If I were you, I would _______ early because the traffic now is very bad.
A. go off B. set off C. run into D. hold up
Part 2. Circle the correct verb tense. (1.0 point)
1. When I got home, I found that water ______ down the kitchen walls.
A. has run B. ran C. was running D. had been running
2. Hurry up! Our train ________ at eight o’clock. We have just a few minutes.
A. leaves B. is leaving C. will leave D. is going to leave
3. Bill reassured me that he ______ the invitations well before the wedding.
A. was sent B. had sent C. has sent D. must send

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4. My cousin _______ for a job since he graduated from university.
A. is looking B. was looking C. has been looking D. look
5. When the old school friends met, a lot of happy memories ______ back.
A. brought B. had brought C. had been brought D. were brought
Part 3. Circle the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that needs correcting. (2.0 points)
1. That man was an easy recognized figure with his long, white beard and wide brimmed hat.
A B C D
2. Alexander Calder, who was originally interested in mechanical engineering, later became a
sculpture. A B C
D
3. I looked for Christine. Do you know where she is?
A B C D
4. Alexander Graham Bell was twenty nine during his basic telephone patent was granted in 1876.
A B C D
5. In recent years, sulphur dioxide has disfigured much ancient buildings and monuments.
A B C D
6. We moved to the front row so as we could hear and see better.
A B C D
7. The milk of both goats and cows can be used to do dairy products.
A B C D
8. Harvey never pays his bills on time, and his brother does too.
A B C D
9. A flammable liquid it was used to ignite a fire that burned part of the night Nairobi Shopping
Center. A B C D
10. His professor had him to rewrite his assignment many times.
A B C D
Part 4. Use the correct form of the word in parentheses. (2.0 points)
1. Some people are ________________ by any form of technology. (TERROR)
2. Please complete and return the enclosed ________________. (QUESTION)
3. At breakfast the aroma of freshly brewed coffee _____________ the kitchen. (PERMEABLE)
4. Vietnam is a country with great ________________. (POTENTIAL)
5. The policy is _______________ and so it will cost the government a lot of money. (ECONOMY)
6. John told everyone that he worked for a large company, but the company is ________________.
(EXIST)
7. He is not able to read or write. He is a(n) ________________ child. (LITERACY)
8. The athlete ________________ decided to aim for three gold medals. (AMBITION)
9. Mr. Brown was deeply ________________ about his late arrival. (APOLOGIZE)
10. These young people are ___________ supporters of the new plan of our city. (ENTHUSIASM)
Part 5. Circle the correct preposition. (0.8 point)
1. We are appreciative _______ his efforts.
A. in B. over C. of D. for
2. Computers have had a great effect _______ our lives since their appearance.
A. for B. to C. at D. on

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3. This is an experiment. The astronauts will be trying something __________.
A. out B. with C. on D. in
4. They turned _______at the party despite the awful weather.
A. back B. up C. in D. round
C. Reading (4 points)
Part 1. Fill in each numbered space with one suitable word. (2 points)
Man probably could not live without the help of animals. The (1) ________________ of
animals in the balance of nature ranks as their most important service to man.
Animals also (2) ________________ man by supplying him with many foods and other
useful products. (3) ________________ animals, man would have no meat, milk, eggs, or honey, or
wool, fur, or silk.
For thousands of years, man has caused changes in the animal kingdom. He has tamed many
kinds of animals and used them for food and clothing. He has killed and driven (4)
________________ animals that once attacked him or interfered with his use of land. Today, he
tries to (5) ________________ many kinds of animals that are in danger of dying out. (6)
________________ man, most plants depend on animals for many of their basic needs. Without
animals, many plants could not (7) ________________ reproduce. For example, many plants with
flowers depend on bees and other insects to (8) ________________ their pollen from plant to plant.
Many oak trees grow from acorns that squirrels bury and then forget, or from acorns that deer step
on a push deep into the soil. Birds often fly from one place to (9) ________________ with seeds
clinging to their feet. The seeds may sprout a great (10) ________________ from the parent plant.
Part 2. Read the passage below and then circle the correct answer A, B, C or D. (1.0 point)
Brown bears are found in Alaska and western of Canada. They are first cousins of the
grizzly, belonging to the species Ursus arctos. The chief difference in them is size, as brown bears
on the average are slightly larger. A full-grown male may weigh 1,500 pounds and stand 9 to 10
feet tall. Like bears everywhere they are creatures of habit that tread the same trails year after year.
Brown bears have three gaits: an even, deliberate one that takes them over rough or boggy ground
at a steady clip, a quick shuffle, and a fast gallop. They are not only surprisingly fast, but also, for
such huge beasts, amazingly agile. They can charge up and climb down nearly vertical inclines.
Fishing the streams in summer, they pounce on swift-moving salmon and snatch them with almost
simultaneous movements of their paws and mouths. Brown bears are excellent swimmers and love
to loll and wallow in the water on warm days. They are also curious and playful. Most manifest a
fear of humans, but Alaskans prefer not to test these creatures and usually carry noisemakers of
some kind to warn the bears of their presence.
(From The Heinle & Heinle TOEFL Test Assistant-Reading)
1. What can be inferred about brown bears and the grizzly?
A. The grizzly lives in Alaska.
B. They have the same size.
C. They are biologically related to each other.
D. Brown bears are usually not as big as the grizzly.
2. Which of the following statements is true?
A. As big animals, brown bears are slow and awkward.
B. To avoid brown bears, one should not approach any streams on warm days.
C. It is impossible for a brown bear to cross a deep river.
D. Brown bears have different habits from most bears.
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3. It can be inferred from the passage that _____.
A. brown bears usually attack people
B. Alaskan people have no fear of the brown bears
C. brown bears like to appear in front of human beings
D. brown bears are afraid of loud noise
4. It can be inferred from the passage that Alaskans _____.
A. do not know much about brown bears
B. are cautious about brown bears
C. do not care about the existence of brown bears
D. try to attack brown bears when seeing them
5. The passage implies that brown bears _____.
A. are big and fast but not dangerous
B. are unique and have different habits from other bears
C. usually catch salmon in quiet pools
D. will try to avoid humans when seeing them
Part 3. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap.
Then circle the correct answer. (1.0 point)
Sugar tastes sweet because of thousands of receptors on the tongue which connect the
substance with the brain. The taste of sweetness is (1) ______ accepted as the most pleasurable
sensation, although it is a fructose. Abundance is the most common occurring sugar, (2) ______ of
which include fruit and honey. Sucrose, which supplies glucose to the body, is extracted from the
sugar cane plant, and white sugar (pure sucrose) is used by food technologists to (3) ______
sweetness in other substances. Approximately a dozen artificial sweeteners have been discovered;
one of the earliest was Sorbitol from France.
Manufacturers add large amounts of sugar to foodstuffs but never more than the (4) ______
required to produce the optimum pleasurable taste. Surprisingly, this amount is similar for different
people and in different cultures. No one has yet discovered a way to predict whether a substance
will taste sweet, and it was by (5) ______ alone that all the man-made chemical sweeteners were
found to be sweet.
1. A. universally B. wide C. commonly D. largely
2. A. origins B. places C. sources D. roots
3. A. detect B. smell C. taste D. measure
4. A. excess B. maximum C. limit D. extremity
5. A. chance B. ability C. luck D. time
D. Writing (5 points)
Part 1. Complete the second sentence so that it has the similar meaning to the first sentence.
(1.0 point)
1. Do you have any experience of driving this kind of car?
- Have you ......................................................................................................................................?
2. Peter spoke to his lawyer before signing the contract.
- Peter didn’t .................................................................................................................................. .
3. The heavy snow made it impossible for them to have their picnic.
- They were .................................................................................................................................... .

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4. Both her sons work abroad, but they ring her up every week.
- Her sons, both .............................................................................................................................. .
5. Many people think Jeff stole the money.
- Jeff is ........................................................................................................................................... .
Part 2. Rewrite each sentence below so that its meaning stays the same. Use the word given in
brackets without changing it. (1.0 point)

1. Because he was so proud, he couldn’t admit that he was wrong. (TOO … TO)
- He had .......................................................................................................................................... .
2. The bank manager said he wouldn’t lend me what I needed. (UNWILLING)
- The bank manager ........................................................................................................................ .
3. She hadn’t made a speech before, so she was very nervous. (USED)
- Because she wasn’t ...................................................................................................................... .
4. Their flat has been broken into twice this year. (HAD)
- They ............................................................................................................................................. .
5. It happened so long ago that no one remembers it at all now. (FORGOTTEN)
- It happened ................................................................................................................................... .
Part 3. Write about the following topic: “Some people think it would be a good idea for schools
to teach every young person how to be a good parent”.
Do you agree or disagree with this opinion? Describe the skills a person needs to be a good parent.
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge. Write
about 160-180 words. (3.0 points)
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 SỞ GD – ĐT TIỀN GIANG ĐỀ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN HSG DỰ THI CẤP TỈNH
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN NĂM HỌC 2016 – 2017 ; MÔN TIẾNG ANH 12
Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút;
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
13/09/2016
Họ, tên thí sinh:..........................................................................
Số báo danh:...............................................................................
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
PART 1: LISTENING COMPREHENSION. (20 POINTS)
SECTION 1: Listen and answer questions 1-10. You will listen TWICE.
Question 1
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
1. According to the speaker, the park has drawn attention to
A. local history and research.
B. entertainment and local research.
C. nature and local research.

Questions 2 – 4

Label the plan below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

KTĐT12-HSG-TA-20162017 Page 1 of 11
Questions 5 – 10
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
5. What are the earliest items discovered so far in the excavations?
A. weapons
B. pottery
C. jewelry
6. Why are certain remains closed to the public?
A. to preserve them
B. to carry out research
C. to renovate them
7. How far is the beach from the Preservation area?
A. a very short walk away
B. a short drive away
C. a long walk away
8. The beach is famous because of its
A. white sand and rocks.
B. white sand and shells.
C. rocks and shells.
9. What can be found at the beach shops?
A. local photographs
B. local artwork
C. unusual souvenirs
10. The entrance ticket allows visitors
A. only one visit to the site.
B. three more visits a year.
C. unlimited visits for a year.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

KTĐT12-HSG-TA-20162017 Page 2 of 11
SECTION 2: Listen and answer questions 11-20. You will listen TWICE.
Complete the notes below
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Agriculture - re-greening the deserts of the world

Recorded talk available on website within 48 hours

Historical perspective
Between 8,000 and 11 ____________________ years ago, Sahara: green and fertile
World temperature similar to present - weather not as 12 ____________________ as before
African, Asian and American deserts: plenty of 13 ____________________ in the past
Lake Chad equal in area to: France, Germany, Spain and 14 ____________________ combined
In Algeria and southern Libya:
discoveries of underground rivers
bones of wild animals
and 15 ____________________ for producing grain

Modern day
Weather changes: complex and controversial
not just about flooding, severe winter weather, storms, droughts, etc.
about impact on people's 16 ____________________

Europe
Warming up: wheat, barley and 17 ____________________ not suitable for cultivation
Olives and grapes: more common in UK
Southern European countries: production of 18 ____________________ severely limited

Consequences of weather changes

higher 19 ____________________ in Europe
more 20 ____________________ in desert regions, e.g. the Sahel
increased chance of water in desert areas

KTĐT12-HSG-TA-20162017 Page 3 of 11
PART 2: LANGUAGE IN USE (35 POINTS)
SECTION 1: Choose the correct option (A, B, C, or D) for each of the sentences.
1. The sound of the jet taking off from the nearby airport ____________ the peace of the countryside and
startled the horses.
A. crushed B. crashed C. flattened D. shattered
2. He definitely wasn't there. He has a ____________ alibi.
A. triumphant B. stale C. considerable D. cast-iron
3. If we let the unions decide everything, there will be complete ____________. It just won't work.
A. ambition B. anarchy C. alternative D. analysis
4. The smoke was seen to rise a few metres up from the bonfire and then ____________ slowly down the
valley on the slight breeze that blew.
A. float B. sweep C. billow D. drift
5. The two young fighters fought toe to toe and both showed____________ determination.
A. grim B. strong C. harsh D. mean
6. I'd been in ____________ pain with toothache all weekend and was desperate to find a dentist.
A. agonizing B. shooting C. excruciating D. maddening
7. I was ____________ tempted to report his incompetence to my line manager otherwise the whole team
would suffer.
A. highly B. sorely C. greatly D. urgently
8. Not getting the promotion felt like a real kick in the ____________ as I'd put in so much hard work for the
company.
A. head B. teeth C. leg D. back
9. There was little he could do to calm the rampant ____________ of his heart.
A. beating B. throbbing C. striking D. pounding
10. I spent all my childhood ____________ to my siblings.
A. losing in B. losing on C. losing out D. losing over
11. The first ____________ of the ladder is important in your career.
A. step B. grade C. push D. rung
12. It would be such a ____________ trade if we ended up selling our new products abroad.
A. fabulous B. roaring C. awesome D. spectacular
13. Flawed ____________ the American dream may have become, its lure is irresistible to many.
A. as though B. as C. while D. however
14. The new prime minister can ____________ worse than his predecessor.
A. do hardly any B. hardly do no C. hardly do any D. not hardly do
15. Many states now intend to introduce a system ____________ people can vote by telephone or online.
A. whereby B. wherewith C. wherein D. wherefrom
16. ____________ talking of running for election again, after such a crushing defeat, is surely proof of his
resilience.
A. Should he be B. That he is C. Had he been D. That he were
17. Good teachers don’t ____________ their pupils, but treat them, as far as possible, as equals.
A. pin down B. talk down to C. stop down to D. play down
18. Why should we ____________ until we are 65 and then get nothing but a miserable little pension that is
impossible to live on?
A. slave off B. sweat away C. whip off D. slave away.
19. I am sorry to ____________ from your computer, but I need your help.
A. rip you off B. cut you out C. tear you away D. pack you off
20. We had to wait two and a half hours for the next train so we went for a walk to ____________.
A. stretch off B. phase out C. patch off D. while away

KTĐT12-HSG-TA-20162017 Page 4 of 11
SECTION 2: Choose the option (A, B, C, or D) that indicates the error in each sentence.
21. Study of atmospheric particles forming as a result of the explosion showed that droplets of sulphuric acid,
A B
acting as a screen between the Sun and the Earth's surface, caused a distinct drop in temperature.
C D
22. The power of the wind has been used for centuries to directly drive various machines to perform many
A B C
tasks as grinding wheat or pumping water.
D
23. The ability to locate and find appropriate information quickly and which is in a language and format that a
A B C
young person can relate to is not always easy.
D
24. Repeated, harsh or intensive use of the same areas or areas with minimal snow cover can easily damage
A B
the sensitive vegetables beneath, inhibiting growth and recovery in already short growing seasons.
C D
25. The building of a new science complex had positive impact on the behaviour of young people in the
A B C
community as employment increased.
D
SECTION 3: Fill in each of the blank with ONE word to complete the passage below.

CHANGING SEASONS

If we measure the seasons, (26) ____________ in the past they have been, by ordinary natural events such
as the departure of migrating birds or the appearance of the first flower, (27) ____________ spring now begins in
November and autumn ends in December. (28) ____________ may seem an unlikely situation to us, but in
(29)____________ fact, data shows that spring now occurs ten to thirty days earlier than it did, while recent
research bears (30) ____________ that autumn is arriving (31) ____________.
Traditional data on phenology - the study of the timing of natural events - goes back to 1736 in Britain.
Taken (32) ____________ isolation, phonological data may not mean much, but the received wisdom from ecology
is about interconnectedness. Consequently, with higher temperatures in winter, some species will breed earlier and
then find that their food source has been destroyed when winter finally arrives. Competition for winter food will
probably increase too, as birds stop migrating south in winter, as has already happened in a (33) ____________
of cases.
(34) ____________ it is often difficult to be certain that seasonal trends are progressive and not cyclical,
those involved in analysing the information see the fingerprints of global warming (35) ____________ this blurring
of the seasons' edges.

KTĐT12-HSG-TA-20162017 Page 5 of 11
PART 3: READING COMPREHENSION (25 POINTS)
PASSAGE 1: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow.
THE HISTORY OF A COOL IMAGE

A The history of sunglasses can be traced back to ancient Rome around the year AD 60, where the Emperor Nero
is said to have watched gladiator fights whilst holding up polished emerald-green gems to his eyes, thus reducing
the effect of the sun's glare. The very first actual recorded evidence of the use of sunglasses can be found from a
painting by Tommaso da Modena in Italy, 1352, showing a person wearing sunglasses. Earlier, around the twelfth
century in China, sunglasses were worn by court judges, not to protect their eyes from the sun, but in order to
conceal any expressions in their eyes as it was important to keep their thoughts and opinions secret until the end
of each trial. These were flat panes of quartz that had been polished smooth and then smoked to give their tint.

It was not until 1430 that prescription glasses were first developed in Italy to correct vision, and these early
rudimentary spectacles soon found their way to China, where they were again tinted by smoke to be used by the
judges. The frames were carved out of either ivory or tortoiseshell, and some were quite ornate. During the 17th
century, prescription glasses were being used in England to help elderly long-sighted people to see better. The
Spectacle Makers Company was founded in England, which started manufacturing prescription glasses for the
public and whose motto was 'A Blessing to the Aged".

B The development of sunglasses, however, remained static until the work of James Ayscough, who was known
for his work on microscopes in London around 1750. He experimented with blue and green tinted lenses, believing
they could help with certain vision problems. These were not sunglasses, however, as he was not concerned with
protecting the eyes from the sun's rays.

Prescription spectacles continued to be developed over the next few decades, especially regarding the design of
the spectacle frames and how to get them to sit comfortably on the nose. The frames were made from leather,
bone, ivory, tortoiseshell and metal, and were simply propped or balanced on the nose. The early arms or
sidepieces of the frames first appeared as strips of ribbon that looped around the backs of the ears. Rather than
loops, the Chinese added ceramic weights to the ends of the ribbons which dangled down behind the tops of the
ears. Solid sidepieces finally arrived in 1730, invented by Edward Scarlett.

C Sunglasses, as we know them today, were first introduced by Sam Foster in America, 1929. These were the
first sunglasses designed specifically to protect people's eyes from the harmful sun's rays. He founded the Foster
Grant Company, and sold the first pair of Foster Grant sunglasses on the boardwalk by the beaches in Atlantic City,
New Jersey. These were the first mass-produced sunglasses, and from this year onwards, sunglasses really began
to take off.

D In 1936, Edwin H Land patented the Polaroid filter for making polarized sunglasses. This type of tint reduces
glare reflected from surfaces, such as water. Later in that same year, Ray-Ban took the design of pilots' sunglasses
further by producing the aviator-style sunglasses that we know today, using this recently invented polarized lens
technology. The edge of the frame characteristically drooped away at the edges by the cheeks in a sort of tear drop
shape, to give a full all-round protection to the pilots' eyes, who regularly had to glance down towards the aircraft's
instrument panel. The polarized lens reduced the glare from light reflected off the instrument panel. Pilots were
given these sunglasses free of charge, but in 1937 the general public were allowed to purchase this aviator-style
model that "banned" the sun's rays as Ray-Ban sunglasses.

E In 1960, Foster Grant started a big advertising campaign to promote sunglasses, and pretty soon famous film
stars and pop stars started wearing sunglasses as part of their image. The public began to adopt this new fashion
of wearing sunglasses, not just to protect their eyes from bright light, but also as a way of looking good. Today,
sunglasses are continuing to be improved with efficient UV blocking tints, cutting out all the harmful ultra-violet light.
Various coloured tints are now available and, of course, the frame styles are very varied and exciting. Now you can
really make a statement with your fashion sunglasses, transforming your image or creating a new one. Designer
KTĐT12-HSG-TA-20162017 Page 6 of 11
sunglasses have certainly come a long way in just a few years, and now not only protect our eyes from the harmful
sun's rays, but are also an important fashion accessory - and it all started nearly 2,000 years ago with the Roman
Emperor Nero!

Questions 1 – 5
The reading passage has five sections, A – E.
Choose the correct headings for sections A-E from the list of headings below.

List of Headings

i. New developments in sunglasses lenses

ii. The use of sunglasses in early courts
iii. How the physical shape of early sunglasses developed
iv. The introduction of sidepieces on sunglasses
v. The origins and early history of sunglasses
vi. Ways in which sunglasses have become trendy
vii. The arrival of modern sunglasses
viii. Advertising campaigns for sunglasses

1. Section A ________
2. Section B ________
3. Section C ________
4. Section D ________
5. Section E ________

Questions 6 – 10

Do the following statements agree with the information given in the reading passage?

Write:
TRUE if the statement agrees with the claims of the writer.
FALSE if the statement contradicts the claims of the writer.
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this.

6. The earliest reference to sunglasses can be found in early Roman times.

7. Early Chinese sunglasses were worn to correct the wearer’s eyesight.
8. The work of James Ayscough had a profound effect on the development of modern lenses.
9. Prior to 1730, sidepieces on glasses were made of many different materials.
10. Sam Foster's sunglasses were the first to be made for a mass market.

Questions 11-13
Complete the sentences below.
Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer.

11. The function of the Edwin H Land’s Polaroid filter was to lessen surface ________.
12. People can change their ________ by wearing trendy sunglasses.
13. Designer glasses still offer protection from solar ________.

KTĐT12-HSG-TA-20162017 Page 7 of 11
PASSAGE 2: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow.

TRANSIENT LUNAR PHENOMENA

For many years, sky watchers have reported seeing mysterious sights known as Transient Lunar Phenomena (TLP)
on the surface of the moon. These are of two main types: fleeting flashes of light and spreading clouds of mist.
Most professional astronomers have tended to dismiss these phenomena as figments of the observers' imagination
or as "observational errors": either optical illusions or problems with the observers' telescopes. One explanation put
forth by professional astronomers blames the flashes on Earth satellites passing in front of the moon. Satellite
surfaces can flash like a car's windshield in sunlight, simulating a lunar flash. It was this mechanism that
astronomers R. R. Raste and P. Maley used to explain a large lunar flash observed on March 23, 1983, and other
sightings as well.

One problem with the satellite theory is that TLP were reported long before the advent of artificial satellites. The
earliest known account comes from the twelfth-century writer Gervase. On June 18, 1178, in Canterbury, England,
Gervase was observing an eclipse of the moon. He was startled by what appeared to be "a flaming torch … that
spewed out fire, hot coals, and sparks". Eighteenth-century astronomer Sir William Herschel, discoverer of the
planet Uranus, also reported seeing both types of TLP. He described one TLP as looking like a piece of slowly
burning charcoal. In 1830, Andrew Grant, studying the moon from an observatory in Cape Town, South Africa, also
observed flashing lights. He told newspaper reporters that he believed the lights came from the sun flashing off
clear glass domes that covered cities and forests on the otherwise dead moon. Grant claimed in an interview that
he had seen flocks of red and white birds, herds of "diminutive bison", and strange beavers that walked on their
hind legs. Not only that, but he claimed even to have seen people with bat-like wings who had built towers and
pyramids beneath the domes.

In more recent times, a record number of TLP were monitored from 1968 to 1972, during the Apollo missions to the
moon. This fact is hardly surprising given that more telescopes were probably trained on the moon during these
four years than had been in the entire 270-year history of telescopic observation preceding that time. Though many
sightings were dubious, some were highly plausible because they were made by independent observers at different
locations. Another notable TLP observation, and the only one confirmed by photographic evidence, took place on
April 23, 1994. When over a hundred amateur astronomers reported seeing a dark red cloud spreading across a
portion of the Aristarchus crater, astronomer Bonnie Buratti of the Jet Propulsion Laboratory decided to investigate.
She got access to photographs of the moon taken by the U.S. lunar mapping satellite Clementine, and indeed,
these images confirmed the presence of a reddish cloud obscuring part of the crater.

Even those who believe in TLP cannot agree why the moon sporadically flashes and forms clouds, but many
theories have been proposed. Another possibility is that, in some places on the moon, there are chemicals that
glow when they are exposed to bursts of radiation from the sun during solar flares. There is, in fact, some evidence
that TLP are observed more frequently during episodes of solar activity. After Project Apollo astronauts brought
lunar rocks back to the earth, scientists determined that there are flammable gases inside some moon rocks.
Perhaps these rocks crack open and are then ignited by a stray spark, causing the flash. However, what causes
these rocks to split open? One possibility is "thermal cracking". A rock heats up in the intense sunlight. Suddenly,
when the sun sets, the temperature drops, and the stone cracks. The rocks might also be shattered by
"moonquakes", seismic activity on the moon, or by meteors. Scientist R. Zito believes the flashes come not from
gas trapped inside the rocks but from the crystals of the rocks themselves. If someone chews a sugar cube in a
dark room, sparks appear to come from the person's mouth as the sugar crystals are crushed. Zito believes that
this "sugar cube effect" occurs when meteors smash into lunar rocks, crushing the crystals.

KTĐT12-HSG-TA-20162017 Page 8 of 11
And what about the billowing clouds? The most commonly held belief today is that they are caused by pockets of
gas trapped beneath the lunar surface. The clouds may be caused by the rapid escape of these gases, which kicks
up clouds of dust. The pockets of gas may be freed by moonquakes or the pockets may be punctured by meteors.

The true cause of TLP – if indeed they do exist – is still an unsolved mystery, however, and will probably remain
that way at least until humans return to the moon.

14. Which of the following statements best summarizes the overall organization of the passage? ______
A. A popular idea is challenged, and this challenge is then refuted.
B. A generalization is made, and examples of it are examined.
C. Historical information is reviewed and then the current situation is presented.
D. A phenomenon is described and possible explanations for it are propose
15. The word "fleeting" in the passage is closest in meaning to ______.
A. brightly glowing
B. amazing
C. short-lived
D. blinking
16. The phrase "this mechanism" in paragraph 1 refers to ______.
A. the flashing of sunlight off a reflective surface
B. the windshield of an automobile
C. a satellite
D. an observer's telescope
17. Why does the author mention the writer Gervase in paragraph 2? ______
A. To weaken the satellite theory of Raste and Maley.
B. To document the earliest sighting of a lunar eclipse by a scientist.
C. To support the ideas of Herschel and Grant.
D. To provide an early theory about the causes of TLP.
18. Which of these sightings is claimed to be made by Andrew Grant in paragraph 2? ______
A. The flocks of red and white birds.
B. The bat-winged people who built towers and pyramids.
C. The herds of tiny bison.
D. The unusual beavers that walked on two legs.
19. Which of the following sentences best expresses the essential information in the boldface sentence below?
Incorrect answer choices omit important information or change the meaning of the original sentence in an
important way.

In more recent times, a record number of TLP were monitored from 1968 to 1972, during the Apollo
missions to the moon, a fact that is hardly surprising given that more telescopes were probably
trained on the moon during these four years than had been in the entire 270-year history of
telescopic observation preceding that time.

A. Because far more people were looking at the moon through telescopes during the Apollo missions,
more TLP were seen then than had been seen during any prior period.
B. From 1968 until 1972. not just amateur astronomers but also trained scientists saw more TLP than
they had ever seen before.
C. More TLP occurred on the moon between 1968 and 1972 than had occurred during the previous
270 years of telescopic observation.
D. It is unsurprising that in the four years between 1968 and 1972 more people with telescopes were
observing the moon than had observed it in the previous 270 years.

KTĐT12-HSG-TA-20162017 Page 9 of 11
 20. According to the author, an observation is more reliable when it is made by ______.
A. a professional astronomer
B. a group of astronomers working together
C. a number of observers working separately in different locations
D. a person observing the same part of the moon night after night
21. How was astronomer Bonnie Buratti able to "confirm" the presence of a cloud on the moon? ______
A. By interviewing one hundred amateur astronomers.
B. By examining satellite photography.
C. By analyzing lunar rocks.
D. By taking a picture through a telescope.
22. The word "stray" in the passage is closest in meaning to ______.
A. speeding
B. hot
C. spinning
D. undirected
23. Which of the following situations is an example of thermal cracking as it is described in paragraph 4? ______
A. A dam breaks when water rises behind it.
B. Sparks appear when someone chews a candy mint in a dark room.
C. A cool glass breaks when it is filled with boiling water.
D. An ice cube melts in the heat of the sun.
24. All of the following are given as possible reasons for the cracking of moon rocks EXCEPT ______.
A. seismic activity
B. sudden temperature changes
C. the action of meteors
D. the pressure of gases
25. Look at the four squares [A], [B], [C], [D] which indicate where the following sentence could be added to
the passage. Where would the sentence best fit?

Many observers once thought that they were caused by lunar volcanoes, but today the moon is
believed to have been geologically inactive for billions of years.

And what about the billowing clouds? [A] The most commonly held belief today is that they are caused by
pockets of gas trapped beneath the lunar surface. [B] The clouds may be caused by the rapid escape of
these gases, which kicks up clouds of dust. [C] The pockets of gas may be freed by moonquakes or the
pockets may be punctured by meteors. [D]

KTĐT12-HSG-TA-20162017 Page 10 of 11
PART 4: WRITING (30 POINTS)

SECTION 1: Read the instruction for this task (10 POINTS)

The graph below shows the annual incomes of the four cafés in Venice between 2000 and 2015.

Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make comparisons where relevant.

Write at least 150 words.

ANNUAL INCOMES

140,000

120,000

100,000

80,000

60,000

40,000

20,000

0
DOLLARS

Johnson Harvey Massona Wilsonie

SECTION 2: Read the instruction for this task (20 POINTS)

Write about the following topic:

In many countries, online shopping is becoming more and more popular. Some people think that this is
affecting the society in the negative way.

What is your opinion?

Give your reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or experience.

Write at least 250 words.

THIS IS THE END OF THE TEST

KTĐT12-HSG-TA-20162017 Page 11 of 11
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO TÂY NINH

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 12 THPT NĂM HỌC 2016-2017
Ngày thi: 22 tháng 9 năm 2016
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH - LỚP 12 THPT
Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút ( không kể thời gian giao đề)

ĐIỂM HỌ TÊN VÀ CHỮ KÍ GIÁM KHẢO MÃ SỐ PHÁCH

Bằng số Bằng chữ GIÁM KHẢO 1 GIÁM KHẢO 2

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
( Đề thi có 10 trang, thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào đề thi)

A. LISTENING ( 0.1 P/ 1 ANSWER)

Part 1: For questions 1-5: Listen to the tutorials with university lecturer and three students and
decide whether the following statements are true (T) or false (F) .Write your answers in the
corresponding number (0.5 pt)
1. Regarding the tutorials, Lorraine is hesitant about saying what she thinks.
2. Farilla is a single parent with a daughter in her teens.
3. Farilla feels that her husband is to blame for her family problems.
4. When he was 16, Stevie took on a job to help his mother out.
5. Dr Goldfinch suggests that Farilla should explain the situation to her daughters.
Answer :
1____ ____ 2____ ____ 3____ ____ 4____ ____5____ ____

Part 2: You are going to hear a radio phone-in programme on the subject of allergies. For
questions 6-10 choose the answer A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. Write
your answers in the corresponding number (0.5 pt)
6. Which of these possible explanations for the increase in allergies does the programme presenter
mention in her introduction?
A. People are exposed to more dangerous substances than in the past.
B. People's resistance to allergens is lower than in the past.
C. More new allergens are being released into the environment.
D. Higher levels of stress have made people more prone to allergies.
7. Which of the questions does the first caller, Tim, want to know the answer to?
A. What is the most likely cause of his allergy?
B. Why is he allergic to grass and pollen?
C. Will he ever be free of the allergy?
D. How can he improve his condition?
8. Arabella, the caller from Amsterdam,
A. thinks she may have passed on her allergy to her children.
B. asks how she can minimize the risk of her children having allergies.
C. wants to know whether her peanut allergy will continue in the future.
D. asks how probable it is that her children will have allergies.
9. If both a child's parents have a particular allergy, that child
A. is more than likely to have the same allergy.
B. has a less than fifty per cent chance of getting the same allergy.
C. will probably develop a different allergy.

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 D. is at no greater risk of developing the allergy than any other child.
10. According to Dr Bawaldi, some people believe that the increase in asthma among young children
may result from
A. living in centrally heated or air-conditioned buildings.
B. being in areas with very high levels of exhaust fumes.
C. spending too much time in hygienic environments.
D. receiving medical treatment for other types of illness.
Answer:
6. ____ ____ 7. ____ ____ 8. ____ ____ 9. ____ ____ 10. ____ ____

Part 3 (1 pt)
Geography
Studying geography helps us to understand:
§ the effects of different processes on the (11) _________ of the Earth
§ the dynamic between (12) _________ and population
Two main branches of study:
§ physical features
§ human lifestyles and their (13) _________

Specific study areas: biophysical, topographic, political, social, economic, historical and (14)
_________ geography, and also cartography
Key point: geography helps us to understand our surroundings and the associated (15) _________
What do geographers do?
§ find data – e.g. conduct censuses, collect information in the form of (16) _________ using
computer and satellite technology
§ analyze data – identify (17) _________ , e.g. cause and effect
§ publish finding in form of:
a) maps
- easy to carry
- can show physical features of large and small areas
- BUT a two-dimensional map will always have some (18) _________
b) aerial photos
- can show vegetation problems, (19) _________ density, ocean floor etc.
c) Landsat pictures sent to receiving stations
- used for monitoring (20) _________ conditions etc.
Answer:
11. ____ ____ ____ 12. ____ ____ ____ 13. ____ ____ ____ 14. ____ ____ ____ 15. ____ ____ ____
16. ____ ____ ____ 17. ____ ____ ____ 18. ____ ____ ____ 19. ____ ____ ____ 20. ____ ____ ____

B. READING ( 0.1 P/ 1 ANSWER)

I. Read the text below and choose the paragraph which fits each gap.
If you can summon up any enthusiasm at all for exercise right now, then it is probably for a workout in
the cosy environs of your centrally-heated gym.
21. ____
According to Dr Owen Anderson, a leading American exercise physiologist, winter exercise
transforms the body into a super- efficient, fat-burning machine. 'When cold air hits the skin, the brain
triggers the adrenal glands into action, so that they release adrenaline,' he says. This forces the fat cells
to push increased amounts of fat into the blood, which means that the fat can then be quickly captured
and metabolised by the muscles.'
22. ____
Even better is the news that you aren't expected to push yourself to exhaustion to achieve these effects.
In fact, if you exercise at too high an intensity, it could have the opposite effect.
23. ____

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In addition to better overall fat burning there is also the possibility that the body's ration of healthy fat
will improve with regular outside training during winter.
24. ____
'On the other hand, the fat that is closeted inside the muscles and that is released by the fat cells located
under the skin has a reasonable chance of being broken down.'
from an article by Luci Hoe in The Sunday Times'
A. 'It appears that maximal exercise, where you run or cycle as fast as you can, thwarts fat burning,'
Anderson says. 'But that doesn't mean you should take things too easy. An exertion level of about
seventy per cent of your maximum, which means that you are slightly breathless but can still hold a
conversation, is the optimum.'
B. Add a workout to the cold-air equation and the fat is gobbled up even faster.-'Activity magnifies
this burning of fat,' Anderson says, 'as cxcrcise also raises adrenaline levels, so that fat metabolism
increases further.'
C. Because of the boosted metabolism, levels of what is often considered the most dangerous fat, that
which clings to the internal organs, could be reduced. 'When fat cells inside the abdominal cavity
release fat into the blood, the fat goes straight to the liver, where it can be transformed into low-density
lipoproteins, which are the 'bad fats' associated with an increased risk of coronary artery disease,'
Anderson says.
D. In addition, leaving the warm, cosy gym to strctch your legs outdoors in the cold can boost your
fat-burning potential.
E. But if you are serious about getting fit, new research shows that the best step you can take at this
time of year is the one that leads you straight out of the front door. You may shiver at the prospect, but
cold- weather workouts will almost certainly leave you more streamlined by the spring.
Answer:
21. ____ ____ 22. ____ ____ 23. ____ ____ 24. ____ ____

II. Read the text and choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which you think fits best according to the
text.
People have been donating blood since the early twentieth century to help accident victims and
patients undergoing surgical procedure. Usually a pint of whole blood is donated, and it is then
divided into platelets, white blood cells and red blood cells. People can donate blood (for red blood
cells) about once every two months.
Transfusing the blood from the donor to the recipient is straightforward. It involves taking the blood
from the donor’s arm vein by means of hypodermic syringe. The blood flows through a plastic tube to
a collection bag or bottle that contains sodium citrate, which prevents the blood from clotting.
When the blood is given to the patient, a plastic tube and hypodermic needle are connected to the
recipient’s arm. The blood flows down from the container by gravity. This is a slow process and may
last as long as two hours to complete the infusion of blood to the recipient. The patient is protected
from being infected during the transfusion. Only sterile containers, tubing and needles are used, and
this helps ensure that transfused or stored blood is not exposed to disease causing-bacteria.
Negative reactions to transfusion are not unusual. The recipient may suffer an allergic reaction or be
sensitive to donor leukocytes. Some may suffer from an undetected red-cell incompatibility.
Unexplained reactions are also fairly common. Although they are rare, other causes of such negative
reactions include contaminated blood, air bubbles in the blood, overloading the circulatory system
through administration of excess blood, or sensitive to donor plasma or platelets.
Today, hospitals and blood banks go to great lengths to screen all blood donors and their blood. All
donated blood is routinely or rigorously tested for diseases, such as HIV (which causes AIDS),
hepatitis B, and syphilis. When the recipient is a newborn or an infant, the blood is irradiated to
eliminate harmful elements. Donated blood is washed and the white blood cells and platelets are
removed.
Storing the blood sometimes requires a freezing process. To freeze the red blood cells, a glycerol
solution is added. To unfreeze the glycerol is removed. The ability to store blood for long periods has
been a boon to human health.

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25. Which of the following words is closest in meaning to the word “donating” in line 1?
A. Adorning B. Giving C. Taking D. Distributing
26. The word “it” refers to
A. accident victims B. surgical procedures
C. a pint of whole blood D. surgery patients
27. According to the passage, how often can people donate blood for red blood cells
A. Every four months B. Every three months
C. Every two months D. Every month
28. Where in the passage is the best place for the following sentence?
Inserting the needles to the recipient’s arm causes little pain.
A. After the last sentence in the first paragraph
B. After the word “syringe” in paragraph 2
C. After the word “arm” in paragraph 3
D. After the word transfusion in paragraph 3
29. Which sentence in paragraph 2 explains how clotting is prevented in the blood container.
A. The first sentence B. The second sentence
C. The third sentence D. None of the above
30. All of the following are mentions as negative reactions to transfusion EXCEPT
A. allergies B. red-cell incompatibility
C. air bubbles in the blood D. sensitive to donor leukocytes
31. What answered choice is closest in meaning to the word “undetected” ?
A. Not wanted B. Not captured C. Not found D. Not illustrated
32. Look at the phrase “Go to great lengths to screen” in paragraph 5. Choose the word that has
the same meaning.
A. Routinely B. Rigorously C. Irradiated D. Removed
33. Based on the information in the passage, what can be inferred about blood transfusion to
infants and newborns ?
A. It is as rigorously tested as blood for adults.
B. It is treated with radiant energy
C. It is not treated differently from adults
D. It is not dangerous for children
34. What does the author implies in the passage?
A. Transfusing blood is a dangerous process
B. Storing blood benefits mankind
C. Clotting cannot be prevented
D. Freezing blood destroys platelets.
Answer:
25. ____ ____ 26. ____ ____ 27. ____ ____ 28. ____ ____ 29. ____ ____
30. ____ ____ 31. ____ ____ 32. ____ ____ 33. ____ ____ 34. ____ ____

C. LANGUAGE IN USE ( 0.1 P/ 1 ANSWER)

I. Use the word given in capitals at the end of the line to form a word that fits in the space in the
same line.
Voluntary euthanasia
There are many moral issues which remain (35)____to this RESOLVE
day. One of these is voluntary euthanasia. Let's say there is
a patient who has a terminal disease. All possible
treatments known to science are (36)____ There's no cure, EFFECT
and no hope. The patient's death from this disease at some
point in the future is (37) ____ Most of us would say that, AVOID
as long as the patient is fairly comfortable and pain-free,
there's no moral issue. But what if the patient is in extreme
agony? They cannot live (38) ____of machines and 24- DEPEND
hour care. What if the patient (39) ____ and continually RESOLVE

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asks for their life to be brought to an end by doctors?
Should the doctors refuse? At present, in most countries,
there are laws against voluntary euthanasia.
But from a moral point of view, we have to (40) ____ that KNOW
there is a problem. Do the doctors really have the right to
be (41) ____ to the patient's wishes? SENSE
On the other hand, opponents of voluntary euthanasia
argue that scientific (42) ____ is increasing all the time. KNOW
An incurable disease one day may be curable the next.
They also argue that if the law was changed, the (43) ____ RESULT
situation would put doctors in a much worse position.
They currently have no choice. Do we as a society have
the right to expect doctors to (44) ____ such a difficult and HAND
complex issue?

Answer:
35. ____ ____ ____ 36. ____ ____ ____ 37. ____ ____ ____38. ____ ____ ____ 39. ____ ____
40. ____ ____ ____41. ____ ____ ____42. ____ ____ ____43. ____ ____ ____ 44. ____ ____

II. Write one word in each gap.

Problems close to home
Rarely (45) ____ neighbours have the best of relationships for any length of time. Of course, some
people become close friends, but only if there is a lot of give and take (46) ____this possible. (47)
____ common are disputes between neighbours that there are many laws to cover arguments over
noise, property and rubbish. Before things go (48) ____ far for the relationship to be saved, there are a
few simple things you can do. The first is (49) ____ speak to your neighbour. You'd be amazed at how
many arguments are avoided by (50) ____ a simple step. Not (51) ____does it give you the chance to
express your complaint, it (52) ____ gives your neighbour the chance to explain and,perhaps, take
action. Secondly, check your rights. On (53) ____ account should you do anything to damage your
neighbours' property, or their overhanging trees if that's the problem, without knowing what your legal
rights are. (54) ____until you are sure you are acting within the law should you do anything. And
remember - a little understanding can go a long way.
Answer:
45. ____ ____ ____ 46. ____ ____ ____ 47. ____ ____ ____48. ____ ____ ____ 49. ____ ____
50. ____ ____ ____51. ____ ____ ____52. ____ ____ ____53. ____ ____ ____ 54. ____ ____

III. Find and correct 5 mistakes in the following passage.

Kinetic Art
Rejoice - the well-nigh impossible has happened; London’s austere Hayward Gallery has been
transforming into a place full of wonder. And not, thankfully, by some huge- budget, mega-hyped,
multi-media extravaganza, because by a charmingly idiosyncratic investigation into an almost
forgotten aspect of the last 60 years. A new exhibition traces the history of kinetic art - that is art
which is concerning with movement - in the twentieth century. In the process, it reveals that making
artworks which either move by themselves or investigate the idea of movement in some way has been
a consistent if largely unrecognised theme of some of the most fascinating creative activity of this
century. And not only that - the marvellous range of paintings and drawings, documents and films on
kinetic art assembled by curator Guy Bretc, who has made a life-long study of the subject, is presented
largely unmediated by text. Visitors, unharried by explanations, are left to have the pleasure of making
connections and discoveries for them.
Answer:
55. ____ ____ ____ 56. ____ ____ ____ 57. ____ ____ ____58. ____ ____ ____ 59. ____ ____

IV. Choose the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the expressions .

60. There is a ____possibility that the company will go bankrupt.

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 A. distinct B. plain C. positive D. sharp
61. It is standard ____for shops to refuse refunds unless the customer produces a receipt.
A. routine B. custom C. practice D. process
62. Have you got any ____change for the car park?
A. free B. coin C. loose D. little
63. Investing in the project was a calculated ____but it paid off in the end.
A. risk B. venture C. chance D. opportunity
64. It was with ____regret that the board refused further funding for the project.
A. sombre B. heavy C. high D. deep
65. The motorist escaped ____ injury.
A. great B. bad C. serious D. mortal
66. When we got to the bottom of the tunnel, it was ____dark.
A. intense B. jet C. pitch D. coal
67. I'm afraid the ____truth is that George is not clever enough to get into university.
A. pure B. plain C. clear D. right
68. I can't stand people who____a grudge against someone for years.
A. load B. support C. bring D. bear
69. His research has ____ the way for further discoveries in the future.
A. granted B. planted C. laid D. paved
70. The idea of becoming a biochemist____no appeal for me.
A. holds B. contains C. makes D. provides
WRITING
PART 1: Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence,
using the word given. Do not change the word given. You must use between three and eight
words, including the word given. ( 0.1 P/ 1 ANSWER)
71. I have got such a lot of work at the moment that I can't afford to take the day off. snowed
I................................................................at the moment so I can't afford to take the day off.
72. We expect the President will start speaking at eleven. due
The President................................................................at eleven.
73. At the start of the meeting, Ashley summarised what had been discussed last time. kicked
Ashley................................................................a summary of what had been discussed last time.
74. A test was planned for the following Monday so I spent the weekend revising. going
I spent the weekend revising because................................................................ the following Monday.
75. Karen was about to leave the house when the phone rang. point
Karen was................................................................the house when the phone rang.

Answer:
71. .............................................................................................................................
72. .............................................................................................................................
73. .............................................................................................................................
74. .............................................................................................................................
75. .............................................................................................................................
PART 2 : SUMMARY (1 Pts)
Summarize in 100 - 120 words the main points in the marketing director's address.
You are all well aware that this is not the time of year for our sales conference. I have called you
together for an extra meeting and one which has a very specific purpose-the exchange of ideas. Of
course, we always aim to cover this at the annual conference, but there are so many things to be dealt
with there that there is never enough time to allow for an adequate ideas session. Many of you must
leave the conference hall thinking that you did not have an opportunity to get a word in edgeways and
that is a great pity.
I hope to remedy this today because this meeting consists of a series of brainstorming sessions. We
hope that you will all make a contribution. The sales force is no place for shrinking violets and so let's
hear from you. I am sure that you all usually have plenty to say at the conference coffee breaks or in
the pub afterwards and so now is your chance to communicate your thoughts to a wide audience.

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It is all too easy in a large organization for management not to involve the rank and file to a great
enough degree. Undoubtedly, the management team will have regular councils of war among
themselves at which they will consider a whole raft of measures and proposals for making the
company more aggressive and more profitable.
It is likely, too, that the management team may have focus groups among their customers who will
advise them on what the customer is looking for in a particular product. Such groups have been found
to be invaluable to us in our efforts to understand the mindset of potential customers.
However, the people who do the actual selling of the product, and, indeed, the people who make the
products, are often left out in the cold. They rarely get a chance to put in their penn'orth and this is
unfair. As the marketing director I am not in a position to do anything about the producers of our
product, but I am providing those who sell our products with an opportunity to have their views heard.
I want you all to speak straight from the shoulder. There is no point in organizing these sessions if
everyone is going to pussyfoot around, afraid to say what they really think in front of management. We
want to hear what you have to say, whether this takes the form of a complaint about the way things are
run, a suggestion about improving efficiency, a proposal for increasing sales, a plan for a new product
or whatever.
Right, everyone. Get talking!
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PART 3:
The graph below shows Internet users as percentage of population between 1999 and 2009.
Write a report of at least 150 words describing the information below. (1.5 pts)

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PART 4:
Write about 300 words about:

"When families have a meal together it is considered social activity. Do you think eating
together is important to people in your country?" ( 2 pts)

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page 9
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO TÂY NINH

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 12 THPT NĂM HỌC 2016-2017
Ngày thi: 22 tháng 9 năm 2016
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH - LỚP 12 THPT
Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút ( không kể thời gian giao đề)

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM

(0.1 POINT) FOR EACH CORRECT ANSWER
1. T
2. F
3. F
4. T
5. T

6. B
7. C
8. D
9. A
10. B
11. surface 16. images

12. environment 17. patterns

13. impact(s)/ effect(s) 18. distortion(s)

14. urban 19. traffic

15. problems 20. weather

0.2 m/ 1 corrrect answer

21. E
22. B
23. A
24. C

25. B
26. C
27. C
28. C
29. C
30.C
31. C
32. B
33. B
34. B

35. unresolved
36. ineffective
37. unavoidable
38. independently
39. resolutely
40. acknowledge
41. insensitive
42. knowledge
43. resulting/resultant
44. handle

45. do
46. is
47. So
48. too
49. to
50. such
51. only
52. also
53. no
54. Not

Kinetic Art
Rejoice - the well-nigh impossible has happened; London’s austere Hayward Gallery has
been transforming into a place full of wonder. And not, thankfully, by some huge- budget,
mega-hyped, multi-media extravaganza, because by a charmingly idiosyncratic investigation
into an almost forgotten aspect of the last 60 years. A new exhibition traces the history of
kinetic art - that is art which is concerning with movement - in the twentieth century. In the
process, it reveals that making artworks which either move by themselves or investigate the
idea of movement in some way has been a consistent if largely unrecognised theme of some
of the most fascinating creative activity of this century. And not only that - the marvellous
range of paintings and drawings, documents and films on kinetic art assembled by curator
Guy Bretc, who has made a life-long study of the subject, is presented largely unmediated by
text. Visitors, unharried by explanations, are left to have the pleasure of making connections
and discoveries for them.

55. transforming - transformed

56. because - but
57. concerning - concerned
58. is - are
59. them - themselves

60. A
61. C
62. C
63. A
64. D
65. C
66. C
67. B
68. D
69. D
70. A
71 am snowed under with/at work
72 is due to start speaking
73 kicked off the meeting / kicked the meeting off with
74 I was / we were going to have a test
75 (just) on the point of leaving

The summary: 1 pt

•should show attempts to convey the main ideas of the original text by means of
paraphrasing (structural and lexical use) (0.5 point)
• should demonstrate correct use of grammatical structures, vocabulary, and mechanics
(spelling, punctuations,....) (0.3 point)
• should maintain coherence, cohesion, and unity throughout (by means of linkers and
transitional devices). (0.2 point)
Penalties:
A penalty of 0.2 point will be given to personal opinions found in the summary.
A penalty of 0.2 point will be given to any summary longer than 120 words or shorter than
100 words.

Part 3: (1.6 pts)

Contents (1 point):

-
The report MUST have at least 2 paragraphs covering the following points:
• Introduce the graph (0.3 point) and state the overall trends (0.2 points)
• Describe main features with relevant data from the graph and make
comparisons if necessary (0.6 point)
- The report must not contain personal opinions. (A penalty of 0.2 point will be given to
personal opinions found in the answer.)
Language use (0.5 point)

• The report:
- should demonstrate a wide variety of lexical and grammatical structures,
- should have correct use of words (verb tenses, word forms, voice,…); and mechanics
(spelling, punctuations,....).

Part 4: (2 pts)
Task achievement: (1 points)
ALL requirements of the task are sufficiently addressed.
Ideas are adequately supported and elaborated with relevant and reliable explanations,
examples, evidence, personal experience, etc.
Organization: (0.5 point)
Ideas are well organized and presented with coherence, cohesion, and unity.
The essay is well-structured:
Introduction is presented with clear thesis statement.
Body paragraphs are written with unity, coherence, and cohesion. Each body paragraph must
have a topic sentence and supporting details and examples when necessary.
Conclusion summarises the main points and offers personal opinions (prediction,
recommendation, consideration,…) on the issue.
Language use: (0.3 point)
Demonstration of a variety of topic-related vocabulary
Excellent use and control of grammatical structures
Punctuation, spelling, and handwriting (0.2 point)
Correct punctuation and no spelling mistakes
Legible handwriting

MODEL
PART 3
The line graph compares the percentage of people in three countries who used the Internet
between 1999 and 2009.

It is clear that the proportion of the population who used the Internet increased in each
country over the period shown. Overall, a much larger percentage of Canadians and
Americans had access to the Internet in comparison with Mexicans, and Canada experienced
the fastest growth in Internet usage.

In 1999, the proportion of people using the Internet in the USA was about 20%. The figures
for Canada and Mexico were lower, at about 10% and 5% respectively. In 2005, Internet
usage in both the USA and Canada rose to around 70% of the population, while the figure for
Mexico reached just over 25%.

By 2009, the percentage of Internet users was highest in Canada. Almost 100% of Canadians
used the Internet, compared to about 80% of Americans and only 40% of Mexicans.

PART 4
It is irrefutable that eating together is a social activity. Sharing dinner together gives
everyone a sense of identity. It can help ease day-to-day conflicts, as well as
establish traditions and memories that can last a lifetime.
The first and foremost advantage of eating together is that it creates a sense of
belonging. Conversations during the meal provide opportunities for the family to
bond and learn from one another. It‘s a chance to share information and news of the
day, as well as give extra attention to your children and teens. Family meals foster
warmth, security and love, as well as feelings of belonging. It can be a unifying
experience for all.
Secondly, family mealtime is the perfect opportunity to teach appropriate table
manners, etiquette, and social skills. Parents can be perfect role models in this and
children learn by following them. What is more, meals prepared and eaten at home
are usually more nutritious and healthy. They contain more fruits, vegetables, and
dairy products along with additional nutrients such as fiber, calcium, vitamins A and
C, and folate.
Furthermore, research shows that frequent family dinners (five or more a week), are
associated with lower rates of smoking, drinking, and illegal drug use in pre-teens
and teenagers when compared to families that eat together two or fewer times per
week. To add to it, children do better in school when they eat more meals with their
parents and family.
In my country most people do value shared mealtime. However, the fast paced life
and influence of the global culture is taking some away from this custom.
Fortunately, some recent studies have shown that even in the developed countries
people are realizing the importance of family meals and are downshifting. It is indeed
time to bring the "family" back to the dinner table.
To put it in a nutshell, I pen down saying that eating together is definitely an
important social activity. That is why it has been said that, "The family that eats
together stays together‘
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KÌ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN CHÍNH THỨC DỰ THI
QUẢNG BÌNH HSG QUỐC GIA LỚP 12 THPT NĂM HỌC 2016-2017.
---------- Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH (VÒNG I )
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC Khóa ngày 14 tháng 9 năm 2016
Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
(Đề thi gồm có 10 trang)
Số báo danh:………..

Lưu ý: Thí sinh làm bài trên tờ giấy thi

SECTION ONE: LISTENING (40/ 200 POINTS)
Instructions: Listen to the recording and answer the questions. You will hear each part of the
recording twice. There will be a pause before each part so you can read the questions. There will be
other pauses to let you think about your answers. When you hear the tone, you should write your
answers on the question paper.
Part 1. You will hear 2 people talking about a new invention. Complete the notes below. Write NO
MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Scientists Create Glue Inspired by Mussels
Topic: Have you ever wondered how those hard-shelled mollusks known as mussels anchor
themselves to rocks on lake and river bottoms? How they stick to sea walls, or resist pounding waves?
Scientists at the University of Chicago have done more than come up with some answers. They've
actually created a synthetic gel that mimics the mussel's sticky, self-healing properties. Their invention
could have far-reaching medical and industrial applications.
Niels Holten-Anderson - a post-doctoral scholar at the University of Chicago - says mussels do
two things really well. They excrete a sticky (1) ……… and they can use that natural glue to repair the
anchoring bond.
Niels Holten-Anderson: "And the important thing to remember is that there are no (2) ……….
There is no live or living activity taking place inside these materials. The material is basically a dead
material, just like our hair. So this capacity to re-heal itself is completely (3) ………, and it's not
relying on any sort of energy input from living cells."
Holten-Anderson and colleagues at the University of Chicago, and a team of international
scientists have worked on how to turn what mussels do naturally into a (4) ……… material. They
zeroed in on the chemistry of what the mollusks secrete and discovered metal mixed inside their thin,
hold-fast fibers. Holten-Anderson says iron is a key ingredient that makes the adhesive strong and (5)
……….. .
Niels Holten-Anderson: "The (6) ……… thing is you can pull them apart and if you leave them
be, they can find their (7) ……… again and re-heal, and that's where the re-healing and its original
strength comes from."Holten-Anderson and colleagues set out to (8) ……… that in the laboratory
using a synthetic polymer or a simplified version of a string of mussel protein molecules. They
succeeded when they pre-mixed the polymer with metal (9) ……… at low pH.
Niels Holten-Anderson: "You instantly get an initiation of these self-healing strong gel-like,
sticky materials as soon as you do this basically step-wise process of mixing things, and then increase
the pH potentially (10) ……… what actually happens in the natural case anyway.
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 "Iron is the metal available to mussels in the environment”. Holten-Anderson says scientists can
expand that (11) ……… and experiment with other metals.
Niels Holten-Anderson: "We've shown so far that a metal such as titanium, for example, which
is interesting from the bio-medical side of things with implant materials and so forth, that we can
actually use titanium atoms too to cross in these materials and those materials seem to have even
stronger, or even higher (12) ……… than the iron based materials."
Holten-Anderson expects the (13) ……… material will have practical medical and
(14)………uses. A patent is (15) ……… on how to make the gel, which is described online in the
Proceedings of the National Academy of Sciences.
Part 2. For questions 16-18, choose the correct letter A, B, or C.
16. Generally, Rosana finds the Wednesday programme
A. worthless
B. very slow
C. valuable
17. Rosana wants to change her course because
A. she always arrives home late at night.
B. it affects her work on the next two days.
C. she doesn’t get on with the course tutors.
18. What would Rosana do if she changes her course?
A. She may not have the same tutor.
B. She can’t change her mind again.
C. She may regret the change.
For questions 19- 20, choose the letter A- E.
Which TWO good things about the distance learning component are mentioned?
A. Course length
B. Evening seminars
C. Course tutor
D. Course flexibility
E. Time factor
SECTION TWO: LEXICO-GRAMMAR (50/200 points)
Part 1. For questions 21 – 40, choose the most suitable word to complete each sentence.
21. I’ve got something of great importance to………to you
A. impair B. impart C. compare D. deport
22. He praised his wife for her dignity under the……… of the tabloid press.
A. onslaught B. assault C. onset D. offensive
23. The Roundhouse Hotel is……… named for its shape.
A. despicably B. eerily C. aptly D. wantonly
24. Commentators should think twice before reviving this ugly stereotype in an attempt to………
police for killing a black teenager.
A. apportion B. decriminalize C. exculpate D. discharge
25. She’s still……… over whether to accept the job she’s just been offered.
A. tottering B. doddering C. dithering D. faltering
26. Several fans have claimed that they were……… by security guards.
A. inundated B. cloaked C. manhandled D. acquiesced
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27. You could feel the child's……… rise as we neared the amusement park.
A. spectacle B. exuberance C. abundance D. plethora
28. Brain cancer requires treatment such as……… surgery.
A. aggressive B. confrontational C. malignant D. rigorous
29. She went on and on about how she admired his work - laid it on a bit………, if you ask me.
A. sticky B. sick C. soft D. thick
30. I’m……… my brother is.
A. nowhere like ambitious as B. nothing near as ambitious as
C. nothing as ambitious like D. nowhere near as ambitious as
31. The police……… off the street where the bomb had gone off.
A. battened B. cordoned C. fastened D. shuttered
32. The smell of the burnt cabbage was so ……… that it spread to every zoom.
A. pervasive B. effusive C. extensive D. diffuse
33. Why did you ……… and mention the party to Roger? It was supposed to be a surprise.
A. have kittens B. put the cat among the pigeons
C. let the cat out of the bag D. kill two birds with one stone
34. The judge released him on ……… but he’ll have to appear in court again next week.
A. sentence B. bail C. punishment D. fine
35. You will be putting your life on the ……… if you take up skydiving.
A. ground B. way C. lane D. line
36. After the concert, everyone had to……… home through the thick snow.
A. trudge B. tread C. trace D. trickle
37. When his parents are away, his older brother………
A. knocks it off B. calls the shot C. draws the line D. is in the same boat
38. Unfortunately, not all of us obtain our just……… in life.
A. demands B. gains C. deserts D. wins
39. It is public knowledge that new magazines often use free gifts or other………to get people to buy
them.
A. gimmicks B. snare C. plots D. scams
40. When his manager went on a business trip, Mario stepped into the……… and chaired the meeting.
A. hole B. breach C. pool D. crack
Part 2. For questions 41-50, read the text below. Use the word given in capital at the end of each
line to form a word that fits in the space in the same line.

Every Picture Tells a Story

Adapting novels for film almost always involves a process of reduction,
(41) ……… and deletion. This can be very frustrating for the writer, but CONDENSE
also illuminating. Working on a script, I was struck by how much of the
dialogue and narrative description in a (42)……… scene in the novel I GIVE
could (43) ………with, while still getting across the same point. This DISPENSATION
does not necessarily mean that the dialogue and description of the origin
were (44) ……… It is a matter of the type of attention demanded of the SUPERFLUITY
audience by narrative in each medium, and a matter of the type of
redundancy each (45) ……… I do not mean “redundancy” in the usual EMPLOYEE
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(46)……..sense of material which is unnecessary, but in a technical COLLOQUY
sense. In a novel, such redundancy would include the repeated
(47)……… to certain traits by which characters are identified, as well ALLUDE
as speech tags such as “he said”. Strictly speaking a character trait needs
to be described only once, but it assists comprehension if we are
constantly reminded of it. And usually we can infer who is speaking in a
scene of dialogue from the content and layout on the page, but speech
tags make reading easier. Stage drama, which consists mostly of speech,
imitates and (48) ……… the redundancy of real speech with various PRODUCTION
degrees of (49) ……… . In some modern dramas, this is taken to an STYLIST
extreme, so that the dialogue seems to consist almost entirely of
redundant language, whose function is purely phatic (merely establishing
contact between the two speakers), leaving us in the dark as to what is
being ……(50) . COMMUNICATE

Part 3. The passage below contains 10 mistakes. For questions 51- 60, find out and correct them.
It was the human factor that contributes to the absolute majority of road accidents which
involves the tremendous toll of fatalities each year. Other, less decisive, causes are vehicle functions
or road shortcomings. Speeding motorists are notorious about failing to give way at junctions, judging
the situation on the road or being unable to accurately estimate the distance while overtaking the
“snailpacers” ahead. Drinkers who settle behind the wheel after one glass or two may be running the
risk of causing a tragedy through their impairing perception, which is not so rare a case, again.
Unfortunately, it is much simpler to introduce the necessary alterations in the traffic system that
change the behavioural patterns of drivers. There are voices that more severe disciplinary resolutions
ought to put into practice if the vehicle users are to benefit from greater security on the road. The idea
of producing safe road users through pre-school parental instruction or through incorporating the safety
regulations for school curriculum has been widely acclaimed in many communities and are expected to
yield the required results as the first step in bettering the qualifications of the future drivers and
acquaint them with the potential hazards that may arise en route.
51. ……… 52……… 53……… 54……… 55………
56……… 57……… 58……… 59……… 60………
Part 4. For questions 61- 70, fill in each gap with a suitable phrasal verb.

pull it off paid off dispense with pulls through whiping up

stand up for cutting in on pops up ward off get off

61. We had to ……… pages of legal jargon before we could sign the contract.
62. She is one of those film stars who……… everywhere, on TV, in magazines, on Broadway.
63. I spent most of the morning……… my sick husband.
64. She kept ……….our conversation.
65. I need some time to………… before making a decision.
66. She was given a magic charm to……… evil spirits.
67. She……… a reply to the letter before she left for the meeting.
68. A washing machine of this type will certainly……… normal domestic use.
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69. He was tried for forgery in a law court but was lucky enough to……………...
70. It’s a serious operation for a woman as old as my grandmother. She is very frail. I hope she………
SECTION THREE: READING COMPREHENSION (70/ 200 points)
Part 1. For questions 71-84, read the passage and fill in each gap with a suitable word.
Brands now dominate our shopping habits, working lives and leisure activities. Corporate logos
abound, and this ‘brandscape’ in which we live is (71) ………: walk down a street in any city in the
world and there will be enough brands to make you (72) ……… at home. The intrusion is not just (73)
………, it is mental and spiritual. Research and surveys repeatedly (74) ……… that brands generate
more trust than (75) ……… institution. A successful brand offers consistency of quality, a point of
certainty in an uncertain world; insecure, we latch (76) ………to the familiar and predictable. Brands
are no longer simply about the (77) ……… of the product or service they sell, but are promoted as a
(78) ……… of values. (79) ………, we use brands and we decode the use of brands to establish the
status of others. Now, as brands (80)………. on good causes, they are implicitly bidding (81) ………
legitimise the corporation as a morally and socially responsible institution. The aim is that the audience
will (82) ……… the human exploitation and environmental waste invariably (83)……… in the
production of the goods, and believe that the corporation is a good thing. Brands have become a
philosophy, and when consumers buy the brand, they buy into the (84) ……… stance of the corporation.
Part 2. For questions 85-96, read the passage and choose the best answer A, B, C or D.
The value of walking
New research reveals that walking just 9,5 kilometers (six miles) a week may make your brain sharper
as you get older. Research published in the October 13 online issue of Neurology (85) ……… that
walking may protect aging brains from growing smaller and, in (86) ………, preserve memory in old
age.
‘Brain size shrinks in late adulthood, which can (87) ……… memory problems,' study author Kirk
Erickson of the University of Pittsburgh said in a news release. ‘Our findings should encourage further
well-designed scientific (88) ……… of physical exercise in older adults as a very (89) ………approach
for preventing dementia and Alzheimer's disease.’ For the study, the team asked 299 dementia-free
seniors to record the (90) ……… they walked each week.
Four years later, the participants were tested to see if they had developed (91) ……… of dementia.
Then after nine years had passed, scientists (92) ……… the participants’ brains to measure size. At the
four-year test, researchers discovered subjects who walked the most had (93) ……… their risk of
developing memory problems by 50 per cent. At the nine-year checkpoint, those who walked at least
9.5 kilometers a week, had brains with a larger (94). ……… than those who didn't walk as much. This
is not the first study to (95) ……… the benefits of walking in seniors. For example, last spring,
Harvard University found that women who walked regularly at a (96) ……… pace had an almost 40
per cent lower risk of stroke.
85. A. informs B. provides C. suggests D. notifies
86. A. result B. turn C. sequence D. case
87. A. account B. lead C. set D. cause
88. A. trials B. attempts C. searches D. courses
89. A. indicative B. promising C. fortunate D. ideal
90. A. distance B. length C. duration D. extent
91. A. signals B. factors C. signs D. features
92. A. skimmed B. scanned C. screened D. sounded
93. A. depressed B. declined C. reduced D. dropped
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94. A. volume B. amount C. dimension D. quantity
95. A. advertise B. promote C. respect D. admire
96. A. brisk B. hard C. crisp D. brief
Part 3. For questions 97-110, reading the text and do as guided .
SHAPING TOURISM TRENDS
- the commercial perspective
It is the commercial sector which converts tourism trends into reality through availability of
money and response to market needs to make profit. Tourism projects do not occur unless there are
sound commercial results coming from them. Even governments and local authorities are now applying
commercially based techniques to evaluate tourism, and are asking for rates of return on community
investments. Commercial evaluation is commonplace in tourism and the only trends that are going to
emerge in the future are those that make money. The exploitable trend is the one which will survive and
be developed. For example, the demographic trends in Europe show an increase in an ageing population
and adequate market research and an in-depth understanding of the needs of this sector of the
population has given rise to a whole industry based on holidays for the 55-65 age groups.
A. Let's look at the commercial hotel sector's response over 25 years ago to an occupancy problem in
London, UK, at weekends. Hotels were empty. The answer was the weekend-break in London with train
ticket and hotel combined. The mini-break or weekend away in a hotel is now an established part of UK
life and there are non-trends within that - differentiation of mini-weekends into those based on activities,
culture, learning, and so on. A trend created and exploited originally by one hotel company but now part
of the UK lifestyle.
Another demographic trend - the larger number of travelling businesswomen - has given rise to the
female executive bedroom now being promoted by hotel companies and quite a changed attitude on the
part of hotel restaurant managers to women dining on their own.
The trend in fitness and health is currently being successfully exploited by tour operators, travel
agents, hotels and restaurants in the form of activity-centred holidays, health food menus and even non-
alcoholic wine fists. The commercial hotel sector has established the trend towards a much more
sophisticated hotel product including clubrooms, 'no smoking' rooms, rapid check out and pre-
registration. And provision of a greater range of facilities in the room is being given a great deal of
attention by many groups and mini-bars. In-house video/films, hair dryers, more sophisticated lighting
controls and bed head panel controls for radio, TV, etc are now quite common.

B. The growth in the ski market - there are now some 600,000 skiers in the UK - is not just the creation
of suitable packages by the travel trade but also has retail backing in ski-wear by firms like Marks and
Spencer. The spin-off of the exploitation of this trend into the sales of thermal underwear is probably as
good a demonstration of the induced tourism multiplier as anyone will need. This is a concerted
commercial effort to increase the business volumes and to develop the trend where the winter holiday
becomes an accepted part of life.
Providing new good-standard hotels in Cairo enhanced that destination's attractiveness and opened it up
to a much wider market where volume travel and volume accommodation could work hand in hand. The
inhibiting factor in developing Istanbul as a much more viable tourist destination is the lack of volume of
good standard accommodation. This is an opportunity waiting to be exploited which will not only benefit
Istanbul but also the southern coast of Turkey as it raises the whole potential of two-destination holidays
- the wealth of history of Istanbul plus the beaches of the southern coast. This example is typical of the
6
potential that exists in tourism just requiring commercialisation. This potential had already been
recognized by the Turkish government who provided the necessary infrastructure, so creating the trend
towards Turkish as opposed to Spanish or Yugoslav or Greek holidays is already under way.
C. Commercial trend shaping does not just happen by accident, it has to be adequately researched,
planned, developed and carefully executed. There are still people with fixed attitudes towards tourism
who think that investment in tourism is suspect - much tourism infrastructure has little alternative use. It
is for that reason that the commercial approach to tourism has to be thorough, based on sound marketing,
and has to show an adequate return on investment. In a number of instances negative attitudes to tourism
investment have meant that in order for the economic benefits of tourism to be realized governments
have had to provide the impetus for that development either in terms of providing the infrastructure or in
the form of grants and loans for tourism purposes. Governments do, however, realize substantial tax and
fiscal income from their tourist industries. There are great cases for governments being able to help
themselves by investing in their own tourist industries. They can obtain an excellent return from any
investment they make in the industry. Also, partnerships between government and commercial interests
can produce excellent benefits for both.
D. Shaping a trend in tourism is concerned with opportunity identification and creating a level of
expectation which then has to be met through product development and providing the customer with
what is promised. The final judge of the received value of the commercial tourism product is the
customer and it is customer reaction that keeps the concern in business. The customer is therefore the
logical starting point in commercial tourism.
Social trends have already shown shifts in age groupings, and people with more disposable income,
more leisure time and fewer children. These are the opportunities for commercial tourism already being
exploited. More customers for tourism are being created daily. The first-time holiday taker has quite
different needs from the experienced traveller and these are the opportunities for new types of budget
accommodation (for example) for these new markets. Identifying these new customers and being aware
of the changing requirements of existing customers represents the commercial opportunity which can be
developed and the way in which a trend can be established.
E. There are of course, a few negative aspects to the commercial approach in tourism. Commercial
exploitation has had a bad name. That attitude, fortunately, is now changing and development these days
tends to go ahead in a much closer and controlled partnership with government local authorities, the local
environment, the people and the commercial sector. The future is bright, but with increasing competition
from new developing destinations and sophisticated attractions, commercial decisions in tourism will
themselves become more sophisticated. The commercial sector can develop a trend, and has produced
many innovations in tourism. It is a wealth and job creator. To continue that role the commercial sector
must be allowed to proceed without interference. Tourism is a success, but it needs to be able to respond
to market circumstances unrestrained.
Questions 97-100: The Reading Passage has five marked paragraphs, A-E. Choose the correct
heading (i-ix) for sections A-D from the list of headings below.
List of Headings
i. Trend exploitation by firms and governments
ii. Customer reaction to commercial tourism
iii. Trend in fitness and health
iv. Government tax income from tourism
v. Accommodation commercialization by governments
7
vi. Investment in tourism
vii. Commercial exploitation and future trends
viii. Tourism trend change in age grouping
ix. Tourism trend in hotel sector
97. Section A
98. Section B
99. Section C
100. Section D
Questions 101-104: Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D
101. Hotels has developed many more sophisticated products in the tourism trend EXCEPT
A . non-smoking areas.
B. fast check-out.
C. free breakfast provision.
D. clubrooms.
102. Istanbul is less likely to be developed as a tourist destination mainly due to
A. very few places of interest.
B. lack of good-standard hotels.
C. inconvenient transport.
D. little publicity to tourists.
103. According to negative attitudes to tourism investment, governments should
A. cooperate with commercial organizations in tourism investment.
B. prevent the excessive investment in tourism.
C. stimulate tourism development through infrastructure and funds.
D. invest in tourist industries by themselves for benefits.
104. Shaping a new trend in tourism is concerned with
A. sufficient government investment.
B. good-standard accommodation provision.
C. travel agency management.
D. opportunity identity and customer response.
Questions 105-110. Look at the following items and statements below. Match the statements with the
items, A-H.
105. female executive bedrooms
106. activity-centred holidays
107. in-house videos
108. ski wear
109. good-standard hotels
110. provision of facilities
A. are now successfully exploited in tourism trend in fitness and health
B. are negatively treated by hotel restaurant managers
C. are quite common facilities provided in hotel rooms
D. are currently promoted by hotel companies
E. are provided in Cairo enhancing the destination's attractiveness
F. are provided in both Istanbul and the southern coast of Turkey
G. are attended to a lot by mini-bars
H. are sold by some UK retail firms
8
Part 4. You are going to read an extract from a newspaper article. Five paragraphs have been
removed from the extract. Choose from the paragraphs A-G the one which fits each gap (111 -115).
There are extra paragraphs which you do not need to use.
Up, up and away!
So you think you're inconvenienced by having to put your personal belongings in a clear plastic
bag and arrive at the airport three hours before departure? Imagine how recent security changes are
affecting aviation personnel. You don't need to be a regular viewer of 'Airport' to know that
commercial airport staff are accountable for all sorts of situations both within and outside of their
control.
111

Balpa, which has over 9,000 of Britain's airline pilots in membership, wants safety
recommendations from pilots to be taken much more seriously. Many pilots feel that the system is
making their jobs more difficult rather than improving security. And, of course, with the recent increase
in the terrorist threat, a career in aviation might not be the first thing on the mind of the nation's
graduates.
112

North, from Cambridge, is a first officer with KLM. Her job involves flying from Amsterdam to
various European destinations, checking flight planning and fuel measures. She has wanted to be a pilot
since she was very young. "I went on holiday with my family and was allowed a flight deck visit," she
says. "When I saw all the screens and dials I thought, wow, I want to do that!”
113

She says one of the best things about being a pilot is "the feeling you get when it's pouring with
rain and freezing cold on the ground, then when you go flying and pop up through the clouds and it's
warm and sunny." She continues: "Sometimes, you have to get up at 2.30 a.m. to get to work and if you
are really unlucky you'll get that scheduled six days in a row. There are rules about how long you can
work, but after 14 hours on day six ... it's exhausting”
114

However, despite the cost of training, competition for training positions at flight schools is
normally fierce. The RAF offers university and sixth form sponsorship for certain RAF careers, and
you can receive up to £4,000 a year as an undergraduate.
115

Thirty-two-year-old Zoe Goldspink is a senior flight attendant for Virgin Airways. She trained for
6 weeks at the Horley Flight Centre near Gatwick, learning safety, security, customer service and
medical training. It's a comprehensive training programme and entry requirements vary from airline to
airline. None require a degree but some prefer a European language, most have minimum GCSE
requirements and some like experience in a custom service role.

A. Training as a pilot can be a pretty pricey exercise. Costs vary but potential flyers need to have
around £60,000 in sponsorship or private wealth. Some airlines offer sponsorship, and some offer
methods for borrowing and repaying this money that may be linked to a starting salary.
B. One of the most annoying things is delays at check-in. In high season these can be
unacceptably long and many people get irate at having to hang around. Terrorist treats have added to
this problem of course and I appreciate that, but I still don't see why it takes quite so long. It drives me
9
mad and so I never fly anywhere unless I really have to. I'm also slightly nervous of flying, so for me
it's just a necessary evil.
C. Brunel University is offering a BA and MA in aviation engineering and pilot studies. There are
also several aviation schools, such as Oxford Aviation Training, which offer full flight training as well
as post-qualification selection preparation. All of these courses offer qualifications which are
recognized worldwide.
D. North won a flying scholarship with the Air Training Corps (Air Cadets) when she was
seventeen and used it to get her private pilot’s licence. She left the RAF when she won a sponsorship
with civilian commercial flying school, Cabair, before joining KLM as a first officer on the Fokker 50.
E. Goldspink says the benefits are obvious. "One minute you can be in New York and then the
following week in Hong Kong or on a beach in Barbados. It does disrupt your social life and
sometimes it can be a bit tiring, but there are far more pluses to the job. I love being cabin crew. It's the
endless variety that appeals so much to me."
F. But it's not all terrifying, says Kate North. "Exciting, perhaps. Thankfully, confidence in the
industry remains strong and it seems more people are flying than ever before. Obviously, there is
increased security at UK airports but that is necessary for the safety and wellbeing of all passengers. I
think most passengers appreciate that."
G. Other than doctors and nurses, there are few people whose hands we put our lives in so
readily. We are not in control of our fate when we are passengers on a plane. Travelling 30,000 feet in
the air with nothing for company except an in-flight magazine, tensions can run high.
SECTION FOUR: WRITING (40/ 200 points)
Part 1. For questions 116 to 120, complete the second sentence so that it has it has a similar
meaning to the first sentence, using the word given. Do not change the word given. You must use
between THREE and SIX words, including the word given.
116. The handling of the matter has been heavily criticised by the press. (scorn)
-> The press ……………………………………………… of the matter.
117. The direct aim of the statement is to make the public aware of the present situation. (boils)
-> The statement ………………………………… aware of the present situation.
118. Don't think the police are going to drop your case so quickly. (hook)
-> Don't think the police are going to …………………………… so quickly.
119. I don't really know why, but I don’t trust him. (finger)
-> I can’t …………………………………………………. , but I don’t trust him
120. If you work without a break, you are more likely to make an error. ( prone)
-> Working without a break ……………………………………………… error.
Part 2: Write about the following topic:
Some people think that, in order to improve the quality of education, students should be encouraged
to evaluate and criticize their teachers. Others feel that this will result in a loss of respect and
discipline in the classroom. Discuss both sides and give your opinion.
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or
experience. Write at least 250 words.

-The end-

10
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KÌ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN CHÍNH THỨC DỰ THI
QUẢNG BÌNH HSG QUỐC GIA LỚP 12 THPT NĂM HỌC 2016-2017.
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH (VÒNG I)
Khóa ngày 14 tháng 9 năm 2016
HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM

Tổng số điểm toàn bài: 200 điểm

Sau khi cộng toàn bộ số điểm, giám khảo quy về hệ điểm 20 (không làm tròn số).
SECTION ONE: LISTENING (40/ 200 POINTS)
Part 1. Mỗi chỗ đúng được 2 điểm, tổng 30 điểm.
1. adhesive 2. cells 3. automatic 4. synthetic 5. flexible
6. unique 7. partners 8. replicate 9. salts 10. mimicking
11. pallet 12. strength 13. nature-inspired 14. industrial 15. pending
Part 2: Mỗi chỗ đúng được 2 điểm, tổng 10 điểm.
16. C 17. B 18. A 19. D 20. E
SECTION TWO: LEXICO-GRAMMAR (50/200 points)
Mỗi đáp án đúng được 1 điểm, tổng 50 điểm.
Part 1.
21. B. impart 22. A. onslaught
23. C. aptly 24. C. exculpate
25. C. dithering 26. C. manhandled
27. B. exuberance 28. A. aggressive
29. D. thick 30. D. nowhere near as ambitious as
31. B. cordoned 32. A. pervasive
33. C. let the cat out of the bag 34. B. bail
35. D. line 36. A. trudge
37. B. calls the shot 38. C. deserts
39. A. gimmicks 40. B. breach
Part 2.
41. condensation 42. given 43. dispense 44. superfluous 45. employs
46. colloquial 47. allusion 48. reproduces 49. stylisation 50. communicated
Part 3.
51. involves-> involve
52. functions-> malfunction
53. about-> for
54. judging-> misjudging
55. impairing-> impaired
56. that-> than
57. to put-> to be put
58. for-> into
59. are-> is
60. acquaint -> acquainting
Part 4:
61. dispense with 62. pops up 63. whiping up 64. cutting in on 65. pull it off
66. ward off 67. paid off 68. stand up for 69. get off 70. pulls through
SECTION THREE: READING COMPREHENSION (70/ 200 points)
Part 1+ 2+3: Mỗi chỗ đúng được 1,5 điểm, tổng 60 điểm.
Part 1:
71. global 72. feel 73. physical 74. show 75. any
75. on 76. set 77. qualities 78. set 79. Consequently
80. take 81. to 82. overlook 83. involved 84. philosophical
Part 2:
85. C. suggests 86. B. turn 87. D. cause 88. A. trials
89. B. promising 90. A. distance 91. C. signs 92. B. scanned
93. C. reduced 94. A. volume 95. B. promote 96. A. brisk
Part 3:
97. Section A- ix
98. Section B- i
99. Section C- vi
100. Section D- ii
101. C. free breakfast provision
102. B. lack of good-standard hotels
103. C. stimulate tourism development through infrastructure and funds
104. D. opportunity identity and customer response
105. D 106. A 107. C 108. H 109. E 110. G
Part 4: Mỗi chỗ đúng được 2 điểm, tổng 10 điểm.
111. G 112. F 113. D 114. A 115. C
SECTION FOUR: WRITING (40/ 200 points)
Part 1. Mỗi chỗ đúng được 2,0 điểm, tổng 10 điểm.
116. The press has poured scorn on the handling of the matter
117. The statement boils down to making the public aware of the present situation.
118. Don’t think the police are going to get/ let you off the hook so quickly
119. I can’t put my finger on the reason but I don’t trust him
120. Working without a break makes you more prone to error
Part 2: Bài viết hoàn thành được 30 điểm.
The mark is based on the following scheme:
1. Content: 35% of the total mark
2. Organization and presentation: 30% of the total mark.
3. Language: 30% of the total mark.
4. Handwriting, punctuation and spelling: 5% of the total mark.
SỞ GD&ĐT QUẢNG BÌNH KỲ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN CHÍNH THỨC DỰ THI HSG
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC QUỐC GIA LỚP 12 THPT NĂM HỌC 2016-2017
Môn thi: Tiếng Anh - Vòng II
SỐ BÁO DANH:…………… (Khóa ngày 14 tháng 9 năm 2016)
Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
Đề có 11 trang
Lưu ý: Thí sinh làm bài trên tờ giấy thi
SECTION ONE: LISTENING (40/ 200 points)
Instruction: Listen to the recording and answer the questions. You will hear each part of the
recording twice. There will be a pause before each part so you can read the questions. There will be
other pauses to let you think about your answers. When you hear the tone, you should write your
answers on the question paper.
Part 1. Questions 1-6. You will hear three different extracts. For questions 1-6, choose the
answer (A, B or C) which fits best according to what you hear. There are two questions for each
extract.
Extract ONE
You hear two friends talking about an experience one of them had as a volunteer.
1. Nigel joined the Blue Ventures project because
A. a friend of his encouraged him to do volunteer work.
B. he had always dreamed of going to Madagascar.
C. he thought the experience would be useful to him.
2. Which word best describes Jenny’s reaction to Nigel’s account?
A. enthusiasm
B. disinterest
C. envy
Extract Two
You hear two people talking on a radio programme about how to deal with a compulsive disorder.
3. When did Alice realize she had a problem?
A. when she had a strong urge to go shopping all the time
B. after she had got into serious financial difficulty
C. once she had talked to a professional about how she felt
4. Alice now goes to a gym in order to
A. stop herself spending money.
B. get fit and lose a bit of weight.
C. get to know new people.
Extract Three
You hear two friends talking about a football match they have just watched.
5. The woman thinks that England
A. deserved to lose.
B. were not confident enough.
C. were unfortunate.
6. According to the man,
A. Gerrard was unfairly treated.
B. England played badly.
C. Russia didn’t play well.

Part 2. You will hear part of a talk by a writer who has written a book about bread. For
questions 7-14, complete the sentences.

1
 Supermarket (7) ___________ believe that baking bread on the premises attracts customers.
About (8) ___________ of bread in Britain is no longer baked in the old-fashioned way. In the past, it
took (9) ___________ for the yeast to ferment. Nowadays, the fermentation process is faster, and less
(10) ___________ is used. Unless salt is added, bread baked in the modern way is (11) ___________.
Calcium propionate can be sprayed on the bread to prevent it from going (12) ___________. The
speaker believes certain (13) ___________ may be caused by modern bread-making methods.
Supermarkets (14) ___________ on the sale of bread.

Part 3. You will hear an interview with the television presenter Dan Heckmond. For questions
15-20, choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear.
15. Dan was particularly attracted to the idea of working on the programme because…
A. it was a way of continuing his academic studies.
B. he agreed with the approach adopted by the team.
C. it involved working with experts in their subjects.
D. he welcomed the chance to visit interesting places.
16. How does Dan feel about the way topics are selected for the programme?
A. keen to ensure that his opinions are taken into account
B. worried that he hasn’t time to focus on the issues
C. sorry to play rather a minor role in the process
D. content to leave the main decisions to others
17. Dan says that any topic accepted for the programme must…
A. involve filming in a place with many picturesque views.
B. have at its heart a well-known mystery from the past.
C. give him the chance to engage in exciting activities.
D. require only a small amount of additional research.
18. When asked about those who criticise the series, Dan says that…
A. they may misunderstand its aims.
B. they are unfair to judge it by its style.
C. they underestimate how much it can achieve.
D. they might learn something from its methods.
19. What does Dan suggest about the first programme in the new series?
A. It was lucky to reach a conclusion.
B. It will fulfil the viewer’s limited expectations.
C. It should have addressed a much wider question.
D. It could make a valuable contribution to ongoing research.
20. How does Dan feel about including scenes where things go wrong?
A. certain that it will become a popular regular feature
B. unsure whether it’s the best use of programme time
C. worried that it might show his colleagues in a bad light
D. hopeful that it will provide insights into everyday archaeology

SECTION TWO: LEXICO - GRAMMAR (50/ 200 points)

Part 1. For questions 21- 35, choose the most suitable word to complete each sentence.
21. As he turned to chase the ball, the centre forward … his knee and collapsed in agony.
A. twisted B. tortured C. contorted D. crumpled
22. The work is beyond the shadow of a … one of the best she has written.
A. contradiction B. doubt C. criticism D. suspicion
23. Tina took her four-year-old daughter to the children’s hospital for an appointment with a …
A. philologist B. pedestrian C. paediatrician D. philatelist
24. Sally had to stay behind in …. for being rude to the teacher.
A. detention B. punishment C. college D. delay
2
25. I really must … these trousers because I want to wear them in the morning.
A. press B. smooth C. crease D. flatten
26. The sea between Dover and Calais was so… that most of the passengers were seasick.
A. choppy B. heavy C. bumpy D. gusty
27. I’d like to have a bath, but there doesn’t seem to be a … or anything to stop the
water running away.
A. lid B. cork C. plug D. cap
28. The frightened horse began to … away from the snake.
A. shy B. fear C. throw D. tip
29. The safe deposit box … a high-pitched sound when it was moved.
A. ejected B. expelled C. emitted D. exuded
30. It’s hard to do … to such a masterpiece.
A. judgement B. justice C. fair play D. fairness
31. This jacket would be ideal in winter: it has a fur … .
A. coating B. backing C. filling D. lining
32. The runner with the injured foot…across the finishing line.
A. limped B. trundled C. scrambled D. flashed
33. In the days before the widespread use of … , having an operation must have been a
gruelling experience.
A. aesthetes B. aesthetics C. anaesthetics D. anaesthetists
34. It had been a trying afternoon, …. at about 6 o’clock in the TV breaking down.
A. culminating B. leading C. arriving D. finalising
35. She gave up nursing training when she found she had no … for looking after the sick.
A. vocation B. mission C. service D. ambition
Part 2. For questions 36-45, read the text below, use the words given in capitals at the end of
some of the lines to form a word that fits in the gap in the same line.
The twentieth-century study of Vermeer's works was gravely
hampered by the activities of Hans Van Meegeren, whose (36) ___________ NOTORIOUS
stems from a series of stunning (37) ___________ painted in the 1930’s FORGE
and 40’s. Van Meegeren exploited the art world’s (38) ___________ of IGNORE
Vermeer’s early life by painting a number of fakes that went on to be
(39) ___________ as genuine works of Vermeer by the leading authorities AUTHENTIC
of the day. His (40) ___________ were only exposed in the aftermath of DECEIVE
World War II, when a (41) ___________ Vermeer was found amongst the SUPPOSE
numerous illicit (42) ___________ of Hermann Goering. It was soon ACQUIRE
established that he had been sold the painting by Van Meegeren, who
was arrested as a collaborator. In order to escape possible (43) ___________ EXECUTE
Van Meegeren confessed to having forged the picture only to find
that his story was met with total (44) ___________ . To test his claim, he BELIEVE
was locked in a studio with a panel of experts and ordered to produce
another “Vermeer”: stunned by the (45) ___________ of his technique, the MASTER
judges released him before he had even completed the painting.

Part 3. For questions 46-50, fill each blank with a suitable preposition or particle.
46. He showed great ingenuity ___________ solving the problem.
47. Don’t let him lure you ___________ agreeing.
48. You’re silly not to avail yourself ___________ this good opportunity.
49. The speaker made many allusions ___________ the new scheme.
50. Stop wasting time! Get to my office ___________ the double.

3
Part 4. For questions 51 -55, fill the following sentences with suitable words in the box.

on the shelf at all costs cows tall stomach donkey

51. We must ___________ catch the 7.30 train. Otherwise, we won’t get to the meeting in time.
52. She loved tennis and could watch it until the ___________ came home.
53. When I was growing up in Wales, a girl was considered to be ___________ if she wasn’t married
by the time she was twenty - five.
54. You need to have a strong ___________ to work in a slaughterhouse.
55. Don’t believe a word he says; it’s just another of his ___________ stories.

Part 5. For questions 56-70, complete the following article by writing each missing word in the
correct blank. Use only ONE word for each space.
(56) ___________ civilization and culture are fairly modern words, having (57) ___________
into prominent use during the 19th century by anthropologists, historians, and literary figures. There
has (58) ___________ a strong tendency to use them interchangeably as (59) ___________ they mean
the same thing, (60) ___________ they are not the same.
Although modern in (61) ___________ usage, the two words are derived from ancient Latin.
The word “civilization” is (62) ___________ on the Latin civis, “inhabitant of a city.” Thus
civilization, in its most essential meaning, is the ability of people to live (63) ___________
harmoniously in cities, in social groupings. From this definition it would seem that certain (64)
___________, such as ants or bees, are also civilized. They live and work together in social groups. So
(65) ___________ some microorganisms. But there is more to civilization, and that is (66)
___________ culture brings to it. So, civilization is (67) ___________ from culture.
The word culture is (68) ___________ from the Latin verb colere, “to till the soil” (its past
participle is cultus, associated with cultivate). But colere also has a wider range of meanings. It may,
like civis, (69) ___________ inhabiting a town or village. But (70) ___________ of its definitions
suggest a process of starting and promoting growth and development.

SECTION THREE: READING COMPREHENSION (75/ 200 points)

Part 1. For questions 71 - 83, read the text below and decide which answer (A, B,C or D) best fits
each space.
Modern barging
There has been a (71) … change in the way the canals of Britain are used. The (72) … network
of canals that covers much of the country (73)… back to the industrial revolution, when goods
were transported along these routes. The canals themselves, the (74) … waterways of the
country, were dug by teams of men. This was no (75)…feat in the days before mechanised
diggers. It .was also necessary to construct a system of locks, which raise and lower boats so they can
(76)… with the varying height of the canals themselves. Barges-simple boats without engines -
were used to carry the freight, and horses would (77) … along the side of the canal pulling these
vessels. Many of the people working on the boats would themselves live on the water, in a long
boat with cramped living quarters: a narrowboat.
As the railways and roads (78) … in popularity as ways of transporting freight, the canals fell into
(79) …; many of them became (80) … with weeds and rubbish. But over the last few decades
Britain appears to have rediscovered these (81) … of engineering. A growing number of people
each year sample the delights of canal holidays. Narrowboats can be (82) … up to be very
comfortable, and these days they are (83) … by an engine and not pulled by a horse.
71. A. prime B. fundamental C. downright D. deep-rooted
72. A. extensive B. far-flung C. ample D. widespread
73. A. comes B. looks C. throws D. dates
4
74. A. inbuilt B. inland C. internal D. interior
75. A. modest B. mean C. minor D.tiny
76. A. balance B. compensate C. cope D. handle
77. A. trudge B. canter C. stroll D. meander
78. A. increased B. obtained C. gained D. assumed
79. A. disuse B. obsolescence C. redundancy D. negligence
80. A. impeded B. choked C. hindered D. congested
81. A. records B. testimonies C. constructions D. monuments
82. A. done B. worked C. customised D. converted
83. A. equipped B. supplied C. drawn D. powered

Part 2. Reading the following passage and answer questions 84 -107.

The Reading Passage has seven paragraphs A-G. From the list of headings below, choose the most
suitable heading for each paragraph.
LIST OF HEADINGS
i. Some success has resulted from observing how the brain functions.
ii. Are we expecting too much from one robot?
iii. Scientists are examining the humanistic possibilities.
iv. There are judgements that robots cannot make.
v. Has the power of robots become too great?
vi. Human skills have been heightened with the help of robotics.
vii. There are some things we prefer the brain to control.
viii. Robots have quietly infiltrated our lives.
ix. Original predictions have been revised.
x. Another approach meets the same result.

84. Paragraph A __
85. Paragraph B __
86. Paragraph C __
87. Paragraph D __
88. Paragraph E __
89. Paragraph F __
90. Paragraph G __
ROBOTS
Since the dawn of human ingenuity, people have devised ever more cunning tools to cope with work
that is dangerous, boring, onerous, or just plain nasty. That compulsion has culminated in robotics -
the science of conferring various human capabilities on machines.
A. The modern world is increasingly populated by quasi-intelligent gizmos whose presence we
barely notice but whose creeping ubiquity has removed much human drudgery. Our factories hum to
the rhythm of robot assembly arms. Our banking is done at automated teller terminals that thank us
with rote politeness for the transaction. Our subway trains are controlled by tireless robo-drivers. Our
mine shafts are dug by automated moles, and our nuclear accidents - such as those at Three Mile Island
and Chernobyl - are cleaned up by robotic muckers fit to withstand radiation.
Such is the scope of uses envisioned by Karel Capek, the Czech playwright who coined the
term ‘robot’ in 1920 (the word ‘robota’ means ‘forced labor’ in Czech). As progress accelerates, the
experimental becomes the exploitable at record pace.
B. Other innovations promise to extend the abilities of human operators. Thanks to the incessant
miniaturisation of electronics and micro-mechanics, there are already robot systems that can perform
some kinds of brain and bone surgery with submillimeter accuracy - far greater precision than highly
skilled physicians can achieve with their hands alone. At the same time, techniques of long-distance
control will keep people even farther from hazard. In 1994, a ten-foot-tall NASA robotic explorer
5
called Dante, with video-camera eyes and with spiderlike legs, scrambled over the menacing rim of an
Alaskan volcano while technicians 2,000 miles away in California watched the scene by satellite and
controlied Dante’s descent.
C. But if robots are to reach the next stage of labour-saving utility, they will have to operate with
less human supervision and be able to make at least a few decisions for themselves - goals that pose a
formidable challenge. ‘While we know how to tell a robot to handle a specific error,’ says one expert,
‘we can’t yet give a robot enough common sense to reliably interact with a dynamic world.’ Indeed the
quest for true artificial intelligence (AI) has produced very mixed results. Despite a spasm of initial
optimism in the 1960s and 1970s, when it appeared that transistor circuits and microprocessors might
be able to perform in the same way as the human brain by the 21st century, researchers lately have
extended their forecasts by decades if not centuries.
D. What they found, in attempting to model thought, is that the human brain’s roughly one
hundred billion neurons are much more talented-and human perception far more complicated-than
previously imagined. They have built robots that can recognise the misalignment of a machine panel
by a fraction of a millimeter in a controlled factory environment. But the human mind can glimpse a
rapidly changing scene and immediately disregard the 98 per cent that is irrelevant, instantaneously
focusing on the woodchuck at the side of a winding forest road or the single suspicious face in a
tumultuous crowd. The most advanced computer systems on Earth can’t approach that kind of ability,
and neuroscientists still don’t know quite how we do it.
E. Nonetheless, as information theorists, neuroscientists, and computer experts pool their talents,
they are finding ways to get some lifelike intelligence from robots. One method renounces the linear,
logical structure of conventional electronic circuits in favour of the messy, ad hoc arrangement of a
real brain’s neurons. These ‘neural networks’ do not have to be programmed. They can ‘teach’
themselves by a system of feedback signals that reinforce electrical pathways that produced correct
responses and, conversely, wipe out connections that produced errors. Eventually the net wires itself
into a system that can pronounce certain words or distinguish certain shapes.
F. In other areas, researchers are struggling to fashion a more natural relationship between people
and robots in the expectation that some day machines will take on some tasks now done by humans in,
say, nursing homes. This is particularly important in Japan, when the percentage of elderly citizens is
rapidly increasing. So experiments at the Science University of Tokyo have created a ‘face robot’ - a
life-size, soft plastic model of a female heat with a video camera imbedded in the left eye - as a
prototype. The researchers’goal is to create robots that people feel comfortable around. They are
concentrating on the face because they believe facial expressions are the most important way to
transfer emotional messages. We read those messages by interpreting expressions to decide whether a
person is happy, frightened, angry, or nervous. Thus, the Japanese robot is designed to detect emotions
in the person it is ‘looking at’ by sensing changes in the spatial arrangement of the person’s eyes, nose,
eyebrows, and mouth. It compares those configurations with a database of standard facial expressions
and guesses the emotion. The robot then uses an ensemble of tiny pressure pads to adjust its plastic
face into an appropriate emotional response.
G. Other labs are taking a different approach, one that doesn’t try to mimic human intelligence or
emotions. Just as computer design has moved away from one central mainframe in favour of myriad
individual workstations - and single processors have been replaced by arrays of smaller units that
break a big problem into parts that are solved simultaneously - many experts are now investigating
whether swarms of semi-smart robots can generate a collective intelligence that is greater than the sum
of its parts. That’s what beehives and ant colony do, and several teams are betting that legions of mini-
critters working together like an ant colony could be sent to explore the climate of planets or to inspect
pipes in dangerous industrial situations.
Questions 91-95. Do the following statements agree with the information given in the Reading
Passage ? In boxes 91-95 on your answer sheet write
YES if the statement agrees with the information
NO if the statement contradicts the information
6
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this in the passage
91. Karel Capek successfully predicted our current uses for robots. __
92. Lives were saved by the NASA robot, Dante. __
93. Robots are able to make fine visual judgements. __
94. The internal workings of the brain can be replicated by robots. __
95. The Japanese have the most advanced robot systems. __
Questions 96-98
Complete the summary below with words taken from paragraph F. Use NO MORE THAN THREE
WORDS for each answer.
The prototype of the Japanese ‘face robot’ observes humans through a (96) ___________ which is
planted in its head. It then refers to a (97) ___________ of typical ‘looks’ that the human face can
have, to decide what emotion the person is feeling. To respond to this expression, the robot alters its
own expression using a number of (98) ___________ .

Part 3. You are going to read an extract from a magazine article. Six paragraphs have
been moved from the extract. Choose from the paragraphs A-G the one which fits each
gap(99-104).There is one extra paragraph you do not need to use.
NATURAL TALENTS
In the mere seven million years since we humans separated from chimpanzees, we haven’t had
time to develop any differences: genetically we’re still more than 98 per cent identical to chimps.
99
That’s a large burden to place on a relative handful of genes. It should come as no surprise, then,
that modern studies of animal behaviour have been shrinking the list of attributes once considered
uniquely human, so that most differences between us and animals now appear to be only matters of
degree.
100
The earliest art forms may well have been wood carvings or body painting. But if they were, we
wouldn’t know it, because those materials don’t get preserved. Not until the Cro-Magnons,
beginning around 35,000 years ago, do we have unequivocal evidence for a distinctly human art,
in the form of the famous cave paintings, statues, necklaces and musical instruments.
101
First, as Oscar Wilde said, “All art is quite useless”. The implicit meaning a biologist sees behind this
quip is that human art doesn't help us survive or pass on our genes - the evident functions of most
animal behaviours. Of course, much human art is utilitarian in the sense that the artist
communicates something to fellow humans, but transmitting one’s thoughts or feelings isn’t the
same as passing on one’s genes. In contrast, birdsong serves the obvious functions of defending a
territory or wooing a mate, and thereby transmitting genes. By this criterion human art does seem
different.
102
As for human art’s third distinction - that it’s a learned rather than an instinctive activity - each
human group does have distinctive art styles that surely are learned. For example, it’s easy to
distinguish typical songs being sung today in Tokyo and in Paris. But those stylistic differences
aren’t wired into the singer’s genes. The French and Japanese often visit each other’s cities and can
learn each other’s songs. In contrast, some species of birds inherit the ability to produce the
particular song of their species. Each of those birds would sing the right song even if it had never
heard the tune. It’s as if a French baby adopted by Japanese parents, flown in infancy to Tokyo
and educated there, began to sing the French national anthem spontaneously.
103
Yet even connoisseurs would mistake the identity of two mid-twentieth century artists named
Congo and Betsy. If judged only by their works, they would probably be identified as lesser-
known abstract expressionists. In fact the painters were chimpanzees. Congo did up to 33 paintings
7
and drawings in one day, apparently for his own satisfaction, and threw a tantrum when his pencil
was taken away.
104
These paintings by our closest relatives, then, do start to blur some distinctions between human art
and animal activities. Like human paintings, the ape paintings served no narrow utilitarian
functions; they were produced not for material regard but only for the painter’s satisfaction. You
might object that human art is still different because most human artists intend their art as a means
of communication. The apes, on the other hand, were so indifferent to communicating with other
apes that they just discarded their paintings. But that objection doesn’t strike me as fatal, since even
some human art that later became famous was created by artists for their private satisfaction.

A. Perhaps we can now explain why art as we usually define it - the dazzling explosion of
human art since Cro-Magnon times - burst out spontaneously among only one species, even though
other species may be capable of producing it. Since chimps do, in fact, paint in captivity, why don’t
they do so in the wild? I suggest that wild chimps still have their days filled with problems of finding
food, surviving, and fending off rivals. If the ancestors of wild chimps had more leisure time,
chimps today would be painting. Indeed, some slightly modified chimps - we humans - are.
B. The role of learning in human art is also clear in how quickly our art styles change. Roman
authors described geese honking 2,000 years ago, as geese still do today. But humans innovate so
rapidly that even a casual museum-goer would recognise almost any twentieth century painting
as having been made later than, say, the Mona Lisa. Connoisseurs can do better, of course. When
shown a work with which they are not familiar, they can often identify not only when it was
painted but who painted it.
C. Congo and Betsy were honoured by a two-chinip show of their paintings in 1957 at
London’s Institute of Contemporary Art. What's more, most of the paintings available at that show
sold; plenty of human artists can’t make that boast.
D. On this grand evolutionary scale, whatever it is that separates humans from animals is a very
recent development. Our biological history implies that our physical capacity for making art
(whatever changes were needed in the human physique, brain, and sense organs) and anything else we
consider uniquely human must be due to just a tiny fraction of our genes.
E. If we’re going to insist that our recent creative burst finally does set us apart, then in what ways
do we claim that our art differs from the superficially similar works of animals? Three supposed
distinctions are often put forward: human art is non-utilitarian, it’s made for aesthetic pleasure and
it’s transmitted by learning rather than by genes. Let’s scrutinise these claims.
F. For example, tools are used not only by humans but also by wild chimpanzees (which use
sticks as eating utensils and weapons), and sea otters (which crack open clams with rocks). As for
language, monkeys have a simple one, with separate warning sounds for ‘leopard’, ‘eagle’ and
‘snake’. These discoveries leave us with few absolute differences, other than art, between ourselves and
animals. But if human art sprang from a unique genetic endowment, isn’t it strange that our ancestors
dispensed with it for at least the first 6.9 million of the 7 million years since they diverged from
chimps?
G. The second claim - that only human art is motivated by aesthetic pleasure - also seems plausible.
While we can’t ask robins whether they enjoy the form or beauty of their songs, it’s suspicious that
they sing mainly during the breeding season. Hence they’re probably not singing just for aesthetic
pleasure. Again, by this criterion human art seems unique.

Part 4. You are going to read a newspaper article which discusses alternative systems for
vehicles. For questions 105-120, choose from the section (A-F).
In which section of the article are the following mentioned?
105. __ the advantages of conventional cars
106. __ a more compact version of existing technology
8
107. __ a willingness to invest in new technologies
108. __ limitations concerning where a vehicle can be used
109. __ a power source associated with a space programme
110. __ recycling waste products
111. __ a negative aesthetic impression
112. __ laws that encourage the development of new technologies
113. __ the inability to transport many people
114. __ devices that function best when conditions are constant
115. __ the rate of acceleration of a vehicle
116. __ the possibility of returning to a source of power used in the past
117. __ the existence of a market for a certain type of vehicle
118. __ the ability to switch from one power source to another
119. __ a car that is expensive to buy, and that has relatively low running costs
120. __ a car can change position itself.
Vehicles of the Future
A. The motor industry is finally showing some serious interest in developing cost-effective
and environmentally-friendly technologies to power vehicles, as can be seen by the amount of
money they are spending on research and development. There are some sound reasons for this:
nowadays a significant number of people would prefer to buy a vehicle that did not emit
greenhouse gases into the atmosphere or pollute the environment in other ways. But there are other
forces at work in the industry as well. Governments throughout the world are demanding
restrictions on gas emissions, and the goals they have set can only be met in the long run if
conventional cars with internal combustion engines are phased out and replaced by vehicles that
run on alternative power sources. Naturally, public opinion is ultimately behind legislation like
this, which is aimed at protecting the environment. Governments, after all, need to respond to the
wishes of their voters.
B. For the last few decades innovators have been coming up with ideas for alternative power
sources for automobiles, though so far none has had a significant appeal for consumers. The
alternative technologies we have at present are lagging far behind the petrol-guzzling internal
combustion engine in terms of speed and the distance that can be travelled before refuelling. But
what does the future hold? At present a hybrid car propelled by a combination of an electric
motor and petrol engine may be the best compromise for those who want to help save the planet and
still have the convenience of a car. When you start the hybrid car and when you are driving
normally, power is provided by the electric motor, which works with a battery. However, when
the battery starts to go flat, the petrol engine starts automatically and drives a generator to recharge
the battery. Similarly, when the car needs extra power - in order to accelerate, for instance - the petrol
engine provides that power. This vehicle performs respectably, though not spectacularly: it can go
from 0 to about 100 kph in around 10 seconds, has a top speed of 165 kph, and below average fuel
consumption.
C. And what of cars powered solely by electricity? Here the main stumbling block has
always been storing the electricity: batteries may have come a long way, but they are still bulky
and have to be charged for long periods. The latest completely electric car, for example, has a top
speed of 60 kph and a range of 60 kilometres. It takes 6 hours to charge the battery fully. But the
makers claim this is perfectly acceptable for city driving, when people are unable to go much
faster or further in any case. Many cities provide benefits such as free parking for drivers of electric
cars. But these vehicles are virtually confined to urban settings, which is off-putting, and most
people find electric cars have a toy-like appearance which is definitely not appealing. Moreover,
environmentalists point out that while the car itself may not emit poisonous fumes, as is the case
with petrol-driven vehicles, this is of little real benefit to the environment if the electricity used to
drive the car has been generated by coal or oil power stations, as is generally the case.
D. First developed for use in missions to the moon, fuel cells appear to be the most serious
9
challenger to the internal combustion engine as an alternative source of energy for both mobile and
stationary applications. A fuel cell uses relatively straightforward technology that converts
chemical energy into electrical energy with benign by-products. In fact, the only by-products are
water, which is harmless, and heat. The other advantage is that fuel cells have no complex moving
parts that need to be cooled or lubricated. But rather than replacing the internal combustion engine as
the source of power for the vehicle itself, the fuel cell - in the view of some manufacturers - will only
replace the battery and alternator, supplying electricity to vehicle systems, operating independently of
the engine. The actual drive power for the vehicle itself would still be provided by the combustion
engine. However, while fuel cells certainly hold a great deal of promise, there are some drawbacks. They
need a steady supply of hydrogen, which needs to be extracted from some source, such as methanol
gas, and this process can be cumbersome. In one model that uses fuel cells, the reformer required to
extract the hydrogen from methanol takes up so much space that the vehicle can only seat the driver and
one passenger,
E. Another possibility is represented by turbines. Gas turbines have long been considered a
possible mobile and smaller stationary power source, but their use has been limited for a variety
of reasons, including cost, complexity and size. These large turbines shine when in steady-state
applications but are not as efficient when speed and load are continually changing. However, a
new generation of turbines - microturbines - has been developed in large measure for use in
vehicles. They are small, high-speed engine systems that typically include the turbine, compressor
and generator in a single unit with all the other vital components and control electronics. A
different possibility in terms of energy supply for cars is household gas. A special device installed
in a garage can compress the gas, which is then fed into the car. A gas car is cheaper to run, as
well as being cleaner than a conventional car. On the other hand, the vehicle itself is expensive
because the technology is new, and environmentalists argue that a gas car will produce only a
little less carbon dioxide than petrol-driven vehicles.
F. In the meantime, various compromises are being employed as temporary measures. For
example, most diesel cars can now be converted to run on biodiesel fuel, which is made from used
vegetable oils and animal fats. However, the environment lobby is not convinced that biodiesel helps
cut local air pollution by any significant amount. Many experts believe that the ultimate solution to the
problem of reducing dangerous emissions ultimately lies with electric vehicles once the battery technology
has improved. Some experts even believe that the future may lie with steam cars, and since the first
genuine ‘automobile’ - a vehicle capable of moving itself - was powered by steam more than two centuries
ago, it could be that the wheel is coming full circle.
SECTION FOUR: WRITING (35/ 200 points)
Part 1. For each of the sentences below, write a new sentence as similar as possible in meaning to
the original sentence, using the word given. This word must not be altered in any way.

121. That guy was a secret enemy. (SNAKE)

->...................................................................................
122. This car is far superior to the other models. (CUT)
->...................................................................................
123. Assembling the furniture is extremely easy. (PLAY)
->...................................................................................
124. I think his theory is clear and logical. (stands)
->...................................................................................
125. He is a generous person. (NAME)
->...................................................................................

10
Part 2. Write a report describing the information in the graph below.
You should write at least 150 words.

---THE END---

11
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN CHÍNH THỨC DỰ THI HSG
QUẢNG BÌNH QUỐC GIA LỚP 12 THPT NĂM HỌC 2016- 2017
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH (VÒNG II)
Khóa thi ngày 14 tháng 9 năm 2016
-----------------
HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM
Tổng số điểm toàn bài: 200 điểm
Sau khi cộng toàn bộ số điểm, giám khảo quy về hệ điểm 20 (không làm tròn số).

SECTION ONE: LISTENING (40/ 200 điểm)

Mỗi chỗ đúng được 2 điểm, tổng 40 điểm.
Part 1.
1. C 2. B 3. B 4. A 5. A 6. C
Part 2.
7. chains 8. ninety-eight percent/ 98% 9. a few/ several hours 10. flour

11. (rather) tasteless 12. stale 13. allergies 14. lose money
Part 3.
15. B 16. D 17. C 18. A 19. D 20. D

SECTION TWO: LEXICO - GRAMMAR (50/200 points)

Mỗi chỗ đúng được 1 điểm, tổng 50 điểm.
Part 1.
21. A. twisted 22. B. doubt 23. C. paediatrician 24. A. detention

25. A. press 26. A. choppy 27.C. plug 28. A. shy

29. C. emitted 30. B. justice 31. D. lining 32. A. limped

33.C. anaesthetics 34. A. culminating 35. A. vocation

Part 2.
36. notoriety 37. forgeries 38. ignorance 39. authenticated 40. deceptions

41. supposed 42. acquisitions 43. execution 44. disbelief 45. mastery

Part 3.
46. in 47. into 48. of 49. to 50. at/on
Part 4.
51. at all costs 52. cows 53. on the shelf 54. stomach 55. tall

Part 5.
56. Both 57. come 58. been 59. though/ if 60. but

61. their 62. based 63. together 64. insects 65. do

66. what 67. inseparable 68. derived 69. mean 70. Most

1
SECTION THREE: READING COMPREHENSION (75/200 points)
Mỗi đáp án đúng được 1.5 điểm, tổng 75 điểm.
Part 1.
71. B. fundamental 72. A. extensive 73. D. dates 74. B. inland

75. B. mean 76. C. cope 77. A. trudge 78. C. gained

79. A. disuse 80. B. choked 81. D. monuments 82. A. done

83. D. powered

Part 2.
84. viii 85. vi 86. ix 87. iv

88. i 89. iii 90. ii

91.Y 92. NG 93. Y 94. N 95. NG

96. video camera 97. database 98. (tiny/small) pressure pads

Part 3.
99. D 100. F 101. E 102. G 103. B 104. C

Part 4.
105. B 106. E 107. A 108. C 109. D 110. F

111. C 112. A 113. D 114. E 115. B 116. F

117. A 118. B 119. E 120. F

SECTION FOUR: WRITING (35/200 points)

Part 1. Mỗi câu viết lại đúng được 1.0 điểm, tổng 05 điểm.
121. That guy was a snake in the grass.
122. This car is a cut above the other models.
123. Assembling the furniture is child’s play.
124. I think his theory stands to reason.
125. Generosity is his middle name.

Part 2. Bài viết hoàn thiện được 30 điểm.

The mark is based on the following scheme.
1. Content: 35% of the total mark.
2. Organization and presentation: 30% of the total mark.
3. Language: 30% of the total mark.
4. Handwriting, punctuation and spelling: 5% of the total mark.

-----------------------------THE END-----------------------------
2
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO GIA LAI KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 12 CẤP TỈNH
CHÍÍNH TH
ĐỀ CH THỨỨC NĂM HỌC 2015– 2016
2015–

Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH (B

TIẾ (BẢẢNG B)
Ngày thi: 13/11/2015
Thời gian: 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
(Đề thi gồm 13 trang)
Lưu ý: Th Thíí sinh kh
khôông đượ
đượcc ghi bất kỳ th ông tin gì vào ph
thô phầần n ày
Thíí sinh làm bài tr
Th trêên đề thi này (H
(Hããy đọ
đọcc kỹ các ph
phầần hướ ng dẫn làm bài)
ướng

Điểm bài thi Họ tên và chữ kí giám khảo Mật mã

Bằng số:……………………… GK1:………………………………………..
Bằng chữ:……………………. GK2:………………………………………..

I. LISTENING (40/200 points)

HƯỚ NG DẪN PH
ƯỚNG PHẦ ẦN THI NGHE HIHIỂỂU
• Bài nghe gồm 3 phần, mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần.
• Mở đầu và kết thúc bài nghe của mỗi phần có tín hiệu nhạc.
• Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh đã có trong bài nghe.

Part 1: You will hear part of an interview with Norman Cowley, a well-known novelist and
biographer. For questions 1-7, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D.

1. How does Norman Cowley feel about his first novel?

A. proud of the directness of the writing
B. pleased by the way the characters interacted
C. worried by the over-refined style he used then
D. sad that he could never write anything like it again
2. What was Norman Cowley's reaction to one very bad review of his second novel?
A. He was surprised as he thought this book was well written.
B. He thought the detailed criticisms of the book were unjustified.
C. He thought the review was written in a clever and amusing style.
D. He did not regard the critic as well qualified to judge his work.
3. What value does Norman Cowley see in book reviews now?
A. They encourage writers to try new subjects. B. They motivate less committed writers.
C. They give young writers long-term guidance. D. They are part of a necessary selection process.
4. Norman Cowley thinks that if a writer uses people he knows well in a book,
A. those characters will be very realistic.
B. it will become rather tedious to write.
C. readers will find the dialogue very natural.
D. the writer will have to alter them in some way.
5. Norman Cowley believes that some modern novels
A. are much too violent. B. contain too much fantasy.
C. don't analyze the characters sufficiently. D. don't describe the setting adequately.
6. What does Norman Cowley see as the main thing a novel should give the reader?
A. psychological theories B. a new angle on life
C. a thrilling story D. beautiful language
7. What does Norman Cowley like about writing a biography?
A. basing a narrative on actual events
B. getting to know a famous person very well
C. deciding how to describe a complex personality
D. making the subject known to a wider audience

1
Part 2: Listen to the talk and fill in the missing information for questions 8-15.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A TIME for each answer.

DAY / TIME PLACE JOB DESCRIPTION START TIMES REFRESHMENTS

(8) .........................
Monday a.m Hotel Light Lunch
or Conference (9) .....................
organizer
Making handmade
3.30 p.m
(10) ................. (11) .................. paper and cards (12) ........................

Thursday a.m Travel agency Travel agent 8.00 a.m (13) .......................

Friday
(14) ................. (15 )...................

Part 3: You will hear five people talking about how computers have affected our lives. For questions
16-20, choose from the options A to F the opinion each speaker expresses. Use the letters only once.
There is an extra letter which you do not need to use.

A. They have made it possible to get information immediately.

B. They have reduced the amount of leisure time people have. 16 Speaker 1
C. They have provided lots of new kinds of entertainment. 17 Speaker 2
D. They have made it too easy to spend money. 18 Speaker 3
E. They have reduced the amount of privacy people have. 19 Speaker 4
F. They have only affected the lives of some people. 20 Speaker 5

II. USE OF ENGLISH (60/200 points)

Part 1: Choose the word or phrase that best completes each of the following sentences. Write your
answer (A, B, C, or D) in the corresponding numbered boxes. (20 points)
1. The smell of the burnt cabbage was so _________ that it spread to every room.
A. pervasive B. effusive C. extensive D. diffuse
2. My neighbour are so noisy at night. I wish they'd be more _________!
A. self confident B. considerable C. modest D. grumpy
3. It has been decided to hold a public _________ into the cause of the accident.
A. inquiry B. examination C. autopsy D. interrogation
4. _________ the catfish is prized for its taste.
A. With ugly look B. As ugly looking C. Ugly looking as it is D. As it is ugly looking
5. Mary: "Harriet is always so considerate". _ Jane: "_________ she a kind person!"
A. Doesn't she B. Such is C. How is D. Isn't
6. After the accident there was considerable doubt _______ exactly what had happened.
A. in the question of B. in the shape of C. for D. as to
7. We were working overtime to cope with a sudden_______ in demand.
A. boost B. impetus C. thrust D. surge
8. It is a brave man who_________for his belief when under attack.
A. stand outs B. stands forward C. stands up D. stands by
9. There was a terrible storm on the night we first stayed at the campsite but we were alright with our tent
and were dry as a _________.
A. bone B. cover C. coat C. sheet
10. You’re too old to carry on working. It’s time you called it a ________.
A. day B. week C. month D. Year
11. _________the double, she took the victim to the hospital.
A. In B. For C. On D. With
12. That flowers are_______everwhere is a sign of spring.
A. coming out B. breaking out C. taking over D. going over
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13. I didn’t get home until after midnight last night. Otherwise, I _______ you call.
A. would have returned B. would return C. had returned D. returned
14. _______ more help, I could call my neighbor.
A. Needed B. I have needed C. Had I needed D. Should I need
15. The party leader traveled the length and _______ of the country in an attempt to spread his message.
A. width B. distance C. breadth D. diameter
16. The business _______ after new incentives were introduced.
A. thrilled B. urged C. boomed D. persisted
17. _______, the people who come to this club are in their twenties and thirties.
A. By and large B. Altogether C. To a degree D.Virtually
18. Although the patient received intensive treatment, there was no _______ improvement in her
condition.
A. decipherable B. legible C. discernible D. intelligible
19. When he saw her with John, Jack _______ anger.
A. brushed with B. pricked with C. showed up D. bristled with
20. I hope you won't take it _______ if I suggest an alternative remedy.
A. offence B. upset C. heart D. amiss

Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

Part 2: Fill in the blanks with the correct form of the phrasal verbs given in the box below.
(10 points)

bring round call for keep up with come in for drop in on

ask out blow up catch up with look forward to come off

1. Bill left before I did, but I ran and________ him.

2. It was a difficult class, and I couldn’t ________ the other students.
3. I can’t stop thinking there’s something more the scheme needs to ________.
4. Stop wasting your time. The whole situation ________ an immediate response that could bring more
decisive.
5. They are going to ________ a lot of criticism for increasing bus fares by so much.
6. Any time you’re in the area, feel free to________ us.
7. I like this photograph so much that I’m going to have it ________.
8. Don’t think you can change his approach he’s too stubborn to be ________.
9. My daughter has been ________ to a restaurant by the tall gentleman for the second time this week.
10. I’m really________ my holiday in Italy next weekend.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 3: Choose ONE out of twelve given words that best fit each gap of the following sentences.
(10 points)

fingertips pieces footsteps while mouth neck

joke feather heels date heart hang

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1. Arthur has fallen head over _________ in love with Muriel. He does nothing but speak about her all
day round.
2. Had he not had that sudden change of _________about going to Aspen, we would certainly be
enjoying skiing in the spa now.
3. Doesn't this jacket look a bit out of _________? Why not put on something more fashionable?
4. You can easily carry that bigger box, it's as light as_________.
5. Adam tried to be amusing and told a story which was supposed to make us laugh. To his
disappointment, none of us could take the _________.
6. Surely, there's no question about monitoring that he can not answer. Now that he has received his
driving license, he's got all the knowledge at his _________.
7. All that effort in preparing the supper wasn't worth my _________. My husband came back late from
work and the children had taken cheeseburgers in a snack bar.
8. Arthur's excitement at horseracing doesn't surprise me in the least. His father was a famous jockey and
the boy seems to be following in his _________.
9. The sensational news was passed by word of_________from one staff member to another.
10. In the beginning, operating from the panel was a bit troublesome for Michael. It took him a month to
fully get the_________of it.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 4: Read the text below. Use the word in CAPITALS at the end of some of the lines to form a
word that fits in the space in the same line. (0) has been done as an example. (10 points)

The (0) growth of online job hunting has increased the importance of GROW
having a good CV. Many employers now search CV databases for potential
candidates, and a great CV which highlights your skills and experiences
will boost your chances of getting an interview (1)_______. On average, a CONSIDER
recruiter will spend just eight seconds reviewing each CV, so it's important
to get it right. If you follow a basic structure, you can present the
information in a clear, concise and (2)_______way. Your CV should look PERSUADE
clean and tidy with no frills or fancy (3)_______, with all the information ATTACH
clearly signposted, and should not exceed two pages. Include your name,
address and contact details, but information about your (4)_______, age NATIONAL
and hobbies is not essential.
Any (5)_______ employer will be interested in your work experience. PROSPECT
List the most recent first, describing your previous jobs in short sentences
using straightforward, positive language which highlights all your key
(6)_______. Similarly, list brief details of your academic and professional ACHIEVE
(7) _______ along with the grades attained. Include specific skills such as QUALIFY
IT (8)_______ or languages, and state whether you're at a basis, PACK
intermediate or advanced level. (9)_______looking for their first job since APPLY
leaving full-time education are (10)_______to have much relevant work LIKE
experience, so should put information about their academic record and key
skills first.

Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4.
5. 6. 7. 8.
9. 10.

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 liness are correct but some have a word which should
Part 5: Read the text below carefully. Some line
NOT be there. Tick the correct line. If a line has a word which should NOT be there, underline the
beginning.. (10 points)
word and write it in space. There are two examples at the beginning

OUR MEDIA PROJECT

I had a great week at school! We were been having a media studies 0. been
lesson when our teacher told us that we were going to make a radio advert 00. √
for the school! I was really keen on to be involved because I've always 1. .................................
been interested in a career in the television. She asked us to plan our 2. .................................
advert in detail and to write a script. Most people found it out difficult to 3. .................................
come up with ideas, but I didn't. I decided that I would have interview 4. .................................
with people who were used to go to school, commenting on how they had 5. .................................
benefited them from going to that school. My teacher thought it was a 6. .................................
great idea and said I should to see if I could find some ex-students. I asked 7. .................................
the head and she gave me a few telephone numbers. When I called them 8. .................................
and explained them what I wanted to do, they were all happy to help. I am 9. .................................
going to visit them with a tape recorder and record that what they say. 10. ...............................
Media studies is definitely turning out to be my favourite subject!

III. READING (50/200 points)

Part 1: Fill in each numbered space with ONE appropriate word. (10 points)

CULTURAL DIFFERENCES AT THE DINNER TABLE

In some cultures, when you are invited to (1)_______ a meal at someone’s house, you might be
considered rude if you don’t say how nice the food is. In Britain, for example, it’s normal for someone to
compliment the cook (2)_______ the tastiness of the meal. You can say something like ‘ That was
delicious. Do, please, write the recipe down (3) _______ me!’.
In other cultures, (4) _______, people tend not to be so full (5)_______enthusiasm for the meal. You
might be regarded (6) _______ being rude, as the cook might associate your praise (7) _______ surprise.
He or she might think, ‘So they’re shocked I can cook well, are they?’
If you’re not sure how to react, the best advice is to wait and (8) _______ how other people at the
table react. If that doesn’t help, be very careful (9) _______ what you say! I would suggest (10) _______
one solution could be to say, ‘ That was delicious, but then I knew it would be!’.

Your answers:

1. 2.
3. 4.
5. 6.
7. 8.
9. 8.
9. 10

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Part 2: Read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each space.
(10 points)
In the UK holidays began as religious festival days or ‘holy days’. The idea of a holiday as a
‘no-work’ day seems to have first (1) _______around five hundred years ago. In 1871 the Bank Holidays
Act established (2) _______days when, by law, banks closed. Bank Holidays soon (3) _______public
holidays, but by (4) _______, not law.
In fact, working people (5) _______ took holidays. For many people, paid holidays remained a
(6)_______ until the second half of the twentieth century. Instead, people enjoyed outings for the day to
nearby places.
The (7)_______of the railways made it possible for working people and their families to go further
afield on their day trips, (8) _______wealthy people had, for many years, taken holidays. As (9)
_______as outings became possible for more people, crowd of them travelled to the seaside. Seaside
towns started to boom. Piers were built out over the sea, funfairs opened and boat trips were
(10)_______by local fishermen. Many of the towns that benefited from all these day trippers were near to
large cities or were at the end of railway line.
1. A. appeared B. grown C. come D. arrived
2. A. absolute B. certain C. odd D. possible
3. A. developed B. happened C. became D. turned
4. A. habit B. tradition C. practice D. desire
5. A. rarely B. quite C. gradually D. ever
6. A. prize B. comfort C. reward D. luxury
7. A. rise B. growth C. increase D. size
8. A. because B. so C. although D. despite
9. A. far B. soon C. early D. good
10. A. done B. offered C. performed D. raised
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 3: Read the passage and answer questions. (20 points)

FACTS YOU SHOULD KNOW ABOUT GLOBAL WARMING

Fact 1: In 1996, the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC), representing 2,500
scientists, released a major assessment on climate change. The 3600-page report reduces many of the
uncertainties surrounding the issue. Scientists are now more confident than ever that the emission of
greenhouse gases through human activities is contributing to global warming. This will lead to climate
change next century, with potentially disastrous impacts on biodiversity, coasts, agriculture, water and
health.
Fact 2: The greenhouse effect is a natural phenomenon - if it weren’t for the natural greenhouse
effect the Earth would be some 33°C cooler than it is at present. The planet is warm enough for complex
life because naturally occurring gases (including carbon dioxide and water vapour) trap heat which would
otherwise escape into space. The problem is that human activity - including combustion of fossil fuels and
land clearing - is adding to these gases faster than oceans, plants and soil can absorb them. This is
unnaturally ‘enhancing’ the greenhouse effect. Since the industrial revolution, the concentration of carbon
dioxide, the main greenhouse gas, has increased by 30 per cent. Long- substantiated laws of physics tell
us that, given we are altering the energy balance of the atmosphere, this will impact on the world’s
temperature and climate.
Fact 3: The measured increase in temperature of about 0.3-0.6°C this century is consistent with
the latest climate model predictions. The 1980s was the warmest decade on record, with 1990, 1991 and
1995 the three warmest years on record. This is not to say that the warming trend is the consequence of
the enhanced greenhouse effect. However, recent studies show that the warming trend this century is
unlikely to be due to natural phenomena such as increased solar output. The IPCC has now stated that ‘the
balance of evidence suggests that there is discernible human influence on global climate’.

6
 Fact 4: Global warming predictions are based on computer models and analysis of climate change
that has occurred in the past. Global warming and climate change predictions are based on two major
sources. Complex computer models (known as global circulation models) are able to simulate the broad
features of the climate system including atmospheric and ocean circulations. These models can now
simulate the present climate and have greatly improved scientists’ ability to distinguish between natural
and human influences on the climate. The most recent climate models predict an increase in global
average temperatures of 1.5-3.5°C for a doubling in the atmospheric concentration of greenhouse gases.
The average rate of warming would be greater than at any time in the history of civilization. Analysis of
air trapped in glacier ice confirms the model predictions. The analysis reveals that past changes in
temperature are closely correlated to changes in carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
Fact 5: Global warming will lead to a rise in the sea level. The IPCC has projected that sea levels
will rise by between 15 and 95cm next century, with a best estimate of 50cm. Sea level rise will be
principally due to thermal expansion of the oceans and also some melting of glaciers. The sea level will
continue to rise after next century, even if the concentrations of greenhouse gases are cut by that time.
Fact 6: Human-induced climate change is different to past natural climate change. Natural climate
variability is an ongoing phenomenon - scientific analysis suggests temperatures have changed by a
number of degrees in recent geological history. It is important to recognize, though, that present-day
stresses on natural ecosystems from human activity will mean the resilience of ecosystems to the changes
will be much less than in the past. Furthermore, both the rate and the level of global warming will be
greater than any time in the last 10,000 years. Past global and regional climate changes, have resulted in
social and cultural upheaval - in some cases contributing to the collapse of civilizations.
Fact 7: The costs of global warming will outweigh the benefits. The nature and extent of the
impacts of global warming are still uncertain. However, the IPCC has made it clear that many of the
world’s ecological and human systems are extremely vulnerable to the predicted global warming, in
particular ecosystems and societies that are already subject to environmental, economic and cultural
stresses. The IPCC has also stated that future climate changes may involve ‘surprises’. Some
commentators have suggested that because some regions or industries may benefit in the short term from
climate change - for example, wheat yields could improve in Canada - then there is no need to be
concerned about the issue. This suggestion is based on a false assumption that climate change will be a
one-off event. Unless the level of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere is stabilised, though,
human-induced climate change will continue to occur and benefits may only be transient. Furthermore,
the suggestion ignores the social, economic and environmental upheaval that will arise if significant
sections of society or ecosystems are unable to adapt to climate change.

QUESTIONS
In the two lists below, a statement in the list (A-F) corresponds to an idea in one of the
paragraphs (Fact 2 - Fact 7). Match the two lists by typing in the correct letter for each question. (5
question.(5
points)
A. Global warming is likely to increase.
B. The earth will find it difficult to cope with global warning.
C. This century has seen a rise in temperature.
D. Sea level rise has been predicted.
E. Global warning might bring unexpected benefits.
F. The greenhouse effect has been beneficial to the earth.
0. Fact 2: _F_
1. Fact 3: ______
2. Fact 4: ______
3. Fact 5: ______
4. Fact 6: ______
5. Fact 7: ______

Read the passage again and choose the best answer for questions 6-8 6-8.. (3 points)
6. Considered as a whole, the text:
A. is optimistic that global warning can be dealt with. B. rejects simple attempts to solve the problem.
C. explains how the problem can be solved. D. explains the consequences of global warning.

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7. Computer predictions of climate change have been
A. disputed by some scientists B. modified over many years
C. proved reliable by trapped air in glaciers D. based on recent climate changes
8. Which statement is closest in meaning to what the text says?
A. The greenhouse effect has increased by thirty times since the industrial revolution.
B. Atmospheric carbon dioxide is thirty times greater than before the industrial revolution.
C. There is no evidence of changes in carbon dioxide levels since the industrial revolution.
D. Carbon dioxide in the atmosphere has increased by almost one-third since the industrial revolution.
Your answers:
6. 7. 8.

Complete the summary of the first three paragraphs (Facts 1-3) by choosing a maximum of three
words from the passage to fill in the spaces 9 to 14. (12 points)

The IPPC (9)____________ helped our understanding of global warming and affirmed that greenhouse
gas (10) ________is a large contributor. Although a naturally occurring phenomenon, the greenhouse
effect is being made worse (11) ________, affecting both (12) ________ and (13) ________. The IPCC
believe that other factors (for example, (14) ________) are not responsible.

Your answer:

9. 10. 11.

12. 13. 14.

Part 4: You are going to read some information about theme parks. For questions 1-10, choose from
the theme parks (A-E). The theme parks may be chosen more than once.
Which of the theme parks

0. E charges the same price for adults and children?

1. is particularly suitable for young children?
2. provides an interesting way in?
3. is just as attractive without any rides?
4. uses films for its themes?
5. seems most appropriate for adults?
6. is based on tales and stories?
7. charges separately for each ride?
8. apparently appeals to everyone?
9. has the sharpest water drop?
10. offers the greatest variety or different locations for its rides?

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 WORLD’’S THEME PARKS
THE PICK OF THE WORLD
A. Universal Studios - Hollywood
Seen the movie? Now try the ride. Jurassic There are also larger Lego figures all around
Park opened in June 1996 at a cost of $110 the park, including Mount Rushmore, the Taj
million. Described as ‘the most technically Mahal and Big Chief Sitting Bull, made of 1.5
advanced interactive themed ride in million Lego bits. The other aspect of
entertainment history’, Jurassic Park has Legoland, the rides, are not spectacular but just
five-storey-tall monsters, miracles of modern right for little children. There is a sky railway,
bio-engineering, which come to within inches a mini driving school, helicopter rides and a
of your eyebrows. You cruise in a boat through boat ride through dark tunnels.
a tropical forest, ending up diving into a
pitch-dark lagoon; it is the fastest, steepest Entry details: Adults €13, children €10.
water drop in amusement park history. A
lifetime of primeval terror packed into five and
D. Port Aventura - Spain
a half minutes. Among the other ‘star’ This theme park on the coast is situated near
attractions is Water World, based on the movie
Salou on the Costa Dorada. Visitors can travel
and the nearest you can get to giant fireballs,
through five exotic lands: rural Spain,
exploding seaplanes and other disasters. There
Polynesia, China, Mexico and the Wild West.
are also other favourites such as King Kong,
The journeys are made by steam train, canoe,
Jaws, ET and Back to the Future, a journey Chinese junk or on foot. People who feel brave
from the Ice Age to 2015. More for grownups,
can try the Dragon Khan rollercoaster which
perhaps, than children. turns you upside down eight times. But the
biggest demand is for a ride called the Tu Tu
Entry details: US$69 for adults, US$59 for Ki Splash, a watery drop in an open- topped
children. bus straight into a Polynesian lake.
B. Sentosa - Singapore Entry details: Adults €44, children €35.
For families stopping over in Singapore on the
way to Australia, Sentosa is the perfect place. E. Efteling - Holland
Two of the newest attractions are VolcanoLand, Once upon a time, over 60 years ago, a Dutch
offering a journey to the centre of the Earth artist started to build a magical land, bringing
with halfhourly volcanic explosions, bursts of his own drawings to life. His Fairy Tale Forest
hot air and trembling floors, and Wonder Golf, is still at the heart of this timeless park of
full of waterfalls and other obstacles. Sentosa traditional tales and legends set in large
also has the largest aquarium in south-eastAsia, woodlands. Efteling is visited by 2.5 million
a Fantasy Island water park with 32 rides, and people each year and is an
several Chinese heritage performances from everything-to-all-ages sort of place. It is best
traditional wedding ceremonies to firewalking. known for its so-called dark rides, like Fata
There is also a butterfly park and insect Morgana, a boat ride to a forbidden city
kingdom. Part of the pleasure of Sentosa is through swamps and jungles. Even if you took
getting there, on foot or by bus across a raised the theme park out of Efteling, you would still
causeway, by the four-minute ferry ride or, be left with a lovely park where visitors are
most excitingly, by cable car. encouraged to bring a picnic.
Entry details: Everything is individually priced Entry details: Adults and children both pay €30
from S$2-S$25 for adults, roughly half for (under-4s free).
children, in addition to the S$2 entry fee.
C. Legoland - Denmark
Legoland falls into two camps. One is
Miniland, where places such as Amsterdam,
Copenhagen harbour and an English village
stand as high a youngster’s kneecap, each
packed with detail and moving parts.

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IV. WRITING: (50/ 200 points)

Part 1: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as
possible in meaning to the original sentence. Use the word given in CAPITALS. Do not change the
form of the given words words.. (10 points)
EX: Thieves broke into the gallery and stole three paintings. WITH
Thieves broke into the gallery and got away with three paintings.
1.I have finally decided to emigrate. MIND
� I have finally ..................................................................... to emigrate.
2. I think you were charged too much by the garage. RIPPED
�I think you were ............................................................. by the garage.
3. Most of my neighbour travel to work in the city. IN
�Most of the people..........................................travel to work in the city.
4. Why did Gemma change her plans? REASON
�What .................................................................... her change of plans.
5. You can't blame me for your stupid mistakes. FAULT
�It isn't ......................................................................... stupid mistakes.
6. The thief grabbed my bag and ran off. TOOK
�The thief suddenly ........................................................... and ran off.
7. The film wasn’t as good as we expected. COME
�The film ....................................................................our expectations.
8. It is important to consider everyone's opinion before a final decision is made. ACCOUNT
�Everyone's opinion must ...................................................................................
before a final decision is made.
9. I don't mind whether we go to the seaside or not this year. DIFFERENCE
�It doesn't ................................................................................ whether we go to
the seaside or not this year.
10. I was the only person who wanted to watch the program. ELSE
�There ..............................................................who wanted to watch the program.
Part 2: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence
printed before it. (10 points)
1. We couldn’t relax until all the guests had gone home.
�Only ……………………………………………………………………..
2. If his solicitor hadn’t advised him, he would have made a serious mistake.
�Had it ……………………………………………………………………
3. Someone has suggested the resignation of the minister.
�It …………………………………………………...…………………...
4. Although I tried very hard, I couldn’t convince Debbie to deliver a speech.
�Try ……………………………………………………………………..
5. If anyone succeeds in solving the problem, it will probably be him.
�He is the most ……………………………………..……………………
6. I gave Tom the message, but he already knew about it.
�I needn’t ………………………………………..……………………..
7. A lot of water had leaked out of the radiator and damaged the carpet.
�So much ……………………………………………………………….

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8. I left without saying goodbye as I didn’t want to disturb the meeting.
�Rather …………………………………………………………………
9. He can shout even louder but I still won’t take any notice.
�No matter …………………………………………………………….
10. We have no seats left for the concert on December 12th.
�All the seats …………………………………………………………..
Part 3: Today, many high school students are keen on selling goods through their facebook,
blogs,, etc
personal blogs etc.. What are the reasons? Do the advantages outweigh the disadvantages?
Write a composition within 250 – 300 words to support your idea. You should include any
relevant examples from your own knowledge or experience.
(30 points)
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--THE END--

12
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO GIA LAI KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 12 CẤP TỈNH
ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ CH
ĐÁP CHÍÍNH TH
THỨỨC NĂM HỌC 2015– 2016
2015–

Môn thi: TI
TIẾẾNG ANH (B ẢNG B)
(BẢ
Ngày thi: 13//11
13 /2015
11/2015
I. LISTENING: 20 x 0.2p = 40 points
1. A 2. B 3. D 4. D 5. C 6. B 7. A
8. receptionist 9. 10.00 a.m 10. Tuesday p.m
11. Local company 12. Tea & coffee 13. None/(bring) packed lunch
14. Main hall 15. 10.30
16. F 17. D 18. A 19. C 20. B

II. USE OF ENGLISH (60/200 points)

Part 1: ( 20 x 0.1p= 20 points)

1. A 2. B 3. A 4. C 5. D 6. D 7. D 8. C 9. A 10. A
11. C 12. A 13. A 14. D 15.C 16. C 17. A 18. C 19. D 20. D

Part 2: 10 x 0.1p= 10 points

1. caught up with 2. keep up with 3. come off 4. calls for 5. come in for
6. drop in on 7. blown up 8. brought round 9. asked out 10. looking forward to

Part 3: 10 x 0.1p= 10 points

1. heels 2. heart 3. date 4. feather 5. joke

6. fingertips 7. while 8. footsteps 9. mouth 10. hang

Part 4: 10 x 0.1p= 10 points

1. considerably 2. persuasive 3. attachments 4. nationality 5. prospective

6. achievements 7. qualifications 8. packages 9. Applicants 10. unlikely

Part 5: 10 x 0.1p= 10 points

1. on 2.the 3.out 4. √ 5. were
6. them 7.to 8. √ 9. them 10.that

III. READING (50/200 points)

Part 1: 10 x 0.1p= 10 points

1. have/eat 2. on 3. for 4. however 5. of
6. as 7. with 8. see 9. about 10. that

Part 2: 10 x 0.1p= 10 points

1. A 2. B 3. C 4. B 5. A
6. D 7. B 8. C 9. B 10. B

Part 3: 20 x 0.1p= 20 points

In the two lists below, a statement in the list (A-F) corresponds to an idea in one of the
paragraphs (Fact 2 - Fact 7). Match the two lists by typing in the correct letter for each question.
5x 0.1= 5 points
1. Fact 3: C 2. Fact 4: A 3. Fact 5: D 4. Fact 6: B 5. Fact 7:E
 6-8.. (3x 0.1= 3 points)
Choose the best answer for questions 6-8
6. D 7. B 8. D
Complete the summary of the first three paragraphs (Facts 1-3) by choosing a maximum of three
words from the passage to fill in the spaces 9 to 14. (6 x 0.2= 12 points)
9. report 10. emission 11. by human activity
12. temperature/ climate 13. climate/ temperature 14.(increased) solar output

Part 4: 10 x 0.1p= 10 points

0. E
1. C
2. B
3. E
4. A
5. A
6. E
7. B
8. E
9. A
10. D

IV. WRITING: (50/ 200 points)

Part 1: 10 x 0.1p= 10 points
1. I have finally made up my mind to emigrate.
2. I think you were ripped off by the garage.
3. Most of the people in my neighborhood travel to work in the city.
4. What reason did Gemma give/ have for her change of plans?
What was the (Gemma's) reason for her change of plans?
5. It isn't my fault that you made (such) stupid mistakes.
6. The thief suddenly took hold of my bag and ran off.
7.The film didn't come up to our expectations.
8. Everyone's opinion must be taken into account before a final decision is made.
9. It doesn't make any/much difference to me whether we go to the seaside or not this year.
10. There was nobody else but/other than/ beside me who wanted to watch the program.

Part 2: 10 x 0.1p= 10 points

1. Only when/after all the guests had gone home could we relax.
2. Had it not been for the advice of his solicitor, he would have made a serious mistake.
3. It has been suggested that the minister should resign.
4. Try as I might, I still couldn’t convince Debbie to deliver a speech.
5. He is the most likely person to succeed in solving the problem.
6. I needn’t have given Tom the message.
7. So much water had leaked out of the radiator that it damaged the carpet.
8. Rather than disturbing the meeting, I left without saying goodbye.
9. No matter how much louder he can shout, I still won’t take any notice.
10. All the seats for the concert on December 12th have been booked.
Part 3: 30 points
The mark given to part 3 is based on the following scheme:
1. Content: (35% of total mark)
a. Providing all main ideas and details as required
b. Communicating intentions sufficiently and effectively
2. Organization & Presentation:(30% of total mark)
a. Ideas are well organized and presented with coherence, cohesion, and clarity
b. The essay is well-structured
3. Language:(30% of total mark)
a. Demonstration of a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language gifted
upper-secondary school students
b. Good use and control of grammatical structures
4. Handwriting, punctuation, and spelling (5% of total mark)
a. Intelligible handwriting
b. Good punctuation and no spelling mistakes
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN HSG THPT QUỐC GIA
KHÁNH HÒA NĂM HỌC 2016-2017
⎯⎯⎯⎯ ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 13 trang) Ngày thi: 11/10/2016

Điểm bài thi đã quy đổi Họ, tên và chữ ký giám khảo
Bằng số Bằng chữ

GK1: ………………………………………………………… ………………………

SỐ PHÁCH
GK2: …………………………………………………………

I. LISTENING (50 points)

Part 1: Listen to a conversation at a university guidance office. For questions 1-5, choose the
correct answer A, B, C or D. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes
provided.
1. Why is the woman speaking to the man?
A. She wants the results of her allergy test. C. She needs to set up an appointment.
B. She is supposed to receive an injection. D. She cannot decide which test to use.
2. Why must the man wait to give the woman instructions?
A. He cannot get in contact with her doctor. C. He hasn’t received her file yet.
B. She hasn’t been on her special diet long enough. D. He hasn’t observed her symptoms.
3. Why is the elimination test more difficult?
A. It must be performed at the student health center. C. It takes more time and effort.
B. There is more danger of a serious reaction. D. It requires injections.
4. When can the spot test described by the man be used?
A. When the elimination test did not produce results
B. When the symptoms are becoming worse over time
C. When the patient has too little time for the elimination test
D. When the doctor has some idea of the cause of the allergy
5. What will the woman do next?
A. Get her file from the student health center C. Tell the man what she has eaten lately
B. Tell the man when she can meet next D. Start the diet for the elimination test

Your answers

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Part 2: You will hear five short extracts in which people are talking about something currently in
the news. While you listen, you must complete BOTH tasks.
TASK 1: For questions 6-10, choose from the list (A-H) what the news story concerns.
A. a social issue
6. Speaker 1: _______ B. a scandal
7. Speaker 2: _______ C. a crime
D. an official announcement
8. Speaker 3: _______ E. a political development
9. Speaker 4: _______ F. a financial matter
G. a celebrity
10. Speaker 5: _______
H. a health issue

TASK 2: For questions 11-15, choose from the list (A-H) each speaker’s attitude towards the
news story.
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 A. scepticism
11. Speaker 1: _______ B. amusement
12. Speaker 2: _______ C. disinterest
D. anger
13. Speaker 3: _______ E. enthusiasm
14. Speaker 4: _______ F. calmness
G. curiosity
15. Speaker 5: _______
H. alarm

Part 3: Listen to part of a news bulletin about the topic – Which countries have the best sex
education? For questions 16-25, give short answers to the questions. Write NO MORE THAN
THREE WORDS taken from the recording for each answer in the space provided.
WHICH COUNTRIES HAVE THE BEST SEX EDUCATION?

Some have blamed the United States’ more (16).................................... of sexual education for its highest
teenage birth rates amongst other industrialized nations.

Overall, according to the most recent World Bank data, which measures teen births from girls aged 15 to 19,
European countries tend to have less than 20 teen births per thousand. Among these countries, Europe has
most of the world’s lowest teen birth rates. (17).................................... countries like Italy, Germany, and
Switzerland reported rates below 4. Sweden, France, the Netherlands, Denmark and Belgium also had low
rates – just 5 or 6.

Europe’s low teen birth rate has been (18).................................... to their progressive sexual education.
One researcher found that in the Netherlands, parents and teachers focus less on the “dangers of sex”, and
more on the normal, positive aspects; therefore, teenagers are less likely to be
(19).................................... and .................................... about their first sexual experiences. Other
northern European countries in particular, hold that young people are still (20)“....................................,”
and entitled to correct and comprehensive sex education.

The US, by contrast, has one of the highest teenage birth rates of all the developed nations – around 30
teen births per thousand. Many believe that this high rate has to do with their more
(21).................................... towards teen sex. In southern states, they teach
(22).................................... sexual education without key details about pregnancy and diseases. United
Nations reports have noted that this kind of education can (23)...................................., and
.................................... to more risky sexual behavior.

The US also has a generally more negative attitude towards sex, highlighting the “dangers” and the risks
associated with it instead of the benefits of a healthy, intimate relationship.

There certainly seems to be a (24).................................... between comprehensive sex education and low
teen birth rates. However, not all countries follow this pattern, and many scholars still disagree on the best
method to decrease teen births.

Some United Nations officials maintain that, although the rates of teen sex are unlikely to change, the safety
of teen sex can be significantly improved with sexual education. When it comes to Sex education, Germany
is (25).................................... of the United States.

II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (20 points)

Part 1: For questions 26-39, choose the correct answer A, B, C, or D to each of the following
questions and write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.

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26. The old house was _____ furnished and we had to buy almost everything new.
A. thinly B. sparsely C. mildly D. rarely
27. I have been back to the doctor three times and he still hasn’t _____ the reason for all the pain I have
been suffering from recently.
A. indicated B. highlighted C. pinpointed D. looked up
28. The captain decided to _____ ship even though he thought there was no real danger of it sinking.
A. abandon B. evacuate C. desert D. evict
29. The accidental _____ of four listed buildings near the city center caused a huge outcry and the
manager of the building company was jailed for three months.
A. disruption B. demolition C. injuring D. squashing
30. That old house hasn’t been lived in for nearly thirty years, hence the fact that it looks so _____.
A. decrepit B. trashed C. rotten D. derelict
31. You can exercise your _____ to cancel the contract immediately, but you wouldn’t receive any money at
that point.
A. duty B. obligation C. right D. possibility
32. “Look, I don’t know the best solution,” he said _____ his shoulders and walking away from the table.
A. shaking B. shrouding C. shrugging D. bowing
33. Bill and Mary resolved their problems after her brother got them to sit down and have a(n) _____ talk
with each other.
A. candid B. overt C. servile D. piteous
34. After a month, I will _____ the ropes and won’t keep bothering you for help.
A. show B. learn C. get D. finish
35. Hubert _____ remembered locking the door and couldn’t understand how it was now standing wide open.
A. distinctly B. sharply C. totally D. utterly
36. I have tried every product on the market and still I can’t rid these curtains of the _____ of cigarette smoke.
A. fumes B. fragrance C. stench D. aroma
37. Granddad would spend hours talking to us youngsters around the dinner table _____ about his happy
younger days back east on the farm.
A. recalling B. reminiscing C. reminding D. memorising
38. The winning team were roundly criticised by the local media for the way in which they had _____ over
the losing team. It was considered very unsporting.
A. gloated B. relished C. showed up D. dominated
39. My responsibility is to keep a _____ rein on company expenses and try to see us in the black for the
next financial year. I know it won’t be easy!
A. shorter B. looser C. longer D. tighter

Your answers

26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32.

33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39.

Part 2: For questions 40-45, write the correct form of each bracketed word in the
corresponding numbered boxes provided.
In 2011, Eric Leuthardt and his colleague Gerwin Schalk positioned electrodes over the language regions of
four fully (40) _____ (CONSCIENTISE) people and were able to detect the phonemes “oo”, “ah”, “eh” and
“ee”. What they also discovered was that spoken phonemes activated both the language areas and the
motor cortex, while imagined speech – that inner voice – boosted the activity of neurons in Wernicke’s area.
Leuthardt had not (41) _____ (EFFECT) read his subjects’ minds, “I would call it brain reading.” he says. To
arrive at whole words, Leuthardt’s next step is to expand his library of sounds and to find out how the
production of phonemes translates across different languages.

For now, the research is primarily aimed at improving the lives of people with (42) _____ (LOCK) syndrome,
but the ability to explore the brain’s language centres could (43) _____ (REVOLUTION) other fields. The
consequences of these findings could ripple out to more general audiences who might like to use extreme
hands-free mobile communication technologies that can be manipulated by inner voice alone. For linguists, it
could provide previously (44) _____ (OBTAIN) insight into the neural origins and structures of language.
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Knowing what someone is thinking without needing words at all would be functionally indistinguishable from
(45) _____ (TELEPATHIC).

Your answers

40. 41. 42.

43. 44. 45.

III. READING (50 points)

Part 1: For questions 46-54, read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best
fits each gap. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
JIBBITZ

The (46)_____ was a familiar one: rainy afternoon, bored children, Mum scrabbling around for ways to
amuse them. Sheri Schmeizer from Boulder, Colorado, (47)_____ through her sewing kit, found some silk
applique flowers and beads, and started to tie, stick and glue them into the holes of her children’s Crocs,
those ugly but (48)_____ practical plastic shoes with holes punched in the top. The kids thought the idea
was really cool and coined the named ‘Jibbitz’ for the seemingly pointless adornments.

By the time Sheri’s husband, Richard, came home from the office, the kids were happily (49)_____ over
who was to have which shapes and colours, and arranging swaps. Seeing the kids so absorbed, Richard was
quick to spot the business potential in the game that his wife had (50)_____ invented. Next day, he
(51)_____ for all the relevant patents, trademarks and copyrights.

In no time at all, with the children (52)_____ to secrecy, the couple had (53)_____ into their savings to set
up a company. Within three years, Jibbitz had become a global craze and the company was (54)_____ $20
million.

46. A. scenario B. occasion C. backdrop D. setting

47. A. sifted B. rummaged C. flicked D. browsed
48. A. solely B. exclusively C. singly D. uniquely
49. A. bickering B. chattering C. spluttering D. wittering
50. A. unconsciously B. thoughtlessly C. unwittingly D. mindlessly
51. A. requested B. entered C. filed D. lodged
52. A. avowed B. sworn C. promised D. agreed
53. A. dipped B. delved C. reached D. scooped
54. A. appreciated B. wealthy C. valued D. worth
Your answers

46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54.

Part 2: For questions 55-64, fill each of the following numbered blanks with ONE suitable word
and write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
STOPPING URBAN SPRAWL

Icelandic capital – Reykjavík – plans to reduce its greenhouse gas emissions to zero by 2040 by reversing
urban sprawl and promoting walking, cycling and public transport.

Hermannsson is (55)_____ on a project to persuade residents to live in the city, not suburbs. “The
Reykjavík area is quite sprawled, like an American city, and that’s reflected in the private car choice,” he
says. “We have to grow inwards instead of (56)_____ and people living closer to work and shops will mean
they move (57)_____.”

City surveys suggest young people are keen to live in the city, and public transport expert Jarrett Walker –
who ran (58)_____ workshops for the area last year – says the current sprawl is a real problem. “Carbon
neutrality always comes (59)_____ to urban form,” he says. “Outside the small historic centre Reykjavík is
mostly (60)_____ sprawl: apartment blocks oriented (61)_____ motorways or fast streets rather than to
(62)_____ infrastructure or logical public transport paths. Many people in these towers can’t even walk to a
convenience store.”
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Developers are keen to exploit “brownfield” (63)_____. Þorvaldur Gissurarson, owner and chief executive of
ÞGverk and Arcus companies, is building a Hafnartorg (“harbour city”) development of retail, offices and 80
apartments in prime downtown. “Downtown hasn’t had that high density we see in many countries due to
city planning issues (64)_____ the number of apartments, and prices. The city [authority] needed to
change.”

Your answers

55. 56. 57.

58. 59. 60.

61. 62. 63.

64.

Part 3: Read the following passage and answer questions 65-69.

AIR RAGE
A The first recorded case of an airline passenger turning seriously violent during a flight, a phenomenon
now widely known as “air rage”, happened in 1947 on a flight from Havana to Miami. A drunk man
assaulted another passenger and bit a flight attendant. However, the man escaped punishment because
it was not then clear under whose legal control a crime committed on plane was, the country where the
plane was registered or the country where the crime was committed. In 1963, at the Tokyo convention,
it was decided that the laws of the country where the plane is registered take precedence.

B The frequency of air rage has expanded out of proportion to the growth of air travel. Until recently few
statistics were gathered about air rage, but those that have been indicate that passengers are
increasingly likely to cause trouble or engage in violent acts. For example, in 1998 there were 266 air
rage incidents out of approximately four million passengers, a 400% increase from 1995. In the same
period American Airlines showed a 200% rise. Air travel is predicted to rise by 5% internationally by
2010 leading to increased airport congestion. This, coupled with the flying public’s increased
aggression, means that air rage may become a major issue in coming years.

C Aside from discomfort and disruption, air rage poses some very real dangers to flying. The most
extreme of these is when out of control passengers enter the cockpit. This has actually happened on a
number of occasions, the worst of which have resulted in the death and injury of pilots or the intruder
taking control of the plane, almost resulting in crashes. In addition, berserk passengers sometimes
attempt to open the emergency doors while in flight, putting the whole aircraft in danger. These are
extreme examples and cases of air rage more commonly result in physical assaults on fellow
passengers and crew such as throwing objects, punching, stabbing or scalding with hot coffee.

D The causes of air rage are not known for certain, but it is generally thought that factors include:
passenger behavior and personality, the physical environment and changes in society. A recent study
has identified the issues that start the incidents to be as follows.

Alcohol 25%

Seating 16%

Smoking 10%

Carry on luggage 9%

Flight attendants 8%

Food 5%

E One of the major causes seems to be the passenger’s behavior or their personality. Fear of flying and
the feeling of powerlessness associated with flying can lead to irritable or aggressive passengers. Also,
alcohol consumed on a plane pressurized to 8,000 ft. affects the drinker more quickly and the effects
are stronger. Many people do not take account of this and drinking may increase any negative reaction
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 to the flying environment they have, which, combined with the lowering of their inhibitions, may cause
air rage. Smoking withdrawal, which some liken in severity to opiate withdrawal, is another major cause
of air rage incidents. Passengers caught smoking in the toilets occasionally assault flight attendants and
have been known to start fires. When conflicts occur in these conditions, they can escalate into major
incidents if the passenger has a violent personality or a fear of flying and because of the enclosed
nature of a plane offers no option of retreat as would be natural in a “fight or flight” reaction.

F Some people feel that the physical environment of a plane can lead to air rage. Seats on most airlines
have become smaller in recent years as airlines try to increase profits. This leads to uncomfortable and
irritated passengers. Also, space for carry on luggage is often very small. Because up to 8% of checked
in luggage is lost, misdirected or stolen, passengers have been trying to fit larger carry on items into
these small storage areas and this can lead to disputes that can escalate into air rage. Airlines could
also be to blame by raising passengers’ expectations too high with their marketing and advertising.
Many air rage incidents start when disappointed passengers demand to be reseated. Finally, there is
some evidence to show that low oxygen levels can raise aggression level and make people feel more
desperate. Airlines have lowered oxygen levels to save money. Now the level of oxygen in the air that
the pilots breathe is ten times higher than in cabin class.

G Another reason that has been suggested is that society is getting ruder and less patient. The increased
congestion at airports, longer queues and increased delays have only added to this. In addition, some
air rage incidents have been linked to the demanding nature of high achieving business people, who do
not like people telling them what to do and resent the power that the cabin staff have over them. For
them, a flight attendant is a waiter or waitress who should do what the passenger wants.

H The strongest calls for action to control air rage have come from pilots and aircrew. The International
Transport Workers’ Federation argues that there are too many loopholes that let people escape
punishment and that the penalties are too light. They want to notify all passengers of the penalties for
air rage before taking off, rather than after the passenger begins to cause serious problems, when it
may be too late. The Civil Aviation Organisation has been organizing international cooperation and
penalties have increased in recent years. The most severe punishment so far has been a 51-month jail
sentence, a fine to pay for the jet fuel used and 200 hours community service for a man who attempted
to enter the cockpit and to open the emergency door of a domestic US flight.
I Various other measures are being used to control air rage. Air crew are getting training on how to calm
passengers and how to predict where incidents might result in air rage and take action to prevent this.
Other measures include, strengthening doors to stop people entering the cockpit, training crew in the
use of plastic restraints to tie down unruly passengers and having pilots divert their planes if
passengers cause problems. Banning passengers who are guilty of air rage from flying has also been
tried to a lesser extent.

For questions 65-73, choose the correct heading for paragraphs A-I. There are more headings
than paragraphs, so you do not have to use them all. Write your answers in the corresponding
space provided.
List of headings Your answers
i. A decline in the tolerance of passengers
65. Paragraph A:
ii. Disproportionate growth
iii. Pilots and aircrew cooperate 66. Paragraph B:
iv. Additional action 67. Paragraph C:
v. Smaller seats are the norm
vi. Laying the blame with the airlines 68. Paragraph D:
vii. Origins 69. Paragraph E:
viii. A major threat to travel
70. Paragraph F:
ix. Demands for change
x. Business people fly more 71. Paragraph G:
xi. New research pinpoints the causes
72. Paragraph H:
xii. The pace of life
xiii. Passenger at the root of the problems 73. Paragraph I:
xiv. Personal experience
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For questions 64-69, do the following statements agree with the information in the reading
text? In the corresponding numbered spaces provided, write:
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information in the text.
FALSE if the statement does not agree with the information in the text.
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this in the text.
74. ____________ In the first case of air rage, one of the reasons the man was not punished was
because the plane was not registered.
75. ____________ The statistics on air rage were collected by private monitoring groups.
76. ____________ The second most common catalyst for incidents is problems with seating.
77. ____________ The environment in a plane makes disagreements more likely to become serious
problems.
78. ____________ Airlines have been encouraging passengers to bring more items onboard as carry-on
luggage.

Part 4: You are going to read an article. Seven paragraphs have been removed from the article.
For questions 79-85, choose from paragraphs A-H the one which fits each gap. There is ONE
extra paragraph which you do not need to use. Write your answers in the corresponding
numbered boxes provided.
HELP GUIDE US THROUGH THE UNIVERSE
Sir Martin Rees, Astronomer Royal, launches this year’s Young Science Writer competition
If you ask scientists what they’re doing, the answer won’t be “Finding the origin of the universe”, “Seeking the
cure for cancer” or suchlike. It will involve something very specialised, a small piece of the jigsaw that builds up
the big picture.
79. _____
So, unless they are cranks or geniuses, scientists don’t shoot directly for a grand goal – they focus on bite-sized
problems that seem timely and tractable. But this strategy (though prudent) carries an occupational risk: they
may forget they’re wearing blinkers and fail to see their own work in its proper perspective.
80. _____
I would personally derive far less satisfaction from my research if it interested only a few other academics. But
presenting one’s work to non-specialists isn’t easy. We scientists often do it badly, although the experience helps
us to see our work in a broader context. Journalists can do it better, and their efforts can put a key discovery in
perspective, converting an arcane paper published in an obscure journal into a tale that can inspire others.
81. _____
On such occasions, people often raise general concerns about the way science is going and the impact it may
have; they wonder whether taxpayers get value for money from the research they support. More intellectual
audiences wonder about the basic nature of science: how objective can we be? And how creative? Is science
genuinely a progressive enterprise? What are its limits and are we anywhere near them? It is hard to explain, in
simple language, even a scientific concept that you understand well. My own (not always effective) attempts have
deepened my respect for science reporters, who have to assimilate quickly, with a looming deadline, a topic they
may be quite unfamiliar with.
82. _____
It’s unusual for science to earn newspaper headlines. Coverage that has to be restricted to crisp newsworthy
breakthroughs in any case distorts the way science develops. Scientific advances are usually gradual and
cumulative, and better suited to feature articles, or documentaries – or even books, for which the latent demand
is surprisingly strong. For example, millions bought A Brief History of Time, which caught the public imagination.
83. _____
Nevertheless, serious books do find a ready market. That’s the good news for anyone who wants to enter this
competition. But books on pyramidology, visitations by aliens, and suchlike do even better: a symptom of a
fascination with the paranormal and “New Age” concepts. It is depressing that these are often featured
uncritically in the media, distracting attention from more genuine advances.
84. _____
Most scientists are quite ordinary, and their lives unremarkable. But occasionally they exemplify the link between
genius and madness; these “eccentrics” are more enticing biographees.
85. _____

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There seems, gratifyingly, to be no single “formula” for science writing – many themes are still under-exploited.
Turning out even 700 words seems a daunting task if you’re faced with a clean sheet of paper or a blank screen,
but less so if you have done enough reading and interviewing on a subject to become inspired. For research
students who enter the competition, science (and how you do it) is probably more interesting than personal
autobiography. But if, in later life, you become both brilliant and crazy, you can hope that someone else writes a
best-seller about you.
A. However, over-sensational claims are a hazard for them. Some researchers themselves “hype up” new
discoveries to attract press interest. Maybe it matters little what people believe about Darwinism or
cosmology. But we should be more concerned that misleading or overconfident claims on any topic of
practical import don’t gain wide currency. Hopes of miracle cures can be raised; risks can be either
exaggerated, or else glossed over for commercial pressures. Science popularisers – perhaps even those who
enter this competition – have to be as sceptical of some scientific claims as journalists routinely are of
politicians.
B. Despite this, there’s a tendency in recent science writing to be chatty, laced with gossip and biographical
detail. But are scientists as interesting as their science? The lives of Albert Einstein and Richard Feyman are
of interest, but is that true of the routine practitioner?
C. Two mathematicians have been treated as such in recent books: Paul Erdos, the obsessive itinerant
Hungarian (who described himself as “a machine for turning coffee into theorems”) and John Nash, a
pioneer of game theory, who resurfaced in his sixties, after 30 years of insanity, to receive a Nobel prize.
D. For example, the American physicist Robert Wilson spent months carrying out meticulous measurements
with a microwave antenna which eventually revealed the “afterglow of creation” – the “echo” of the Big
Bang with which our universe began. Wilson was one of the rare scientists with the luck and talent to make
a really great discovery, but afterwards he acknowledged that its importance didn’t sink in until he read a
“popular” description of it in the New York Times.
E. More surprising was the commercial success of Sir Roger Penrose’s The Emperor’s New Mind. This is a
fascinating romp through Penrose’s eclectic enthusiasms – enjoyable and enlightening. But it was a
surprising best seller, as much of it is heavy going. The sales pitch “great scientist says mind is more than a
mere machine” was plainly alluring. Many who bought it must have got a nasty surprise when they opened
it.
F. But if they have judged right, it won’t be a trivial problem – indeed it will be the most difficult that they are
likely to make progress on. The great zoologist Sir Peter Medawar famously described scientific work as “the
art of the soluble”. “Scientists,” he wrote, “get no credit for failing to solve a problem beyond their capacities.
They earn at best the kindly contempt reserved for utopian politicians.”
G. This may be because, for non-specialists, it is tricky to demarcate well-based ideas from flaky speculation.
But it’s crucially important not to blur this distinction when writing articles for a general readership.
Otherwise credulous readers may take too much on trust, whereas hard-nosed sceptics may reject all
scientific claims, without appreciating that some have firm empirical support.
H. Such a possibility is one reason why this competition to encourage young people to take up science writing is
so important and why I am helping to launch it today. Another is that popular science writing can address
wider issues. When I give talks about astronomy and cosmology, the questions that interest people most are
the truly “fundamental” ones that I can’t answer: “Is there life in space?”, “Is the universe infinite?” or “Why
didn’t the Big Bang happen sooner?”

Your answers

79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. 85.

Part 5: You are going to read an article about the attraction of buying and renovating old
houses. For questions 86-95, choose from the sections (A-D). The sections may be chosen more
than once. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered spaces provided.
LOVE AT FIRST SIGHT
Why are people attracted to the idea of buying and renovating ruinous old houses?
A Years ago, glancing through the property pages of the newspaper one evening, I stumbled upon a tiny
photograph of a small ivy-clad stone house with a triangle of blue sea in the background. “For sale by
auction” it said, “guide price: £80,000.” Even if I’d been looking for a country house, and I wasn’t, I’d
hardly have opted for one in such a remote area, yet somehow that little image became lodged in my
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 mind. Next day, on a whim, I rang the selling agent. The house, I gleaned, gloried in the name
Desolate, was truly in the middle of nowhere and hadn’t been touched in half a century. Intrigued, I
immediately felt an urge to go and see it for myself. So, it was that the following weekend, after an
inordinately long drive down from London with the whole family in tow, I found myself edging up the
seemingly interminable farm track that led up to Desolate from the main road. It turned out to be two
little houses joined by a stone archway. On one side was a clapped out electricity generator; on the
other, a couple of dingy rooms downstairs and a couple more upstairs, all with rotten windows and
peeling, brown wallpaper. But from the sitting-room window was a view of a garden gate opening onto
a field with the sea cliffs beyond. On seeing that, I was smitten.

B For more than 50 years, or so the story went, it had been home to a woman aviator called Miss Darker
whose wartime exploits had allegedly inspired Michael Ondaatje’s novel, The English Patient. In the
film, she’s played by Kristin Scott Thomas and meets a nasty end in the north African desert. The real-
life Miss Darker returned home and spent the rest of her life as a recluse at Desolate. All of this just
added to my conviction: I just had to have her house. I didn’t care that my children thought it the
grottiest thing ever, pointing out that despite the view there was no access to the sea, and it was miles
to the nearest shop. My ears were closed to such details. I was in love and would elope if need be. I
spent the next two weeks gazing rapt at the photos I’d taken and counting money.
C On the day of the auction, I drove down with an old friend. I took her to see Desolate first, showing it
to her with anxious pride as I would show her a man I was marrying. Yes, she said. She understood.
The sale was being held in a quiet local town, but as we arrived I sensed my plan was going awry. The
car park was jammed with large 4x4s and the room itself was full of braying Londoners: mostly women
with expensively abundant hair, all looking strained and excited. I took my place in the front row so I
wouldn’t have to see the others crammed in behind me. The bidding started at £50,000 and went up
slowly. When it paused at £120,000, I was about to raise a shaking hand, but it raced on up, far out of
reach until Desolate eventually sold for the best part of half a million. I couldn’t look at the man who’d
bought it. I got into the car and wept. It was shameful for an unsentimental, middle-aged woman to be
brought so low by a heap of stone and a view. But I was desolate over Desolate.

D The memory of that thwarted love affair came back to me recently when a friend called to tell me about
a house she’d seen that was far too expensive for her and suited her in no way. I could hear in her
voice that it was pointless trying to talk sense into her. I started to wonder what it is about these
houses that can hold such allure for people that they sell for many times their value. Internet message
boards are testimony to the fact that it’s by no means an uncommon scenario. Perhaps the real reason
has little to do with bricks or mortar. You look at a view and you think: “This will make my life
different.” And of course, the houses we fall for most are those that need us most – those where we
can most easily make our mark and become part of their history. In the end, we did buy a house; an
ugly, cheap and practical one. But the sea is easily reached and through repeated use I’ve grown fond
of it. Yet in writing this article I’ve looked again at the photographs I took of Desolate all those years
ago and my heart still aches, just a bit.

In which section does the writer Your answers

accept that the location of the house called Desolate left a lot to be desired? 86. _____

admit to harbouring some regrets about a missed opportunity? 87. _____

attempt to rationalise her feelings about the house she wanted to buy? 88. _____

Draw an analogy to underline how seriously she took an idea? 89. _____

pinpoint the moment when she decided to go for something? 90. _____

mention feelings of curiosity arising out of a conversation? 91. _____

recount the story of another person who experienced similar feelings to her own? 92. _____

recall getting the first inkling that a dream wouldn’t be realised? 93. _____

remember ignoring sensible misgivings about a plan? 94. _____

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suggest that her behaviour on one occasion was out of character? 95. _____

IV. WRITING (60 points)

Part 1: Read the two texts below and use your own words to summarise it. Your summary
should be between 80 and 100 words long.
Fundamental questions about human nature
There can be no single, simple definition of human nature. Many inter-twining ideas in the history of
philosophy have helped us to form our understanding of ourselves. Ideas of human nature radically affect
the kind of society we live in and the kind we would like to live in. How far do we need society? Is it feasible
to imagine living in splendid isolation? Linked to this is the question as to whether we are all naturally only
concerned for ourselves, and only willing to cooperate with others when it is in our interests to do so. Are
we, on the other hand, social beings by nature, eager to cooperate with others for the common good?
The study of human nature

Ideas about human nature are of their essence philosophical. They are not simply the result of scientifically
established facts, but are general conceptions arrived at through rational argument. They are inevitably
often controversial, but the theories produced determine our vision of ourselves. Most writing on the subject
is explicitly philosophical. Since, though, philosophical assumptions about our nature lie at the root of any
discipline concerned with the activities of men and women, it is not surprising that some thinkers have
written primarily from the standpoint of another intellectual discipline. History, politics and social
anthropology, to name only the most obvious, all proceed with some views about human nature.

Part 2:
The table below shows the number of students living in the UK gaining English language
teacher training qualifications in 2007/8 and 2008/9, and the proportion of male qualifiers.
Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make comparisons where relevant.
Write at least 150 words.
Qualifications for English Language Teachers obtained 2007/8 and 2008/9, UK

Total Female Male % Male

2007/8 Total 32,930 23,842 8,165 24.7%

TEFL 25,446 18,460 6,870 26.9%

Cambridge UCLES CELTA

& other degrees 7,484 5,382 1,295 17.3%

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 2008/9 Total 32,945 24,324 7,511 22.7%
TEFL 24,917 18,446 6,545 26.2%
Cambridge UCLES CELTA
& other degrees 8,028 5,878 966 12.1%

* TEFL: Teaching English as a Foreign Language

* UCLES: University of Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (Cambridge Assessment)
* CELTA: Certificate in Teaching English to Speakers of Other Languages

Part 3:
International aid to poor nations from the governments of wealthy and developed countries
has helped reduce global poverty in recent years.
To what extent do you agree or disagree with this statement?
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge and experience.
Write at least 350 words.

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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN HSG THPT QUỐC GIA
KHÁNH HÒA NĂM HỌC 2016-2017
⎯⎯⎯⎯ ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đáp án có 06 trang) Ngày thi: 11/10/2016
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯

ĐÁP ÁN & HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM

I. LISTENING (50 points) à 2 pts x 25 = 50 pts

Part 1:

1. C 2. C 3. C 4. D 5. B

Part 2:

6. Speaker 1: H 11. Speaker 1: A

7. Speaker 2: E 12. Speaker 2: E
8. Speaker 3: G 13. Speaker 3: D
9. Speaker 4: C 14. Speaker 4: F
10. Speaker 5: A 15. Speaker 5: C

Part 3:

16. conservative methods 21. repressive views

17. Frontrunner 22. abstinence-only
18. partially attributed 23. backfire / contribute
19. secretive / misinformed 24. positive correlation
20. “rights holders” 25. miles ahead

II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (20 points) à 1 pt x 20 = 20 pts

Part 1:

26. B 27. C 28. A 29. B 30. D 31. C 32. C

33. A 34. B 35. A 36. C 37. B 38. A 39. D

Part 2:

40. conscious 41. ineffectively 42. locked-in

43. revolutionise/ revolutionize 44. unobtainable 45. telepathy

III. READING (50 points) à 1.0 pts x 50 = 50 pts

Part 1:

46. A 47. B 48. D 49. A 50. C 51. C 52. B 53. A 54. D

Part 2:

55. embarking 56. outward(s) 57. differently

58. executive 59. down 60. high-density

61. towards / to 62. pedestrian 63. spaces

64. restricting
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Part 3:
65. Paragraph A: vii 74. FALSE

66. Paragraph B: ii 75. NOT GIVEN

67. Paragraph C: viii 76. TRUE

68. Paragraph D: xi 77. TRUE

69. Paragraph E: xiii 78. NOT GIVEN

70. Paragraph F: vi

71. Paragraph G: i

72. Paragraph H: ix

73. Paragraph I: iv

Part 4:

79. F 80. D 81. H 82. A 83. E 84. G 85. C

Part 5:

86. A 91. A

87. D 92. D

88. D 93. C

89. C 94. B

90. A 95. C

IV. WRITING (60 points)

Part 1: (15 pts)

GRADING CRITERIA SCORE

Task Achievement(*) covers the requirements of the task 5

Coherence and Cohesion arranges information and ideas coherently 4

Lexical Resource uses an adequate range of vocabulary 3

Grammatical Range and Accuracy uses a variety of complex structures 3

OVERALL SCORE 15
(*)
Task Achievement includes a summary of 4 key points:
Text 1: (1) concept of human nature is a complex and important issue
(2) major question is whether people are naturally selfish or unselfish
Text 2: (3) human nature a philosophical rather than scientific issue
(4) studies of human nature also involve other subjects, not only philosophy

Part 2: (15 pts)

GRADING CRITERIA SCORE

Task Achievement covers the requirements of the task 5

Coherence and Cohesion arranges information and ideas coherently 4

Lexical Resource uses an adequate range of vocabulary 3

Grammatical Range and Accuracy uses a variety of complex structures 3

OVERALL SCORE 15
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Model answer

This report summarises information on the total number of students in the United Kingdom who gained
qualifications for English Language Teachers in two academic years, 2007/8 and 2008/9, with specific focus
on the number of male qualifiers.
In both years, the total numbers of students remained the same, but there was a great difference between
the numbers of male and female students who qualified. In 2007/8, out of a total of 32,930 students, only
24.7% were male. The percentage of males who qualified in 2008/9 was even lower. Out of a total of
32,945 students, only 22.7% of them were male. This is a drop of 2%.

There was also a large difference in the qualifications that students studied for. Most students qualified with
a TEFL certificate; this was true for male students. The number of students who qualified with the TEFL was
roughly three times the number who qualified with a Cambridge UCLES CELTA or other degrees, although
the total number of students qualifying with the TEFL dropped slightly, from 25,446 in 2007/8 to 24,917 a
year later. There was a drop of 0.7% in the number of male students who gained this qualification.

In general it can be seen that the number of males qualifying as English language teachers is vastly
outnumbered by females and that the proportion of male qualifiers is gradually dropping.

(226 words)
Part 3: (30 pts)

GRADING CRITERIA SCORE

Task Achievement covers the requirements of the task 10

Coherence and Cohesion arranges information and ideas coherently 8

Lexical Resource uses an adequate range of vocabulary 6

Grammatical Range and Accuracy uses a variety of complex structures 6

OVERALL SCORE 30

A strong response
I see no evidence that international aid from wealthy countries has reduced the level of poverty throughout
the world. In fact, I would argue that the type of aid provided by the governments of many first-world
countries, especially the more powerful ones, may have contributed to the inequality and deprivation for
large sections of the populations in the receiving countries.

Often aid from Western and other developed countries is tied to a number of conditions that a poor country
must agree to. For example, the governments of poor countries are sometimes told to cut education, health
and welfare services to the most needy in their own countries as a pre-condition for aid or loans. Moreover,
aid is often tied to cash-crop agriculture and miming projects in third-world countries, which not only
destroys the natural environment through deforestation and pollution but cause homelessness and hunger
for many rural people, forcing them to move to ever-expanding urban slums. Aid can also be in the form of
military hardware and other technology, adding nothing to the lives of the people most in deed. For
example, one poor Central African country spend its aid on a radar defence system, despite there being no
possible threats from neighbouring countries. In some cases, international governmental aid only benefits a
small percentage of already wealthy and / or corrupt people in the poor nations, which contributes to even
more inequality between the social groups.
Having said that, there are governments that do provide genuine aid to help those most in deed, for
example, building hospitals and schools, and implementing water and agricultural projects. More often than
not, however, it is non-government organisations that are delivering the most genuine and sustainable aid in
the present day, not the governments of wealthy countries.

I believe that, on balance, international aid to poor countries by governments is not well-directed and has
not alleviated global poverty so should be restricted to funding only those projects that are certain to help
the poorest in poor countries.

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V. SPEAKING (20 points)

GRADING CRITERIA SCORE

How fluently you speak and how well you link your
Fluency and Coherence 5
ideas together
Pronunciation How accurate your pronunciation is 5

Lexical Resource How accurate and varied your vocabulary is 5

Grammatical Range and Accuracy How accurate and varied your grammar is 5

OVERALL SCORE 20

1. Fluency and Coherence:

- Ability to produce long responses

- How easily the candidate can produce long responses
- The amount of hesitation
- The speed of speech
- Use of discourse markers/ linking phrases/ connectives
- The amount of self-correction

2. Pronunciation:
- How easily the examiner understands what is being said
- Word stress
- Sentence stress
- Intonation

3. Lexical Resource:

- Ability to use less common words

- Use of idiomatic language
- Paraphrasing (explaining words that you don't know)
- Ability to talk about unfamiliar topics
- Ability to convey precise meaning

4. Grammatical Range and Accuracy:

- Sentence formation
- Use of clauses (subordinates etc.)
- Use of complex structures
- Range of tense use
- Error density (the amount of errors in each sentence)
- The level of errors (whether the errors occur in basic or complex structures)

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VI. AUDIO SCRIPTS

Part 1:
Listen to a conversation at a university guidance office.
W: Uh, excuse me – are you Dr. Martin?
M: I’m Greg Martin, and I don’t think there are any other Martins in the office, but I’m a nutritionist, not a
doctor.
W: Oh, sorry. I guess I was confused. The doctor at the student health center told me I should see you because
I need an allergy test. I was hoping I’d be able to make an appointment.
M: Sure.
W: I would have called, but I was right here, so I figured I’d stop in and –
M: No problem at all. Since your file hasn’t come to me from student health –
W: Oh, right, I mean, I just left there, so you wouldn’t have it yet. I’ll come back.
M: Well, no, actually, if you have a minute, I’ll just give you, a general explanation of what we’re going to ask
you to do. I can’t actually give you instructions specific to your case without looking at your file, but here’s
the basic idea.
W: Okay, can I –
M: Oh, sure, sure, I’m sorry, please have a seat here.
W: Thanks, I thought they tested for allergies by injecting you with things?
M: Sometimes, In the case of food allergies, where your symptoms aren’t life-threatening, it’s more helpful to
check by adjusting your diet.
W: Uh-huh, so what do I have to do?
M: As I said, it’s going to depend on what your doctor’s written in your file for me, but there are two major
kinds of dietary tests for food allergies. One is an elimination diet. We’ll use that if your doctor is pretty
stumped about what’s causing your problem. For a few weeks, you’ll have to eat a bland diet – just foods
that we know are safe – that’s pretty certain to eliminate the offending food.
W: A few weeks?
M: Well, it can take a while for the food you eat to clear out of your system. We want a totally blank canvas
because then what we do is, one by one, you add in foods that a lot of people have allergies to.
W: Oh, I get it, and then if my symptoms come back, we know what food must be doing it.
M: It’s not always that exact, but that’s the idea.
W: Well, okay, but what’s the other test? You said there were two.
M: The other test is more of a spot test. If your doctor knows from your symptoms that there are only a few
foods that are likely culprits, you’ll stop eating just those foods for a week or so. Then, you’ll eat one of them
on an empty stomach, and we’ll wait to see whether your symptoms come back.
W: Okay.
M: But as I said, that test is really only useful if your doctor’s already got a pretty good sense of what your
problem might be.
W: Well, it sounds like it’s a lot easier to go through, so, you know, I’m hoping....
M: Of course. Let me look at my schedule and see whether I have a slot open on.... uh, Friday, maybe? Your
doctor should have gotten your information to me by then.

Part 2:
You will hear five short extracts in which people are talking about something currently in the news.
While you listen, you must complete both tasks.
Speaker One
I don't know, you read these things all the time, and if you took them all to heart you wouldn't do anything! And
they seem to contradict each other all the time too. One time you're told that you should do this and that and
then you get told that it's wrong to do it and it'll have bad consequences for you. This one is particularly scary
because it says that something most people do is potentially harmful. Frankly, I find it hard to take it seriously,
and I'm inclined to doubt that it's true, whatever they say.

Speaker Two
I know a lot of people have become cynical about all this, and for good reason, but I genuinely feel that this
could represent something very good for the future. Finally, someone has come along who's saying all the right

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things as far as I'm concerned and I can't see any downside to that. We need people in charge who aren't just
out for themselves, who genuinely want to do good for the majority. And I think that's exactly what she is so I'm
glad she looks like she's having a good chance of taking over the leadership.

Speaker Three
I don't see way anyone takes this sort of thing seriously. Here we have someone who's somehow managed to
rise to the top, presumably with the aid of publicists and the like, in something that's really quite trivial. They get
all the wealth and all the attention and it goes to their heads, so some of them start to think their opinions are
incredibly important. It really irritates me - why would I want to hear what he thinks of what's going on in the
country and the world? He talks adolescent rubbish and it infuriates me that he gets indulged in this, as if he
matters.

Speaker Four
When this kind of thing happens, and its all over the media for a while, it gets everyone worked up and they start
to think it could happen to them. But of course, such incidents are very rare and that's why they're in the papers
and on TV. Horrible as it is, and I feel very sorry for the victims, it doesn't mean that we have to fear that this
sort of thing is likely to happen all the time. I don't let this kind of thing get to me, you just have to carry on
regardless.

Speaker Five
You often read or see these things that claim to be about how people live these days, about what's going on in
general, some new trend, and they make all these questionable assumptions. Usually, what they're actually doing
is talking about how they live, what's going on around them, and they're a privileged minority. The rest of us
couldn't possibly afford to have that kind of lifestyle, and therefore we don't have the sort of problems they talk
about. So I just ignore what they're saying because it has no relevance at all to me or anyone I know.

Part 3: Which Countries Have The Best Sex Education?

The United States has one of the highest teenage birth rates amongst other industrialized nations.

And some have blamed the US’s more conservative methods of sexual education. So, we wanted to know,
why is the US so far behind?

Well, according to the most recent World Bank data, which measures teen births from girls aged 15 to 19, Europe
has most of the world’s lowest teen birth rates. Frontrunner countries like Italy, Germany, and Switzerland
reported rates below 4 teen births per thousand people. Sweden, France, the Netherlands, Denmark and Belgium
also had low rates – just 5 or 6 teen births per thousand people. Overall, European countries tend to have less
than 20 teen births per thousand.

Why? Well, Europe’s low teen birth rate has been partially attributed to their progressive sexual education.
One researcher found that in the Netherlands, parents and teachers focus less on the “dangers of sex”, and more
on the normal, positive aspects. Dutch teenagers are therefore less likely to be secretive and misinformed
about their first sexual experiences. Other northern European countries in particular, hold that young people are
still “rights holders”, and are entitled to correct and comprehensive sex education.

The US, by contrast, has one of the highest teenage birth rates of all the developed nations – around 30 teen
births per thousand. Many believe that this high rate has to do with their more repressive views towards teen
sex. In southern states especially, they teach abstinence-only sexual education, which leaves out key details
about pregnancy and diseases. United Nations reports have noted that this kind of education can backfire, and
contribute to more risky sexual behavior. The US also has a generally more negative attitude towards sex,
highlighting the “dangers” and the risks associated with it instead of the benefits of a healthy, intimate
relationship.

So does sex ed make a difference? Well, there certainly seems to be a positive correlation between
comprehensive sex ed and low teen birth rates. However, not all countries follow this pattern, and many scholars
still disagree on the best method to decrease teen births.

Some United Nations officials maintain that, although the rates of teen sex are unlikely to change, the safety of
teen sex can be significantly improved with sexual education. When it comes to Sex education, Germany is miles
ahead of the United States.

ĐÁP ÁN KỲ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN HSG THPT QUỐC GIA – MÔN TIẾNG ANH – NĂM HỌC 2016-2017 T r a n g 6|6
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI LẬP ĐỘI TUYỂN DỰ THI QUỐC GIA
TỈNH ĐẮK LẮK NĂM HỌC 2014 - 2015

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC MÔN: TIẾNG ANH -THPT

(Đề thi gồm 13 trang) (Thời gian làm bài 150 phút, không kể giao đề)
Ngày thi: 22/10/2014
Thí sinh làm bài ngay trên đề thi này.

CHỮ KÝ CỦA 2 GIÁM KHẢO ĐIỂM THI SỐ PHÁCH

BẰNG SỐ BẰNG CHỮ

I. LEXICO – GRAMMAR: (40/ 200 points)

Part 1: For questions 1 - 10, choose the word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that best completes
each sentence. Write your answers (A, B, C, or D) in the corresponding numbered boxes.
1. Doesn't it ________ you as strange that it's the middle of May and it's snowing?
A. hit B. occur C. strike D. touch
2. If you can't make ______ what's written, change the zoom level and it'll become clearer.
A. for B. off C. up D. out
3. The rain will ______ for most of the morning, but we are expecting a brighter afternoon.
A. persist B. insist C. resist D. consist
4. Deep sea oil exploration is a dirty and dangerous ________.
A. affair B. situation C. case D. business
5. Much of the neighborhood was demolished in the 1940s when living ___________ had
deteriorated.
A. situations B. conditions C. circumstances D. states
6. In the mating season, the male of the species calls out with a ________ gu-gu sound.
A. separate B. distinctive C. contrasting D. individual
7. He said that if I looked back far enough in my family tree, I would see that I was _____
related to Charles Darwin.
A. previously B. tenuously C. slightly D. distantly
8. It is often only through long experiments of trial and _____ that scientific progress is
made.
A. failure B. error C. mistake D. fault
9. I am trying to lose weight by ________ bread and sweet things.
A. cutting down on B. cutting up on C. cutting down at D. stopping down at
10. Just keep ________ on the baby while I cook the supper, will you?
A. a look B. a glance C. an eye D. a care

Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10

Part 2: For questions 11 - 20, write the correct FORM of each bracketed word in the
corresponding numbered boxes. (0) has been done as an example.
Page 1 of 13 pages
 A BALLOON EXPEDITION
In 1897 three Swedes set out from Svalbard on an (0) _____ (EXPEDITE) to the North
Pole by hot air balloon under the (11) ____ (LEAD) of S.A. Andree. Although all three men
were experienced (12)_____ (BALLOON), they continued to have (13) _____ (QUESTION)
faith in the effectiveness of their equipment despite considerable evidence of
the (14)_____(EFFECT) of the balloon's steering system which Andree had designed himself.
Also, the polar balloon had not (15)_____ (GO) the normal testing procedure for hydrogen
balloons but none of the three men, would in any way (16)_____ (KNOW) the serious
(17)_____ (IMPLY) that this had for the likely fate of their voyage. Soon after their departure
on July 7th, it was noticed that (18)_____ (CONSIDER) amounts of hydrogen were escaping
from the balloon but the three men were unconcerned by the amount of (19)_____(LEAK) .
Unfortunately, as the balloon gained altitude, this loss of gas soon (20) _____(QUICK) and
so, after a brief flight of ten hours and twenty-nine minutes the balloon crash-landed on pack-
ice where the three explorers attempted to continue their journey on foot. Their bodies were
eventually recovered from the ice thirty-three years later.
Your answers
0. expedition 11. 12. 13.
14. 15. 16. 17.
18. 19. 20.
Part 3: The passage below contains 10 errors. For questions 21 - 30, underline the errors
and write the corrections in the corresponding numbered boxes. (0) has been done as an
example.
Line RELAXATION
1 True relaxation is most certain not a matter of flopping on in front of the
television with a welcome drink. Also is it about drifting into an exhausted sleep.
Useful though these responses to tension and over-tiredness may be, we should
distinguish between them and conscious relaxation in spite of quality and effect.
5 Regardless of the level of tiredness, real relaxation is a state of alert yet at the same
time passive awareness, in which our bodies are in rest while our minds are awake.
Moreover, it is so natural for a healthy person to be relaxed when moving as
resting. Having relaxed in action means we bring the appropriate energy to
everything we do, so as to have a feeling of healthy tiredness by the end of the day,
10 more than one of exhaustion.
Unfortunately, as a result of living in today competitive world, we are under
constant strain and have difficulty in coping, feeling alone nurturing our body's
abilities. That needs to be rediscovered is conscious relaxation. With this in mind
we must apply ourselves to understanding stress and the nature of its causes,
15 however deep-seated.

Your answers
0. certain (line 1) → certainly 21. 22.
23. 24. 25
26. 27. 28.
29. 30.

Page 2 of 13 pages
Part 4: For questions 31 - 40, fill in the gaps in the following sentences with suitable
particles. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (0) has been done as an
example.
0. John takes __________ his mother in many ways. They are very similar.
31. My mother turned __________ last night without warning and told me she was going to
stay for a month! I'm sleeping on the sofa now.
32. If Jacob dressed more smartly for his job interviews, he wouldn't be turned ________ all
the time!
33. Don't worry about the argument you had with your sister. It will soon blow __________.
34. The wet clay fell into the sink and fell ________ in the water. The pot was ruined and
she had to start again.
35. Sue has very low blood pressure. When she stands up too quickly, she can pass _______.
36. The police in the west of the town blocked _________ four blocks to prevent the public
getting too close to the fire.
37. The group leader stayed calm when the weather got bad and told everyone to make
________ the red light they could see on the horizon.
38. I've used __________all my credit at the local bank. I don't know how I'm going to
afford rent next month. I should e-mail the bank manager.
39. On hearing the news of his mother's death, the boy broke _____and couldn't be consoled.
40. To help your heart Mr. Jones, I suggest you keep _____ all fatty foods for a few months.

Your answers
0. after 31. 32. 33. 34. 35.
36. 37. 38. 39. 40.

II. READING: (50/200 points)

Part 1: Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each
gap. Write your answers (A, B, C, or D) in the corresponding numbered boxes.
THE CHANGING EARTH
Although the earth was formed about 4,500 million years ago, human beings have
inhabited it for less than half a million years. Within this time, population has increased hugely
and people have had a vast impact upon the earth. They have long been able to (41) ______
the forces of nature to use. Now, with modern technology, they have the power to alter the
balance of life on earth.
Reports back from the first astronauts helped dispel the dangerous (42) ______ that the
world had no boundaries and had limitless resources. (43) ______, ecologists have shown that
all forms of life on earth are interconnected, so it (44) ______that all human activity has an
effect on natural environment.
In recent years, people have been putting the environment under stress. As a result, certain
(45) _____ materials such as timber, water and minerals are beginning to (46) ______ short.
Population and the (47) _____ of waste are already critical issues, and the state of the
environment is fast becoming the most pressing problem (48) ______ us all. The way we
respond to the challenge will have a profound effect on the earth and its life support (49)
______.
However, despite all these threats there are (50) ______ signs. Over the past few decades,
the growth in population has been more than matched by food production, indicating that we
should be able to feed ourselves for some time yet.

Page 3 of 13 pages
41. A. put B. make C. place D. stand
42. A. judgment B. notion C. reflection D. concept
43. A. However B. Likewise C. Moreover D. Otherwise
44. A. results B. follows C. complies D. develops
45. A. raw B. coarse C. crude D. rough
46. A. turn B. come C. go D. run
47. A. disposal B. displacement C. dismissal D. disposition
48. A. encountering B. opposing C. meeting D. confronting
49. A. projects B. systems C. methods D. routines
50. A. stimulating B. welcoming C. satisfying D. reassuring

Your answers
41. 42. 43. 44. 45.
46. 47. 48. 49. 50.

Part 2: For questions 51 - 60, read the text below and think of the word which best fits each
gap. Use only ONE word in each gap. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered
boxes. There is an example at the beginning (0).
LANGUAGE VARIETY
The fact that English has been spoken in England for 1,500 years but in Australia for only
200, explains (0) ____ we have a great wealth of regional dialects in England that is more or
less totally lacking in Australia. It is often possible to tell where an English person comes from
to (51) _____ about 15 miles or less. In Australia, where there has not been enough time for
changes to bring about (52) _____ regional variation, it is almost impossible to tell where
someone comes from (53) _____ all, although very small differences are now beginning to
appear. It is unlikely, however, that there will (54) _____ be as much dialectal variation in
Australia as there is in England. This is because modern transport and communication
conditions are very different from what they were 1,500 or (55) _____ 100 years ago. Even
though English is now spoken in many different parts of the world many thousands of miles
apart, it is very unlikely that English will ever break up into a number of different non-
intelligible languages in the same way that Indo-European and Germanic (56) _____. German
and Norwegian became different languages because the ancestors of the speakers of these two
languages moved apart geographically, and were no (57) _____ in touch and communicating
with one another. In the modern world, barring unforeseen catastrophes, (58) _____ will not
happen at least in the near future. As long as Americans and British people, for instance, are in
touch with one another and want to communicate with one another, it is most unlikely that
their dialects (59) _____ drift so far apart (60) _____ to become different languages.

Your answers
0. why 51. 52. 53. 54. 55.
56. 57. 58. 59. 60.
Part 3: For questions 61 - 66, read the following text then choose the best phrase from the
list A - I below the text to fill each of the blanks in the text. Write one letter (A - I) in each of
the corresponding numbered boxes. Each correct phrase may only be used once. THREE of
the suggested answers do NOT fit at all.

Page 4 of 13 pages
 STAYING HEALTHY IN SPACE
The range of food available to astronauts is vast, and great care is taken to ensure that it
looks and smells appetising. Meals are organised to provide an average of 3,000 calories a day,
which seem high for living in an enclosed environment in which there is no gravity. But
astronauts can expend a great deal of energy in doing the simplest things. For example, if they
try to turn a handle, they turn themselves as well. If they bend down to do up a shoelace, (61)
____. Finding unusual ways of doing such ordinary things uses up the excess calories. The
space diet is balanced rather differently from a terrestrial diet. This is to try and compensate
for changes that take place in the body during space flight. Bodily changes begin as soon as
astronauts go into space (62) ____. Among the most serious is calcium loss, which causes a
marked reduction in the mass and strength of bones. There is also a progressive loss of red
blood cells. What causes these effects is not known, (63) ____. The heart muscles, with no
gravity to battle against, start to waste away. The leg muscles start to waste away too, since
walking, as done on Earth, (64) ____. Exercise also helps to reduce muscle wastage (65) ____.
No one yet knows the limit of human endurance in space. If astronauts can withstand two
years or more of continuous weightlessness, then mankind's dream of visiting other planets
(66) _____.

A. and the question must be answered before long-duration space-flight is

really safe
B. and are quite noticeable after even a week
C. they start turning somersaults
D. and will never be known
E. which is rather more than astronauts really need
F. and is vital on very long flights
G. could become reality in the early decades of the next century
H. can only be done if astronauts put on their heavy spacesuits
I. but they do not seriously threaten the health of astronauts

Your answers
61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66.
Part 4: Read the following passage and answer questions 67 - 80.
THE DEVELOPMENT OF MUSEUMS
A. The conviction that historical relics provide infallible testimony about the past is rooted
in the nineteenth and early twentieth centuries, when science was regarded as objective and
value free. As one writer observes: ‘Although it is now evident that artefacts are as easily
altered as chronicles, public faith in their veracity endures: a tangible relic seems ipso
facto real.’ Such conviction was, until recently, reflected in museum displays. Museums used
to look — and some still do — much like storage rooms of objects packed together in
showcases: good for scholars who wanted to study the subtle differences in design, but not for
the ordinary visitor, to whom it all looked alike. Similarly, the information accompanying the
objects often made little sense to the lay visitor. The content and format of explanations dated
back to a time when the museum was the exclusive domain of the scientific researcher.
B. Recently, however, attitudes towards history and the way it should be presented have
altered. The key word in heritage display is now 'experience', the more exciting the better and,
if possible, involving all the senses. Good examples of this approach in the UK are the Jorvik
Centre in York; the National Museum of Photography, Film and Television in Bradford; and
the Imperial War Museum in London. In the US the trend emerged much earlier. Williamsburg
Page 5 of 13 pages
has been a prototype for many heritage developments in other parts of the world. No one can
predict where the process will end. On so-called heritage sites the re-enactment of historical
events is increasingly popular, and computers will soon provide virtual reality experiences,
which will present visitors with a vivid image of the period of their choice, in which they
themselves can act as if part of the historical environment. Such developments have been
criticised as an intolerable vulgarization, but the success of many historical theme parks and
similar locations suggests that the majority of the public does not share this opinion.
C. In a related development, the sharp distinction between museum and heritage sites on
the one hand, and theme parks on the other, is gradually evaporating. They already borrow
ideas and concepts from one another. For example, museums have adopted story lines for
exhibitions, sites have accepted 'theming’ as a relevant tool, and theme parks are moving
towards more authenticity and research-based presentations. In zoos, animals are no longer
kept in cages, but in great spaces, either in the open air or in enormous greenhouses, such as
the jungle and desert environments in Burgers' Zoo in Holland. This particular trend is
regarded as one of the major developments in the presentation of natural history in the
twentieth century.
D. Theme parks are undergoing other changes, too, as they try to present more serious
social and cultural issues, and move away from fantasy. This development is a response to
market forces and, although museums and heritage sites have a special, rather distinct, role to
fulfill, they are also operating in a very competitive environment, where visitors make choices
on how and where to spend their free time. Heritage and museum experts do not have to invent
stories and recreate historical environments to attract their visitors: their assets are already in
place. However, exhibits must be both based on artefacts and facts as we know them, and
attractively presented. Those who are professionally engaged in the art of interpreting history
are thus in a difficult position, as they must steer a narrow course between the demands of
'evidence' and 'attractiveness' especially given the increasing need in the heritage industry for
income-generating activities.
E. It could be claimed that in order to make everything in heritage more 'real', historical
accuracy must be increasingly altered. For example, Pithecanthropus erectus is depicted in an
Indonesian museum with Malay facial features, because this corresponds to public perceptions.
Similarly, in the Museum of Natural History in Washington, Neanderthal man is shown
making a dominant gesture to his wife. Such presentations tell us more about contemporary
perceptions of the world than about our ancestors. There is one compensation, however, for the
professionals who make these interpretations: If they did not provide the interpretation, visitors
would do it for themselves, based on their own ideas, misconceptions and prejudices. And no
matter how exciting the result, it would contain a lot more bias than the presentations provided
by experts.
F. Human bias is inevitable, but another source of bias in the representation of history has
to do with the transitory nature of the materials themselves. The simple fact is that not
everything from history survives the historical process. Castles, palaces and cathedrals have a
longer lifespan than the dwellings of ordinary people. The same applies to the furnishings and
other contents of the premises. In a town like Leyden in Holland, which in the seventeenth
century was occupied by approximately the same number of inhabitants as today, people lived
within the walled town, an area more than five times smaller than modern Leyden. In most of
the houses several families lived together in circumstances beyond our imagination. Yet in
museums, fine period rooms give only an image of the lifestyle of the upper class of that era.
No wonder that people who stroll around exhibitions are filled with nostalgia; the evidence in
museums indicates that life was so much better in the past. This notion is induced by the bias
in its representation in museums and heritage centers.
Page 6 of 13 pages
For questions 67 - 70, choose the correct headings for paragraphs B - E from the list of
headings below. Write your answers (i - vii) in the corresponding numbered boxes. There is
an example at the beginning (0). There are two extra headings which you do not need to
use.

List of headings
i Commercial pressures on people in charge
ii. Mixed views on current changes to museums
iii. Interpreting the facts to meet visitor expectations
iv. The international dimension
v. Collections of factual evidence
vi. Fewer differences between public attractions
vii. Current reviews and suggestions

0. Paragraph A 67. Paragraph B 68. Paragraph C

69. Paragraph D 70. Paragraph E
Your answers
0. v 67. 68. 69. 70.

For the questions 71 - 76, choose the best answer (A, B, C, or D) according to the text. Write
your answers (A, B, C, or D) in the corresponding numbered boxes.

71. Compared with today's museums, those in the past _____________.

A. did not present history in a detailed way
B. were not primarily intended for the public
C. were more clearly organised
D. preserved items with greater care
72. According to the writer, current trends in the heritage industry ____________.
A. emphasise personal involvement
B. have their origins in York and London
C. rely on computer images
D. reflect minority tastes
73. The writer says that museums, heritage sites and theme parks ______________.
A. often work in close partnership
B. try to preserve separate identities
C. have similar exhibits
D. are less easy to distinguish than before
74. The writer says that in preparing exhibits for museums, experts ______________.
A. should pursue a single objective
B. have to do a certain amount of language translation
C. should be free from commercial constraints
D. have to balance conflicting priorities
75. In paragraph E, the writer suggests that some museum exhibits _______________.
A. fail to match visitor expectations
B. are based on the false assumptions of professionals
C. reveal more about present beliefs than about the past
D. allow visitors to make more use of their imagination

Page 7 of 13 pages
76. The passage ends by noting that our view of history is biased because _____________.
A. we fail to use our imagination
B. only very durable objects remain from the past
C. we tend to ignore things that displease us
D. museums exhibits focus too much on the local area
Your answers
71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76.

For questions 77 - 80, write in the corresponding numbered boxes

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information given in the passage
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information given in the passage
NOT GIVEN if there is no information about this in the passage
77. Consumers prefer theme parks which avoid serious issues.
78. More people visit museums than theme parks.
79. The boundaries of Leyden have changed little since the seventeenth century.
80. Museums can give a false impression of how life used to be.
Your answers
77. 78. 79. 80.

Part 5: Read the following passage and answer questions 81 - 90.

Forests are one of the main elements of our natural heritage. The decline of Europe's
forests over the last decade and a half has led to an increasing awareness and understanding of
the serious imbalances which threaten them. European countries are becoming increasingly
concerned by major threats to European forests, threats with know no frontier other than those
of geography and climate: air pollution, soil deterioration, the increasing number of forest fires
and sometimes even the mismanagement of our woodland and forest heritage. There has been
a growing awareness of the need for countries to get together to co-ordinate their policies. In
December 1990, Strasbourg hosted the first Ministerial Conference on the protection of
Europe's forests. The conference brought together 31 countries from both Western and Eastern
Europe. The topics discussed included the co-ordinated study of the destruction of forests, as
well as how to combat forest fires and the extension of European research programs on the
forest ecosystem. The preparatory work for the conference had been undertaken at two
meetings of experts. Their initial task was to decide which of the many forest problems of
concern to Europe involved the largest number of countries and might be the subject of joint
action. Those confined to particular geographical areas, such as countries bordering the
Mediterranean or the Nordic countries therefore had to be discarded. However, this does not
mean that in future they will be ignored.
As a whole, European countries see forests as performing a triple function: biological,
economic and recreational. The first is to act as a 'green lung' for our planet; by means of
photosynthesis, forests produce oxygen through the transformation of solar energy, thus
fulfilling what for humans is the essential role of an immense, non-polluting power plant. At
the same time, forests provide raw materials for human activities through their constantly
renewed production of wood. Finally, they offer those condemned to spend five days a week in
an urban environment an unrivalled area of freedom to unwind and take part in a range of
leisure activities, such as hunting, riding and hiking. The economic importance of forests has
been understood since the dawn of man - wood was the first fuel. The other aspects have been
recognised only for a few centuries but they are becoming more and more important. Hence,
there is a real concern throughout Europe about the damage to the forest environment which
threatens these three basic roles.
Page 8 of 13 pages
 The myth of the 'natural' forest has survived, yet there are effectively no remaining
'primary' forests in Europe. All European forests are artificial, having been adapted and
exploited by man for thousands of years. This means that a forest policy is vital, that it must
transcend national frontiers and generations of people, and that it must allow for the inevitable
changes that take place in the forests, in needs, and hence in policy. The Strasbourg conference
was one of the first events on such a scale to reach this conclusion. A general declaration was
made that 'a central place in any ecologically coherent forest policy must be given to
continuity over time and to the possible effects of unforeseen events, to ensure that the full
potential of these forests is maintained'.
That general declaration was accompanied by six detailed resolutions to assist national
policy-making. The first proposes the extension and systematisation of surveillance sites to
monitor forest decline. Forest decline is still poorly understood but leads to the loss of a high
proportion of a tree's needles or leaves. The entire continent and the majority of species are
now affected: between 30% and 50% of the tree population. The condition appears to result
from the cumulative effect of a number of factors, with atmospheric pollutants the principal
culprits. Compounds of nitrogen and sulphur dioxide should be particularly closely watched.
However, their effects are probably accentuated by climatic factors, such as drought and hard
winters, or soil imbalances such as soil acidification, which damages the roots. The second
resolution concentrates on the need to preserve the genetic diversity of European forests. The
aim is to reverse the decline in the number of tree species or at least to preserve the 'genetic
material' of all of them. Although forest fires do not affect all of Europe to the same extent, the
amount of damage caused the experts to propose as the third resolution that the Strasbourg
conference consider the establishment of a European databank on the subject. All information
used in the development of national preventative policies would become generally available.
The subject of the fourth resolution discussed by the ministers was mountain forests. In
Europe, it is undoubtedly the mountain ecosystem which has changed most rapidly and is most
at risk. A thinly scattered permanent population and development of leisure activities,
particularly skiing, have resulted in significant long-term changes to the local ecosystems.
Proposed developments include a preferential research program on mountain forests. The fifth
resolution relaunched the European research network on the physiology of trees, called
Eurosilva. Eurosilva should support joint European research on tree diseases and their
physiological and biochemical aspects. Each country concerned could increase the number of
scholarships and other financial support or doctoral theses and research projects in this area.
Finally, the conference established the framework for a European research network on forest
ecosystems. This would also involve harmonising activities in individual countries as well as
identifying a number of priority research topics relating to the protection of forests. The
Strasbourg conference's main concern was to provide for the future. This was the initial
motivation, one now shared by all 31 participants representing 31 European countries. Their
final text commits them to on-going discussion between government representatives with
responsibility for forests.
For questions 81 - 83, write in the corresponding numbered boxes
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information given in the passage
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information given in the passage
NOT GIVEN if there is no information about this in the passage
81. Forest problems of Mediterranean countries are to be discussed at the next meeting of
experts.
82. The biological functions of forests were recognised only in the twentieth century.
83. The Strasbourg conference decided that a forest policy must allow for the possibility of
change.

Page 9 of 13 pages
Your answers
81. 82. 83.

For questions 84 - 89, look at the following statements issued by the conference. Which of
the following statements, A - J, refer to the resolutions that were issued? Match the
statements with the appropriate resolutions. Write the correct letter (A - J) in the
corresponding numbered boxes. There are FOUR extra statements which you do not need to
use.

A All kinds of species of trees should be preserved.

B Fragile mountain forests should be given priority in research programs.
C The surviving natural forests of Europe do not need priority treatment.
D Research is to be better co-ordinated throughout Europe.
E Information on forest fires should be collected and shared.
F Loss of leaves from trees should be more extensively and carefully monitored.
G Resources should be allocated to research into tree diseases.
H Skiing should be encouraged in thinly populated areas.
I Soil imbalances such as acidification should be treated with compounds nitrogen and
sulphur.
J Information is to be systematically gathered on any decline in the condition of forests.

84. Resolution 1 85. Resolution 2 86. Resolution 3

87. Resolution 4 88. Resolution 5 89. Resolution 6
Your answers
84. 85. 86. 87. 88. 89.
For question 90, choose the correct answer (A, B, C, or D) to the question. Write your
answer (A, B, C, or D) in box 90.
90. What is the best title for the reading passage?
A. The biological, economic and recreational role of forests
B. Plans to protect the forests of Europe
C. The priority of European research into ecosystems
D. Proposals for a world-wide policy on forest management
Your answer
90.

III. WRITING (60/200 points)

Part 1: Use the word given in brackets and make any necessary additions to complete a new
sentence in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence.
Do NOT change the form of the given word. You must use between THREE and EIGHT
words, including the word given.
91. Jenny’s generosity means that people exploit her good nature. (advantage)
→ Jenny’s so ……………………………….……………………of her good nature.
92. All the cars have been cleaned except the manager's. (which)
→ The manager's is ……………………….…….…………………………..been cleaned.
93. It doesn't matter which chemical you put into the mixture first. The results will be the
same. (difference)
Page 10 of 13 pages
→ It ………………………………………………………..you put into the mixture first.
94. David thought it unfair that his team resented him for not scoring a goal. (against)
→ David thought it unfair that his team should ………………….………...………for not
scoring a goal.
95. Holly decided that she’d ask to be transferred to another department. (request)
→ Holly decided to put ………………………………….……………..a transfer to another
department.

Part 2: The line graph below shows changes in the amount and type of fast food consumed
by Australian teenagers from 1975 to 2000. Summarize the information by selecting and
reporting the main features and make comparisons where relevant. Write about 150 words.
Consumption of Fast Food by Australian Teenagers

120
Number of times eaten per year

100
80 Pizza
60 Fish and Chips
40 Hamburgers

20
0
1975 1980 1985 1990 1995 2000
Year

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

Page 11 of 13 pages
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Part 3: Should old people live with family or separately with the same age people? Give
specific reasons and examples to support your opinion. Write about 350 words.
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==== THE END =====

Page 13 of 13 pages
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI LẬP ĐỘI TUYỂN DỰ THI HSG QUỐC GIA
TỈNH ĐẮK LẮK NĂM HỌC 2015-2016

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 12-THPT (ĐỌC HIỂU-VIẾT)

Ngày thi: 22/10/2015

ĐÁP ÁN VÀ HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM

================================
I. LEXICO – GRAMMAR (30/200)
Part 1: (15 items x 1 point/item = 15 points)

1. B 2. A 3. D 4. A 5. D 6. B
7. A 8. A 9. B 10. A 11. D 12. C
13. C 14. C 15. B

Part 2: (5 items x 3 points/item = 15 points)

0. experiencing 16. generated 17. reverberation
18. disabilities 19. undiagnosed 20. known

II. READING (60/200)

Part 1: (10 items x 1.5 points/item = 15 points)

21. to 22. Should 23. run 24. Given 25. without

26. will 27. this 28. anything 29. if 30. despite

Part 2:
(7 items x 1 point/item = 7 points)
31. Paragraph A: viii 32. Paragraph B: i 33. Paragraph C: vi 34. Paragraph D: iii
35. Paragraph E: vii 36. Paragraph F: iv 37. Paragraph G: ii

(10 items x 1.5 points/item = 15 points)

38. farming 39. sea mammals / fish
40. fish / sea mammals 41. successful
42. Thule 43. the environment
44. islands 45. nomadic
46. nature 47. Imported

Part 3: (13 items x 1 point/item= 13 points)

48. T 49. F 50. T 51. F
52. NG 53. T 54. F 55. NG
56. B 57. E 58. A 59. C
60. G

Page 1 of 3 pages
Part 4: (10 items x 1 point/item = 10 points)
61. A 62. C 63. E 64. F 65. B
66. G 67. E 68. D 69. D 70. E

IV. WRITING (60/200)

Part 1: 15 points
Dogs can teach us many lessons of life. It can teach us through its acts of love and
faithfulness, endangering itself just to accompany you. We can also learn from its eating habits. It
will never over-indulge and knows which food to avoid. Dogs are also able to adapt to its
surroundings quickly without complaining as compared to man who complains at the slightest
change. Dogs are also unselfish, choosing not to burden his loved ones but to go away and die.
Dogs also know when to work and when to play. They do not waste their efforts unnecessarily
like some of us do at work. Thus, dogs can set us great examples through their day-to-day living.

Part 2: 15 points
General outline:
1. An introduction sentence (What the chart is about): You need to begin your essay with one or
two sentences by paraphrasing the title of the graph, making sure you put in a time frame.
2. The kind of changes (which increases / decreases?) and the rates of unemloyment among
women in the countries involved
- overall trend
- significant trend
3. A comparison of the rates of unemloyment among women in the countries

Part 3: 30 points
Mô tả tiêu chí đánh giá:
1. Bố cục (6 điểm)
o Câu đề dẫn chủ đề mạch lạc
o Bố cục hợp lí rõ ràng phù hợp yêu cầu của đề bài
o Bố cục uyển chuyển từ mở bài đến kết luận
2. Phát triển ý (6 điểm)
o Phát triển ý có trình tự logic
o Có dẫn chứng, ví dụ, … đủ để bảo vệ ý kiến của mình
3. Sử dụng ngôn từ (6 điểm)
o Sử dụng ngôn từ phù hợp nội dung
o Sử dụng ngôn từ đúng văn phong / thể loại
o Sử dụng từ nối các ý cho bài viết uyển chuyển
4. Nội dung (6 điểm)
o Đủ thuyết phục người đọc
o Đủ dẫn chứng, ví dụ, lập luận

Page 2 of 3 pages
o Độ dài: Số từ không nhiều hơn hoặc ít hơn so với quy định 5%
5. Ngữ pháp, dấu câu, và chính tả (6 điểm)
o Sử dụng đúng dấu câu
o Chính tả: Viết đúng chính tả
_ Lỗi chính tả gây hiểu nhầm / sai lệch ý sẽ bị tính một lỗi (trừ 1% điểm của bài viết)
_ Cùng một lỗi chính tả lặp lại chỉ tính là một lỗi
o Sử dụng đúng thời, thể, cấu trúc câu đúng ngữ pháp. (Lỗi ngữ pháp gây hiểu nhầm / sai lệch ý
sẽ bị trừ 1% điểm bài viết)

===== THE END =====

Page 3 of 3 pages
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO TỈNH LÀO CAI ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH
NĂM HỌC 2016-2017
ĐÊ CHINH THƯC

Môn thi:TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian thi:180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
Ngày thi:05/10/2016 Số phách
Đề thi có 16 trang
Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu, kể cả từ điển.
Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm.

ĐIỂM CỦA BÀI THI CHỮ KÍ CỦA GIÁM KHẢO

Bằng số Bằng chữ
Giám khảo 1:

Giám khảo 2:

I. LISTENING (5 POINTS)
Part 1: You will hear a student union officer explaining about the union’s functions and
services to a group of new university students.
For questions 1-5, answer the following questions. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each
answer.
1. What resulted from compulsory membership? ____________________________
2. The student union has many what? ____________________________
3. Who controls many student unions? ____________________________
4. When did the Orientation Week begin? ____________________________
5. Where are the festivities held? ____________________________
For questions 6-10, choose FIVE answers from the list, and write the correct letter, A-G, next to the
questions.
6. make friends? ____________
7. reduce your stress after class? ____________
8. pay reduced prices? ____________
9. place personal notices? ____________
10. obtain legal advice? ____________
A. The bookshop
B. Clubs & societies
C. The Gym
D. The conference room
E. Student Union newspaper
F. The Union cafeteria
G. The Union office

1
Your answers:
1. 6.
2. 7.
3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10.
Part 2: You will hear a discussion between two students and their teacher on a planned charity
event. Listen and do the task that follows.
For questions 11-15, complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS
OR/AND A NUMBER for each answer.
The aim of the project is to raise money to support 11.___________ specifically rather than one
that operates abroad.
In this year’s charity event, students will be offered the chance to buy 12._____________________
In order to win a prize, the finder will have to ring the 13.__________________________________
The fact that gas 14._____________ cost £20 each is the only drawback.
The students think it is best to put in an order of 15.____________to make sure that they don’t run
out of them.
For questions 16-17, complete the teacher’s notes below.
NOTES ON COSTS AND POTENTIAL PROFIT:
Unit cost: £ 0.50
Unit selling price: 16. £_____________
Estimated total profit: 17. £__________
For questions 18-20, choose the correct answer A, B, or C which best fits what you hear.
18. How did the students find an event sponsor?
A. They asked a company to sponsor the event.
B. They spent £1,000 promoting the event to attract sponsors.
C. They were approached by a company interested in being a sponsor.
19. What does the sponsor want in return?
A. £1,000 of the profits and their logo on everything
B. to print their logo on the products they sell
C. approval from the teacher that it is okay to go ahead with the sponsorship
20. How many containers of gas are they going to need if they do as the teacher suggests at the end
of the conversation?
A. 10 B. 2 C. 20
Your answers:
11. 16.
12. 17.
13. 18.
14. 19.
15. 20.
Part 3: You will hear a radio interview with a spokesman from a dolphin conversation
organization. The primary topic of conversation is how dolphins are affected by their
encounters with humans. For questions 21-25, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D which
fits best according to what you hear.
21. According to Rupert Clarkson,
A. it appears that there is a special bond between humans and dolphins.
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B. humans falsely believe that dolphins are playful and friendly.
C. dolphins enjoy interacting with humans.
D. because of their intelligence, dolphins appreciate interacting with humans.
22. In addition to being a pleasurable pastime, swimming with dolphins
A. can stimulate people to be more sociable.
B. can interfere with one’s brain function.
C. can have a therapeutic effect on some afflictions.
D. can make one more energetic.
23. Rupert believes that if people were more informed about dolphins,
A. they would try harder to save them from extinction.
B. more people would want to swim with them.
C. they would gain greater insight on human-animal communication.
D. they could understand the behavioral patterns of other mammals.
24. How does Rupert Clarkson feel about people swimming with dolphins?
A. He is in favor of it.
B. He has some reservations about it.
C. He believes it should not be allowed.
D. He suggests that it could be potentially dangerous for humans.
25. Dolphin-human interaction can affect a dolphin’s
A. ability to take care of its young. B. ability to breathe.
C. sociable mood. D. eagerness to communicate with humans.
Your answers:
21. 22. 23. 24. 25.
II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (3 POINTS)
Part 1: Choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence.
1. Tom: “I thought your performance last Sunday was wonderful.”
Laura: “_________________”
A. Don’t tell a lie. I thought it was terrible.
B. You must be kidding. It was not as good as I had expected.
C. I completely agree with you. It was terrific.
D. No doubt!
2. I don’t think you have been watering the plants near the gate. The soil is _________________.
A. as dry as rice B. as dry as a tile C. as dry as a bone D. as dry as wood
3. Susan was sad because she wasn’t invited to any social events. She felt _________________.
A. left out B. turned out C. omitted out D. gone out
4. Most psychologists believe that the basic structure of an individual’s personality
is_______________.
A. well established extremely by the age of five
B. by the age of five it is extremely well established
C. by the age of five and well established extremely
D. extremely well established by the age of five
5. I wish you _________________ me a new one instead of having it _______________as you did.
A. would give / to repair B. gave / to repair
C. had given / to be repaired D. had given / repaired
6. Henry was really a silly boy when we were at high school. I still remember _______very stupid questions.

3
A. him asking B. him to ask C. asking him D. his being asked
7. The _________________ of the family following the divorce was a great shock to the children.
A. break-down B. break-in C. break-up D. break-out
8. I can’t believe how cheap these shorts were. They were a real _________________.
A. discount B. sale C. bargain D. offer
9. Never _________________off until tomorrow what you can do today.
A. set B. put C. do D. turn
10. I have got a _________________headache. I need to take a rest and some aspirin.
A. spitting B. raving C. splitting D. burning
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Part 2: The passage below contains 06 mistakes. Underline the mistakes and write their
correct forms in the space provided in the column on the right. (0) has been done as an
example.
Line
1 In just the same way that there is often a silver line to a dark cloud, so there is a downside
2 to any good thing. With modern technology as mobile phones and other digital devices,
3 the downside is addiction. Some people’s leisure time and even working hours are
4 becoming dominate by a constant checking for new e-mails and text messages. In
5 extreme cases, people wake up two or three times a night to check.
6 As creatures of habit, people can get addicted to quite bizarre things, but due to the
7 portability of this technology, it is a much more likely object of addiction like most. In our
8 society, of course, these devices are extremely useful – indeed, some would say they were
9 essential – and so find a solution to the problem is far from simple. Trying to regulate the
10 functions of these devices, as some people have suggested, might have some impact on
11 the ways they are used and some economical consequences for the manufacturers, but it
12 wouldn’t prevent the addiction. A better strategy would be to educate the user. Although I
13 would stop short of new legislation posing restrictions, cautionary notes placed on the
14 devices can be effective in notifying users of the risks of addiction. But whatever changes
15 we make now, the pace of technological change mean the future will inevitably throw up
16 many further unforeseen problems.
Your answers:
Lines Mistakes Corrections
0 1 line lining
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
Part 3: Read the text below. Use the word given in capital to form a word that best fits the
space in the same line. There is an example at the beginning (0).
Running for health

4
If you want to improve your overall level of 0._FITNESS_, running is one of the 0. FIT
best sports to choose. It can increase the 1.________ of your bones, it is good 1. STRONG
for your heart, and it can help with weight 2. ________ 2.LOSE
You will soon begin to see a 3. ________improvement in your general health 3.SIGNIFY
and if you are the sort of the person who enjoys a challenge, then you could 4. INSTRUCT
consider making the decision to run a marathon - a race of approximately 42 5.RECOMMEND
kilometers. 6.INJURE
Experienced runners and sports 4. ________say you should make a point of 7.GRADUAL
having a physical check with your doctor before you start training. Another 8.DISTANT
5.________is that anyone who has an old back, knee or ankle
6.________should take extra race. You should never use running shoes which
hurt your feet or which feel uncomfortable after a long run. It is a good idea to
start by running slowly for about twenty minutes three times a week and
7.________increase the number of kilometers you run. You should find running
long 8.________gets progressively easier, and after a time, you may feel that
even a marathon will be possible!
Your answers:
1. 5.
2. 6.
3. 7.
4. 8.
Part 4: Fill in the gaps in the following sentences with suitable particles. Write your answers in
the corresponding numbered boxes. There is an example at the beginning (0).
0. He was passed ___over____ in the first time he applied for promotion, but he seems to stand better
chance this time.
1. Paul, do you think you could put me ________ for the night? It's a bit too late to go home now.
2. When the tenants failed to pay their bill, the authorities decided to cut________ the gas supply to
the flat.
3. You look upset, Sven. Have you and Niger fallen ________again?
4. The woman broke________ when the police told her that her son had died.
5. I got up late; I’ve spent all day making up ________.lost time.
6. Did Mr. Tan take ________the class while Miss Fiona was ill in hospital?
Your answers:
1. 2. 3.
4. 5. 6.
III. READING
Part 1: Read the text and choose the answer A, B, C, or D which best fits each gap.
Studying black bear
After years studying in North America’s black bear in the conventional way, wildlife biologist like Luke
Robertson felt no closer to understanding the creature. He realized that he had to 1._______ their
trust. Abandoning scientific detachment, he took a daring step of forming relationships with the
animals, bringing them food to gain their acceptance.
The 2.__________ this has given him into their behavior has allowed him to dispel certain myths
about bears. 3.__________ to popular belief, he contends that bears do not 4.__________ as much
fruit as previously supposed. He also 5.__________ claims that they are ferocious. He says that

5
people should not be 6._________ by behavior such as swatting paws on the ground, as this is
defensive, rather than aggressive, act.
However, Robertson is no sentimentalist. After devoting years of his life to the bears, he is under no
7.___________about their feelings for him. It is clear that their interest in him does not 8.________
beyond the food he brings.
1. A. catch B. win C. achieve D. receive
2. A. perception B. awareness C. insight D. vision
3. A. Opposite B. Opposed C. Contrary D. Contradictory
4. A. care B. bother C. desire D. hope
5. A. concludes B. disputes C. reasons D. argues
6. A. misguided B. misled C.misdirected D. misinformed
7. A. error B. doubt C. illusion D. impression
8. A. expand B. spread C. widen D. extend
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4.
5. 6. 7. 8.
Part 2: Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each gap. Use only ONE word
in each gap. There is an example at the beginning (0).
The origin of language
The truth (0).___is __ nobody really knows how the language began. Did we all start talking at around
the same time 1._______ of the manner in which our brains had begun to develop?
Although there is a lack of clear evidence, people have come up with various theories about the
origins of language. One recent theory is that human beings have evolved in 2._______ a way that we
are programmed for language from the moment of birth. In 3.________ words, language came about
as a result of an evolutionary change in our brains at some stage.
Language 4._________ well be programmed into the brain but, 5._________ this, people still need
stimulus from others around them. From studies, we know that 6. ________ children are isolated from
human contact and have not learnt to construct sentences before they are ten, it is doubtful they will
ever do so. This research shows, if 7. __________ else, that language is a social activity, not
something invented 8._________isolation.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4.
5. 6. 7. 8.
Part 3: Read the text and do the task that follows.
For questions 1-5, choose the correct heading for each paragraph from the list of headings (I-VIII)
below.
I. The fascination explained
II. Speedsters thwarted by manufacturers
III. A policy well conceived
IV. Speed limits that are not speed limits
V. Recklessness rewarded
VI. Safety compromised
VII. Safety not only factor driving speed regulators
VIII. The longest motorways examined

1. Paragraph A ____________

6
 2. Paragraph B ____________
3. Paragraph C ____________
4. Paragraph D ____________
5. Paragraph E ____________
Uncovering the truth about Germany’s autobahns
A._______
Officially the Bundesautobahnen, which, when translated, means federal expressways, we know them
more commonly as the autobahns – Germany’s impressive system of motorways. There is nothing
extraordinary about them, fine feats of engineering though they may be, so why has the term
autobahn become so well-known? The simple answer is that people living outside of Germany have
had their curiosity more than a little tickled on account of the fact that Germany’s motorways are, in
one specific way, very unique indeed. They are not the longest system in the world, this plaudit going
to the Interstate Highway System of America, nor are they even second or third (China and India
respectively), and though they come a healthy fourth in the length stakes, this is really neither here
nor there. No, indeed, what fascinates us about the autobahns has nothing to do with their technical
or design features. It is though, a lot to do with how fast you can go on them. The autobahns, you see,
are the only stretch of motorway in the world on which you can drive your car (provided it is not towing
a trailer) at, well, any speed you like. Now, that’s a very attractive proposition for many boy-racers out
there who would salivate at the prospect of being able to drive as fast as they wanted, and therefore,
on that rather scary point, perhaps we should consider asking the, well, obvious question: what on
earth were the Germans thinking when they did this? Surely having no speed limit whatsoever is a
recipe of disaster.
B. _______
To clarify, there is a ‘recommended’ speed limit of 130km/h on all stretches of German motorway, and
a hard limit is imposed on some vehicles. Buses carrying standing passengers and motorbikes pulling
trailers cannot go faster than 60 km/h. All other buses, as well as passenger cars and trucks with
trailers, and all vehicles weighing in excess of 3.5 tonnes are not allowed to exceed 80 km/h. Rare
exceptions include buses that have been officially certified to travel at 100 km/h and passenger cars
carrying trailers that have received similar certification. Nonetheless, the fact remains that all other
cars, trucks and motorbikes, while encouraged to adhere to the ‘recommended’ speed limit, are by no
means bound to it and can, in effect, travel as fast as they please. Indeed, many of them do and it is
not uncommon to see a car racing past you on the autobahn travelling in excess of 140 km/h.
C. _______
In such circumstances, it would not be at all surprising to learn that Germany has an awful record on
road safety, except that it doesn’t. Indeed, Germany’s road safety record is comparable, and in some
cases superior, to that of all other industrialized European countries. So is this just luck rewarding
recklessness? Well, first of all, it’s important to concede that speed limits do apply at junctions and
other danger spots, such as sections under repair, and that there are even weather-related speed
limits on some stretches of the autobahn (lower speed limits are used in cases of wet lanes). To fail to
point this out would be to paint a picture, rather unfairly, of speed-hungry officials putting the travelling
public in jeopardy on roads in order to gratify their own thrill-lust. Of course, this is not the case.
Indeed, safety considerations aside, the Germans have even imposed speed limits for other
purposes, such as to reduce pollution and noise on some stretches of the autobahn, so there is no
crazy speed-fuelled agenda here. ‘Mad’ you may say, but the Germans actually seem to think this is
safe.
D. _______

7
And the statistics appear to back them up though. After all, the International Traffic Safety Data and
Analysis Group’s research indicates that there are 2.2 road-user fatalities per billion vehicle kilometers
on German autobahns each year. Using the same statistics, 4.5 fatalities occur on United States
motorways each year. In fact, when you look beyond the myth of the motorway without speed limits,
where drivers regularly clock up speeds in excess of 200 km/h, and uncover the more sober reality,
you realize that the German approach might not be so draft as it first seemed. For a start, only 2% of
all traffic regularly travels on the unrestricted stretches of motorway as, despite the vast area they
cover, they are strategically located in rural areas with low traffic volume. The other 98% of vehicles
on the road do in fact have their speeds very strictly regulated, and these regulations are also heavily
enforced. Speed cameras are everywhere and the motorways are patrolled by unmarked police cars
ready to pull over speed offenders and reckless drivers. The Germans have also taken into
consideration statistics which show that very few road accidents occur on motorways in low-volume
traffic each year. In fact, these stretches of motorway offer up some of the safest driving conditions,
statistically speaking, of all. The Germans have therefore reasoned that they don’t need to regulate
rural motorways a great deal, and it would seem they are right.
E. _______
Furthermore, the myth of limitless speed is also quite misleading. In reality, all German car
manufacturers (and most international ones) keep to a gentlemen’s agreement whereby they limit the
top speed of their cars to around 150 km/h for safety reasons as, unless tyre pressure is optimally
maintained and cars are constantly serviced (as would happen, say, in motor racing), travelling at
higher speeds than that is, well, extremely risky and can lead to blowouts and other physical and
mechanical failures that have the potential to cause death. Therefore, the situation is a little different
than we might have assumed because while there is no official speed limit in theory, car
manufacturers self-regulate so, in practice, a limit on the maximum speed vehicles can travel at has
been put in place. In addition, the few vehicles which are capable of clocking speeds in excess of 150
km/h seldom get the opportunity (the time and space) to build up to these speeds on the German
autobahns, and, if they do well, the way the German government sees it, they might as well be driving
that fast there rather than in the suburbs, so let them do it!
For questions 6-10, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D.
6. German road regulations state that
A. all vehicles must adhere to a recommended speed limit of 130 km/h
B. the speed limit for all buses is 100 km/h
C. no trailer-carrying vehicle can travel at speeds in excess of 80 km/h
D. passenger cars carrying trailers must not exceed a limit of 80 km/h without prior approval.
7. Special motorway speed limits
A. are sometimes imposed on all vehicles in difficult driving conditions.
B. never apply to cars, trucks and motorcycles, which can travel at any speed, provided they are not
towing a trailer
C. like all speed limits in Germany- are only recommended maximum speeds, and are not enforceable
in law.
D. are only seen at junctions and on stretches of motorway which need work.
8. The section of the German motorway system which has no upper speed limit for some vehicles
A. is also that which sees the most volume of traffic
B. is not a significant part of the system as a whole, only accounting for about 2% of the country’s
motorways
C. is, however, patrolled by unmarked police cars which monitor traffic flow
D. receives a comparatively small amount of the country’s overall traffic volume.
8
9. German car manufacturers
A. have a legal agreement to limit their vehicles’ speeds
B. self-regulate to an extent when it comes to safety considerations
C. implement an unusual practice of limiting their vehicles’ fuel consumption
D. regularly service their vehicles for safety purposes
10. What do you think is the writer’s view of the German approach to speed regulation?
A. It is irresponsible and reckless
B. It initially appears baffling, but, on closer inspection, makes a lot of sense
C. It is inadequate in cities and leaves a lot to be desired in rural areas
D. It is over-reliant on self-regulation by manufacturers and even drivers themselves
For questions 11-13, complete the sentences. Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the
passage for each answer.
11. For cars operating at high speeds, it is necessary to maintain optimal tyre pressure and ensure
that the vehicle is serviced regularly in order to combat the heightened risk of _________ failures.
12. In reality, due to the practice whereby _______, few vehicles have the capacity at speeds in
excess of 150 km/h.
13. When it comes to vehicles which can and are determined to travel at very high speeds, ________
would rather they attempted to drive excessively fast on the parts of the motorway it deems safe than
anywhere else.
Your answers:
1. 8.
2. 9.
3. 10.
4. 11.
5. 12.
6. 13.
7.
Part 4: Read the text and do the task that follows.
Limits of the human body
In the second millennium, one frequently asked question is: What are the limits of the human
body? Is there a point at which we human beings might consider that it is physically impossible to do
something? We decided to consult the experts to find out.
'One thing we've all learned in the last 30 years or so is that just about anything is humanly
possible,’ says Dr. Jack Wilmore, from Texas A&M University and author of The Physiology of Sport
and Exercise, part of which examines the limits of the human body.
'As the new millennium progresses, I think you'll see more records continue to fall in every
sport. The talent pool is better than ever. Never before have so many good athletes competed, and
not just in this country, but all over the world. With more people involved and competing, records will
fall and new standards will be set.'
Many believed it was physically impossible for a human to run a mile in under four minutes, but
Roger Bannister proved that theory wrong with a three minute, 59 second mile (1.609 kilometres) in
1954. Today, sub four-minute miles are considered not to be the extraordinary achievements they
were deemed to be in the 1950s but mere routine, even in high school. In addition to this, Bob
Beamon stretched human performance in the 1968 Olympics with his historic long jump of 8.9027
metres. In an event in which a record is usually broken by mere inches, he shattered the previous
jump by 0.6096 metres, but even his record was broken in 1991.

9
 'We've all seen reports of people doing superhuman feats of strength under duress, such as a
man lifting a car off a child,' Wilmore adds. 'So we know that the human body can do things that go
far beyond normal activity. That's why it's foolish to say any record can't be broken. Who's to say it
won't happen?'
The reasons for this astonishing change in the ability of human beings to achieve bigger and
better results from improved stamina are many and varied, as well as being somewhat controversial.
Are we simply growing stronger and becoming healthier, or is there more complicated explanation
for what seems to be happening to the human race? One additional factor is just now becoming
more understood and heavily emphasized is known as sports psychology. What it seems to prove is
that getting inside the athlete's head can be as effective as training and long workouts, which in the
past were considered to be the only way of improving performance and pushing the human body to
its limits.
According to Wilmore, the psychological aspect of sports should not be ignored or discounted
because we now know that it is what makes the athlete tick mentally can be all-important. He points
out that 'most professional teams have hired sports psychologists for their players. It's just another
way of tapping into a human's full potential.'
'In addition, every aspect of athletics - training, nutrition, injury treatment - is far better than it's
ever been. Better coaching, training techniques, equipment and other factors all contribute to make
today's athlete more competitive than ever,' he believes. 'Children today tend to specialize in one or
two sports instead of competing in several as was common twenty-five years ago,' Wilmore says.
‘That means they start concentrating on a sport much earlier and more intensely, and they become
much better at it'.
But what about the difference between the performance of men and that of women? Is there any
reason why men should be expected to perform better or is it possible for both sexes to achieve the
same results? Wilmore also says that the chances of women achieving new heights in athletics could
be greater than men, as more women are now involved in sports than at any other time and they are
starting at about the same age as boys, meaning they are more skilled than the previous generation
of girls. 'Plus, women are taller and stronger than ever. It used to be rare to see a girl who towered
above you. Now it seems like you see them every day.'
'There's a lot we don't know yet about the human body,' he adds. 'And one of those things is the
full range of human potential. It can be foolish to try and put limits on what the human body can do’.
Who knows to what extent humans might yet improve upon their already staggering
achievements?
For questions 1-6, read the text again and choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which you think best fits
according to the text.
1. What initial comment does Dr. Jack Wilmore make?
A. There will always be limits to what the human body can achieve
B. It will become more and more difficult for athletes to break records
C. Athletics will become one of the most popular forms of exercise
D. Athletes will continue to surprise us with what they can achieve
2. The writer mentions athletes like Bannister and Beamon in order to
A. demonstrate the effect their determination to win had on them
B. prove that even their amazing achievements can be bettered
C. exemplify what athletes can achieve under stressful conditions
D. demonstrate how accurately we can measure what athletes are capable of
3. Dr. Wilmore feels that attitudes within athletics are changing because
A. coaches have begun to realize the importance of more intensive training.
10
B. experts have begun to highlight the need for more unusual workouts.
C. athletes are now being given mental as well as physical training by experts.
D. coaches now encourage athletes to unwind between training sessions.
4. According to Dr. Wilmore, how are today’s children different from years ago?
A. They participate in far more sports.
B. They begin sports at a much earlier age.
C. They become more proficient in their chosen sports.
D. They are more likely to become professional athletes.
5. Dr. Wilmore believes that women
A. have physically developed and advanced over the years
B. perform equally well whether they are tall or short
C. now have the same chance as boys of realizing their potential
D. are beginning to play sports at a much younger age than boys
6. What conclusion does Dr. Wilmore make?
A. We try to push the human body to its limits at our peril.
B. We must congratulate ourselves on what athletes have achieved so far.
C. We need to do more research into what the human body is capable of.
D. We should not prejudge what might be beyond our physical capabilities.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.
Part 5: Read the text and do the task that follows
For questions 1-9, read the article and choose in which paragraph (A-E) the following are mentioned.
a controversial pastime that raises considerable money 1.______
an action which creates a different weather pattern 2. ______
an undesirable result of unnecessary global transportation 3. ______ 4. ______
people at the greatest risk from factors beyond their control 5. ______
a far-reaching change in official attitude 6. ______
benefits for those the scheme was not originally intended for 7. ______ 8. ______
the bringing of a source of energy to remote areas 9. ______
BUT WILL IT SAVE THE PLANET?
A. FAIR TRADE
Farmers in developing countries are some of the most vulnerable people on earth, prey to world
commodity markets, middle men and the weather. So-called 'fair- trade' arrangements guarantee co-
operative groups a price above the world market and a bonus on top. The growing fair-trade market
has distributed hundreds of millions of pounds to more than 50 million people worldwide. But critics
say that fair trade will never lift a country out of poverty; indeed, it may keep it there, because the
money generated from sales goes almost in its entirety to rich countries which promote the products.
As a simple guide, only about 5% of the sale price of a fair-trade chocolate bar may actually go to the
poor country.
B. ORGANIC FOOD
For food to be organic it must be free of added chemicals, both in the growing of the food and in the
killing of the pests that might damage the crop. In a world where many manufactured chemicals have
never been properly tested for safety, this is a very big selling point. Parents are thus prepared to
pay a premium for organic food, especially when chemicals suspected of causing a variety of
problems have been found, albeit in tiny quantities, in most children's blood. The problem is that
many farmers have not switched to organic in sufficient numbers to satisfy this growing market. As a
result, supermarkets are often forced to fly ‘organic’ vegetables halfway round the world, at a great
11
cost to the planet in extra greenhouse gases. Environmentalists are now urging shoppers to buy
locally produced vegetables, even if they are not organic.
C. RECYCLING
A great shift has taken place in the way we think about rubbish. Where once we were happy to bury it
in landfills, we are now being urged by national and local governments to recycle it and think of waste
as a resource. The wheelie-bin culture is being replaced by a series of kerbside collections for paper,
metals, plastic bottles, clothes and compost. The idea is to cut landfill as well as saving the planet. It
is, however, having some unexpected consequences. Most of Britain's plastic and paper is now being
sent for recycling in China or India, which creates more greenhouse gases just to get it there, plus
workers then have to separate it. Meanwhile, some paper and bottles carefully sorted out by
householders end up being dumped in landfills after all, because the demand for recycled materials
constantly fluctuates
D. BEING CARBON NEUTRAL
If you want to make yourself feel better about the planet, there are lots of ways for you to ease your
conscience by becoming 'carbon neutral'. One of the most appealing methods is to pay for someone
to plant trees, preferably creating or regenerating new forests. The theory is that trees grow by
absorbing carbon dioxide and giving out oxygen, storing the carbon in their trunks. But woods and
forests create their own mini-climate, which collects and stores water and creates rainclouds. Added
to this, there is the potential problem that planting trees often releases carbon stored in the soil - and
what happens if the forests catch fire, or are chopped down and harvested for timber? A better
solution might be to invest in small-scale hydro-electric schemes, so that people who live in the
Himalayas, for example, and currently do not have electricity, can develop a 21st century lifestyle
without polluting the planet.
E. ECO-TOURISM
The idea of 'green' tourism is to persuade local people not to chop down forests or wipe out tigers, but
to preserve them so rich tourists visit and peer at the wildlife through binoculars. Unfortunately, the
best money is made from reintroducing animals for trophy hunting by the very rich - an idea which
does not always meet with approval and has caused much debate. While tourists may help sustain
some national parks, they often create as many problems as they solve. One is that they tend to
demand all mod cons in their hotels, such as a great deal of water for showers; a luxury sometimes
not available for locals. Eco-tourism, when properly managed, can offer the locals and the animals a
brighter future. Sometimes, though, the only winners are the hotel owners.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9.
Part 6: Read the text and do the task that follows
Six paragraphs have been removed from the extract. Read the article and choose from the
paragraphs A-G the one which fits each gap (1-6). There is one extra paragraph.
On my living-room wall I have a painting of a wildcat by John Holmes of which I am extremely
fond. It depicts a snarling, spitting animal, teeth bared and back arched: a taut coiled spring ready to
unleash some unknown fury.
1. ________
However, the physical differences are tangible. The wildcat is a much larger animal, weighing
in some cases up to seven kilos, the same as a typical male fox. The coat pattern is superficially
similar to a domestic tabby cat but it is all stripes and no spots. The tail is thicker and blunter, with
three to five black rings. The animal has an altogether heavier look.
The Scottish wildcat was originally distinguished as a separate subspecies in 1912, but it is
12
now generally recognized that there is little difference between the Scottish and other European
populations. According to an excellent report on the wildcat printed in 1991, the animals originally
occurred in a variety of habitats throughout Europe.
2. ________
It was during the nineteenth century, with the establishment of many estates used by
landowners for hunting, that the wildcat became a nuisance and its rapid decline really began; 198
wildcats were killed in three years in the area of Glengarry, for example. However, things were later to
improve for the species.
3. ________
The future is by no means secure, though, and recent evidence suggests that the wildcat is
particularly vulnerable to local eradication, especially in the remoter parts of northern and western
Scotland. This is a cause for real concern, given that the animal in these areas have less contact with
domestic cats and are therefore purer.
4. ________
Part of the problem stems from the fact that accepted physical description of the species
originates from the selective nature of the examination process by the British Natural History Museum
at the start of the century, and this has been used as the type-definition for the animal ever since.
Animals that did not conform to that large blunt-tailed ‘tabby’ description were discarded as not being
wildcats. In other words, an artificial collection of specimens was built up, exhibiting the features
considered typical of the wildcat.
The current research aims to resolve this potential problem. It is attempting to find out whether
there are any physical features which characterize the so-called wild-living cats.
5. ________
But what of his lifestyle? Wildcat kittens are usually born in May/June in a secluded den,
secreted in a gap amongst boulders. Another favorite location is in the roots of a tree.
6. ________
Rabbits are a favorite prey, and some of the best areas to see wildcats are at rabbit warrens
close to the forest and moorland edge. Mice, small birds and even insects also form a large part of
the diet, and the animal may occasionally take young deer.
The wildcat is one of the Scottish Highlands’ most exciting animals. Catch a glimpse of one and the
memory will linger forever.
A. The recruitment of men to the armed forces during the conflict in Europe from 1914 to 1918 meant
there was very little persecution, since gamekeepers went off to fight. As the number of gamekeepers
decreased, the wildcat began to increase its range, recolonising many of its former haunts. Extinction
was narrowly averted.
B. The wildcat waits for a while in rapt concentration, ears twitching and eyes watching, seeing
everything and hearing everything, trying to detect the tell-tale movement of a vole or a mouse. But
there is nothing, and in another leap he disappears into the gloom.
C. The results, which are expected shortly, will be fascinating. But anyone who has seen a wildcat will
be in little doubt that there is indeed a unique and distinctive animal living in the Scottish Highlands,
whatever his background.
D. They probably used deciduous and coniferous woodland for shelter, particularly in winter, and
hunted over more open areas such as forest edge, open woodland, thickets and scrub, grassy areas
and marsh. The wildcat was probably driven into more mountainous areas by a combination of
deforestation and persecution.
E.As the animals emerge, their curiosity is aroused by every movement and rustle in the vegetation.
Later they will accompany their mother on hunting trips, learning quickly, and soon become adept
13
hunters themselves.
F. This is what makes many people think that the wildcat is a species in its own right. Research
currently being undertaken by Scottish Natural Heritage is investigating whether the wildcat really is
distinct from its home- living cousin, or whether it is nothing more than a wild-living form of the
domestic cat.
G. It is a typical image most folk have of the beast, but it is very much a false one, for the wildcat is
little more than a bigger version of the domestic cat, and probably shows his anger as often.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.

IV.WRITING
Part 1: Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence,
using the given word. Do not change the word given. You must you between three or six
words, including the word given.
1. I had only just arrived when they started firing questions at me. SCARCELY
____________________________________ when they started firing questions at me.
2. Expressing himself clearly is difficult for him.FINDS
He __________________________________himself clearly.
3. I am different from the other job candidates as I already have experience in this field. WHAT
The fact that I already have experience in this field _______________________the other job
candidates.
4. I would be very happy if our team won this match. WERE
I would be very happy, ________________________ this match.
5. At the meeting, the manager suggested a few ways to cut costs. FORWARD
A few ways to cut costs ______________________at the meeting.
Part 2: The graph below shows the number of books read by men and women at Blueberry
Public Library from 2011 to 2014.
Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make
comparisons where relevant. Write at least 150 words

14
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Part 3:
In many countries students take a gap year after finishing school and work or travel during
this period. Should students take a gap year before attending universities?

Write an essay of about 350 words to express your opinion and include any relevant examples from
your own knowledge or experience.

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_THE END_
16
 SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO TỈNH LÀO CAI ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH
HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM NĂM HỌC 2016-2017
(Hướng dẫn chấ m gồm 03 trang)
ĐÊ CHINH THƯC

II. LISTENING (50 POINTS) 0.2 points for EACH correct answer
Part 1:
1. (some) controversy 6.B
2. services 7.C
3. the left 8.A
4. late February 9.G
5. football ground 10.D
Part 2:
11. local charity 16. 1.50 / £1.5
12. balloons 17. 500
13. special number 18. C
14. canisters 19. B
15. 500 balloons 20.C
Part 3:
21.A 22.C 23.A 24.B 25.A
II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (30 POINTS) 0.1 point for EACH correct answer
Part 1:
1. B 2. C 3. A 4. D 5. D
6. A 7. C 8. C 9. B 10. C
Part 2:
0.1 point for EACH correct answer
0.05 point if the students can find the mistake but they cannot correct it.
Lines Mistakes Corrections

0 1 line lining
1. 2 as Like/ such as
2. 4 dominate dominated
3. 7 like than
4. 9 find finding
5. 11 economical economic
6. 15 mean means
Part 3:
1. strength 5. recommendation
2. loss 6. injury
3. significant 7. gradually
4. instructors 8. distances
Part 4:
1. up 2. off 3. out
4. down 5. for 6. over
III. READING 0.1 point for EACH correct answer
17
Part 1:
1.B 2.C 3.C 4.A
5.B 6.B 7.C 8.D
Part 2:
1. because 2. such 3. other 4. could/ may/ might
5. despite 6. if/ when/ whenever 7. nothing/ little 8.in
Part 3:
1.I 8. D
2.IV 9.B
3. VII 10.B
4.III 11. physical and mechanical
5.II 12. (car) manufacturers self-regulate
6. D 13. the (German) government
7.A
Part 4:
1.D 2.B 3.C 4.C 5.A 6.D
Part 5:
1.E 2.D 3.B/C 4.B/C 5.A
6.C 7.A/E 8.A/E 9.D
Part 6:
1.G 2.D 3.A 4.F 5.C 6.E
IV.WRITING
Part 1: 0.1 point for EACH correct answer
1. Scarcely had I arrived
2. finds it difficult to express
3. is what makes me different from
4. were our team to win
5.were put forward (by the managers)
Part 2: 1.5 pts
1. Completion: 0.2 pt
2. Content: 0.6 pts
- Cover the main information in the chart yet not go into too many details.
- Make general remarks and effective comparisons.
- The ideas are well organized
- The description is sensibly divided into paragraphs
4. Language: 0.5 pts
- Use a wide range of vocabulary and structure
- Good grammar
5. Punctuation and spelling: 0.2 pt
Part 3: 3.0 points
1. Task achievement : 1pts
-ALL requirements of the task are sufficently addressed
-ideas are edaquately supported and elaborated with relevant explantions, examples,
evidence, personal experience, etc.
2. Organisation: (1 pts)
- Ideas are well organized and presented with unity, cohesion and coherence.
18
 -The essay is well-structured
3. Language: (0.5 pts)
- Demonstrate of a wide range of vocabulary and structures.
- Good use of grammatical structures.
- Present the ideas with clarity.
4. Punctuations and spelling. (0.5pts)
V. SPEAKING
- Completion: 0.2
+ Length: 1-2 minutes: 0.05
+ Length: 2-3minutes: 0.1
+ Length: 3-4.30 minutes: 0.1.5
+ Length: 4.30-2 minutes: 0.2
- Content: 0.8
- Fluency: 0.4
- Accuracy: 0.4
- Pronunciation: 0.2
_THE END_

19
 SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO LÀO CAI KỲ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN THI HỌC SINH GIỎI QUỐC GIA
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC NĂM HỌC: 2016-2017

Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian thi: 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
Ngày thi: 15/10/2016 Số phách
Đề thi có 14 trang
Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu, kể cả từ điển.
Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm.

I. LISTENING (50 POINTS)

Part 1: You will hear an expert giving some advice on art appreciation. For questions 1-7, complete
sentences with a word or short phrase.
1. Remember that modern art began around the year _________________________________.
2. The aim of modern art was to rebel against _______________________________________.
3. You need to wear ______________ during your visit.
4. Never stand where the _______________ interfere with your appreciation of a painting.
5. Remember that _____________________ is taken extremely seriously in galleries.
6. You can get a better view by _____________ and using binoculars.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3.
4. 5. 6.

Part 2: You will hear a radio interview with Paul William, an expert in artificial intelligence (AI). For
questions 7-12, decide whether the following statements are true (T) or false (F).
7. Paul explains that predictions made about AI in the past proved to be a long way off-target. _______
8. According to Paul, most experts feel certain that AI’s full effects will not be seen for some time yet.
_______
9. Pauls feels that the comparison of AI and the arrival of the computer industry illustrates that computer
industry was more popular in its time than AI. _______
10. Paul believes people had little idea what impact new technology in the 1990s would have. _______
11. Paul is slightly worried by the fact that machines which have intelligence could eventually replace
humans in the workplace. _______
12. Paul finally concludes that science fiction is closer to reality than we think. _______
Your answers:
7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12.

Part 3: You will hear a talk by a man called William Bond about his work as a freelance musician. For
questions 13-20, complete the sentences with a word or short phrase.
William had some highly lucrative work at a local school, advising them about the
13.____________________ of students’ playing or singing.
William likens the personal concerts he’s given to the 14. ____________ that business people do.
An opera project for homeless people that William got involved in was paid for by 15.____________.
The homeless people themselves indicated what they called the 16. ‘ _______________’ that William should
try to capture in the music.
William says the work was hard for him, and likens the plot he had to work with to a 17. _____________.
William says the opera featured many different types of music and made him see 18. ___________ music
in a new light.

1
When talking about the opera’s themes, William says one of the contributors sings about imagining himself
in a 19. __________________.
The background compilation accompanying some water songs featured a 20. _____________ which was
praised by the audience.
Your answers:
13. 17.
14. 18.
15. 19.
16. 20.
Part 4: You will hear part of a discussion programme in which a businessman called David and a
linguist called Ivana are speaking about the theme of symbols. For questions 21-25, choose the
correct answer A, B, C or D which best fits what you hear.
21. The view is expressed that brands should _______
A. symbolise something people enjoy.
B. seek to utilise something visually unusual.
C. learn to be more co-operative with each other.
D. represent more than just a business proposition.
22. When talking about globolisation both speakers agree that _______
A. the Internet has a huge influence.
B. the positive symbols outweigh the negative ones.
C. major sporting events are well-meaning but flawed.
D. people are right to take a benevolent view.
23. What point does Ivana make about language?
A. Some languages are particularly disposed towards symbols.
B. Writers use symbols in the same way as everyone else.
C. There is some debate as to what constitutes a symbol.
D. Speakers of a language use symbols without realising it.
24. What does David say about the symbol in his hockey team’s name?
A. It should really be changed.
B. It’s somewhat misleading.
C. It was initialliy misinterpreted.
D. It puts pressure on the team.
25. What do both speakers find absurb about colour symbolism and cars?
A. the idea that a red car is any easier to see
B. the notion of linking a driver’s character with car colour
C. the contradictory arguments used by one insurer
D. the suggestion that insurers are influenced by cultural symbols.
Your answers:
21. 22. 23. 24. 25.

I. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (30 POINTS)

Part 1: Choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence.
1. After the church service, several people………………….outside to chat.
A. loitered B. lagged C. lingered D. lapsed
2. She decided to…………….her German by attending an evening course.
A. brush up B. patch up C. polish off D. dust off
3. It ……………during our conversation that Anita was extremely unhappy.
A. emanated B. revealed C. divulged D. emerged
4. She was carrying such an enormous……………………suitcase that she could barely get it up the two
steps to the hotel entrance.
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A.unworthy B.unwieldy C. unwisely D. unwordly
5. The company made a good profit in its first year but now it’s over 10 thousand pounds in the…………..
A. black B. blue C. green D. red
6. He had such a bad stomachache that he was __________ with pain.
A. bent down B. folded over C. snapped off D. doubled up
7. Are you certain that you are cut out for that kind of job?
A. are determined to take B. don’t want to take
C. are offered D. have necessary skills for
8. Peter is very tall. He really __________ from the rest of his class.
A. stands out B. sits out C. sits up D. stands up
9. I don’t object to people being vegetarians, but it gets on my nerves when they’re ………….about it.
A. self-centred B. self-righteous C. self-deprecating D. self-sufficient
10. It’s always…………………….me as odd that Mike should go off to work so late in the day.
A. hit B. knock C. struck D. smacked
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Part 2: The passage below contains 6 errors. For questions 1-6, underline the errors and write their
correction in the corresponding numbered boxes.

A great majority of adults in the industrial world – in fact, about 90 per cent – will be married some
time in their lives. Of those who do not, some may choose to remain single, but others will have no choice.
An alarming number who marry will divorce, but this is because marriage itself has lost its attraction - instead
people give up particular relationships and try back. For example, of the four out of ten American marriages
that possibly end up divorce, 80 per cent are preludes to further unions. Every society has its own definition
of what a perfect marriage it should be. In the Western world, it seems that a husband and wife have a
perfect marriage if they love each other, have no other sexual partner, display trust, loyalty and intimacy,
confide in each other, show mutual respect, are willing to listen to their partner’s concern and agree on their
children’s up-bringing. However, from time to time the balance of social expectations shifts. For example, a
study carried out in 1986 showed that 74 per cent of American couples rate ‘equality in the relationship’ an
important component of marriage. We can be fairly sure that their great-grandparents (and particularly their
great-grandfathers) did not place the same value in this.

Your answers:
No Mistakes Correction
1
2
3
4
5
6

Part 3: For questions 1-8, read the text below. Use the word given in capitals to form a word that fits
in the space in the same line.
There is an example at the beginning (0) - moving

Collecting Books

We stayed with a friend last weekend who is (0) moving (MOVE) from a large house to a small flat, in other
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words he is (1)……………..(SIZE). One aspect of this, inevitably, is that the possessions he has in his
present large house have to be reduced in order to fit his new home. As we watched, I realised that
(2)…………(MAN) comes in two types: those who can throw things away, and those who cannot.
My friend is in the former category. I am in the second. The process became especially
(3)…………….(PROBLEM) when he began sorting out his books. Even for him the decisions he had to make
were not (4)………………….(FREQUENT) difficult. He has enough judgement not to get rid of great works
of literature or serious works of (5)………….(REFER). But, inevitably, it wasn’t all straightforward and there
were a great many (6)………..(BORDER) decisions to be made. My own home is full of books and, in and
ideal world I would build and extension simply to have the space for more. My wife thinks we cannot afford
this but if (7)…………(MIRACLE) I manage to bring her round to my way of thinking, then I’ll be on the phone
to the builders in an instant. I don’t know what I’d do if I had the (8)…………….(FORTUNE) to have to move
somewhere smaller.
Your answers:
1. 5.
2. 6.
3. 7.
4. 8.
Part 4: For questions 1-6, fill in the gaps in the following sentences with suitable particles. Write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.
1. The suspect was released from prison…………………..bail.
2. All our friends rallied…………to help us finish the packing.
3. The police have charged her………….driving without due care and attention.
4. He shot the bird while it was ………………….the wing.
5. The spy gained access to the secret files by passing himself…………….as a government official.
6. I’m afraid I can’t come to the concert with you. I’m…………..to my ears in work this week.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.

III. READING (50 POINTS)

Part 1: For questions 1-10, read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space.
Use only one word in each space. There is an example at the beginning (0).
Example: 0 – without

THE WAYS WE HAVE CHANGED

It is hard for almost everyone, but especially the young, to imagine a world (0) without television. We have
(1)……………….to expect that all the important news of the day, worldwide, will be there (2)…………the
touch of a button. In times gone by, (3)……………..the literate knew what was going on in the world, and
then only after a long delay. But now it is possible for any of us to watch world events as they occur.
(4)…………has shortened the distance that divides our private lives from the outside world to
(5)…………….an extent as television.
Time and (6)………….., television transports us to the habitats of rare animals, and we may identify with
them. Concern for damage to the environment extends far and (7)……………………….We worry about the
influence of technology not just in our cities but on us as people. Increasingly, we see (8)…………….as part
of the planet rather than in isolation.
(9)………………….was once the prerogative of scholars is now accessible to countless people through the
medium of television (10)……………this form of popular education can be regarded as superficial, it
represents a broadening of knowledge.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

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Part 2: For questions 1-14, read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each
gap.

From the moment they leave the sercurity of their accustomed environment, travelers are at risk.
(1)__________ arise not just from strange diseases they meet on their travels but from other factors too:
seemingly uninspiring home (2)__________such as safe water supplies sanitation and public hygiene
controls, legal safety standards for motor vehicles and road (3)__________, are easily taken for granted,
but simply do not exist in many countries. Environmental factors such as arduous conditions, (4)__________
climate, and high altitude may constitute a danger; and so may travelers’ own behavior, free from the
(5)__________of the daily routine, and determined to have a good time with scants (6)__________ for the
consequences.
When illness or injurry occur abroad, travelers are again at a disadvantage–from (7)__________ to
communicate with a doctor on account of language or cultural difficulties, or being unable to find a doctor
owing to (8)__________ of the (9)__________ medical system. There may be a complete (10) __________
of skilled medical care, or of medical facilities of a (11)__________ acceptable to travelers from
technologically sophisticated countries.
When symptoms of an illness (12) __________ abroad do not appear until after return home a final hazard
becomes apparent: the symptoms may be (13)__________, may pass (14)__________ and the correct
diagnosis may not be considered until it is too late.
1. A. Questions B. Changes C. Hazards D. Complications
2. A. comforts B. helps C. cares D. aids
3. A. correction B. maintenance C. improvement D. quality
4. A. worsening B. unusual C. sudden D. adverse
5. A. restraints B. assurances C. certainties D. reprieve
6. A. knowledge B. awareness C. regard D. need
7. A. inability B. difficulty C. inflexibility D. timidity
8. A. misfire B. doubt C. ignorance D. disbelief
9. A. local B. district C. neighborhood D. area
10. A. breakdown B. failure C. disruption D. absence
11. A. type B. design C. standard D. degree
12. A. received B. formed C. gained D. acquired
13. A. unfamiliar B. unlikely C. unpleasant D. uncovered
14. A. unrecognized B. unknown C. unforeseen D. unearthed

Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.
8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14.

Part 3: Read the article below and answer the questions 1 to 13.

SPACE: THE FINAL ARCHAEOLOGICAL FRONTIER

Space travel may still have a long way to go, but the notion of archaeological research and heritage
management in space is already concerning scientists and environmentalists.

In 1993, University of Hawaii’s anthropologist Ben Finney, who for much of his career has studied
the technology once used by Polynesians to colonize islands in the Pacific, suggested that it would not be
premature to begin thinking about the archaeology of Russian and American aerospace sites on the Moon
and Mars. Finney pointed out that just as today’s scholars use archaeological records to investigate how
Polynesians diverged culturally as they explored the Pacific, archaeologists will someday study off-Earth
sites to trace the development of humans in space. He realized that it was unlikely anyone would be able to
conduct fieldwork in the near future, but he was convinced that one day such work would be done.
There is a growing awareness, however, that it won’t be long before both corporate adventurers and
space tourists reach the Moon and Mars. There is a wealth of important archaeological sites from the history
of space exploration on the Moon and Mars and measures need to be taken to protect these sites. In addition
to the threat from profit-seeking corporations, scholars cite other potentially destructive forces such as
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souvenir hunting and unmonitored scientific sampling, as has already occurred in explorations of remote
Polar Regions. Already in 1999 one company was proposing a robotic lunar rover mission beginning at the
site of Tranquility Base and rumbling across the Moon from one archaeological site to another, from the
wreck of the Ranger 8 probe to Apollo 17’s landing site. The mission, which would leave vehicle tyre-marks
all over some of the most famous sites on the Moon, was promoted as a form of theme-park entertainment.
According to the vaguely worded United Nations Outer Space Treaty of 1967, what it terms “space junk”
remains the property of the country that sent the craft or probe into space. But the treaty doesn’t explicitly
address protection of sites like Tranquility Base, and equating the remains of human exploration of the
heavens with “space junk” leaves them vulnerable to scavengers. Another problem arises through other
international treaties proclaiming that land in space cannot be owned by any country or individual. This
presents some interesting dilemmas for the aspiring manager of extraterrestrial cultural resources. Does the
US own Neil Armstrong’s famous first footprints on the Moon but not the lunar dust in which they were
recorded? Surely those footprints are as important in the story of human development as those left by
hominids at Lactoli, Tanzania. But unlike the Lactoli prints, which have survived for 3.5 million years encased
in cement-like ash, those at Tranquility Base could be swept away with a casual brush of a space tourist’s
hand. To deal with problems like these, it may be time to look to innovative international administrative
structures for the preservation of historic remains on the new frontier.
The Moon, with its wealth of sites, will surely be the first destination of archaeologists trained to work
in space. But any young scholars hoping to claim the mantle of history’s first lunar archaelogist will be
disapointed. That distinction is already taken.
On November 19, 1969, astronauts Charles Conrad and Alan Bean made a difficult manual landing of the
Apollo 12 lunar module in the Moon’s Ocean of Storms, just a few hundred feet from an unmanned probe,
Surveyor 3, which had landed in a crater on April 19, 1967. Unrecognised at the time, this was an important
moment in the history of science. Bean and Conrad were about to conduct the first archaeological studies
on the Moon.
After the obligatory planting of the American flag and some geological sampling, Conrad and Bean
made their way to Surveyor 3. They observed that the probe had bounced after touchdown and carefully
photographed the impressions made by its footpads. The whole spacecraft was covered in dust, perhaps
kicked up by the landing.
The astronaut-archaelogists carefully removed the probe’s television camera, remote sampling arm, and
pieces of tubing. They bagged and labelled these artefacts, and stowed them on board their lunar module.
On their return to Earth, they passed them on to the Daveson Space Center in Houston Texas, and the
Hughes Air and Space Corporation El Segundo, California. There, scientists analysed the changes in these
aerospace artefacts.
One result of the analysis astonished them. A fragment of the television camera revealed evidence
of the bacteria Streptococcus mitis. For a moment it was thought Conrad and Bean had discovered evidence
for life on the Moon, but after further research the real explanation became apparent. While the camera was
being installed in the probe prior to the launch, someone sneezed on it. The resulting bacteria had travelled
to the Moon, remained in an alternating freezing/boiling vacuum for more than two years, and returned
promptly to life upon reaching the safety of a laboratory back on Earth.
The finding that not even the vastness of space can stop humans from spreading a sore throat was
an unexpected spin-off. But the artefacts brought back by Bean and Conrad have a broader significance.
Simple as they may seem, they provide the first example of extraterrestrial archaeology and – perhaps more
significant for the history of the discipline – formational archaeology, the study of environmental and cultural
forces upon the life history of human artefacts in space.
Questions 1-6
Complete each sentence with the correct ending A-H from the box below. Then, write your answer in the
box given.
1. Ben Finney’s main academic work investigates the way that…….
2. Ben Finney thought that in the long term…………
3. Commercial pressures mean that in the immediate future……..
4. Academics are concerned by the fact that in isolated regions on Earth,………

6
5. One problem with the 1967 UN treaty is that……..
6. The wording of legal agreements over ownership of land in space means………

A. activities of tourists and scientists have harmed the environment.

B. some sites in space could be important in the history of space exploration.
C. vehicles used for tourism have polluted the environment.
D. it may be unclear who has responsibility for historic human footprints.
E. past explorers used technology in order to find new places to live.
F. man-made objects left in space are regarded as rubbish.
G. astronauts may need to work more closely with archaeologists.
Important sites on the Moon may be under threat

Question 7-11
Complete the flow chart below
Choose NO MORE THAN ONE WORD from the passage for each answer.

During the assembly of the Surveyor 3 probe, someone (1)………..…..on a TV camera.

The TV camera was carried to the Moon on Surveyor 3

The TV camera remained on the Moon for over (2)……………………….years.

Apollo 12 astronauts (3)………………………….the TV camera.

The TV camera was returned to Earth for (4)…………………………..

The Streptococcus mitis bacteria were found.

The theory that this suggested there was (5)………....…….on the Moon was rejected.

Scientists concluded that the bacteria can survive lunar condition.

Question 12-13: Choose TWO letters A-E

The TWO main purposes of the writer of this text are to explain
A. The reasons why space archaeology is not possible.
B. The dangers that could follow from contamination of objects from space
C. The need to set up careful controls over space tourism.
D. The need to preserve historic sites and objects in space.
E. The possible cultural effects of space travel.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.
8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13.

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Part 4: You are going to read an article about human behaviour. Six paragraphs have been
removed from the text. Choose from the paragraphs A-G the one which fits each gap (1-6). There is
one extra paragraph which you do not need to use.

HUMAN BEHAVIOUR

Unless you’re a loner, you’re probably a member of many different groups. Some are long lasting, like your
family, while others, such as a football crowd, are temporary. Every group functions in different ways but
there are still some common psychological features to any group.

1.

Being part of a group changes the way you behave. The presence of others has a generally arousing
effect on the nervous system. This is natural – you don’t know what they will do. They may move about,
speak to you, or even attack you, and your brain has to pay attention to all these messages. Having others
around is just distracting. It divides your attention, so you can’t focus on the task in hand.

2.

But when it comes to complex tasks, the prospect of not being evaluated may free you from anxiety, so
encouraging you to perform better. To test this, psychologists asked volunteers to carry out a complex
computer task in separate rooms. Some were told performance would be evaluated individually – causing
performance anxiety – while others were told the results would be averaged with the rest of the group. As
expected, the second group did better than the first.

3.

The problems becomes even worse when individuals are disguised with war paint or uniforms. Analysis
shows that the more people there are in a mob, the greater the antisocial behaviour. Being “submerged”
within a group does have many negative connotations but it’s not always a bad thing. Instead of thinking
about a rowdy mob, think of relaxing, dancing and enjoying yourself at a party when you are also just a
part of the crowd.

4.

But surprisingly, research has shown that the use of this technique by group isn’t that effective in either the
number or quality of ideas generated. You get better results if you set people to work individually on a
problem. We also tend to assume that decisions made by groups are better than those made by
individuals, which is why we form committees.

5.

But any group can get a decision badly wrong, because their thought processes can go awry. This is a
process psychologists call “groupthink”. A close-knit group of advisers isolated from argument and
criticism can grow to believe they can do no wrong. The group then becomes more important than the
individuals who are part of it. Further, a leadership style which concentrates on the group rather than the
individual can contribute to this.
6.

Many, but not all, leaders show dominance in the group. But the dominant person the group doesn’t
always make the best leader, and it isn’t necessarily true that having the smartest people always makes
for the most successful group.

8
A. This lack of individual accountability may lead to people letting go of their inhibitions – a process known
as “deindividuation”. Sometimes this is dangerous, releasing violent and impulsive behaviours that
individuals would never dream of indulging in alone.
B. They have a need for power, characterised by talking a lot, wanting to be listened to and to make
decisions. In a group it can be easy to spot the dominant people. They make eye contact, point and even
touch people but don’t encourage return gestures. Such behaviour studies have been key in shaping
bussiness organisation.
C. For example, in general, human are social animals, that’s why we get together in groups in the first
place. Important elements of our individual identity come from being part of a group. Most people enjoy
being in a group – It’s a way of forming emotionally satisfying relationships.
D. But it has to be a carefully selected team, not a randomly generated group, it creative decisions are to
be made. In fact, theory on team building has shown that it is better if people work in small teams of
complementary pairs. Big teams don’t get anything done, even though people like them.
E. For a group and its behaviour are shaped by who is in charge and the roles the other members play. A
group front man or woman is persuasive, not directive, communicates and speaks clearly, listens well and
appeals to group members’ emotions and feelings as well as thoughts and ideas.
F. So, how does all this stimulation affect achievement? It has been argued that people do better on
simple well-rehearsed activities when they’re with others than when they are alone. Also, if their individual
efforts within the group are not being monitored, there’s a tendency to relax and merge into the crowd.
G. Another positive feature of groups is that they generate ideas and opinions, and use these to make
decisions. That’s why the modern trend in teaching is for students to work in small groups to prepare
presentations and why brainstorming is so popular in the work context.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.

Part 5: You are going to read a newspaper article. For question 1-7, choose the answer (A, B, C OR
D) which you think fits best according to the text.

No one can claim such mastery of the fantasy block buster sound as British film-music composer
John Williams. It’s a style of music he did much to define in Star Wars and then for many other films for the
director Steven Spielberg. There are distinctive melodies which give the feeling of flying, snatches of music
to represent different characters, and intricate illustrative details. In addition, everything follows the
symphonic style of hundred years ago. It’s what the film industry in Hollywood wants, it’s what John Williams
supplies, and what audiences everywhere expect.
Can we call it an art, or is it an interesting artefact, a sort of factory product? For the cinema-goer sitting with
a popcorn bag the question doesn’t arise. But since film music now spreads to a different audience far
outside cinemas, on lavishly promoted soundtrack CDs and serious concert platforms, it may be interesting
to answer the question.
Composers themselves have expressed very diverse opinions. Interviewed some years ago,
Williams himself proudly referred to film music as “the opera of the 20th century”. On the other hand, Richard
Rodney Bennett, the composer of the music for the film Murder on the Orient Express, declared that “in
writing film music one is really using only a sixth of one’s musical mind”. Everyone agrees on one point
though: the rewards are pleasingly high. There are royalties. And if you hit the right buttons you can spin off
into the lucrative sideline of a concert career, regularly mounting live performances of film compositions.
But if you consider the working conditions that composers put up with, superficially the odds do seem
stacked against film music being classed as art. First of all, film music sis composed in snippets, timed to
the second, and written after the film is shot. Then there are insane deadlines – like having five days to
compose 50 minutes of music. Next, the composer has to live with the fact that he/she wields no artistic
control. Finally, the ultimate insult is that what is written struggles to get itself noticed against a background
of dialogue, squeals, and every possible visual delight from cartoon character Shrek’s green body to actor
Tom Cruise’s chin. It can’t be art, can it?
But think of the German composer Bach in the eighteenth century, satisfying his employers by writing
one cantata a week. Few composers can write without a commission. And for the true artist, rules and
restrictions stimulate. Film scoring can sharpen a composer’s technique, encourage experimentation. The
composer Vaughan Williams was never quite the same again after his work on the film Scott of the Antarctic
caused him to branch into percussion instruments as a way of capturing a frozen landscape.
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Film music can be art then, and has been, in fits and starts. The frustrating thing is that many film producers
have limited expectations of what film music can be. Once the age of silent movies was over and talkies
arrived, music became an integral part of the projected film and anything was possible. Music didn’t have to
be poured over the images like mayonnaise; it could argue with them, puncture them with irony, or rudely
interrupt. In Europe, various composers such as Shostakovich and Hanns Eiler experimented with timbre
and form, showing Hollywood (at the time still stuck with the sounds of a late nineteen-century symphony
orchestra beavering away) that innovative techniques were possible.
But even in Hollywood, art raised its head. All film composers look up to Bernard Herrmann, a giant who
colored each score with a different sound and let his music snake through the images in unconventional
ways. The power of the film Vertigo lies not only in the director’s images but in Herrmann’s worried woodwind
and turbulent strings and the weird harp solo that dog characters’ footsteps. His scores are usually so
interwoven with their films that it’s a futile task trying to carve the music into selections for concert use.
Herrmann proves that it’s even possible to write film scores in bulk without hurtling into an artistic decline.
So, what’s my conclusion? Art or factory product? Both in fact, although there’s rather more of the
factory product than I would like at times.

1. What point is the writer making about John Williams’ music in the first paragraph?
A. It is similar to that produced by other composers.
B. It is too old-fashion to remain popular for long
C. It has a better reputation in Hollywood than elsewhere
D. It has certain characteristics that are easy to identify.
2. In the second paragraph, what does the writer imply about the attitude of cinema-goers to film
music?
A. They are only interested in it if they can purchase the CD
B. They perceive it as being mass-produced
C. They are not concerned about whether it has artistic merit
D. They feel music is an important part of the cinema experience.
3. According to the writer, which view of film music do all composers share?
A. They consider that it is a worthy outlet for their talents
B. They appreciate the financial gains they make from it.
C. They need it to supplement their main source of income.
D. They can use it as a way into an alternative career.
4. According to the writer, what is the worst aspect of a film composer’s working conditions?
A. The music has to be composed after the film is completed
B. The deadlines set for the composer cannot be achieved.
C. The music has to compete for attention with other elements of the film.
D. The composer has no control over how the music is used.
5. The writer compares modern film composers with Bach to show that
A. some composers work better under pressure
B. composers have unreasonable demands imposed on them.
C. composers must aim to please their employers.
D. All composers need some sort of sponsorship.
6. What point is made about Hollywood film music when the “talkies” arrived?
A. It used less well-known symphony orchestras than before.
B. it did not constitute a major part of the final production.
C. It didn’t generally make use of new ideas.
D. It was not considered to make an artistic contribution to the film
7. What does the writer say is special about Bernard Herrmann’s music?
A. it is of high quality because he composed very little.
B. It has a distinctive style which evokes the animal world.
C. It is totally integrated with the visual element of the film.
D. It has considerable potential for concert performance.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

10
IV. WRITING (50 POINTS)
Part 1: Read the following passage and use your own words to summarise it. You MUST NOT copy or
rewrite the original. Your summary should be about 100 words long.

Cultural Evolution

The history of life is the story of biological evolution on a changing planet, and at no time has change ever
been as rapid as in the age of humans. The evolution of humans and their culture has had enormous
consequences, making humans a new force in the history of life.
Cultural evolution has occurred in stages, beginning with the nomads who hunted and gathered food on the
African grasslands two million years ago. These hunter-gatherers made tools, organised communal
activities, and divided labour. Next came the development of agriculture in several parts of the world 10 to
15 thousand years ago. Agriculture led to permanent settlements, the first cities, and trade among societies.
An important cultural leap was the Industrial Revolution, which began in the eighteenth century. Since then,
new technology has escalated exponentially, and so has the human impact on the planet.
Throughout this cultural evolution, from simple hunter-gatherers to high-tech societies, humans have not
changed much biologically. Our knowledge is stored not in our genes but in the product of thousands of
years of human experience. Cultural evolution has enabled us to defy our physical limitations and shortcut
biological evolution. We no longer have to wait to adapt to our environment through natural selection; we
simply change the environment to meet our needs. We are the dominants species of life and bring
environmental change wherever we go.
Your answer:
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
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……………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

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Part 2: Graph writing
This graph illustrates the number of Chinese, Japanese and Indian students who enrolled at North
Dean University over a five-year period. Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the
main features, and make comparison where relevant.
Write at least 150 words.

Your answer:

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
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Part 3: Essay writing
In recent year, Vietnam has been facing the fact that there is an increasing number of university
graduates failing to get a job. In your opinion, what are the reasons of this fact and how to tackle
this problem?
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own experience.
Your essay should be about 250 -300 words.

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_THE END_

_
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO LÀO CAI KỲ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN THI HỌC SINH GIỎI QUỐC GIA
HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM NĂM HỌC: 2016-2017
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Môn: Tiếng Anh

14
I. LISTENING (50 POINTS) 2 pts cho 1 câu đúng
Part 1: You will hear an expert giving some advice on art appreciation. For questions 1-6, complete
sentences with a word or short phrase.
1. 1800/ eighteen hundred/ eighteen-hundred 2. (past) traditions 3. comfortable shoes
4. spotlights 5. security 6. standing back
Part 2: You will hear a radio interview with Paul William, an expert in artificial intelligence (AI). For
questions 7-12, decide whether the following statements are true (T) or false (F).
7. T 8. T 9. F 10.T 11.T 12.F
Part 3: You will hear a talk by a man called William Bond about his work as a freelance musician. For
questions 13-20, complete the sentences with a word or short phrase.
13. assessment 17. dream
14. networking 18. rap
15. the Arts Council 19. rowing boat
16. energy 20. dripping tap
Part 4: You will hear part of a discussion programme in which a businessman called David and a
linguist called Ivana are speaking about the theme of symvbols. For questions 21-25, choose the
correct answer A, B, C or D which best fits what you hear.
21.D 22.A 23.D 24.B 25.B

II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (30 POINTS) 1 pt cho 1 câu đúng

Question 1:(10 pts)
1. C 2. A 3. D 4. B 5. D
6. D 7. D 8. A 9. B 10. C
Question 2:
No Mistakes Correction
1 industrial industrialised
2 Some time At some time
3 is Is not
4 back again
5 divorce In divorce
6 in on
Question 3:

1.downsizing 5. reference
2. mankind/humankind/humanity 6. borderline
3. problematic 7.miraculously
4.infrequently 8. misfortune
Question 4:

1. on 2.round/around 3. with 4. on 5. off 6. up

III. READING (50 POINTS) 1 pt cho 1 câu đúng

Part 1: For questions 1-10, read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space.
Use only one word in each space.

1. come/learnt/learned 2. at 3. only 4. nothing 5. such

15
6. again 7. wide 8. ourselves 9. what 10. Although/Though/While/Whilst

Part 2: Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap.

1. C 2. A 3. B 4.D 5. A 6. C 7. A
8. C 9. A 10. D 11. C 12. D 13. A 14. A

Part 3: Read the article below and answer the questions 1 to 13.

1. E 2. B 3. H 4. A 5. F
6. D 7. sneezed 8. two/2 9. removed 10. analysis
11. life 12. C 13. D

Part 4: You are going to read an article about human behaviour. Six paragraphs have been
removed from the text. Choose from the paragraphs A-G the one which fits each gap (1-6). There is
one extra paragraph which you do not need to use

1.C 2. F 3.A 4.G 5.D 6.E

Part 5: You are going to read a newspaper article. For question 1-7, choose the answer (A, B, C OR
D) which you think fits best according to the text.

1.D 2.C 3.B 4.C 5.A 6.C 7.C

IV. WRITING (50 POINTS)

PART 1: 10 Pts
Suggested answer:
Cultural evolution has made humans a new force in the history of life. There have been several stages
in the evolution of human culture. The first stage started with the activities of hunter-gatherers who set
up the prehistoric communities and arrange the labour force. The next move is the development of
argriculture which leaded to the formation of society and the exchanging of food and services among
people. This stage was later followed by the prosperity of Industrial Revolution, started in eighteenth
century. With the rapid advance of Human technology, the human role in environmental change has
been increasing considerablly. Cultural evolution has allowed humans to change their environment,
thus avoiding the need for biological evolution. (116)
1. Completion: 1 pts
2. Content: 3 pts
- Cover the main ideas of the text
- Make a coherent and cohesion summary.
3. Organisation: 2 pts
- The ideas are well organized
4. Language: 3 pts
- Use a wide range of vocabulary and structure
- Good grammar
5. Punctuation and spelling: 1 pt
PART 2: 15 pts
1. Completion: 1 pts
2. Content: 5 pts
- Cover the main information in the chart yet not go into too many details.
- Make general remarks and effective comparisons.
3. Organisation: 3 pts
- The ideas are well organized
- The description is sensibly divided into paragraphs
4. Language: 5 pts
16
- Use a wide range of vocabulary and structure
- Good grammar
5. Punctuation and spelling: 1 pt
PART 3: 25 pts
1. Completion: (2 pt.)
2. Content: (8 pts)
Provide relevant and convincing ideas about the topic, supported by specific example and/or reasonable
justification.
3. Organisation: (6 pts)
- Ideas are well organized and presented with unity, cohesion and coherence.
4. Language: (6 pts)
- Demonstrate of a wide range of vocabulary and structures.
- Good use of grammatical structures.
- Present the ideas with clarity.
5. Punctuations and spelling. (3 pts)

_THE END_

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO LÀO CAI KỲ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN THI HỌC SINH GIỎI QUỐC GIA
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC NĂM HỌC: 2016-2017
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu, Kỹ năng: NÓI
kể cả từ điển. Ngày thi: 15/10/2016
Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm.

Name:…………………………………..……………………………………………………………………………….
You have 5 minutes to sketch out what you are going to say. You should prepare notes instead of full
sentences and try to speak as naturally as possible. Your talking time should not exceed 5 minutes.

Question 1 (20 points):

Many people think public speaking is one of the most importantly valued skills that an individual can
possess. Others think that it is not necessary in our life at all. What is your opinion?
You can take notes here.
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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO LÀO CAI KỲ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN THI HỌC SINH GIỎI QUỐC GIA
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC NĂM HỌC: 2016-2017
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu, Kỹ năng: NÓI
kể cả từ điển. Ngày thi: 15/10/2016
Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm.

Name:…………………………………..……………………………………………………………………………….

You have 5 minutes to sketch out what you are going to say. You should prepare notes instead of full
sentences and try to speak as naturally as possible. Your talking time should not exceed 5 minutes.

Question 2 (20 points):

A large number of people think that nowadays women should not work hard to earn their living; they
should spend more time in caring for their families.
To what extend do you agree or disagree with this opinion?

You can take notes here.

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19
 SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO LÀO CAI KỲ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN THI HỌC SINH GIỎI QUỐC GIA
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC NĂM HỌC: 2016-2017
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu, Kỹ năng: NÓI
kể cả từ điển. Ngày thi: 15/10/2016
Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm.

Name:…………………………………..……………………………………………………………………………….

You have 5 minutes to sketch out what you are going to say. You should prepare notes instead of full
sentences and try to speak as naturally as possible. Your talking time should not exceed 5 minutes.

Question 3 (20 points):

School violence is one of the social issues these days that is demanding corrective attention every
passing day. What do you think?
You can take notes here.
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20
 SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO LÀO CAI KỲ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN THI HỌC SINH GIỎI QUỐC GIA
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC NĂM HỌC: 2016-2017
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu, Kỹ năng: NÓI
kể cả từ điển. Ngày thi: 15/10/2016
Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm.

Name:…………………………………..……………………………………………………………………………….

You have 5 minutes to sketch out what you are going to say. You should prepare notes instead of full
sentences and try to speak as naturally as possible. Your talking time should not exceed 5 minutes.

Question 4 (20 points):

What is a very important skill a person should learn in order to be successful in the world today? Choose
one skill and use specific reasons and examples to support your answer.
You can take notes here.
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21
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 SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO LÀO CAI KỲ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN THI HỌC SINH GIỎI QUỐC GIA
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC NĂM HỌC: 2016-2017
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu, Kỹ năng: NÓI
kể cả từ điển. Ngày thi: 15/10/2016
Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm.

Name:…………………………………..……………………………………………………………………………….
You have 5 minutes to sketch out what you are going to say. You should prepare notes instead of full
sentences and try to speak as naturally as possible. Your talking time should not exceed 5 minutes.

Question 5 (20 points):

“After graduating from high school, some young people decide to start working right away instead of
going to university”.
What are the advantages and disadvantages for young people who decide to do this?
You can take notes here.
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23
 SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO LÀO CAI KỲ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN THI HỌC SINH GIỎI QUỐC GIA
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC NĂM HỌC: 2016-2017
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu, Kỹ năng: NÓI
kể cả từ điển. Ngày thi: 15/10/2016
Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm.

Name:…………………………………..……………………………………………………………………………….
You have 5 minutes to sketch out what you are going to say. You should prepare notes instead of full
sentences and try to speak as naturally as possible. Your talking time should not exceed 5 minutes.

Question 6 (20 points):

Do you agree with the following statement? Young people today do not give enough time to help their
community? Use specific reasons and examples to support your ideas.
You can take notes here.
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24
 SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO LÀO CAI KỲ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN THI HỌC SINH GIỎI QUỐC GIA
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC NĂM HỌC: 2016-2017
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu, Kỹ năng: NÓI
kể cả từ điển. Ngày thi: 15/10/2016
Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm.

Name:…………………………………..……………………………………………………………………………….
You have 5 minutes to sketch out what you are going to say. You should prepare notes instead of full
sentences and try to speak as naturally as possible. Your talking time should not exceed 5 minutes.

Question 7 (20 points):

Books are the best source of knowledge.
To what extent do you agree or disagree with the statement?
You can take notes here.
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 SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO LÀO CAI KỲ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN THI HỌC SINH GIỎI QUỐC GIA
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC NĂM HỌC: 2016-2017
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu, Kỹ năng: NÓI
kể cả từ điển. Ngày thi: 15/10/2016
Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm.

Name:…………………………………..……………………………………………………………………………….
You have 5 minutes to sketch out what you are going to say. You should prepare notes instead of full
sentences and try to speak as naturally as possible. Your talking time should not exceed 5 minutes.

Question 8 (20 points):

With the considerable benefits computers and internet bring about, they can completely replace the
traditional role of a teacher. Do you agree with this statement?
You can take notes here.
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26
 SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO LÀO CAI KỲ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN THI HỌC SINH GIỎI QUỐC GIA
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC NĂM HỌC: 2016-2017
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu, Kỹ năng: NÓI
kể cả từ điển. Ngày thi: 15/10/2016
Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm.

Name:…………………………………..……………………………………………………………………………….
You have 5 minutes to sketch out what you are going to say. You should prepare notes instead of full
sentences and try to speak as naturally as possible. Your talking time should not exceed 5 minutes.

Question 9 (20 points):

Do you agree or disagree with the following statement? Classmates are a more important influence than
parents on a child’s success at school.
Use specific reasons and examples to support your opinion.
You can take notes here.
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END________

27
 SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO LÀO CAI KỲ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN THI HỌC SINH GIỎI QUỐC GIA
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC NĂM HỌC: 2016-2017
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu, Kỹ năng: NÓI
kể cả từ điển. Ngày thi: 15/10/2016
Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm.

Name:…………………………………..……………………………………………………………………………….
You have 5 minutes to sketch out what you are going to say. You should prepare notes instead of full
sentences and try to speak as naturally as possible. Your talking time should not exceed 5 minutes.

Question 10 (20 points):

Some think students can learn more effectively in groups, while others believe they should study alone.
What is your point of view?
You can take notes here.
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28
 UBND TỈNH BẮC NINH ĐỀ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO DỰ THI HSG QUỐC GIA THPT NĂM 2017
Môn thi: Tiếng Anh
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Thời gian: 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
Ngày thi: 12 tháng 10 năm 2016

Điểm bài thi Giám khảo 1 Giám khảo 2 Số phách

Bằng số: Họ tên: Họ tên:

Bằng chữ: Chữ ký: Chữ ký:

* Ghi chú: - Đề thi gồm 15 trang. Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào đề thi.
- Thí sinh không được sử dụng từ điển. Giám thị coi thi không giải thích gì thêm.

SECTION I: LISTENING (50 points)

HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU
• Bài nghe gồm 4 phần, mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, mở đầu và kết thúc mỗi phần nghe có tín hiệu.
• Mở đầu và kết thúc bài nghe có tín hiệu nhạc. Thí sinh có 30 giây để kiểm tra lại bài trước khi
tín hiệu nhạc kết thúc bài nghe.
• Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe.

Part 1: For questions 1 – 5, listen to a conversation about gated communities and decide if these
statements are true (T) or false (F). Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10
points)
1. The two speakers have differing attitudes about the subject.
2. Both speakers agree about the kinds of people who live in gated communities.
3. The woman accepts that people can choose how to spend their money.
4. The man’s tone of voice suggests he isn’t convinced that gated communities are bad for society.
5. The woman suggests that gated communities increase the division between rich and poor.

Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
False
Part 2: For questions 6 - 10, listen to a piece of news from BBC about Indonesian air crash.
Write NO MORE THAN FOUR WORDS taken from the recording for each answer in the
spaces provided. (10 points)

6. According to the army spokesman, the plane smashed into local houses before
___________________________ in a nearby field and bursting into flames.
7. In the crash, the aircraft was almost completely destroyed - the _________________________
across East Java's bright green rice fields; its tail the only piece left intact.
8. The dead and injured were pulled out from the _________________________ by rescue teams. The
plane was carrying military personnel and their families-including 10 children.
9. The reason why the plane crashed is not clear. ___________________________ conditions were
good and the plane itself was in good condition.
10. The air force has long complained that it is underfunded and that it lacks spare parts due to
_________________________________ which have recently been lifted.
Page 1 of 15
 Your answers:
6. 7.
8. 9.
10.

Part 3: You will hear part of a radio programme presented by author and foodie, Pat Chapman.
For questions 11 - 20, complete the sentences with a word or short phrase. (20 points)

Pat says that the British were a ............................................................... (11) according to Napoleon.
Pat likens curry in Britain nowadays to a ..................................................................................... (12)
Britain suffered from a ................................................... (13) in the period after the Second World War.
Immigrants to Britain had to arrange for their prized ................................................ (14) to be imported.
Eating curry became compulsive as the dish was ..................................................... (15) for most people.
The majority of curry restaurants in the UK are not .......................................................................... (16).
Indian dishes prepared in their own containers need .................................................... (17) to be authentic.
Nowadays, additional .................................................................. (18) are added to pre-cooked ingredients.
A ................................................................... (19) is responsible for cooking breads and tandoori items.
This is still the formula of the ...................................................................................................... (20) house.
Your answers:
11. 16.
12. 17.
13. 18.
14. 19.
15. 20.

Part 4: For questions 21 - 25, listen to a radio interview with an economist and choose the best
answer (A, B, C or D), which fits best according to what you hear. Write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points)
21. What is said about careers advice in schools?
A. It has been improved but it is still inadequate.
B. It is now quite good for girls but boys are being neglected.
C. There is no advice for girls that are ambitious.
D. Girls are always encouraged not to be ambitious.
22. According to Jim,
A. women are to blame for not insisting on higher wages.
B. new government policies have solved most of the problems.
C. there is nothing more the government can do.
D. women shouldn’t necessarily be encouraged to change their choice of career.
23. A London School of Economics report showed that
A. women who worked part-time found it difficult to get a full-time job later on.
B. after having children, women find it harder to earn as much money as men.
C. women find it hard to find a job after having children.
D. most women want a full-time job after having a child.

Page 2 of 15
24. What does the ‘stuffed shirt’ policy mean?
A. Women are being forced to choose between family commitments and work.
B. Only men can have part-time senior positions.
C. Women don’t get the opportunity to train for high-powered jobs.
D. No woman can have a senior position.
25. Jim seems to believe that
A. women should stay at home and look after their children.
B. women now earn as much money as men in the workplace.
C. women have been disadvantaged by outdated work ethics.
D. having children will soon be an advantage for working women.
Your answers: False
21. 22. 23. 24. 25.

SECTION II: LEXICO-GRAMMAR (35 points)

Part 1: For question 26-32, choose the best answers (A, B, C or D) to complete each of the following
questions and write your answers (A, B, C or D) in the corresponding numbered boxes. (7 points)
26. Now’s a _______ time to tell me you’re going out this evening − I’ve spent the whole day
preparing supper for you.
A. suitable B. reasonable C. right D. fine
27. More women show their ________ for dangerous sports, especially mountaineering and bungee
jumping.
A. inspiration B. dominance C. predilection D. attraction
28. His new play is not only interesting but also unique. It is really off the beaten ________.
A. track B. road C. path D. route
29. It was very strange but I had a(n) ________ that the plane would crash.
A. intuition B. omen C. premonition D. prediction
30. He looks very aggressive and threatening, and so his soft, gentle voice is rather _______.
A. disembodied B. disconcerting C. dismissive D. discordant
31. The dispute was eventually resolved by a(n) ________ decision of the arbitrator.
A. interested B. uninterested C. disinterested D. uninteresting
32. Without written evidence, we don’t have a ________ on.
A. leg to stand B. foot to stand C. leg to lean D. foot to lean

For question 33-35, choose the letter (A, B, C, or D) to indicate the word or phrase that is
CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part of the following sentences and write your answer in
the corresponding numbered boxes (3 points).
33. Unorganized guessing will not raise a test score as significantly as choosing one letter as a "guess
answer" for the entire examination.
A. Cryptic B. Haphazard C. Economical D. Subsequent
34. Perhaps more than anything else, it was onerous taxes that led to 'the Peasants' Revolt in England
in 1381.
A. multiple B. unjust C. burdensome D. infamous
35. In some cases of lapse of memory the loss may be limited to a single incident, whereas in other
cases it may be so inclusive as to involve everything about an individual's life.
A. paralysis B. aphasia C. deafness D. amnesia

Your answers:
26. 27. 28. 29. 30.
31. 32. 33. 34. 35.

Part 2: For questions 36 – 40, fill in the gaps in the following sentences with suitable particles or
prepositions. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (5 points)
36. I’ve got to summon ________ the courage to tell my parents I’m not going to university after all.
37. That car must have set David ________ quite a bit; it’s top of the range.
Page 3 of 15
38. We should bring everyone _______ and discuss what we’re going to do for Grandpa’s 80th
birthday.
39. Vaccines have permitted doctors to virtually stamp_______ a number of diseases, including
smallpox and polio.
40. I heard about your father’s illness. He’s going to pull ________, isn’t he?

Your answers:
36. 37. 38. 39. 40.

Part 3: The passage contains 10 errors. For questions 41 – 50, identify the errors and write the
corrections in numbered boxes. There is an example at the beginning (0). (10 points)

Line
1 Adolescence always has been and always will be (0). the à a very difficult time in
2 life. You are lost where between childhood and adulthood, but still, this is the time in
3 life when you have to break freely from the conformity of your peers to find yourself.
4 Some people argue that it’s more difficult to be young today than it used to be. Is this
5 true, and in that case, why?

6 In modern society teenagers pressure to mature much more quickly than one or two
7 hundred years ago. Today, minors on a very early stage have to make decisions regard
8 education, often bearing upon their future careers. In the past, children were expected
9 to follow in the footsteps of their parents, that is to say, the son was supposed to take in
10 the profession of his father, while the daughter was expected to stay at home to take
11 care of domestic duties such as cooking and cleaning.

12 Furthermore, today it’s much more difficult to find your place in society. As cities
13 grow, crime increases, and the anonymity people experiment grows as well. It becomes
14 more difficult to find and cultivate your own ideals and value.

15 On the other hand, the adolescents of today have great opportunities than ever before.
16 In the past, if your father was a blacksmith or a farmer, in ten years, so you would be.
17 Today, teenagers have the possibility to fulfil in all their dreams and ambitions.

Your answers:

Number Line Mistake Correction

0. 1 the a
41.
42.
43.
44
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.

Part 4: For questions 51 - 60, write the correct form of each bracketed word in the corresponding
numbered boxes. (10 points)

Page 4 of 15
 BUSINESS PRESENTATIONS
Ancient man used sticks of charcoal to draw pictures on cave walls in order to communicate
(with, probably, their deities and (0) ______TRAIN huntsmen). Today, some of their direct (51)
_____ (DESCEND) are still using ‘chalk and talk’ and other (52) _____ (MODE) equipment to
make presentations to sophisticated business audiences.
Now, there’s nothing wrong with whiteboards, flip charts and overhead projectors. In their
right context, they are still (53) _____ (EXCEED) useful presentation tools. But in a business
environment in which the presentation of clear, easily understandable information is a (54) _____
(NECESSARY) and in which memorability is key, managers should be constantly (55) _____
(GRADE) their equipment to keep pace with developments. Audiences are coming to expect high-
quality presentations that are (56) _____(VISION) stimulating and get the message across without
wasting time. Professionally-made presentations clearly (57) _____ (SIGNIFICANT) that the person
giving them has thought through the issues and knows what they are talking about. They can put a
(58) _____ (PERSUADE) case that wins over an audience in a way that pieces of paper can’t. And
they can put you, or your company, in the most (59) _____ (ADVANTAGE) light possible by
delivering a well thought-out message (60) _____ (RELY) every time.

Your answers: E.g 0. trainee

51. 52. 53. 54. 55.

56. 57. 58. 59. 60.

SECTION III: READING (60 points)

Part 1: For questions 61-70, read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D)
best fits each gap. Write your answers (A, B, C or D) in corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points)

The Video Loggers

One rather (61) _____ word that has recently entered the language is 'blog', a shortened form of
'web log'. A blog is a diary posted on the Internet by the person writing it - the 'blogger' - who
presumably (62) _____ other people to read it. It is ironical that modern technology is being used to
(63) _____ new life into such an old-fashioned form as the personal journal. And now, as the
technology behind video cameras is making them easier to use, we have the video log, or 'vlog'.
Vlogging does not require (64) _____ sophisticated equipment: a digital video camera, a high-speed
Internet connection and a host are all that is needed. Vloggers can put anything that (65) _____ their
fancy onto their personal web site. Some vloggers have no ambitions other than to show films they
have shot while on holiday in exotic places. However, vlogs can also (66) _____ more ambitious
purposes. For instance, amateur film-makers who want to make a (67) _____ for themselves might
publish their work on the Internet, eager to receive advice or criticism. And increasingly, vlogs are
being used to (68) _____ political and social issues that are not newsworthy enough to (69) _____
coverage by the mass media. It is still too early to predict whether vlogging will ever take off in a
major way or if it is just a passing fad, but its (70) _____ is only now becoming apparent.
61. A. unlikely B. impossible C. unbelievable D. mounted
62. A. believes B. expects C. assumes D. supposes
63. A. add B. inhale C. insert D. breathe
64. A. absolutely B. largely C. utterly D. highly
65. A. grasps B. appeals C. takes D. gives
66. A. serve B. employ C. function D. play
67. A. publicity B. fame C. name D. promotion
68. A. emphasise B. publicise C. distribute D. circulate
69. A. earn B. warrant C. excuse D. cause
70. A. potential B. possibility C. ability D. feasibility

Page 5 of 15
 Your answers:
61. 62. 63. 64. 65.
66. 67. 68. 69. 70.

Part 2: For questions 71 - 80, read the text below and think of the word which best fits each gap. Use
only ONE word in each space. Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points)
Wonder why some pop singers appear to enjoy so much fame in their time. Usually, there are
some valid reasons for their popularity.
Let's take a look at Madonna. Madonna is an international icon today, recognized and (0.)
__________ by millions of fans all over the world (71.) __________ her strong and independent image
as a pop star. Many of her fans have followed her (72.) __________ to stardom and consider her their
(73.) __________. Her pop music career (74.) __________ almost two decades, quite an achievement
for the fickle world of pop culture (75.) __________ artistes fall into and out of fashion easily. One
reason for her staying power is her chameleon-like (76.) __________to reinvent herself. She shot to
(77.) __________ with hits such as Holiday, Material Girl, True Blue and Live to Tell. Although her
venture into movies has not been as successful as her music, her position as queen of pop music was
undeniable in the 1980s up till the 1990s. She has been a (78.) __________ figure, sparkling off much
debate for mixing religion and sexuality in her songs and music videos. She has (79.) __________ pop
music, fashion and style, shocking and impressing many people at the same time. Her (80.)
__________ identity in a era when so many pop singers look and sound alike puts her in a class of her
own.
Your answers: e.g. (0.) admired
71. 72. 73. 74. 75.
76. 77. 78. 79. 80.

Part 3: Read the following passage and answer questions 81 - 90. (10 points)
Questions 81 - 86: The Reading Passage has seven paragraphs, A-G. Choose the correct heading
for paragraphs B-G from the list of headings below. (6 points)
Australia’s Convict Colonies
A. The 1700s in Britain saw widespread poverty and rising crime, and those convicted of crimes
faced harsh penalties, including transportation to one of Britain’s overseas colonies. Since 1615,
convicts had been transported to Britain’s American colonies, both as punishment and a source of
labour, but this practice was halted by the Revolutionary War in America (1775-1783). The
British government decided to establish a new prison colony, and Botany Bay in New South
Wales was chosen as the site. (Captain Cook, exploring the southeast coast of Australia in 1770,
had named the land New South Wales and claimed it for Britain). Between 1787 and 1868, almost
160,000 convicts, of whom about 25,000 were women, were sent to Australia to serve sentences
ranging from 7 years to life.
B. Eleven ships set sail from England in 1787 to take the first group of about 750 British convicts to
Australia. The fleet reached Botany Bay in January 1788, but nearby Sydney Cove was selected as
a more suitable site for the new settlement, which later became the city of Sydney. The first few
years were difficult, with severe food shortages; by 1792, however, there were government farms
and private gardens. Convicts worked on these farms, or on construction projects such as building
roads and bridges. Although the settlement was a prison colony, few convicts served their
sentences in jail. They lived in houses they had built themselves, and established families,
businesses and farms. A settlement was also established on Norfolk Island, where some convicts

Page 6 of 15
 were sent for crimes committed after arrival in the colony. Two more settlements were established
on Van Diemen’s Land (now Tasmania), in 1803 and 1804.
C. Convicts not involved in public work were assigned to free-settlers, providing labour in exchange
for food, clothing and shelter. Some masters treated the convicts cruelty, and the punishment of
convicts, particularly in the early days, could be arbitrary and savage. Lachlan Macquarie,
governor of New South Wales from 1809 to 1819, adopted a more humane approach. He
encouraged convicts to reform by rewarding good behavior, even granting pardons to convicts
before their sentence was completed. These emancipists, as they were called, were given land and
government assistance to help them start farming. His policies were unpopular both with British
authorities and wealthy free settlers, however, and the next governors were under orders to ensure
that life for convicts became much stricter and more controlled. There were harsher punishments
for second offenders, such as working in the ‘iron gangs’, where men were chained together to
carry out exhausting work on the roads, or being sent to penal settlements where punishment was
deliberately brutal so that it would act as a deterrent.
D. In the early years of settlement, the convicts greatly outnumbered free immigrants and settlers. In
1810, convicts made up almost 60 percent of the population, and over 20,000 new convicts arrived
between 1821 and 1830. Even in 1831, convicts still comprised 45 percent of the population, with
ex-convicts and emancipists making up another 30 percent. 25 percent of the population now
consisted of people born in the colonies, and free people outnumbered convicts.
E. The first group of free settlers had arrived in Australia in 1793 to seek their fortune in the new
land. Their numbers grew, with about 8,000 free settlers arriving in the 1820s to take advantage of
free land grants and cheap convict labour. In 1831, the British government offered money to
support new settlers, hoping to attract skilled workers and single women as immigrants. Between
1831 and 1840, more than 40,000 immigrants arrived in Australia.
F. During the 1820s there was a lengthy campaign to win certain rights for emancipists, which was
opposed by wealthy free settlers. In the 1830s, free immigrants to New South Wales and Van
Diemen's Land, unhappy about living in a prison colony where civil liberties were restricted and
convict labour resulted in low wages, increasingly voiced their opposition to transportation.
Again, wealthy landowners disagreed, but a growing number of reformers in England were also
opposed to convict transportation. In 1838, a committee set up by the British Parliament
recommended that the government end transportation to New South Wales and Van Diemen's
Land, and abolish assignment. The British duly abolished assignment, and transportation - at least
to New South Wales - was halted in 1840.
G. Transportation continued, however, to other colonies and settlements. In the 1840s, most British
convicts were sent to Van Diemen's Land, where the British government introduced a convict
system based on stages of reform, with the convicts gaining increasing levels of freedom for
continued good behaviour. Transportation to the eastern colonies was abolished in 1852. In
contrast, the convict system in Western Australia began in 1850, at the request of the Western
Australian government, and continued until 1868. Convicts served part of their sentences in
Britain before being transported to the colony, where they worked on badly-needed public
construction projects under a system similar to that tried in Van Diemen's Land.
List of Headings
i. Free settlers
ii. Transportation of convicts
iii. The end of transportation
iv. Convict life
v. The colonial population
vi. The treatment of convicts
Page 7 of 15
 vii. Opponents of transportation
viii. The first settlements

Your answers: Example: Paragraph A: ii

81. Paragraph B: _______ 82. Paragraph C: _______ 83. Paragraph D: _______
84. Paragraph E: _______ 85. Paragraph F: _______ 86. Paragraph G: _______

Questions 87 - 90: Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each
answer (4 points).
Australia's Convict Colonies
Events preceding first settlement
• 1615 - convicts first transported to (87.) _____________________________ controlled by Britain.
• 1770 - Cook claims SE Australian coast for Britain, calling it (88.) ________________________ .
• 1775 - 1783 - Revolutionary War in America halts transportation there.
• 1787 - Botany Bay chosen as site for new (89.) ___________________ ; first convict fleet sets sail.
• 1788 - fleet reaches Botany Bay but (90.) _________________________________ chosen instead.
Your answers:
87. 88.
89. 90.

Part 4. Read an extract from a magazine. Six paragraphs have been removed from the extract.
Choose the paragraphs A - G the one which fits each gap (91 - 96). There is one extra paragraph
which you do not need to use. Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (6 points)

Call of the wild

What can wild animals tell us about the way life should be lived? Well, take the example of the
whitethroat. You could say that it's a rather drab little bird with a rather ordinary and tuneless little
song. Or, on the contrary, you could say the whitethroat is a messenger of excitement and danger - a
thrilling embodiment of life and risk and defiance of death.
91.
Whitethroats, however, are mostly lurkers and skulkers. You’ll usually find them well hidden in a nice
thick prickly hedge, their brown plumage picked out with the small vanity of, yes, a white throat. The
male bird sings a jumble of notes thrown together any old how, a song that is generally described as
‘scratchy’. A whitethroat is not normally a bird that hands out thrills to human observers. But all the
same, it is a bird that lives by the thrill and is prepared to die by the thrill.
92.
Or not, of course. A small bird that makes such a big racket and then flies into the open will clearly
excite the interest of every bird of prey within earshot. And that is part of the point: ‘Come on, you
hawks! Have a go if you think you’re hard enough!’
93.
But I can’t help wondering how the bird feels about this. Does he do it because he is a clock, a
feathered machine that has been wound up by the passing of the seasons to make this proven ancestral
response? Or does he do it because making a springtime song flight is the most wonderfully thrilling
thing to do?
94.
And it is there in aspects of human behaviour, too. I have spoken to mountaineers, powerboaters,
Grand Prix drivers, parachutists and jockeys, and they all say the same thing. It’s not something they
do because they have a death wish. The exact opposite is the case - risk makes them feel more
Page 8 of 15
intensely, more gloriously alive. They take risks because they love life. It is part of the contradiction of
being ourselves. We thrill to danger. We can’t resist it. We love safety and security and comfort, yet
we seek risk and adventure.
95.
That’s why we watch films and identify with risk- taking heroes and feisty heroines in all kinds of
precarious situations. It’s why we pass the time on a long journey by reading a thriller in which the
main character dodges death by inches all the way to our destination. And it explains why we support
a football team; knowing that the more we care, the more we will find both excitement and despair.
96.
But if home is so great, why did we ever leave it? And if adventure is so great, why did we come
back? It is because our nature - our human, mammalian, animal nature - insists that we love both; that
one is not complete without the other.

A. And so, like the whitethroat, we all seek danger, even if we don’t take the actual risks ourselves. In
other words, although we’ve spent ninety-nine percent of that history as hunter-gatherers, the
deepest parts of ourselves are still wild.
B. And the whitethroat tells us that we don’t have the monopoly on this feeling - it is something that
other living creatures understand just as well. A liking for danger is part of our inheritance as
mammals, as animals.
C. Because every now and then in springtime he will leave that little leafy home of his and launch
himself skywards - so moved by his own eloquence that he must take to the wing and fly up,
singing all the time, before gliding gently back down to safety.
D. You must make your own mind up on these issues - but one thing you can’t avoid is that this
deliberate annual courting of danger is part of the way the whitethroat lives his life.
E. Of course, it’s not the same for everybody, not to the same extent. Most of us enjoy different levels
and different forms of risk at different times, just like the whitethroat in his hedge. And it is all the
better for the time afterwards, when we have risked and survived and returned safe and sound.
F. The glories of the whitethroat’s song demand this exhibition: the better and bolder and louder the
song flight, the more likely the male is to attract a nice mate and keep that patch of prickly territory
for himself. That's the evolutionary reason for it, anyway.
G. You might take this opposite view because what the whitethroat shows us, amongst many other
things, is why humans love tigers, love going on safari, love winter sports and fast cars, love riding
horses and, above all, love all the vast, wild open spaces left on this planet. Most other creatures
will give you the same message, too, if you study them. But the whitethroat does it in an especially
vivid way.

Part 5. You are going to read a magazine article about interns – young people doing work
placements for a limited period, usually without pay. Read the magazine article below and answer
questions 97 - 110. (14 points)
The intern’s tale
Many workplaces have interns. Is being an intern useful work experience or an unpaid waste of time?
Sarah Barnes meets four young women trying to get a foot on the ladder.
A Jessica: intern at the film company Future Films
Working on scripts that you know are going to become films one day is really exciting. We get a
broad variety of genres sent to us here. Personally, I love anything that’s been adapted from a book,
especially if I’ve read the book. I read scripts, sometimes I attend meetings with writers, and I've also
researched potential writers and directors online. Also, I volunteer in my local theatre and help out as
an auditorium assistant. It's a great way of seeing different aspects of the industry, meeting people and
developing your career. My placement was due to come to an end this month but I’ve just been offered
the paid role of production and development assistant. I’m pleased to be able to stay - I didn’t want to
leave everyone. It's been tough getting to this point, but you can’t expect too much because it’s a
competitive industry. Because my degree was in film theory, I didn’t come away with the practical
experience of being able to go on set and know what's what. Maybe I would have progressed more
quickly if I had.

Page 9 of 15
B Rasa: intern at the Vivienne Westwood fashion company
I work in the same department as Vivienne Westwood, so I see her almost every day. She treats
everyone equally, whether they are paid staff or interns. My main task is tracing patterns. I was
shocked by how big they are; so much fabric goes into making a Westwood dress. When I started, I
was working on the archive, so I had the opportunity to see past collections up close. I work five days
a week, 10a.m. to 6p.m., but I expect the days to get longer and more stressful as we approach Fashion
Week. I will stay for another three months, until we go to Paris for that, and then I will go straight
back to university to complete my final year. In fashion, if you want to establish yourself over the
competition, you have to work hard and for free, because that's what everyone else is willing to do.

C Hannah: intern at the emergency relief charity Merlin

Over the past few years I’ve been doing volunteer work in Calcutta, Bogota and Teheran, so it’s
quite hard to adjust to being back in the UK. Most of my friends are buying houses and have cars and
go on holidays. But I never feel I've missed out because I’m doing what I’ve always wanted to do. I
work three days a week, receiving a small sum to cover expenses. Money from my father has gone
towards funding my placement and I'm really fortunate that I can live with my mum, although it does
mean my commute can take up to two hours. Without my family, I don’t think I could be doing this.
Next month I am starting a six-month placement in Myanmar, monitoring the health facilities the
charity supplies there. After that, I might actually be in a position to earn a salary. If I was 35 and still
working unpaid, I would think ‘What am I doing?’

D Paula: intern at the Whitechapel Gallery

I came to London six months ago with no plans, I didn't know how long it would take to get a job.
I had saved up some money and resigned myself to staying on a friend's sofa for a while, but luck was
on my side and I found a job as a seamstress within a couple of weeks. My placement at the gallery
came along a week later. I’ve helped install exhibitions and create gallery publications. One of the
most exciting tasks was helping the artist Claire Barcley create the installation that’s now on display in
the gallery. Because some of the piece is sewn, my seamstress skills came in handy. The hardest thing
is at the start, when you don't know anything. Someone asks: ‘Can you courier this?’ and you have to
ask so many questions, like ‘Which courier company?’ and ‘Where are the envelopes?’ I’m about to
finish my placement and I’m planning my own curatorial project with a friend. It will be a lot of work
but I think I have to go for these things now, otherwise I will regret it later. My parents know I’m
sensible. If I couldn’t afford my rent, I wouldn't just get into a spiral of debt. I would go and get a full-
time job and the rest would have to wait.

For questions 97-110, choose from the sections of the article (A-D). The jobs may be chosen more
than once. Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes.
Which intern mentions
97. her feeling when discovering something at work? 97.
98. the fact that some of her work can be seen? 98.
99. having no idea how to carry out a certain task? 99.
100. her feeling about the people she works with? 100.
101. having no regrets about a choice she made previously? 101.
102. what is considered normal in her area of work? 102.
103. the outcome of some of the work she does? 103.
104. a desire not to be in the same situation in the future? 104.
105. something she regarded as unpredictable? 105.
106. a preference concerning the work she does as an intern? 106.
107. reasons why it is possible for her to be an intern? 107.
108. the outcome if she found herself in a difficult situation? 108.
109. making useful contacts? 109.
110. a change she believes will happen during her work placement? 110.
Page 10 of 15
Part 6. Read the following passage and choose the best option to answer the question from 111 -
120.
PARENTHOOD
Paul watched the television above the bar. An army of turtles waddled up a beach, cumbersome
helmets dragged through the fine sand to deposit a clutch of smooth, white eggs in the dunes. He saw
the wriggling reptilian babies emerge sticky from the broken shells and repeat the journey in reverse,
thousands of tiny helmets trundling inexorably over the moonlit dunes towards the breakers. Those
who escaped being flipped over on their backs and pecked to death by wading birds were finally
swallowed up in the surf. There was no pleasure involved in this reptilian cycle of birth and death. The
turtles survived purely because there were so many of them, and the oceans were so vast, that one or
two were bound to slip through unnoticed.
He wondered why they bothered, and presumed it could only be because they had no choice. Their
genes forced them ever onwards - life would not be denied. Previous generations had imposed their
will upon their distant descendants, and the descendants wearily obeyed. If, by chance, a turtle was
born in whom this instinct towards multiplication was misformed or absent, a turtle whose instincts
directed them not towards reproduction but towards reflection on the purpose of reproduction, say, or
towards seeing how long it could stay underwater on one breath, then this instinct would die with the
turtle. The turtles were condemned to multiply purely by the breeding success of their own ancestors.
There was no escape for them. Multiplication, once set in motion, was unstoppable.
At the present moment, the balance of his own inclinations tilted more towards sleep, the cessation
of thought, hibernation, vegetation. Had he been one of those tiny helmets, he would, at that moment,
have flipped over belly-up in the sand and simply awaited the releasing beak. Parenthood had taken
him by surprise. The books, the articles, the classes, had not prepared him for the intensity of it all.
Snap decisions to be made, everybody looking to him for the answers, and no way of knowing if he
had made the correct guess, no way of finding his way back to the main track if he took a wrong
turning. Last night he had been half a couple. He had lived with others all his life. It was easy - you
had rows, you had resentments, but if they became too frequent or too boring, or if the compensations
ceased to be adequate, you just left, and tried again with someone else until you found someone you
could put up with. He could not remember how it had all changed. Perhaps it had been the doors of
youth and liberty creaking shut behind him, or the demands that were suddenly being made of him, the
faces turning towards him when a decision was required. Or perhaps it was just the steaming
concoction of his emotions, his hormones, his thoughts slopping around his veins with the coffee and
nicotine. Whatever it was, something had obliged him to seek out a tranquil place in order to restore
some order to his metabolism.
Then there was the feeling that he had been duped - the one feeling that he hadn’t been warned of -
when he saw mother and baby together and realized that the reason why everyone made such a big
deal of fatherhood these days was simply because it was such an implausible state. Mothers and babies
were the world. Fathers were optional extras, accessories. If some strange virus colonized the Y-
chromosome and poisoned all the men, the world would carry on. It would not be a very exciting
world perhaps, rather bland and predictable, but women would find some way to reproduce, and within
a generation or two it would be difficult to believe that there bad ever been men at all. They would
appear in the encyclopaedias somewhere between dinosaurs and Romans. Future generations of little
girls would try, in vain, to understand what it had been that men had done, how they had contributed.
What use had they been? He had suddenly seen his role exposed as that of a footnote. The books had
warned him of this feeling, of jealousy of irrelevance and superfluity. They had said it was natural, that
he would get over it, What they had not said was that it was natural because it was so manifestly,
poignantly true, or that he would get over it only by stopping thinking about it. Fathers deceived
themselves. Mothers and babies held it all together. The men came and went, interchangeably, causing
trouble and bringing presents to make up for it.
He turned his attention to the television. The tiny helmets he had watched clawing their way down
towards the surf had become parents themselves now. You could tell they were the same turtles,
because the scientists had painted fluorescent hieroglyphics on their shells. They returned to the beach
on which they had hatched, and the credits rolled.
Page 11 of 15
111. What did Paul notice about the turtles in the first paragraph?
A. their reluctance to return to the sea B. their behaviour with their young
C. the effort they made to survive D. the tiny proportion of young who survived
112. What does the word ‘inexorably’ in bold in paragraph 1 mean?
A. unstoppably B. inexplicably C. inevitably D. inadvisably
113. Paul assumed that if a turtle did not wish to reproduce,
A. it is would be punished by other turtles. B. it would end up doing so anyway.
C. this attitude would not spread to other turtles. D. this would not come as a surprise.
114. His thoughts turned towards going to sleep because
A. he knew that he was unlikely to get much in the near future.
B. he had been left mentally exhausted by becoming a parent.
C. he had become weary of his actions being criticized.
D. he felt that that was what many of the turtles probably wanted to do.
115. What does the word “resentment” in bold in paragraph 3 mean?
A. anger B. suspicion C. jealousy D. confusion
116. What did he feel he had been forced to do since last night?
A. accept that he was not really cut out for living with other people .
B. find a way of making himself feel better physically
C. identify precisely what had caused his life to change so radically
D. remind himself of how he had felt prior to this
117. In what way did he feel that he had been duped?
A. He had expected his role to be one that differed from that of most men.
B. He had not been informed about how women changed when they became mothers.
C. He had not been told the truth by women about how they really regarded men.
D. He had thought fatherhood was treated as a major subject because fathers were important.
118. He felt that the books had failed to warn him that his feeling of irrelevance
A. would not fade away naturally. B. would not be shared by others.
C. would be replaced by worse feelings. D. would reduce him to inactivity.
119. What does the word “duped’ in bold in paragraph 4 mean?
A. shocked B. fascinated C. cheated D. appealed
120. What is implied about events on the television programme?
A. They made, him more depressed than he would otherwise have been.
B. They made him feel that turtles were better off than humans.
C. They reflected his own lack of joy at becoming a father.
D. They gave him a chance to escape from his own thoughts.

Your answers:
111. 112. 113. 114. 115.
116. 117. 118. 119. 120.

SECTION IV: WRITING (55 points)

Part 1. For questions 121-125, use the word given in brackets and make any necessary additions to
write a new sentence in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the original
sentence. DO NOT change the form of the given word. You must use between THREE and EIGHT
words, including the word given. (5 points)
121. I had to wait for the manager for almost an hour before he would see me. (best)
--> The manager kept……..………………………………………….…………………………… an
hour before he would see me.
122. In particular, the school library was criticized by the inspectors because of its poor lighting.
( singled)
--> The inspectors…………………………………........…………………………………… because of
its poor lighting.
Page 12 of 15
123. I didn’t get home late so Dad wasn’t upset with me. (books)
--> I……………………………………………………..................................……………… if I’d got
home late.
124. The new theatre is extremely ugly and spoils the view of the village. (blot)
--> The new theatre…………………………………….……………………. and spoils the view of the
village.
125. There will be no progress until we have fully understood the problem. (full)
--> Not until there is ………………..……………………...........................……………………be any
progress.

Part 2. The graph below shows the number of students who got prizes in the National exams for
excellent students from 2008 to 2011 in three provinces. Summarise the information by selecting
and reporting the main features and make relevant comparisons where relevant. (20 p)

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Part 3. Write an essay about the following topic:

Most education systems rely on examinations to encourage children to study, but as a result,
children suffer from too much stress and they never learn to be creative. Therefore, examinations
should be abolished. To what extent do you agree or disagree?
Write about 350 words. You should use your own ideas, knowledge and experience and support
your arguments with examples and relevant evidence. (30 points)

(You may continue your writing on the back page if you need more space.)

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The end
Page 15 of 15
 HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM
ĐỀ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN DỰ THI HSG QUỐC GIA THPT NĂM 2017
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Ngày thi: 12 tháng 10 năm 2016

SECTION I: LISTENING (50 points)

Part 1: For questions 1 – 5, listen to a conversation about gated communities and decide if
these statements are true (T) or false (F). Write your answers in the corresponding
numbered boxes. (10 points => 2 points/correct answer)
1T 2F 3F 4T 5T

Part 2. For questions 6-10, listen to a piece of news from BBC about Indonesian air crash.
Write NO MORE THAN FOUR WORDS taken from the recording for each answer in the spaces
provided. (10 points => 2 points/correct answer)
6. skidding to a halt 7. wreckage is strewn 8. smoking debris
9. Weather and landing 10. long-running US military sanctions

Part 3: You will hear part of a radio programme presented by author and foodie, Pat
Chapman. For questions 11 - 20, complete the sentences with a word or short phrase.
(20 points => 2 points/ correct answer)
11. nation of shopkeepers 16. Indian
12. national obsession 17. hours of cooking
13. labour shortage 18. flavo(u)rings
14. spices of foodstuffs 19. specialist
15. affordable 20. standard British curry

Part 4: For questions 21-25, listen to a radio interview with an economist and choose the
best answer (A, B, C or D), which fits best according to what you hear. Write your answers in
the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points => 2 points/correct answer)
21. A 22. D 23. B 24. A 25. C

SECTION II: LEXICO-GRAMMAR (35 points)

Part 1. For question 26-32, choose the best answers (A, B, C or D) to complete each of the
following questions and write your answers (A, B, C or D) in the corresponding numbered
boxes. (10 points)
26. D 27. C 28. A 29. C 30. B 31. C 32. A
33. B 34. C 35. D
Part 2. For questions 36 – 40, fill in the gaps in the following sentences with suitable
particles or prepositions. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (5
points => 1 p/correct answer)
36. up 37. back 38. together 39. out 40. through
Part 3. The passage contains 10 errors. For questions 41 – 50, identify the errors and write the
corrections in numbered boxes. There is an example at the beginning (0). (10 points)
Number Line Mistake à Correction
0. 1 the à a
41. 2 where → somewhere
42. 3 freely → free
43. 6 pressure → are pressured
44 7 regard → regarding
45. 9 take in → take up
46. 13 experiment → experience
47. 14 value → values
48. 15 great → greater
49. 16 so you would → so would you
50. 17 fulfil in all → fulfil all

Part 4. For questions 51 - 60, write the correct form of each bracketed word in the
corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points)
51. descendents 52. outmoded 53. exceedingly 54. necessity 55. upgrading
56. visually 57. signify 58. persuasive 59. advantageous 60. reliably

1/2
SECTION III: READING (60 points)
Part 1. For questions 61-70, read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or
D) best fits each gap. Write your answers (A, B, C or D) in corresponding numbered boxes.
(10 points => 1 point/correct answer)
61.A 62.B 63.D 64.D 65.C
66.A 67.C 68.B 69.B 70.A

Part 2. For questions 71-80, read the text below and think of the word which best fits each
gap. Use only ONE word in each space. Write your answers in corresponding numbered
boxes. (10 points) (0). admired
71. for 72. path / rise 73. idol 74. spans 75. where
76. ability 77. fame 78. controversial 79. influenced 80. unique

Part 3. Read the following passage and answer questions 81 - 90. (10 points)
81. viii 82. vi 83. v 84. i 85. vii 86. iii
87. American colonies 88. New South Wales
89. prison colony 90. (nearby) Sydney Cove

Part 4. Read an extract from a magazine. Six paragraphs have been removed from the
extract. Choose the paragraphs A-G the one which fits each gap (91 - 96). There is one extra
paragraph which you do not need to use. Write your answers in corresponding numbered
boxes. (6 points => 1 point/correct answer)

91.G 92.C 93. F 94. D 95. B 96. E

Part 5. Read the magazine article below and answer questions 97 – 110 (14 points)
97. B 98. D 99. D 100. A 101.C 102.B 103.A
104.C 105.D 106.A 107.C 108.D 109.A 110.B

Part 6. Read the following passage and choose the best option to answer the question from
111 - 120. (10 points)
111. D 112. A 113. C 114. B 115. A
116. B 117. D 118. A 119. C 120. C

SECTION IV: WRITING (55 points)

Part 1. For questions 121 - 125, use the word given in brackets and make any necessary
additions to write a new sentence in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to
the original sentence. DO NOT change the form of the given word. You must use between
THREE and EIGHT words, including the word given. (5 points)
121. me waiting for the best part of 122. singled out the school library for criticism
123. would have been in Dad’s bad books 124. is a blot on the landscape
125. a full understanding of the problem will there

II. (20 points)

III. (30 points)
Notes: The mark given to parts 2 and 3 is based on the following criteria:
1. Content: (35% of total mark)
a. Providing all main ideas and details as required
b. Communicating intentions sufficiently and effectively
2. Organization & Presentation: (30% of total mark)
a. Ideas are well organized and presented with coherence, cohesion, and clarity
b. The essay is well-structured
3. Language: (30% of total mark)
a. Demonstration of a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of
English language gifted upper-secondary school students
b. Good use and control of grammatical structures
4. Punctuation, and spelling and handwriting (5% of total mark)
a. Good punctuation and no spelling mistakes
b. Legible handwriting
Markers should discuss the suggested answers and the marking scale thoroughly before
marking the papers.
Thank you for your cooperation.
2/2
 SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI LẬP ĐỘI TUYỂN DỰ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI
TUYÊN QUANG CẤP QUỐC GIA LỚP 12 THPT
NĂM HỌC 2016 – 2017
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Môn thi: Tiếng Anh
Thời gian: 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)

SỐ PHÁCH
(Do Chủ tịch HĐ chấm thi ghi)
Đề thi có 12 trang
• Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu.
• Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào tờ đề thi.

Điểm của bài thi Chữ ký của giám khảo

Bằng số Bằng chữ Giám khảo 1 Giám khảo 2

SECTION 1: LISTENING (5 points)

There are 4 parts in this section. Each part will be played TWICE.

Part 1: Listen to the conversation and complete the form below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Council Youth Scheme Application for Funding for Group Project

Example Answer
Name Ralph Pearson
Contact address 1. __________________________Drayton DR6 8AB
Telephone number 01453 586098
Name of group Community Youth Theatre Group
Description of group amateur theatre group (2. _____________ members)
involved in drama 3. _____________ and _____________

Amount of money requested 4 £ ____________________

to produce a short 5. ____________ play for young
Description of project
children
Money needed for 6. ____________________for scenery

• costumes

• cost of 7. ____________________

• 8. ____________________
• sundries

How source of funding will be credited

acknowledged in the 9. ____________________ given to audience
Other organisations approached for funding (and outcome)
National Youth Services - money was 10. ____________________

Your answers
1. ___________ 2. ___________ 3. ___________ 4. ___________ 5. ________
6. ___________ 7. ___________ 8. ___________ 9___________. 10. _______

1
Part 2: Questions 11-15: Circle the correct answer, A, B or C

11. Joanne says that visitors to Darwin are often surprised by __________
A. the number of young people. B. the casual atmosphere. C. the range of cultures.
12. To enjoy cultural activities, the people of Darwin tend to __________
A. travel to southern Australia.
B. bring in artists from other areas.
C. involve themselves in production.
13. The Chinese temple in Darwin __________
A. is no longer used for its original purpose.
B. was rebuilt after its destruction in a storm.
C. was demolished to make room for new buildings.
14. The main problem with travelling by bicycle is __________
A. the climate. B. the traffic. C. the hills.
15. What does Joanne say about swimming in the sea?
A. It is essential to wear a protective suit.
B. Swimming is only safe during the winter.
C. You should stay in certain restricted areas.

Part 3
You will hear two different talks. In each talk there are five questions.
For each question, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D.

Talk 1: Listen to a talk by a librarian.

16. Who is Ms.Martin talking to?

A. Other librarians. B. Undergraduate students.
C. Students who are not in the business department. D. Graduate business students.
17. What are the library’s hours during final exam week?
A. It opens at 7:00 a.m. B. It closes at 7:00 p.m.
C. It closes at midnight. D. It is always open.
18. What two areas will the tour concentrate on?
A. Computer area and business materials. B. Magazines and newspapers.
C. Business department and library staff offices. D. First and second floor of the library.
19. Where are the reference materials related to business available?
A. on the first floor. B. on the second floor.
C. on the floor above the computer area. D. on the first and second floor.
20. What are the students probably going to do next?
A. Go home. B. Return to class. C. Work on the computers D. Tour the library.

Talk 2: You will hear a woman talking about rainforest rule.

21. Where can rainforests be found?

A. in a small trip of land, mostly equatorial B. only in South America.
C. in many countries all over the world. D. in Thailand and Sri Lanka.
22. Rainforests hold __________
A. more than half the world’s species. B. less than half the world’s species.
C. approximately half the world’s species. D. only half the world’s species.

2
23. Why are rainforest “the lungs of the planet”?
A. because they produce a large amount of oxygen and store a large amount of carbone dioxide.
B. because they store a small amount of oxygen and produce a large amount of carbone dioxide.
C. because they produce a small amount of oxygen and store a small amount of carbone dioxide.
D. because they store a large amount of oxygen and produce a small amount of carbone dioxide.
24. Rainforest tree leaves never touch the leaves of another tree __________
A. to make rain fall on the ground of the forest.
B. to protect the trees from disease and insects.
C. to give the forest animals more exercise.
D. to make rain not fall on the ground of the forest.
25. Over the last few thousand years, the land covered by rain forests has __________.
A. increased B. decreased C. stayed the same D. not increased.

SECTION 2: LEXICO-GRAMMAR (2.5 point)

Part 1: Circle the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) which best completes each sentence.
1. It won’t ________ matter if you arrive a few minutes late.
A. greatly B. largely C. grandly D. considerably
2. All three TV channels provide extensive ________ of sporting events.
A. vision B. coverage C. broadcast D. network
3. Time was running out, so the committee had to make a ________ decision.
A. brief B. curt C. sharp D. snap
4. Because of an unfortunate ________ your order was not dispatched by the date requested.
A. hindrance B. oversight C. negligence D. transgression
5. Tempers began to ________ as the lorries forced their way through the picket lines.
A. break B. fray C. grate D. fire
6. The government has made no ________ in the fight against inflation; indeed, the situation has
worsened recently.
A. headway B. effect C. avail D. triumph
7. The completion of the new Town Hall has been ________ owing to a strike.
A. held off B. held down C. held up D. held on
8. People under 21 years old are not ________ to join this club.
A. desirable B. eligible C. advisable D. admissible
9. News of the attempted coup began to ________ through to the outside world.
A. pour B. broadcast C. filter D. drip
10. My secretary was ________ to have typed those letters already.
A. asked B. supposed C. requested D. ordered
11. I’m afraid that the facts don’t ________ your theory.
A. pull off B. check out C. show off D. bear out
12. I wouldn’t like to ________ a guess as to how much this might cost.
A. speculate B. hazard C. advance D. envisage
13. We are not in a ________ hurry so let’s have another coffee.
A. dashing B. racing C. rushing D. tearing
14. It was a bad mistake but it had no ________ on the outcome of the match.
A. bearing B. relevance C. significance D. repercussion
15. The city below her was ________ with neon lights.
A. afresh B. alight C. ablaze D. acute

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Part 2. Give the correct form of the words given in the brackets.
What is culture?
The word “culture” is used in several different ways. It may refer to (1. active) _________
such as art, music, literature and so on, and to all the (2. work) _________ of art produced by
people working in these fields. However, it may also have a broader (3. signify) _________, and
refer to the ideas, (4. believe) _________ and customs that are shared and accepted by people in
a society. The special ceremonies that mark births, (5. marry) _________ and deaths and the
principles which guide people’s (6. behave) _________ and (7. relation) are all aspects of this
type of culture. In addition, “culture” may also refer to similar (8. phenomenon) _________
taking place in organisations such as large companies, where particular attitudes or types of
behaviour are accepted and (9. other) _________ are regarded as (10. accept) _________.

Your answers

1. __________ 2. ___________ 3. ____________ 4. ____________ 5. ___________

6. __________ 7. ___________ 8. ____________ 9. ____________ 10. ___________

SECTION 3: READING (5 points)

Part 1: Read the following passage and decide which word best fits each space. Circle
the corresponding letter A, B, C or D
Work on the human brain has indicated how different parts are centres of activity for different
skills, feelings, perceptions and so on. It has also been shown that the left and right halves, or
hemispheres, of the brain are (1) ________ for different functions. While language is processed in
the left, or analytical hemisphere, for most people music is processed in the right, or emotional
hemisphere. However, professional musicians have the (2) ________ to process music in the left
hemisphere more often than those without musical training do. This (3) ________ they are having
a different experience – which is likely to be the case because they are analyzing music rather than
just listening to it. (4) ________ of music like tone, pitch and melody are all probably processed in
different parts of the brain. Some features of musical experience are processed not just in the
auditory parts of the brain, but in the visual ones. We don’t yet fully understand the (5) ________
of this. The tempo of music seems to be (6) ________ related to its emotional impact, with fast
music often (7) ________ as happier and slower music as sadder. It is the same with the major
biological rhythm of the body: our heart (8) ________ quickens when we’re happy, but slows when
we’re sad. Military music may have (9) ________ from attempts to get us ready for (10)
________ by using fast drumming to stimulate our hearts to beat faster. Music is perhaps one of
the most complex experiences the brain copes with and it has become an absolutely vital part of
our rituals and ceremonies. It has power beyond language to communicate mood and co-ordinate
our emotional states.

1. A. amenable B. dependable C. responsible D. reliable

2. A. tendency B. inclination C. possibility D. intention
3. A. proposes B. advances C. introduces D. suggests
4. A. Views B. Aspects C. Factors D. Pieces
5. A. expectations B. implications C. assumptions D. propositions
6. A. surely B. plainly C. evidently D. directly
7. A. felt B. endured C. encountered D. touched
8. A. pulse B. speed C. pace D. rate
9. A. evolved B. extended C. advanced D. elevated
10. A. battle B. fight C. quarrel D. struggle

4
Part 2: Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word. Write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes.
Men and women are often considered to be completely at odds with each other, in terms of
their attitudes and behaviour. Not so when they are in love, new research has discovered. As far as
their hormone levels are (1) ________ when men and women are in love, they are more similar to
each other (2) ________ at any other time.
It has (3) ________ been known that love can (4) ________ havoc with hormone levels. For
example the hormone cortisol, which is known for its calming effect on the body, dips dramatically
when one person is attracted to (5) ________, putting the love-struck on a par with sufferers of
obsessive compulsive disorder.
But a new study has found that the hormone testosterone, commonly associated with male
aggression, also falls when he is in love. In women, it's quite the (6) ________. Testosterone
levels, which (7) ________ to be lower among females, rise towards (8) ________ of the male.
Donatella Marazziti of the University of Pisa, Italy, (9) ________ this down to nature
attempting to eliminate the differences between the sexes. By doing so, they can concentrate fully
on reproduction. This suggestion seems to be supported by the fact that (10) ________ couples in
a long term relationship, nor participants in the study who were single at the time of the
experiment, exhibited such changes.
Your answers

1. __________ 2. ___________ 3. ____________ 4. ____________ 5. ___________

6. __________ 7. ___________ 8. ____________ 9. ____________ 10. ___________

Part 3: Read the text below and cirlce the correct answer (A, B, C or D).

LAKE DISTRICT WATER PLAN SCRUTINISED

A public inquiry opened yesterday into plans to pump extra water from the Lake District
National Park to refill reservoirs drained by drought. United Utilities has submitted its proposals to
take water from two lakes, Windermere and Ullswater, to public scrutiny because of concerns about
the potential damage to wildlife.
Anglers are concerned that spawning sites for salmon and trout could dry out if water is drained
from the rivers that flow from the lakes. But the utilities company insists that removing and
treating the extra water will not hurt local flora and fauna. The hearing, headed by the
government inspector, Stuart Nixon, is being held in the Cumbrian town of Windermere and will
last for two days. A final decision is expected to be taken later this month by Margaret Beckett, the
Environment Secretary.
United Utilities insists that the drought orders are necessary to prevent the further depletion of
water from two of its reservoirs in the Lake District, Haweswater and Thirlmere. Because of the
unusually dry summer this year, Haweswater has only 53 per cent of its capacity compared with 68
per cent at the same time last year. Thirlmere has just 47 per cent, whereas last year it had 79 per
cent.
If United Utilities is given the go-ahead, it would be able to take extra water from the
Windermere and Ullswater rivers – Leven and Eamont respectively – this winter, rather than having
to take emergency measures next year. Water from Ullswater would be piped into Haweswater
reservoir; water from Windermere would enter the local supply, and prevent further depletion of
Thirlmere. Water supplies would reach two million people in Manchester, Lancashire, south Cumbria
and parts of Cheshire.
Cumbria Wildlife Trust said taking extra water could pose problems for wildlife if not properly
managed. But a spokesman said it was not opposing United’s plans because it was better for water
to be drained in the wet winter months rather than in the summer. “If they don’t have to do it now,
they will have to do it in April,” the spokesman said.
Dickon Knight, the agent for the landowner Holker Estates, said the proposed minimum flows on
the river Leven would harm efforts to protect salmon stocks. Alistair Maltby, the manager of the
Eden Rivers Trust, said taking water from the rivers during the winter was the best approach but
urged United Utilities to mend leaks in its pipes in the long run. Gary Dixon, customer service
manager at United Utilities, said, “We can’t predict what supplies will be like over the winter.
Normally this is when our reservoirs would refill but if the low rainfall continues we need to start
planning ahead for next summer. Taking action now will have a lower impact on the river
environment than during the spring.”

5
 The company said the deluge of rain in recent weeks was helping to top up the reservoirs. John
Carberry, a spokesman, said, “There is no crisis and no panic, but we are looking ahead for next
year. There is a potential impact on the environment which is why we are seeking permission to do
what we want to do.” The Environment Agency said it would work with the utility company to
ensure any damage to fish stocks was kept to a minimum.
1. According to the opening paragraph, the controversy arose due to ________.
A. a proposed scheme to top up water supplies.
B. excessive water in local lakes.
C. civilians protesting over a threat to the environment.
D. a possibility that reservoirs could be contaminated.
2. The word “hearing” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. trial B. legal action C. lawsuit D. official meeting
3. Who does the outcome of the proposal ultimately rest with?
A. the area’s fishermen B. a utilities company
C. Margaret Beckett D. Stuart Nixon
4. What have high temperatures resulted in?
A. several bodies of water in the Lake District completely drying up.
B. United Utilities wanting to take certain measures.
C. two lakes being left with less than 50% of their water.
D. a large decrease in profits for United Utilities.
5. The word “go-ahead” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. leave B. consensus C. authorization D. permit
6. If the plan is implemented, _______.
A. it will inevitably avert a national crisis. B. its impact will be felt nationwide.
C. it could cause irreversible damage. D. it should preferably be done in winter.
7. Which of the following statements is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. the water depletion rate of all reservoirs is not the same.
B. Wildlife might be affected by excessive water taking
C. It’s inevitable that water should be drained sooner or later.
D. Water from two rivers would be pumped into the local supply.
8. What is Alistair Maltby’s opinion on refilling reservoirs?
A It will be detrimental to certain species of fish.
B. It’s the best solution as long as a technical problem is sorted out.
C. It will have a negative effect on the environment if left until spring.
D. Its success depends on how well United Utilities manage the project.
9. It can be inferred from the passage that ________.
A. it’s spring at the moment the passage was written
B. salmon stocks are being kept to a minimum
C. there will be an active collaboration for the common good
D. water depletion has reached epidemic proportions
10. What is the overall tone of the passage?
A. alarmed B. sarcastic C. neutral D. dismissive

Part 4: Read the following passage and answer the questions.

Why Risks Can Go Wrong

Human intuition is a bad guide to handling risk
A. People make terrible decisions about the future. The evidence is all around, from their
investments in the stock markets to the way they run their businesses. In fact, people are
consistently bad at dealing with uncertainty, underestimating some kinds of risk and
overestimating others. Surely there must be a better way than using intuition?

6
 B. In the 1960s a young American research psychologist, Daniel Kahneman, became interested in
people’s inability to make logical decisions. That launched him on a career to show just how
irrationally people behave in practice. When Kahneman and his colleagues first started work, the
idea of applying psychological insights to economics and business decisions was seen as rather
bizarre. But in the past decade the fields of behavioural finance and behavioural economics have
blossomed, and in 2002 Kahneman shared a Nobel Prize in economics for his work. Today he is in
demand by business organizations and international banking companies. But, he says, there are
plenty of institutions that still fail to understand the roots of their poor decisions. He claims that,
far from being random, these mistakes are systematic and predictable.
C. One common cause of problems in decision-making is over-optimism. Ask most people about
the future, and they will see too much blue sky ahead, even if past experience suggests
otherwise. Surveys have shown that people’s forecasts of future stock market movements are far
more optimistic than past long-term returns would justify. The same goes for their hopes of ever-
rising prices for their homes or doing well in games of chance. Such optimism can be useful for
managers or sportsmen, and sometimes turns into a self-fulfilling prophecy. But most of the time
it results in wasted effort and dashed hopes. Kahneman’s work points to three types of over-
confidence. First, people tend to exaggerate their own skill and prowess; in polls, far fewer than
half the respondents admit to having below-average skills in, say, driving. Second, they
overestimate the amount of control they have over the future, forgetting about luck and chalking
up success solely to skill. And third, in competitive pursuits such as dealing on shares, they forget
that they have to judge their skills against those of the competition.
D. Another source of wrong decisions is related to the decisive effect of the initial meeting,
particularly in negotiations over money. This is referred to as the “anchor effect”. Once a figure
has been mentioned, it takes a strange hold over the human mind. The asking price quoted in a
house sale, for example, tends to become accepted by all parties as the “anchor” around which
negotiations take place. Much the same goes for salary negotiations. If nobody has much
information to go on, a figure can provide comfort – even though it may lead to a terrible
mistake.
E. In addition, mistakes may arise due to stubbornness. No one likes to abandon a cherished
belief, and the earlier a decision has been taken, the harder it is to abandon it. Drug companies
must decide early to cancel a failing research project to avoid wasting money, but may find it
difficult to admit they have made a mistake. In the same way, analysts may have become wedded
early to a single explanation that coloured their perception. A fresh eye always helps.
F. People also tend to put a lot of emphasis on things they have seen and experienced
themselves, which may not be the best guide to decision-making. For example, somebody may
buy an overvalued share because a relative has made thousands on it, only to get his fingers
burned. In finance, too much emphasis on information close at hand helps to explain the tendency
by most investors to invest only within the country they live in. Even though they know that
diversification is good for their portfolio, a large majority of both Americans and Europeans invest
far too heavily in the shares of their home countries. They would be much better off spreading
their risks more widely.
G. More information is helpful in making any decision but, says Kahneman, people spend
proportionally too much time on small decisions and not enough on big ones. They need to adjust
the balance. During the boom years, some companies put as much effort into planning their office
party as into considering strategic mergers.
H. Finally, crying over spilled milk is not just a waste of time; it also often colours people’s
perceptions of the future. Some stock market investors trade far too frequently because they are
chasing the returns on shares they wish they had bought earlier.
I. Kahneman reckons that some types of businesses are much better than others at dealing with
risk. Pharmaceutical companies, which are accustomed to many failures and a few big successes
in their drug-discovery programmes, are fairly rational about their risk-taking. But banks, he says,
have a long way to go. They may take big risks on a few huge loans, but are extremely cautious
about their much more numerous loans to small businesses, many of which may be less risky
than the big ones. And the research has implications for governments too. They face a whole
range of sometimes conflicting political pressures, which means they are even more likely to take
irrational decisions.

For questions 1-6: The reading Passage has nine paragraphs A-I.
Choose the correct heading for Paragraphs B and D-H from the list of headings below.

7
Write the correct number (i-xi) in boxes 1-6 in the space given.
List of headings
i Not identifying the correct priorities
ii A solution for the long term
iii The difficulty of changing your mind
iv Why looking back is unhelpful
v Strengthening inner resources
vi A successful approach to the study of decision-making
vii The danger of trusting a global market
viii Reluctance to go beyond the familiar
ix The power of the first number
x The need for more effective risk assessment
xi Underestimating the difficulties ahead

Example Answer
Paragraph A x
1 Paragraph B
Paragraph C xi
2 Paragraph D
3 Paragraph E
4 Paragraph F
5 Paragraph G
6 Paragraph H

For questions 7-10: Circle the correct answer A, B, C or D

7. People initially found Kahneman's work unusual because he

A. saw mistakes as following predictable patterns.
B. was unaware of behavioural approaches.
C. dealt with irrational types of practice.
D. applied psychology to finance and economics.
8. The writer mentions house-owners attitudes towards the value of their homes to illustrate that
A. past failures may destroy an optimistic attitude.
B. people tend to exaggerate their chances of success.
C. optimism may be justified in certain circumstances.
D. people are influenced by the success of others.
9. Stubbornness and inflexibility can cause problems when people
A. think their financial difficulties are just due to bad luck.
B. avoid seeking advice from experts and analysts.
C. refuse to invest in the early stages of a project.
D. are unwilling to give up unsuccessful activities or beliefs.
10. Why do many Americans and Europeans fail to spread their financial risks when investing?
A. They feel safer dealing in a context which is close to home.
B. They do not understand the benefits of diversification.
C. They are over-influenced by the successes of their relatives.
D. They do not have sufficient knowledge of one another’s countries.

For questions 11-13

Answer the questions below, using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
11. Which two occupations may benefit from being over-optimistic?
__________________________________________

8
 12. Which practical skill are many people over-confident about?
__________________________________________
13. Which type of business has a generally good attitude to dealing with uncertainty?
__________________________________________
Part 5: Read the text below and cirlce the correct answer (A, B, C or D).
In 1969, a key milestone in space travel was reached when Neil Armstrong set foot on the
moon. In 2001, another landmark event took place when the first civilian traveled into space as a
paying tourist.
As a teenager, Dennis Tito dreamed of visiting outer space. As a young man, he aspired to
become an astronaut and earned a bachelor’s and a master’s degree in aerospace engineering.
However, Tito did not have all the qualities necessary to become a professional astronaut; so
instead, he went to work as a space engineer in one of NASA’s laboratories for five years. Later,
Tito set up his own financial investment company and, eventually, he became a multi-millionaire.
Later in life, the ex-rocket engineer, still passionate about space travel, began looking into ways to
make a trip into space.
In the early 1990s, the Soviet Space Agency was offering tickets for a visit to the Mir space
station to anyone who could afford it. Tito jumped at the chance for this once-in-a-lifetime
experience. Due to political and economic changes in the former Soviet Union, however, Tito’s trip
was postponed and later, Mir was decommissioned. In 2001, Tito’s dream was finally came true
when he paid a rumored $20 million and took off aboard a SOYUZ rocket to deliver supplies to the
International Space Station, a joint venture between the space agencies of Japan, Canada, Europe,
Russia, and the U.S.
In preparation for the trip, Tito trained at the Gagarin Cosmonauts Training Center at Star City
in Russia. There, he underwent eight months of physical fitness training, weightless simulations,
and a variety of other exercises to prepare him for space travel. Although the Russians believed
that Tito was adequately prepared for the trip, NASA thought otherwise. Dennis Tito had to sign an
agreement with international space officials taking financial responsibility for any equipment he
damaged or broke on his trip. He was also barred from entering any part of the space station
owned by the U.S. unless escorted.
Although Tito made history and paved the way for the future of space tourism, factors such as
cost, and the amount of training required, stand in the way of space vacations becoming an option
for most people in the near future. In spite of this, Japanese and North American market data
shows that there is definite public interest in space travel. In a 1993 survey of 3,030 Japanese, 80
percent of those under the age of forty said they would like to visit space at least once. Seventy
percent of this group would pay up to three month’s salary for the trip. In 1995, 1,020 households
in North America were surveyed and of those, 60 percent were interested were under forty years of
age. Just over 45 percent said they would pay three month’s salary, around 18 percent said they
would pay six month’s salary, and nearly 11 percent would pay a year’s salary. Two – thirds of
those who want to visit space would like to do so several times. Since the nature of this type of
travel makes it hazardous to humans, it would have to be restricted to those who are physically fit
and able to take responsibility for the risks involved.
1. According to the passage, what was the main event in 1969?
A. Scientists planned to travel to space.
B. People started to concern space travel.
C. The dream of space travel became true.
D. Neil Armstrong was ready for heading to the moon.
2. Dennis Tito made the first trip as a space tourist________
A. this century. B. in the early ‘90s. C. in the late ‘60s. D. in the late ‘50s.
3. Which of the following is NOT true about Dennis Tito?
A. He has an advanced degree in aerospace engineering.
B. He is now an astronaut for NASA.
C. He eventually became a very wealthy man.
D. He used to dream of travelling to outer space.
4. Tito’s first trip into space was with__________ to___________.
A. the Russian / the International Space Station.
B. the Americans / SOYUZ
C. members of the former Soviet Union / the Mir space station
D. the Japanese agency / SOYUZ
5. Which of the following describes NASA’s feelings about Tito’s trip into space?
A. extremely proud B. somewhat eager C. disappointed D. very concerned
9
6. According to Japanese survey, which of the following is true?
A. Eighty percent of all those interviewed would be interested in travelling to space.
B. Some people would pay a quarter of their annual salary to visit space.
C. Only people under the age of forty are interested in space travel.
D. Seventy percent of Japanese would pay three quarters of their annual salary to visit space.
7. According to a North American survey on space travel, which is true?
A. Seventy – five percent of those surveyed would be interested in travelling to space.
B. Most people would pay a year’s salary to visit space as a tourist.
C. Most of the people interested in space travel were under the age of forty.
D. Nearly sixty percent of those surveyed were interested in a vacation in space travel.

SECTION 4: WRITING (5.5 points)

Part 1: Read the following extract and use your own words to summarize it. Your
summary should be no more than 120 words long. You MUST NOT copy the original.

LESSON ONE CAN LEARN FROM A DOG

There are so many lessons one can learn about life from a dog. Imagine this scenario: it is
raining heavily outside and you need to leave for someone’s house. The dog is up and eager to go
with you. You tell it to stay home. As you leave, you see it squeezing out through the gap in the
doorway. You scold it and order it back home. Then at every turn you make, you suddenly see it
following you sheepishly at a distance. It follows at the risk of being reprimanded for the sore
reason of being somewhere nearby. How else can we experience so selfless an instance of love and
faithfulness? We can learn a lifelong lesson from this sincere warm display of perpetual
companionship. Observe the eating habits of your dog. It does not eat, except when hungry. It
does not drink, unless it is thirsty. It does not gorge itself. It stops eating when it has had enough.
A dog also sets a perfect example of adaptability. If it is moved to a strange place, it is able to
adapt itself to that place and to its thousand peculiarities without a murmur of complaint. It is able
to learn and adapt to a new family’s ways and customs. It is quick and ready to please. Man, being
accustomed to comfort and wealth, will be lost if suddenly stripped of all he is accustomed to. A
dog also teaches us a thing or two about, unselfish love. When a dog knows death is approaching,
it tries, with its last vestige of strength, to crawl away elsewhere to die, in order to burden its
owners no more. A dog does things with all vigor. However, when there is nothing to do, it lies
down and rests. It does not waste its strength and energy needlessly. Many working people are
burning the candles at both ends. Many suffer nervous breakdowns due to stress. Perhaps, they
should learn to rest like a dog does. A dog above all is truly man’s best friend.
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Part 2: The graph below shows the demand for electricity in England during typical days
in winter and summer. The pie chart shows how electricity is used in an average English
home. Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features and make
comparisons where relevant. You should write at least 150 words.

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PART 3: Write an essay of about 250 words on the following topic:
The Ministry of Education and Training of Vietnam has just decided to change the testing method
for the purpose of recognizing the graduation of high school leavers and meeting various criteria for
tertiary education. Many people believe that this change would significantly reduce the pressure
upon students’ studies as well as university entrance admissions.
To what extent do you agree or disagree?

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____ THE END ____

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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI NÓI LẬP ĐỘI TUYỂN DỰ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI
TUYÊN QUANG CẤP QUỐC GIA LỚP 12 THPT

NĂM HỌC 2016 – 2017

Môn thi: Tiếng Anh
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

SPEAKING TOPICS
QUESTION # 1:
It is young people that pioneer in voluntary activities to help
disadvantaged people in remote and needy areas. Your opinion? Agree
or disagree? Get ready to talk to an audience on this issue.
You have 5 minutes to sketch out what you are going to say. You should prepare notes
instead of full sentences and try to speak as naturally as possible.
Your talking time should not exceed 5 minutes.
Good luck!
---------------------------------------------

SPEAKING TOPICS
QUESTION # 2:
Some people claim that schools nowadays fail in their vocational
orientation attempts. Your opinion? Get ready to talk to an audience on
this issue.
You have 5 minutes to sketch out what you are going to say. You should prepare notes
instead of full sentences and try to speak as naturally as possible.
Your talking time should not exceed 5 minutes.
Good luck!
---------------------------------------------
QUESTION # 3:
High school is the best time in a person’s life. Your opinion? Get ready
to talk to an audience on this issue.
You have 5 minutes to sketch out what you are going to say. You should prepare notes
instead of full sentences and try to speak as naturally as possible.
Your talking time should not exceed 5 minutes.
Good luck!
---------------------------------------------
QUESTION # 4:
A lot of university graduates fail to meet the demands of the job market?
What are the solutions? Get ready to talk to an audience on this issue.
You have 5 minutes to sketch out what you are going to say. You should prepare notes
instead of full sentences and try to speak as naturally as possible.
Your talking time should not exceed 5 minutes.
Good luck!
---------------------------------------------
QUESTION # 5:
Home is where the heart is. Your opinion? Get ready to talk to an
audience on this issue.
You have 5 minutes to sketch out what you are going to say. You should prepare notes
instead of full sentences and try to speak as naturally as possible.
Your talking time should not exceed 5 minutes.
Good luck!
---------------------------------------------
QUESTION # 6:
Reality shows on TV seem to become more commercialized than
educational. Your opinion? Get ready to talk to an audience on this
issue.
You have 5 minutes to sketch out what you are going to say. You should prepare notes
instead of full sentences and try to speak as naturally as possible.
Your talking time should not exceed 5 minutes.
Good luck!
---------------------------------------------
QUESTION # 7:
Global warming has increasingly become concerned than ever before?
What should we do to ultimately reduce negative effects on the
environment? Get ready to talk to an audience on this issue.
You have 5 minutes to sketch out what you are going to say. You should prepare notes
instead of full sentences and try to speak as naturally as possible.
Your talking time should not exceed 5 minutes.
Good luck!
---------------------------------------------
QUESTION # 8:
The increased use of digital media may result in the decline of social
skills among teenagers. Agree or disagree? Get ready to talk to an
audience on this issue.
You have 5 minutes to sketch out what you are going to say. You should prepare notes
instead of full sentences and try to speak as naturally as possible.
Your talking time should not exceed 5 minutes.
Good luck!
---------------------------------------------
QUESTION # 9:
Uniforms hinder the expression of individual identity. Your opinion? Get
ready to talk to an audience on this issue.

You have 5 minutes to sketch out what you are going to say. You should prepare notes
instead of full sentences and try to speak as naturally as possible.
Your talking time should not exceed 5 minutes.
Good luck!
---------------------------------------------
QUESTION # 10:
To be a global citizen of the 21st century, a person necessarily equips
him/herself a lot of things. What are skills and qualities do you think we
need? Why? Get ready to talk to an audience on this issue.
You have 5 minutes to sketch out what you are going to say. You should prepare notes
instead of full sentences and try to speak as naturally as possible.
Your talking time should not exceed 5 minutes.
Good luck!
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THE END
 ĐÁP ÁN
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
ĐỀ THI LẬP ĐỘI TUYỂN DỰ THI CHỌN
TUYÊN QUANG
HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP QUỐC GIA LỚP 12 THPT
NĂM HỌC 2016 – 2017
Môn thi: Tiếng Anh

SECTION 1. LISTENING (5 points) (0,2 points for each correct answer)

Part 1. Questions 1-10

1. 230 South Road 6. material(s)

2. 12 7. insurance

3. activities – workshops 8. publicity

4. 250 9. program(me)

5. interactive 10. not avialable/unavailable

Part 2. Questions 11-15

11.A 12.C 13.B 14. A 15.C

Part 3

Talk 1: 16. D 17. D 18. A 19. C 20. D

Talk 2: 21. A 22. C 23. A 24. B 25. B

SECTION 2: (2.5 points): 0,1 point for each correct answer.

Part 1:
1.A 2.B 3.D 4.B 5.B

6.A 7.C 8.B 9.C 10.B

11.D 12.B 13.D 14.A 15.C

Part 2:

1. activities 2. works 3. significance 4. beliefs 5. marriages

6. behaviour 7. relationships 8. phenonmena 9. others 10. unacceptable

SECTION 3: Reading (5 points): 0,1 point for each correct answer.

Part 1:

1. C 2. A 3. D 4. B 5. B 6. D 7. A 8. D 9. A 10. A

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Part 2:

1. concerned 2. than 3. long/already 4. play 5. another

6. reverse 7. tend 8. those 9. puts 10. neither

Part 3:

1. A 2. D 3. C 4. B 5. C
6. D 7. D 8. B 9. C 10. C

Part 4:
1. vi 2. ix 3. iii 4. viii 5. i 6. iv

7. D 8. B 9. D 10. A
11. managers (and/or) sportsmen 12. driving 13. Pharmaceutical (companies)

Part 5:
1. C 2. A 3. B 4. C 5. D 6. B 7. C

SECTION 4. WRITING (5.5 points)

Part 1: (1 point)

- Word requirement: no more or less than 120 words : 0.3 pts

- No copy of original text : 0.3pts

- grammar, vocabulary use, spelling, and punctuation : 0.4 pts

Part 2: (2 points)

1. Completion: 0.5 pt

2. Content: 0.7 pt

- Cover the main information in the chart yet not go into too many details.

- Make general remarks and effective comparisons.

3. Organisation: 0.3 pt

- The ideas are well organized

- The description is sensibly divided into paragraphs

4. Language: 0.4 pt

- Use a wide range of vocabulary and structure

- Good grammar

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5. Punctuation and spelling: 0.1 pt

Part 3: (2.5 points)

1. Completion: (0.3 pt.)

2. Content: (1 pt)

- Provide relevant and convincing ideas about the topic, supported by specific
example and/or reasonable justification.

3. Organisation: (0.5 pts)

- Ideas are well organized and presented with unity, cohesion and coherence.

4. Language: (0.5 pts)

- Demonstrate of a wide range of vocabulary and structures.

- Good use of grammatical structures.

- Present the ideas with clarity.

5. Punctuations and spelling. (0.2 pts)

Model answer to Part 1

Dogs can teach us many lessons of life. It can teach us through its acts of love
and faithfulness, endangering itself just to accompany you. We can also learn from
its eating habits. It will never over-indulge and knows which food to avoid. Dogs
are also able to adapt to its surroundings quickly without complaining as compared
to man who complains at the slightest change. Dogs are also unselfish, choosing
not to burden his loved ones but to go away and die. Dogs also know when to work
and when to play. They do not waste their efforts unnecessarily like some of us do
at work. Thus, dogs can set us great examples through their day-to-day living.
(120 words )

Model answer to Part 2

Sample Answer 1:

The given graphs show the electricity demand in England in a typical day of
winter and summer and also show how people used this electricity. According to
the first line graph, we can see that, the electricity demand in winter is much
higher than the demand in summer in England.

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 In a typical day the electricity demand in winter season is around 35000 units
and it is around 18000 units in summer season. Again the demand of the electricity
varies on several hours of the day and the demand from 6:00 to 9:00 am is lesser
than the demand in other hours of the day. During the winter the demand is
highest from 21:00 to 23:00 and during summer the demand is highest from 13:00
to 14:00 hours.
Based on the pie chart we can infer that, the room heating and water heating
is the main purpose people consume the electricity in England. The demand for
washing machine, kettle and ovens consumes around 18% of total electricity
consumed and two other categories consume 15% electricity each. These two other
categories which consume 30% of total electricity include light, TV, Radio, vacuum
cleaner, food mixer and other electric told and devices.

Model Answer 2:
The presented graph illustrates the electricity requisition in England during two
different seasons, winter and summer. Meanwhile, the pie chart demonstrates how
the electricity is utilized daily and to what quantity.
In general, both in winter and summer, the electricity demand raises up from
around 9:00 am to about 23:00 pm and the electricity in mainly spent for heating
room and water.
Looking at the detail, the electricity demand in summer is reckoned between
10,000 – 20,000 units. It goes to around 12,000 before 9 am and slightly increases
to around 20,000 at 14 pm and relatively fluctuates until the rest of the day.
However, in winter, the electricity requisition sets about 35,000 units at 00 am and
gradually spikes before it actually rises at 9 am and keeps the level swells until
around 45,000 units at 23 pm.
Meanwhile, due to utilization and quantity, heating room and water are true as
the vast majority, 52%, of electricity using. This high proportion is related to the
high electricity demand for these two appliances during winter. Whereas other
kitchen and electronic devices, vacuum cleaners, food mixers and electronic tools
amass lower proportion, 48%, than heating rooms and water.