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Indian Contract Act - Smart Notes and MCQ

Law of Contract 1 (Chaudhary Charan Singh University)

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Chapter 1

The Indian Contract Act, 1872

Nature of Contract
1 MEANING OF CERTAIN TERMS (Sec. 2)
Proposal / Offer When one person signifies to another
Sec 2(a) His willingness
To do or to abstain from doing anything,
With a view to obtaining the assent of that –
 To such act; or
 Abstinence,
He is said to make a proposal (i.e., offer) (Legal obligation)
Promise When the person to whom the proposal is made,
Signifies his assent thereto,
The proposal is said to be accepted,
A proposal, when accepted, becomes a promise
Agreement Sec 2(e) Every promise
And
Every set of promises, forming the consideration for each other,
Is an agreement
Contract Sec 2(h) An agreement enforceable by law is a contract.
Promisor & Promisee When a proposal is accepted –
- The person making the proposal is called as ‘promisor’; and
- The person accepting the proposal is called as ‘promisee’.
Consideration When, at the desire of the promisor,
The promisee or any other person
Has - done/abstained from doing something; or
- does/abstains from doing something; or
- promises to do/abstain from doing something,
Such act/abstinence/promise is called a consideration for the promise.
Void agreement An agreement not enforceable by law is said to be void.
Voidable contact An agreement is a voidable contract if –
 It is enforceable by law at the option of one or more of the parties thereto,
 It is not enforceable by law at the option of the other or others.
Void contract A contract
Which ceases to be enforceable by law
Becomes void when it ceases to be enforceable.
2 MEANING OF CONTRACT (Sec. 2 & 10)
Definition [Sec. 2 (h)]  An agreement enforceable by law is a contract.
Essentials of a  Following are the two basic elements of a contract.
contract (a) There must be an agreement
(b) The agreement must be enforceable by law.
 In other words, Contract = agreement + enforceability of agreement.

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What agreements are  There must be an agreement between the parties
contracts  The parties must have an intention to create legal relations.
[Sec. 10]  The parties must freely consent to enter into the agreement.
 The parties must be competent to contract.
 There must be consideration.
 The consideration must be lawful.
 The object of the contract must be lawful.
 The agreement is not expressly declared to be void.
 The legal formalities for entering into such a contract are completed.
 It is possible to perform the agreement (Sec. 56)
 The terms of the agreement are certain or are capable of being made
certain (Sec. 29)
3 DISTINCTION BETWEEN AN AGREEMENT AND A CONTRACT
Basic of difference Agreement Contract
Meaning Agreement = offer + acceptance Contract = agreement + enforceability
Creation of legal An agreement does not create a legal A contract necessarily creates legal
obligation obligation unless it satisfies the obligations.
requirements of various provisions of
law.
One in other The term agreement is wider than Every contract is an agreement.
contract. An unenforceable agreement
is not a contract.
4 AGREEMENT TO DO IMPOSSIBLE ACT (Sec. 56)
Agreement to do an If - An agreement is made to do a particular act;
impossible act - At the time of making of agreement, it is certain that such an act is
impossible;
Then - The agreement is void.
Agreement to do an If - A contract is made to do a particular act;
act which - At the time of making of contract, such an act is not impossible;
subsequently - After the contract is made, such an act becomes impossible;
becomes impossible Then - The contract has become void.
Illustrative cases
Situation Result
A agrees with B to discover treasure by magic The agreement is void.-
A and B contract to marry each other. Before the The contract has become void.
time fixed for the marriage, A becomes mad.
A contract to marry B, being already married to C, The agreement is void. A must make
and being forbidden by the law to which he is compensation to B for the loss caused to her
subject to practice polygamy. by non-performance of his promise.
A contract to take in cargo for B at an American The contract has become void.
port. A‘s Government afterwards declares war
against America.
A contract to act at a theatre for 6 months in a The contract to act on such occasions, on
consideration of a sum paid in advance by B. On which A is unable to act because he is ill,
several occasions A is too ill to act. becomes void.

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5. AGREEMENT VOID FOR UNCERTAINTY - (Sec. 29)
ILLUSTRATIVE CASES
An agreement is void, if the meaning of such agreement is –
Not certain; or
Not capable of being made certain.
Illustrative cases
Situation Result
A agrees to sell B ‗a hundred tons of oil‘ The agreement is void for uncertainty since the
description of oil is not specified.
A agrees to sell B 100 tons of oil of a specified There is no uncertainty and therefore the agreement
description, known as an article of commerce. is not void.
Mr. A, who is a dealer in coconut oil only, The nature of A‘s trade implies that intends to sell
agrees to sell to B‘ 100 tons of oil‘ 100 tons of coconut oil. So, there is no uncertainty.
A agrees to sell to B all the grain in his granary There is no uncertainty since it is possible to
at Laxmi Nagar. determine the quantity of grain lying at B‘s granary
at Laxmi Nagar.
A agrees to sell to B 1000 Kgs. Of rice at a As the price is capable of being made certain, there
price to be fixed by C. is no uncertainty to make the agreement void.
A agrees to sell to B his white horse for Rs. 500 There is nothing to show which of the two prices
or Rs. 1000 was to be given. Therefore, the agreement is void.
6 CLASSIFICATION OF CONTRACTS (Sec. 2&9)
On the basis of Express contract A contract made by words spoken or written.
creation Implied contract A contract inferred by –
- The conduct of a person; or
- The circumstances of the case.
On the basis of Executed contract A contract in which both the parties have fulfilled their
execution obligations under the contract.
Executory contract A contract in which both the parties have still to fulfill
their obligations.
Partly executed and A contract in which one of the parties has fulfilled his
partly executory obligation but the other party is yet to fulfill his
obligation.
On the basis of Valid contract An agreement which satisfies all the requirements
enforceability prescribed by law.
Void contract A contract
Which ceases to be enforceable by law
Becomes void when it ceases to be enforceable.
Void agreement An agreement not enforceable by law is said to be void.
Voidable contract An agreement is a voidable contract if –
- It is enforceable by law at the option of one or more
of the parties thereto,
- It is not enforceable by law at the option of the other
or others.
Illegal agreement An agreement the object of which is unlawful.
Unenforceable A contract which fulfils all requirements of a contract
contract except some technical requirements. It becomes
enforceable when the defect is subsequently removed.

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Offer / Proposal
7 MEANING OF OFFER [Sec.2 (a)]
When one person signifies to another
His willingness
To do or to abstain from doing anything,
With a view to obtaining the assent of that –
To such act; or
Abstinence,
He is said to make a proposal (i.e., offer).
8 HOW TO MAKE AN OFFER? / MODE OF MAKING OFFER (Sec. 9)
Express offer It means an offer made by words spoken or written.
Implied offer It means an offer inferred by –
 The conduct of a person; or
 The circumstances of the case.
9 TO WHOM AN OFFER IS MADE?
Specific Offer It means an offer made to –
(a) A particular person; or
(b) A particular group of persons.
General Offer  It means an offer which is made to the public in general.
10 LEGAL RULES AS TO VALID OFFER
Offer must be Boulton v Jones
communicated  J offered to purchase 50 feet of leather from Z.
 Z in the meantime sold his business to B.
 Therefore, instead of Z, B supplied the leather to J.
 J refused to accept the leather.
 It was held that the offer was not communicated to B, and so B had
no legal right to accept the offer made by J.
 Therefore, no contract had concluded between J and B.
Carlill v Carbolic Smoke Ball Co.
 A pharmaceutical company advertised that it would give 100 Pounds to
anyone who contracted influenza after using their smoke balls for a
certain period.
 Mrs. Carlill purchased smoke balls and used them as directed.
 Shortly afterwards, she contracted influenza. She claimed the 100 Pounds.
 The Court held that the advertisement issued by the pharmaceutical
company was a general offer made to the public at large.
 [Mrs. Carlill, being a member of the public, had received the offer
and had acted upon it by using the smoke balls as directed.]
 Therefore, a contract was formed between the pharmaceutical company
and Mrs. Carlill, and so Mrs. Carlill could claim 100 Pounds.
Lalman Shukla v Gauri Dutt.
 G‘s nephew was missing.
 L, who was munim of G, went in search of the missing boy.

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 Meanwhile G issued handbills offering reward of Rs. 501 to anyone who
would trace the boy.
 L found the boy and brought him home.
 Since L had no knowledge of the offer made by G, he could not accept
such offer.
 Since there was no acceptance, there could be no contract, and therefore,
it was held that L was not eligible to receive the reward.
Communication of Handerson v Stevenson
complete offer  X purchased a steamer ticket for traveling from Dablin to White Haven.
 On the back of the ticket, certain conditions were printed. One of the
conditions excluded the liability of the company for any loss, injury or
delay to the passengers or their luggage.
 X never looked at the back of the ticket and there was nothing to draw his
attention to the conditions printed on the back side.
 X‘s luggage was lost due to the negligence of the servants of the shipping
company.
 Since the steamer company had not taken any steps to ensure that the
conditions printed on the back of the ticket were brought to the knowledge
of the passengers, such conditions do not form part of the contract.
 Therefore, X was entitled to recover the damages for loss of his luggage.
Parker v S.E. Rail Co.
 P deposited his bags in the cloakroom at a railway station.
 On the face of the receipt, the words ‗see back‘ were printed. One of the
conditions printed on the back was ―the liability of the railway company
shall be limited to $ 10 for any package‖.
 P‘s bag was lost. He claimed the actual value of bag amounting to $ 24.
 It was held that the disclaimer clause was binding on P since the railway
company had taken all reasonable steps to ensure that the conditions
printed on the back were brought to the knowledge of P.
An offer must not An offer must not contain any term the non-compliance of which amounts to
thrust the burden of acceptance.
acceptance on the Felthouse v Bindley
transferee  A wrote to B ―I will sell you my horse for Rs. 500. If I do not receive a
reply by Sunday next, I shall assume that you have accepted the offer.‖
 B did not reply.
 It was held that an offer can not impose the burden on the offeree to reply.
Acceptance is valid only if it is communicated to the offeror.
 Since B had not communicated his acceptance to A, there was no contract
between A and B, and therefore A could not sue B.
Cross offers do not  Two offers which are similar in all respects made by two parties to each
conclude a contract other, in ignorance of each other‘s offer are known as ‗cross offers‘. Cross
offers do not conclude a contract.
Counter offer A counter offer amounts to rejection of the original offer.
Offer must be  An invitation to offer does not imply a valid offer.
distinguished from
invitation to offer

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Offer must be disting- A declaration or a statement merely indicates that an offer will be made or
uished from a invited in future.
declaration of intention.
An offer must be The terms of the offer must be –
certain. (a) Definite;
(b) Unambiguous; and
(c) Certain.
11 LAPSE OF AN OFFER
Notice by offeror, i.e.,  Revocation of offer means withdrawal or cancellation of the offer.
Revocation  An offer can be revoked by the offeror anytime. However, revocation is
effective only if it is made before the offer is accepted.
Lapse of time An offer lapses if it is not accepted –
 Within the time specified in the offer;
 Within reasonable time, if no time is specified in the offer.
Non-fulfillment of If an offer requires fulfillment of some condition before the offer can be
condition precedent. accepted, the offer shall lapse if such condition is not fulfilled.
Counter offer A counter offer results in rejection of the original offer.
Acceptance is not If the offeree accepts the offer in a manner which is different from the manner
made in prescribed specified by the offeror, the offeror may refuse to treat such acceptance as
mode valid, and consequently the offer shall lapse.
Death or insanity of An offer shall lapse in the following cases:
the offeror or offeree (a) Where the offeror dies or becomes insolvent and such fact comes to the
knowledge of the offeree before acceptance of the offer.
(b) Where the offeree dies or becomes insolvent before acceptance of the
offer.
Rejection by the An offer comes to an end if the offeree rejects the offer and communicates
offeree his refusal to the offeror.
Subsequent illegality If, after making of an offer, the subject matter of the offer is destroyed or the
etc. performance becomes impossible or unlawful, the offer shall lapse.

Acceptance
12 INTRODUCTION TO ACCEPTANCE (Sec. 2 (b))
Definition of When the person to whom the proposal is made
acceptance Signifies is assent
Thereto
The proposal is said to be accepted.
Promise In case of a specific offer In case of a general offer
Only that particular person/group Any person if –
of persons to whom the specific - He has the knowledge of the
offer has been made and none else. offer; and
- He fulfils the terms and conditions
of the offer.
Mode of acceptance (a) Express acceptance
(b) Implied acceptance

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13 LEGL RULES FOR A VALID ACCEPTANCE (Sec. 7)
Absolute & unqualified  The offeree should assent to all the terms of the offer.
 There must be no variation/reservation, i.e., acceptance must be
unconditional.
Acceptance must be Acceptance cannot be made in ignorance of the offer.
communicated Mere mental acceptance is no acceptance.
Acceptance to whom?  The acceptance must be communicated to the offeror.
Felthouse v Bindley
 F made an offer to his nephew to buy the nephew‘s horse for Rs. 500.
 The offer stated that if the nephew failed to reply to the offer of F within
10 days, F shall consider that the horse had been sold to him.
 The nephew directed his manager not to sell that horse to anybody since
he wanted to sell that horse to F. But, the nephew did not send any reply
to F.
 By mistake, the manager sold that horse to some other person.
 It was held that nephew was not bound to send notice of refusal to F.
Therefore, failure to send the letter of refusal within 10 days did not
amount to acceptance.
 Also, nephew‘s communication of decision to sell the horse of F did not
result in a valid acceptance since such decision was not communicated
to F, the offeror.
 Since there was no contract between F and the nephew, F had no right
against the nephew.
Acceptance by whom? Acceptance must be given by the person who has the authority to accept the
offer.
Manner of acceptance. Situation (A) : The offer does Situation (B): The offer prescribes the
not prescribe the manner of manner of acceptance.
acceptance
The offer must be accepted in  The offer must be accepted in the
some usual and reasonable prescribed manner.
manner.  If the offer is not accepted in the
prescribed manner, the offeror may
approve or reject such acceptance.
Time limit for Situation (A): The offer does Situation (B): The offer prescribes the
acceptance not prescribe the time limit time limit.
The offer must be accepted The offer must be accepted within the
within reasonable time. prescribed time limit.
Acceptance must be  Acceptance can be given only to an existing offer.
given before the offer  An offer open for a limited period can be accepted only before the
lapses or revoked expiry of such specified period.
 An offer can be revoked before acceptance.
Mode of acceptance Acceptance may be given by –
 Performance of conditions, or
 Acceptance of consideration.

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14 COMMUNICATION WHEN COMPLETE (Sec. 4)
Communication of Communication when complete?
Offer When the offer comes to the knowledge of the offers.
Acceptance Communication is complete When acceptance is put in a course of
against the offer transmission so as to be out of the power of
the offeree.
Communication is complete When acceptance to the knowledge of the
against the offeree offeror.
Revocation Communication is complete When revocation is put in a course of
against the person who transmission
makes it - So as to be out of the power of the person
who makes it.
Communication is complete When revocation comes to the knowledge of
against the person to whom it the person to whom it is made.
is made -
15 TIME LIMIT FOR REVOCATION (Sec. 5)
Revocation of … Time limit for revocation
Offer Before communication of acceptance is complete against the offeror.
Acceptance Before communication of acceptance is complete against the offeree.
Consideration
16 MEANING OF CONSIDERATION (Sec. 2 (d))
When, at the desire of the promisor,
The promisee or any other person
Has done/abstained from doing, or does/abstains from doing, or promises to do/to abstain from
doing, something,
Such act/abstinence/promise is called a consideration for the promise.
17 ESSENTIALS OF A VALID CONSIDERATION
Consideration must An act or abstinence shall constitute a good consideration only if it is done at
move at the desire of the desire of the promisor.
the promisor.
Consideration may  So long as there is consideration for promise, it is immaterial as to who has
move from promisee furnished it.
or any other person.  If a party receives consideration, the contract is valid, even though the
person furnishing the consideration is not a party to the contract.
 Where a third party furnishes the consideration, it is valid consideration.
 As long as there is consideration in a contract, it is immaterial as to who has
given this consideration. This rule is generally stated as ‘Privity of
consideration is not required’.
No adequacy of  The law requires that there must be consideration in every contract.
consideration  However, adequacy of consideration is not required. Even if it is proved
required. that such consideration is inadequate, the contract is not void.
 The fact of inadequacy of consideration shall be given due weightage while
determining whether the consent of the promisor was freely given or not.
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It must be different Consideration received by a party must be something more than the other
from promisor’s party’s contractual and legal obligation.
existing obligation
Consideration must An agreement is void if the consideration furnished by any of the parties is
be lawful unlawful.
It must be real, and  Consideration received by a party must be of some value.
not illusory  Consideration must not be illusionary (i.e., existing in name)
18 EXCEPTIONS TO THE RULE: NO CONSIDERATION (Sec. 25) NO CONTRACT
Agreements made on  The agreement is made in writing.
account of natural  The agreement must be registered.
love and affection  The agreement must be made between the parties standing in immediate
Conditions relation to each other.
 There must be natural love and affection between the parties. However,
mere nearness of relationship does not imply natural love and affection.
Compensation for  A party renders some services to the other party or performs the legal
past voluntary obligation of the other party.
services - conditions  The services are rendered without any desire of the other party, i.e., the
services are rendered voluntarily.
 The other party afterwards promises to compensate the former party for the
services rendered to him.
Promise to pay a Meaning of time A creditor can sue the debtor for recovery of his money
time-barred debt barred debt by going to the Court of law. However, if the creditor
fails to institute the suit within 3 years of debt
becoming due for payment, the debt is said to be time
barred debt, i.e., the creditor cannot institute the suit
after the expiry of said period of 3 years.
General rule The general rule is that an agreement to pay a time
barred debt is void.
Exception An agreement to pay a time barred debt is enforceable
if the following conditions are satisfied:
 The debt is a time barred debt.
 The debtor promises to pay the time barred debt.
 The promise is made in writing.
 The promise is signed by the debtor.
Completed gift  Agreement to make a gift is not enforceable.
 However, once a gift has actually been made, the donor cannot demand it
back on the ground that there was no consideration.
Agency No consideration is necessary to create an agency.
Remission No consideration is necessary for an agreement to receive less than what is due.
Guarantee In a contract of guarantee, consideration received by the principal debtor shall
be sufficient consideration for the surety.

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19 PRIVITY OF CONTRACT (Sec. 25)
Privity of  It is well established that privity of consideration is not required.
consideration  Consideration may move from promisee or any other person.
 So long as there is consideration for promise, it is immaterial who has
furnished it.
Privity of contract –  The general rule is that only the parties to a contract can sue.
Meaning  In other words, if a person is not a party to the contract (i.e., a stranger to
contract), he cannot sue.
Privity of contract Dunlop Pneumatic Tyre Co. V Selfridge and Co.
Example  D entered into a contract of sale of certain tyres to P.
 The contract provided that P shall not sell the tyres below the list price.
Also, the contract provided that P shall, at time of resale, impose a
condition on the retailer that sale by retailer shall not be made below the list
price.
 P sold certain tyres to S.S. resold certain tyres below the list price.
 In a suit instituted by D against S, the Court held that such suit was not
maintainable since there was no privity of contract between S and D.
Privity of contract Creation of a trust. Beneficiary is not a party to the agreement creating a
Exceptions trust.
However, the beneficiary is allowed to sue the trustee
for enforcement of trustee‘s duties.
Marriage / Family Where a marriage or family settlement is made, the
arrangements person who is a beneficiary under such settlement is
entitled to sue even though he may not be a party to sue
settlement.
Acknowledgement The person, who becomes an agent of a third party by
acknowledgement, can be sued by such third party.
Assignment of a An assignee is entitled to exercise all the rights which
contract. could have been exercised by the assignor previously,
even though the assignee was not a party to the contract
as originally made.

CAPACITY OF PARTIES
20 EFFECTS OF MINOR’S AGREEMENT
Agreement is void ab A minor is incompetent to enter into any contract. Therefore, any agreement
initio, i.e., without made by a minor is void ab initio, i.e., it is without any legal effect.
any legal effect. Mohori Bibi v Dharmodas Ghose (IMP.)
 A minor entered into an agreement for mortgage of his property.
 He was paid a certain amount for mortgaging the property.
 Afterwards, the mortgagee filed a suit against the minor for recovery of
money paid to the minor.
 It was held that the money was paid to the minor under a void agreement,
and therefore the mortgage was not valid.

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An agreement for the  The principle laid down in Mohori Bibi v Dharamodas Ghose applies only
benefit of minor is if the agreement creates an obligation of a minor.
enforceable by minor  Where, an agreement is for the benefit of a minor, the agreement is not
void and therefore the minor can enforce such agreement.
 If the other party to the agreement fails to perform his part of obligation, the
minor can claim restitution.
Restitution Khan Gul v Lakha Singh
Following principles were laid down in the above case:
 The Court may grant relief to the other party if the other party had entered
into a contract with the minor on the basis of a misrepresentation made by
the minor.
 If the minor had received some consideration under the agreement, the
Court may grant restitution to the other party.
 However, the minor shall not be personally liable. In other words,
restitution shall be made only to such an extent as the estate of minor has
been benefited.
 The power of the Court to grant relief is discretionary in nature.
 The Court shall not grant relief if the other party had the knowledge of the
fact that it was entering into an agreement with a minor.
No estoppel against a  If the rule of estoppel is applied against a minor, it would amount to an
minor indirect way of enforcing a void agreement.
 Therefore, the rule of estoppel does not apply against a minor.
No specific  The other party cannot demand that minor should perform the obligation
performance which he had agreed to perform under the agreement.
No ratification by a  Ratification means acceptance of a transaction already done.
minor  An agreement entered into by a minor cannot be ratified by him after he has
attained majority.
 Where on attaining majority, a minor agrees to pay for the goods supplied by a
third party, such agreement is void for want of consideration.
No liability of guardian The guardian of a minor shall not be liable for acts of a minor.
Contracts by a The contract by a guardian on behalf of a minor shall be valid if –
guardian – Valid (a) The contract is for the benefit of minor; and
(b) The guardian has the authority to enter into such a contract.
Minor’s liability for Nature of As per Sec. 68, a minor is liable for necessities supplied to –
necessities liability (a) him; or
(b) Any other person who is dependent on the minor.
Conditions (a) The liability is only for ‗necessities‘ of life. The term
‗necessity‘ means necessities of life as per the social status
and conditions of life of the minor.
(b) The minor is not already in possession of such necessities.
(c) The minor shall not be personally liable.
Position of minor (a) Minor cannot be a guarantor.
(b) Minor may be admitted as a member where the shares are fully paid up.

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(c) Minor can be an apprentice provided he is of at least 14 years of age.
(d) Minor cannot be a partner in a firm. However, he may be admitted to the
benefits of partnership.
21 PERSONS OF UNSOUND MIND (Sec. 12)
Meaning of ‘sound A person is said to be of sound mind if he is able to -
mind’  understand the contract; and
 Form a rational judgment.
Presumption The law presumes that every person is of sound mind.
Requirements of law At the time of entering into a contract, a person must be of sound mind. A
person can enter into a contract in accordance with the following principles:
Nature of person When can he enter into a contract?
A person of sound  He can enter into a contract at all the times.
mind  He cannot enter into a contract when he is of
unsound mind.
A person of unsound  He can enter into a contract only at such intervals
mind. of time, if any, when he is of sound mind.
Burden of proof Case Burden of proving otherwise
A person who is The burden of proving that he was of unsound mind
usually of sound mind at the time of entering into the contract lies on the
person who challenges the validity of the contract.
A person who is The burden of proving that he was of sound mind at
usually of unsound the time of entering into the contract lies on the
mind. person who affirms the contract.
22 PERSONS DISQUALIFIED UNDER LAW
Company  A company is a legal person and therefore it can enter into a contract in its
own name.
 However, a company is disqualified to enter into any contract which falls
outside the object clause of memorandum
Alien enemy Existing contract - is suspended until the war is over;
- is discharged, if such contract is against public
policy.
Fresh contract - cannot be entered into until the war is
over
Permission of CG - An existing contract can be enforced;
- A fresh contract can be entered into.
Foreign diplomats Right to sue others
Can be sued Available
- Only in the following cases:
- (a) Where he submits himself to the Court
- (b) Where approval of CG is obtained.

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Convict Existing contract Is suspended until his conviction is completed.
Fresh contract Cannot be entered into
Permission of CG An existing contract can be enforced.
A fresh contract can be entered into.
Free Consent
23 COERCION - CONDITION (Sec. 15)
(a) Acts forbidden by  Actually committing an offence forbidden by IPC; or
IPC Unlawful  Threatening to commit an offence forbidden by IPC
detention of property
 Actually detaining the property; or
 Threatening to detain the property
(b) Intention  Causing any person to enter into an agreement.
Other points :
Applicability It is irrelevant as to whether or not IPC is in force –
of IPC is not relevant  At the time when coercion is employed; or
 At the place where coercion is employed.
How coercion may  Coercion may proceed from –
proceed?  A party to the contract; or
 Stranger to contract.
Against whom Coercion may be directed against -
coercion may be  A party to the contract; or
directed?  Stranger to contract
24 UNDUE INFLUENCE - CONDITIONS (Sec. 16)
Relations between  One party is in a position to dominate the will of the other.
the parties
Use of the dominant  The dominant party uses his dominant position.
position
Dominant party  The dominant party obtains an unfair advantage by way of entering into a
obtains an unfair contact.
advantage
Undue influence was employed/not employed – burden of proof.
Unconscionable  The burden of proof is on the dominant party.
transactions  The dominant party has to prove that undue influence was not employed.
Any other  The burden of proof is on the weaker party.
transaction  The weaker party has to prove that undue influence was employed.
25 ESSENTIALS OF FRAUD (Sec. 17)
By a party to the  It must be proved that fraud was committed by-
contract (a) A party to the contract; or
(b) Anyone with the connivance of a party to the contract.

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The party makes a  The party has made a representation of a fact.
representation  An opinion, a statement of expression, or a statement of intention does not
constitute a fraud.
 The representation is false
 The misrepresentation was made willfully.
 The misrepresentation was made with a view to deceive the other party.
 The other party is actually deceived.
 The other party has suffered a loss.
When is a representation considered as false?
Suggestion of a false  Where the person makes a representation of a fact knowing that such
fact fact is not true.
Concealment of a  Where the person conceals a fact even though he has knowledge of such
fact a fact.
Promise  Where a person makes a promise without any intention of performing it.
An act/omission  Any act omission declared by law as fraud also amounts to fraud.
Any other act  Any other act fitted to deceive also amounts to fraud.
Silence as fraud
General rule  Mere silence, which is likely to affect the willingness of the other party,
is not a fraud.
Exceptions  Where the parties stand in fiduciary relationship.
 When silence is equivalent to speech.
 Partial disclosure of truth which deceives the other party is a fraud.

26 ESSENTIALS OF FRAUD (Sec. 18)

 By a party to the contract.
 The party makes a representation.
 The representation is false.
 The misrepresentation was made innocently.
 The misrepresentation was not made with a view to deceive the other party.
 The other party has actually acted.

27 MISTAKE (Sec. 20 & 22)

Mistake of Indian  The contract is not voidable
law
Bilateral mistake  The agreement is void if-
(a) The mistake relates to a fact;
(b) Such fact is material to the agreement; and
(c) Both the parties are at mistake.
 Bilateral mistake may be
(a) Mistake as to the subject matter.
(b) Mistake as to the possibility of performance.
Unilateral Mistake  The contract is neither void nor voidable.

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Legality of object and consideration

27 UNLAWFUL OBJECT OR CONSIDERATION- (Sec. 23)
MEANING AND EFFECTS.
Circumstances in An agreement to do An agreement is unlawful if,
which object or something forbidden by It involves doing of an act which is forbidden
consideration is law by any law for the time being in force.
unlawful Defeating the provisions of An agreement is unlawful if,
any law It is of such a nature that if permitted
It would defeat the provisions of any law
Even though it is not directly prohibited by
any law.
Fraudulent An agreement is unlawful if
It is made to make a fraud on any person.
Involves injury to any An agreement is unlawful if
person or his property. It is made for the purpose of causing injury
to –
- Any other person; or
- Property of another person.
Immoral or opposed to An agreement is unlawful
public policy If, the Court regards that object or
consideration of such agreement is
- immoral; or
- opposed to public policy
Legal effect Every agreement of which the object or consideration is unlawful is void.

29 WHEN IS OBJECT OR CONSIDERATION SAID TO BE AGAINST PUBLIC POLICY

 Agreement for trading with enemy
 Agreement interfering with personal liberty.
 Agreement interference with parental duties
 Agreement interfering with marital duties..
 Agreement interfering with course of justice.
 Agreement for improper promotion of litigation.
 Agreement for stifling prosecution
 Maintenance agreement.
 Champerty agreement.
 Agreement to do an act against the duty of a person.
 Marriage brokerage agreement.
 Agreement not to bid.
 Agreement to create monopolies or to eliminate or reduce competition.
 Agreement for sale of public offices and titles.

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30 MAINTENANCE AND CHAMPERTY AGREEMENT
Meaning of maintenance  A party agrees to provide assistance (Financial or otherwise) to
agreement another party to institute or defend a suit.
 The person providing such assistance has no interest in such suit.
 The party who receives such assistance agrees to pay something
in return to the person who provides such assistance.
Legal effect of  The maintenance agreement is valid, if it is bonafide and the
maintenance agreement payment the person providing such assistance is reasonable.
Meaning of Champerty  A party agrees to provide assistance (financial or otherwise) to
agreement another party to institute or defend a suit.
 The person providing such assistance has no interest in such suit.
 The party who receives such assistance agrees to share the
proceeds from the suit received by him in return to the person
who provides such assistance.
Legal effect of champerty  The Champerty agreement is valid, if it is bonafide and the
agreement share of proceeds paid to the person providing such assistance is
reasonable.
31 AGREEMENTS UNLAWFUL IN PART (Sec. 25)
An agreement containing Whether unlawful part can be separated from unlawful part-
legal and illegal parts.  If ‗yes‘ - Lawful part can be enforced; or
- Unlawful part cannot be enforced.
 If ‗no‘ - The whole agreement is void.
A reciprocal agreement The reciprocal promise to do –
containing legal and illegal  Legal things – can be enforced
parts  Illegal things - cannot be enforced.
An agreement containing The alternate promise to do –
legal and illegal parts  Legal things – can be enforced
 Illegal things - cannot be enforced.

Void Agreements
32 AGREEMENTS IN RESTRAINT OF MARRIAGE (Sec. 26)
Every agreement in restraint of the marriage of any person is void.

33 AGREEMENTS IN RESTRAINT OF TRADE (Sec. 27)

Agreements in restraint of Every agreement by which
trade is void Anyone is restrained from exercising
A lawful profession, trade or business of any kind
Is void
To that extent.
Burden of proof  Party supporting the contract – must show that the restraint is
reasonably necessary to protect his interests.
 Party challenging the contract – must show that the restraint is
injurious to the public.

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Exceptions to Sec. 27
Sale of goodwill (a) Such restriction must relate to a similar business.
(b) Such restriction must be within specified local limits.
(c) Such restriction must be for the time so long as the buyer or any
person deriving title to the goodwill from him, carries on a like
business in the specified local limits.
(d) Such specified local limits should be reasonable having regard to
the nature of the business.
Restriction on existing An agreement by a partner not to carry on any business other than that
partner of the firm is valid.
Restrictions on outgoing (a) An agreement may provide that an outgoing partner will not
partner carry on a similar business after dissolution of the firm.
(b) Such restriction must be within specified local limits or within a
specified period.
(c) The restriction should be reasonable having regard to the nature
of the business.
Restrictions on partners (a) An agreement may provide that some or all of the partners will
upon or in anticipation of not carry on a similar business.
the dissolution of the firm (b) Such restriction must be within specified local limits or within a
specified period.
(c) The restriction should be reasonable having regard to the nature
of the business.
Restriction in case of sale (a) At the time of sale of goodwill of the firm, a partner may agree
of goodwill of a firm. that he will not carry on a similar business.
(b) Such restriction must be within specified local limits or within a
specified period.
(c) The restriction should be reasonable having regard to the nature
of business.
34 AGREEMENTS IN RESTRAINT OF LEGAL PROCEEDINGS (Sec. 28)
Agreement restricting An agreement by which
enforcement of rights Any party is restricted absolutely
From enforcing his legal rights under any contract is void.
Agreements limiting An agreement which limits the time within which an action may be
period of limitation brought is void.
Exceptions (a) An agreement is not void merely because it provides that any
dispute arising between two or more persons shall be referred to
arbitration.
(b) An agreement is not void merely because it provides that any
dispute that has arisen between two or more persons shall be
referred to arbitration.
35 WAGERING AGREEMENTS (Sec. 30)
Meaning An agreement between two persons under which money or money‘s
worth is payable, by one person to another on the happening or non-
happening of a future uncertain event is called a wagering agreement.
Effects of wagering (a) The agreement is void.
agreements (b) The agreement is illegal in the states of Maharashtra and Gujrat.
(c) No suit can be filed to recover the amount won on any wager.

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Agreements not held as (a) Agreement to pay prize money not exceeding Rs. 1,000
wagers (b) An agreement to pay a prize exceeding Rs. 500 to the winner of
a horse race is not a wager.

Contingent Contracts
36 INTRODUCTION TO CONTINGENT CONTRACTS (Sec. 31)
Meaning of A ‗contingent contract‘ is a contract to do or not to do something,
contingent contract If some event, collateral to such contract, does or does not happen.
Essentials features of (a) It is a contract to do or not to do something.
a contingent contract (b) This contract is dependent on happening or non-happening of an
event.
(c) Such an event is a collateral event, i.e., it is collateral to the contract,
i.e., the event must not depend upon the mere will of a party.
(d) The event is uncertain.
37 INTRODUCTION TO CONTINGENT CONTRACTS (Sec. 31)
Contract contingent When can it be enforced? When does it become void?
upon
Happening of an When such event has happened. When the happening of such event
event becomes impossible.
Non- happening of a When the happening of such event When such event has happened.
future event becomes impossible.
Happening of an When such event has happened within When the happening of such event
event within a the specified time. becomes impossible before the
specified time expiry of specified time.
When such event has not happened
within the specified time.
Non-happening of an When the happening of such event When such event has happened
event within a fixed becomes impossible before the expiry within the specified time.
time. of specified time.
When such event has not happened
within the specified time.
Future conduct of a When such person acts in the manner When such person does anything
living person. as desired in the contract. which makes the desired future
conduct of such person –
(a) Impossible; or
(b) Dependent upon certain
contingency.
Impossible events Such an agreement cannot be enforced since it is void. Whether the
impossibility of the event was known to the parties or not is immaterial.

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Quasi Contracts
38 INTRODUCTION TO QUASI CONTRACTS
It means a contract which lacks one or more of the essentials of a
Meaning of a quasi contract
contract.
Basis of quasi contract Quasi contracts are declared by law as valid contracts on the basis of
principles of equity, i.e., no person shall be allowed to enrich himself at
the expense of another.
Legal effect of a quasi The legal obligations of parties remain same in case of a quasi contacts
contract. also, i.e., the parties will have same obligations and rights as if such
quasi contract fulfils all the essentials of a contact.
39 SUPPLY OF NECESSARIES TO PERSONS INCOMPETENT (Sec. 68)
TO CONTRACT
 A person who is incompetent to contact is made liable u/s. 68.
Who is made liable u/s. 68?
Conditions of Sec. 68 The liability of an incompetent person arises if necessities are supplied
to –
 Such person (.e., incompetent person); or
 Any other person who is dependent on such incompetent person.
Liability of incompetent  The person who supplies necessities to the incompetent person is
person entitled to be reimbursed from the property of such incompetent
person.
 However, the incompetent person is not personally liable.
Meaning of necessities  ‗Necessities‘ means necessaries suitable to the conditions in life of
the person to whom such necessities are supplied.
40 PAYMENT BY A PERSON WHO IS INTERESTED IN A (Sec. 69)
TRANSACTION
Conditions of Sec. 69  One person is legally bound to make a payment.
 Some other person makes such payment.
 The person making such payment is not legally bound to make such
payment.
 The person making such payment is interested in paying such
amount.
Legal effect of Sec. 69  If all the conditions of Sec. 69 are satisfied, the person who is
interested in paying such amount shall be entitled to recover the
payment made by him.
41 OBLIGATION OF PERSON ENJOYING BENEFIT OF (Sec. 70)
NON-GRATUITOUS ACT
Conditions of Sec. 70  A person has lawfully-
o Done something for another person; or
o Delivered something to another person.
 Such person must have acted-
o Voluntarily; and
o Non-gratuitously
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 The other person has enjoyed the benefit of –
o The act done for him; or
o The thing delivered to him.
Legal effect of Sec. 70  If the conditions of Sec. 70 are satisfied, there will be a quasi
contract between the parties.
 Consequently, the party who has done something or delivered a
thing shall be entitled to recover its value from the person who
obtained the benefit of the same.
42 FINDER OF GOODS (Sec. 71)
A finder of goods has same rights and duties as that of a bailee.
43 MONEY PAID UNDER A MISTAKE OR COERCION (Sec. 72)
Conditions of Sec. 72  A person has -
o Paid money to another person; or
o Delivered something to another person.
 Such person must have acted-
o Under a mistake; or
o Under coercion
Legal effect of Sec. 72  If the above conditions are satisfied, there will be a quasi contract
between the parties.
 Consequently the party who has paid money or delivered a thing
shall be entitled to recover its value from the person who obtained
the benefit of the same.

Performance of a Contract
44 OBLIGATIONS OF PARTIES TO CONTRACTS ( Sec. 37 & 38)
Actual performance Promisor makes an offer of performance to the promisee.
The offer has been accepted by the promisee.
Offer to perform/ Tender / Promisor makes an offer of performance to the promisee.
Attempted performance The offer has not been accepted by the promisee.

45 TYPES OF TENDERS AND THEIR EFFECTS

Tender of goods and Goods or services need not be offered again if
services The promisor is –
(a) Discharged;
(b) Not required to offer again;
(c) Not responsible for non-performance;
(d) Is entitled to sue the other party;
Tender of money The debtor remains liable to pay the debt.
The debtor is discharged from liability for payment of interest from the
date of tender.

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46 CONDITIONS OR ESSENTIALS FOR A VALID TENDER (Sec. 38)
(a) The tender must be unconditional
(b) The tender must be for the whole obligation.
(c) The tender must be given at a proper time.
(d) The tender must be given at a proper place.
(e) The tender must give a reasonable opportunity of inspection.
(f) The party giving the tender must be wiling to perform his obligation.
(g) The tender must be made to the proper person.
(h) The tender must be made for the exact amount of money.

47 PERSONS LIABLE FOR, & ENTITLED TO, (Sec. 40 & 42)

PERFORMANCE
Persons liable for performance Persons entitled to performance
(a) Promisor (a) Promisee
(b) Agent of promisor (b) Agent of promise
(c) An of the several joint promisors (c) Joint promises
(d) Legal representative of a promisor (d) Legal representative of a promisee.
48 PERFORMANCE OF JOINT PROMISE (Sec. 42)
(a) All the joint promisors are jointly and severally liable. However, the contract between the
joint promisors may provide otherwise.
(b) A joint promisor may claim contribution from other joint promisors, if he is compelled to
perform the whole promise.
(c) A joint promisor may claim contribution from other joint promisors, if any other joint
promisor makes a default in performance of his promise.
(d) Where one of the joint promisors is released, other joint promisors shall continue to be
liable.
49 APPROPRIATION OF PAYMENTS (Sec. 59 to 61)
Application of  A debtor owes several distinct debts to the creditor.
payment where debt  The debtor makes a payment to the creditor.
to be discharged is
 The debtor intimates the creditor that the payment made is to be applied to
indicated
the discharge of some particular debt.
 The creditor has no option but to apply such payment for the discharge of
such particular debt.
Application of  A debtor owes several distinct debts to the creditor.
payment where debt  The debtor makes a payment to the creditor.
to be discharged is
 The debtor does not indicate the debt for which the payment is to be
not indicated.
applied.
 The creditor has the discretion to apply such payment for any lawful debt
which is due to him from the debtor.

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Application of  A debtor owes several distinct debts to the creditor.
payment where none  The debtor makes a payment to the creditor.
of the parties makes
 The debtor does not indicate the debt for which the payment is to be
the appropriation
applied.
 The creditor accepts such payment but does not apply such payment for
any lawful debt which is due to him from the debtor.
 The payment shall be applied in discharge of the debts in order of time.

Discharge of a contract
50 MEANING OF DISCHARGE OF A CONTRAT
Discharge of contract means termination of contractual relations between the parties to a
contract.
51 MODES OF DISCHARGE OF A CONTRACT
1. Discharge by performance
2. Discharge by impossibility of performance.
3. Discharge by mutual agreement.
4. Discharge by lapse of time.
5. Discharge by operation of law
6. Discharge by breach of contract.
52 DISCHARGE BY PERFORMANCE (Sec. 37 to 38)
Actual performance  When both the parties perform their respective obligations in
accordance with the terms of the contract, the contract is discharge.
Attempted perform-ance  Where a valid tender is not accepted by the other party, the promisor
or tender is discharged.
53 DISCHARGE BY IMPOSSIBILITY OF PERFORMANCE (Sec. 56)
Meaning of supervening  No impossibility existed at the time of making of the contract.
impossibility  The impossibility arises subsequently to the formation of the contract.
 The impossibility arises because of-
(i) Change in circumstances beyond the contemplation of parties; or
(j) Change in law.
 The impossibility is of such a nature that it makes the performance of
a contract impossible or illegal.
 If particular state of things, which forms the basis of a contract, ceases
to exist or occur, the contract is discharged.
Krell v Henry
 X hired a room from Y for viewing the coronation process of Kind
Edward.
 The procession was cancelled because of Kind‘s illness.
 Since the ultimate and only purpose of the contract was defeated, the
contract was discharged.

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 Partial failure of objects or partial impossibility does not discharge a
contract.
H.B. Steamboat Co. v Hulton
 X agreed to hire a boat from Y for the purpose of viewing the naval
review on the eve of coronation of kind and for sailing around the
fleet.
 Due to king‘s illness, the naval review was cancelled, but the fleet was
assembled.
 X used the boat for sailing around the fleet.
 Although the primary purpose of the contract was defeated, the
secondary purpose was fulfilled and therefore, the contract was not
discharged by supervening impossibility.
Effects of supervening  The contact becomes void. All the parties are discharged from their
impossibility respective obligations.
 Restitution is allowed.
55 DISCHARGE BY MUTUAL AGREEMENT (Sec. 62 to 63)
Novation  Novation means substitution of a new contract in place of the original
contract.
 The new contract may be-
o Between the same parties; or
o Between different parties.
 A new contract is entered into in consideration of discharge of the old
contract. In other words, the consideration for the new contract is the
discharge of the original contract.
Alteration  Alteration means a change in one or more of the terms of a contract
with mutual consent of parties.
 An alteration discharges the original contract and creates a new
contract between the parties.
 However, the parties to the new contract remain the same.
Remission  Remission means acceptance of a lesser consideration than agreed to
in the contact.
 A promise may –
o Dispense with (wholly or in part) the performance of a promise
made to him; or
o Extend the time for performance due by the promisor; or
o Accept a lesser sum instead of the sum due under the contract;
or
o Accept any other consideration than agreed to in the contract.
 No consideration is necessary for remission.
Rescission  It means cancellation of a contract by one or all the parties to the
contract.
(a) A party whose consent was not free may avoid the contract.
(b) A party to the contract may rescind a contract if breach of
contract is made by the other party to the contract.
(c) All the parties may mutually agree to bring the contract to an
end.
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Waiver  Waiver means intentional relinquishment of a right under a contract.
Merger  Conversion of an inferior right into a superior right is called as
merger.
 The effect of conversion is that the contract under which inferior right
is created is discharged.
55 DISCHARGE BY LAPSE OF TIME
Where the time of performance by a party is due but the party fails to perform within the time
specified, the contract is discharged by non-performance.
56 DISCHARGE BY OPERATION OF LAW
Death  Contracts involving personal skill, knowledge or ability of the
deceased party are discharged automatically.
Insolvency  The insolvent is discharged from liability on all contracts entered into
upto the date of insolvency.
Unauthorized material  An alteration which changes the substance (i.e., legal effect or basic
alteration character) of a contract is called as material alteration.
Merger of rights.  If the rights and liabilities arising under a contract vest in the same
person, the contract is discharged.
57 DISCHARGE BY BREACH OF CONTRACT
Meaning of breach  Failure of a party to perform his part of contract is called as breach.
Consequences of breach  The other party is relieved from performing its part of obligation.
 It gets a right to proceed against the party at fault.
58 KINDS OF BREACH (Sec. 39)
Actual breach Time when breach  On the due date of performance
takes place  During performance.
Manner in which  Where a party fails to perform.
actual breach may  Where a party refuses to perform.
take place  Where a party acts in such a manner that it
becomes impossible for him to perform.
Anticipatory breach Meaning of Where a party declares his intention of not
anticipatory breach performing the contact before the performance of
contract is due.
Modes of (a) Express Repudiation. Where a party refuses
anticipatory breach to perform his obligation before the
performance has become due.
(b) Party disables himself. Where a party acts in
such a manner that it is impossible for him to
perform, i.e., the party has disabled himself
from performance that he had promised.
Remedies for Breach of a Contract
59 REMEDIES FOR BREACH OF A CONTRACT.
Following remedies are available in case of breach of a contract:
1. Rescission 2. Suit for damages 3. Suit for specific performance
4. Suit for injunction. 5. Suit for quantum meriut

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60 RESCISSION (Sec. 39)
Meaning of rescission  Rescission means a right available to an aggrieved party to terminate a
contract.
Effects of rescission  The aggrieved party is not required to perform his part of obligation.
 The aggrieved party can claim compensation for any loss caused to him.
61 SUIT FOR DAMAGES (Sec. 73)
Meaning  Monetary compensation allowed for loss suffered by the aggrieved party
due to breach of a contract.
Object of awarding  Not to punish the party at fault.
damages  To make good the financial loss suffered by the aggrieved party due to
breach of contract.
Kinds of damages
Ordinary damages  These damages are awarded for such loss suffered by a party which is a
proximate consequence of breach.
 Damages are not awarded if they have resulted because of an indirect
consequence.
Special damages  Special damages are awarded to cover such loss which through does not
arise naturally, but was in the contemplation of both the parties at the
time when the contract was made.
 These damages can be recovered only if the special circumstances
which would result in a special loss in case of breach of a contract are
communicated to the other party.
Exemplary or punitive These damages are awarded only in the following 2 cases:
or vindictive damages Breach of a contract The damages shall be calculated on the basis of
to marry mental injury sustained by the aggrieved party.
Unjustified dishonor The damages shall be calculated on the basis ‗lower
of a cheque the amount of cheque, greater will be the damages‘.
Nominal damages  Where no loss is suffered by the aggrieved party, the Court generally
awards nominal damages.
Damages for  Where a party has suffered physical inconvenience, discomfort or mental
inconvenience etc. agony as result of breach, the Court may award damages for the same.
Liquidated damages  Where the parties to a contract specify a certain sum in the contract
and penalty which will become payable as a result of breach, such specified sum is
called as ‗liquidated damages‘ or ‗penalty‘
 If the specified sum represents a fair and genuine pre-estimate of the
damages likely to result due to breach, such specified sum is called as
‗liquidated damages‘.
 If the specified sum is disproportionate to the damages which are likely
to result as a result of breach, such specified sum is called as ‗penalty‘.
 In India, damages shall be restricted to a reasonable compensation not
exceeding the specified sum.
Forfeiture of security  If any loss is suffered by a party as a result of breach, the damages
deposit awarded to him shall be limited to the loss suffered by him.
 Any clause in the contract entitling the aggrieved party to forfeit the
security deposit is not valid.

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Payment of interest  Payment of interest is permissible.
 If no rate of interest is mentioned in the contract, the party shall be
liable to ay interest –
(a) As per any law for the time being in force;
(b) As per the custom or usage of trade.
 However, if the interest is in the nature of penalty, the Court may grant
relief.
62 SUIT FOR SPECIFIC PERFORMANCE
Meaning  Specific performance means demanding an order from the Court that the
promise specified in the contract shall be carried out.
When is specific  Actual damages arising from breach are not measurable.
performance allowed?  Monetary compensation is not an adequate remedy.
When is specific  Where damages are an adequate remedy.
performance not  Where the performance of contract involves numerous or minute details,
allowed? and therefore it is not possible for the Court to supervise the
performance of the contract.
 Where personal quality of a person is the subject matter of contract.
 Where the contract is dependent upon personal volition of the parties.
 Where the contract is inequitable to any of the parties.
 Where the contract is made by a company beyond its powers as laid
down in the object clause of memorandum of association.
 Specific performance cannot be enforced against a minor.
63 SUIT FOR INJUNCTION
Meaning  Injunction means an order of the court restraining the other party from
carrying out a particular act.
When is this remedy  The Court has the discretion whether or not to grant injunction.
available?  Where a party to the contract promises to do an act but refuses to
perform such act resulting in breach of contract, the aggrieved party
may claim an injunction order from the Court restraining the defaulting
party from performing such act in future.
64 SUIT FOR QUANTUM MERIUT (as much as he has earn)
One party preventing  If a party prevents the other party from completing his obligation
the other from comp- under the contract, the aggrieved party may claim payment on
letion of contract quantum meriut for the part of contact already performed by him.
Divisible contract  A party at fault may sue on quantum meriut if –
partly performed (a) The contract is divisible;
(b) The contract is partly performed; and
(c) The party not at fault has enjoyed the benefits of the part
performance.
Indivisible contract  A party at fault may sue on quantum meriut if –
performed (a) The contract is indivisible;
completely but badly. (b) The contract is for a lump sum consideration;
(c) The contract is completely performed;
(d) The contract is performed badly.

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OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
(I) NATURE OF CONTRACTS
Q.1. P agrees to pay a certain sum to Q, if Q brings on earth a star from sky. This is a :
(a) Valid contract (b) Void contract (c) Voidable contract (d) Enforceable contract
Q.2. Indian Contract Act, 1872 is passed by :
(a) Indian Parliament (b) British Parliament (c) U. S. Congress (d) None of these
Q.3. In an auction sale, ‗X‘ is the highest bidder. The auctioneer accept the offer by not speaking but
striking the hammer on the table this amounts to :
(a) Express acceptance (b) Implied acceptance (c) Future acceptance (d) No acceptance
Q.4. A enquires from B, ―will you purchase my cow for $ 100?‖ B replies, ―I shall purchase your cow
for $ 100 provided you purchase my parrot for $ 120.‖ In this case :
(a) B has accepted the offer of A (b) B has made a counter offer to A
(c) A is bound by the actions of B (d) B cannot make such an offer
Q.5. Which one of the following promises is enforceable?
(a) X promises to pay Rs. 5,000/- to Y who saved him from drowning
(b) X promises to pay Rs. 5,000/- to his son
(c) X promises to donate Rs. 5,000/- to an Officer‘s Club
(d) X promises to pay Rs. 5,000/- as additional fees to his advocate for winning a suit
Q.6. Which of the following is false? An offer to be valid must:
(a) Contain a term the non-compliance of which would amount to acceptance
(b) Intend to create legal relations
(c) Have certain and unambiguous terms
(d) Be communicated to the person to whom it is made.
Q.7. A agrees to sell to B a horse for Ra. 25,000 if it wins a race and for Rs. 15,000 if does not. The
horse wins the race. The agreement is:
(a) Valid and enforceable (b) Void and enforceable
(c) Void and wagering (d) Voidable and wagering
Q.8. The Indian Contract Act, 1872 extends to :
(a) Whole of Indian (b) Whole of India except Jammu and Kashmir
(c) North India only (d) South India only
Q.9. On the 5th of a month X makes an offer to Y, by a letter, which reaches Y on 6th. On the 7th , Y
posts his letter of acceptance.
Meanwhile, on the 6th X posts a letter to Y revoking the offer. On seeing it Y sends a telegram to
X on 8th confirming the acceptance given through his letter of the 7th. Discuss the legal effects of
three letters and the telegram:

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(a) There is no contract between X and Y
(b) The contract is concluded between X and Y on 7th when B posts the letter of acceptance
(c) Either (a) or (b)
(d) None of the above
Q.10. ……………….. Contract is good in substance but suffers from some technical defect:
(a) Valid contract (b) Illegal contract
(c) Voidable contract (d) Unenforceable contract
Q.11. X Promise to pay Z Rs. 5,00,000 if Z can make his dead wife alive. Such a contract is:
(a) Valid (b) Void (c) Impossible to perform (d) Unenforceable
Q.12. Agreement is defined in section of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 :
(a) 2 (e) (b) 2 (c) (c) 2 (g) (d) 2 (i)
Q.13. X makes a proposal to Y, which Y accepts. But before the acceptance came to the knowledge of
X, Y revokes his acceptance by telegram :
When is the revocation complete?
(a) When the telegram is received by X
(b) When X accepts the revocation
(c) When the telegram is dispatched
(d) When the contents of the telegram come to the knowledge of X
Q.14. When two parties exchange identical offers in ignorance at the time of each other‘s offer, the
offer‘s are called:
(a) Counter offer (b) Cross offer (c) General offer (d) Special offer
Q.15. An agreement which is enforceable by law at the option of one or more of the parties thereto, but
not at the option of the other, is a:
(a) Valid contract (b) Unenforceable contract (c) Voidable contract (d) Void agreement
Q.16. A invites B for his son‘s wedding. B accepts the invitation. In this case there is an agreement but
no contract, since :
(a) There is no consideration
(b) There is no intention to create legal relationship
(c) There is no written document
(d) There is no formal acceptance of the offer
Q.17. X offers to sell his house to Y for Rs. 10 Lacs and states in his letter that the offer would be
considered within a certain time. Here, the letter of X would:
(a) Amount to a proposal (b) Amount to a promise
(c) Not amount to a proposal (d) Amount to acceptance
Q.18. L says to J, ― I shall sell my house: will you buy? A says ― Yes, I shall buy‖. The agreement is
void due to:
(a) Uncertainty of meaning
(b) Uncertainty of price
(c) Uncertainty of existence of subject matter
(d) Uncertainty of quality of subject matter

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Q.19. An Executed Consideration is:
(a) An act of mutual exchange of promises
(b) An act done in the expectation of a proposal
(c) An act done in response to a positive promise
(d) All of the above
Q.20. Which one of the following constitutes an offer in a self – service store?
(a) Picking up an article and approaching the cashier‘s desk for payment
(b) Display of goods at the shop window
(c) There is no offer in such cases
(d) When the customer asks for some goods
Q.21. In case of illegal agreements, the collateral agreements are:
(a) Valid (b) Voidable (c) Void (d) None
Q.22. S agrees to sell his DVD player to R promising to deliver it on the date of payment. R promises
to pay the amount, one month hence. This is an example of:
(a) Void contract (b) Illegal contract (c) Unilateral contract (d) Bilateral contract
Q.23. Goods displayed in a shop window with a price label will amount to:
(a) Offer (b) Acceptance of offer (c) Invitation to offer (d) Counter offer
Q.24. The communication of an acceptance is complete as against the acceptor:
(a) When it is put in course transmission to him so as to be out of acceptor
(b) When it comes to the knowledge of the proposer
(c) When both the proposer and the acceptor declare the acceptance
(d) When the acceptor accepts his acceptance in a court of law
Q.25. The juristic concept of contract consists of:
(a) Agreement & Obligation (b) Free Consent & Capacity
(c) Offer and Acceptance (d) Consideration & Coercion
Q.26. All innocent promises collateral to the main illegal promise contained in a contract will be
regarded as :
(a) Valid (b) Void (c) Illegal (d) Voidable
Q.27. S offered a reward to anyone who returns his lost dog. F bought the dog to S without having
heard of the offer. Which of the following is correct?
(a) F is entitled to the reward (b) F was not entitled to the reward
(c) S has to find the dog himself (d) No reward can be given for the return of lost dog
th
Q.28. A, by a letter dated 10 January 2008, offers to sell his house to B for Rs. 40 Lacs. The letter
reaches B on 17th January 2008, who posts his acceptance on 18th January 2008 which reaches A
on 30th January 2008. Here, the communication of offer is complete on :
(a) 18.01.2008 (b) 30.01.2008 (c) 17.01.2008 (d) 10.01.2008

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Q.29. In the above question, the communication of acceptance is complete against A on 18th January
2008 and against B on:
(a) 18.01.2008 (b) 30.01.2008 (c) 17.01.2008 (d) 10.01.2008

(II) Consideration

Q.30. Agreement without consideration is invalid when made?

(a) Out of love and affection due to near relationship
(b) To pay a time barred debt
(c) To compensate a person who has already done something voluntarily
(d) All of these
Q.31. Consideration must move at the desire of :
(a) The promisor (b) The promisee
(C) The promisor or any third party (d) Both the promisor and the Promisee`
Q.32. Which of the following is not an example to the rule, ―No consideration, No contract‖.
(a) Natural love and affection (b) Compensation for involuntary services
(c) Completed gift (d) Agency
Q.33. Past consideration is valid in :
(a) England only (b) India only (c) Both (d) None
Q.34. A is indebted to B. He sells trolley to C. C promises to pay all debts of A to B. If C fails to pay,
B has no right to sue C because:
(a) C is stranger to consideration (b) C is stranger to contract (c) Both (d) None
Q.35. Consideration is defined in the Indian Contract Act, 1872 in:
(a) Section 2(f) (b) Section 2(e) (c) Section 2(g) (d) Section 2 (d) None
Q.36. The inadequacy of consideration will be taken into account by a court of law:
(a) Always at the discretion of the court
(b) When the promisor performs his promise
(c) When absence of free consent is pleaded in the formation of the contract
(d) When the promisor expresses his desire to get maximum return for his promise
Q.37. Rohan promises to make a gift of Rs. 10,000 towards the repairs of a temple. The trustees of the
temple on the faith of his promise incurs liabilities. Rohan does not pay. Can the trustees recover
the promised amount from Rohan?
(a) The trustee cannot recover anything from Rohan
(b) The trustee can recover to the extent of liabilities from Rohan
(c) The trustee can recover Rs. 10,000 from Rohan
(d) None
Q.38. A who was badly in need of money offered to sell his piano worth Rs. 8500 to B for Rs. 5000.
B refused to buy. A gradually lowered his price until Rs.2500 was reached, which B accepted.
Before the piano was delivered A received an offer of a larger sum from X and he refused to

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carry out the contract with B claiming that the consideration was inadequate. Is A liable to pay
damages to B for failure to carry out his part of contract?
(a) No, as the consideration was inadequate A cancelled the contract
(b) Yes, A is liable to pay damages to B for failure to carry out his part of the contract
(c) No, as the contract was made due to Undue Influence
(d) Any of the above
Q.39. ‗Privity of Contract‘ is subject to the exception:
(a) Where a trust or charge is created
(b) Where payment is made to a third party
(c) Where payment is made by a third party
(d) None of these
Q.40. Which of the following statement is true:
(a) Consideration must be adequate
(b) Consideration must result in a benefit to both the parties
(c) Consideration must be something, which a promisor is not already bound to do
(d) Past consideration is no consideration in India
Q.41. A consideration is:
(a) A reason behind making a proposal
(b) A condition of the fulfillment of the other‘s promise
(c) Doing or abstaining from doing something at the desire of the promisor
(d) Reward for something which one has done for another
Q.42. Which of the following are void contracts?
(a) Agreement the meaning of which is certain
(b) Agreement with unlawful consideration
(c) Agreement with minor
(d) Agreement with inadequate consideration, if inadequacy is not supported by free consent

(III) Other Essential Elements of a Valid Contract

Q.43. S, a seller of imitation jewellery, sells his business to B and promises, not to carry on business in
imitation jewellery and real jewellery. The agreement is:
(a) Fully valid
(b) Valid with regard to imitation jewellery, and void as regards real jewellery
(c) Void with regard to imitation jewellery, and valid as regards real jewellery
(d) Wholly void
Q.44. S, a minor by fraudulently representing himself to be a major, induced L to lend him Rs. 4
Lakhs. He refused to repay it and L sued him for the money. The contract is:
(a) Voidable at the option of the minor
(b) Voidable at the option of L
(c) Wholly valid, S is liable to repay the amount
(d) Totally void and S is not liable to repay the amount due
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Q.45. Mistake as to foreign law is treated in the same manner as:
(a) Mistake of Indian law (b) Mistake of fact (c) Misrepresentation (d) Frauds
Q.46. Atul contracted to make and deliver 350 pairs of shoes to Bansi by 1st January. A strike of Atul‘s
employees prevented him from fulfilling his contract. In a suit by Bansi for breach of contract,
Atul claimed that the contract was terminated by impossibility of performance, was his defence
good?
(a) No, Atul is liable to Bansi for damages
(b) Yes, doctrine of supervening impossibility applies
(c) Yes, doctrine of frustration will apply
(d) Option (b) but not (c)
Q.47. An agreement is void if it is opposed to public policy. Which of the following does not cover this
head?
(a) Trading with an enemy (b) Trafficking in public offices
(c) Marriage brokerage contracts (d) Contracts to do impossible acts
Q.48. ―Consensus-ad-idem‖ means:
(a) General consensus (b) Reaching of contract
(c) Reaching an agreement (d) Meeting of minds upon the same thing in same sense
Q.49. Parents or Guardians shall _________ for breach of contract by minor :
(a) Be held liable (b) Not be held liable (c) Be imprisoned (d) Not be questioned
Q.50. The concept of ―Duress‖ under English Contract Law is similar to :
(a) Undue Influence (b) Misrepresentation (c) Coercion (d) Fraud
Q.51. X offers to sell a painting to Z which X knows is the copy of a well known master piece. Z
thinking that the painting is original decides to buy it at a very high price. Is this a valid contract?
(a) Yes, price is not the criteria for setting aside the contract
(b) No, X is guilty of fraud.
(c) Yes, Z has an erroneous belief as to the value of the painting
(d) No, X is guilty of misrepresentation
Q.52. X agrees to pay ‗Y‘ Rs.5,000 if Y delivers a judgement in his favour in a suit. ‗Y‘ does so but X
refuses to pay any money. In this context which one of these gives the correct legal position of
the agreement?
(a) The agreement is void being opposed to public policy
(b) The agreement is valid and enforceable
(c) The agreement is voidable at the option of ‗Y‘
(d) The agreement is void because the object is unlawful, forbidden by law
Q.53. In case, through the husband was a divorcee, he did not disclose the fact of his previous marriage
to his wife and in-laws. It was held that the consent was obtained by:
(a) Mistake (b) Misrepresentation (c) Fraud (d) Undue influence
Q.54. A man, by the name of Sohan, called at a Jeweller shop and chose a costly ring. He tendered in
payment a cheque, which he signed in the name of Garish, a person of credit. He took the ring
and pledged it to Bola Nath, who had no notice of fraud. Can the Jeweller recover the ring from
Bola Nath?
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(a) Yes the jeweler can recover from Bola Nath
(b) The jeweler can recover either from Sohan or Bola Nath
(c) No, the jeweler can not recovers from Bola Nath
(d) Can‘t say
Q.55. A mortgage was executed in favour of a minor. Can the minor get a Decree for the enforcement
of the mortgage?
(a) Yes (b) No (c) Can‘t say (d) Mortgage is invalid
Q.56. Where an agreement consists of two parts one legal and other illegal, and the legal part is
separable from the illegal one, such legal part is :
(a) Void (b) Valid (c) Voidable (d) Illegal
Q.57. An agreement entered into with free consent & lawful but inadequate consideration is:
(a) Void (b) Voidable (c) Illegal (d) Valid
Q.58. An illiterate old woman made a gift deed for practically her entire property to her nephew who
managed her affairs. The gift can be set aside on the grounds of:
(a) Mistake (b) Coercion (c) Fraud (d) Undue Influence
Q.59. A sum of money was agreed to be paid to the father in consideration of his giving his daughter in
marriage. The agreement is void on ground‘s of being:
(a) Restraint of marriage (b) Marriage brokerage contract
(c) Restraint of personal liberty (d) Restraint of legal proceedings
Q.60. As a general rule minor‘s agreements are:
(a) Void ab initio (b) Voidable (c) Valid (d) Unlawful
Q.61. Match list I with list II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists :

LIST I LIST II
A. Contract opposed to public policy 1. Contracts of insurance
B. Agreement where object is uncertain 2. Agreements hostile to friendly states
C. Intention to create legal obligation 3. Void and Unenforceable
D. Contracts of utmost good faith 4. Essential element for valid contract
CODES :

A B C D
(a) 1 4 3 2
(b) 4 2 1 3
(c) 2 1 3 4
(d) 2 3 4 1

Q.62. N threatens L‘s wife that their son M would be abducted if L did not lease but their land to him
(N). This is a case of :
(a) Undue influence (b) Coercion (c) Fraud (d) Misrepresentation

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Q.63. A fraudulently informs B that his house is free from encumbrances. B thereupon, buys the house.
The house is subject to a mortgage. What are the rights of B?
(a) The contract is voidable at the option of B
(b) He may avoid the contract and get back his money
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Either (a) or (b)
Q.64. The leading case, on the point that minor‘s agreement is void ab initio, is:
(a) Carlill v. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co. (b) Mohoribibi v. Dharmodas Ghose
(c) Nash v. Inman (d) None of these
Q.65. Which of the following agreements are expressly declared void by the Indian Contract Act?
(a) Agreement made without consideration
(b) Agreement by a minor or a person of unsound mind
(c) Agreement in restraint of marriage
(d) Agreement of which the consideration and object are unlawful
Q.66. Which contracts are not Wagering Contracts?
(a) Bull & Bear Activities (b) Lottery (c) Speculative Activities (d) All of these
Q.67. Which of the following statement is false?
(a) A contract is not voidable if fraud or misrepresentation does not induce the other party to
enter into a contract
(b) A party cannot complain of fraudulent silence or is representation if he had the means of
discovering the truth with ordinary means
(c) In case of fraud or misrepresentation, aggrieved party can either rescind or affirm the
contract
(d) A party who affirms the contract, can also change his option afterwards if he so decides.
Q.68. An agreement in restraint of legal proceedings is void. It does not cover an agreement which\
(a) Cuts short the period of limitation
(b) Restricts absolutely the parties from enforcing their legal rights
(c) Discharges a party from liability or extinguishes the rights of a party
(d) Provides for a reference to arbitration instead of court of law
Q.69. A minor can do which of the following things?
(a) Plead minority (b) Can act as an agent
(c) Enter contract of apprenticeship (d) All of the above
Q.70. A contract made by mistake about the Indian Law, is :
(a) Valid (b) Void (c) Voidable (d) Illegal
Q.71. The Contract of ―Uberrimae Fidei ― means a contract :
(a) Of Good Faith (b) Of Goodwill
(c) Guaranteed by a surety (d) Of Utmost Good Faith

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Q.72. Which of the following statement is not correct ?
(i) A threat to commit suicide does not amount to coercion
(ii) Undue influence involves use of physical pressure
(iii) Ignorance of law is no excuse
(iv) Silence always amounts to fraud
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii) (c) (i), (ii) and (iv) (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Q.73. Can a person who is usually of unsound mind, but occasionally of sound mind, make a contract?
(a) Yes, but only when he is of sound mind (b) Yes, he can always make a contract
(c) No, he cannot make a contract (d) Can‘t be determined
Q.74. Where the pre – assumption of ―Undue Influence‖ does not exists :
(a) Husband & wife (b) Father & Son (c) Teacher & Student (d) Doctor & Patient
Q.75. A minor‘s estate is liable for the _______ supplied to him :
(a) Luxuries (b) Necessities (c) Necessaries (d) All the things
Q.76. In which of the following agreements, restraint of trade is valid ?
(a) Agreement with buyer of goodwill
(b) Trade combinations, to the extent they do not create monopoly or opposed to public policy
(c) Agreements under the Partnership Act,1932
(d) All of the above
Q.77. S instructs T to enter on his behalf into a wagering transaction. T loses in the transaction and
pays from his pocket. He thereafter sues S for reimbursement. Can S raise plea of wager?
(a) Yes, S can raise the plea of wager
(b) No, as the agent‘s transaction, which is collateral to the main transaction, which is void is not
affected
(c) Yes, S can raise the plea of wager but only in the states of Maharashtra & Gujarat
(d) Option (b) is correct whereas (c) is an exception

(IV) Performance of Contract

Q.78. A lets out a theatre to B for a series of drama for certain days. The theatre was completely
destroyed by fire before the scheduled dates. In the case :
(a) The contract is discharged by impossibility of performance
(b) The contract is void ab initio
(c) The contract is voidable at the option of B
(d) A cannot be discharged of the contract
Q.79. A, B and C jointly promise to pay D a sum of Rs.90,000. C is compelled to pay the whole of the
amount to D. Can he recovers anything form A and B when both A and B were solvent?
(a) Yes, C can recover Rs.60,000 from A
(b) Yes, C can recover Rs.90,000 from A
(c) Yes, C can recover Rs.30,000 each from A and B
(d) No C cant recover anything from A and B
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Q.80. A servant is employed for one year on a monthly salary of Rs.1800, the whole salary to be paid
at the end of the year. The servant wrongfully leaves the service after six months. Is he entitled to
any salary?
(a) He is entitled to the whole salary
(b) He is entitled to the salary of six months.
(c) He is entitled to the salary which his master thinks suitable
(d) He is not entitled to any salary
Q.81. R contracts to sell his car to S for Rs. 7 Lacs and S agrees to pay on delivery. Once the car is
delivered to S and S pays Rs.7 Lacs, Contract comes to an end. This is called :
(a) Breach of a contract (b) Discharge of a contract
(c) Rescission of a contract (d) Waiver of a contract
Q.82. If a new contract is substituted in place of an existing contract it is called :
(a) Alteration (b) Rescission (c) Novation (d) Waiver
Q.83. In case of default by joint promisors, the promisee :
(a) Cannot sue any single promisee
(b) Can sue any one of them to the extent of his share in the joint promise
(c) Can sue any one of them for the entire promise
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Q.84. A contract of personal volition is not performed by:
(a) The agent (b) The promises (c) The legal representative (d) All of these
Q.85. A enters into a contract with B for dancing at his theatre for three nights for a fee of Rs.2,00,000.
A dances for two nights and is taken ill. What remedy is available to B?
(a) B can repudiate the contract (b) B can claim damages from A
(c) B is not bound to pay fees (d) B cannot claim damages from A
Q.86. The original contract need not be performed if there is :
(a) Alteration of contract (b) Recession of contract (c) Novation (d) All of these
Q.87. Reasonable time for performance of a contract is a :
(a) Question of Fact (b) Question of Law
(c) Mixed Question of Fact & Law (d) Question of Prudence
Q.88. X sold to Y by sample and Y thinking that they were old rice purchased them, but the rice was
new. In this case :
(a) Y is not bound by the contract (b) Y is not bound by the contract
(c) Y can recover damages from X (d) Y can sue for replacement of new rice with old rice
Q.89. The right of joint promises to demand performance is :
(a) Joint (b) Several (c) Joint or several (d) Joint and several
Q.90. X and Y contract that Y shall build a house for X for Rs.20 Lacs. Y‘s ready and willing to
construct the house but X prevents him from doing so. In such case :
(a) Y is entitled to recovers compensation for any loss suffered by him
(b) Y can opt to rescind the contract
(c) (a) or (b)
(d) (a) and (b)
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Q.91. Rescission of a voidable contract is communicated and revoked in the same manner as the
communication of revocation of :
(a) Proposal (b) Acceptance (c) Breach (d) Impossibility
Q.92. Suppose the time fixed for performance of the contract has expired but the time is not essential.
What is the remedy of the promisee in this case :
(a) Can rescind the contract (b) To claim compensation
(C) No remedy available (d) Can‘t be determined
Q.93. Discharge by mutual agreement may involve_______:
(a) Innovation (b) Rescission (c) Alteration (d) All of these
Q.94. A mother owes RS.10,000 to her daughter. But this debt has become barred by the Limitation
Act. The mother sings a written promise to pay Rs.3,000 on account of the debt. In such a case
which one is correct :
(a) There is no contract as the debt is already barred by Limitation and so it cannot be revived by
as subsequent promise
(b) There is no contract because the mother has promised to give only a part of time debt
(c) This is enforceable against the mother because such a promise is valid and binding under the
Indian Contract Act
(d) None
Q.95. If time is the essence of a contract and the promisor fails to perform the contract by the specified
time, the contract :
(a) Remains valid (b) Becomes Void
(c) Becomes Unenforceable (d) Becomes Voidable at the instance of the promisee
Q.96. A contract can be discharged by :
(a) Mutual agreement and performance (b) Lapse of time and operation of law
(c) Breach of contract (d) All of these
Q.97. Whether time is the essence of the contract depends on the :
(a) Provisions of law
(b) Intention of the parties
(c) Facts and circumstances of each separate case
(d) All of the above
Q.98. In case of death of a joint promisor(s), the promise can :
(a) Not enforce the contract against the survivor(s) of the said joint promisor(s)
(b) Enforce the contract against the survivor(s) of the said joint promisor(s)
(c) Not enforce the contract at all
(d) Both (a) & (b)
Q.99. X owes Y two sums, one for Rs.2,000 which is barred by Limitation and another for Rs.2,500
which is not barred. X pays Y Rs.1,000 on account generally. Later Y sues for Rs.2500. X
pleads:
(i) As to Rs.2,000 that it was time barred, and
(ii) As to Rs.2,500 a part payment of Rs.1,000

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(a) Y can appropriate the payment of Rs.1,000 towards the first debt & X is bound to pay
Rs.2,500 which is not yet barred by limitation
(b) Both the contentions of X are wrong
(c) Either (a) or (b)
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Q.100. Where the performance of a promise by one party depends on the prior performance of promise
by the other party, such reciprocal promises fall under the category of :
(a) Mutual and Concurrent (b) Conditional and Dependent
(c) Mutual and Independent (d) Both (a) and (b)
Q.101. When an inferior right accruing to a party in a contract merges into a superior right accruing to
the same party, then :
(a) The contract conferring the superior right is discharged
(b) The contract conferring the inferior right is discharged
(c) Both contracts are not discharged
(d) Both contracts are discharged
Q.102. In contracts of sale of movable properties, time is :
(a) Presumed to be the essence of the contract
(b) No presumption as to time can be raised
(c) Not presumed to be the essence of the contract
(d) All of the above
Q.103. W, a singer enters into a contract with M, the manager of a theatre, to sing at his theatre for two
nights in every week during the next two months and M engages to pay her Rs.5 Lacs for each
night‘s performance. On the 7th night, W willfully absents herself from the theatre :
(a) M cannot put an end to the contract
(b) The contract is unlawful
(c) M is at liberty to put an end to the contract
(d) The contract is left at the liberty of W
(V) Breach of Contract
Q.104. Which one of the following is relevant in normal circumstances in determining the amount of
damages from breach of contract?
(a) Normally expected loss
(b) Difference between market price and contract price
(c) Sudden closure price of production
(d) Additional expenses for procuring the goods
Q.105. A party who does not suffer any loss in case of breach of contract is entitled to :
(a) Statutory damages (b) Liquidated damages (c) Exemplary damages (d) Nominal damages
Q.106. Specific Performance may be ordered by the court when :
(a) Damages are an adequate remedy
(b) Damages are not an adequate remedy
(c) Defaulting party is not ready to pay damages
(d) Contract is not voidable
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Q.107. Damages which an aggrieved party claim besides general damages for any loss he has suffered
owing to special circumstances known to both the parties at the time of signing the contract are
known as:
(a) General damages (b) Liquidated damages (c) Nominal damages (d) Vindictive damages
Q.108. The remedies open to a person, suffering from breach of contract are :
(a) Suit for Damages (b) Suit for Injunction
(c) Suit upon Quantum Meruit (d) All of these
Q.109. _____ damages are measured on the basis of extent of shock to the sentiments of promise:
(a) Vindictive (b) Nominal (c) Loss of reputation (d) Discomfort
Q.110. In case of anticipatory breach, where the promisee elects to keep the contract alive, if during the
time the contract remains open, some event happens discharging the promisor from his liability,
the contract becomes :
(a) Voidable (b) Illegal (c) Contingent (d) Void
Q.111. P contracts with Q to deliver possession of a house under construction within a period of six
months; failing which he would pay the monthly rental of Q. The monthly rental payable by P
for Q is in the nature of :
(a) Penalty (b) Liquidated Damages (c) exemplary Damages (d) special Damages
Q.112.N chartered M‘s ship and agreed to load it with a cargo in Orissa within 50 days. N was unable to
supply the cargo but M continued to demand it. Meanwhile war broke out, rendering the
performance impossible. In such a case:
(a) M cannot sue for damages (b) Contract is discharged
(c) Neither (a) nor (b) (d) Both (a) and (b)
Q.113.In which of the following cases a claim is not enforceable on the ground of quantum meruit?
(a) A is engaged by B to write a book to be published in instalments in weekly magazine. The
magazine is abandoned after a few issues
(b) A is employed as a managing director in a company. After the renders service for sometimes
it is found that the directors were not qualified to appoint him as such
(c) A undertakes to build a house for B for Rs.25,000, but after having done half the work he
abandons the contract. B afterwards completes the house
(d) A decorates B‘s flat and fits a wardrobe and a book-case for a lump sum of Rs.15,000. The
work is done but B complaints of faulty workmanship
Q.114.G, a film star agreed to act exclusively for Y, a film producer, for one year. During the year, she
contracted to act for some other producer. In this case, Y:
(a) Can restrain G by an injunction (b) Cannot sue G at all
(c) Has to produce the film with other actors only (d) Cannot restrain G by an injunction
Q.115. E contracts to marry F. Before the agreed date of marriage, E marries K. Here, F is entitled to sue
E for :
(a) Anticipatory Breach in an express manner (b) Actual Breach in an express manner
(c) Anticipatory Breach in an implied manner (d) Actual Breach in an implied manner

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(VI) Contingent and Quasi - Contracts

Q.116. The basis of ‗quasi contractual‘ relations is the :

(a) Existence of a valid contract between the parties
(b) Prevention of unjust enrichment at the expense of others
(c) Existence of a voidable contract between the parties
(d) Provisions contained in section 10 of the Indian Contract Act
Q.117. A says to B that he will give Rs.500 to him if it rains and if does not rain B will give to him.
Which type of contract is this?
(a) Wagering contract (b) Contingent contract
(c) Valid contract (d) Quasi contract
Q.118. A agrees to pay B a sum of money if a certain ship does not return. The ship is sunk. A refuses to
pay. Advise B :
(a) B can enforce the contract when the ship sinks
(b) B can claim damages
(c) B can not enforce the contract when the ship sinks
(d) None
Q.119. The Indian Contract Act deals with the following Quasi- Contractual Obligations :
(i) Claim for necessaries supplied to a person incompetent to contract
(ii) Responsibility of finder of goods
(iii) Re-Imbursement of money paid, due by another
(iv) Obligation of person enjoying benefit of non – gratuitous act
(a) (ii) & (iii) (b) (i) & (ii) (c) (i), (ii), (iii), & (iv) (d) (iii) & (iv)
Q.120. Claim for necessaries of life supplied to a lunatic u/s 68 of the Indian Contract Act, can be
enforced against :
(a) The relative of the lunatic
(b) The lunatic‘s property or estate
(c) The guardian of the lunatic
(d) The lunatic personally when he ceases to be lunatic
Q.121. A person who finds goods belonging to another and takes them into his custody, is subject to the
same responsibility as a :
(a) Thief (b) Trespasser (c) Bailee (d) True Owner
Q.122. _________ are the contracts implied by law :
(a) Contingent contracts (b) Implied contract (c) Quasi contract (d) All of these

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Q.123. To claim reimbursement of money paid on behalf of another person, which of the following is
not required?
(a) Payment must be made to a third party to whom the another party was liable
(b) Payment must be voluntary
(c) There should be some legal or other coercive process compelling the payment
(d) Original liability should be of another person
Q.124. A person enjoying the benefits of a lawful non-gratuitous act of another :
(a) Is liable to compensate that another
(b) Has to perform the same non-gratuitous act in return
(c) Is not liable to compensate that another
(d) That another cannot claim any compensation
Q.125. The contract in which law creates certain rights & obligations similar to those of a contract are:
(a) Contingent contract (b) Constructive contract (c) Wagering contract (d) Quasi contract

Q.126. U leaves his goods at V‘s place who consumes them. V is bound to pay the price. V‘s act of
consumption of goods constitutes an implied promise to pay, under the principal of :
(a) Deemed Contractual Obligations (b) Semi Contractual Obligations
(c) Contractual Obligations (d) Quasi – Contractual Obligations
Q.127. Which one of the following is correct?
(a) Indian Contract Act, 1882 (b) Indian Contract Act, 1972
(c) Indian Contract Act, 1872 (d) Indian Contract Act, 1888.
Q.128. The Indian Contract Act, 1872 extends to –
(a) Whole of India (b) Whole of India excluding Jammu and Kashmir
(c) North India only (d) South India only
Q.129. Contractual rights and duties are created by –
(a) State (b) Statute (c) Parties (d) Custom or Usage
Q.130. Every contract is an agreement but every agreement is not a contract. This statement is –
(a) Wrong (b) Correct (c) Correct subject to certain exceptions (d) Partially correct
Q.131. As per Section 2(e) of the Indian Contract Act, ―Every promise and every set of promise forming
the consideration for each other is a / an –
(a) Contract (b) Agreement (c) Offer (d) Acceptance.
Q.132. An Agreement is –
(a) Offer (b) Offer + Acceptance
(c) Offer + Acceptance + Consideration (d) Contract.
Q.133. A contract is –
(a) An agreement enforceable by third parties (b) An agreement by competent people
(c) An agreement enforceable by law (d) Not an agreement at all.

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Q.134. Contract –
(a) Offer + Acceptance (b) Offer + acceptance + consideration
(c) Agreement + Consideration (d) Agreement + enforceability at law.
Q.135. K owns a residential flat in Chennai. He entitled to quiet possession and enjoyment of his
property. This is called –
(a) Rights in Personam (b) Rights in Rem
(c) Constitutional Right (d) There is no right at all.
Q.136. Hari owes Rs.1 Lakh to Jaya. Jaya is entitled to recover this amount from Hari. This is called –
(a) Rights in Personam (b) Rights in rem
(c) Constitutional Right (d) There is no right at all.
Q.137. Which one of the following is an essential element of a valid contract?
(a) Consideration (b) Free Consent (c) Competent Parties (d) All the above.
Q.138. A contract which ceases to be enforceable by law becomes void –
(a) before it ceases to be enforceable (b) no such condition is necessary
(c) when it ceases to be enforceable (d) when it becomes void.
Q.139. Agreements to do an unlawful, immoral or illegal act, like smuggling or murdering a person –
(a) cannot be enforceable by law (b) are valid in law
(c) are invalid for want of consideration (d) have no consensus ad idem.
Q.140. A invites B for his son‘s wedding. B accepts the invitation. In this case, there is an agreement but
no contract, since
(a) there is no consideration (b) there is no intention to create legal relationship
(c) there is no written document (d) there is no formal acceptance of the offer.
Q.141. A invites B for coffee in a restaurant and B accepts the invitation. On the appointed date, B goes
there but A is not found. In this case –
(a) B has no remedy against A (b) B has to wait for another invitation from A
(c) B can sue A for not honouring his words (d) A has to invite B again, to perform the promise.
Q.142. X invites Y (a famous Film Actor) to his daughter‘s engagement and dinner party. Y accepts the
invitation and promises to attend. X made special arrangement for Y at the party but he did not
turn up. X enraged with Y‘s behaviour, wanted to sue for loss incurred in making special
arrangements.
(a) X has no remedy against Y
(b) X has to conduct the engagement party again and invite Y
(c) X can sue Y for not honouring his words
(d) X has to invite y again, to perform the promise.
Q.143. N obtained K‘s acceptance by fraud. The contract can be avoided at K‘s instance, but not by N.
This is case of –
(a) Void Agreement (b) Voidable Contract (c) Unlawful Contract (d) Void Contract
Q.144. Voidable contract is one –
(a) which is lawful (b) which is invalid
(c) Which is valid as long as it is not avoided by the party entitled to do so (d) which is unlawful.
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Q.145. When the contract is perfectly valid in its substance but cannot be enforced because of certain
technical defects. This is called a/an –
(a) Unilateral Contract (b) Bilateral Contract
(c) Unenforceable Contract (d) Void Contract
Q.146. A and B contract to marry each other. Before the time fixed for the marriage, A goes mad. The
contract becomes –
(a) Void (b) Illegal (c) Valid (d) Voidable.
Q.147.A consignment is delivered at a wrong place. There is an implied condition for the recipient to
return it, so that it can be delivered to the intended consignee. This is an example of –
(a) Express Contract (b) Implied Contract (c) Tacit Contract (d) Unlawful Contract.
Q.148. Where a contract has to be inferred from the conduct of parties, it is called –
(a) Express Contract (b) Implied Contract (c) Tacit Contract (d) Unlawful Contract.
Q.149. A contracts to buy a car from B by paying cash. B instantly delivers his car. This is a case of –
(a) Executed Contract (b) Executory Contract (c) Void Contract (d) Illegal Contract
Q.150. G books a ticket with India Airlines from Delhi to Chennai on 16th June, date of travel being part
of contract on 16th July. This is an example of –
(a) Void Contract (b) Illegal Contract (c) Unilateral Contract (d) Bilateral Contract.
Q.151. S agrees to sell his DVD player to R promising to deliver it on the date of payment . R promises
to pay the amount, one month hence. This is an example of –
(a) Void Contract (b) Illegal Contract (c) Unilateral Contract (d) Bilateral Contract.
Q.152. Yaatra Travels operates buses from Delhi to Agra. The bus standing at its Bay in the Bus
Terminus is with a view to taking the passengers. There is …………. To take passengers.
(a) Implied Offer (b) Express Offer (c) Internal offer (d) External Offer.
Q.153. An offer which is allowed to remain an offer for acceptance over a period of time is known as
a/an-
(a) Standing Offer (b) Specific Offer (c) Express Offer (d) Implied Offer.
Q.154. K advertises in paper that any person who found his lost pet dog can get a reward of Rs.5000.
Any person who finds the dog can claim the reward. This is a case of –
(a) General Offer (b) Specific Offer (c) Standing Offer (d) Invalid Offer
Q.155. A Company announced a reward of £100 to anyone who contracted influenza after using its
Smoke Balls for a certain period. Mrs. C used the smoke Balls but contracted influenza. She
claimed the reward but the Company rejected her claim stating that she did not communicate her
acceptance to the Company. Here –
(a) Acceptance is not communicated and reward cannot be claimed
(b) Offer is not communicated and reward cannot be claimed
(c) Acceptance need not be communicated and reward can be claimed.
(d) There is no claim since reward cannot be given for contracting diseases.
Q.156. A proposes by letter, to sell his horse to B at Rs.10,000. Communication of the proposal is
complete when –
(a) A posts the letter (b) B receives the letter
(c) B acknowledges to A that he has received the letter. (d) (b) or (c), whichever is earlier.
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Q.157. An agreement to sell a property if it is ―designed artistically, decorated beautifully, furnished
with aesthetic sense‖ will be—
(a) Invalid due to uncertainty of meaning (b) Valid
(c) Invalid due to lack of consideration. (d) Invalid due to illegality of object.
Q.158. M offers to sell his house to N for Rs. 36 Lakhs and states in his letter that the offer would be
considered as accepted if acceptance is not communicated within a certain time. Here, the letter
of M would –
(a) Amount to a proposal (b) Not amount to a proposal
(c) Amount to a promise (d) Amount to acceptance.
Q.159. Which of the following is an Offer?
(a) Mere quotation of terms by trader
(b) Quotation of the lowest price in answer to an enquiry
(c) Advertisement for sale or auction of goods
(d) Bids in an auction sale.
Q.160. ……….. is expression of final willingness to perform a promise.
(a) Invitation to Offer (b) Offer (c) Bid (d) Acceptance
Q.161. Issue of Prospectus / Application Form by an Educational Institution / School / College leads to a
/an –
(a) Proposal (b) Offer (c) Invitation to Offer (d) Acceptance.
Q.162. Application filled in by a student seeking admission in a educational institution is an example of
–
(a) Invitation to Offer (b) Offer (c) Bid (d) Acceptance.
Q.163. In a self-service departmental store, a valid contract is concluded by offer and its acceptance,
when –
(a) Customers enter the Departmental Store
(b) Customers pick up the articles
(c) Customers take the articles to the Cashier‘s desk
(d) Cashier accepts the payment from the Customers.
Q.164. There is a Counter-Offer when –
(a) the Offeree gives conditional acceptance or introduces a fresh term in acceptance
(b) the Offeror makes a fresh offer
(c) the Offeree makes some query
(d) the Offeree accepts it.
Q.165. In case of a Counter Offer or Cross offer, one person‘s offer can be taken as an offer and the
other person‘s offer can be taken as its acceptance.
(a) True (b) Partly True (c) False (d) None of the above.
Q.166. M offers to sell his car for Rs.3.8 Lakhs to N. N. says, he would buy it for Rs.3.5 Lakhs. The
counter-Offer by N for Rs.3.3 lakhs –
(a) cannot be accepted by M (b) may be accepted by M
(c) is irrational (d) is illegal.

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Q.167. An Offer may terminate / lapse by –
(a) Revocation of Offer by the Offeror (b) Rejection of Offer by the Offeree
(c) Either (a) or (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b).
Q.168. Revocation of offer need not be communicated to the Offeree.
(a) True (b) Partly True (c) False (d) None of the above.
Q.169. In which of the following circumstances, the offer lapses / comes to an end?
(a) Revocation of Offer (b) Rejection of Offer
(c) Lapse of reasonable time (d) All of the above.
Q.170. A writes to B, ―Will you buy my car for Rs.4.5 lakhs? Reply by next Sunday.‖ B communicates
his acceptance on Monday next. In such case –
(a) A is not bound to B‘s delayed acceptance (b) A is bound to B‘s acceptance
(c) B has to make a counter Offer (d) There is no offer at all.
Q.171. Counter Offer/Cross Offer made by the other party, does not terminate the original offer.
(a) True (b) Partly True (c) False (d) None of the above.
Q.172. A change in law or circumstance rendering the original offer unlawful or impossible, will lead to
termination of the offer.
(a) True (b) Partly True (c) False (d) None of the above.
Q.173. Revocation of offer by letter or telegram is said to be complete –
(a) when it is received by the Offeree (b) When it reaches the Offeree
(c) when it is dispatched (d) Both (b) and (c).
Q.174. In cases of general offer, for a valid contract, the Acceptor –
(a) must have the knowledge of the offer before acceptance by performance.
(b) need not have the knowledge of the offer
(c) may acquire the knowledge of the offer after the performance of the condition amounting to
acceptance.
(d) should not accept at all.
Q.175. S sent his servant L, to trace his missing nephew. Later, S offered a reward for anyone who
found out him missing nephew. L, ignorant of the announcement, traced the boy. Subsequently,
he claimed the reward, when he came to know of it.
(a) L is entitled to the reward (b) L was not entitled to the reward
(c) S has to find his nephew himself (d) No reward can be given for tracing missing persons.
Q.176. F offers to sell his house to G for Rs.20 lakhs, G replies that he would buy the house the house.
The offer did not contain any mention as to title. The acceptance is -
(a) Qualified, hence invalid (b) Conditional, hence invalid
(c) Valid (d) Both (a) and (b).
Q.177. M offered to sell his land to N for Rs.70 lakhs. N replied purporting to accept and enclosed Rs.20
lakhs, promising to pay the balance of Rs.50 Lakhs by monthly instalments of Rs.10 Lakhs each.
In this case-
(a) There is no valid acceptance (b) There is a valid acceptance.
(c) The contract is voidable at M‘s option (d) The contract is voidable at N‘s option.

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Q.178. An offer was sent by post, the Acceptor wrote ‗Accepted‘ on the letter, put it in his drawer &
forgot about it. The transaction is –
(a) a valid contract
(b) not an agreement as the acceptance was never communicated to the proposer.
(c) a voidable contract
(d) a void contract.
Q.179. If the Offeror prescribes the mode and manner of acceptance, the acceptance –
(a) should be in the manner and mode prescribed
(b) need not be in the manner and mode prescribed
(c) can be in any reasonable manner and mode
(d) all of the above.
Q.180. Communication of acceptance is complete as against the Proposer –
(a) only when it come to the knowledge of the Proposer
(b) only when the acceptance is communicated to the Proposer
(c) only when it is put in the course of transmission to him so as to be out of power of the
Acceptor
(d) None of the above.
Q.181. Where is letter of acceptance sent by post is lost in transit there is –
(a) no contract as the acceptance has not come to the knowledge of the Offeror.
(b) is no contract as the acceptance has not been communicated to the Offeror
(c) a contract as the letter of acceptance is put in the course of transmission.
(d) all of the above.
Q.182. H, in response to G‘s offer, sends a letter of acceptance by post. As regards H, communication is
complete when –
(a) G makes the offer (b) H decides to accept the offer
(c) The letter is posted by H (d) G receives the letter.
Q.183. T sends to S by post, an offer to sell his cycle. T sends his acceptance via post. S could revoke
his acceptance, upto any time before or at the moment when –
(a) S posts his letter of acceptance (b) T receives the letter of acceptance
(c) T reads the letter of acceptance (d) Earliest of the above.
Q.184. When the parties make an agreement to be agreed in the near future, it means that their terms are
not definite or finalized. There can be no concluded contract in such case.
(a) True (b) Partly True (c) False (d) None of the above.
Q.185. An essential feature of consideration is that –
(a) It must be encashable (b) It must be given by the Promisee alone.
(c) It must be at the desire or request of the promisor (d) It must be guaranteed.
Q.186. Consideration for the benefit of a third party is not valid.
(a) True (b) Partly True (c) False (d) None of the above.
Q.187. Consideration –
(a) must move from the Promisee (b) may move from the Promisee or any other person
(c) must move from the third party (d) may move from the Promisor.
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Q.188. M, by a Gift deed transferred certain property to her daughter, with a direction that daughter
should pay an annuity to M‘s brother, as had been done by M. On the same day, the daughter
executed a deed in writing in favour of M‘s brother, agreeing to pay annuity. Afterwards, she
declined to fulfill her promise saying that no consideration had moved from her uncle. Which of
the following statements is correct?
(a) The daughter is bound to pay annuity. (b) There is no valid consideration in this contract.
(c) M‘s brother is a third party to the contract and cannot sue.
(d) The daughter is not bound to pay annuity.
Q.189. Consideration must be something which the Promisor
(a) is already bound to do (b) is not already bound to do
(c) may voluntarily do (d) must not do.
Q.190. M promises to pay N Rs.7 Lakhs if N murders K. Here consideration is –
(a) physically impossible (b) unlawful (c) illusory (d) valid.
Q.191. M engages N as his employee and promises to pay N a ‗reasonable‖ salary for services rendered.
Here, the consideration is ---
(a) illusory (b) unlawful (c) illusory (d) valid.
Q.192. A husband, by a registered agreement promised to pay his earnings to his wife. There was no
monetary consideration flowing from the wife to the husband.
(a) void (b) Illegal (c) Valid (d) Unenforceable.
Q.193. A promise to gift is valid even if it is not supported by consideration.
(a) True (b) Partly True (c) False (d) None of the above.
Q.194. An agreement for which the consent of party was free is void merely because of inadequacy of
consideration.
(a) True (b) Partly True (c) False (d) None of the above.
Q.195. Consideration and objection are unlawful when it is- -
(a) fraudulent (b) forbidden by law or defeat any provision of any law
(c) is immoral & against the public policy (d) all of the above.
Q.196. Under the Indian Contract Act, a third person –
(a) who is the beneficiary under the contract can sue
(b) from whom the consideration has proceeded can sue
(c) cannot sue even if the consideration has proceeded from him
(d) cannot sue at all for want to privity of contract.
Q.197. Only those persons, who are parties to a contract, can sue and be sued upon the contract. This
Rule is called the doctrine of –
(a) Promisory Estoppel (b) Right of Privilege Suit
(c) Privity of Contract (d) Rights in Rem.
Q.198. In which of the following situations, a Stranger to Contract can file a valid suit?
(a) Beneficiary of a Trust or other interest in specific immovable property
(b) Marriage Settlement, partition and other Family Arrangements, in written form.
(c) Acknowledgement of liability, or by past performance thereof
(d) All of the above.
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Q.199. Which of the following is not competent to contract?
(a) A Minor
(b) A person of unsound mind
(c) A person who has been disqualified from contracting by some law
(d) All of these.
Q.200. An agreement with or by a Minor is –
(a) void ab initio (b) viodable at the option of the Minor
(c) voidable at the option of the other party (d) valid.
Q.201. On attaining the age of majority, a Minor‘s agreement
(a) is void (b) cannot be ratified (c) becomes void (d) becomes valid.
Q.202. Identify the incorrect sentence from the following.
(a) A minor can be a beneficiary
(b) A Minor can be admitted to the benefits of a partnership
(c) A Minor cannot plead minority.
(d) A Minor can be held liable in tort.
Q.203. A is a minor, B approaches A for a loan on the basis of a mortgage of the house owned by B.
Hence, A advances the money and B executed a mortgate in favour of A, a minor. In these
circumstances –
(a) The mortgage is not enforceable by A, because he is a minor
(b) The mortgage is enforceable but only when he attains majority
(c) The mortgage is enforceable by A even though he is a Minor
(d) There is no mortgage at all.
Q.204. A minor, though incompetent to contract –
(a) can act as an Agent (b) can bind his Principal
(c) either (a) or (b) (d) both (a) and (b)
Q.205. A Minor enters into a contract for the purchase of certain necessaries. In such a case –
(a) he is liable to return the necessaries (b) he is liable to pay
(c) his estate is liable to pay (d) his guardian is liable to pay.
Q.206. Education and Marriage of a Female have also been held to be necessaries in India.
(a) True (b) Partly True (c) False (d) None of the above.
Q.207. Which of these is not a ―necessary‖ for a Minor?
(a) Lending money to a Minor for defending a suit on his behalf in which his property is in
jeopardy
(b) Lending money to a Minor for defending him in necessary prosecution
(c) Lending in respect of house racing and betting debts
(d) Lending money to a Minor for saving his property from sale in execution of a decree.
Q.208. A person who is usually of unsound mind, but occasionally of sound mind -
(a) may enter into a contract when he is of sound mind
(b) may not make a contract even when he is of sound mind
(c) cannot enter into a contract at all.
(d) Can enter into a contract at all times but can plead innocence.
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Q.209. Under Section 13 of Indian Contract Act ―Consent‖ means agreeing on the same thing –
(a) in the same sense (b) at the same time (c) at different times (d) all of the above.
Q.210. Inadequacy of consideration is relevant in determining the question of –
(a) Capacity of parties (b) Possibility of performance
(c) Legality of object (d) Free Consent
Q.211. When consent to an agreement is obtained by undue influence, the agreement is a –
(a) contract voidable at the option of the party whose consent was so obtained.
(b) Void Contract
(c) Valid Contract
(d) Contract voidable at the option of the person exercising such influence.
Q.212. A contract which is formed without the free consent of parties , is –
(a) Valid (b) Illegal (c) Voidable (d) Void ab-initio
Q.213. X threatens to kill A if he does not sell his house to B at a very low price. Even if X is a stranger
to the transaction between A and B, the agreement is caused by –
(a) Undue Influence (b) Coercion (c) Fraud (d) Misrepresentation.
Q.214. If a disciple agrees to gift to his Spiritual Guru, his entire property in return for attainment of
salvation, the agreement can be set aside on grounds of –
(a) Mistake (b) Undue Influence (c) Fraud (d) Misrepresentation.
Q.215. The burden of proof that the consent was obtained by Coercion lies on –
(a) the person who wants to relieve himself of the consequences of coercion.
(b) the person who employs the coercion.
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) both (a) and (b)
Q.216. A person to whom money has been paid or anything delivered by mistake or coercion shall –
(a) be entitled to hold the money or thing (b) repay such money or return such thing
(c) pay monetary compensation (d) all of the above.
Q.217. If a party stands in a fiduciary relation to the other –
(a) He cannot dominate the will of another
(b) He can dominate the will of another
(c) The trust should be maintained
(d) He cannot enter into a contract with that another
Q.218. A having advanced money to his son B during his minority, upon B‘s coming of age, obtains by
misuse of parental influence, a bond from B for a greater amount than the sum due in respect of
the advance. The Contract is voidable at B‘s option on grounds of –
(a) Undue Influence (b) Coercion (c) Fraud (d) Misrepresentation.
Q.219. S applies to a Banker for a loan when the money market is very stringent. Banker says that loan
could be provided only at a very high rate of interest. S accepts to such high interest. S‘s consent
is –
(a) not obtained by undue influence. (b) obtained by undue influence
(c) not obtained by coercion. (d) obtained by coercion.
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Q.220. Which of the following relationships raise presumption of undue influence?
(a) Landlord and Tenant (b) Husband and Wife
(c) Fiance and Fiancee (d) Creditor and debtor.
Q.221. Which of these constitute Fraud?
(a) Suggestion as a fact, of something which is not true, by a person who does not believe it to be
true.
(b) Active concealment of a Fact by one having knowledge or belief of the fact
(c) Promise made without any intention of performing it
(d) All of the above.
Q.222. Which of these does not constitute Fraud ?
(a) Suggestion as a Fact, of something which is not true, by a person who does not believe it to
be true.
(b) Active concealment of a Fact by one having knowledge or belief of the fact
(c) Innocent statement, honestly believing the same to be true
(d) Promise made without any intention of performing it.
Q.223. A mere attempt at deceit by one party –
(a) is not fraud unless the other party is actually deceived.
(b) is fraud whether the other party has been deceived or not
(c) amounts to misrepresentation.
(d) amounts to undue influence.
Q.224. When there is a duty to speak, keeping silence is –
(a) Fraud (b) Undue Influence (c) Coercion (d) Misrepresentation.
Q.225. In a contract of insurance, keeping silent as to material facts amounts to fraud.
(a) True (b) Partly True (c) False (d) None of the above.
Q.226. Where the consent was caused by silence amounting to fraud, the contract is voidable, even if the
party whose consent was so caused, had the means to discover the truth with ordinary diligence.
(a) True (b) Partly True (c) False (d) None of the above.
Q.227. X bought shares in a Company on the faith of a prospectus that contained an untrue statement as
to the Directorship of J. X had never heard of J and hence such statement was immaterial from
his view point. X claimed damages for fraud. His claim will be dismissed on the ground that –
(a) there was no fraud at all.
(b) fraud in Company Prospectus is not covered by Indian Contract Act
(c) the untrue statement had not induced him to buy the shares.
(d) all of the above.
Q.228. Shrikrishnan, a candidate for L.L.B. Part - 1 exam, who was short of attendance, did not
mention that fact in the admission form for the examination of Kurukshetra University. Neither
the Head of Law Department nor the University authorities made proper enquiries to discover the
truth. It was held by the Supreme Court that –
(a) There was fraud by the candidate (b) There was no fraud by the candidate
(c) There was misrepresentation by the candidate
(d) There was mistake on the part of the candidate
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Q.229. Which of the following are essential features of Misrepresentation?
(a) Representation should be of a material fact.
(b) It must be made with an intention that the other party should act upon it.
(c) Representation must be wrong, but the person making it believed it to be true.
(d) All the above.
Q.230. When one of the parties is under a mistake as to a matter of fact essential to the agreement, it is
called –
(a) Unilateral Mistake (b) Bilateral Mistake (c) Partial Mistake (d) Incomplete Mistake
Q.231. Erroneous opinion as to value of subject matter is not a Mistake of Fact.
(a) True (b) Partly True (c) False (d) None of the above.
Q.232. P offers, to sell a painting to K which P knows is the copy of a well known masterpiece K
thinking that the painting is original decides to buy it at a very high price. Is this a valid contract?
(a) No, P is guilty of misrepresentation
(b) No, P is guilty of fraud
(c) Yes, K has an erroneous belief as to the value of the painting.
(d) Yes, price is not a criteria for setting aside the contract,
Q.233. If there is an unilateral mistake as regards identity, caused by fraud of the other party, the
contract is –
(a) void (b) voidable (c) valid (d) illegal.
Q.234. When both parties are under a mistake as to a matter of fact essential to the agreement, it is
called as –
(a) Unilateral Mistake (b) Bilateral Mistake (c) General Mistake (d) Total Mistake.
Q.235. A contract was made for purchase of certain bales of cotton to arrive by a ship called ―Peerless‖
from Mumbai. Two ships of the same name (Peerless) were to sail from Mumbai. Buyer
intended to buy cargo of one ship but seller was selling the cargo of other. The contract is –
(a) illegal (b) valid (c) void (d) voidable.
Q.236. The maxim ―Ignorantia juris non excusat‖ stands for
(a) Law will not punish ignorant people (b) Law will punish illiterate people
(c) Ignorant people can excuse law (d) Ignorance of law of land is no excuse
Q.237. A and B make a contract on erroneous belief that a particular debt is time-barred by Indian Law
of Limitation. The Contract is –
(a) Void (b) Voidable (c) Valid (d) Illegal.
Q.238. Mistake as to Foreign Law is treated in the same manner as –
(a) Mistake of Indian Law (b) Mistake of Fact
(c) Misrepresentation (d) fraud
Q.239. Amar Promises to drop prosecution which he has instituted against Balu for robbery. Balu
promises to restore value of things taken. The agreement is –
(a) Contingent (b) valid (c) voidable (d) void
Q.240. When there is a mistake as to law of land, the contract is –
(a) Voidable (b) Not Voidable (c) Unlawful (d) Unenforceable

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Q.241. Agreement with a view to defraud others is –
(a) legal (b) void (c) voidable (d) valid
Q.242. Bilateral Mistake as to fact renders an agreement void since –
(a) There is no consideration.
(b) Such agreements are unlawful.
(c) There is no agreement as there is absence of consensus.
(d) It is opposed to public policy.
Q.243. A, B, & C enter into an agreement for sharing the gains acquired by fraud. This agreement is --
(a) contingent (b) valid (c) void (d) voidable
Q.244. B is a licensed manufacturer of permitted chemicals A promises to B to supervise B‘s business
and combine it with the production of some contraband items together with the permitted items.
B promises to pay A, a salary of Rs.10,000 p.m. The agreement is –
(a) void as a whole
(b) valid as a whole
(c) valid to the extent of permitted chemicals and void for the balance contraband items
(d) void to the extent of permitted chemicals and valid for the balance contraband items
Q.245. If it is possible to severe legal and illegal parts of a covenant, whether the illegality be due to
Statute or Common Law, bad part alone may be rejected and good can be enforced.
(a) True (b) Partly True (c) False (d) None of the above.
Q.246. Which of the following agreements are valid?
(a) Agreement to enter into an agreement in future
(b) Agreement that gives rise to social obligations
(c) Agreement to perform an act contingent upon a certain event
(d) Agreements entered into by incompetent parties.
Q.247. Which of the following agreement are not void?
(a) Agreements entered into through a mutual mistake of fact between the parties.
(b) Agreements, the object or consideration of which is unlawful.
(c) Agreements, made without consideration.
(d) Agreements, made for inadequate consideration.
Q.248. A party receiving benefits under a void contract is liable to restore the benefits to the party from
whom the benefits are received.
(a) True (b) Partly True (c) False (d) None of the above.
Q.249. S, a seller of imitation jewellery, sells his business to B and promises, not to carry on business in
imitation jewellery and real jewellery. The agreement is –
(a) valid with regard to Imitation Jewellery; and void as regards Real jewellery.
(b) void with regard to limitation Jewellery, and valid as regards Real Jewellery.
(c) Wholly void
(d) Fully void
Q.250. Doctors may be paid non-practicing allowances to avoid practicing when they are employed in a
hospital. Such agreement is restraint of their practice is –
(a) Valid (b) Void (c) Unenforceable (d) Voidable
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Q.251. Any agreement which limits the time within which any party thereto may enforce his rights by
way of legal proceedings in the Ordinary Tribunals is –
(a) Voidable (b) Void (c) Voidable (d) unenforceable.
Q.252. An agreement between two parties to refer to arbitration, any question between them that has
already arisen is –
(a) Valid (b) void (c) voidable (d) unenforceable.
Q.253. L says to J ―I shall sell my house; will you buy?‖ A says, ―Yes, I shall buy‖. The agreement is
void due to –
(a) Uncertainty of meaning (b) Uncertainty of price
(c) Uncertainty of existence of subject matter (d) Uncertainty of quality of subject matter.
Q.254. Lalu promised to pay an extra Rs.5,000 to Govind if the horse the purchased from Govind
proved to be lucky. The promise is –
(a) valid (b) void (c) voidable (d) enforceable.
Q.255. Requiring employees to serve the organisation for a few years after training is –
(a) Voidable Agreement (b) Void Agreement
(c) Unenforceable Agreement (d) Valid Agreement
Q.256. Section 28 of the Indian Contract Act, deals with –
(a) Agreement in restraint of legal proceedings (b) Agreements in restraint of trade
(c) Agreement in restraint of marriage (d) Agreement to agree in future.
Q.257. Void agreements are –
(a) not punishable (b) punishable (c) forbidden by law (d) unlawful
Q.258. In case of Void Agreements, Collateral Transactions are –
(a) also void (b) not affected (c) illegal (d) unenforceable.
Q.259. Where illegal part cannot be severed from the legal part of an agreement, the entire transaction is
–
(a) valid (b) enforceable (c) voidable (d) illegal
Q.260. Which of the following is not a feature of a Wagering Agreement?
(a) Mutual chances of gain or loss (b) Uncertainty of future event
(c) Neither party to have control over event (d) One of the parties have an interest in the event.
Q.261. In case of a Wagering Agreement, …. Should be able to control the happening or non happening
of the contingent event.
(a) Promisor (b) Promisee (c) Either (a) or (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b).
Q.262. A, in Bangalore, bets with B and loses. A applies to C for a loan in order to pay B. C gives the
loan to A to enable him to pay B. In this case –
(a) C can recover the amount of loan from A
(b) C cannot recover the amount of loan from A
(c) C can recover the amount from B
(d) C can recover the amount from A or B.
Q.263. Price Competitions, Insurance Contracts etc. are not Wagering Agreements.
(a) True (b) Partly True (c) False (d) None of the above.
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Q.264. Transactions for sale and purchase of stocks and shares or for sale and delivery of goods, with a
clear intention to give and take delivery of shares or goods are –
(a) Wagering Agreements (b) Not Wagering Agreements
(c) Contingent Contracts (d) Voidable Agreements
Q.265. An agreement made with an alien enemy is –
(a) unlawful on the ground of public policy
(b) unlawful because it becomes difficult to be performed
(c) valid
(d) voidable.
Q.266. Which of these are not opposed to Public Policy?
(a) Trading with enemy (b) Shifting Prosecution
(c) Compromise of compoundable offences (d) Agreement of commit a crime
Q.267. X promises to pay Y Rs.25,000 for bringing a suit against Z, X‘s sole motive being to sue Z and
annoy him. This is an example of –
(a) stifling with Prosecution (b) Champerty
(c) Maintenance (d) Interference with course of justice.
Q.268. All agreements of Champerty or maintenance are not illegal in India.
(a) True (b) Partly True (c) False (d) None of the above.
Q.269. M was promised Rs.1 lakh in consideration of procuring a second wife for the K. The promise is
–
(a) contrary to public policy (b) void (c) both (a) and (b) (d) neither (a) nor (b)
Q.270. Agrees to pay B Rs.10 Lakhs and B promises to bring for A, stars from heaven. The agreement is
(a) void (b) valid (c) voidable (d) illegal.
Q.271. An agreement to discover treasure by magic is void on grounds of –
(a) Initial Impossibility (b) Subsequent Impossibility
(c) Lack of Consideration (d) Supervening Impossibility
Q.272. Rajeev entered into a contract with Lata to marry her on a fixed date. However, before the
marriage date, Rajeev went mad. With reference to the Indian Contract Act, which is the valid
response?
(a) Lata cannot marry till Rajeev dies
(b) The executors of Rajeev can enforce the contract against Lata
(c) The contract becomes void
(d) All the statements are correct.
Q.273. When performance of a promise becomes impossible or unlawful, the contract –
(a) becomes void when the act becomes impossible or unlawful
(b) is voidable when the performance becomes impossible.
(c) neither becomes cold nor voidable.
(d) is valid
Q.274. The doctrine of impossibility of performance rendering a contract void is based on –
(a) implied term (b) supervening impossibility
(c) just and reasonable solution (d) unjust enrichment
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Q.275. If a contract is based on personal skill or confidence of parties, the death of a party in such a case
–
(a) Puts an end to the contract
(b) Does not put an end to the contract
(c) The representatives of the deceased can be made liable to perform such a contract
(d) Gives a right to the aggrieved party to sue.
Q.276. Where a contract could not be performed because of the default by a third person on whose work
the Promisor relied, it –
(a) is not discharged (b) is discharged (c) becomes void (d) becomes voidable.
Q.277. A contracts to take in cargo for B at a Foreign port. Later A‘s Government declares was against
the country in which the port is situated. The contract.
(a) is void ab initio (b) become void (c) is valid (d) is voidable at B‘s option.
Q.278. K contracts with L to perform regularly for a period of two months at L‘s theatre. K falls ill and
could not perform. The contract –
(a) is valid (b) is void ab initio (c) becomes void (d) is voidable at L‘s option
Q.279. A musical hall was agreed to be let out on certain dates, but before those dates the ball was
destroyed by fire. The contract becomes void on the ground of-
(a) impossibility of performance (b) illegality of object
(c) unlawful consideration (d) all of the above.
Q.280. To make a contract contingent upon a collateral event, the …. Should not have any influence
over the happening or non-happening of the event.
(a) Promises (b) Promisor (c) Court (d) Beneficiary.
Q.281. If A promises to pay B Rs.10,000 if he so chooses, it is a contingent contract
(a) True (b) Partly True (c) False (d) None of the above.
Q.282. Contracts contingent upon the happening of an Uncertain Future Event cannot be enforced by
law –
(a) at all (b) unless and until such an event has happened
(c) unless and until such an even has not happened (d) at the option of the Promisor
Q.283. A agrees to pay B a sum of money if a certain ship does not return. The ship is sunk. The
contract can be enforced –
(a) when the ship sinks (b) before the ship sinks
(c) when the ship returns (d) only in International Court of Justice.
Q.284. Contracts contingent upon the non-happening of an Uncertain Future Event within a fixed time,
can be enforced by law –
(a) when time fixed has expired and such event has not happened
(b) before expiry of the time fixed, it becomes certain that such event will not happen
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b)
Q.285. Wagering Agreements –
(a) is a valid contract (b) is a game of chance (c) is a voidable contract (d) is a quasi-contract.

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Q.286. A promises to deliver goods to B on a certain day on payment of Rs.50,000. A dies before that
day.
(a) The contract becomes void and cannot be enforced against legal representatives of A.
(b) The contract becomes impossible due to the death of A.
(c) The contract can be enforced against A‘s representatives and B is bound to pay Rs.50,000 to
A‘s representatives.
(d) The contract is illegal.
Q.287. A promises to paint a picture for B by a certain day at a certain price. A dies before the promised
day. Which one of the following is the correct legal position?
(a) The agreement becomes unlawful
(b) The agreement lapses for both the parties
(c) The agreement becomes voidable at the option of A‘s legal representative
(d) The agreement is void ab-initio
Q.288. Where the Promisor offers to perform to the Promisee, the Promisee is bound –
(a) to afford reasonable facilities for the performance
(b) to dispense with the terms of the agreements
(c) to avoid the contract
(d) to sue the Promisor.
Q.289. A, a singer enters into a contract with B, the manager of a theatre to sing at his theatre for two
nights in every week during the next two months and B engages to pay her 1,00,000 for each
night‘s performance. On the sixth night, A willfully absents himself from the theatre.
(a) B is at liberty to put an end to the contract (b) B cannot put an end to the contract
(c) The contract is left at the liberty of A (d) The contract is unlawful.
Q.290. Which of these parties cannot demand performance of a Promise?
(a) Promisee (b) Any of the Joint Promisees
(c) On the death of a Promisee, his legal Representative. (d) Stranger to the Contract
Q.291. ―X‖ promises to act in a movie for ―Y‖. In this case –
(a) X‘s son can perform the promise (b) X‘s servant can perform the promise
(c) X‘s employer can perform the promise (d) X must perform this promise personally.
Q.292. A promises to deliver 10 bags of wheat to B. In case of A‘s death before performance, A‘s
representatives –
(a) are not bound by the promise
(b) shall be bound to deliver the wheat to B
(c) shall be bound to deliver the wheat to B but their liability is limited to the value of the
property inherited from the deceased.
(d) shall avoid the contract.
Q.293. A, B, and C jointly promise to pay Rs.600 to P. P files a suit to recover the amount against A
(a) P must sue all the three
(b) P can sue A for the recover of Rs.100 only
(c) Since, A, B, and C are Joint Promisors, P can recover the amount from any one of them
(d) P cannot sue any of A, B or C.
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Q.294. Joint Promisors –
(a) can compel each other to contribute on proportionate basis
(b) can compel each other to contribute equally
(c) cannot compel each other to contribute
(d) none of the above.
Q.295. If any one of the Joint Promisors makes default in such contribution, remaining Joint promisors
must share the loss arising from such default –
(a) equally (b) In the agreed ratio (c) In the ratio of their properties (d) Any one of the above
Q.296. X, Y and Z are partners of software business jointly promise to pay Rs.30,000 to A. Over a
period of time Y became insolvent, but his assets are sufficient to pay 1/4th of his debts. Z is
compelled to pay the whole.
(a) Z has to bear the entire amount of liability
(b) X has to bear the entire loss arising out of Y‘s insolvency.
(c) X and Z have to bear equally, the loss arising out of Y‘s insolvency
(d) Z can recover back the entire amount from A.
Q.297. Where as per Contract, the Promise is the be performed on a certain day; and the Promisor has
not undertaken to perform the Promise without application by Promisee –
(a) Promisor has to perform without any application by the Promisee
(b) Promisor has to request Promisee to apply for performance
(c) Promisee has to request / apply to the Promisor for performance.
(d) Stranger has to request / apply to the Promisor for performance.
Q.298. If time is the essence of the contract and the Promisor fails to perform the contract by the
specified time, the contract –
(a) becomes void (b) remains valid
(c) becomes voidable at the instance of the Promisee (d) becomes unenforceable.
Q.299. If the promise is to performed on a specified day, the promisor may perform the promise, at the
place at which the promise ought to be performed –
(a) at any time on that specified day
(b) at any time during the usual hours of business on the specified day
(c) at any time on any day at the discretion of the Promisor.
(d) at any time after the usual hours of business on the specified day.
Q.300. A owes B Rs.50,000. B accepts some of A‘s goods in reduction of debt. In such case, the
delivery of goods –
(a) operates as a part of the payment (b) does not reduce A‘s liability to B.
(c) is against the provisions of Contract Act (d) is without any consideration.
Q.301. A and B contract that A shall build a house for B at a fixed price. In this case –
(a) B must pay the price before A builds the house
(b) A must build the house before he can claim payment from B
(c) A and B have to perform their promises simultaneously
(d) The contract need not be performed at all

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Q.302. A owes B totally Rs.25,000. He sends a cheque for Rs.10,000 stating that it shall be appropriated
towards he first sum of Rs.10,000 he took from B. B shall appropriate it-
(a) towards any debt due from A (b) towards any time barred debt due from A
(c) towards any disputed debt due from A (d) towards that debt as indicated by A.
Q.303. The general maxim of law is that when money is paid, it is to be applied according to the
expressed will of –
(a) the Payer (b) the Receiver (c) either (a) or (b) (d) both (a) and (b)
Q.304. Where the Debtor does not expressly intimate or where the circumstances attending on a
payment do not indicate any intention the Creditor –
(a) may apply it at his discretion to any lawful debt due.
(b) must apply it to the last debt
(c) must apply it to the first debt
(d) must apply it to a time barred debt.
Q.305. Where moneys are received by Creditor without any definite appropriation, it must be applied –
(a) first towards Interest and then towards Principal
(b) first towards Principal and then towards Interest
(c) pro-rata between Interest and Principal
(d) any of the above.
Q.306. In case of contracts involving personal skill or expertise of the Promisor, death of the Promisor
leads to –
(a) Discharge of a Contract (b) Breach of a Contract
(c) Rescission of a Contract (d) Waiver of a Contract
Q.307. Under assignment of contract under the Indian Contract Act –
(a) burden under the contract cannot be assigned without the consent of the other party.
(b) benefits under the contract can be assigned without the consent of the other party
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b)
Q.308. A owes B Rs.50,000. Due date for payment is 25th March. On 25th March, B agrees to take a
piece of land belonging to A worth Rs.40,000 in satisfaction of the debt. The debt is discharged
on account of –
(a) remission of part of the performance of a promise
(b) extension time of performance
(c) acceptance of any other satisfaction instead of performance.
(d) all of the above.
Q.309. Where in an anticipatory breach, the Promisee opts to put an end to the contract and treat the
anticipatory breach as actual breach of contract, the Promisee –
(a) Is excused from performing or further performance of his promise.
(b) has to perform his part of the promise fully
(c) has to perform his part of the promise to the extent of benefits received by him
(d) has to consider the contract as illegal.

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Q.310. ………. Means Termination of Contract.
(a) Quantum Meruit (b) Rescission (c) Injunction (d) Specific Performance.
Q.311. Where the Court directs the defaulting party to carry out the promise according to the terms of
the contract, it is called –
(a) Quantum Meruit (b) Rescission (c) Injunction (d) Specific Performance
Q.312. A, a singer, agreed with B to perform at his theatre for two months, on a condition that during
that period, he would not perform anywhere else. When A performs somewhere else, B could
move the Court for –
(a) grant of injunction restraining A from performing in other places
(b) allowing A to perform in other places
(c) allowing B to perform in other places
(d) all of the above.
Q.313. Quantum Meruit is not applicable i.e., there is no right to sue when –
(a) Contract is indivisible into parts and a Lumpsum is to be paid on completion of total work
(b) Person claiming compensation is himself guilty of breach
(c) Work is performed gratuitously, i.e,, there is no evidence of promise to pay for work done.
(d) All of the above.
Q.314. In case of breach of contract, the Indian Law awards damages –
(a) To make good for the profit which may have been earned but for the breach
(b) Which arose naturally or which parties knew to be likely when they entered into the contract
(c) To penalize the defaulter
(d) The compensate for mental anxiety and physical loss caused by the breach
Q.315. The measure of damages in case of breach of a contract is the difference between the –
(a) contract price and the market price at the date of breach.
(b) contract price and the maximum market price during the term of contract.
(c) contract price and the price at which the plaintiff might have sold the goods
(d) contract price and the price fixed by Court.
Q.316. H‘s mill stopped due to breakdown of a shaft, which was delivered to B, A common carrier to be
taken to the manufacturer for repairs. He did not communicate to B, that delay in delivery would
cause loss of profits. For some reason, the delivery was delayed by B beyond reasonable time.
Here -
(a) H can rescind the contract
(b) H cannot claim loss of profit from B
(c) H can claim loss of profits from B for the period of delay in delivery
(d) H can claim loss of profits from the manufacturer.
Q.317. Nominal Damages may be very small, say, even a rupee.
(a) True (b) Partly True (c) False (d) None of the above.
Q.318. Sec. 68 to 72 of the Indian Contract Act deal with –
(a) Performance of contract (b) Discharge of contract
(c) Certain relations resembling those created by contract
(d) Breach of contract
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Q.319. B holds land on a lease granted by A, the landlord, Land revenue payable by A is in arrears,
hence the Government advertises A‘s land for sale. Under the Revenue Law consequence of such
sale will be annulment of B‘s lease. B, in order to prevent sale and consequent annulment of his
own lease, pays to the Government, the sum due by A. In this case –
(a) A is bound to make good to B the amount so paid (b) A has no obligations to B
(c) B can claim the amount back from the Government
(d) B has to bear the expenditure incurred by him.
Q.320. A gives to B Rs.5 Lakhs to be given to C. B. informs C that he is holding the money for him. But
afterwards B refuses to pay the money. C sues B for the money. B contends that C cannot sue as
he was not a party to the contract. Will the contention of B be upheld?
(a) Yes (b) No (c) Partly Yes (d) None of the above
Q.321. Where a contract contains Reciprocal promises and one of them cannot be performed or its
performance cannot be claimed till the other promise is performed; and there is a failure to
perform the promise which is to be performed first -
(a) Defaulting Promisor cannot claim performance of the reciprocal promise
(b) Defaulting Promisor shall compensate the other party to the contract for any loss suffered by
him as a result of his non-performance
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) The Contract becomes voidable at the option of the aggrieved party.
Q.322. A is a minor, B approaches A for a loan on the basis of a mortgage of the house owned by B.
Hence, A advances the money and B executed a mortgage in favour of A, a minor. In these
circumstances –
(a) The mortgage is not enforceable by A, because he is a minor.
(b) The mortgage is enforceable but only when he attains majority.
(c) The mortgage is enforceable by A even though he is a Minor.
(d) There is no mortgage at all.
Q.323. A and B, being traders enter upon a contract. A has private information of a change in prices
which would affect B‘s willingness to proceed with the contract. Is a bound to inform B?
(a) Yes (b) No (c) Partly Yes (d) None of the above.
Q.324. D was enfeebled by disease. B his medical attendant influenced him to agree to pay B an
unreasonable sum for his professional services. D‘ consent is not free and is based on undue
influence. This contract is –
(a) Void (b) Illegal (c) Valid (d) Voidable.
Q.325. Where consent is obtained by fraud, the Defrauded party has the following remedies –
(a) He can rescind the contract within a reasonable time.
(b) He can insist on the performance of the contract upon a condition that he shall be put on the
position in which he would have been if the representations made had been true.
(c) He can sue for damages.
(d) All of the above.
Q.326. A contracts with B to execute certain builder‘s work for a fixed price, with B supplying the
scaffolding or timber, necessary for the work. B refuses to furnish any scaffolding or timber, and
the work cannot be executed. In this case –
(a) A must execute the work. (b) A is excused from executing the work
(c) B must execute the work himself (d) B can claim damages from

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