STRUCTURAL ANALYSIS

1. A structural member with the same material properties in all directions at any
particular point is

a) Homogenous
b) Isotropic
c) Isentropic
d) Holomorphic
e) Orthotropic

2. An I Shaped beam is used to carry a uniformly distributed load over a span L = 24ft
as shown. The maximum shear stress (kip/in2) in the beam most nearly.

a) 2.6
b) 3.8
c) 5.1
d) 6.3
3. Find the maximum vertical shear in the beam in fig (2) if W = P/L

a) P/4
b) P/2
c) 3P/4
d) P

4. Calculate the reaction at support B:

a) 20KN
b) 10KN
c) 40KN
d) Zero
5. Calculate the reaction Ra. A uniform load on a beam is hown below. It has a value
of 2.5 KN pee meter.

a) 5KN
b) 1.25KN
c) 10KN
d) 0

6. A beam is point load 1000kn and UDL 200N/m. The maximum moment in the
below is :

a) 4200 N.m
b) 5600 N.m
c) 6400 N.m
d) 6800 N.m
 7. For the shown figure. Find the maximum compressive stress (P= 1000lb, M=
3000lb/ft. B=D=Width of footing = 9 ft)

a) 60 psf
b) 30 psf
c) 49 psf
d) 12 psf

8. A steel beam supports a uniformly distributed live load W = 60kip/ft. Over a simple
span L = 25ft as shown below. The code permits a maximum live load deflection of
L/480. The required moment of interia of the beam section is most nearly.
5
∆
384

a) 2600 in2
b) 2800 in2
c) 2700 in2
d) 2000 in2

9. There is a weak soil layer 12ft below an existing column footing (5ftx5ft). The
maximum additional stress that can be applied at the midpoint of the weak soil layer
is 700 psf. Any stress more than 700psf would cause excessive settlement. What is
the maximum load that can be applied on the footing. Assume stress distribution to
be 1:1
 Weak soil layer

a) 428 tons
b) 341 tons
c) 178 tons
d) 487 tons

10. A 4ft tall 6ft x 20ft wide concrete block will be placed at the bottom of a take assume
100% contact with the late bed and uniform loading. The lake bed and uniform
density of the concrete is 150 lb/ft3. The resulting concrete pressure (lb/ft2) will be
most nearly.

a) 9000
b) 3000
c) 600
d) 350

11. A rigid beam weighting 300lb/ft is lifted using rigging cables as shown. The cables
are wire rope with an effective modulus of elasticity E=30,000ksi and effective cross
sectional area = 0.4 in2. The elongation of the cable is most nearly.
 a) 0.06 in
b) 0.08 in
c) 0.10 in
d) 0.13 in

12. The 0.2% yield stress is the

a) Stress at 0.2% elastic strain

b) Yield point of a carbon steel
c) Stress recovery after plastic deformation
d) Stress at the intersection point of a line drawn parallel to the elastic portion of the
stress strain diagram at a total strain 0.2%

13. Referring to the figure, what load combination produces the maximum uplift on
footing A?

a) Dead+ Live
b) Dead+Wind
c) Dead
d) Dead+Live+Wind
14. Find the total force in the reinforcemnt in the beam shown. fy = 60,000 psi. no 5 bars
has a diameter of 5/8 in total force = fy As

a) 23.8 tons
b) 45.7 tons
c) 76.9 tons
d) 36.8 tons

15. The maximum vertical shearing stress due to VQ/lb in the beam with a rectangular
cross section.

a) Occurs where the normal stress is maximum

b) Occurs at the neutrual axis
c) Occurs at the outermost fiber
d) Is linearly dependent on the distance from neutral axis

16. Consider the following conditions with respect to plastic analysis

1. Sum of internal and external forces and moments must be equal to zero
2. At ultimate collapse load the number of plastic hinges must be just enough to
form a mechically

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Neither 1 nor 2
d) Both 1and 2
 TRANPORTATION ENGINEERING

17. A section of a major street an urban arterial with six traffic signalized intersections
is shown below. The traffic signals at each intersections have a total cycle length of
90 sec and 50 sec of green ( and yellow) time on the major street. It is required that a
progressive signal system having a maximum band width of green for movement
from Ist Avenue intersection toward the 6th Avenue intersection with a progressive
speed of 30 mph be designed. The offset (sec) at 6th avenue

a) 36
b) 43
c) 50
d) 63

18. An unsignalized T- intersection is three logs are each two way. What is most nearly
the total number of conflict points including crossing ,merging and diverging?

a) 3
b) 6
c) 9
d) 12

19. Road project needs a gravel base. Which gravel do you recommend for this project?

a) Well graded gravel since gravels are of same size and easily compacted
b) Poorly graded gravel since gravels are same size and easily compacted
c) Poorly graded gravel since gravels are different size and easily compacted
d) Well graded gravel since gravels are different size and easily compacted
20. Density of traffic is found to be 230 vehicles per mile speed of vehicles is
measured to be 60mph. what is flow or volume of traffic

a) 7500 veh/hr
b) 13800 veh/hr
c) 18400 veh/hr
d) 29670 veh/hr

21. A 10 ft wide side walk has an effective walkway width of 6.5ft. The peak 15 minutes
pedestrian flow is 1200 pedestrians. The plantation adjusted LOS is most nearly.

a) LOS B
b) LOS C
c) LOS D
 SOIL MECHANICS AND FOUNDATION ENGINEERING

22. A consider the framing and structural details shown the load path for this design is

a) Stud – Beam – Strap – Column – Footing – Soil

b) Beam – Stud - Strap – Column – Footing – Soil
c) Soil – footing – column – beam – stud – strap
d) Stud – Strap – Beam - Column – Footing – Soil

23. The specific gravity of solids, GS for a soil 2.75. The zero air void dry unit weight
of the soil (KN/m3) at a moisture content of 20 percent is about.

a) 16.4
b) 17.4
c) 18.2
d) 16.5
24. A soil profile is shown in the figure. The effective vertical stress (psf) at mid height
of the clay layer is most nearly.

a) 770
b) 2130
c) 2570
d) 2900

25. Seismic response coefficient (Cs) of a building was found to be 0.10. The effective
seismic weight of a column is 300 tons. What is seismic shear force acting on the
column base?

a) 30 tons
b) 300 tons
c) 3,000 tons
d) 33 tons
 26. A sheet pile well pertaining a silly sand shown in the fugure. Using the Rankine
Formula, you determine the active earth preasure co efficient is most nearly
∅
Ka = tan2 ( 45 )

a) 0.25
b) 0.30
c) 0.45
d) 0.35

27. A pile foundation shown in the figure. The ultimate side resistance Qsu and ultimate
negative skin friction figure. A safety factor of 2.0 is required on the capacity. The
safety factor is not applied to downdrag forces. Assume that the downdrag capacity
of the pile. The allowable load P (kips) that can be applied to the top of the pile is
most nearly.

a) 115
b) 135
c) 155
d) 310
FOS =2
28. A pile driven in clay soils. Capacity of the pile is not dependent on:

a) Cohesion of soil
b) Pile diameter
c) Pile adhesion coefficient
d) Depth of groundwater

29. Seismic design categories are developed select one:

a) Based on soil type and building type.

b) Based on risk and importance of the structure with regard to loss of life.
c) Based on soil type only.
d) Based on the probability of an earthquake in the region.

30. During a standard penetration test (SPT) unusually low blow counts are encountered
in a foundation expected to be medium sand. this is an indication that the following
condition may be present
a) The sampler drive shoe is badly damaged or worn due to too many driving to
refusal
b) Cobbles are encountered
c) The sampler drive shoe is plugged
d) The ground water in bore hole is much lower than in-situ conditions immediately outsi
the borehole

31. Site with gray sandy still is shown below. Original groundwater was at 5ft below the
ground surface due to a severe drought groundwater level drops down 9ft below the
ground surface, what would happen to the effective stress at point A when
groundwater level drops down to 9ft below ground surface. Total density of soil is
110 pcf.
 a) Vertical effective stress increase by 249.6psf
b) Vertical effective stress increase by 254.6 psf
c) Vertical effective stress increase by 169.6 psf
d) No change

32. Engineers are planning to place a shallow foundation as shown.

Engineers have decided that loose sand and soft clay are not capable of supporting the
foundation without beight treated. What is the best.

a) Conduct dynamic compaction to treat soft clay and conduct pressure grouting to
treat loose sand.
b) Conduct dynamic compaction to treat loose sand and conduct surcharging to treat
soft clay.
c) Conduct vibro compaction to treat soft clay and conduct pressure grouting to treat
loose sand.
d) Conduct pressure grouting to treat soft clay and conduct surcharging to treat loose
sand.

33. Shelly tubes are used to

a) Obtain oil samples in clay soils

b) Obtain oil samples in sandy soils
c) Obtain oil samples in silty soils
d) Obtain rock cores
34. Clay soil is loaded in a consolidation test apparatus. The void ratio was measured
during loading and plotted and shown below. This clay

a) Normally Consolidated Clay

b) Over Consolidated Clay
c) Sility Clay
d) Organic Clay

35. A bridge footing is to be constructed is sand. The water table is at the ground
surface. The ultimate bearing capacity working weight?

a) Saturated unit weight

b) Buoyant unit weight
c) Total unit weight
d) Dry unit weight
 HYDRALICS ENGINEERING

36. The flow immediately upstream of a hydraulic jump is

a) Always critical
b) Upstream-Super critical, downstream-sub critical
c) Always sub critical
d) Always super critical

37. Which of the following has the most efficient hydraulic section?
a) Semicircle
b) Triangle with 450 included angle
c) Trapezord with 450 angles
d) Trapezord with 300 angles as measured from the horizontal.

IRRGIATION ENGINEERING

38. You are determining the unit hydro graph from an isolated storm event. The
difference between the total runoff and the base flow is the

a) Effective rainfall intensity

b) Runoff duration
c) Direct Runoff
d) Peak runoff

39. A monitoring station records the following pattern of discharge (cfs) in a stream
following a storm the catchment area for the stream is estimated to be 125acres,
1acre = 43,560ft2

Time (hr) 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7

Flow Rate 34 56 78 102 65 52 40 35

(ft3/sec)

The average depth of excess precipitation from the storm is most nearly;
a) 1.2 in
b) 1.5 in
c) 1.8 in
d) 2.1 in

40. A basic assumption of the rational method for determining peak runoff from a
watershed is that

a) Occurs if rainfall duration is equal to or greater than time of concentration

b) Is independent of the rainfall intensity
c) Occurs only if peak discharge per unit area increase as the drainage area
increase
d) Occurs if rainfall duration is less than the time of concentration

41. A water is to be designed to serve a proposed 100-home residential subdivision on

50acres. Which of the following

a) The required fire flow is nearly the same as average day demand
b) The required fire flow is between 2 times and 5 times the average day demand
c) The required fire flow is between 5 times and 100 times the average day demand
d) The required fire flow is more than 100 times average demand
 SANITARY ENGINEERING

42. Traffic analyst have found that trips genertated per household per day is to be
0.8+1.5P+0.7A

P=Number of person per household

A= Number of automobiles per household

If the area under research includes 800 households and 3.5 persons per household
and 1.8 autos per household what is the number of trips generated per day
a) 4230
b) 5848
c) 6250
d) 10065

Trips Generated per household per day =

0.8+1.5P+0.7A=0.8+1.5×3.5+0.7x1.8=7.31 / house hold
The number of trips generated per day=7.31×800=5848

43. A circular clarifier is being designed to receive a flow of 4.8 MGD. If the circular
depth is 12ft and rentention times 1.5 hours, the tank diameter

a) 33
b) 65
c) 78
d) 55

44. Flow is delivered from a splitter box to an areation basin through a 12-in. Ductile
iron pipe. For a flow rate of 3MGD, the velocity head 9(ft) in the in the ductile iron
pipe is

a) 0.03
b) 0.54
c) 5.91
d) 59.1
45. A primary sedimentation basin for a municipal waste water treatment plant treats a
flow of 3 MGD and removes 70 percent of the total suspended solids. The basin is
60ft in diameter with a depth of 15ft. The solid flux (lb/ft2.d) in this basin is about

a) 2
b) 5
c) Independent of detention time
d) Independent of depth

46. A 10 MGD water treatment plant is to be designed with eight identical rectangular
clarifiers with length to width ratio 5:1. The clarifiers will the clarifiers are 16ft
deep with a horizontal velocity of 0.4 ft/min, the dimensions (ft) of each clarifier
need to be most nearly

a) L 40 W 8
b) L 90 W 18
c) L 300 W 60
d) L 675 W 135

47. Flow is delivered from splitter box to an aeration basin through a 12-in. Ductile
iron pipe, for a flow rate of 3MGD, the velocity head (ft) in the ductile iron pipe is

a) 0.03
b) 0.54
c) 5.91
d) 59.1

48. In preparation for the design of new water treatment plants, jar tests with slightly
turbid water (4TU) show following design alternative is the most appropriate.

a) A Increase the safety factors in design of the sedimentation plant.

b) Provide for substantial addition of polymer and coagulant aid (bentonite clay)
c) Provide for direct filtration without coagulation/flocculation
d) Use the minimum G Values in design of flocculation system
e) None of the above
49. Determine the total volatile solids (TVS) in g/ml. Based on the following data. Two
hundred fifty milliliter of wastewater sample was added to an evaporating dish, the
weight of the empty dish was 24.5087 g. The dish and the sample were placed in a
drying oven at 105°C and removed after all the water evaporated. Once the dish
returned to room temperature, it was re-weighed and fond to be 26.7894 g. Then the
dish was put in a furnace at 550°c and removed after several hours. Once the dish
returned to room temperature, it was re-weighed and found to be 24.8904 g.

a) 0.0012 g/ml
b) 0.0091 g/ml
c) 0.0076 g/m
d) 0.0252 g/ml

50. A city with expected increase in its future population is to provide complete water
treatment plant for a surface water source, including rapid mix flocculation,
sedimentation, filtration and chlorination. The design flow is 22.5 MGD, assuming
alum is used for coagulation, the approximate area of the sedimentation basin.

a) Is closet to 10,000 ft2

b) Is closet to 20,000 ft3
c) Depends on the dosage of alum
d) Depends on the quality of the water source

51. A two stage anaerobic digester is used to treat a combined primary and secondary
sludge. The hydraulic detention time is

a) Equals to the solids retention time

b) Less than the soilds rentention time
c) Greater than solids rention time
d) Not an important design variable

52. The controlling design parameter in the design of settling tank is

a) A detention times
b) Percentage removal of BOD5
c) Percent removal of suspended solids
d) Overflow rate
e) Depth

53. Activated sludge process is beat described as

a) Re introduce aerated sludge back to the waste stream to increase the level of
bacteria.
b) Re introduce aerated sludge back to the waste stream to decrease the level of
bacteria.
c) Activate the sludge by adding chemicals
d) None of all.

54. An activated sludge sector with a solis retention time of nine days is to achieve
nitrification. PH Control may be necessary because.

a) Nitrification produces acid

b) The activated sludge process consumes alkalinity
c) Nitrification releases ammonia
d) (Nitrification produces acid) and (the activated sludge process consumes
alkalinity).

55. A secondary effluent that has “pinpoint” flow escaping over the weir indicates.

a) Over aeration
b) Too low of a return sludge flow
c) Nitrification
d) Rising Sludge
e) Bulkling Sludge

56. Phoshorus can be removed from waste water by:

a) Ferric chloride addition

b) Chlorine Addition
c) Air Stripping
d) Carbon Absorption
e) Rapid Sand Fitration

57. A municipal waste is treated with an activated sludge system with recycle after
primary classification. The solids retention time for the
a) Effluent Quality
b) Recyle TSS concentration
c) Hydraulic retention time
d) Efficiency of the primary clarifier

58. Disinfection with chlorine can be modelled as a first-ordered reaction. A reactor

has a flow rate of 12,000 litres per hour and the desired removal of organisms is
from 10*106/100 ml to less than 1/00ml. the decay coefficient is 0.35hr

Short circuiting in this complete mixed reactor will:

a) Increase treatment efficiency

b) Increased required volume
c) Make the reactor operate more like a plug flow reactor
d) Reduce the required volume

59. What type of instrument control system would you satisfy to ensure that a
softening plant preciption (i.e the reaction chemistry) was operating correctly

a) A flow meter with proportion controller

b) pH meter with proportion controller
c) weighting belt feeder
d) hardness meter with proportion controller

60. A municipal waste is treated with an activated sludge system with recycle after
primary classification. The solids retention time for the

a) Effluent Quality
b) Recyle TSS concentration
c) Hydraulic retention time
d) Efficiency of the primary clarifier

61. A municipal waste is treated with an activated sludge system with recycle after
primary classification. The solids retention time for the

a) Effluent Quality
b) Recyle TSS concentration
c) Hydraulic retention time
d) Efficiency of the primary clarifier
62. Activated sludge process is best described as

a) Re- introduce aerated sludge back to the waste stream to increase the level of
bacteria
b) Re-introduce aerated sludge back to the waste stream to decrease the level of
bacteria
c) Activate the sludge by adding chemicals
d) None of all

63. A schedmatic of a waste water treatment plant is shown, treatment to remove grit
from the waste water.

a) Decreases BOD
b) Is used to decrease mechanical failure
c) Involves the use of coagulations
d) Can come at any point in the treatment pain

64. What type of instrument/control system would you specify to insure that a
softening plant precipitation process (i.e the reaction chemistry) was open correctly
?
 a) Flow meter with proportional controller
b) Ph meter with proportional controller
c) Hardness meter with proportional controller
d) None of the above

65. Disinfection with chlorine can be modelled as a first ordered reaction. A reactor
has a flow rate of 12,000 liters per hour and the desired removal of organisms is
from 10x106/100 ml to less than 100 ml, the decay coefficient is 0.35/hr

Short circuiting in this complete mixed reactor will

a) Increase treatment efficiency

b) Increase the required volume
c) Make the reactor operate more like a plug flow reactor
d) Reduce the required volume

66. Activated sludge process is best described as

e) Re- introduce aerated sludge back to the waste stream to increase the level of
bacteria
f) Re-introduce aerated sludge back to the waste stream to decrease the level of
bacteria
g) Activate the sludge by adding chemicals
h) None of all

67. A wastewater effluent is treated with chlorine gas (Cl2) to give a free residual of 0.5
mg/l. The amount of chlorine required is:
a) Much greater than 0.5 mg/l
b) Dependent on the COD of the effluent
c) Dependent on the NH3-N concentration of the effluent
Dosage, mg/L= Pounds of Chemical
(8.34 lbs/gal) *(Flow, mgd)

If the measured effluent residual of the effluent was 3.5 mg/L, then subtracting 3.5 from 17.1 gives us
a chlorine demand of 13.6 mg/L. This means that the effluent demanded 13.6 mg/L of chlorine before
a residual value could be met. Demand = Dosage – Residual

68. An activated sludge reactor with a solids retention time of nine days is to achieve
nitrification ptt control may be necessary because
 a) Nitrification produces acid
b) The activated process sludge process consumes alkalinity
c) Nitrification releases ammonia
d) (Nitrification produces acid) and ( the activated sludge process consumes
alkalinity

69. Phosphorus can be removed from waste water by:

a) Ferric chloride addition

b) Chlorine addition
c) Air stripping
d) Carbon adsorption
e) Rapid sand filtration
 PROJECT MANAGEMENT

70. What is meant by the moral theory criteria mlsm

a) Act in your enlighted self-intrest

b) Construct a global utility happiness-objective function and to maximize it.

71. Your boss has just approved the initiation of project to celebrate Qatar national day
sadia has been as assigned the project manager by the boss.sadia very first task should
be
a) Establish the reporting process is the boss
b) Work on the project scope
c) Make a report on required cost for the project
d) Delivering the project chance to the project develop the project chart to do
project
e) Ask the boss as to how many team members would be allowed in to the
project.

72. Which is the following situations requires a change order

a) Change in owner scope of work

b) Significant change in suitable conditions
c) Design error or omission
d) All of above

73. Which of these is a reason to start a project

a) Problem
b) Market
c) Opportunity
d) All answers are true
 ENGINEERING MATERIAL

74. The Accreditation Board of Engineering and Techology (ABET) is an accrediting

agency for.

a) Engineering Education Programs

b) Engineering Fundamentals Examinations
c) Engineering Firms
d) All of the above

75. ABET Strands for Accoditation board fot Engineering and technology
a) True
b) False

76. Carbon brick is made from crushed coke bond bonded with
a) Sulphate
b) Carbon
c) Tar
d) Clay

77. How often shall a visual inspection be done on smoke detectors as per NFPA 72?

a) Monthly
b) Daily
c) Semi Annually
d) Weekly

78. If an absorption chiller load is 500 tons, the required heat input (Btu/hr) to a chiller

a) 4.8x106
b) 6.0x106
c) 7.5x106
d) 9.4x106

1 tonne = 12,000 Btu/hr

500 tonne = 500x12,000x1000
= 600,000,0000
 CONCRETE TECHNOLOGY

79. Increased water-cement ratio (W/C) in concrete mix

a) Results in decreased strength (Best Answer)
b) Reduces workability
c) Decrease hydration process
d) Reduce the slump value