CRIMINOLOGIST LICENSURE BOARD EXAMINATION Case Situation:

QUESTIONS COMPILATION Allan and Grace while walking towards

home were approached by Lenie. The latter who is
Case Situation: armed with a gun declared hold-up while poking the
Bong surreptitiously went into the premises of Esco. said gun upon Allan. Lenie demanded for their wallet
Not knowing that Esco was inside the house, he burned the
and gave the same to him for fear of their lives.
house that resulted also to the death of Esco.
Lenie with intent to gain, employed intimidation in
1. Bong is liable of what crime? taking the personal property of Allan and Grace.
a. Arson 8. What crime committed by Lenie?
b. Murder a. Theft
c. Homicide b. snatching
d. Arson with Murder c. Robbery
2. However if Bong knew that Esco was inside the house
d. Grave Threat
and his purpose of burning is to kill Esco.What crime
committed by Bong? Case Situation:
a. Arson Manuel entered the house of Lenie by
b. Murder breaking the main door. Once inside, Manuel with
c. Homicide intent to gain took the LCD Television.
d. Arson with Murder 9. Manuel is liable of what crime?
Case Situation:
Marcos and Chiz conspired to kill Llanes. They a. Robbery
mutually helped one another in abducting Llanes. Before they b. Theft
shoot Llanes, Marcos intentionally cut off his right ear. c. Malicious mischief
d. snatchig
3. What crime did Marcos and Chiz commit?
a. Homicide 10. Supposed Manuel entered the house through the main
b. Murder door without breaking it since it was left unlocked and
c. Homicide with Mutilation thereafter took the LCD Television of Lenie. Manuel is
d. Murder with serious physical injur liable of a crime of.
4. What if Marcos and Chiz did not cut off the right ear, a. Robbery
instead they soak Llanes into a boiling water. What are b. Theft
did they commit?
c. Malicious mischief
a. Homicide
b. Murder d. snatching
c. Homicide with Mutilation 11. What if Manuel entered the house through the main
d. Murder with serious door without breaking it since it was left opened and
5. What if Marcos and Chiz did not conspired to kill Llanes thereafter took the LCD Television, however, when he is
but they just saw the latter while walking and supposed to leave, Lenie arrived, thus Manuel was forced
intentionally they shoot which resulted to the death of
to pass at the back door which was locked by breaking it.
Llanes. What crime did they commit?
Manuel is liable of what crime?
a. Homicide
b. Murder a. Robbery
c. Frustrated homicide b. Theft
d. Attempted murder c. Malicious mischief
Case Situation: d. snatching
Grace and Jomar begot a child named 12. Supposed Manuel entered the house through the main
Manuel without being married. Grace and Jomar door by opening it with the use of an ATM card to open
parted their ways. Grace got married to Bong, the door lock without breaking it. Upon entry he took the
however, they were not blessed to have a child of LCD Television. Manuel is liable of a crime of?
their own, and thus, they had legally adopted a. Robbery
Manuel. One afternoon, Manuel killed Jomar while b. Theft
the latter was sleeping. c. Malicious mischief
6. What crime committed by Manuel? d. Robbery with Theft
Case Situation:
a. Parricide
The pig of Mang Rodrigo entered in the
b. Homicide
farm of Manuel and destroyed the mongo crop of
c. Murder
the latter. As a consequence, Mang Rodrigo got
d. Infanticide
furious, thus, he hacked the pig with a bolo. The pig
7. What if Manuel killed Grace?
dies as a result.
13. What crime is committed by Mang Rodrigo?
b. Homicide
a. Parricide c. Murder a. theft
d. Infanticide b. property damaged

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 c. malicious mischief 23. What if it is the father of Alden who killed the infant?
d. robbery a. homicide b. parricide
14. Supposing that after killing the pig, Mang Rodrigo makes c. murder d. infanticide
24. What if the infant is only two (2) days old? What crime is
use of its meat by keeping it in his refrigerator and
committed by Alden, Maine or the father of Alden?
cooked some. What crime committed by Mang Rodrigo? a. homicide b. parricide
a. theft c. murder d. infanticide
b. property damaged Case Situation:
c. malicious mischief Lola A, Lola B and Lola C robbed a bank. Lola A and B
d. robbery entered the bank and took all the money from the teller while
15. Supposed it was a Carabao that destroyed the mongo Lola C remains outside the bank and served as look-out.
25. Lola A is liable for a crime as?
crops of Manuel. What crime committed by Manuel?
a. principal by inducement
a. theft b.principal by direct participation
b. malicious mischief c. principal by indispensable cooperation
c. Violation of Anti-Cattle Rustling Law d.principal
d. robbery 26. Lola B is liable for a crime as?
16. Supposed after killing the Carabao Mang Rodrigo makes a. principal by inducement
use of its meat by keeping it in his refrigerator and b.principal by direct participation
c. principal by indispensable cooperation
cooked some, what crime committed by Mang Rodrigo?
d.principal
a. theft 27. Lola C is liable for a crime as?
b. malicious mischief a. principal by inducement
c.Violation of Anti-Cattle Rustling Law b.principal by direct participation
d. robbery c. principal by indispensable cooperation
17. Validity of Search Warrant d.principal
28. What if Lola C who actually entered the bank and took all
a. when the judge sign the money from the teller?
b. upon serve a. principal by inducement
b.principal by direct participation
c. from the date indicated therein
c. principal by indispensable cooperation
d. from the date receive by officer d.principal
18. Quantum of proof required whether to file an 29. What if Lola A who was outside the bank and served as
information or complaint in court? look-out??
a. probable cause a. principal by inducement
b. personal knowledge b.principal by direct participation
c. substancial c. principal by indispensable cooperation
d.principal
d. proof beyond reasonable doubt
Case Situation:
19. If the search is illegal the things seized is? Alden induces Yaya Dub, Pastillas and Vice to kill
a. competent Aldub who is living on an island far from the town, in
b. irrelevant consideration of the amount of 500,000.00. Lola Dora, te
c. inadmissible owner of the only boat in the place agreed to transport Yaya
d. admissible Dub, Pastillas and Vice and actually transported them in a
place in consideration of 10,000.00,Lola Dora agreed despite
20. t is the ultimate facts or the facts in issue or to be
knowing the criminal purpose of Yaya Dub,Pastillas and Vice.
proved. It is the essential facts constituting the plaintiff’s
Upon reaching the place, Yaya Dub held the hands of Aldub
cause of action? while Pastillas stabs Yayadub and as a result, Aldub dies.
a. Factum probandum Viceremains as look-out.
b. Evidence
c. factum probans 30. Alden is liable for a crime as?
d. factum prubans a. principal by inducement
b.principal by direct participation
Case Situation:
c. principal by indispensable cooperation
Alden got married to Maine Mendoza. After 4years
d.principal
from of being husband and wife, they were not blessed with a
31. Yaya Dub is also liable for a crime as?
child. Alden had an illicit relation with Ms. Pastillas. Ang a
a. principal by inducement
neighbor), who gave birth to child (C). Maine learned about
b.principal by direct participation
Alden’s relation with Ms. Pastillas. To cover their illicit
c. principal by indispensable cooperation
relation, Alden intentionally killed his illegitimate infant at its
d.principal
72 hours age.
32. Vice Pastillas so liable for a crime as?
21. For what crime Alden can be charged?
a. principal by inducement
a. homicide b. parricide
b.principal by direct participation
c. murder d. infanticide
c. principal by indispensable cooperation
22. What if it is Maine who killed the infant?
d.principal
a. homicide b. parricide
33. Lola Dora as the owner of the only boat is liable of a
c. murder d. infanticide
crime as?
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 a. principal by inducement physician
b.principal by direct participation 4.They should be transferred to mental institution of
c. principal by indispensable cooperation proper psychiatric treatment
d.principal
a. 2, 3 and 4
34. What if there are several boats available to transport,
b. 3, 4 and 1
Lola Dora is liable of a crime as?
a. principal c. 4, 1 and 2
b.accessories d. 1, 2 and 3
c. accomplice 42. Which of the following is not an element of malicious
d.principal by indispensable cooperation mischief?
35. What if Pastillas just bury the cadaver of Aldub and he a. The damage was caused inadvertently
has knowledge about the crime Pastillas is liable of a
b. The damage caused does not fall with the provisions
crime as?
a. principal of arson
b.accessories c. The offender has caused damage to the property of
c. accomplice another
d.principal by indispensable cooperation d. The damage was caused deliberately
26. This theory views crime and delinquency as a 43. In special law, the imposed penalty is two years to seven
result of the frustration and anger people experience years. Applying the indeterminate sentence law, how many
over their inability to achieve legitimate social and
years?
financial success.
a. strain theory a. 1
b. psychological theories b. 2
c. differential association theory c. 7
d. labeling theory d. 8
36. A and B one neighbors who case to play “tako” ane day, 44. George, the 20-years old son of a rich politician, was
A persuaded B to steal the bike of C.In the study of arrested at the NAIA arrival lounge and found positive for
criminal law what is the term used for it?
opium, a dangerous drug. When arrested, 15 grams of
a. Conspiracy
b. Proposal cocaine were found in his bagpack. What offense would
c. Entrapment you charge George under R.A No. 9165 (Comprehensive
d. Instigation Dangerous Drug Act)?
37. In tumultuous affray ender Article 251 of the RPC how a. Importation of dangerous drugs.
person may are included? b. Possession of dangerous drugs.
a. 3
c. Use and possession of dangerous drugs
b. 8
d. Use of dangerous drugs
c. 4
d. 6 45. In the case of People Vs Thomas Sr, the Supreme Court in the
38. What Quantum of Evidence required in criminal case? appreciation of that a paraffin test has been held to be highly
a. Preponderance of evidence a. Accepted
b. Proof beyond reasonable doubt b. Determinate
c. Probable cause c. Sensitive
d. Substantial Evidence
d. Unreliable
39. In Revise Penal Code, the intentional or malicious
destruction of property by means of fire is called. 46. In the Criminal Law, the Court personnel next in rank to the
a. Arson presiding judge in the lower court is the Branch Clerk of
b. Combustion Court. In the absence of the judge, the branch clerk of court
c. Disposition may hear simple case of unjust vexation.
d. Murder a. Possible
40. Volunteer Probation Aides may be appointed from b. No
among citizens of c. It depends
a. Good repute and probity d. Yes
b. High educational level 47. Who among the following can apply for release under the
c. Good religious background Law on Recognizance?
d. High social standing a. One who is charged with an offense whose penalty
41. Which of the following procedures should be observed is three (3) years and above
in handling drug addicts who are incarcerated? b. One who is charged with an offense whose penalty
1.They should be segrageted especially during the is Twelve (12) months and above
withdrawal period c. One who is charged with an offense whose penalty
2.They should be closely supervised to prevent is not morethan Six (6) months
attempts to commit suicide or d. One who is charged with an offense whose penalty
self-mutilation is Six (6) months and above
3.They should not be administered 48. A hostile witness is one whose testimony is not favorable to
sedatives/stimulants unless prescribed by a the cause of the party who called him as a witness. Can

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 leading question be asked? 56. What is meant by the concept of probation which is from the
a. It depends latin word "probitio" and had historical roots in the pratice of
b. No judicial repreive?
c. Partially a. Live with integrity
d. Yes b. Testing period
49. What is the function responsibility of prison guards? c. Walk with faith
a. Inmates health d. Out of the institution
b. Prison security 57. In the study of crime, what is the distinction, if any, between
c. Prison's Interpersonal relations a felony and a crime?
d. Prison industry a. Crime and felony are the same
50. A has grudge against B. He went to the house of B and look b. Crime covers felonies
for the latter. However, B was on vacation in the province. In c. No distinction whatsoever
his spite, he destroyed the door of B. Later on, he noticed d. The source of felony is a RPC
that the door could be useful. So, he brought it to his house. 58. Mayor saw A and B boxing each other. He approached the
What crime was committed? two and identified himself as a mayor and attempted to
a. Robbery pacify them whereupon B attacked mayor. C, a bystander
b. Maliscious Mischief came to aid of the Mayor. Upon seeing C helping the mayor,
c. Attempted Qualified Trespass to Dwelling A attacked C. What crime was committed by the one who
d. Theft attacked C?
51. What do you call the court that co-equal to the Court of a. Direct assault
Appeals? b. Indirect assault
a. Sandiganbayan c. None
b. Court of first instance d. Physical injury
c. Supreme court 59. Level of security facility which is usually enclosed by a thick
d. Tanodbayan wall about 18-25 feet high, on top are catwalks in every
52. To be eligible for the grant of conditonal pardon what portion corner, a tower post is manned by heavily armed guards:
of the sentence must have been served by a petitioner- a. Maximum security facility
prisoner? b. Medium security facility
a. Atleast one half of the minimum of his c. Super maximum security facility
indeterminate sentence d. Minimum security facility
b. Atleast one half of the maximum of his 60. Ramon witnessed the commission of a crime but he refuses
indeterminate sentence to testify for fear of his life despite a subpoena being served
c. Atleast one fourth of the maximum of his on him. Can the court punish him for contempt?
indeterminate sentence a. No, since no person can be compelled to be a
d. Atleast one third of the minimum of his witness against another.
indeterminate sentence b. No, since Ramon has a valid reason for not
53. Is there a complex crime when crime is committed to conceal testifying.
another crime? 2 CRIMES c. Yes , since litigants need help in presenting their
a. It depends case.
b. No d. Yes, since public interest in justice requires his
c. Partially testimony.
d. Yes 61. What documents are attached to the Release Document of
54. What is the primary purpose of the pre-sentence the Parolee?
investigation? Prison record
a. To help the judge in selecting the appropriate Name of the Parolee and Probation Officer
sentence of the offender Location of the Prison or Confinement
b. To exonerate the offender Order of Court
c. To give the offender an opportunity to defend a. 4 and 1
himself b. 1 and 2
d. To assist the judge in dismissing the case c. 3 and 4
55. The following are rights of a witness under the rules of court d. 2 and 3
EXCEPT: 62. We known that the Lord Jesus Christ, our savior, was brutally
a. To be examine only as to matters pertinent to the crucified in the Middle East some 2100 years ago. According
issue to our criminal/ penal law, What aggravating circumstance
b. Not to give an answer which will tend to subject him will you use to those who consfired in the killing?
to a penaly of an offense a. Abused of Superior Strength
c. To remain silent b. Conspiracy
d. To be protected from irrelevant questions c. Intimidation

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 d. Treachery 70. The Post-Sentence Investigation Report is submitted to court
63. The Probation Officer and Volunteer Probation Aides within_________.
undertake supervision and visitation of the probationer. a. 10-day period
However, control over the probationer and probation b. 30-day period
program is exercised by c. 15-day period
a. The Chief of Police of the place where he/she d. 60-day period
resides 71. Within how many days after the expiration of the period to
b. The Parole and Probation Administrator execute the warrant of arrest that the officer to whom it was
c. The Secretary of Justice assigned for the execution shall make a report to the judge
d. The Court who place him on probation who issued the warrant?
64. According to the control theory, crime and delinquency result a. 10
with an individual bond to _____________ is weak and b. 15
broken. c. 20
a. Behavior d. 30
b. Police 72. Which of the following is a crime against the Fundamental
c. Law Law of the State?
d. Society a. Espionage
65. Which of the following offenses may be prosecuted by a b. Piracy
person other than (not) the offended party? c. Treason
a. Abduction d. Violation of Domicile; if private person- Qualified
b. Act of lasciviousness trespass to dwelling
c. Seduction 73. The Metropolitan Trial Court convicted Virgilio and Dina of
d. Falsification concubinage. Pending appeal, they applied for bail, claiming
66. What types of questions are allowed to be asked to a witness they are entitled to it as a matter of right. Is their claim
who is unwilling to testify? correct?
a. Intelligent a. No, bail is dependent on the risk of flight.
b. Leading b. No, bail is not a matter of right after conviction.
c. Misleading c. Yes, bail is a matter of right in all cases not invloving
d. Unresponsive moral turpitude.
67. Which theory of criminal punishment holds that punishment d. Yes, bail is a matter of right in the Metropolitan
is imposed on the offender to allow society to vent its anger Trial Court before and after conviction.
toward and exact vengeance upon the criminal? 74. X went to the United States. While he was there,
a. Retribution encountered Y an American. They eventually got
b. Restoration married. When X returned to the Philippines, his wife Z
c. Rehabilitation filed an action against him for violating their marriage.
d. Deterrence What is X liable to?
68. The following are the elements of maliscious mischief: a. Adultery
i. The offender deliberately caused damage b. Bigamy
to property c. Concubinage
ii. Such act does not constitute arson or other d. Polygamy
crimes involving destruction 75. Leave of Court is required to amend a complaint or
iii. Such acts also constitute other crimes information before arraignment if the
involving destruction amendment_______________.
iv. The act of damaging anothers property was a. Downgrades the nature of the offense from a
committed merely for the sake of damaging higher to a lower offense or excludes any
it accused
b. I, III, IV b. Downgrades the nature of the offense from a
c. I, II, IV higher to a lower offense and adds another
d. I, II, III accused
e. II, III, IV c. Upgrades the nature of the offense from a lower
69. Who among the following may be granted conditional to a higher offense and excludes any of the
pardon? accused
a. A sick prisoner, certified as such by government d. Upgrades the nature of the offense from a lower
physician to a higher offense and adds another accused
b. A prisoner who served as "bastonero" 76. In Criminal law and Jurisprudence, there are two acts-
c. A prisoner who is sixty years old and above internal and external act. Which of the two acts is
d. A prisoner who returned to prison after he broke his indispensable for the act to be punishable as a crime?
probation conditions a. External act

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 b. Intentional act a. Board of Pardon and Parole
c. Internal act b. Bureau of Correction
d. Unintentional act c. Parole and Probation Administration
77. In criminal procedure, who conducts the direct d. Office of the Executive Secretary
examination? 86. What law prohibits the imposition of death penalty in the
a. Opponent philippines?
b. PAO lawyer a. R.A 7659
c. Proponent b. R.A 7965
d. Prosecution c. R.A 8177
78. The system of key control in a jail includes: d. R.A 9346
a. An updated system of monitoring and control 87. For search to be considered as an incident of the arrest, it
of keys must be made at the place where the:
b. A documented inventory of security personnel a. Contraband was found
c. A collector of all padlocks and keys b. Police station is located
d. An accurate listing of all keys and receipting c. Arrest was effected
them d. Crime was forced
79. The following are classified as crimes against chastity, 88. Bearing in mind the distinction between private and public
EXCEPT: document, which of the folowing is admissible in evidence
a. Simple Seduction without further proof of due execution or genuiness?
b. Adultery a. Baptismal Certificates.
c. White Slave Trade b. Documents acknowledged before a Notary Public in
d. Sexual Harassment Hongkong
80. The following are considered minor offenses of an c. Official record of the Philippines Embassy in
inmate, EXCEPT: Singapore certified by the Vice-consul with official
a. Rendering service to fellow inmate seal
b. Failing to stand at attention and give due d. Unblimished receipt dated December 20, 1985
respect when confronted by or reporting to any signed by the promise, showing payment of a loan,
officer or member of the custodial force found among the well-kept file of the promissor.
c. Willful watse of food 89. A drug user who is placed under probation may be made to
d. Littering or failing to maintain cleanliness and serve his sentence by the court if he
orderliness in his quarter and/or surroundings a. Becomes unruly and undicipline
81. The following are classified as crimes against honor, b. Commits another offense
EXCEPT: c. He is 21 years old
a. Premature Marriage d. Violates any of the conditions of the probation
b. libel 90. Which evidence is presented to vary the terms of a written
c. Incriminating innocent person agreement, there is the application of
d. Slanderp the____________evidence rule.
82. A complaint may be filed by any of the following, EXCEPT: a. Documentary
a. Offender b. Best
b. The offender party c. Written
c. Other public officers d. Parol
d. Any peace officers 91. X, a doctor, put a poison on the food of his wife. When she
83. Is there an instance where an accesory exempted from eat the food, moments later, she suffered excruciating pain in
criminal liability/ the stomach. Seeing his in agony, X got pity on his wife and
a. It depends administered an antidote. Thus, the wife did not die. What
b. No crime was committed by X?
c. Sometimes a. Attempted Parricide
d. Yes b. Frustrated Parricide
84. X tried to kill Y by poisoning. One morning, X put sugar on c. Serious Physical Injuries
the food of Y thinking that it was arsenic. Instead of d. No crime
dying, Y suffered diabetes. In this case, the crime is not 92. Who is the Boston bootmaker who was the founder of
committed because the material he mixed on the foods is probation in the United States?
a. Impossible a. Sir Walter crofton
b. Inadequate b. Alexander Maconochie
c. Ineffectual c. John murry spear
d. Intentional d. John Augustus
85. The president grants absolute/conditional pardon based 93. A petition for the grant of basolute or conditional pardon
on the recommendation of: shall be favorably endorsed to the Board by the________ if

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 the crime committed by the petitioner is against national d. With the use of force or intimidation.
security. 101.Zosimo was convicted to a prison term of prision
a. Secretary of foreign Affairs correccional. Will he qualify for probation?
b. Secretary of Justice a. No, his sentence is six (6) years and one (1) day
c. Secretary of National Defense b. No, his sentence is morethan Six (6) years and One
d. Secretary of the Interior and Local Government (1) day
94. All data gathered about the probation applicant shall be c. Yes, his sentence is less than Six (6) years and One
treated__________. (1) day
a. Comprehensively d. Yes, his sentence is three (3) years and one (1) day
b. Appopriately 102.There are four (4) acknowledged goals of ___________ as
c. Confidentially follows: retribution, deterrence, incapacitation, and
d. Judiciously rehabilitation.
95. Studies are conducted to determine the experiences of a. Criminal intent
residents with crimes which are not usually reported to the b. Criminal mind
police. What are these studies called? c. Criminal sanction
a. Population Surveys d. Criminal action
b. Police surveys 103.The city prosecutor charged Ben with serious physical injuries
c. Victimization surveys for stabbing terence. He was tried and convicted as charged.
d. Information surveys A few days later, Terence died due to severe infection of his
96. What term denotes a new or fresh trial when an appellate stab wounds. Can the prosecution file another information
court sends a case back to lower court for new trial? against Ben for homicide?
a. Trial by publicity a. No, double jeopardy is present since Ben had
b. Trial by jury already been convicted of the first offense.
c. Trial by default b. No, there is double jeopardy since serious physical
d. Trial de novo injuries is necessarily included in the charged of
97. Facts already known or ought to be known by judge by homicide.
reason of their office and of which they may properly take c. Yes, since supervening event altered the kind of
and act without proof re called matters of: crime the accused committed.
a. Priveleged communication d. Yes, since Terence's death shows irregularity in the
b. Judicial notice filing of the earlier charge against him.
c. Pleadings 104.Under which condition can a prisoner be immediately
d. Judgment released provided he is not a recidivist or he had not been
98. What is referred to as the reduction of the duration of prison previously convicted 3 or more times of any crime?
sentence? a. If he has been in jail for 60 days and the maximum
a. Commutation of sentence penalty for the offense he may be found guilty of is
b. Parole destierro
c. Absolute pardon b. If he has been in jail for 30 days and the maximum
d. Conditional pardon penalty of the offense he may be found guilty of is
99. Which among the following is a requisite before an accused prision correccional
may be discharged to become a state witness? c. If he has been in jail for 30 days and the maximum
penalty of the offense he may be found guilty of is
a. The accused does not appear to be guilty. reclusion perpetua
b. The accused has not at any time been convicted of d. If he has been in jail for a period equal to or
any offense. morethan the possible maximum term of
c. The testimony of the accused sought to be punishment of the offense he maybe found guilty
discharged can be substantially of.
corroborated on all points. 105.A science involving technical knowledge about the traces of
d. There is absolute necessity for the testimony of the crime is known as:
accused hose discharge is requested. a. Forensic medicine
100.Choose the correct circumstance when a woman may be held b. Physical science
liable for rape: c. Forensic science
a. When she befriends and puts a sleeping pill in the d. Criminalistic Technology
victims drink to enable her husband to have 106.To be considered an accessory, the author of the crime must
intercourse with the victim's. be guilty of any of the following, EXCEPT:
b. When the offender uses an instrument and inserts it a. Murder
in the mouth of the victim's. b. Treason
c. When the rape is committed by two or more c. Parricide
person's. d. Infanticide

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107.The following are crimes against national security and the c. accusatorial
law of nations EXCEPT one: d. fixed
a. Violation of neutrality 116. It is that system of criminal procedure which is
conducted either at the initiative of the public prosecutor
b. Rebellion
or the offended party and the right to appeal are limited
c. Treason to the defense and the accused presumed innocent.
d. Espionage
108.Which of the following is NOT classified as a crime committed a. inquisitorial
by public officers? b. mixed
a. Forgery c. accusatorial
b. Official breaking seal d. fixed
117. That law expanding the jurisdiction of the MTC, MTCC,
c. Malversation
MCTC.
d. Refusal of assistance a. R.A. 7691
109.Inmates with heart diseases need to be treated with a little b. R.A. 8493
more care than the other inmates. Which of the following c. BP 129
should NOT be done by a jail officer? d. R.A. 1379
a. Ensure that the inmates see the medical staff 118. In criminal cases, what determine the jurisdiction of
regularly court, EXCEPT:
a. Extent of penalty
b. Ensure that the inmates comply with his prescribed
b. Person accused
diet c. territory
c. Avoid assigning strenuous jobs to the inmate d. subject matter
d. Prescribe the medicine to the heart-patient inmate 119. Sworn statement, subscribed by offended party, any
110.The following are aggravating circumstances EXCEPT: peace officer of public officer in charge of enforcement of
a. Movement of the offender is restricted the law violated filed either to the court or to the office
b. Cruelty of the prosecutor.
a. Complaint
c. Adding ignominy
b. Pleadings
d. Taking advantage of superior strength c. Information
111.When taking up arms against the government was d. Affidavit
undertaken by members of the military, what law was 120.Prescription of offense commence to run:
violated? Republic Act________. a. Upon discovery of the crime by the offended
a. 9165 party or peace officers or their agent.
b. Upon filing of cases in court.
b. 7610
c. Upon escape of the accused.
c. 6506
d. Upon re-appearance of the accused
d. 6968
112.The following properties may be taken by the officer 121. The following are cases covered by rules on summary
effecting the arrest, EXCEPT those: procedure, EXCEPT:
a. That may be used for escaping a. Where the penalty is six months Imprisonment
b. Used in the commission of a crime b. Violation of traffic laws
c. Violation of rental laws
c. That are within the immediate vicinity
d. Where the penalty fees not exceed six (6)
d. Which are means of committing violence months imprisonment
113.Which authorizes the release of a detainee who has 122.What drugs are synthetic that stimulate the central
undergone preventive imprisonment equivalent to the nervous system and are commonly referred to as
maximum imposable sentence for the offense he is charged “uppers”?
with? a. Amphetamines
a. Batas Pambansa 95 b. Naptha
c. Barbiturates
b. Batas Pambansa 85
d. Diazepam
c. Batas Pambansa 105 123. The following offense cannot be prosecuted de officio
d. Batas Pambansa 965 without a complaint first filed by the offended party,
114.An advantageous result in the integration of correctional EXCEPT:
agencies is: a. Rape
a. More physical facilities to maintain b. Abduction
b. More prisoners to supervise c. Seduction
d. Adultery and Concubinage
c. Divided resources such as manpower and finances
124. Complaint or Information shall charge only one offense.
d. Better coordination of services and increased cost- This is the rule on:
efficiency a. Duplicity of offense
115.It is the system or criminal procedure which is b. Complex crime
characterized by secrecy of investigation and the option c. compound crime
of the defense and prosecution to appeal. d. continuing crime
a. Inquisatorial
b. mixed

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125.In People v. Pinzon under what Constitutional Mandates days an accused person upon knowing the filing of said
an arresting officer should inform the person to be complaint may ask for preliminary investigation?
arrested of his rights? a. 5 days
a. Art. III Sec. 12 b. 15 days
b. b.Miranda Doctrine c. 10 days
c. R.A. 7438 d. 30 days
d. Rule 115 134.Is the taking of a person into custody in order that he
126.It is an Act Instituting the Comprehensive Dangerous may be bound to answer for the commission of an
Drugs Act of 2002, providing Funds Therefore and for offense.
Other Purposes. a. Arrest
a. RA 9165 b. Warrant
b. RA 1956 c. jurisdiction
c. RA 9156 d. Seizure
d. RA 1965 135.Validity of the warrant of arrest?
127.What is the penalty of planting of evidence in drug a. no fixed duration
incidents? b. 30 days
a. Reclusion Perpetua c. 20 days
b. Life Imprisonment d. 10 days
c. Death 136.Lifetime of search warrant?
d. Fine a. 10 days
109. Complaint and information can be amended to ____ b. 20 days
after plea and during the trial with leave of court and without c. 5 days
causing prejudice to the rights of the accused. d. No fixed duration
a. form 137.Within how many days upon the date of execution of a
b. substance and form warrant of arrest the person charged with its execution
c. substance shall report to the court which issue such warrant when
d. none of these arrest was not been made?
128.A petition for suspension of criminal action upon the a. 10 days
pendency of a prejudicial question in a civil action may be b. 30 days
filed: c. 20 days
a. before the prosecution rests d. 5 days
b. before arraignment 138.It refers to the ways and means of trapping and capturing
c. before preliminary investigation the law breakers in the execution of their criminal plan.
d. before plea a. instigation
129.Is that which in a case the resolution of which is a logical b. investigation
antecedent of the issue involved therein, and the c. entrapment
cognizance of which pertains to another tribunal. d. Entertainment
a. Prejudicial question 139. In flagrante delicto means _____?
b. inquest proceeding a. caught in the act
c. preliminary investigation b. instigation
d. custodial investigation c. caught after commission
130.Is an inquiry or proceeding to determine whether there is d. entrapment
sufficient ground to engender a well-founded belief that 140.When arrest may be made?
a crime has been committed and the respondent is a. At any time of the day and night
probably guilty thereof, and should be held for trial. b. At day time
a. preliminary investigation c. At night time
b. inquest proceeding d. from sun dust till dawn
c. prejudicial question 141.When making an arrest the arresting officer ____ the
d. custodial investigation warrant of arrest in his possession?
131.Preliminary investigation is conducted on cases a. Need not have
punishable by: b. Should always have
a. at least four (4) years, two (2) months and one c. may sometime have
(1) day d. need to have
b. more than four years, two months and one day 142.It refers to the questioning initiated by law enforcement
c. less than four years, two months and one day officer after a person has been taken into custody.
d. six years, one day and above a. custodial investigation
132.The following persons are authorized to conduct b. inquest
preliminary investigation, EXCEPT: c. interview
a. Judges or Metropolitan Trial Court d. interrogation
b. Provincial and city prosecutors and their 143. Under what circumstances arrest can be made even
assistants without a warrant?
c. Judges of the Municipal Trial Court and a. When the crime was committed in the presence
Municipal Circuit Trial Courts of the arresting officer.
d. National and Regional state prosecutors; b. When the crime was in fact been committed and
e. a and c there is personal knowledge based on probable
133.After the filing of the Complaint or Information in court cause that the person to be arrested has
without a preliminary investigation within how many committed it.
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 c. When the person to be arrested is an escapees. accused and the other consistent with his guilt, or they
d. All of the choices are evenly balanced. The constitutional presumption of
144.It is a security given for the temporary release of a innocence should tilt the scale in favor of the accused
person in custody of the law. and he must be acquitted.
a. Bail a. Equipoise rule
b. parole b. Presumption of guilt
c. fine c. Hornbook doctrine
d. conditional pardon d. due process of law
145.Trial _____ may proceed in case the accused person 154.Refers to the counsel provided by the government to
failed to appear at the trial without justification and assist destitute litigant?
despite due notice. a. Counsel de officio
a. In absentia b. counsel de parte
b. in flagrante de licto c. Public Attorney’s Office
c. on the merits d. National Prosecution Office
d. none of these 155.It is a process directed to a person requiring him to
146.When Bail is a matter of right? attend and to testify or to bring with him any books or
a. Before or after conviction by the Metropolitan, documents under his control at the trial of an action.
Municipal or Municipal Circuit trial court. a. subpoena
b. Upon conviction by the Regional Trial Court b. subpoena ducestecum
c. before conviction by the Regional Trial Court c. subpoena ad testificandum
d. upon preliminary investigation d. d. warrant of arrest
147. Bail is a matter of right under the constitution, EXCEPT: 156.Unless shorter period is provided by special law or
a. crime punishable by reclusion perpetua to death Supreme Court Circular, the arraignment shall be held
b. crime punishable by life imprisonment within ___ days from the date the court acquires
c. crimes punishable by death jurisdiction over the person of the accused.
d. crime punishable by reclusion perpetua or life a. 30 days
imprisonment when evidence of guilt is strong b. 10 days
148.When bail is a discretionary? c. 15 days
a. Upon conviction by the RTC not punishable by d. 5 days
reclusion perpetua or life imprisonment. 157. If an accused person who refuses to plead, a plea of ___
b. Upon conviction by the RTC exceeding 6 years shall be entered.
but not more than 20 years who is a recidivist. a. Not guilty
c. Upon conviction by the RTC exceeding 6 years b. admission by silence
but not more than 20 years when there is undue c. guilty
risk that he may commit another crime during d. none
the pendency of the appeal. 158.When reception of evidence is necessary under the
d. Upon conviction by the RTC exceeding 6 years following circumstances:
but not more than 20 years who has previously a. Plea of guilty to lesser offense
escaped from legal confinement. b. plea of guilty to capital offense
149.Is an offense which, under the existing law at the time of c. Plea of guilty to non-capital offense
its commission and at the time of the application for d. all of these
admission to bail may be punished with death. 159.When the complaint is vague, the accused may file a
a. capital offense motion alleging among others the defect of the
b. less grave complaint or information and the details desired in order
c. heinous crime to enable him to properly answer and prepare for trial.
d. grave felony This motion is known as:
150.The following are kinds of bail, EXCEPT: a. motion for bill of particular
a. Property Bond b. motion for clarification
b. Cash Bond c. motion to dismiss
c. Corporate surety bond d. motion for postponement
d. Recognizance 160.Upon motion of the proper party, arraignment shall be
e. None of the choices suspended on the following grounds:
151.When the maximum penalty to which the accused may a. The accused appears to be suffering from
be sentenced is destierro, he shall be released after ____ unsound mental condition.
of preventive imprisonment. b. There exist a prejudicial question.
a. 30 days c. c. A petition for review of the resolution of the
b. 20 days prosecutor is pending either at the DOJ or office
c. 15 days of the President .
d. 60 days d. All of the choices
152.Bail shall automatically be cancelled upon: 161.A move for the annulment of the criminal charge made
a. acquittal of the accused by an accused is:
b. execution of the judgment of conviction a. Motion to quash
c. dismissal of the case b. nolleprosequi
d. all of the choices c. Motion to dismiss
153.It is the rule which states that if the inculpatory facts and d. bill of particulars
circumstances are capable of two or more interpretation, 162. It is the loss by the state of the right to prosecute and
one which is consistent with the innocence of the punish or the termination of the power to prosecute or
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 punish the offender after the lapse of certain definite 172.It is a type of a question that can be allowed in all stages
period from the commission of the offense. of examination of a child, if the same will further the
a. Prescription of crime interest of justice.
b. acquisitive a. leading questions
c. prescription of penalty b. relevant
d. extinctive c. misleading
163. It is one of the grounds for motion to quash. It is the d. Narrative
danger of being prosecuted for the same offense for the 173.Which of the following is a ground for discharge of an
second time. accused to be state witness:
a. double jeopardy a. there is absolute necessity for the testimony of
b. double trial the accused.
c. double trouble b. said accused does not appear to be the most
d. double counter guilty
164.Provisional dismissal of offense punishable by c. said accused has not been convicted of a crime
imprisonment not exceeding six years or a fine of any involving moral turpitude/
amount or both shall become permanent after ____. d. all of the choices
a. one year 174. After the prosecution rest its case, the accused person
b. 2 years may move for the dismissal of the case on:
c. 5 years a. on its own initiative after giving the prosecution
d. d. 4 years an opportunity to be heard.
165.Within how many days after arraignment and from the b. Demurrer to evidence
date the court acquires jurisdiction over the person of c. motion for reconsideration
the accused shall order a pre-trial conference? d. motion for new trial
a. 30 days 175. It is the judicial examination and determination of the
b. 15 days issue in an action or proceeding, civil or criminal.
c. 20 days a. pre-trial
d. d. 60 days b. trial
166.How many days are given to an accused person to c. plea bargaining
prepare for trial after a plea of not guilty is entered? d. Judgment
a. 15 days 176.Is the adjudication by the court that the accused is guilty
b. 20 days or not guilty of the offense charged and the imposition of
c. 30 days the proper penalty and civil liability.
d. 180 days a. judgment
167.The trial of a case shall commence with ___ days from b. rendition of judgment
receipt of the pre-trial order? c. promulgation of judgment
a. 30 days d. conviction
b. 15 days 177.It is the degree of proof which does not excluding the
c. 20 days possibility of error, produces absolute certain. Moral
d. 60 days certainty only is required.
168.The trial court have how many days from the first day of a. acquittal
trial to terminate the same? b. Proof beyond reasonable doubt
a. 60 days c. clear and convincing
b. 365 days d. preponderance of evidence
c. 180 days 178.It is the finding of not guilty based on merits or that the
d. 150 days evidence does not show that his guilt is proof beyond
169.The trial of a case can be made in absentia except on the reasonable doubt.
following circumstances: a. dismissal
a. at the arraignment and plea b. conviction
b. during the trial whenever necessary for c. acquittal
identification purposes d. judgment
c. at the promulgation of sentence, unless for a 179.Judgment becomes final when?
light offense a. the period for perfecting an appeal lapse.
d. all of the choices b. when the sentence is partially of totally satisfied
170.The order of trial is: or served.
a. Prosecution, accused, rebuttal and surrebattal c. when the accused waived in writing his right to
appeal.
b. Prosecution, cross, redirect, re-cross d. when he appealed for probation
c. Direct, cross, re-cross, re direct e. all of the choices
d. Direct, cross, rebuttal, and surrebattal 180. Which of the following cannot be filed after judgment of
171.Refers to items such as dolls, puppets, drawings, conviction becomes final.
mannequins or any other appropriate demonstrative a. Motion for new trial
device to assist him in testimony. b. Motion for reconsideration
a. Testimonial aids c. Motion to dismiss
b. Emotional security items d. All of these
c. support 181. Who represents the State in an action for appeal?
d. none of these a. prosecutor
b. Secretary of DOJ
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 c. appellant 192.Property subject of search and seizure, EXCEPT?
d. Solicitor General a. Subject of the offense
182.The party appealing the case shall be called? b. Stolen or embezzled and other proceeds or
a. appellant fruits of the offense
b. accused c. Used or intended to be used as the means of
c. Appellee committing an offense
d. Defendant d. Firearm
183.It refers to the geographical division or territorial limit 193. When search must be made?
where the power of the court is exercised and which is a. in the day time
jurisdictional in criminal case. b. only during sunrise
a. Venue c. any time of the day and night
b. Jurisprudence d. in the presence of two witnesses
c. jurisdiction 194.In a criminal case, the People of the Philippines is the
d. court ____?
184. It is the authority to hear or try a case for the first a. Plaintiff
instance. b. Private offended party
a. Original jurisdiction c. defendant
b. Exclusive jurisdiction d. Respondent
c. concurrent jurisdiction 195.A complaint or information have the same legal content,
d. appellate jurisdiction however, they differ as to who subscribe to it, who
185. It is the sole authority to hear cases to the exclusion of subscribe an information?
the others. a. Accused
a. Original jurisdiction b. Prosecutor
b. Exclusive jurisdiction c. Witness
c. appellate jurisdiction d. victim
d. concurrent jurisdiction 196. Pursuant to Section 2 of Rule 112 of the Rules of Court,
186.It is the system or criminal procedure which is the following officers are authorized to conduct
characterized by secrecy of investigation and the option preliminary investigation except?
of the defense and prosecution to appeal. a. Provincial and City Prosecutor
a. Inquisitorial b. Judge MTC/MCTC
b. mixed c. Regional State Prosecutor
c. accusatorial d. Public Attorney’s office
d. fixed e. b and d
187.It is that system of criminal procedure which is 197.An Special Law which defines certain rights of accused,
conducted either at the initiative of the public prosecutor detained or under custodial investigation as well as
or the offended party and the right to appeal are limited duties of the arresting detailing and investigation officer.
to the defense and the accused is innocent. a. R.A. 7438
a. inquisitorial b. R.A. 7348
b. mixed c. R.A. 7834
c. accusatorial d. d. R.A. 3478
d. fixed 198.Under the Rule 115 of the Rules of Court, an accused
188.In criminal cases, what determine the jurisdiction of cannot be compelled to be a witness against himself. This
court, EXCEPT: principle also known as:
a. Extent of penalty a. rights against illegal arrest
b. Person accused b. the right to presume innocent
c. territory c. rights against self- incrimination
d. subject matter d. right to live
189.Sworn statement, subscribed by offended party, any 199.Under the Rules on Summary Procedures, the following
peace officer of public officer in charge of enforcement of pleading are prohibited except:
the law violated filed either to the court or to the office a. motion to quash
of the prosecutor. b. bill of particular
a. Complaint c. answer
b. Pleadings Section d. demurred to evidence
c. Information 200.The following cases committed by public official with
salary grade 27 and above fall under the exclusive
d. Affidavit
jurisdiction of the Sandiganbayan, Except:
190.Prescription of offense commences to run: a. Crimes committed in violation of Act 3019, R.A.
a. Upon discovery of the crime by the offended 1379 and section 2, chapter 2, title VII, Book two
party or peace officers or their agent. of the RPC
b. Upon filing of cases in court. b. Civil and criminal cases filed pursuant to and in
c. Upon escape of the accused. connection with executive order nos. 1, 2, 14
d. Upon re-appearance of the accused and 14-A.
191. When an appeal shall be taken? c. Crimes committed by public official in relation to
a. within 10 days their office.
b. within 30 days d. None of the choices
c. within 15 days 201.It is the law which classifies rape from crime against
d. within 5 days chastity to crimes against person, making crime
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 prosecutable even without a complaint filed the offender 210.One of the requisites in order that one of the accused
party? may be discharged in order to be state witness is that
a. R.A. 8353 a. Said accused does not appear to be the most
b. R.A. 9283 guilty
c. R.A. 8493 b. Said accused does not appear to be least guilty
d. d. R.A. 7055 c. Said accused must not appear to be guilty
202.Civil liability arising from the offense charged is deemed d. Said accused must appear to be innocent as char
instituted upon the filing of criminal action in court as 211.P.D. 1508 is repealed by the Local government Code of
provided by Rule 111 of Rules of Court. In what 1991. Under the said code, the Lupon of each barangay
instances can a civil action for recovery of civil liability shall have authority to bring together the parties actually
can be separated? residing in the same city or municipality for amicable
a. When the offended party waives the civil action; settlement where the offense committed is punishable
b. When the offended party reserves his right to by imprisonment exceeding one (1) year. This statement
institute the civil action; is:
c. When the institution of the civil action is made a. absolutely true
prior to the criminal action. b. partly true
d. all of the choices c. absolutely false
203.What is the effect of death of the accused in civil actions? d. partly false
a. It extinguishes the civil liability arising from 212.In Metropolitan Trial Court, the complaint is filed with
delict. the:
b. Independent civil action instituted may be a. Office of the President
continued against the estate or legal b. Office of the Clerk of Court
representative of the accused. c. Office of the Prosecutor
c. If the accused dies before arraignment, the case d. Office of the Ombudsman
shall be dismissed without prejudice to any civil 213. In general, the formal requisites of a complaint or
action the offended party may file against the information are the following, EXCEPT:
estate of the deceased. a. It must be in writing
d. all of the choices b. It must be in the name of the People of the
204.Pursuant to Rule 114 of the Rules of Court, a detainee Philippines.
may be released on bail in the following manner, except: c. It must be filed with the Prosecutor’s Office
a. property bond d. It must be filed in court
b. performance bond 214.Z as husband dies before he could institute the criminal
c. corporate surety action for adultery against his wife and the paramour.
d. recognized The case may:
205.Demurer to evidence may be filed by a party to a case a. No longer be prosecuted
a. after arraignment b. Be prosecuted by the husband’s parents
b. after the defense has rested its case c. Still be prosecuted
c. after trial d. Be prosecuted by the State
d. after the prosecution had rested its case 215.The right of the State to initiate criminal actions in behalf
206.The accused may questioned the legality of his arrest ___ of incapacitated individual with no known parents,
otherwise the said accused could no longer questioned grandparents or guardian is known as:
the same and that the arrest is presumed by the court as a. Doctrine of parens patriae
valid. b. Doctrine of non-suability
a. before arraignment c. police power
b. before conviction d. habeas corpus
c. before preliminary investigation 216.The modes of making an arrest are:
d. before trial a. by an actual restraint of the person to be
207.The following are the matters to be taken up in pre-trial arrested
conference except: b. by the submission to the custody of the person
a. examination of witnesses making the arrest
b. marking of evidence c. by using unreasonable force
c. plea bargaining d. a and b only
d. stipulation & simplification of issues e. a and c only
208.The reservation of the right to institute separate civil 217.The following are crimes Against National Security and
action shall be made: Law of Nations, EXCEPT.
a. before arraignment a. Treason
b. before the pre-trial conference b. Piracy and mutiny
c. before the prosecution rest its case c. Espionage
d. before the prosecution presents evidence d. Rebellion
209.Amendment without leave of court before the accused 218. Breach of allegiance to a government, committed by a
pleads is allowed by the Rules of Court under the person who owes allegiance to it.
following instances EXCEPT: a. treason
a. amendment as to substance b. espionage
b. amendment as to form c. adherence to the enemy
c. amendment that reflect typographical error d. rebellion
d. amendments to downgrades the nature of the 219.The degree of proof required to convict a person accused
crime of treason.
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 a. substantial evidence 227. It is the unauthorized act of public officer who compels a
b. proof beyond reasonable doubt person to change his resident or otherwise expels him
c. two witness rule from the Philippines.
d. preponderance of evidence a. violation of domicile
220.The following are elements of Piracy, EXCEPT: b. arbitrary detention
a. A vessel is on the high seas or in Philippine c. trespass to dwelling
waters; d. expulsion
b. The offenders are not members of its 228.The following are act constituting Violation of Domicile.
complement or passengers of the vessel; a. Any public officer or employee who enters any
c. That the offender resist to a superior officer; dwelling against the will of the owner thereof.
d. The offenders either attack or seize that vessel b. Any public officer or employee who searches
or seize the whole or part of the cargo of said any papers or other effects found therein
vessel, its equipment or personal belonging of without the previous consent of the owner.
its complement or passengers. c. Any public officer or employee who refuses to
221.Which of the following does NOT qualify the crime of leave the premises, after having surreptitiously
Piracy: entered said dwelling and after having been
a. Whenever the pirates have seized the vessel on required to leave the premises.
the high seas or in Philippine waters d. Any public officer or employee who searches
b. Whenever the pirates have seized a vessel by domicile without witnesses.
boarding or firing upon the same. e. All of the choices
c. c.Whenever the pirates have abandoned their 229.SPO1 Masinop having authorized by a search warrant,
victims without means of saving themselves. search the house of Mr. Mando N. Ducot. After having
d. Whenever the crime is accompanied by murder, discovered the item specified in the warrant, SPO1
homicide, physical injuries, or rape. Masinop took the same and includes the jewelry box
222.Otherwise known as the “Anti-Piracy and Anti-highway filled with jewelry which is not included in the list of the
Robbery Law of 1974. item to be seized. SPO1 Masinop is:
a. Comm. Act No. 616 a. Liable for the crime of violation of domicile
b. P.D. 532 b. Not liable for the crime of violation of domicile
c. P.D. 533 c. May not be liable for violation of domicile
d. R.A. 6235 d. Liable for a crime but not on
223. PO1 Matiyaga, without legal grounds arrested and violation of domicile
detained Mr. Tamad and deprived said person of his 230.The following are crimes against the fundamental law of
liberty is liable for: the States. Which one can be committed by private
a. illegal detention person?
b. arbitrary detention a. Arbitrary detention
c. unlawful arrest b. Violation of Domicile
d. kidnapping c. Interruption of religious worship
224. The following are legal grounds for the detention of any d. Offending religious feelings
person, EXCEPT: e. Prohibition, interruption or dissolution of
a. commission of a crime peaceful meetings
b. escape from prison / penal institution 231.The law which provides Human Security
c. violent insanity or other ailment requiring the a. R.A. 9208
compulsory confinement b. R.A. 9745
d. a and c only c. R.A. 9372
e. a, b and c d. R.A. 7438
225.The following are acts constitute a crime of delaying 232.Angelo Vergara not only confessed his membership with
release, EXCEPT: the Sparrow unit but also his participation and that of his
a. Delays the performance of a judicial or Group in the killing of SPO2 Manalad while the latter was
executive order for the release of a prisoner. manning the traffic along C. M. Recto Ave. Manila. Under
b. Delays the service of the notice of such order to the facts given, what crime was committed by the former
said prisoner. and that of his Group?
c. Delays the proceedings upon any petition for a. murder
the liberation of such person. b. sedition
d. Delays the filing of a criminal offense against c. rebellion
the detainee to the proper judicial authority. d. homicide
e. All of these 233.This crime is committed by raising publicly and taking
226.Mr. Mabait was arrested for illegal possession of firearms arms against government to completely overthrow and
which is considered a low power gun. Considering that supersede said existing government.
the crime is punishable by correctional penalty, within a. treason
how many hours should that a case be filed to the proper b. rebellion
judicial authority? c. coup d’etat
a. 12 hours d. sedition
b. 18 hours 234.A swift attack accompanied by violence, intimidation,
c. 24 hours stealth, directed against duly constituted authorities,
d. 36 hours public utilities, military camps and installation with or
without civilian support for the purpose of diminishing
state power.
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 a. treason c. person in authority
b. rebellion d. Public employee
c. coup d’etat 242.It is committed by any person who shall resist or
d. sedition seriously disobey any person in authority, or the agents
235.It is a felony which in its general sense is raising of of such person, while engaged in the performance of
communications or disturbances in the state outside of official functions.
the legal method. a. Direct assault
a. treason b. Indirect Assault
b. rebellion c. Disobedience to summons issued by the
c. coup d’etat National Assembly
d. sedition d. Resistance & disobedience to a person in
236.A police officer, who arrested a member of congress authority or the agents of such person
while going to attend a senate session for a traffic 243.The following are crimes classified as public disorders,
violation is liable for: EXCEPT.
a. crime against popular representation a. Tumults and other disturbances of public order
b. acts tending to prevent the meeting of the b. Unlawful use of means of publication and lawful
National Assembly utterances
c. violation of parliamentary immunity c. Alarms and scandals
d. all of the foregoing d. Delivering prisoners form Jails
237.The Kilusan ng mga hindi Ungas at Paranoid (KHUP) was e. None of the choices
organized by Mr. Panot allegedly for protecting the poor 244.Mr. Pasaway while under the influence of liquor fired a
laborer, where in fact it was organized to form a group gun in the air to proclaim to the people that he is
that would rise against the rich businessmen of their city. celebrating his birthday. Such act constitutes ___?
For what crime can they be charged? a. illegal discharge of firearm
a. Illegal assembly b. alarm & scandals
b. Illegal association c. disturbances
c. coup d’etat d. outcry
d. rebellion 245.The following circumstances qualifies the crime of
238.Any association, organization, political party or group of evasion of service of sentence.
persons organized for the purpose of overthrowing the a. By means of unlawful entry By breaking doors,
Government of the Republic of the Philippines or for the windows, gates, walls, roofs or floors.
purpose of removing the allegiance to said government b. By using picklocks, false keys, disguise, deceit,
or its law, the territory of the Phils. or any part thereof, violence or intimidation.
with the open or covert assistance or support of a foreign c. Through connivance with other convicts or
power by force violence, deceit or other illegal means. Is employees of the penal institution.
a crime of: d. All of the choices
a. Rebellion 246.Mr. Bandido was convicted for a crime of robbery before
b. Illegal Association serving his sentence or while serving the same he
c. Subversive Association or Organization committed a crime of murder. What condition is said to
d. Illegal Assembly have occurred?
239.Mrs. Grace, a Mayor of Valenzuela together with a. recidivism
engineer Pandac and Councilor Panot were surveying the b. reiteration
land occupied by informal settlers for government c. quasi-recidivism
projects and for their relocation. The residents oppose d. habitual delinquency
with the plan. Mrs. Lourdes, one of the residents, 247.It is committed by giving to a treasury or bank note or
slapped the face of Mayor Ditas when the latter came any instrument payable to bearer or to order the
near. One of the close escorts of the Mayor defends her appearance of a true and genuine document. It is
but Mrs. Lourdes also slapped him and punched as well. likewise committed by falsification through erasing,
For what crime Mrs. Lourdes can be charged for in substituting, counterfeiting, or altering by any means, the
relation to Mayor Grace? figures, letters, words or signs contained therein (Art.
a. Sedition 169)
b. Slander by Deeds a. Falsification of public document
c. Direct Assault b. Forgery
d. Rebellion c. Falsification
240.The following qualifies Direct Assault, EXCEPT: d. d.Fasification by public officer, employee or
a. The assault is committed with a weapon notary or ecclesiastical minister
b. The offender is a public officer or employee 248.A person who counterfeits or imitate a traffic police
c. The offender lays hands upon a person in sticker and sell the same shall be liable for a crime of:
authority a. Estafa through falsification of a public document
d. The offender seriously intimidating or resisting
a person in authority b. Theft through falsification of a public document
241.Any person directly vested with jurisdiction, whether as
an individual or as a member of some court or c. Falsification of public document
government corporation, board or commission, shall be d. Forgeries
deemed ____? 249.This crime is committed by any person without any
a. Agent of a person in authority distinction, by falsely representing himself as an officer
b. Judicial authority
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 and performing under pretense of official position any or present received by such officer, personally or through
act pertaining to such person. the mediation of another.
a. usurpation of authority a. Direct bribery
b. estafa b. Qualified bribery
c. usurpation of official functions c. Indirect bribery
d. a & c d. Prevarication or negligence or tolerance in
250.Any other name a person which publicly applies to prosecution
himself without authority of the law. 258.Any public office who is entrusted with law enforcement
a. alias who refrain from arresting or prosecuting an offender
b. A.K.A. who has committed a crime punishable by reclusion
c. fictitious names perpetua and/or death in consideration of any offer,
d. true name promise, gift or present.
251.It is committed by a person, who being under oath are a. bribery
required to testify as to the truth of a certain matter at a b. direct bribery
hearing before a competent authority, shall deny the c. qualified bribery
truth or say something contrary to it. d. indirect bribery
a. forgery 259.It is a crime committed by any appointed public official
b. perjury who shall become interested in any transaction within his
c. falsification territory, subject to his jurisdiction during his
d. false testimony incumbency.
252.Consist of acts which are offensive to decency and good a. Prohibited transaction
customs, which having been committed publicly, have b. Possession of prohibited interest by a public
given rise to public scandal to persons who have witness officer
the same. c. Fraud against public treasury
a. immoral doctrines d. Prevarication
b. obscene publication and exhibition 260. This is committed by an accountable public officer who,
c. grave scandal shall appropriate, or shall misappropriate or shall
d. libel consent, or through abandonment or negligence shall
253.Refers to persons having no apparent means of permit another person to take public funds or property.
subsistence but has the physical ability to work and a. Direct bribery
neglects to apply himself or herself to lawful calling. b. Technical malversation
c. Malversation of public funds
a. bum d. Embezzelment
b. vagrant 261. The following are crimes classified under infidelity or
c. prostitute public officers:
d. destitute a. Infidelity in the custody of the prisoners
254.It is the improper performance of some acts which b. Infidelity in the custody of documents
should have been lawfully be done. c. Revelation of secrets
a. malfeasance d. all of these
b. misfeasance 262.This is committed by any public officer or employee who
c. nonfeasance shall overdo himself in the correction or handling of a
d. dereliction of duty prisoner or detention prisoner under his charge by the
255.It is crime committed by a judge who knowingly issued an imposition of punishment not authorize by the
unjust order which decides some point or matter but regulations or inflicting punishment in a cruel or
which however, is not a final decisions of the matter in humiliating manner.
issue: a. Police brutality
a. Knowingly rendering unjust judgment b. Sadism
b. Judgment rendered through negligence c. Maltreament of prisoners
c. Unjust interlocutory order d. Physical injures
d. Malicious delay in the administration of justice 263.This is committed by any public officer who shall solicit or
e. Betrayal of trust by an attorney or solicitor – make immoral advances to a woman under his custody
revelation of secrets or to other women like the wife, daughter, sister or
256.This one is committed by public officers or employees relative within the same degree by affinity of any person
who, in dereliction of the duties of his office, shall in the custody of a warden or officer.
maliciously refrain from instituting prosecution for the a. Sexual harassment
punishment of violators of law, or shall tolerate the b. Abuses against chastity
commission of offenses. c. Acts of Lasciviousness
a. Direct bribery d. Abuse of authority
b. Indirect bribery 264.Takes place whenever a person is killed during a
c. Qualified bribery confusion attendant to quarrel among the several
d. Prevaricacion or negligence or tolerance in persons not continuing a group and the perpetrators
prosecution of offenses cannot be ascertained.
257.What crime is committed by any public officer or a. homicide
employee who shall agree to perform an act constituting b. murder
a crime, in connection with the performance of his c. death caused by tumultuous affray
official duties, in consideration of any offer, promise, gift d. riots

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265.Husband punched and kicked his pregnant wife causing b. light threat
the death of their unborn child is guilty of: c. graver coercion
a. parricide d. light coercion
b. abortion 275.It is a felony wherein a person compels another by
c. intentional abortion means of force, violence or intimidation to do something
d. unintentional abortion against his will, whether right or wrong.
266.A formal and regular combat previously concerted
between two parties in the presence of two or more a. grave threat
seconds of lawful age on each side, who make the b. light threat
selection of arms and fix all other conditions. c. grave coercion
a. riot d. light coercion
b. duel 276.It includes human conduct, which although not
c. tumultuous affray productive of some physical or material harm would
d. mutilation annoy any innocent person
267.It is the lopping or clipping off some part of the body, e.g. a. light threat
a woman cutting the penis of a male lover to deprive of b. light coercion
the latter of its true. c. unjust vexation
a. physical injury d. grave coercion
b. duel 277. It is the taking of personal belonging to another, with
c. tumultuous affray intent to gain by means of violence against, or
d. mutilation intimidations upon things of any person, or using force
268.What crime is committed by person who assaulted upon anything.
another, causing the latter to be absent from work for a. robbery
two weeks? b. theft
a. mutilation c. brigandage
b. serious physical injury d. estafa
c. less serious physical injury 278.A stole thing from a locker by means of the key of the
d. slight physical injury owner, what crime was committed?
269.Committed by a man having a carnal knowledge with a a. a theft
child less than 12 years old. b. robbery
a. rape c. possession of pick locks
b. acts of lasciviousness d. possession of false key
c. seduction 279.A crime committed by more than three armed
d. abduction malefactors who form a band for the purpose of
270.A private individual who detains another for the purpose committing robbery in the highway or kidnapping
of depriving the latter of his liberty for more than three persons for the purpose of extortion or to obtain ransom,
days is guilty of: or for any other purpose to be attained by means of
a. illegal detention force & violence.
b. arbitrary detention a. Robbery
c. serious illegal detention b. kidnapping
d. slight illegal detention c. brigandage
271.A person who got into a dispute with another, assaulted d. d. theft
the latter for the purpose of delivering his victims to the 280. Committed by any person who with intent to gain but
jailer is guilty of what crime? without violence or intimidation of persons nor force
a. illegal detention upon things shall take personal property of another
b. illegal arrest without latter’s consent.
c. unlawful arrest a. robbery
d. physical injuries b. kidnapping
272. Refers to a crime committed by any person who c. brigandage
threatens another with the infliction upon the person, d. theft
honor or property of the latter or of his family of any 281. A housemaid who was caught in the act of carting away
wrong amounting to a crime. the furniture of her employer would be charged of what
a. grave threat crime?
b. light threat a. theft
c. grave coercion b. robbery
d. light coercion c. qualified theft
273.When a threat to commit a wrong not consulting a crime d. estafa
is made by another, what crime is committed? 282.Altering the place of a mojon in the lot to insure that the
a. grave threat property would be large when surveyed is a crime of:
b. light threat a. estafa
c. graver coercion b. chattel mortgage
d. light coercion c. usurpation
274.Any person who by means of violence shall seize d. altering boundaries or landmarks
anything belonging to his debtor for the purpose of 283. It is the willful damaging of another’s property for the
applying the same to the payment of a debt, is sake of causing damage due to hate, revenge or other
committing. evil motive.
a. grave threat a. swindling
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 b. destruction of property 293. It refers to the geographical division or territorial limit
c. malicious mischief where the power of the court is exercised and which is
d. chattel mortgage jurisdictional in criminal case.
284. What crime was committed by a married woman having a. Venue
carnal knowledge with a man not her husband? b. Jurisprudence
a. adultery c. jurisdiction
b. concubinage d. court
c. acts of lasciviousness 294.It is the authority to hear or try a case for the first
d. seduction instance.
285.A married man who allows his paramour to live in their a. Original jurisdiction
conjugal dwelling is liable of what crime? b. Exclusive jurisdiction
a. adultery c. concurrent
b. concubinage d. appellate jurisdiction
c. acts of lasciviousness 295.It is the sole authority to hear cases to the exclusion of
d. seduction the others.
286. Lewd acts committed upon person of either sex not a. Original jurisdiction
amounting to rape by using force or intimidation. b. Exclusive jurisdiction
a. adultery c. appellate jurisdiction
b. concubinage d. concurrent jurisdiction
c. acts of lasciviousness 296. Is that branch of municipal or public law which defines
d. seduction crimes, treats of their nature and provides for their
287.A person who ripped the dress of a woman and placed punishment?
his penis over the woman’s genital organ is liable for a. civil law
what crime? b. procedural law
a. rape c. criminal law
b. seduction d. substantive law
c. forcible seduction 297.The following are sources of criminal law, EXCEPT:
d. acts of lasciviousness a. Act 3815
288.Pedro was able to have carnal knowledge with his b. City and municipal ordinance
girlfriend by promising the latter with marriage, what c. Special penal laws
crime was committed? d. constitution
a. seduction 298. The Revised Penal Code serves as the primary source of
b. acts of lasciviousness criminal laws in the Philippines. It took effect on?
c. abduction a. January 1, 1923
d. none of the foregoing b. January 1, 1932
289. Alfred directed his employee Luz to deliver several c. December 8, 1930
pieces of jewelries to his Mother whom he had d. January 1, 1933
misunderstanding. The latter however, pawned the said 299.The following are characteristics of classical theory of
jewelries and misappropriated the same. What would be criminal law, EXCEPT:
the proper offense committed by Luz? a. the basis of criminal liability is human free will
a. swindling and the purpose of the penalty is retribution.
b. theft b. Man is essentially a moral creature with an
c. robbery absolutely free will to choose between good and
d. malicious mischief evil, thereby placing more stress upon the effect
290. Which of the following crimes does not operates as an or result of the felonious act than the man.
absolutory cause which could serves as an exemption c. there is scant regard to the human element.
against members of the family from criminal ability in d. That man is subdued occasionally by strange
crimes against properties. and morbid phenomenon which constrains
a. Robbery him to do wrong, in spite of or contrary to his
b. theft violation.
c. malicious mischief 300. Acts or omissions punishable by law are crimes. What
d. estafa are acts committed or omitted in violations of special
291.It is defined as a method fixed for the apprehension and laws?
prosecution of person alleged to have committed a a. felony
crime. b. offense
a. Criminal procedure c. misdemeanor
b. Criminal jurisprudence d. in fractional law
c. rules of court 301.Basically, there are three fundamental characteristics of
d. rules of procedure criminal law. What characteristics of criminal law states
292.It refers to the authority or power to hear and decided that criminal law is binding on all persons who live or
cases. sojourn in the Philippines?
a. Jurisdiction a. Generality
b. b. Jurisprudence b. Territoriality
c. Venue c. Prospective
d. territory d. Retroactive
302.The following are the exemption to the rule of
Generality, EXCEPT:
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 a. Those who are subject of treaty stipulation a. Deceit
b. Those who are immune under the law of b. Fault
preferential application c. Culpa
c. Those who are exempted under Public d. Intent
International law 312. Things which are wrongful in their nature.
d. President, Prime Minister and Ambassador a. evil
303. Mr. A committed loitering within the vicinity of Isetan b. mala in ce
Recto on January 12, 2009. June 12, 2009, a city c. mala in se
ordinance was passed punishing loitering within the d. mala prohibita
vicinity of Isetan Recto. Can A be held liable for his act of 313. The moving power which impels one to action for a
loitering? definite result.
a. Yes, for there is a law passed punishing it a. intent
b. Yes, under the principle of retroactive effect of b. motive
criminal law c. deceit
c. No, for the act was done prior to the effectivity d. fault
of the law 314.The following are crime committed by mistakes which
d. No, for a did not loiter again does not operate as an Exemption/justification, EXCEPT:
304.Under what characteristics of criminal law the above a. Aberratio Ictus
circumstance falls? b. Error in Personae
a. Generality c. PreaterIntentionem
b. Territoriality d. Mistake in fact
c. Prospective 315. That cause, which, in the natural and continuous
d. Retroactive sequence, unbroken by any efficient intervening cause,
305. What legal maxims support the above scenario? produces the injury without which the result would not
a. Pro reo Principle have occurred.
b. Nullum crimen nulla poena sine lege a. Proximate cause
c. Actus non facitreum, nisi mens sit rea b. Intervening cause
d. Actus me invitusfactus non c. Immediate cause
306.Which of the following legal maxim means “the act d. Probable cause
cannot be criminal unless the mind is criminal”. 316. Death is presumed to be the natural consequence of
a. Pro reo physical injuries inflicted in the following; EXCEPT
b. Nullumcrimennullapoena sine lege a. The victim at the time the physical injuries were
c. Actus non facit reum, nisi mens sit rea inflicted was in normal heath.
d. Actus me invito factus non est meus actus b. The death may be expected from the physical
307.A legislative act that inflicts punishment without trial, its injuries inflicted.
essence being the substitution of a legislative flat for a c. Death ensued within a reasonable time.
judicial determination of guilt. d. The resulting injury is due to the intentional act
a. Ex post facto law of the victim.
b. Bill of attainder 317.The following are elements of impossible crime, EXCEPT:
c. Retroactive law a. That the act performed would be an offense
d. Prospective against persons or property.
308.The following persons are exempt from criminal liability b. That the act was done with evil intent
under the principle of public international law, EXCEPT: c. That its accomplishment is inherently
a. Heads of states impossible, or that the means employed is
b. ambassador either inadequate or ineffectual.
c. ministers of plenipotentiary d. That the act does not constitute a crime of
d. charges d affaires negligence or imprudence.
e. None of the choices 318.X tried to kill Y by putting in his food a substance which
309.Crimes committed within the territorial water of another he thought was arsenic (poison) when in fact it was just a
country can either be triable in that country or in the sugar. Y was not killed as a consequence. What X did he
country where the vessel is registered. What rule commit?
provides that a crime committed on board vessel shall be a. Mistake in the blow
NOT tried in the court of the country having territorial b. No crime committed
jurisdiction, unless their commission affects the peace c. preaterintentionem
and security of the territory or the safety of the state is d. impossible crime
endangered. 319. Whenever a court has knowledge of any act which it
a. French rule may deem proper to repress and which is not punishable
b. American Rule by law, it shall:
c. Spanish Rule a. Render the proper decision, and shall report to
d. English Rule the Chief Executive, through the Department of
310.Any bodily movement tending to produce some effect in Justice
the external world. b. Dismiss the case and shall report to the Chief
a. act Executive, through the Department of Justice.
b. Omission c. Render the proper decision, and shall report to
c. Dolo the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.
d. Culpa d. Dismiss the case and shall report to the Chief
311. Felonies are committed either by Dolo or ____. Justice of the Supreme Court.
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320.This takes place when the offender commences that c. Under the facts no crime was committed as
commission of a felony by overt acts, and does not mere conspiracy to commit a crime is not
perform all the acts of execution which should produce punishable
the felony by reason of some cause or accident other d. Attempted robbery
than his own spontaneous desistance. e. Frustrated robbery
a. Consummated 328.Grave felonies are those to which the law attaches the
b. Frustrated capital punishment or penalties which in any of their
c. Attempted periods are:
d. Impossible crime a. light
321.A with intent to kill, fired a gun towards B, hitting B at his b. correctional
shoulder. B was able to run away and survived the injury, c. afflictive
what crime is committed by A? d. reflective
a. Physical Injury 329. In case of crimes which are latter subject of special penal
b. Frustrated Homicide laws, what rule of interpretation shall be applied?
c. Attempted Homicide a. The RPC shall be observed
d. Less serious physical injury b. The RPC shall prevails over special laws.
c. The RPC will be supplementary to special law
322. The following are the elements of frustrated felonious, d. The Special Law shall be supplementary to the
EXCEPT: RPC
a. The offender performs all the acts of execution 330. It is the quality by which an act may be ascribed to a
b. All the acts performed would produce the felony person as its author or owner. It implies that the act
as a consequence but the felony is not committed has been freely and consciously done and
produced. may therefore be put down to the doer as his very own.
c. By reason of causes independent of the will of a. Guilt
the perpetrator. b. Liability
d. Due to some cause or accident other than his c. Responsibility
own spontaneous desistance. d. Imputability
323.Mrs. Lucila with intent to kill puts poison on the coffee of 331.Acts of a person which are said to be in accordance with
her husband Mr. William Herschel, when Mr. was at the the law, so that such person is deemed not to have
stage of convulsion, Mrs. Lucila had a change of heart transgressed the law and is free from both criminal and
and administer an antidote causing Mr. William to civil liability.
survive but left in comatose. What was committed by a. justifying circumstances
Mrs. Lucila? b. mitigating circumstances
a. Frustrated parricide c. exempting circumstances
b. b.attempted parricide d. aggravating circumstance
c. serious physical injury 332.The following are the requisites for self-defense, EXCEPT
d. less serious physical injury a. Unlawful aggression.
324. Is that portion of the acts constituting the crime, starting b. Reasonable necessity of the means employed to
from the point where the offender begins the prevent or repel it.
commission of the crime to that point where he has still c. Lack of sufficient provocation on the part of the
control over his acts including their (acts) natural course. person defending himself.
a. Subjective Phase d. Lack of intent on the part of the person
b. Objective Phase defending himself.
c. Internal Act 333.Those grounds which makes the person not imputable
d. Act of Execution for the offense since there is a wanting in the agent of
325. Which of the following is NOT a Factor in determining the crime of the conditions which make the act voluntary
stage of execution of felony? or negligent.
a. Nature of the offense a. Justifying
b. Elements constituting the felony; b. Mitigating
c. Manner of committing the felony c. Exempting
d. Intent in committing the crime d. Aggravating
326.A, B and C and five unarmed men conspired to rob the 334.Charles Darwin, 15 year old child, took the cellphone of
Banco de Oro. While having their meeting at their safe- Ms. IsabelaBernales, Charles is ___.
house, a group of PNP personnel arrested them. What a. Liable for the crime of theft
crime was committed by A,B, and C? b. Liable for the crime of robbery
a. Illegal Assembly c. Not liable for the crime of theft
b. Conspiracy to commit robbery d. Not liable for the crime of robbery
c. Attempted Robbery 335.The following circumstances exempt a person from
d. No crime criminal liability though there is civil liability considering
327.A,B and C conspired to rob the Philippine National Bank that there is crime committed, EXCEPT:
in their secret safe house. While they are planning how a. Minority
to commit the crime, operatives of the NBI barged in and b. Accident
arrested the group. c. Imbecility/Insanity
a. What crime was committed by A,B and C? d. Acting under compulsion of an irresistible force
b. No crime was committed e. Acting under the impulse of an uncontrollable
fear of an equal or greater injury.

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336.The following are exempted from criminal liability, d. Amnesty
EXCEPT: 344.The law which prohibits the imposition of the death
a. Children 15 years of age below penalty?
b. Children over 15 but under 18 who acted a. RA 6981
without discernment b. P.D. 968
c. Insane persons or an imbecile persons c. R.A. 9346
d. Children over 15 but under 18 who acted with d. R.A. 4103
discernment. 345.How do you call an offender who within a period of ten
337.Who among the following incurs full responsibility upon (10) years from the date of his release or last conviction
commission of a crime? of the crimes of Serious Physical Injuries, robbery (robo),
a. Those 15 years of age and below Theft (hurto), Estafa or falsification is found guilty of any
b. Those who are 18 years of age and above of the said crimes a third time or offener?
c. Those who are over 15 but under 18 years of a. Recidivist
age b. Quasi recidivist
d. Those who are 18 years of age c. Reiteration
d. habitual delinquent
338.Are those where the act committed is a crime but for 346.The following circumstances are always mitigated in
reasons of public policy and sentiment, there is no terms of alternative circumstances, except:
penalty imposed. a. Low degree education
a. Justifying circumstances b. Intoxication wherein the drunk person has not
b. Mitigating circumstances intended it or not a habitual drunkard.
c. Absolutory cause c. Relationship in crimes against property
d. Exempting circumstances d. Relationship in crimes against persons
339.X was charged before the court. During the pendency of 347. Refers to persons who take direct part in the execution
his trial he died. What would be the effect of his death on of a crime.
the case involved and on his criminal liability? a. principals
a. The criminal case will be dismissed ad his b. accessories
criminal liability is extinguished. c. accomplice
b. The criminal case will proceed and his criminal d. instigators
liability is not extinguished. 348.A person who directly induce others to commit a crime is
c. The criminal case will be archived to wait for his regarded as:
resurrection. a. principal by direct participation
d. Actually there will be no effect at all because his b. principal by indispensable cooperation
relatives will be the one to face trial and c. principal by induction
punished in case of his conviction. d. instigators
340.Which of the following operates as an absolutory cause. 349.The desire or wish in common thing
a. Spontaneous desistance a. intent
b. Accessories who are exempt from criminal b. motive
liability by reason of relationship c. conspire
c. Legal spouse or parent who inflicts slight d. cooperate
physical injuries under exceptional 350. A person lends Juan the bolo which was used in the
circumstances murder of another person is liable as:
d. Person exempt from criminal liability for theft a. principal
swindling and malicious mischief by relationship b. accessory
to the offended party c. accomplice
e. All of the choices d. conspirator
341. An aggravating circumstances which generally apply to 351.Personal liability to be suffered by the convict who has
all crimes such as dwelling, nighttime or recidivism. no property to meet the fine.
a. generic a. subsidiary penalty
b. specific b. suspension
c. qualifying c. penalty
d. Inherent d. d.civil interdiction
342.C raped the wife in the presence of the husband, forcing 352.In cases where in the commission of an offense is
her using the dog-style position in the sexual act. Rape is necessary in the commission of another it is said the
committed aggravated by what circumstances? crime is:
a. ignominy a. formal crime
b. passion b. informal crime
c. cruelty c. compound crime
d. Craft d. complex crime
343.Is an act of sovereign power granting a general pardon 353. An entire penalty, enumerated in the graduated scale of
for past offense and is rarely exercised in favor of a single penalties.
individual and is usually granted to certain classes of a. degree
persons usually political offenders, who are subject to b. period
trial but not yet convicted. c. prescription
a. Pardon d. duration
b. Commutation
c. Parole
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354.A sentence of imprisonment for the maximum period b. Arresto mayor (medium period) as minimum to
defined by law subject to the termination by the parole Prision correctional (any period) as maximum
board at any time after service of the sentence. period of the indeterminate penalty
a. Suspension c. Prision correctional medium to Prison mayor as
b. indeterminate sentence maximum period
c. prescription d. None of the above
d. period of penalty 363.Age of absolute irresponsibility in the commission of a
355.The crime of libel and other similar offenses shall crime.
prescribe in how many years? a.15-18 years old
a. 15 years b.18-70 years old
b. 1year c.9 years old and below
c. 10 years d.between 9 and 15 years old
d. 5 years 364. Those who, not being principals cooperate in the
356. Those crime punishable by death, reclusion perpetua execution of the offense by previous or simultaneous acts.
and reclusion temporal shall prescribe in: a.Accomplices
a. 20 years b.Suspects
b. 15 years c.principal actors
c. 10 years d.accessories
d. 5 years 365.The loss or forfeiture of the right of the government to
357.Those punishable by correctional penalties shall execute the final sentence after the lapse of a certain
prescribe in how many years? time fixed by law.
a. 20 years a.prescription of crime
b. 15 years b.prescription of prosecution
c. 10 years c.prescription of judgment
d. 5 years d.prescription of penalty
358.Light offenses prescribe in: 366.A kind of executive clemency whereby the execution of
a. 12 months penalty is suspended.
b. 6 months a.Pardon
c. 4 months b.commutation
d. 2 months c.amnesty
359.A and B had a quarrel. A boxed B. A told B, “I kill you this d.reprieve
week”. A bought a firearms. On Friday, he waited for B 367.Infractions of mere rules of convenience designed to
and shot him but killed C instead. In so far as B is secure a more orderly regulation of the affairs of the
concerned, the crime committed by A is: society.
a. Attempted murder a.mala prohibita
b. frustrated murder b.mala in se
c. illegal discharge of firearm c.private crimes
d. all of these d.public crimes
360.In so far as C is concerned the crime committed is: 368.Whenever more than 3 armed malefactors shall have
a. frustrated homicide acted together in the commission of a crime.
b. murder a.gang
c. consummated homicide b.conspiracy
d. none of the above c.band
361.X (as principal) committed the crime of Homicide d.piracy
(consummated) which is punishable by Reclusion 369.The failure to perform a positive duty which one is bound
Perpetua. to.
He pleaded guilty to the charge at the arraignment. a.Negligence
Determine his penalty. b.imprudence
a. Prision mayor (at any period) as minimum to c.omission
Reclusion temporal (minimum period) as the d.act
maximum period of the indeterminate penalty. 370.Ways and means are employed for the purpose of
b. Prision mayor (minimum) as minimum to trapping and capturing the law breaker in the execution
Reclusion temporal (any period) as the of his criminal plan.
maximum period of the indeterminate penalty a.Misfeasance
c. Reclusion temporal as the minimum period to b.entrapment
reclusion perpetua as maximum c.inducement
d. Prision mayor d.instigation
362.X (as principal) committed grave coercion 371.The following are exempted from criminal liability,
(consummated) punishable by prision correctional. There EXCEPT:
was one aggravating circumstances in the commission of a. Children 15 years of age below
the crime let us say “with the aid of armed men”. Fix his b. Insane persons or Imbecile persons
penalty. c. Children over 15 but under 18 who acted with
a. Arresto mayor (any period) as minimum to
discernment
Prision correctional (maximum period) as
d. Children over 15 but under 18 who acted
maximum period of the indeterminate penalty.
without discernment
372.Those grounds which makes the person not imputable

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 for the offense since there is a wanting in the agent of c. A person who acts under compulsion of an
the crime of the conditions which make the act voluntary irresistible force
or negligent. d. Avoidance of greater evil or injury
a. Justifying 381.The following felonies cannot be prosecuted de officio
b. Exempting without a complaint first filed by the offended party,
c. Mitigating EXCEPT:
a. Seduction
d. Aggravating
b. Rape
373.When a public officer convinces a person to commit a c. Abduction
felony and would arrest him or her after its commission d. Acts of Lasciviousness
he is committing. 382.What crime is committed if the unlawful taking of
a. instigation personal property belonging to another is committed
b. entrapment with grave abuse of confidence?
c. conspiracy a. Robbery
d. proposal b. Qualified Theft
374.It operates to reduce the penalty by one to two DEGREES c. Theft
depending upon what the law provides and cannot be d. Burglary
offset by any aggravating circumstances. 383.What crime is committed if a person commits a crime of
a. Mitigating Circumstances murder with the use of unlicensed firearm?
b. Exempting circumstances a. Murder
c. Ordinary Mitigating Circumstances b. Illegal Possession of firearm
d. Privilege Mitigating circumstances c. Qualified Illegal possession of firearm
375.Crimes are classified in various categories. What d. Murder with illegal possession of f/a.
classifications of crime is when a single act results to or 384.If physical violence or moral pressure is exerted upon a
more serious or less serious offenses. person in a manner that is determined and constant until
a. Continuing Crime the lawful purpose is realize, the crime committed is:
b. Complex crime or delito complejo a. Threat
c. Special complex crime b. Grave threat
d. Compound crime or delito compuesto c. Coercions
376.Mr. J. Dellinger with intent to kill Mr. R. Pitts bought a d. Light threat
rifle from Mr. C. Goddard. Knowing Mr. Dellinger’s plan, 385.When the wrong threatened to be inflicted upon the
Mr. Goddard sold the gun. Since Mr. Pitts is in an Island offended party does not amount to a crime the
for vacation and the only way to reach the island is to designation of the offense is called
ride a boat, Mr. Dellinger rented the boat of Mr. F. a. Threats
Galton, the owner of the only boat that can be rented to b. Grave threats
reach the island. Also knowing Mr. Dellinger’s plan, Mr. F. c. Light Threats
Galton allowed the boat to be rented for a much higher d. Coercion
price. Mr. Dellinger successfully reached the island and 386. A public officer who without legal ground shall prohibit
killed Mr. R. Pitts. Before leaving the island Mr. Pitts or interrupt the holding of a peaceful meeting or
requested the service of Mr. W. Herschel and Mr. H. dissolved the same is liable for:
Faulds to bury Mr’s Pitts Body in exchange for thousand a. Prohibition of a peaceful meeting
of pesos. What was the crime committed by Mr. b. dissolution of peaceful meeting
Dellinger? c. Interruption of peaceful meeting
a. Homicide d. all of the choices.
b. Murder 387.If a private person removes a person confined in jail or
c. Parricide penal institution or helps in the escape of such person by
d. Manslaughter means of violence, intimidation, bribery or any other
377.What is the participation of Mr. F. Galton? means, the crime committed is:
a. Principal by direct participation a. Evasion of service of sentence
b. Principal by induction b. Infidelity in the custody of prisoner
c. Principal by indispensable cooperation c. Delivery of prison from jail
d. Accomplice d. corruption of public official
378.What about Mr. C. Goddard? 388.Light offenses prescribe in:
a. Principal a. 12 months
b. Accomplice b. 4 months
c. Accessory c. 6 months
d. Principal by indispensable cooperation d. 2 months
379.What about Mr. W. Herschel and Mr. H. Faulds? 389.X raped the wife in the presence of the husband, forcing
a. Principal her, using the dog-style position in the sexual act. Rape is
b. Accomplice committed aggravated by what circumstances?
c. Accessory a. ignominy
d. Principal by indispensable cooperation
b. passion
380.The following are Justifying Circumstances, EXCEPT?
a. Obedience to a lawful order c. cruelty
b. Lawful Exercise of Rights or office or d. obstruction
performance of duty 390.Refers to the gathering, transmitting or losing

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 information relative to national defense with intent to be d. supporting documents
used to the injury of the Republic of the Philippines. 399.The following officers are authorized to conduct
a. treason preliminary investigation on cases falling within their
b. conspiracy to commit treason jurisdiction, EXCEPT:
c. espionage a. Provincial prosecutor
b. City prosecutor
d. misprision to treason
c. Special prosecutor of the Ombudsman
391.To avoid being charged with delay in the delivery of d. Judges of Municipal trial court
persons to proper judicial authorities, a person caught in 400.An offense which under the law existing at the time of its
the act of committing a felony punishable by penalties commission and of the application for admission to bail
which are correctional in nature must be delivered to may be punish with death is called:
said authorities within how many hours? a. Capital punishment
a. 12 b. Heinous crime
b. 36 c. Capital Offense
c. 18 d. Grave offense
d. 48 401.The court may dismiss the case on the ground of
392.Amendments with leave of court after the accused insufficiency of evidence:
pleads are allowed under the following circumstance. a. On the motion of the accused filed with prior
a. Amendments as to substance leave of court
b. Amendments as to form b. By its own initiative after giving the prosecution
c. Amendments that change the nature of the an opportunity to be heard
offense c. On motion of the accused thru counsel
d. None of these d. A and B only
393.The rule is that the civil action for the recovery of civil 402.Manuel notices his cell phone in the possession of Ruben
liability arising from the offense charged is deemed which was snatched from him three days ago. He
instituted with the criminal action. This rule does not confronted the latter and force to get back said cell
apply in the following instances, EXCEPT. phone against his will. For what crime or crimes may
a. When the offended party waives the civil action Manuel be liable for, if he will go to force to get back the
b. When the offended party reserves the right to same?
institute separate civil action a. Coercion
c. When the offended party institute the criminal b. Robbery
action c. Threats
d. When the offended party institute the civil d. Theft
action prior to the criminal action. 403.The following statement are false, EXCEPT:
394.The reservation of the right to institute separate civil a. The accused may enter his plea by counsel
action shall be made: b. The accused must personally enter his plea
a. Before the arraignment c. The accused must excused/waived arraignment
b. During the pre-trial conference d. The accused may be arraigned in a court other
c. Before the prosecution rest than where the case is assigned.
d. Before the prosecution present evidence 404.Bail is a matter of right even in the case of capital offense
395.The rule prohibits the filing of the following pleadings in and the evidence of guilt is strong.
the criminal case, EXCEPT: a. Absolutely true
a. Motion for postponement b. Absolutely false
b. Counter affidavit c. Partly true
c. Counterclaim d. Partly false
d. Third party complaint 405.Arrest is the actual restrain of a person to be placed
396.The petition for suspension of the criminal action based under the custody of the law. It should be made at:
upon the pendency of prejudicial question in a civil action a. Anytime of the day
may be filed with the following, EXCEPT one: b. anytime of the day and night
a. The court where the civil action is pending c. Anytime of the morning
b. The court where the criminal action is pending d. d. anytime of the night
c. Office of the prosecutor 406.It is a mock serenade of discordant noises made with
d. None of these kettles, his horns, etc, designated to deride or annoy:
a. Charivari
397.Under the rules, a preliminary investigation is required b. Grave scandal
before the filing of a complaint or information where the c. Alarm and Scandal
penalty for the offense is: d. Harana
a. At least 6 years and 1 day 407.The application for search warrant may be filed with the
b. At least 4 years, 2 months and 1 day following, EXCEPT:
c. 4 years, 2 months and 1 day a. Any court within whose territorial jurisdiction a
d. Exceeding 6 years and one day crime was committed.
398.The following may be submitted by the respondent in a b. Any court within the judicial region where the
preliminary investigation, EXEPT: crime was committed
a. Counter-affidavit c. Any Regional Trial Court in the Philippines
b. Motion to dismiss d. Any Court Within judicial region where the
c. Witness counter affidavit warrant shall be enforced

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408.An appeal made to the RTC from decisions of the first trier of facts because of its logical connection with the
level court shall be by: issue. Evidence which has an effective influence or
a. Notice of appeal bearing to the question?
b. by Petition for review a. material
c. Petition for review on certiorari b. relevant
d. Petition for certiorari c. competent
d. credible
409.After the prosecution rest its case, the case can be
417.The provisional dismissal of offenses punishable by
dismiss due to insufficiency of evidence by:
imprisonment of more than 6 years shall become
a. The courts own initiative
permanent ________ after issuance of the order without
b. By the accused through his counsel by Demurrer
the case having been revived.
to evidence
a. One year
c. By the prosecution on its own initiative
b. six months
d. a and b only
c. Two years
410.Mr. Tsu a Chinese Businessman paid the Warden for the
d. three years
escape of his brother Chan. The Warden ordered his jail
418.Within how many days after arraignment and from the
guard to leave the door unlocked so as to facilitate the
date the court acquires jurisdiction over the person of
escape of Mr. Chan. The guard leaves the door unlocked
the accused shall order a pre-trial conference?
and tells Mr. Chan to escape at mid-night. What crime
a. 30 days
was committed by the Warden?
a. Evasion of service of sentence b. 20 days
b. Direct Bribery c. 15 days
c. Delivery of prison from jail d. 60 days
d. corruption of public official 419.How many days is given to an accused person to prepare
411.What Crime can be charged against the guard who for trial after a plea of not guilty is entered?
connives with the prisoner? a. 15 days
a. Conniving with or consenting to evasion b. 30 days
b. Infidelity in the custody of prisoners
c. 20 days
c. Delivering prisoner from jail
d. A and B d. 180 days
412.A public officer or a warden who solicits or makes 420.The law expanding the jurisdiction of the Metropolitan
immoral or indecent advances to a woman who is under Trial Court is called?
his custody or wife or daughter of the person under his a. R.A. 7691
custody shall be liable for: b. R.A. 3019
a. Acts of lasciviousness c. R.A. 8493
b. Abuses against Chastity d. B.P. 129
c. Indirect Bribery 421.Sworn statement, subscribed by Offended party, any
d. infidelity in the custody of prisoners peace officer of public officer in charged of enforcement
413.Relevancy is one of the requisites for admissibility of of the law violated filed either to the court or to the
evidence which means that evidence must have such office of the prosecutor.
relation to the fact in issue as to induce belief in its a. Complaint
existence or non-existence. The other requisite is b. Information
____________? c. Pleadings
a. That is should not be excluded for by law. d. Affidavit
b. That it is material to the facts in issue 422.Prescription of offense commence to run:
a. Upon discovery of the crime by the offended
c. That it is credible
party or peace officers or their agent.
d. That it is the best evidence b. Upon filing of cases in court
414.Evidence must be relevant in order to be admissible c. Upon escape of the accused
hence, collateral matters are not allowed. Except: d. Upon re-appearance of the accuse
a. When it tends in any reasonable degree to 423.The following are cases covered by rules on summary
establish the probability or improbability of the procedure EXCEPT:
fact in issue. a. Where the penalty is six months imprisonment.
b. When it is competent b. Violation of traffic laws
c. Violation of rental laws
c. When it is credible
d. Where the penalty foes not exceed six (6)
d. When it has the ability to prove the facts in issue
months imprisonment
based on other related evidence. 424.Refers to the counsel provided by the government to
415.Any evidence which is obtained in violation of any rights assist destitute litigant?
of a person will not be admissible in court. This is a. Counsel de officio
anchored on what requisites of admissibility? b. counsel de parte
a. materiality
c. Public Attorney’s Office
b. competency
d. National Prosecution Office
c. relevancy
425.It is a process directed to a person requiring him to
d. credibility attend and to testify or to bring with him any books or
416.It is that quality of evidence which tends to influence the documents under his control at the trial of an action.

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 a. subpoena 434.What are secondary evidence?
b. subpoena duces tecum a. Certified true COPY of a document
c. subpoena ad testificandum b. A recital of its contents in some authentic
document
d. warrant of arrest
c. Testimony of witnesses
426.The order of trial is: d. All of the choices
a. Prosecution, accused, rebuttal and surrebattal 435.When the terms of an agreement have been reduced to
b. Prosecution. cross, redirect, re cross writing, it is considered as containing all the terms
c. Direct, cross, re-cross, re-direct agreed upon and there can be, as between the parties
d. Direct, cross, rebuttal and surrebattal. and their successors in interest, no evidence of such
427.Refers to items such as dolls, puppets, drawings, terms other than the contents of the agreement.
mannequins or any other appropriate demonstrative a. Parol evidence Rule
device to assist him in testimony. b. b. parol evidence
a. Testimonial aids c. Best Evidence Rule
b. Emotional security items d. Secondary Evidence
c. support item 436. As a rule all persons who can perceived, and perceiving,
d. none of these can make known of their perception to others can be
428.It is a type of a question that can be allowed in all stages witness and the following shall not be a ground for
of examination of a child, if the same will further the disqualification.
interest of justice. a. Religious and political belief
a. leading questions b. Interest in the outcome of the case
b. misleading c. conviction of a crime unless otherwise provided
c. relevant by law
d. narrative d. All of the choices
429.Court shall take judicial notice, without the introduction 437. An Act Providing for A Witness Protection, Security and
of evidence of the following, EXCEPT: Benefit program and for other purposes.
a. Matters of Public Knowledge a. R.A. 6981
b. The measure of time b. R.A. 6646
c. Law of nations c. P.D.749
d. Law of nature d. R.A. 6770
430.Court may take judicial notice of the following in exercise 438. No person may be compelled to testify against his
of its discretion, EXCEPT. parents, other direct ascendants, children or other direct
a. The geographical divisions descendants. This is embodied under what principle?
b. Matter which are of public knowledge; a. Parental and filial privilege.
c. Matters capable of unquestionable b. declaration against pedigree
demonstration; or c. declaration against common reputation
d. Matter ought to be known to judges because of d. res inter alois acta rule
their judicial functions. 439.An offer of compromise is considered not an admission
431.Matters of judicial notice have three material requisites. of any liability and is not admissible in evidence against
These requisites are: the offeror on the following case, EXCEPT.
a. The matter must be one of common and general a. In civil cases
knowledge. b. Those arising from criminal negligence
b. It must be well and authoritatively settled and c. An offer to pay or the payment of medical,
not doubtful or uncertain hospital or other expenses occasioned by an
c. It must be known to be within the limits of the injury.
jurisdiction of the court. d. In criminal cases
d. All of the choices 440.A plea of guilty later withdrawn, or an unaccepted offer
432.Self incriminatory statement falling short of an of a plea of guilty to a lesser offense is_____?
acknowledgement of guilt made by a party in the course a. not admissible in evidence against the accused
of the proceeding in the same case which does not who made the plea of offer.
require proof. b. admissible in evidence against the accused who
a. Admission made the plea of offer
b. self serving statement c. shall not be considered an plea
c. declaration against interest d. will be considered a plea of not guilty
d. confession 441.The rights of a party cannot be prejudiced by an act,
433.When the subject of inquiry is the contents of a declaration, or omission of another, except as provided
document no evidence shall be admissible other than the by the rules of court.
original documents itself. This refers to the _____. a. Res inter alios acta rule
a. Best Evidence Rule b. admission by co-partner
b. Secondary Evidence Rule c. admission by co-conspirator
c. Parol Evidence Rule d. admission by silence of a person for not doing or
d. Best Evidence saying anything when an act or declaration is

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 said against him in his presence. a. French rule
442.The following are the requirements in determining child’s b. American Rule
competency as a witness EXCEPT: c. Spanish Rule
a. capacity of Observation d. English Rule
b. capacity of Recollection 449. Shall deprive the offender rights of parental authority or
guardianship.
c. capacity of Communication
a. subsidiary penalty
d. capacity to Comprehend b. penalty
443.Where several extrajudicial confessions had been made c. suspension
by several person charged with the same offense and d. civil interdiction
without the possibility of collision among them, the fact 450.It is a case of concubinage when a woman has a sexual
that the statements are in all respects identical is relationship to a married man. This statement is?
confirmatory of the confessions of the co-defendants and a. True
are admissible against the other persons implicated b. false
therein. c. It depends
a. interlocking confessions d. Partly false
b. res inter alios acta rule 451.The following are considered afflictive penalties, except:
c. admission by privies a. death by lethal injection
d. confession by co-defendant b. reclusion perpetua
444.An act or declaration made in the presence and within c. reclusion temporal
the hearing or observation of a party who does or says d. prison mayor
nothing when the act or declaration is such as to call for 452.It is a case of adultery when a man has a sexual
action or comment if not true, and when proper and relationship to a married woman.
possible for him to do so, may be given in evidence This statement is?
against him. a. True
a. admission by silence b. false
c. It depends
b. confession
e. Partly false
c. admission by co-conspirator
d. admission by privies 453. A form of evidence supplied by written instruments or
445.Which of the following is the Hearsay evidence rule? derived from conventional symbols, such as letters, by
a. That a witness can testify only to those facts which ideas are represented on material substances.
which he knows of his personal knowledge; a.documentary evidence
that ism which are derived from his own b.testimonial evidence
perception. c.material evidence
b. hearsay evidence is not acceptable as evidence d.real evidence
454.When the witness states that he did not see or know the
in court
occurrence of a fact.
c. Hearsay evidence is evidence given in the a.positive evidence
authority of another person. b.corroborative evidence
d. hearsay evidence is evidence with respect to c.secondary evidence
facts of which the witness has no personal d.negative evidence
knowledge because it is derived from the 455.The law hears before it condemns, proceeds upon inquiry
knowledge or perception of others who are not and render judgment after a fair trial.
a.ex post facto law
called to testify.
b.equal protection of the law
446.The declaration of a dying person, made under the c.rule of law
consciousness of an impending death, may be received in d.due process of law
any case wherein his death is the subject of inquiry, as 456. It means that the resulting injury is greater than that
evidence of the cause and surrounding circumstances of which is intended.
such death. a. Aberratio ictus
a. Dying declaration b. Error in personae
b. res gestae c. Dura Lex Sed lex
c. declaration against interest d. Praeter Intentionem
d. declaration about pedigree 457.If an accused person who refuses to plead, a plea of ___
447.Is the duty of the party to present evidence on the facts shall be entered.
in issue necessary to establish his claim or defense by the a. Not guilty
amount of evidence required by law. b. admission by silence
a. burden of evidence c. guilty
d. none
b. burden of proof
458. When reception of evidence is necessary under the
c. proof of evidence
following circumstances:
d. cause of action a. Plea of guilty to lesser offense
448.A Foreign vessel registered in the country of Australia b. plea of guilty to capital offense
anchored at Manila Bay wherein an Australian national c. Plea of guilty to non-capital offense
was caught in possession of Cocaine. What rule provides d. all of these
that a crime committed while on board of the vessel.
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459.When the complaint is vague, the accused may file a 468.A Special Law which defines certain rights of accused,
motion alleging among others the defect of the detained or under custodial investigation as well as
complaint or information and the details desired in order duties of the arresting detailing and investigation officer.
to enable him to properly answer and prepare for trial. a.
This motion is known as: b. R.A. 7348
a. motion for bill of particular c. R.A. 7834
b. motion for clarification d. R.A. 3478
c. motion to dismiss 469.Under the Rule 115 of the Rules of Court, an accused
d. motion for postponement cannot be compelled to be a witness against himself. This
460.Upon motion of the proper party, arraignment shall be principle also known as:
suspended on the following grounds: a. b and d
a. The accused appears to be suffering from R.A. 7438
unsound mental condition.
b. There exist a prejudicial question. b. rights against self- incrimination
c. c. A petition for review of the resolution of the c. rights against illegal arrest
prosecutor is pending either at the DOJ or office d. the right to presume innocent
of the President . e. right to live
d. All of the choices 470.Under the Rules on Summary Procedures, the following
461.A move for the annulment of the criminal charge made pleading are prohibited except:
by an accused is: a. motion to quash
a. Motion to quash b. bill of particular
b. Nolle pro sequi c. answer
c. Motion to dismiss d. demurred to evidence
d. bill of particulars 471.The following cases committed by public official with
462. It is the loss by the state of the right to prosecute and salary grade 27 and above fall under the exclusive
punish or the termination of the power to prosecute or jurisdiction of the Sandiganbayan, Except:
punish the offender after the lapse of certain definite a. Crimes committed in violation of Act 3019, R.A.
period from the commission of the offense. 1379 and section 2, chapter 2, title VII, Book two
a. Prescription of crime of the RPC
b. acquisitive b. Civil and criminal cases filed pursuant to and in
c. prescription of penalty connection with executive order nos. 1, 2, 14
d. extinctive and 14-A.
463. It is one of the grounds for motion to quash. It is the c. Crimes committed by public official in relation to
danger of being prosecuted for the same offense for the their office.
second time. d. None of the choices
a. double jeopardy 472.Civil liability arising from the offense charged is deemed
b. double trial instituted upon the filing of criminal action in court as
c. double trouble provided by Rule 111 of Rules of Court. In what
d. double counter instances can a civil action for recovery of civil liability
464.Provisional dismissal of offense punishable by can be separated?
imprisonment not exceeding six years or a fine of any a. When the offended party waives the civil action;
amount or both shall become permanent after ____. b. When the offended party reserves his right to
a. one year institute the civil action;
b. 2 years c. When the institution of the civil action is made
c. 5 years prior to the criminal action.
d. 4 years d. all of the choices
465.Within how many days after arraignment and from the 473.Alden Richard, a Mayor of Valenzuela together with
date the court acquires jurisdiction over the person of engineer Maine Mendoza and Councilor Sipag were
the accused shall order a pre-trial conference? surveying the land occupied by informal settlers for
a. 30 days government projects and for their relocation. The
b. 15 days residents oppose with the plan. Mrs. Lourdes, one of the
c. 20 days residents, slapped the face of Mayor Alden when the
d. 60 days latter came near. One of the close escorts of the Mayor
466. How many days are given to an accused person to defends her but Mrs. Lourdes also slapped him and
prepare for trial after a plea of not guilty is entered? punched as well. For what crime Mrs. Lourdes can be
a. 15 days charged for in relation to Mayor Alden?
b. 20 days a. Sedition
c. 30 days b. Slander by Deeds
d. 180 days c. Direct Assault
467. Pursuant to Section 2 of Rule 112 of the Rules of Court, d. Rebellion
the following officers are authorized to conduct 474. The following qualifies Direct Assault, EXCEPT:
preliminary investigation except? a. The assault is committed with a weapon
a. Provincial and City Prosecutor b. The offender is a public officer or employee
b. Judge MTC/MCTC c. The offender lays hands upon a person in
c. Regional State Prosecutor authority
d. Public Attorney’s office d. The offender seriously intimidating or resisting
a person in authority

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 e. It should be noted that the assault should be c. 20 days
mad without public uprising. d. 180 days
475.Any person directly vested with jurisdiction, whether as 483.Crimes of adultery and concubinage shall not be
an individual or as a member of some court or
prosecuted except upon a complaint filed by whom?
government corporation, board or commission, shall be
a.Parents
deemed ____?
a. Agent of a person in authority b.Offended Spouse
b. Judicial authority c.Guardians
c. person in authority d.God father
d. Public employee 484.Those where the act committed is a crime but for
476.It is committed by any person who shall resist or reasons of public policy and sentiment there is no
seriously disobey any person in authority, or the agents penalty imposed.
of such person, while engaged in the performance of
official functions. a.impossible crimes
a. Direct assault b.aggravating circumstances
b. Indirect Assault c.absolutory causes
d.complex crimes
485.An act which would be an offense against persons or
c. Disobedience to summons issued by the property if it was not for the inherent impossibility of its
National Assembly accomplishment.
d. Resistance & disobedience to a person in a.compound crime
authority or the agents of such person b.impossible crime
477.The following are crimes classified as public disorders, c.complex crime
EXCEPT. d.accidental crime
a. Tumults and other disturbances of public order 486.The law which re-imposed the death penalty.
b. Unlawful use of means of publication and lawful a.RA 5425
utterances b.RA 8553
c. Alarms and scandals c.RA 7659
d. Delivering prisoners form Jails d.RA 9346
e. None of the choices 487.The quality by which an act may be subscribed to a
478.Mr. Lambat while under the influence of liquor fired a person as its owner or author
gun in the air to proclaim to the people that he is a.responsibility
celebrating his birthday. Such act constitutes ___? b.duty
a. illegal discharge of firearm c.guilt
b. alarm & scandals d.imputability
c. disturbances 488.Something that happen outside the sway of our will, and
d. outcry although it comes about through some acts of our will,
479. Mrs. Gloria., a sister of Mr. Sicia D (a sentenced lies beyond the bound s of humanly foreseeable
prisoner), gave 20K to the Jail Warden to facilitate or consequences.
allow the escape of her brother is guilty of what crime? a.fortuitous event
a. Evasion of service of sentence b.fate
b. delivering prisoners from jail c.accident
c. Bribery d.destiny
d. Corruption of public official 489.Known in other countries as the body of principles,
practices, usages and rules of action which are not
480.The following circumstances qualifies the crime of recognized in our country.
evasion of service of sentence. a.penal laws
a. By means of unlawful entry b.special laws
b. By breaking doors, windows, gates, walls, roofs c.common laws
or floors. d.statutory laws
c. By using picklocks, false keys, disguise, deceit, 490.Circumstances wherein there is an absence in the agent
violence or intimidation. of the crime any of all the conditions that would make an
d. Through connivance with other convicts or act. Voluntary and hence, though there is no criminal
employees of the penal institution. liability there is civil liability
e. All of the choices a.Exempting
481.Within how many days after arraignment and from the b.alternative
date the court acquires jurisdiction over the person of c.justifying
the accused shall order a pre-trial conference? d.aggravating
a. 30 days 491.Circumstances wherein the acts of the person are in
b. 20 days accordance with the law, and hence, he incurs no
c. 15 days criminal and civil liability.
d. 60 days a.exempting
482.How many days is given to an accused person to prepare b.alternative
for trial after a plea of not guilty is entered? c.justifying
a. 15 days d.aggravating
b. 30 days

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492.When the offender enjoys and delights in making his c. Proof
victim suffers slowly and gradually, causing him d. Burden of proof
unnecessary physical pain in the consummation of the 502.It is the ultimate facts or the facts in issue or to be
criminal act.
proved. It is the essential facts constituting the plaintiff’s
a.Ignominy
cause of action?
b.cruelty
c.treachery a. Factum probandum
d.masochism b. Evidence
493.One, who at the time of his trial for one crime shall have c. factum probans
been previously convicted by final judgment of another d. proof
crime embraced in the same title of the Revised Penal 503. The rules of evidence shall be _____, except as
Code.
otherwise provided by law or these rules.
a.Recidivism
b.habitual delinquency a. the same in all courts and in all trials and
c.reiteracion hearings
d.quasi-recidivism b. not the same in all courts and in all trials and
494.Alevosia means hearings
a. Craft c. dependent on the type of case involved
b. treachery d. absolutely the same in all courts and in all trials
c. evident premeditation
and hearings
d. cruelty
495.The law hears before it condemns, proceeds upon inquiry 504.Relevancy is one of the requisites for admissibility of
and render judgment after a fair trial. evidence which means that evidence must have such
a. ex post facto law relation to the fact in issue as to induce belief in its
b. equal protection of the law existence or non-existence. The other requisite is ____?
c. rule of law a. That it should not be excluded for by law
d. due process of law b. That it is material to the facts in issue
c. That it is credible
496.A person if within a period of 10 years from the date of
his release or last conviction of the crime of serious or d. That it is the best evidence
less serious physical injuries, robbery, theft, estafa or 505.Evidence must be relevant in order to be admissible
falsification, he is found guilty of any of the said crimes a hence, collateral matters are not allowed. Except:
third time or oftener. a. When it tends in any reasonable degree to
a. Recidivist establish the probability or improbability of the
b. quasi-recidivist
fact in issue.
c. habitual delinquent
b. When it is competent
d. hardened criminal
497.It means that the resulting injury is greater than that c. When it is credible
which is intended. d. When it has the ability to prove the facts in issue
a. Aberratio ictus based on other related evidence
b. Error in personae 506.Any evidence which is obtained in violation of any rights
c. Dura Lex Sed lex of a person will not be admissible in court. This is
d. Praeter Intentionem
anchored on what requisites of admissibility?
498.It means mistake in the blow.
a. Aberratio Ictus a. a. materiality
b. Error in Personae b. relevancy
c. Dura lex sed lex c. competency
d. Praeter Intentionem d. credibility
499.A stage of execution when all the elements necessary for 507.Evidence which the witness states that he did not see or
its execution and accomplishment are present. know of the factual occurrences what kind of evidence?
a. Attempted
a. negative
b. Frustrated
c. Consummated b. affirmative
d. Accomplished c. positive
500. An act or omission which is the result of a d. Alibi
misapprehension of facts that is voluntary but not 508.An additional evidence of different kind tending to prove
intentional. the same facts in issue. Evidence which are
a. Absolutory Cause supplementary to that already given and tending to
b. Mistake of facts
strengthen or confirm it.
c. Conspiracy
d. Felony a. Corroborative
501. It is the means, sanctioned by these rules of ascertaining b. Associative
in a judicial proceeding the truth respecting a matter of c. Commulative
fact? d. Credible
a. Evidence 509.Is the one required to prove a criminal case. It refers to
b. Facts the logical and inevitable result of the evidence on

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 record, exclusive of any other consideration, of the moral 517.What are the exemptions to the best evidence rule:
certainty of the guilt of the accused or that degree of a. When the original has been lost or destroyed
proof which produces conviction in an unprejudiced orunder cannot be produced in court, without
mind. bad faith on the part of the offeror;
a. Proof beyond reasonable doubt b. When the original is in the custody or under the
b. Clear and Convincing Evidence control of the party against whom the evidence
c. Preponderance of evidence is offered, and the latter fails to produce it after
d. Substantial evidence reasonable notice;
510. It is that proof which, if unexplained or uncontradicted, c. When the original consist of numerous accounts
is sufficient to sustain the proposition it supports or to or other documents which cannot be examined
establish the facts or to counterbalance the in court without great loss of time and the fact
presumptions of innocence to warrant a conviction. sought to be established from them is only the
a. Prima-facie evidence general result of the whole; and
b. Preponderance of evidence d. When the original is a public record in the
c. Rebuttal evidence custody of the public officer or is recorded in a
d. Sur-rebuttal evidence public office.
511.Court shall take judicial notice, without the introduction e. All of the choices
of evidence of the following, EXCEPT: 518.When the original document has been lost or destroyed,
a. Matters of Public Knowledge or cannot be reproduced in court, the offeror, upon
b. Law of nation proof of its execution or existence and the cause of its
c. The measure of time unavailability without bad faith on his part, may prove its
d. Law of nature contents by a copy, or by a recital of its contents in some
512. Court may take judicial notice of the following exercise authentic document or by the testimony of witnesses in
of its discretion, EXCEPT: the order stated.
a. The geographical divisions a. Secondary Evidence Rule
b. Matter which are of public knowledge b. Best Evidence Rule
c. Matters capable of unquestionable c. Secondary Evidence
demonstration; or d. Parole Evidence Rule
d. Matter ought to be known to judges because of 519.When secondary evidence is allowed?
their judicial functions. a. When the original has been lost, destroyed or
513.When can proper court, on its own initiative or on cannot be produced in court, without bad faith
request of a party, may take judicial notice of any matter on the part of the offeror;
and allow the parties to be heard thereon if such matter b. When the original is under the custody or under
is decisive of a material issue in the case? the control of the party against whom the
a. after the trial evidence is offered, and the latter fails to
b. before judgment produce it after reasonable notice;
c. on appeal c. When the original consist of numerous accounts
d. all of the choices or other documents which cannot be examined
514. Self-incriminatory statement falling short of an in court without great loss of time and the fact
acknowledgment of guilt made by a party in the course sought to be established from them is only the
of the proceeding in the same case which does not general result of the whole; and
require proof. d. When the original is a public record in the
a. Admission custody of a public officer or is recorded in a
b. declaration against interest public office
c. self-serving statement e. All of the choices
515.Evidence that is directly addressed to the senses of the 520.What are secondary evidence?
court. a. A Certified True COPY of a document
a. Real or Object b. A recital of its contents in some authentic
b. Testimonial document
c. Documentary c. Testimony of witnesses
d. Direct d. All of the choices
516.When the subject of inquiry is the contents of a 521.When the terms of an agreement have been reduced to
document no evidence shall be admissible other than the writing, it is considered as containing all the terms
original documents itself. This refers to the ___. agreed upon and there can be, as between the parties
a. Best Evidence Rule and their successors in interest, no evidence of such
b. Secondary Evidence Rule terms other than the contents of the agreement.
c. Parole Evidence Rule a. Parol Evidence Rule
d. Best Evidence b. Best Evidence Rule

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 c. Parol Evidence c. An offer to pay or the payment of medical,
d. Secondary Evidence hospital or other expenses occasioned by an
522.It refers to an evidence of oral or written statement of a injury
party presented as evidence to modify, explain or add to d. In criminal cases
the terms of the written agreement. 528.It is evidence of the same kind and to the same state of
a. Parol Evidence facts.
b. Secondary Evidence a. secondary evidence
b. prima facie evidence
c. Best Evidence
c.corroborative evidence
d. Parole Evidence Rule d. Cumulative evidence
523.On which of the following circumstances parol evidence 529.It is that which, standing alone, unexplained or
can be accepted? uncontradicted is sufficient to maintain the proposition
a. When there is an intrinsic ambiguity, mistake or affirmed.
imperfection in the written agreement; a.secondary evidence
b. The fulfillment of the written agreement to b.prima facie evidence
c.corroborative evidence
express the true intent and agreement of the
d.best evidence
parties thereto; 530.A form of evidence supplied by written instruments or
c. The validity of the written agreement; derived from conventional symbols, such as letters, by
d. The existence of other terms agreed to by the which ideas are represented on material substances.
parties or their successors in interest after the a.documentary evidence
execution of the written agreement. b.testimonial evidence
524.The following are qualifications for discharged of a c.material evidence
d.real evidence
person to be state witness.
531.When the witness states that he did not see or know the
a. There is absolute necessity for the testimony of occurrence of a fact.
the accused whose discharge is requested; a. positive evidence
b. There is no other direct evidence available for b. corroborative evidence
the proper prosecution for the offense c. secondary evidence
committed except the testimony of said d. negative evidence
accused; 532.The law hears before it condemns, proceeds upon inquiry
and render judgment after a fair trial.
c. The testimony of said accused can be
a.ex post facto law
substantially corroborated in its material points; b.equal protection of the law
d. Said accused appear to be the most guilty; c.rule of law
e. Said accused has not at any time been convicted d.due process of law
of an offense involving moral turpitude; 533. The Revised Penal Code serves as the primary source of
525.R.A. 1405 is the law which prohibits the disclosure or criminal laws in the Philippines. It approved on?
a. January 1, 1923
examination of bank deposits. As a general rule bank
b. January 1, 1932
deposits are absolutely confidential in nature and may
c. December 8, 1930
not examined or inquired or looked into by any person or d. January 1, 1933
government officials, EXCEPT: 534.It means that the resulting injury is greater than that
a. upon written permission of the depositor which is intended.
b. in cases of impeachment a. Aberratio ictus
c. upon order of competent court in cases of b. Error in personae
c. Dura Lex Sed lex
briber, dereliction of duty of public officials
d. Praeter Intentionem
d. in case where the money deposited or invested 535.Is that branch or division of law which defines crimes,
is the subject matter of litigation treats of their nature and provides for their punishment?
e. in cases of well explained wealth a. Act 3815
526.No person may be compelled to testify against his b. Criminal Law
parents, other direct ascendants, children or other direct c. Revised Penal Code
descendants. This is embodied under what principle? d. Criminal Procedure
536.Criminal law is binding on all persons who live or sojourn
a. Parental and filial privilege
in Philippine territory regardless of sex, race or religious
b. declaration against pedigree affiliation. EXCEPT matters covered by:
c. declaration against common reputation a. Treaty Stipulation
d. declaration against Parental relationship b. Public International Law
527.An offer of compromise is considered not an admission c. Law of Preferential Application
of any liability and is not admissible in evidence against d. All of the choices
the offeror on the following case, EXCEPT: 537.By Principles of Public International law, the following
enjoin immunity from the application of the Philippine
a. In civil cases
Criminal law, EXCEPT:
b. Those arising from criminal negligence a. Consul
b. Heads of State

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 c. Ambassador d.Ignorantia Facti
d. d. Minister de affaires 547.The offender performs all the acts of execution that
538.Acts or omission punishable by public law commanding would produce the felony as a consequence but the
or forbidding it: felony is not produced by reason of causes independent
a. Crimes of the will of the perpetrator.
b. Felonies a. Attempted
c. Offense b. Consummated
d. Infractions of law c. Frustrated
539.Is the theory in criminal law in which the basis of criminal d. Formal Crimes
liability is human free will, the purpose of punishment is 548.Refers to crimes consummated in one instant or by a
retribution and is generally exemplified in the Revised single act.
Penal Code. a.formal crimes
a. Eclectic b.formal felonies
b. Classical Theory c.informal crimes
c. Positivist Theory
d.material crimes
d. Neo-Classical Theory
549.It exists when two or more persons come to an
540.The Rule applies on registered vessel on foreign
agreement to commit a felony and decide to commit it.
territorial jurisdiction which generally follows the
a. Proposal
Nationality Principle and not the Domiciliary Principle
b. Conspiracy
except when the crime committed on board vessels
c. A & B
affects the national security of the Country where such
d. Cuadrilla
vessel is located.
550.A deduction of one-fifth of the period of his sentence
a. French Rule
shall be granted to any prisoner who, having evaded the
b. English Rule
service of his sentence during calamity, gives himself up
c. Spanish Rule
to the authorities within 48 hours following the issuance
d. Greek Rule
of a proclamation announcing the passing away of the
541.A legislative act that inflicts punishment without trial, its
calamity.
essence being the substitution of legislative fiat for a
a. Good Conduct Time Allowance
judicial determination of guilt.
b. Special Time Allowance for Loyalty
a. Ex post facto law
c. Executive Clemency
b. Retroactivity
d. Indeterminate Sentence
c. Bill of attainder 551.The loss or forfeiture of the right of the government to
d. Prospective execute the final sentence after the lapse of certain time.
542.Which of the following is NOT an element of the Crime of a. Prescription of Crime
Dolo or Deceit? b. Prescription of Penalty
a. Intent c. Forfeiture of the Proceeds of Crime
b. Freedom d. Confiscation of tools or equipment used in the
c. Intelligence commission of crime
d. Negligence 552.The forfeiture or loss of the right of the State to
543.These are crimes which are NOT considered bad in itself prosecute the offender after the lapse of certain time.
but the doer is found to have transgress the law for act a. Prescription of Crime
which it prohibits. b. Prescription of Penalty
a. Crime c. Forfeiture of the Proceeds of Crime
b. Felonies d. Confiscation of tools or equipment used in the
c. Mala in se commission of crime
d. Mala Prohibita 553.It is a disposition under which a defendant, after
544.Is that act performed which would be an offense against conviction and sentence, is released subject to conditions
persons or property where it not for the inherent or legal imposed by the court and to the supervision of a
impossibility of its accomplishment. probation officer.
a. Mala in se a. Parole
b. mala prohibita b. Pardon
c. Impossible crime c. Probation
d. Formal crimes d. Amnesty
545.It is the moving power or which impels a person to act 554.Known as the “Indeterminate Sentence Law” or the
and not an essential element of a crime but would tend Parole Law.
to establish the identity of the perpetrator. a. Act No. 4103 as amended
a. Intent b. RA No. 4103 as amended
b. Motive c. RA No. 4225 as amended
c. Negligence d. PD No. 968 as amended
d. ignorance 555.What is the penalty of impossible crime? (Art. 59)
546.The following are causes which would produce criminal a. Arresto Menor
liability though the result be different from what is b. Arresto Mayor
intended, EXCEPT: c. Prision Correctional
a.Abberatio ictus d. Prision Mayor
b.Error in Personae 556.It provides that the maximum duration of convict’s
c.Preater intentionem sentence shall not be more than 3 times the length of the

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 most severe of the penalties imposed upon him but in no d. Public Rataliation
case to exceed 40 years. 566.The punishment imposed by lawful authority upon a
a. Three-fold rule person who commits a deliberate or negligent act which
b. Three-fold liability rule is against the law.
c. Four-fold rule a. Penalty
d. Four-fold liability rule b. Ordeal
557.In case the offender cannot pay the fine, he shall serve c. Fine
the same in prison and shall be credited ___ for each day d. Imprisonment
of subsidiary imprisonment. 567.Article 20 provides for the exemption as accessories from
a. Php 8.00 criminal liability, EXCEPT:
b. Php 12.00 a. Natural brother/ sister
c. Php 35. 00 b. Legitimate brother/ sister
d. Highest minimum wage existing in the country c. Adopted brother/ sister
558.It is the expenses of litigation allowed by the Rules of d. Brother-in-Law/ Sister-in-Law
Court to be assessed against or to be recovered by a e. Brother in a fraternity
party in litigation. 568.One who: (a) concurs with the criminal design of the
a. Costs principals by direct participation; (b) cooperates in the
b. Fine execution of the offense by previous or simultaneous
c. Damages acts, with the intention of supplying material or moral aid
d. Civil liability in the execution of the crime in an efficacious way.
559.Who may grant pardon? a. Principal by indispensable cooperation
a. The President b. Principal by inducement
b. The private offended party c. Accomplice
c. The accused d. Accessory
d. The People of the Philippines 569.Principal who materially execute the crime. He appears
560.If the detention prisoner does not agree to abide by the at the crime scene and performs acts necessary in the
same disciplinary rules imposed upon convicted commission of the crime.
prisoners, the credited preventive imprisonment is a. Principal by inducement/ induction
a. Fulltime credit b. Principal by indispensable cooperation
b. 4/5 credit c. Principal by direct participation
c. 2/3 credit d. Principal by conspiracy
d. 1/5 credit 570.Who are criminally liable?
561.Period of detention undergone by an accused where the a. Principals
crime with which he is charged is non‐bailable or, even if b. Accomplices
bailable, he is unable to post the requisite bail. (Art. 39) c. Accessories
a. Solitary confinement d. All of the choices
b. Preventive imprisonment 571.Those which must be taken into consideration as
c. Inmate incarceration aggravating or mitigating according to the nature and
d. Suppressive Detention effects of the crime and the other conditions attending
562.A penalty that deprive the offender of his (1) rights of its commission.
parental authority, or guardianship;(2) Marital authority; a. Extenuating
(3) The right to manage his property; and (4) The right to b. Mitigating
dispose of such property by any act or any conveyance c. Alternative
inter vivos. d. Aggravating
a. Absolute disqualification 572.It pertains to the moral order, which adds disgrace to the
b. Temporary disqualification material injury caused by the crime. It adds insult to
c. Bond to keep the peace injury or adds shame to the natural effects of the crime.
d. Civil interdiction It shocks the moral conscience of man.
563.It is a punishment whereby a convict is banished to a a. Cruelty
certain place and is prohibited from entering or coming b. Ignominy
near that place designated in the sentence, not less than c. Outraging
25 kilometers but not to extend beyond 250 kilometers. d. Scoffing
a. Transportation 573.Husband A treating his wife B and his child as a sex
b. Deportation object, also forcing to watch obscene indecent shows .Is
c. Destierro A committed crime of Violence Against Women and Their
d. Extradition Children?
564.Penalties according to their gravity are as follows, except: a. Maybe NO
a. Capital b. Yes
b. Afflictive c. No
c. Correctional d. Maybe YES
d. Slight 574.The offense of gathering, transmitting, or losing
e. Light information respecting the national defense with intent,
565.Which of the following is NOT a purpose for the or there is reason to believe that information is to be
imposition of penalty: used to the injury of the Republic of the Philippines or to
a. Retribution or expiation the advantage of any foreign nation.
b. Correction or reformation a. Treason
c. Social defense b. Rebellion
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 c. Espionage b. Delay in the delivery of detained persons to the
d. Mutiny proper authorities
575.Other acts constituting the crime of espionage are c. Delaying release
punishable under d. Illegal Detention
a. BP No. 616 584.A crime committed by a public officer who unduly delays
b. PD No. 616 the release of a person in his custody in spite of a
c. CA No. 616 judicial/ executive order to release him.
d. RA No. 616 a. Arbitrary detention
576.Committed when two countries are at war of which the b. Delay in the delivery of detained persons to the
Philippines is not involved and the offender violates the proper authorities
regulation issued by the government enforcing c. Delaying release
neutrality. d. Illegal Detention
a. Inciting to war/ giving motive for reprisal 585.A public officer who without authority compels a person
b. Violation of neutrality to change his residence is guilty of
c. Correspondence with hostile country a. Grave Coercion
d. Flight to enemy’s country b. Grave Threat
577.A person who wrote a letter to an official of an enemy c. Expulsion
country despite government prohibition is liable of this d. Violation of Domicile
crime. 586.A public officer who procures a search warrant without
a. Inciting to war/ giving motive for reprisal just cause is liable of
b. Violation of neutrality a. Abuse in the service of search warrant
c. Correspondence with hostile country b. Warrant maliciously obtained
d. Flight to enemy’s country c. Searching domicile without witnesses
578.Robbery or depredation in the high seas, without lawful d. Violation of Domicile
authority and done with animo furandi and in the spirit 587.An order in writing, issued in the name of the People of
and intention of universal hostility. the Philippines, signed by a judge and directed to a peace
a. Mutiny officer, commanding him to SEARCH for personal
b. Piracy property described therein and bring it before the court.
c. Sea-jacking a. Warrant of Arrest
d. Hi-jacking b. Search Warrant
579.The axe gang are raping women in all the places they go c. Subpoena
from Batanes to Sulu. Their acts sow and created a d. Summons
widespread and extra-ordinary fear and panic among the 588.In the case of People Vs Thomas Sr, the Supreme Court in the
populace. They demanded from the government to appreciation of that a paraffin test has been held to be highly
release all prisoners entire the country for them to stop a. Accepted
raping. Are they liable for terrorism?
b. Determinate
a. Yes
c. Sensitive
b. No
c. Doubtful d. Unreliable
d. No answer 589.To be eligible for the grant of conditonal pardon what portion
580.Which of the following is not a form of arbitrary of the sentence must have been served by a petitioner-
detention? prisoner?
a. Detaining a person without legal ground a. Atleast one half of the minimum of his
b. Delay in the delivery of detained persons to the
indeterminate sentence
proper authorities
c. Delaying release b. Atleast one half of the maximum of his
d. Illegal Detention indeterminate sentence
581.A crime committed by a public officer/ employee who c. Atleast one fourth of the maximum of his
detains a person without legal ground. indeterminate sentence
a. Arbitrary detention d. Atleast one third of the minimum of his
b. Delay in the delivery of detained persons to the indeterminate sentence
proper authorities
590.What is the oldest written penal law of the Philippines?
c. Delaying release
a. Codigo Penal
d. Illegal Detention
b. Code of Kalantiao
e. No crime
c. Code of Hammurabi
582.A crime committed by a private individual who detains a
d. Maragtas Code
person without legal ground.
591.How penal laws are construed when the law is vague?
a. Arbitrary detention
a. Liberally in favor of the government
b. Delay in the delivery of detained persons to the
b. Liberally in favor of the offended party
proper authorities
c. Liberally in favor of the accused
c. Delaying release
d. Liberally in favor of the innocent
d. Illegal Detention
592.Refers to crimes which are wrongful in their nature thus
583.Committed by a public officer who detains a person for
requires the highest condemnation of the society.
some legal ground but fails to deliver such person to the
a. Crimes mala prohibita
proper authority w/n the prescribed time.
b. Crimes mala in se
a. Arbitrary detention
c. Crimes supersedeas

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 d. Crimes flagrante delicto
593.This rule recognizes that the host country has jurisdiction
over crimes committed on board the vessel unless they
involve the internal management of the vessel.
a. American Rule
b. English Rule 601. A-2 in Intelligence report means?
c. French Rule a. usually reliable source and is confirmed by other
d. Filipino Rule sources
594.Literally, “friend of the court”. Are experienced and b. completely reliable source and is
impartial attorneys that may be invited by the court to Probably true
appear as amicus curiae’ c. completely reliable source and is
Usually reliable
a. Champertous contract d. completely reliable source and is confirmed by
b. Amicus curiae other sources
c. Amicus curiea 602. Seeing ahead and making sound assumption?
d. Champertuos contract a. prioritizing
595.A contract whereby the lawyer agrees to pay the b. foretelling
expenses of litigation in return for the agreement of the c. forecasting
client to pay the lawyer a portion of the thing or property d. documenting
that might be won or recovered in the trial or litigation. 603. This Police Station activity increases the number of
This is unethical for the lawyer and hence illegal. arrest of criminal syndicate member?
a. investigation
a. Champertous contract b. intelligence
b. Amicus curiae c. crime search
c. Amicus curiea d. patrol
d. Champertuos contract 604. Which agent who has reached the enemy and able to get
596.The practice of filing multiple suits on different courts information and would be managed to get back?
based on the same cause of action. This is not allowed a. mercenary
and is a ground for dismissal of the case filed by the b. none
guilty party. c. penetration
d. assassin
a. contempt 605. Which of the following is the oldest warning device?
b. forum shipping a. trumpet
c. forum shopping b. siren
c. horn
d. direct contempt
d. radio
597.It is a small ceremonial mallet  commonly made of hardwood, 606. The act of expelling squatters by the legal process is
and a symbol of the authority and right to act officially in the called?
capacity of a chair or presiding officer. a. tear down
a. Gavel b. eviction
b. Hammer c. squadron
c. Wood hammer d. demolition
598.The constitution provides for the prescribed dress code 607. H refers to the importance of the establishment with
of all judges and it is called as. reference to the national economy and security?
a. Black robes
a. risk analysis
b. Black toga
b. relative critically
c. Black dress
c. risk assessment
d.White robes
d. relative vulnerability
599.It is the lists of cases that are scheduled to be heard on a
608. There were 750 rape cases in 2010, as against 928 in
particular day usually placed or posted outside the
2011. What was the percent increase?
courtroom.
a. +27.3%
b. +23.7%
a. Court calendar
c. +37.2%
b. Supreme Court calendar
d. +32.7%
c. School calendar
609. In the PNP organization what do you mean by RCA:
d. Schedule calendar
a. Renewal Clothing Allowance
600.Contempt committed in the presence of or so near a
b. Recollection Clothing Allowance
court or judge as to obstruct or interrupt proceedings
c. Replacement Clothing Allowance
before it.
d. Reimbursement Clothing Allowance
a. contempt
610. The importance of the firm or installation with
b. direct contempt
reference to the national economy or security:
c. indirect contempt
a. Relative security
d. disobedience
b. Relative necessity
c. Relative criticality
Law Enforcement d. Relative vulnerability
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Administration
 611. These are the major courses of action that the c.Government employees wishing to transfer to
organization plans to take in order to achieve its the PNP
objectives. d.Graduates of Criminology
a. Procedures 619. Plans which require action or assistance from
b. Strategies persons or agencies outside the police organization.
c. Plans a. management plans
d. Objectives b. operational plans
612. In this form of authority, personnel do not give c. tactical plans
orders but they offer advice. Frequently this advice d. extra-department plan
is based on the high level of expertise, but the 620. Protection of classified document concerning their
advice carries no formal requirement of acceptance.
preparation, classification, reproduction, handling,
a. Democracy
transmission, disposal and destruction.
b. Functional authority
c. Line authority a. document security
d. Staff authority b. operational security
613. The __________ means controlling the direction c. physical security
and flow of decisions through unity of command d. organizational security
from top to bottom organization. 621. What is the system of natural or man-made barriers
a. Audit placed between the potential intruder and the objects,
b. Coordination persons and matters being protected?
c. Monitoring a. document security
d. Authority b. communications security
614. PO III Peter Factor is assigned to collect available c. physical security
information concerning the activities of the Red d. personnel security
Scorpion Group (RSG). He is with what unit of the 622. Intelligence on the enemy and the characteristics of
police? operation used in the planning and objects, persons and
a. anti – juvenile delinquency matters being protected?
b. criminal investigation a. military intelligence
c. intelligence operations b. strategic intelligence
d. patrol activities c. combat intelligence
615. Intelligence can and should do nothing more than. d. counter-intelligence
a. promote better police-citizen interaction 623. The effectiveness and efficiency of the patrol
b. enhance the probability of accuracy in report function can be enhanced if there is detailed and up-to
writing date information about crime and criminals. This calls for
c. improve administration efficiency particularly the establishment of:
in recruitment and selection a. patrol base headquarters
d. increase the number of arrests of criminal b. crime information center
syndicate members c. management information center
616. PO III Juan Tupaz submitted an intelligence report d. public information office
evaluated as B – 5. What does that mean? 624. Planning cannot be undertaken without referring to
a. information is usually from a reliable source ________ on the entire police organization, community,
and is possibly true crime, equipment inventories, personal data, etc.
b. information is usually from a reliable source a. costs
and is improbable b. data
c. information is usually from a reliable source c. plans
and is probably true d. statement
d. information is usually from a reliable source 625. New employees should be briefed on security rules
and is doubtfully true
and regulations of the organization and the importance of
617. PO III Juan Tupaz submitted an intelligence report
observing them. This process is called:
evaluated as B – 5. What does that mean?
a. security information
a. information is usually from a reliable source
b. security reminders
and is possibly true
c. security orientation
b. information is usually from a reliable source
d. security investigation
and is improbable
626. What plans require action or assistance from
c. information is usually from a reliable source
and is probably true persons or agencies outside the police organization?
d. information is usually from a reliable source a. tactical plan
and is doubtfully true b. extra department plan
618. Who may be automatically granted height waiver, c. management plan
as provided under Section 15 of Republic Act No. 8551? d. all of these
627. This is a patrol program designed to ensure law
a. Police retirables requesting for extension of
service. abiding citizens feeling of security but the reaction of
b. Member of the cultural minorities duly fear for the would be violators.
certified by the appropriate government a. double-officer patrol
agency. b. single-officer patrol
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 d. high visibility patrol a. Hazard
628. The transfer of heat from one material to another b. Net
by direct contact is called _______? c. Risk
a. oxidation d. Barrier
b. convection 637. Mr. Jun de las Alas was born on June 1, 1975. Does
c. conduction he meet the age requirement for entry to the
d. radiation police service in June 1999?
629. How is one classified if he steals primarily because a. No, but he can apply for age waiver
of irresistible urge due to unexpected opportunity and b. Yes, he is only 24 years old and is within the
little chance of detection? age requirement
a. systematic pilferer c. Yes, he meets the maximum age requirement
b. ordinary pilferer d. No, he has exceeded the maximum age
c. casual pilferer requirement
d. unusual pilferer 638. A police officer who manages a police station must
630. An appeal filed with the Napolcom Regional use all of the following skills, EXCEPT.
Appellate Board shall be decided within ______ days a. conceptual
from receipt of the nation appeal. b. technical
c. interpersonal
a. fifty
d. communication
b. twenty
639. The planning process generally consists of five (5)
c. thirty
d. sixty steps in sequential order. (Which is the first step?)
631. In the intelligence functions, the black list includes a. formulation of details of the plan
________ forces. b. recognition of the need to plan
c. setting up planning objectives
a. unwanted
d. gathering and analysis of data
b. friendly
640. In the PNP organization what do you mean by
c .neutral
RCA:
d. unfriendly
a. Renewal Clothing Allowance
632. The first step in the planning process is to
b. Recollection Clothing Allowance
recognize the need to plan. Which of the following is c. Replacement Clothing Allowance
NOT a way to discovering the need to plan? d. Reimbursement Clothing Allowance
a. conduct of research 641.These are barbed wires placed above a vertical
b. conduct of training fence in order to increase physical protection of
c. conduct of inspection
establishment or installations.
d. conduct of management audit
633. The special formations used in crowd control a. top tower
b. top guard
include the wedge, diagonal and deployed line. When a
c. cellar guard
crowd is small enough not to require a squad, then the d. tower guard house
formation is: 642. What is the next planning step after the need to
a. diagonal plan is recognized?
b. wedge a. evaluate alternatives
c. deployed line b. formulate the objective
d. clockwise c. execute the plan
634. Under this principle, the chief executive directly d. analyze the data
controls two to ten subordinates, who then control two 643. This type of patrol performs certain specific,
to ten subordinates each and so on until the bottom of predetermined preventive strategies in a regular
the organization is reached. and systematic basis.
a. scalar principle a. apprehension-oriented patrol
b. exception principle b. low visibility patrol
c. unity of command c. split-force patrol
d. span of control d. directed deterrent patrol
644. Among the following applicants for appointment to
635. What is meant by an evaluation of C-1? the police service, who may be automatically granted
a. information comes from an unreliable source height waiver?
and is probably true
a. government employees wishing to transfer to
b. information comes from a fairly reliable
the PNP
source and is confirmed by other sources
b. members of cultural minorities duly certified
c. information comes from an unreliable source
by the appropriate government agency
and is improbable
c. police retirables requesting for extension of
d.information comes from an unreliable source
service
and is doubtfully true
d. graduate of criminology
636. Under physical security, what should be placed
645. The following changes must be made in police
between the prospective intruder and target
operating procedures if the investigative skills of patrol
installation?

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 personnel are to be employed to their fullest advantage 652. These regulations establish the specifications of
EXCEPT. uniform and the manner in which they are to be
a. patrol supervisor should insists that patrol worn:
officers simply make a brief report and return to a. personnel transaction regulations
patrol duties rather than complete their b. firearms regulations
investigations c. uniform regulations
b. patrol officers should be better trained and d. equipment regulations
equipped to conduct routine investigations
c. patrol officers should be encouraged to 653. Police visibility in strategic and crime prone areas
devote more time to the investigation of crimes
projects ________ thus, an effective crime prevention
to which they respond
strategy.
d. the patrol supervision should be able to
provide the patrol officer with assistance in a. police omnipresence
determining whether a case has sufficient merit b. police effectiveness
to warrant immediate follow-up investigation by c. police discretion
the patrol officer d. police authority
646. The more complex the organization, the more 654. Which of the following trait or ability is most
highly specialized the division of work, the greater the important for a police officer?
need for: a. personnel integrity and honesty
b. physical stamina and bearing
a. cleaner delineation of functions
c. courageous
b. coordinating authority
d .high intelligence
c. strictly line discipline
655. In 2001, there were 200, 450 crimes reported to
d. finer division of supervision
647. The ________ differs from routine patrol methods the Police Station of Municipality A. If the
in that patrol officers perform certain specific, population of Municipality is 5 Million, what is
predetermined preventive strategies on a regular and the crime rate?
systematic basis. a. 3509
b. 4010
a. low-visibility patrol
c. 4250
b. directed deterrent patrol
d. 4009
c. split force patrol
656. If a complaint or incident is NOT Fully disposed of
d. apprehension-oriented patrol
648. PO II Carlo Y. Alba and PO I Anglelo S. Suba report as a result of the first investigation, a _________
only to one (1) supervisor. This is the principle of report should be submitted.
_______________. a. investigation report
b. case disposition report
a. unity of command
c. follow-up report
b. delegation of authority
d. crime report
c. span of control
657.The advantages of a strong patrol are more than
d. report to immediate superior
649. PO III Serafin B. Alta frequents clubs, places of make up for slightly inferior performance. More
amusement and entertainment known to be patrolmen are then made available for emergency and
habitually visited by his subject and his subject’s the more active and widespread the patrol, the more
associates. PO III Alta’s undercover assignment is apparent is their presence, thus, promoting the
called. impression of -
a. multiple assignment a. suspensions
b. social assignment b. effectiveness
c. work assignment c. omnipresence
d. dwelling assignment d. efficiency
650.Which of the following statements is FALSE? 658. What is the importance of a firm or installation in
a. classified information must not be discussed by the relation to national security referred to?
one friends and members of the family a. relative security
b. classified information should be known only b. relative necessity
by one person c. relative criticality
c. cabinets with classified documents must be d. relative vulnerability
secured with padlocks and security measures at 659. When heat is transmitted by a circulating medium,
all time the method is called ____________.
d. all classified documents must be safeguarded a. radiation
651. Assessing organizational strengths and weakness is b. oxidation
usually known as: c. convection
a. force field analysis d. conduction
b. Delphi technique 660. The __________ includes citizens who are cleared
c. simulation model to attend meeting in Malacañang.
d. forecasting a. white list
b. black list
c. target list
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 d. access list d. Geographical area to be patrolled
661. The attestation function over police appointment 670. It is importance of installation in relation to
is vested in the: national security.
a. Civil Service Commission a. relative criticality
b. National Police Commission b. relative indispensability
c. Professional Regulations Commission c. relative security
d. Department of Interior and Local Government d. relative vulnerability
662. Selling security within the organization sets and 671. It is the formal process of choosing the
maintains a climate of _______ to the organization mission and overall objective both
appreciation of the department’s objectives. the short and long term as well as the divisional
a. participation and individual objectives based on the
b. clear organizational objectives.
c. understanding a. planning
d. collaboration b. organizing
663. Mr. Jaime del S. Rio was born on May 1, 1975, does he c. directing
meet the age requirement for entry to the police d. managerial decision-making
service in June 2002? 672. A _________ is usually for the purpose of waiting
a. No, he has exceeded the maximum age for the anticipated arrival of a suspect who is
requirement either wanted for investigation or who is
b. Yes, he is only 27 years old and is within the expected to commit a crime at a certain location.
age requirement
a. stake out
c. No, but he can apply for age waiver
b. cops and robbers game
d. Yes, he meets the maximum education
c. follow up
requirement
d. surveillance
664. What is the evaluation of an intelligence report
673. How is the crew complement of a Mobile Patrol
which is “the information comes from a completely
Division organized into shifts for each duty?
reliable source and is probably true”?
a. daily four-shift
a. B-2 b .daily five-shift
b. A-2 c. one shift-daily
c. A-3 d. daily three-shift
d. A 1 674. The formulation of conclusions from the theory
665. In 2001, physical injuries numbered 12,500 out of
developed, tested and considered valid as a
a total crime volume of 60,500. What percent of the
result of interpretation is called.
total crime volume is attributed to physical injuries?
a. collection
a. 18.7% b. integration
b. 20.7% c. evaluation
c. 25.7% d. deduction
d. 4.8% 675. In 2001, murder accounted for 10% of all index
666. SPO I Edna E. Castro evaluated the information
crimes. If the total index crimes were 25,000, how
gathered as “completely reliable, source probably
many were murder incidents?
true”. What is the type of evaluation?
a. 250
a. A-5 b. 2,500
b. A-1 c. 500
c. A-4 d. 5,000
d. A-2 676. The more complex the organization, the more
667. It is ongoing process which ensures that new risks
highly specialized the division of work, the
are recognized and that established deterrents remain
greater the need for:
necessary and cost effective.
a. cleaner delineation of functions
a. inspection b. coordinating authority
b. interrogation c. strictly line discipline
c. risk analysis d. finer division of supervision
d. evaluation 677. The following questions are tests for accuracy of
668. What type of patrol performs certain specific,
information, EXCEPT:
predetermined preventive strategies on a regular and
a. Does the report agree or disagree with
systematic basis? available and related intelligence?
a. split-force patrol b. Is the reported fact or event known in advance
b. low visibility patrol c. Is it the same or consistent with known modus
c. apprehension-oriented operandi?
d. directed deterrent patrol d. Is the information about the target or area of
669. A patrol beat refers to a: the operation?
a. Number of crimes to be solved 678. Natural hazards such as storms, earthquakes,
b. Number of residents to be protected floods or lahar cannot be prevented from
c. Location of police headquarters occurring. To minimize the disastrous effects of

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 these phenomena, the security officer must a. clockwise
prepare a: b. zigzag
a. guard deployment plan c. criss-cross
b. security education plan d. stationary
c. civil defense plan 688. To what unit do policeman in plain clothes belong
d. disaster or emergency plan when they infiltrate and gather information about
679. It involves segregation of deviants into isolated criminal syndicates?
geographic areas so that they can easily be a. Budget
controlled. b. Planning
a. Coercion c. Intelligence
b. Quarantine d. Patrol
c. Conversion 689. Which of the following statement is TRUE?
d. Containment a. Performance evaluation measures
680. What management principle provides that only credibility of the police personnel.
one officer be in direct command or supervision b. Performance evaluation is not a basis for
salary increases of promotion.
of each officer.
c. Performance evaluation is done once a year
a. span control among police personnel.
b. unity of command d. Performance evaluation is implemented to
c. chain of command determine the quality of work performance
d. line of authority of personnel.
681. What is referred to as total number of police 690. Line units such as the patrol section or
officers assigned to patrol duties? investigation section in police stations prepare their
a. effective strength work programs in which areas are called ___.
b. mandatory strength
a. Budget
c. actual strength
b. Management
d. authorized strength
c. Operational plans
682. When police patrols are increased beyond normal
d. Tactical plan
levels, this is called ________? 691. What is referred to as the knowledge pertaining
a. reactive patrol to capabilities, vulnerabilities and probable
b. directed deterrent patrol
course of actions of foreign nations?
c. citizen patrol
d. proactive patrol a. combat intelligence
683. What is the method of collection of information b. national intelligence
c. police intelligence
wherein the investigator tails or shadows the
d. strategic intelligence
persons or vehicles? 692. How are coded messages converted to intelligible
a. Research language?
b. Surveillance
a. Encoding
c. Casing
b. Processing
d. Photography
c. Labeling
684. Before a security expert can recommend what
d. Decoding
type of security will needed by an industrial 693. The type of undercover operation wherein
establishment, there is a need for him to undertake a : techniques are applied for a longer time and are
a. security training considered as the most different (difficult) investigate
b. security check
activity, yet the most rewarding.
c. security survey
d. security education a. casing
685. When one procures information about subject b. undercover operation
c. penetration
secretly; he is performing _______ collection
d. surveillance
method. 694. As Security Director of Company B, you should
a. routine know how many beds, are normally available in a
b. overt
multiple injury situation and how many ________
c. active
d. covert patients can be processed at a single time.
686. Under this principle, each group reports to an a. Wounded
individual who is part of a supervisory group that b. Emergency
c. Female
answers to a higher supervisor and so on until a
d. Male
group of administrators report to the chief 695. A person’s suitability to be given a security
executive. clearance is determined through a process called
a. unity of command _________.
b. span of control
a. security training
c. scalar principle
b. security education
d. aggregation
c. security promotion
687. Which of the following is NOT patrol pattern?

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 d. security investigation c.the information comes from a usually reliable
696.This patrol method utilizes disguise, deception and source and is and is probably true.
lying in wait rather that upon high visibility patrol d.the information comes from a usually reliable
techniques? source and is possibly true
705. It ensures the question “what is to be
a. decoy patrol
b. high visibility patrol accomplish by the plan?”
c. directed patrol a. objectives
d. low visibility patrol b. planning assumptions
697. What police plans refer to actions to be taken at c. problems
a designated location and under specific d. planning environment
706. The Neighborhood Team Policing exhibit the
circumstances?
following organizational features, EXCEPT:
a. management plans
b. tactical plans a. Unified delivery of services
c. operating plans b. Low-level flexibility in decision-making
d. procedural plans c. Combined investigation and patrol functions
698. What type of organization consciously coordinates d. Unity of direction
707. Patrol Officers are useful in crime solution if they are
the activities of two or more persons towards a
properly trained in criminal investigation. Which of
given objective?
the following cannot be undertaken by them?
a. flexible organization
b. formal organization a. He can locate and question the suspect if he
c. informal organization apprehends him.
d. non-flexible organization b. He can identify available evidences.
699. Who among the following meets the age c. He can take note of statements of the suspect.
d. He can issue the treasury checks to fellow
qualification for appointment to the police
policemen.
service? 708. It is a physical security applied to business groups
a. Rey who is 20 years old engaged in industries, like manufacturing,
b. Dennis who is 17 years old
assembling, research and development, processing,
c. John who is 22 years old
d. Santi who is 35 years old warehousing and even agriculture.
700. The covert observation of an area, a building or a. operational security
stationary object in order to gain information is b. industrial security
called: c. physical security
a. undercover works d. special types
b. penetration 709. It is the broadest branch of security which is
c. casing concerned with the physical measures to prevent
d. surveillance unauthorized access.
701. If a fire in a warehouse is about to involve barrels
a. operational security
of bleaching powder, the greatest danger would be
b. industrial security
from:
c. physical security
a. fast-burning flare-up that could not be
d. special types
controlled
710. Are the acts or conditions affecting the safe operation
b. an explosion
c. the impossibility of using water on the fire of the facility caused by human action, accidental or
d. a toxic and irritant gas intentional.
702. Which of the following is not included in the patrol a. security hazards
function? b. man-made hazard
a. Response to citizen calls c. natural hazard
b. Investigation of crimes d. all of the above
c. Routine preventive patrol 711. Are those caused by natural phenomena which caused
d. Inspection of identified hazards
damage, disturbance and problems of the normal
703. Disaster preparedness and control plans should
functioning of human activities, including security.
include _______ so that people who are directly
a. security hazards
involved know the extent of the incident.
b. man-made hazard
a. evacuation services
b. identification services c. natural hazard
c. counseling services d. all of the above
d. public information services 712. It is the importance of the firm with reference to the
704. An intelligence report classified as A-2 national economy and security.
means__________. a. relative criticality
a.the information comes from a completely b. relative vulnerability
reliable source and is doubtfully true c. all of the above
b. the information comes from a completely d. non of the above
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 713.One who steals with pre-conceived plans and takes 721. . A conference or dialogue between the survey
away any of all types of items or supplies for team and management officials before security
economic gain. survey is conducted.
a. pilferer a. pre- security survey
b. casual pilferer b. post- security survey
c. systematic pilferer c. entrance conference
d. intruder d. exit conference
714. . A medium of structure which defines the physical 722. . It is a fact finding probe to determine a plant’s
limits of an installation to restrict or impede access adequacy and deficiency in all aspects of security.
thereto. a. security inspections
a. natural barrier b. security survey
b. man-made barrier c. special survey
c. perimeter barrier d. supplemental survey
d. physical security 723. . It is the exposure and teaching of employees on
715. . It is a type of perimeter barrier made of chain link security and its relevance to their work.
with mesh openings not larger that two inches a. security education
square, and made or #9 gauge wire or heavier. b. security indoctrination
a. clear zone c. security training
b. bodies of water d. security awareness
c. building wall 724. . It is an authenticated list of personnel given to
d. wire fence security allowing entry to a compound or
716. . It surmounted by the barbed wire top guards, and installation thereof.
if the height is less than the prescribed, additional a. controlling
topping is placed to attain the minimum height b. access list
requirement. c. exclusion area
a. clear zone d. controlled area
b. bodies of water 725. . Any area, access to which is subject to special
c. building wall restriction control.
d. wire fence a. restricted area
717. . An unobstructed area maintained on both sides of b. exclusion area
the perimeter barrier. c. controlled area
a. clear zone d. coverage factor
b. bodies of water 726. . A restricted area containing materials or operation
c. building wall of security interest.
d. wire fence a. restricted area
718. . He may issue or revoke licenses issued to security b. exclusion area
guards. c. controlled area
a. Chief, PNP d. coverage factor
b. Mayor 727. It is the key elements in the security survey system
c. Governor of a plant or installation.
d. Secretary, DILG a. security guard
719. . It is an additional overhang barbed wire placed on b. human guard
vertical perimeter fences facing upward and c. company guard
outward with a 45 degree angle with three to four d. agency guard
strand of barbed wire. 728. . It is a term used in England for lock pickers,
a. topping safecrackers, and penetrators of restricted rooms
b. top guard or areas.
c. all of the above a. doppler effect
d. non of the above b. duress code
720. . Are house like structure above the perimeter c. peterman
barriers, it give psychological effect to violators. d. fail safe
729. . A term applied to a device or system that in the
a. guard towers event of failure or a component, the incapacity will
b. tower guards be signaled.
c. guard house a. doppler effect
d. guard post b. duress code
c. peterman
d. fail safe

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 730. . It is a practical test of a plan or any activity to test c.50
its validity, it is also an operational readiness d.200
exercise. 739. . The regular security guard license is good for how
a. dry run many years?
b. run through a. 1 year
c. controlling b. 2 years
d. fire drill c. 6 months
731. . It is the susceptibility of the plant or d. 3 years
establishment to damage, loss or disruption of 740. . It is the minimum capitalization for PSA.
operation due to various hazard. a. P1,000,000.00
a. relative criticality b. P500,000.00
b. relative vulnerability c. P100,000.00
c. all of the above d. non of the above
d. non of the above 741. . It is the required minimum number of guards to
732. . It includes records that are irreplaceable, operate company security forces.
reproduction of which does not have the same a. 30
value as the original records. b. 200
a. useful records c. 50
b. vital records d.100
c. important records 742. . A PSA with 200 to 499 guards shall pay how much
d. non-essential records amount of surety bond to a reputable insurance
733. . How is one classified if he steals primarily because company.
of irresistible urge due to unexpected opportunity? a. P50,000.00
a. casual pilferer b. P100,000.00
b. ordinary pilferer c. P150,000.00
c. systematic d. P200,000.00
d. unusual pilferer 743. . PSAs with 100 guards must initially procure at
734. . The extinguishment of fire by using water least how many firearms for use of its security
solution, and the temperature is lowered below the guards.
burning point. a. 10
a. smothering b. 20
b. starving c. 30
c. cooling d. 70
d. all of the above 744. . PSAs who have been applying for regular license
735. . It is a type of built-in sprinklers which works by to operate must have at least ___ pieces of licensed
the increase of room temperature, and which firearms.
automatically operates the system to put out the a. 10
fire. b. 20
a. wet pipe system c. 30
b. automatic sprinklers d. 70
c. dry pipe system 745. . The stock of ammunitions of the PSAs shall not
d. stand pipe system exceed a basic load of how many rounds per unit of
736. . These fire results from the burning of wood, duly licensed firearms.
paper, textiles and other carbonaceous materials. a. 20
a. Class “A” Fires b. 12
b. Class “B” Fires c. 50
c. Class “C” Fires d. 25
d. Class “D” Fires 746. . This is quantity of ammunitions to be issued to
737. . Private Security Agencies must be registered at individual security guards.
what government agency. a. 20
a. DTI b. 12
b. PNP c. 50
c. CSC d. 25
d. LGU 747. It is the only instances wherein PDAs & PSAs may
738. It is the minimum guard requirements for the be allowed to use high powered firearms; except
issuance of temporary license. one.
a.100 a. upsurge of lawlessness and criminality
b.1,000 b. upsurge of bank and armored bank robbery

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 c. transporting big amount of money a. PDA
d. providing security to VIPs b. PSA
748. . The prescribed high-powered firearms not exceed c. GSU
how many percent of the total number of guards d. CSF
employed. 757. . It is a security unit maintained and operated by
a.5% any government entity other than military or
b.10% police.
c.15% a. PDA
d.20% b. PSA
749. . These are the qualifications of a licensed b. GSU
watchman or security guard, EXCEPT: c. CSF
a. high school graduate d.PAD
b. physically & mentally fit 758. . It is the umbrella organization for PDA and PSA.
c. 18 to 50 years of age
d. without pre-licensing training a. PADPAO, Inc.
750. . There are two different ways in which security b. SAGSD
guards are hired or employed, the company guard c. SEC
and the other one is: d. PNP
a. government guards 759. . It is a government agency involved in the
b. private security agency supervision of the internal affairs of the PSAs, PDAs,
c .propriety guards CSFs and GSUs.
d. in-house guards a. PADPAO, Inc.
751. . This is an Act to Regulate the Organization and b. SAGSD
Operation of PDAs/PSAs/CSFs/GSUs. c. SEC
a. PD 603 d. PNP
b. EO 292 760. . It is the age requirement for the operator or
c. RA 5487 manager of PSA, PDA, CSF, and GSU.
d. PD 968 a. 25 years
752. . They are any person who offers or renders b. 30 years
personal service to watch or secure either c. 35 years
residential or business establishment or both. d. 20 years
a. private detective 761. . It is the initial number of guard requirements that
b. security guards must be contracted for the 1st year of operation of
c. propriety guards PSA.
d. company guards a. 100
753. . Are any person who is not a member of the AFP or b. 200
PNP, but involved in detective work. c. 1,000
a. private detective d. 50
b. security guards 762. . What is the minimum number of guard
c. propriety guards requirements in the operation of branch offices of
d. company guards PSA.
754.. It is any person who for hire or reward or on a. 20
commission, conducts or carries on or holds himself b. 30
out in carrying detective works. c. 10
a. PDA d. 40
b. PSA 763. . __________ are included in the category of in-
c. GSU house guards.
d. CSF a. government guards
755. . It is any person, association, partnership, firm or b. private security agency
private corporation that employs any watchman or c. propriety guards
guards. d. all of the above
a. PDA 764. . It is charge with the directing the work and
b. PSA observing the behavior performance of the men
c. GSU under his unit.
d. CSF a. security guard
756. . It is a security force maintained and operated by b. security supervisor
the private company/corporation for its own c. watchman
protection and security requirements  c. security officer

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 765. . The following items must be stipulated in the 774. .It refers to the requirements for application for
security service contract, EXCEPT: licenses as security officers, guards, and operators.
a. money consideration a. physical & mental examination
b. number of hours of security service b. medical & dental examination
c. salary of the security guard c. physical agility test examination
d. commission of the operator d. drug test examination
766. . It is administrative sanctions that can be imposed 775. . Blue Guard Medal Valor is awarded by whom?
to any applicant who failed to submit the complete a. DILG
requirements in the renewal of license. b. C, PNP
a. cancellation c. PD, PPO
b. revocation d. RD, PRO 3
c. nullification 776. . Letter of Commendation to PSGs is awarded by
d. suspension whom?
767. . It shall apply to all PDAs/PSAs/CSFs/GSUs a. PSAs Operators
throughout the Philippines. b. CSF Managers
a. Private Scty. Law c. all of the above
b. RA 5487 d. non of the above
c .IRR of RA 5487 777. . It shall be submitted immediately after graduation
d.all of the above to the C, PNP.
768. . It refers to the Summary Power of the Chief, PNP a. closing reports
as provided by R.A. 5487. b. opening reports
a. suspension of license c. participants
b. cancellation of license d. name of course
c. all of the above 778. . It is required to the License to Operate PSAs/CSFs.
d. non of the above a. displayed
769. . It is the established rules and regulations in the b. carried
operation of GSUs, EXCEPT: c. registered
a. registration at SAGSD d. all of the above
b. registration at CSG 779. . Merger of PSAs/PDAs is commonly known as
c. both A & B ______ in the industrial security management.
d. registration at SEC a. Kabit System
770. . Any member of the GSUs shall be required to b. Illegal Operation
secure a __________ to exercise profession at c. Merger of Security
SAGSD. d. Moribund Security
a. permit 780. . It is no anymore required to PSAs/PDAs securing
b. authority temporary license to operate.
c. registration a. pre-inspection
d. license b. post-inspection
771. . How many days prior expiry month of license shall c. inspection
require PSL holders to undergo NP examinations. d. continuing inspection
a. 60 days 781. . It shall not be issued unless prior inspection is
b. 30 days conducted to the applicant agency.
c. 45 days a. regular license
d. 15 days b. temporary license
772. . Neuro-Psychiatric Clearance shall be issued by the c. license to operate
accredited testing centers within how many days d. permit to operate
after the date of examination. 782. . These are the classifications of offenses as
a. 60 days prescribed by the IRR of R.A. 5487, EXCEPT:
b. 30 days a. serious offense
c .45 days b. light offense
d.15 days c. grave offense
773. . Moribund but previously licensed security agency, d. less grave offense
means: 783. . They have the authority to conduct inspection to
a. dying PSA PSAs/PDAs/CSFs/GSUs, EXCEPT:
b. viable PSA a. C, SAGSD
c. new PSA b. C, ROPD
d. renewing PSA c. PD, PPO
d. SAGSD Officer

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 784. . These are authorized to conduct investigation on 793. . The lowest rate in the Performance Evaluation
all complaints against securities of PSAs or Rating in the PNP is-
detective of PDAs. a. Very Satisfactory
a. C, ROPD b. Fair
b. Inves. Comm., CSG c. Outstanding
c. all of the above d. Poor
d. none of the above 794. . The Chief PNP had been in the service for 36 years
785. . It must be avoided by the private security and receive a Base Pay of 25,000 pesos a month.
personnel, either physically or otherwise with the How much will be his Longevity Pay?
strikers. a. 5,000 pesos
a. direct contact b. 7,500 pesos
b. indirect contact c. 10,000 pesos
c. confrontation d. 12,500 pesos
d. carrying of firearms 795. . SPO4 Masipag receives a base pay of Php14, 000.
786. . The City or Municipal Mayors has the power to He had been in the service for 27 years. How much
muster or _________ the members of the agency in is his longevity pay?
case of emergency or in times of disasters or a.Php4, 200
calamity. b. Php5, 000
a. organize c. Php6, 500
b. incorporate d. Php7, 000
c. utilize 796. . A primary subdivision of a bureau is called-
d. deputize a. division
787. . The staff directorate in charge of gathering b. unit
information is- c. section
a. Intelligence d. department
b. Police Community Relation 797. . The mandatory training course for PO1 for them
c. Civil Security Group to be promoted to PO2 or PO3.
d. Investigation and Detective Mngt. a. PSJLC
788. . Who is the Chairman of NAPOLCOM? b. PSOBC
a. Chief of Staff, AFP c. PSOOC
b. Secretary of the DILG d. PSBRC
c. Secretary of National Defense 798. . Time-In-Grade needed by a Senior Inspector
d. Chief of the PNP before he could be promoted to Chief Inspector is-
789. . It is the minimum educational attainment for a. 1 year
promotion in the PNP. b. 3 years
a. MNSA c. 2 years
b. Master’s Degree d. 5 years
c. OSEC 799. . An area assigned for foot or motorized patrol
d. BS Degree purposes is called-
790. . Attrition system is a means under Republic Act Nr. a. beat
8551 to remove from the PNP, police officers who b. sector
are- c. route
a. inefficient d. post
b. ineffective 800. . The system used in PNP promotions is called-
c. unproductive a. Performance
d. all of the choices b. Seniority
791. . The nature of which, the police officer is free from c. Palakasan
specific routine duty is the definition of - d. Merit
a. “on duty” 801. . The directorate who is in charge of supplies and
b. “special duty” equipments of PNP is-
c. “leave of absence” a. logistics
d. “off duty” b. comptrollership
792. . An area containing two or more beats, routes or c. intelligence
post is called- d. plans
a. post 802. . What is the maximum tenure of a Police Regional
b. unit Director?
c. sector a. 4 years
d. section b .5 years

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 c. 6 years 812. . What is the nature of appointment of PNP
d. 9 years personnel under the waiver program?
803. . The period of time in the present rank in a. permanent
permanent status is called- b. contractual
a. Time-In-Grade c. temporary
b. Length of Service d. probationary
c. Seniority in rank 813. .The Police Regional Office covering Metro-Manila
d. Plantilla position is-
804. . The directorate who is the “make-up artist” and a. Western Police District
“deodorant” of the PNP is called- b. NCRPO
a. Personnel Records Mgt. c. Southern Police District
d. Central Police District
b. Research Development 814. . The equivalent rank of Major General in the PNP
c. Police Community Relation is-
d. Human Resource & Doctrine Devt. a. Director General
805. . The National Capital Region Police Office is divided b. Chief Superintendent
into how many districts? c. Deputy Director General
a. four d. Director
b. six 815. . The number 2 man in the PNP organization in-
c. five a. TCDS
d. seven b. DDG for Administration
806. . A functional group within a section is called- c. DDG for Operations
a. division d. none of them
b. route 816. .The national headquarters of the PNP is-
c. unit a. Camp Dangwa
d. sector b. Camp Crame
807. . The staff directorate in charge of gathering c. Camp Aguinaldo
information is- d. Fort Bonifacio
a. Intelligence 817. . The purpose of promotion in the PNP is-
b. Police Community Relation a. recognition of good work
c. Comptrollership b. gives officers high morale
d.Investigation and Detective Mgt. c. gives higher pay
808. . Which of the following is not an administrative d. all of the choices
support unit? 818. . Waiver system in the PNP will apply if-
a. Special Action Force a. recruitment falls on summer
b. Civil Security Group b. qualified applicant falls below quota
c. Police Security and Protection Office c. ordered by the President
d. all of the choices d. none of them
809. . Police Junior Leadership Course is intended for 819. . Mental fitness of an applicant in the PNP is
PNP members who want to be promoted to- verified thru-
a. SPO4 a. medical examination
b. SPO3 b. neuro-psychiatric examination
c. SP01 c. physical fitness examination
d. PO3 d. drug test
810. Under the general qualifications for appointment in 820. . Age waiver can be granted if the applicant is-
the PNP, male applicant must be with a height of at a. 20 to 36 years old
least- b. 19 to 36 years old
a. 1.62 m c. 21 to 35 years old
b. 1.64 m d. 20 to 35 years old
c. 1.57 m 821. . What is the minimum rank for a police officer to
d. 1.54 be qualified a the C, PNP?
811. . The mandatory training course of SPO4 before a. Director
they can be promoted to the rank of Police b. Superintendent
Inspector is- c. Chief Superintendent
a. Officers Basic Course d. Director General
b. Officers Candidate Course 822. . The law that grants automatic eligibility for those
c. Officers Advance Course who passed any licensure examination
d. Senior Leadership Course

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 administered by the Professional Regulations d. allowance
Commission is- 832. . Insubordination is an administrative infraction
a. Republic Act Nr. 6506 referred to as-
b. Republic Act Nr. 1080 a. citizens complaint
c. Republic Act Nr. 6975 b. grave misconduct
d. Republic Act Nr. 8551 c. breach of internal discipline
823. . The highest award given to a PNP member is- d. none of them
a. Medalya ng Kadakilaan 833. . PLEB is composed of how many person?
b. Medalya ng Kagitingan a. 3
c. Medalya ng Sugatang Magiting b. 5
d. Medalya ng Kabayanihan c. 4
824. . What is the duration of the PNP Field Training d. 6
Program? 834. . How many years is maximum tenure in officer of
a. 10 months the Chief, PNP?
b. 18 months a. four years
c. 12 months b. six years
d. 24 months c. five years
825. . When is the date of effectively of the PNP Reform d. nine years
and Reorganization Act? 835. . How long will be the extension of tenure of the
a. 1992 Chief, PNP if extended?
b. 1996 a. not more than 1 year
c. 1994 b. not less than 2 years
d. 1998 c. more than 1 year
826. . What law was amended by RA 8551? d. none of them
a. RA 7659 836. . The law that grants eligibility to Criminology Board
b. RA 6425 Exam passers is-
c. RA 6975 a. Republic Act Nr. 6506
d. RA 9165 b. Republic Act Nr. 1080
827. . Valenzuela City maintains a police force with a c. Republic Act Nr. 8551
total manpower of 2000 officers and men. How d. Republic Act Nr. 6975
many PLEB must be established? 837. . The agency that administers all the mandatory
a. two training for police officers is
b. four a. PPSC
c. three b. PNP
d. five c. DHRDD
828. . What is the lowest administrative penalty? d. NAPOLCOM
a. Forfeiture of Pay 838. . Who can grant waivers for applicants in the PNP?
b. Restricted to Specified limits a. President
c. Witholding of Privilege b. Chief, PNP
d. Admonition c. Sec. of DILG
829. . It is the period given for a PNP member admitted d. NAPOLCOM
under the educational attainment waiver to finish 839. . Which of the following administer the PNP
his B.S. Degree according to RA 8551? Entrance and Promotional Exam for policemen as
a. 4 years provided for under Republic Act Nr. 8551?
b. 6 years a. NAPOLCOM
c. 5 years b. Civil Service Commission
d. 7 years c. Congress
830. . It is the number of year of non-promotion before d. PNP
a PNP Member can be attrited. 840. . What is the basis for promotion that includes the
a. 5 years length of service in the present rank?
b. 15 years a. Merit
c. 10 years b. Superiority
d. 20 years c. Time-In-Grade
831. . It also referred to as Monthly Retirement Benefits d. Age
(MRB). 841. . In availing of early retirement, one must have
a. lump sum rendered continuous service of-
b. pension a. 10 years
c. gratuity c. 15 years

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 b. 20 years 850. . What is the benefit derived by a PNP officer
d. 25 years qualified for early retirement?
842. . What is the length of service before a PNP a. two ranks higher
member would be qualified for optional b. one rank higher
retirement? c. his present rank
a. 5 years d. one year gratuity
b. 10 years 851. . Who shall attest the appointment of PNP officers?
c. 15 years a. Civil Service Commission
d. 20 years b. Congress
843. . A promotion by virtue of exhibited act of courage c. Commission of Appointment
and extra-ordinary gallantry beyond the call of duty d. NAPOLCOM
is called- 852. . Police Junior Leadership Course is intended for
a. Regular PNP members who want to be promoted to-
b. Permanent a. SPO4
c. Temporary b. SPO1
d. Meritorious c. SPO3
844. . Refers to a location where the search, which is d. PO3
duly authorized by the PNP, is conducted to 853. . The 1987 Philippine Constitution provides that the
deter/prevent the commission of crimes, enforce State shall establish and maintain one police for
the law, and for other legitimate purposes. which shall be-
a. Clear Zone a. national in scope
b. Public Place b. civilian in scope
c. Police Checkpoint c. national in character
d. Pre-Determined Area
d. military in character
845. . It is the brief stopping of an individual, whether on
854. . What is the meaning of PPSC?
foot or in a vehicle, based on reasonable
a. Phil. Public Safety Course
suspicion/probable cause, for the purpose of
b. Phil. Private Safety College
determining the individual’s identity and resolving
c. Phil. Public Safety College
the officer’s suspicion concerning criminal activity.
d. Phil. Private Safety Course
a. Frisking
855. .The mandatory training required for promotion to
b. Search
the rank of Police Superintendent is called-
c. Spot Check
a. MNSA
d. Pat-down Search
b. OSEC
846. . A promotion granted to PNP personnel who dies
c. MPSA
while in the performance of duty is called-
d. Master’s Degree
a. Regular
856. . He is the first Chief of the Philippine
b. Posthumous
Constabulary?
c. Temporary
a. Capt. Henry T. Allen
d. None of them
b. Gen. Rafael Crame
847. . Under the lateral entry program in the PNP, a
c. Col. Lamberto Javalera
criminologist who applied and selected will have
d. Capt. Columbus Piatt
the initial rank of -
857. .It is an association or group of individuals with a
a. Senior Inspector
common goal.
b. Inspector
a. Police organization
c. SPO4
b. Law enforcement group
d. Chief of Inspector
c. Non-government organization
848. . The appointment of Police Inspectors up to Police
d. Organization
Superintendent is vested in the-
858. . Who is the Father of Modern Policing System?
a. Chief, PNP
a. Edwin Sutherland
b. President
b. Emile Durkhiem
c. Civil Service Commission
c. Sir Robert Peel
d. NAPOLCOM
d. Leonard Keeler
849. . When can the President extend the tenure of
859. .Who is the first Chief of Police of Manila?
service of the Chief, PNP?
a. Capt. George Curry
a. after 4 years
b. Capt. Henry Allen
b. there is no successor
c. Capt. Columbus Piatt
c. during martial law
d. Capt. Howard Taft
d. national emergencies
860. . Rape punished under RPC is crime against _____.

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 a. chastity c. nine
b. passion d. twelve
c. person 870. . Generally, PNP promotions are subject to the
d. mankind confirmation of the:
861. . What is given to a PNP member for every 5 years a. Civil Service Commission
of satisfactory service rendered? b. NAPOLCOM
a. promotion c. Commission on Appointment
b. longevity pay d. President of the Phil.
c. additional allowance 871. . The number 4 man in the PNP organization is the -
d. retirement benefits a. Dep. Dir. Gen for Opns
862. . What is the lowest administrative penalty? b. Dep. Dir Gen for Adm
a. reprimand c. The Chief Directorial Staff
b. admonition d. Regional Director of the NCR
c. restriction 872. . The National Appellate Board Office of the
d. forfeiture of pay NAPOLCOM is located in what city?
863. .Citizen’s complaint may be brought before the a. Quezon City
Chief of Police, City or Municipal Mayors and b. City Of Manila
_______. c. Mandaluyong City
a. Chief, PNP d. Makati City
b. Provincial Director 873. . Police Senior Superintendents are appointed by-
c. Regional Director a. Chief, PNP
d. PLEB b. Secretary, DILG
864. . Decision the Chief, PNP in administrative cases c. President of the Phil.
where the penalty is dismissal, demotion and d. Chairman, NAPOLCOM
forced resignation may be appealed before this 874. . The law that merges the police and Philippine
body. Constabulary into the PC-INP is-
a. Regional Appellate Board a. R.A. 7659
b. Office of the President b. R.A. 6975
c. National Appellate Board c. R.A. 8551
d. Chairman, NAPOLCOM d. P.D. 765
865. . Which of the following composed the PNP? 875. . How many deputies do the PNP consist?
a. members of the INP a. one
b. members of the PC b. three
c. members of the PNP c. two
d. all of the choices d. four
866. .What is the rank of the Chief Directorial Staff? 876. . How many police Regional Offices (PRO) are there
a. Deputy Director General in the PNP Organization?
b. Police Director a. fourteen
c. Police Chief Superintendent b. sixteen
d. Police Senior Superintendent c. Fifteen
867. . The kind of promotion granted to a candidate who d. Seventeen
meets all the basic qualification for promotion is 877. . The Performance Evaluation Rating in the PNP is
termed- done how many times per year?
a. special a. once
b. meritorious b. thrice
c. regular c. twice
d. ordinary d. four
868. . It is the mandatory training course for SPO4 878. . MNSA or Master’s in National Security
before they can be promoted to the rank of Police Administration is offered and administered by an
Inspector. institution known as-
a. Officer’s Basic Course a. PPSC
b. Officer’s Advance Course b. NAPOLCOM
c. Officer’s Candidate Course c. National Defense Office
d. Senior Leadership Course d. National Defense College
869. . How many Staff Directorates are there in the PNP 879. . The mandatory training course needed to be
National Office (NHQ-PNP)? promoted to SPO1 and SPO2 is called-
a. eleven a. Police Basic Course
b. ten b. Junior Leadership Course

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 c. Senior Leadership Course on matters involving insurgency and other
d. Officers Candidate Course serious treats to national security.
880. . The administrative support unit in charge of b. The PNP is relieved of the primary role
towards insurgency and other serious treats
delivering the necessary supplies and materials to
to national security.
all PNP units in the field is called- c. The PNP shall provide assistance to the AFP
a.Finance Service in insurgency-affected areas.
b.Logistics Support Service d. All of the choices
c.Computer Service 889. . The procedure which is intended to be used in
d.Communications & Electronics Svc situations of all kinds and outlined as guide and by
881. . The highest ranking Police Non-Commissioned men in the field operations relative to reporting,
Officer is- dispatching, raids, arrest and investigation refers to
a. SPO2 a. Field Procedure
b. SPO4 b. Time Specific plan
c. SPO3 c. Problem oriented plan
d. Headquarters procedure
d. Inspector
890. . The term of office of the Chief PNP shall be for a
882. . How many stars are there in the rank of Police
period ______?
Director?
a. Not exceeding four years.
a. one
b. Not exceeding five years.
b. three
c. Not exceeding six years.
c. two
d. Not exceeding three years.
d. four
891. . The law that empowered the police commission
883. . The Republic Act that is also known as the DILG
to conduct entrance and promotional examination
Act of 1990 that established the PNP under the
for police members refers to:
DILG is-
a. RA 6040
a. Republic Act Nr. 6975
b. RA 157
b. Republic Act Nr. 7659
c. RA 5487
c. Republic Act 8551
d. PD 765
d. Presidential Decree 765
892. . The theory of police service which states those
884. . In the history of our police force, who was the first
police officers are servants of the people or the
Director General of the Philippine National Police
community refers to:
(PNP)?
a. Old
a. Gen. Cesar Nazareno
b. Home rule
b. Gen. Raul Imperial
c. Gen. Umberto Rodriquez c. Modern
d. Gen. Recaredo Sarmiento d. Continental
885. . The primary objective of Philippine National 893. . Dr. WWW is a Doctor of Philosophy; he opted to
Police: join the Philippine National Police. What would be
a. Law Enforcement his initial rank upon entry?
b. Peace and Order a. Senior Inspector
c. Protect and Serve b. Chief Inspector
d. Crime Prevention c. Inspector
886. . The national headquarters of the PNP is located in d. none of the choices
Quezon City. It was named after the 1 st Filipino 894. . The following are functions in a police
Chief of the Philippine Constabulary. organization, EXCEPT:
a. Rafael Palma a. primary functions
b. Cesar Nazareno b. administrative functions
c. Rafael Crame c. secondary functions
d. Emilio Aguinaldo d. auxiliary functions
887. . Richard Aldenjoined the PNP in 1996. He was 30 895. . If the external patting of the suspect’s clothing
years old then. What year can Alden retire? fails to disclose evidence of a weapon the next
a. 2017 procedure of the Patrol officer is:
b. 2031 a. Conduct a complete search.
c. 2032 b. The Patrol officer shall arrest the suspect.
d. 2022 c. No further search may be made.
888. . The Role of the PNP on matters involving the d. Turnover the suspect to the immediate
suppression of insurgency and serious treats to supervisor.
national security? 896. . He is known as the father of modern policing
a. The AFP operating through the area system?
commander is the one primarily responsible a. August Vollmer

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 b. Robert Peel 905. . It is defined as the determination in advance of
c. Oliver Cromwell how the objectives of the organization will be
d. Cesare Lombroso attained.
897. . When responding to call for police assistance due a. planning
to planted or found explosives, what immediate b. Advancement
actions should the patrol officer will do? c. police planning
a. Scrutinize the item if it is an explosive or not. d. Development
b.Dispose the item immediately to avoid further 906. . It is the premier educational institution for the
injury to happen. training, human resource development and
c.Never attempt to handle, call for Explosive continuing education of all personnel of the PNP,
Ordinance Disposal Team. BFP, and BJMP.
d.Call to the Tactical Operation Center for proper a. PPSC
procedure to be followed, after investigating the b. RTS
item. c. PNPA
898. . Captain Matako is a commissioned officer of the d. NPC
Armed Forces of the Philippines. What is his 907. . It is the central receiving entity for any citizen’s
equivalent rank in the PNP? complaint against the police officers.
a. Inspector a. IAS
b. Chief Inspector b. PNP
c. Senior Inspector c. PLEB
d. Superintendent d. NAPOLCOM
899. . How many Deputy Director General ranks are 908. . The provincial governor shall choose the provincial
there in the PNP? director from a list of _____ eligible’s
a. 1 recommended by the PNP regional director:
b. 3 a. six
c. 2 b. Five
d. 4 c. Three
900. . The highest rank in the BJMP is __________. d. four
a. Four star general 909. . The deployment of officers in a given community,
b. Director area or locality to prevent and deter criminal
c. Chief Superintendent activity and to provide day-to-day services to the
d. Director General (PNP) community.
901. . What is the minimum police-to-population ratio? a. Patrol
a. 1:1000 b. Beat Patrol
b. 1:1500 c. Line Patrol
c. 1:500 d. Area Patrol
d. 1:7 910. . The head of the IAS shall have a designation of
902. . The fourth man in command of the PNP is the ____________?
__________. a. Director General
a. DDG for operation b. Solicitor General
b. Chief, Directorial Staff c. Inspector General
c. DDG for administration d. IAS General
d. Chief, PNP 911. . As per the requirement of R.A. 6975, there should
903. . Which of the following is NOT included in the be how many PLEB for every 500 police personnel?
powers and function of the PNP? a. one (1)
a. enforce all laws and ordinances b. more than one
b. maintain peace and order c. at least one
c. investigate and prevent crimes d. less than one
d. prosecute criminal offenders 912. . If you are the patrolman on beat, what would be
904. . The word “police” was derived from the Greek the immediate things to do when accident occur?
word _______, which means government of the a. Cordon the area
city. b. Go away and call your superior
a. politia c. Bring the victim to the nearest hospital
b. Polis d. Chase the criminal and Arrest him
c. politeia 913. . Detective Beat System is one of the concrete
d. Policy responses of the PNP in reinventing the field of
investigation. Who is the NCRPO Chief who
introduces this DBS?

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 a. Dir. Alma Jose 921. . SPO1 Last and SPO2 First report to the same
b. Dir. Romeo Pena supervisor. This is the principle of __________:
c. Dir. Sonny Razon a. delegation of authority
d. Dir. Rene Sarmiento b. span of control
914. . All of the following are members of the People’s c. unity of command
d. chain of command
Law Enforcement Board, EXCEPT:
922. . The maximum tenure of office of the Chief of PNP
a. Three (3) members chosen by the Peace and
or the Director General of the PNP is;
Order Council from among the respected
members of the community a. 4 years
b. Any barangay captain of the b. 56 years
city/municipality concerned chosen by the c. 5 years
association of barangay captains d. 21 years
c. Any member of the Sangguniang Panglunsod 923. . In police parlance, “S.O.P.” stands for?
d. A bar member chosen by the Integrated Bar
a. standard operation procedures
of the Philippines
b. special operation procedures
915. . Two or more persons forming an organization
c. standard operating procedures
must identify first the reason for establishing such
d. special operating procedures
organization. They must identify the organization’s
924. . The following are the characteristics of a good
_________:
plan, except:
a. strategy
a. Flexibility
b.mission
b. specific
c.vision
c. Clear
d. objective
d. expensive
916. . To improve delegation, the following must be
925. . If the annual quota for the year 2013 is 1200. How
done, EXCEPT:
many of the annual quota is allocated for women?
a. establish objectives and standards
b. count the number of supervisors a.10%
c. require completed work b.120
d. define authority and responsibility c.100
917. . The number of subordinates that can be d.200
supervised directly by one person tends to: 926. . Waivers for initial appointment in the PNP may be
a. Increase as the physical distance between waived in the following order:
supervisor and subordinate as well as a. age, height, weight & education
between individual subordinate increases b. age, weight, height & education
b. Decrease with an increase in the knowledge c. height, education, weight & age
and experience of the subordinate d. in any order
c. Increase as the level of supervision progresses 927. . It is the downsizing of PNP personnel on the basis
for the first line supervisory level to the
provided by law.
management level
d. All of the above a. attrition
918. . This means controlling the direction and flow of b. separation
decisions through unity of command from top to c. romotion
bottom of organization: d. Retirement
a. Audit 928. . The age requirement for new PNP applicants must
b. Coordination not be less than twenty-one (21) years of age. The
c. Monitoring Maximum age requirement for PNP applicants
d. Authority using the lateral entry program is ____.
919. . Which of the following statements is true: a. 35 years old
a.Performance evaluation measures credibility b. 25 years old
of the police c. 30 years old
b.Performance evaluation is not a basis for d. 31 years old
salary increases or promotion 929. . A Field training Program for all PNP uniformed
c.Performance evaluation is done once a year members is required for permanency of their
among police personnel
appointment. Who among the following is
d.Performance evaluation is implemented to
determine the quality of work performance exempted to undergo the Field Training Program
of personnel and issued a permanent appointment?
920. . The NAPOLCOM is an attached agency to the DILG a. Pastor Jayson Lopez, who is appointed
for _______: Sr. Inspector via Lateral entry.
a. Administrative control b. Atty. Rose Camia, who is appointed Sr.
b. Operational supervision Inspector via Lateral entry.
c. Administration and control
d. Policy and program coordination
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 c. Ryan, A PNPA graduate who is appointed 937. . Under the waiver program, who among the
Inspector after graduation. following PNP applicants is the least priority for
d. Bruno Sikatuna a Licensed Criminologist appointment?
and First Place in the Examination. a. maine who just earned 72 units in college b.
930. . Planning as a management function is to Paloma who is under height
be done in the various levels of PNP c. Jauquinwho is underweight
Organization. Broad policy based from laws d. Alden who is overage
directives, policies and needs in general is the 938. . Republic Act 6975 is otherwise known
responsibility of: as____________.
a. Directorate for Plans a.Department of Interior and Local Government Act
b. President of the Philippines of 1990
c. Chief, PNP b.Department of the Interior and Local Government
d. Dep. Dir. For Administration Act of 1990
931. . What is the rank equivalent of PNPDeputy c.Department of Interior and the Local Government
Director General in the Armed Forces of the Act of 1990
Philippines? d.Department of the Interior and the Local
a. Lt. General Government Act of 1990
b. Major General 939. . SPO3 Manny Weather receives 27, 690.00
c. Brigade General base pay since he was promoted. After five years
d. General from promotion, what would be his monthly base
932. . The Philippine National Police will recruit pay after adding his longevity pay?
500 new policemen on April 2013 to fill up its a. 32, 690.00
quota. Who among the following applicants is b. 37, 690.00
qualified to apply? c. 30, 459.00
a. Alden who was born on April 24, 1978 d. 31, 549.00
b. Maine who was born on November 22, 1980 940. . Decisions rendered by the national IAS
c. Vice who was born on March 17, 1993 shall be appealed to the__________:
d. Plastillas who was born on August 10, 1991 a. Regional Appellate Board
933. . Police Inspector Katunggali joined the b. National Appellate Board
Philippine National Police on October 1, c. People’s Law Enforcement Board
1988.Nevertheless, he want to pursue his career as d. National Police Commission
embalmer, he decided to file an optional retirement 941. . It is known as the Professionalization act of 1966.
so that he could enjoy benefits of the gratifying PNP a. R.A. 4864
which he served with extreme commitment and b. R.A. 8551
loyalty. When does Mark Espinosa can retire? c. Act 175
a. October 5, 1998 d. PD 765
b. October 6, 1999 942. .__________ is given to any PNP member who has
c. September 5, 2010 exhibited act of conspicuous and gallantry at the
d. September 5, 2008 risk of his life above and beyond the call of duty.
934. . Which of the following administrative A. Meritorious Promotion
penalties is immediately executory? B. Special Promotion
a. Dismissal C. Regular Promotion
b. Forfeiture of pay D. On-the-Spot Promotion
c. Suspension 943. .PNP members under the waiver program but is
d. Death penalty dismissed for failure to comply with the
935. . It is the third in command in the Philippine requirements can re-apply to the PNP?
National Police: A. Maybe Yes
a. Regional Director B.Maybe No
b. Chief Directorial Staff C..Absolutely Yes
c. DeputyChief for Administrationd. D.Absolutely No
d. Deputy Chief for Operation 944. .The reason why police officer appears in court as a
936. . The head of the National Capital Regional witness has to be in complete uniform is to show
Police Office shall assume the position of NCR his respect to the court and to his:
director with the rank of: A.Position/Rank
a. Chief Superintendent B.Superior
b. Director C.Profession
c. Superintendent D.Comrades
d. General

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 945. .Which among the following is NOT subjected to avoid work if they can and that they inherently
field Operational Plans? dislike work. As a result of this, management
A.Patrol believes that workers need to be closely supervised
B.Records and comprehensive systems of controls developed.
C.Investigation A.Hawthorne Effect
D. Traffic B.Stockholm Syndrome
946. . Which of the following statement is not true C.X theory
D.Y theory
about patrol?
954. .This kind of organizational structure classifies
A.It is the backbone of the police department
people according to the function they perform in
B.It is the essence of police operation
their professional life or according to the functions
C.It is the single largest unit in the police department
performed by them in the organization.
that can be eliminated
A.Functional Structure
D.It is the nucleus of the police department
B.Line and Staff Structure
E.It is the operational heart of the police department
C.Line Structure
947. .The performance evaluation system in the PNP is
D.Divisional Structure
conducted:
955. .If the offense is punishable for a period of not
A.thrice a year
exceeding 30 days but not less than 16 days, the
B. Every 6 months
citizen’s complaint against erring PNP member shall
C.Every 2 years
be filed at the
D. Quarterly
A.Office of the chief of police
948.. A PNP member who acquired permanent physical B.PLEB
disability in the performance of his dutyand unable C.Mayor’s Office
to further perform his duty shall be entitled to a D. any of the choices
lifetime pension equivalent to: 956. .Monthly retirement benefits or pay shall be ___ of
A50% of his last salary the base pay and longevity pay of the retired grade
B. 70% of his last salary in case of 20 years active service
C.60% of his last salary A.50%
D. 80% of his last salary B.10%
949. . How many successive annual ratingperiods before C.2.5%
D.55%
a police officer may be separated due to
957. .This type of plan is intended for specific purpose
inefficiency or poor performance?
such as drug crackdown, crime prevention
A.2
program, or neighborhood clean-up campaign. It
B.4
C.3 concludes when the objective is accomplished or
D.1 the problem is solved
A.Strategic plan
950. . How many cumulative annual ratingperiods B.Time Specific plan
before a police officer may be separated due to C.Problem oriented plan
inefficiency or poor performance? D.time bound operational plan
A.2 958. .This type of plan is intended to guide PNP
B.4 members on routine and field operations and some
C.3 special operations
D.1 A.Strategic plan
951. .In this theory, management assumes employees B.Time Specific plan
may be ambitious and self-motivated and exercise C.Problem oriented plan
self-control. It is believed that employees enjoy D. policy or procedural plan
their mental and physical work duties. 959. .The head of the NCR shall have the rank of_____?
A.Hawthorne Effect A.Superintendent
B.Stockholm Syndrome B. Director
C.X theory C.Senior Superintendent
D.Y theory D. Chief Superintendent
952. .The theory X and Y is a human motivation created 960. . The institution of a criminal action or complaint
by? against a police officer is
A.Edward H. Sutherland A.A ground for dismissal
B.C. Edwin Hawthorne B.Not qualified for promotion
C.Henry A. Landsberger C.Automatically dismiss
D.Douglas McGregor D.Not a bar to promotion
953. In this theory, which has been proven counter- 961. .Refers to the utilization/use of units or elements of
effective in most modern practice, management the PNP for the purpose of protection of lives and
assumes employees are inherently lazy and will properties, enforcement of laws, maintenance of

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 peace and order, prevention of crimes, arrest of D.chain of custody
criminals and bringing the offenders to justice 970. .It is considered to be the heart of any identification
A.Deployment system; it provides positive identification of the
B.Reinforcement criminal
C.Reintegration A.Arrest and booking report
D.Employment B.Miscellaneous Records
962. . What is the first step in making a plan? C.Identification record
A.Frame of reference D.Fingerprint Records
B.Analyzing the Facts 971. .The payment of Missing Uniformed Personnel’s
C.Collecting all pertinent data monthly salary and allowances for the heirs is for a
D.Identification of the problems maximum of how many year?
963. .It identify the role of police in the community and
A.1 year
future condition in state B. 2 months
A.Visionary Plans C. 4 years
B.Strategic Plans
C.Synoptic Planning D.2 years
D.Incremental Planning 972. .In Supervisory Training, a minimum of _____
964. .Is that field of management which involves number of hours of classroom training should be
planning, and controlling the efforts of a group of required for newly promoted supervisory personnel
individuals toward achieving a common goal with A.72 hours
maximum dispatch and minimum use of B.80 hours
administrative resources. C.75 hours
A.Human Resources D.85 hours
B.Personnel Management 973. .It should be proactive, people oriented, based on
C.Human Management individual need, and delivered in such a way as to
D.Personnel Administration motivate the experienced officer Higher dgreee of
965. . Is the process of developing methods or professionalism/
procedure or an arrangement of parts intended to Professionalization.
facilitate the accomplishment of a definite A.Recruit Training
objective. B.Specialized training
A.Management C.In Service
B.Functioning D.Field Training
C.Budgeting 974. . When an officer reaches the time-in-grade
D.Planning possessing the entire mandatory and other
966. . Are guidelines for action to be taken under consideration in promotion, is what kind of
specific circumstances and details with the promotion?
following procedures. A.Promotion by Virtue of Position
A.Field Procedures B. Regular Promotion
B.Procedural plan C.Meritorious Promotion
C.Operational Plans D. Promotion
D.Functional plan 975. .It involves assistance and action by non police
967. . Which of the following is not a function of police agencies such as Local Safety Council for Traffic
personnel unit? Division, DSWD for Child/Juvenile Delinquency, or
A.Preparing policy statements and standard Disaster Preparedness plans and Civil defense plans
operating Procedures relating to all areas of the
A.Management Plans
administration of human resources
B.Procedural plan
B.Serves as an adviser to the chief and other line
C.Tactical Plans
officials regarding personnel matters
D. Extra departmental plan
C.Conducts exits interviews with resigning officers
976. . Refers to the distinctive physical device of metal
to identify, and subsequently correct,
unsatisfactory working conditions and ribbon, which constitute the tangible evidence
D. Establish criteria for promotion to the exclusive of an award:
ranks A.Medal
968. .It refers to the process of screening out or B. Awards
eliminating undesirable applicants that do not meet C.Decorations
the organization’s selection criteria
D.Ribbons
A. Promotion Recruitment
B.Transfer Selection 977. .For every _______ letters of commendation, a
C.Recruitment medalya ng papuri may be awarded to nay PNP
D.Selection member:
969. .It is recognized as the best method of filing A.Six
A.Pigeon Hole B. Four
B.retrieval operation
C.Records Management
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 C.Five D. Relative security
D. Three 986. .Private security agencies have to be registered
978. .Imports an act of cruelty, severity, unlawful with the:
exaction, domination, or excessive use of authority: A.SEC
A.Misconduct B.DTI
B. Dishonesty C.PADPAO
C.Incompetency D. PNP, SAGSD
D. Oppression 987. .To deny outsiders from visual access in a certain
979..The operational support unit of the PNP shall facility what must be constructed.
function as a mobile strike force or reaction unit to A.Full view fence
augment police forces for civil disturbance control, B. Chain link fence
counter-insurgency, hostage taking, rescue C. Solid fence
operations and other special operations: D. Multiple fences
A.NARCOM 988. . A private security Guard who is escorting a big
B. SAF amount of money or cash outside his area of
C.SWAT jurisdiction shall be issued with a-
D. SOCO A.Firearms
980. .The organizational structure of the PNP is B. Mission Order
__________. C.Duty Detail Order
A.Line D. None of These
B. functional 989. .What is the duration of the Basic Security Guard
C.staff Course?
D. line and staff A. 150 Hours
981. . As a General Rule, High powered firearms are not B. 72 Hours
allowed to possess except when there is an upsurge C. 48 Hours
of lawlessness and criminality as determined by D. 300 Hours
proper authority, but shall not exceed ______ of 990. .All except one are the line leadership staff:
the total number of security guards. A.Detachment Commander
A.50% B.Post-in-Charge
B. 20% C.Chief Inspector
C.30% D.Security Supervisor 1
D. 10% 991. . Barbed wire fences standard wire is twisted,
982. . The vault door should be made of steel at least double strand, 12 gauge wire with 4 point barbs
__________ in thickness? spaces in an equal part. Barbed wire fencing should
A.7 inches not be less than ___ high excluding the top guard.
B. 9 inches A.8 feet
C.6 inches B.7 feet
D. 20 feet or more C.9 feet
983. . An act or condition, which results in a situation D. 6 feet
conducive to a breach of the protection system, or 992. . Who exercises the power to remove, for cause,
that, could result to loss. license issued to security guards.
A.Hazards A. Any of the choices
B. Environmental Hazards B. Chairman, NAPOLOCOM
C.Natural Hazards C. Secretary, DILG
D. Security Hazards D. C/PNP
984. .An inquiry into the character, reputation, 993. .What type of alarm is best suited for doors and
discretion, integrity, morals and loyalty of an windows?
individual in order to determines person suitability A. Photoelectric
for appointment or access to classified matter. B. Metallic foil
A.Character Investigation C. Audio detection
B.Physical Investigation D. Microwave Detection
C.Background Investigation 994. .Is the process of conducting physical examination
D. Personnel Security Investigation to determine compliance with establishment
985. .The importance of the firm or installation with security policies and procedures?
reference to the national economy security A. Security Education
A.Relative vulnerability B. Security Survey
B. Relative program C. Security Planning
C.Relative criticality D. Security Inspection

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 995. . Is a corporate and executive responsibility, B. Vault
involving the knowledge of the objectives of the C. File room
security and the means and the method to reach D. None of these
these objective or goal must then involve. 1003. .Chain link fences must be constructed
A. Security Inspection in______ material excluding the top guard?
B. Security Hazards a. Seven feet
b. Six feet
c. Four feet
C. Security Planning d. Five feet
D. Security Survey
996. . A mechanical, electrical, hydraulic or electronic 1004. .The following things are used as barrier,
device designed to prevent entry into a building, which serves as a deterrent to the possible
room container, or hiding place, and to prevent the intruder in an Industrial Complex, EXCEPT:
removal of items without the consent of the owner a. Human
b. Fences
A .Padlocks
c. Doors
B. Locks d. Concertina
C. Code Operated 1005. .Vaults are storage devices which are
D. Lever Locks usually designed to be at least _______fire
997. . A type of protective alarm system where the resistant.
central station located outside the installation. a. 3 hours
When the alarm is sounded, it will notifies the b. 24hours
c. 6hours
police and other agency
d. 12 hours
A. Local Alarm system 1006. . A lock which is commonly installed in safe
B. Auxiliary System deposit boxes and is deemed pick proof since it is
C. Central Station System operated by utilizing combinations by means of a
D. Proprietary dial.
998. . It is placed on the floor in such a position that a. Lever locks
tellers may activate the alarm by placing the front b. Combination lock
c. Padlock
of their foot to engage the activation bar
d. Code operated locks
A. Bill traps 1007. . The maximum number of firearms allowed
B. Foot Rail Activator to possess by a PSA should not exceed by___
C. Knee or Thigh Buttons units.
D. Foot buttons a. 30
999. These are wide beam units, used to extend the b. 70
c. 500
illumination in long, horizontal strips to protect the
d. 1000
approaches to the perimeter barrier; it projected a
1008. .What type of gaseous discharge lamp emits
narrow, horizontal and from 15 to 30 degrees in a blue- green color?
the vertical plane a. Sodium vapor lamp
A. Fresnel Lights b. Incandescent lamp
B. Street Lights c. Mercury vapor lamp
C. Floodlights d. Quartz lamp
1009. .What type of security deals with the
D.Search lights
industrial plants and business enterprises where
1000. . What is the required capital investment personnel, processes, properties and operations
for organization of private security agency? are safeguarded?
A. P 500,000 a. Personnel security
B. B. P 100,000 b. industrial security
C. P 1,000,000 c. Physical security
D. P 50,000 d. bank security
1010. .The following are principles of Physical
1001. . One who steals with preconceived plans
Security, EXCEPT:
and takes away any or all types of items or a. There is impenetrable Barrier.
supplies for economic gain? b.Surreptitiously and non-surreptitiously entry.
A. Normal Pilferer c.Defense is depth - barrier after barrier.
B. Regular Pilferer d.Intelligence requires continuous security
C. Casual Pilferer measures.
D. Systematic pilferer 1011. . The susceptibility of a plant or
establishment to damage, loss or disruption of
1002. . The metallic container used for securing
operations due to various hazards.
documents or small items in an office or a. Relative vulnerability
installation refers to: b. Relative criticality
A. Safe c. Relative susceptibility

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 d. Relative security d. 1:1
1012.. Security Clearance is a certification by a 1020. .What type of gaseous discharge lamp is
responsible authority that the person described is useful in areas where insects predominate?
cleared to access and classify matters at a. Mercury vapor lamp
appropriate levels. Interim clearance will remain b. Quartz lamp
valid for a period of____ from the date of c. Sodium vapor Lamp
issuance. d. Gaseous Discharge Lamp
a. 1 year 1021. . What is an act governing the organization
b. 4 years and management of private security agency,
c. 2 years company guard force and government security
d. 5 years forces?
1013. . The tenure of a security guard is: a. RA 8574
a. Six Months b. RA 5478
b. Co-terminus with the service contract c. RA 4587
c. Two years d. RA 5487
d. Contractual 1022. .Wire fencing can be barbed wire, chain link
1014. . Which among the following is not an or concertina. Chain link are for ______.
advantage of a full-view fence, except: a. Solid structure
a.It allows visual access to the installation which aids b. Least permanent structure
the intruder in planning. c. Permanent structure
b.It allows the intruder to become familiar with d. Semi- permanent structure
.the movements of persons in the installation 1023. it is more comprehensive investigation than the
c.It creates shadows which could prevent NAC & LAC since it includes thorough and complete
concealment of the intruder. investigation of all or some of the circumstances or
d.None of these aspects of a person’s life is conducted?
1015. .Every registered PSA are mandatory to give a. Personnel Security Investigation
surety bond which shall answer for any valid and b. Partial Background Investigation
legal claims against such agency filed by aggrieved c. Background Investigation
party. How much is the Surety bond of PSA with d. Complete Background Investigation
500-799 guards. 1024.The unobstructed area maintained on both
a. 50, 000 sides of a perimeter barrier on the exterior and
b. 100, 000 interior parallel area to afford better observation of
c. 150, 000 the installation refers to:
d. 200,00 a. Clear zone
1016. . What type of investigation involves all b. Complimentary zone
aspect and details about the circumstances of a c. Open zone
person? d. Free zone
a. partial background investigation 1025.The extension period for a license to operate
b. completebackground investigation issued upon a PSA that lacks the required minimum
c. personnel security investigation number of guards is:
d. national agency check a. 1 month
1017. . The exposure and the teaching of b. 6 months
employees on security and its relevance to their c. 2 years
work is: d. 1 year
a.Security Inspection 1026.Which of the following types of lock is
b.Security Education generally used in car doors?
c.Security Orientation a. Warded lock
d.Security Survey b. Lever lock
1018..A type of security which provides sufficient c. Disc tumbler lock
illumination to areas during hours of darkness d. Combination lock
a. Protective Lighting 1027. PADPAO stands for:
b. Fresnel Lights a. Philippine Association of Detective and
c. Search Lights Protective Agency Operators, Inc.
d. Street Lights b. Philippine Alliance of Detective and Protective
1019. . Type of alarm system which is usually Agency Operators, Inc.
activated by the interruption of the light beam is c. Philippine Association of Detective and
known as: Protector Agency Operators, Inc.
a. Metallic foil d. Philippine Agencies of Detective and Protective
b. Electric eye device Associations Operators, Inc.
c. Audio alarm 1028. 1 It refers to a protection against any type of
d. Microwave alarm crime to safeguard life and assets by various
1023.What is the ratio of the security guard to their methods and device.
licensed firearm is needed after operating for six a. Physical Security
months. b. Perimeter Security
a. 1:3 c. Operational Security
b. 1:5 d. Security
c. 1:2
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 1029. . All except are the qualifications of a security 1039. . What is the system of natural or man- made
officer. barriers placed between the potential intruder
a. Has graduated from a Security Officer and the object, person and matter being
b. Training Course. protected?
c. Holder of Masters Degree. a. Communication security
d. Retired personnel of the PNP or AFP. b. Document security
e. Physically or mentally fit. c. Physical security
1030. .These provides access within the perimeter d. Barrier
barrier and should be locked and guarded.
a. Gates and Doors 1040. .The following are the purposes of Security
b. Side-Walk Elevator Survey, EXCEPT:
c. Utilities Opening a. To ascertain the present economic status
d. Clear Zones b. To determine the protection needed
1031. .A fact finding probe to determine a plant c. To make recommendations to improve the overall
adequacy and deficiency in all aspects of security
security, with the corresponding d. None of these
recommendation is:
a. security inspection 1041. . License to Operate (LTO) is a License Certificate
b. security education document which is issued by ____________
c. security training authorizing a person to engage in employing
d. security survey security guard or detective, or a juridical person
1032. . What unit of PNP handles the processing and to establish, engage, direct, manage or operate a
issuances of license for private security private detective agency.
personnel? a. Secretary of DILG
a. PNP SOSIA b. Security and Exchange Commission
b. PNP FED
c. PADPAO c. Chief, PNP
d. PNP SAGSD d. President
1033. . What is the most common type of human
hazard? 1042. . One of the specifications of a barbed wire fence
a. Sabotage is that the distances between strands will not
b. Pilferage exceed _______and at least one wire will be
c. Theft interlock vertical and midway between posts.
d. Subversion a. 3 inches
1034. . What is the security force maintained and b. 6 inches
operated by any private company/ corporation c. 4 inches
for its own security requirements? d. 7 inches
a. GSU
b. CSF 1043. .Clear Zone of _______ must be established
c. PSA between the perimeter barrier and structure
d. PD within the protected areas.
1035. . What type of controlled area requires highest a. 20 feet or more
degree of security? b. 40 feet or more
a. Limited c. 30 feet or more
b. Restricted d. 50 feet or more
c. Special
d. Exclusive 1044. .A heavily constructed fire and burglar resistance
1036. . What lock requires manipulation of parts container usually a part of the building structure
according to a predetermined combination code use to keep, and protect cash, documents and
of numbers? valuables materials.
a. Card- operated lock a. Vault
b. Combination lock b. Safe
c. Electromagnetic lock c. File Room
d. Card Operated d. None of these
1037. .What type of lamp emits bright white light?
a. Sodium vapor lamp 1045. . Juan Esperanza is a security guard, after his
b. Mercury vapor lamp Tour of Duty, what shall he do with his Firearm?
c. Incandescent lamp
d. Quartz lamp a. Return the Firearm for safekeeping in the
1038. . What type of security lighting is focused to the company’s Vault.
intruder while the guard remains in the b. Turnover to the next security guard on duty.
comparative darkness? c. Bring home the firearms for easy responses.
a. Controlled lighting d. Deposit the Firearm inside the drawer of the
b. Fresnel light guards table.
c. Emergency lighting
d. Glare- projection

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 1046. . Any physical structure whether natural or man- b. Integrated Patrol System
made capable of restricting, deterring or delaying c. Community Oriented Policing System
illegal or unauthorized access. d. Team Policing
a. Perimeter Fences 1055. Report prepared by the patrol officer upon
b. Wire Fences reaching the end of the line beat, and before
c. Moveable Barrier returning to the point of origin.
d. Barrier a. Patrol Report
1047. . A company owned protective alarm with unit in b.Situation Report
a nearest police station of fire department. c.Investigation Report
a. A. Proprietary Alarm d.Incident Report
b. Auxiliary Alarm
c. Central Alarm 1056. The ideal police response time is:
d. Security Alarm a. 3 minutes
1048. . It is Lighting equipment which produced b. 5 minutes
diffused light rather than direction beam. They c. 7 minutes
are widely used in parking areas d. 10 minutes
a. Street Lights
b. Search Lights 1057. Persons, Place, thing, situation or condition
c. Flood Lights possessing a high potential for criminal attack or
d. Fresnel Lights for the creation of problem necessitating a
demand for immediate police service:
a. Hazard
1049. . A portable and detachable lock having or sliding b. Opportunity
hasp which passes through a staple ring or the c. Perception of Hazard
like and is then made fast or secured. d. Police Hazard
a. Lock
b. Padlock 1058. The most expensive patrol method and gives the
c. Code Operated greatest opportunity to develop sources of
d. Card Operated information is:
a. Foot Patrol
1050. . It is a test for safe’ to determine if the sudden b. Marine Patrol
rise in temperature will not cause the safe to c. Mobile Patrol
rupture. If the safe can withstand 2000 d. Helicopter Patrol
0
F for 30 minutes without cracking or opening then it 1059. Walking closed to the building at night is a tactic
has passed the test. in patrol which makes the policemen less visible
a. Fire Endurance Test during the night. The primary purpose is:
b. Fire and Impact Test a. To surprise criminals in the act of committing
c. Burning Test a crime
d. Explain Hazard Test b. To have sufficient cover
c. To attract less attention
1051. . The following are phases of Security Education, d. For safety of the Patrol officer
EXCEPT:
a. Special Interview 1060. The following are included in the cause and
b. Security Seminar effect of team policing.
c. Security Promotion a. Reduce public fear on crime;
d. Training Conference b. lessen the crime rate;
c. Facilitate career development;
1052. . How is one classified if he steals primarily d. Diminish police morale; and
because of irresistible urge due to unexpected e. Improve police community relation.
opportunity and little chance of detection?
a. Systematic pilferer a. a, b, e
b. Ordinary pilferer b. c. a, b, d, e
c. Casual pilferer c.a, c, d, e
d. Unusual pilferer d. d. a, b, c, e
1061. This patrol tactic differs from traditional patrol
1053. Psychology of Omnipresence means______. methods in that patrol methods; patrol officers
a. Low Visibility perform specific predetermined preventive
b. High Visibility functions on a planned systematic basis:
c. Reactive a. Target Oriented Patrol
d. Proactive b. High-Visibility Patrol
c. Low-Visibility Patrol
1054. Its purpose is to provide the organizational and d. Directed deterrent Patrol
operational framework in truly affecting 1062. Small alleys like those in the squatter’s area can
mechanisms toward enhancing the efficiency and be best penetrated by the police through.
effectiveness of PNP investigational capability. a. Foot patrol
a. Detective Beat Patrol b. Bicycle patrol

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 c. Mobile patrol 1070. As a rule, moving vehicle shall not be fired upon,
d. Helicopter patrol except when its occupants pose imminent
1063. Integrated patrol system is the total system used danger of causing death or injury to the police
to accomplish the police visibility program of the officer or any other person, and that the use of
PNP. The Police officers in Police Community firearm does not create a danger to the public
Precincts render 24 hours duty with prescribed and outweighs the likely benefits of its non-use.
divisions of: In firing upon a moving vehicle, the following
a. 2 shifts parameters should be considered EXCEPT:
b. 4 shifts
c. 3 shifts a. Accessibility or the proximity of the
d. every other day shift. fleeing suspect/s with the police officer and other
persons.
1064. The objective of this Patrol is to reduce or totally b. The capability of the fleeing suspect/s to
prevent the desire of human being to commit harm in certainty the police officer or other
crime. persons
a. Preventive c. The intent of the fleeing suspect/s to
b. Proactive harm the police officer or other persons.
c. Reactive d. The kind of vehicle of the fleeing
d. High Visibility suspect/s to avoid traffic accident.

1065. Bicycle patrol has the combined advantage of 1071. When Patrol officer visually observe a weapon
________________ since they can be operated during pat-down search, a more secure search
very quietly and without attracting attention. position may be:
a. Mobility and wide area coverage. a. Standing position
b. Reduced speed and greater area covered. b. Lying Face down Position
c. Shorter travel time and faster response. c. Hands placed against a stationary object,
d. Mobility and stealth and feet spread apart.
d. All of these
1066. What is the most excellent method of Patrol in
San Juanico Bridge? 1096. The following are types of specialized patrol
a. Foot Patrol method except:
b. K-9 Patrol a. Marine Patrol
c. Automobile Patrol b. Air Patrol
d. Bicycle Patrol c. Canine Patrol
d. Foot Patrol
1072. A uniformed patrol officers work in generally
1067. When was the first automobile patrol initiated in judged by his-
the Philippines and the First Chief of the Mobile a. Knowledge of all problems in the community
patrol bureau of Manila Police Department was b. Residents developed good public relations
Isaias Alma Jose? c. Ability to keep his post free from crimes and minor
a. May 7, 1954 offenses
b. May 17, 1954 d. His capability to solve crimes that happened in his
c. May 14, 1957 area
d. March 10, 1917
1073. Can the Patrol officers disperse unlawful
1068. As a Patrol officer, when checking suspicious assemblies?
persons, places, buildings/ establishments and a. True
vehicles especially during night-time, be b. False
prepared to use your service firearm and c. Absolutely Yes d.
Flashlight should be- Absolutely No

a. Nearby the body, to have an easy searching of a 1074. This patrol tactic is designed to increase the
possible target. number of apprehension of law violator to
b. Tightly away from the body to avoid making you engage in certain types of crimes:
a possible target. a. Preventive Patrol
c. Close at hand to your firearm to threaten b. High-Visibility Patrol
possible adversary. c. Low-Visibility Patrol
a. None of these d. Proactive Patrol

1069. What is your priority as a Patrol officer when 1075. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about
responding to Calls for Police Assistance? patrol?
a. Arrest criminals a. It is the backbone of the police department
b. Securing the area b. It is the essence of police operation
c. Aiding the injured c. It is the nucleus of the police department
d. Extort Money d.It is the single largest unit in the police
Department that can be eliminated

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 1083. A supervisor’s span of control is usually
1076. It is an immediate response to block the escape computed in terms of number of:
of lawless elements from a crime scene, and is a. Superiors to whom he reports
also established when nearby checkpoints are b. Superiors from whom he takes orders
ignored or during hot pursuit operations. It is set c. Subordinates directly reporting to him
up by police personnel conducting mobile patrol d. Any of these
on board a marked police vehicle, or those
conducting ISO and foot patrol operations within 1084. Frequent beat changes prevent a police officer
the vicinity/periphery of the national or from becoming _______ with people, hazards,
provincial highways. and facilities on his beat.
a. Dragnet Operation a. Well Acquainted
b. Hasty Checkpoint b. Sluggish
c. High-Risk Arrest c. Energetic
d. High Risk Stop d. Unfamiliar

1077. The following are patrol activities, except: 1085. The patrol pattern to be followed after the
A. Arrest of alleged criminals clockwise and before the counter-clockwise?
B. Responding to emergency calls a. Straightway
C. Inspection services b. Crisscross
D. Preparation of investigation reports c. Sector
d. Zigzag
1078. This type of patrol maintains better personal
contact with the members of the community 1086. The two-man patrol became_________ due to
ideal in gaining the trust and confidence of the increase attack of police officer by militant,
people to the police: dangerous section to be patrolled and many riots
A. Horse Patrol demonstration in the street.
B. Bicycle Patrol a. Unnecessary
C. Automobile Patrol b. Necessary
D. Foot Patrol c. Voluntary
d. Redundant
1079. The patrol pattern which is usually done at the
last hour of duty to ascertain that nothing 1087. A police strategy which aims to directly involve
happened in the area of responsibility of the members of the community in the maintenance
patrol officer is: of peace and order by police officers.
A. Clockwise pattern a. Integrated Police System
B. Zigzag pattern b. Comparative Police System
C. Counter clockwise pattern c. Detective Beat System
D. Crisscross pattern d. Community Oriented Policing System

1080. The following are the advantages of Foot Patrol. 1088. Which among the following routine patrol duties,
EXCEPT: is the least likely to become completely a
a. It involves larger number of personnel function of automobile patrol is the checking of-
b. It develops greater contact with the public a. Security of business establishment.
c. It insures familiarization of area b. Street light outrages.
d. It promotes easier detection of crime c. Roadway defects and damaged traffic signs.
D.llegalposting of signs and other advertisement.
1081. Dogs are of great assistance in search and rescue
as well as in smelling out drugs and bombs. What 1089. It is the most disadvantage of fixed post for
do you call the large dog with drooping ears and patrolmen in areas where police hazards are
sagging jaws and keenest smell among all dogs, serious is that, it usually-
formerly used for tracking purposes? a. Encourages laxness on the part of Patrolman.
a. German shepherd b. Lays the patrolman open to unwarranted charges.
b. Bloodhounds c. Wasteful of manpower.
c. Doberman pinscher d. Keeps the patrolman out of sight or hearing when
d. Black Labrador Retrievers quick mobilization is needed.
1090. Patrol weaken the potential offenders belief in
1082. The best method of patrol to be done in sector the-
is: a. Opportunity for graft.
a. Foot b. Existence of an opportunity to effectively violate
b. Automobile the law.
c. Bicycle c. Effectiveness of Police Administration.
d. Helicopter d. Police bureau’s willingness to use specialized
squads.

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 1091. Team Policing is said to be originated 1099. If the external patting of the suspect’s clothing
in________: fails to disclose evidence of a weapon the next
a. Aberdeen, Scotland procedure of the Patrol officer is:
b. Lyons, France a.Conduct a complete search.
c. Vienna. Austria b.The Patrol officer shall arrest the suspect.
d. London, England c. No further search may be made.
1092. They are considered as the first to utilize dogs for d.Turnover the suspect to the immediate
patrolling: supervisor.
a. Egyptians
b. English 1100. During Civil Disturbances, what may be utilized
c. Chinese when demonstrators become unruly and
d. American aggressive forcing troops to fall back to their
secondary positions?
1093. The patrol strategy which employs bait or a. Tear Gas
distracter to in order to catch criminals is known b. Water Cannon
as: c. Truncheon
a. High visibility patrol d. Shield
b. Blending patrol 1101. Going left while patrolling upon reaching every
c. Low visibility patrol intersection until reaching the point of origin is
d. Decoy patrol following what pattern?
a. Clockwise
1094. A wanted to commit suicide by jumping in a 14 h b. Zigzag
floor building. Which of the following should be c. Counter clockwise
the first thing to do by the Patrol officer who first d. Crisscross
arrived at the scene?
a. Urge no to jump 1102. All but one are the advantages of Bicycle Patrol:
b. Call nearest relative a. Can report regularly to the command center.
c. Clear the area b. Can operate quietly and without attracting
d. Report immediately to Station attention.
c. It is inexpensive to operate .
1095. What is the most realistic advantage of the d. It can cover areas that are not accessible by
motorcycle patrol over the other patrol patrol cars.
methods?
A. Low cost 1103. Its purpose is to provide the organizational and
B.Visibility operational framework in truly affecting
C. Speed mechanisms toward enhancing the efficiency and
D. Security effectiveness of PNP investigational capability.
1096. The basic purpose of patrol is most effectively a. Detective Beat Patrol
implemented by police activity which- b. Integrated Patrol System
c. COPS-Community Oriented Policing System
a. Provides for many types of specialized d. Team Policing
patrol, with less emphasis on routine.
b.Minimize the prospective lawbreaker 1104. The members of the Patrol teams shall form and
aspiration to commit crime. assemble at the police unit
c.Influences favorable individual and group headquarters at least _______ before the start of
attitudes in routine daily associations with the their shift for accounting-
police. a. 10 minutes
d. Intensifies the potential offender’s b. hour
expectation of apprehension. c. 30 minutes
1097. What is the new concept, police strategy which d. 15 minutes
integrates the police and community interests
into a working relationship so as to produce the 1105. The police must make an effort to ascertain and
desired organizational objectives of amaze upon the law abiding citizens and would
peacemaking? be criminals alike that the police are always
existing to respond to any situation at a
a. Preventive patrol moment’s notice and he will just around the
b. Directed Patrol corner at all times. This statement refers to:
c. Community Relation a. Police Omnipresence
d. Team policing b. Police Patrol
1098. What is the appropriate patrol method that is c. Police Discretion
most ideally suited to evacuation and search- d. Integrated Patrol
and-rescue operations? 1106. The patrol method characterized by speed and
a. Motorcycle mobility and considered as lest expensive as it
b. Automobile utilizes lesser number of men and covers a wider
c. Helicopter area in a short period of time, while protection
d. Horse to patrol officers:
a. Foot patrol
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 b. Motorcycle Patrol 1114. Police Patrols were restricted only to answering
c. Automobile Patrol calls of service.
d. Helicopter patrol a. Reactive
b. High Visibility
1107. Team members of the decoy may dress c. Proactive
themselves in a manner designed to help them d. Low Visibility
blend the neighborhood where they are
deployed. 1115. The first organized patrol for policing purposes
a. Absolutely False was formed in London. This patrol pattern is
b. Absolutely True usually done at the last hour of duty to ascertain
c. Absolutely Yes that nothing happened in the area of
d. Absolutely No responsibility of the patrol?
a. Straight
1108. “Personality clash is reduced”, it is the advantage b. Crisscross
of: c. Clockwise
a. One Man Patrol Car d. counter clockwise
b. Two Man Patrol Car
c. Foot Patrol 1116. Itis a “frisk” or external feeling of the outer
d. Canine Patrol garments of an individual for weapons only.
a. Frisking
1109. The least desirable of all police shifts due to lack b. Search
of activities: c. Spot Check
a. Afternoon Shift d. Pat-down Search
b. Morning Shift
c. Night Shift 1117. It is one by patrolling the streets within the
d. None of these perimeter of the beat not at random but with
definite target location where he knows his
1110. It refers to a patrol strategy directed towards presence is necessary.
specific persons or places: a. Target Oriented
a. Target Oriented Patrol b. Zigzag
b. High-Visibility Patrol c. Clockwise
c. Reactive Patrol d. Criss-Cross
d. Directed deterrent Patrol
1118. Foot patrol is the oldest form of patrol; the
1111. This patrol tactic differs from traditional patrol following are the advantages of Foot patrol,
methods in that patrol methods; patrol officers EXCEPT:
perform specific predetermined preventive
functions on a planned systematic basis: a. Easy to supervise and fix responsibility for action
a. Target Oriented Patrol taken.
b. High-Visibility Patrol b. It enables patrol officers to cover a considerable
c. Low-Visibility Patrol area
d. Directed deterrent Patrol c. Inspire more Public confidence.
d. The officer can actually get to know the physical
layout of his beat better.

1119. The word Patrol was derived from the French

word ________which means to go through
paddles.
1112. Refers to the actual stopping or accosting of a. Patroulier
armed and dangerous person or persons, aboard b. Patroul
a vehicle or on foot, including the power to use c. Politeia
all necessary and legal means to accomplish such d. Politia
end.
a. Dragnet Operation 1120. The concept of Unity of command is:
b. Hasty Checkpoint a. No one should have more than one boss.
c. High-Risk Arrest b. Arrangement of officers from top to bottom.
d. High Risk Stop c. Number of subordinates that a Superior can
effectively supervise.
1113. Which among the following activities during d.Conferring certain tasks, duties, and responsibilities
post-patrol or post-deployment phase is not to subordinates.
included?
a. Formation & Accounting 1121. Which among the following Patrol Method is
b. Debriefing/Report Submission appropriate when responding to quick
c. Inspection & recall of Equipment emergency call?
d. Briefing a. Motorcycle Patrol
b. Air Patrol

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 c. Automobile Patrol
d. Foot Patrol 1131. It refers to a repeated circuit of in guarding,
primarily to prevent the commission of crimes
1122. This patrol strategy is focused more on called for and maintain the peace and order situation in a
services particular area:
a. Reactive patrol a. Police Patrol
b. Directed deterrent patrol b. Preventive Patrol
c. Proactive patrol c. Foot Patrol
d. Blending patrol d. Patrol

1123. Before policemen become a dispatcher he must 1132. It is the primary objective of police patrol
be_______. operations:
a. Voice Radio Operator A.Crime Prevention
b. Trained Formally B.Protect and Serve
c. Licensed Dispatcher C.Law enforcement
d. Coordinator D. All of the choices

1124. Traditional foot patrolling in the Philippines was 1133. Doubling the level of routine patrol is a a. patrol
initiated on: strategy called:
a. August 10, 1917 a. Reactive Patrol
b. August 7, 1901 b. Directed Patrol
c. November 22, 1901 c. Preventive Patrol
d. March 17, 1901 d. Proactive Patrol

1125. What should be accomplished by Patrol officers 1134. If a patrol officer needs to respond to a crime
during Post-Deployment Phase? incident faster but undetected, then the best
a. Situation Report patrol method that he should employ is:
b. Citation Report a. Bicycle patrol
c. Daily Patrol Report b. Automobile patrol
d. Hourly Patrol Report c. Motorcycle patrol
d. Foot patrol
1126. This patrol tactic would result to improvement of
police omnipresence: 1135. In the anatomy of crime, this refers to the act of
a. Target Oriented Patrol a person that enables another to victimize him:
b. High-Visibility Patrol a. Instrumentality
c. Low-Visibility Patrol b. Opportunity
d. Directed deterrent Patrol c. Motive
d. Capability
1127. It is the most prevalent and economical method 1136. The factors to be considered in determining the
of patrol used in patrol force: number of patrol officers to be deployed in an
a. Foot Patrol area are the following, except:
b. Air Patrol a. Size of the area
c. Automobile Patrol b. Possible problems to be encountered
d. Motorcycle Patrol c. Topography
1128. The smelling sense of dog is up to how many d. none of the choices
times more sensitive than human’s sense of 1137. The patrol strategy which brings the police and
smell? the people together in a cooperative manner in
a. One thousand times order to prevent crime:
b. One hundred times a. Integrated Patrol
c. Ten thousand times b. Team policing
d. Ten million times c. Reactive patrol
d. Proactive patrol
1129. Transfer of knowledge from one person to
another through common medium and channel.
a. Information 1138. The theory in patrol which states that police
b. Communication officers should conduct overt police operations in
c. Police Communication order to discourage people from committing
d. Radio crime refers to:
a. Theory of police omnipresence
1130. Refers to a location where the search, which is b. Low police visibility theory
duly authorized by the PNP, is conducted to c. Low profile theory
deter/prevent the commission of crimes, enforce d. Maximum deterrence theory
the law, and for other legitimate purposes.
a. Clear Zone 1139. The principle of patrol force organization which
b. Public Place states that patrol officers should be under the
c. Police Checkpoint command of only one man refers to:
d. Pre-Determined Area a. Span of control
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 b. Unity of command d. Wholly False
c. Chain of command 1149. If information comes with a low reliability and
d. Command responsibility doubtful accuracy, will this information be
discarded or refused acceptance?
1140. The elimination of the opportunity of people to a. Maybe Yes
commit crime as a result of patrol. b. Yes
a. Crime prevention c. No
b. Crime intervention d. Maybe No
c. Crime suppression 1150. In selection and recruitment of informers the
d. Crime deterrence best factor to be considered is:
A.Age
1141. The Greek word which means “government of a B.Access
city” or “civil organization and the state”, which C.Educational Attainment D.Body
is claimed as the origin of the word police refers built
to: 1151. It is otherwise known as the “Anti-Wiretapping
a. Politia Act” which prohibits wiretapping in our country.
b. Policia a. RA 1700
c. Politeia b. RA 4200
d. Polis c. RA 7877
1142. Under the Integrated Patrol System, the primary d. RA 7160
objective of patrol activity is: 1152. Security Clearance is a certification by a
a. To prevent commission of crime. responsible authority that the person described
b. Integrate the police and the community is cleared to access and classify matters at
c. Constant and Alert Patrolling. appropriate levels. Interim clearance will remain
d. Visibility and Omniprescence. valid for a period of____ from the date of
1143. What law provides for the creation of the issuance.
National Intelligence Coordinating Agency? a. 1 year
a. RA 157 b. 5 years
b. B. EO 213 c. 2 years
c. RA 6040 d. 4 years
d. EO 246
1144. A person who breaks intercepted codes. 1153. How will you evaluate the intelligence report of
a. Crypto Analyst Agent Mariano with an evaluation rating of D2?
b. Cryptographer
c. Cryptograph a. Completely reliable source doubtfully true
d. Code breaker information
b. Unreliable source – probably true information
1145. Agent who is a member of paramilitary group c. Fairly reliable source – possibly true information
organized to harass the enemy in a hot war d. Not Usually reliable source – probably true
situation. information
a. Guerilla
b. Propagandist 1154. It is a process or method of obtaining
c. Provocateur information from a captured enemy who is
d. Strong Arm reluctant to divulge information.
1146. It is a type of Cover which alters the background a. Interview
that will correspond to the operation. b. Interrogation
a. Multiple c. Forceful Interrogation
b. Natural d. Tactical Interrogation
c. Artificial
d. Unusual 1155. The use of an equipment or tool to listen and
1147. Which of the following statements is TRUE? record discreetly conversations of other people.
a. Eavesdropping
A.Intelligence Officer can submit his information b. Bugging
report any time since it is to processes. c. None of these
b. All intelligence information’s are collected by d. Wiretapping
clandestine method.
c. Counter Intelligence is not much needed in a 1156. The process of extracting information from a
medium size police station. person believes to be in possession of vital
d. Patrol Officers can help collect intelligence information without his knowledge or suspicion.
information by initiating good public relations. a. Elicitation
1148. Wire tapping operations in our country is strictly b. Surveillance
prohibited but it can be done at the c. Roping
commander’s discretion since it tends to collect d. Undercover Operations
intelligence information.
a. Partly True
b. Partly False
c. Wholly True
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 1157. It is a type of Agent used in collecting d. Tactical Intelligence
information who leaks false information to the
enemy. 1165. What is the evaluation of an intelligence report
a. Double Agent which is “usually from a reliable source and
b. Expendable Agent improbable information”?
c. Agent of Influence a. C-5
d. Penetration Agent b. B-5
c. B-3
1158. It is one of the Functional Classification of Police d. C-3
Intelligence which refers to the knowledge 1166. It is a form of investigation in which the
essential to the prevention of crimes and the operative assumes a cover in order to obtain
investigation, arrest, and prosecution of criminal information
offenders. a. Overt operation
a. Internal Security Intelligence b. Undercover assignment
b. Public Safety Intelligence c. Covert operation
c. Criminal Intelligence d. clandestine operation
d. Preventive Intelligence
1167. It refers to a person who is highly skilled in
1159. Intelligence is the end product resulting from the converting message from clear to unintelligible
collection, evaluation, analysis, integration, and forms by use of codes and cipher.
interpretation of all available information. What a. Cryptographer
is considered as the core of intelligence b. Crypto Analyst
operations? c. Cryptography
a.Dissemination d. Cryptechnician
b. Analysis
c. Mission 1168. What is evaluation of the intelligence report
d. Planning gathered by Agent Fukymo Mikuto which is
“Fairly Reliable and doubtfully true information?
1160. He is regarded as the "Father of Organized a. D-4
Military Espionage". b. C-4
a. Alexander the Great c. C-5
b. Frederick the Great d. D-5
c. Karl Schulmeister
d. Arthur Wellesley 1169. In surveillance, the following are done to alter
the appearance of the surveillance vehicle,
1161. There are four categories of classified matters; EXCEPT:
top secret, secret, confidential, and restricted. To a.Changing license plates of surveillance vehicle
distinguish, their folder consists of different b.Putting on and removing hats, coats and
colors. What will be the color of the document sunglasses
which requires the highest degree of protection? c.Change of seating arrangement within the
a. Red surveillance vehicle
b. Black d.Keep the cars behind the subject car.
c. Blue
d. Green 1170. A _______ is usually for the purpose of waiting
1162. What verse of the Holy Bible that includes the for the anticipated arrival of the suspect who is
biblical indication of the beginning of either wanted for investigation or who is
Intelligence? expected to commit a crime at a certain location.
a. Number 13:17 a. Stake out
b. Number 3:17 b. Rough Shadowing
c. Number 17:13 c. Shadowing
d. Number 17:3 d. Surveillance
1163. A certain locality is identified to be a major
source of illicit drugs, to resolve this issue 1171. In the Intelligence function, the black list includes
intelligence officer was deployed to live in the ________ forces.
area for a considerable amount of time to find a. Unwanted
out the authenticity of such reports. b. Friendly
a. Social assignments c. Neutral
b. Work assignments d. Unfriendly
c. Organizational assignments
d. Residential assignments 1172. They are responsible for foreign intelligence of
United Kingdom and it is also referred as Box 850
1164. It is a type of intelligence activity which deals because of its old post office box number.
with defending the organization against its a. Security Service
criminal enemies? b. Secret Intelligence Service
a. Line Intelligence c. Government Communication Headquarters
b. Counter-Intelligence d. Defense Intelligence Staff
c. Strategic Intelligence
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 1173. Known as the Prussia's "King of Sleuthhounds" as
minister of police he studied the use of 1181. An E-3 intelligence report means:
propaganda and censorship as well as utilizing
statistical intelligence accounting. a. The information comes from completely reliable
a. Herbert Yadley sources and Improbable true.
b. Wilhem Steiber b. The information comes from Unreliable sources
c. Admiral Yamamoto and probably true.
d. Joseph Fouche c. The information comes from Fairly Reliable
sources and doubtfully true.
1174. If the information or documents are procured d. The information comes from Unreliable sources
openly without regard as to whether the subject and possibly true.
of the investigation becomes knowledgeable of 1182. Refers to the observations of person’s
the purpose or purposes for which it is being movements is generally refers to as?
regarded. a. Plant
a. Overt Operation b. Stakeout
b. Surveillance c. None
c. Covert Operation d. Tailing or Shadowing
d. Analysis 1183. The classification “Top secret”, have the security
color folderof?
a. Red
1175. Investigation of the records and files of agencies b. Black
in the area and residence of the individual being c. Blue
investigated. d. Green
a. CBI
b. NAC 1184. The process of assigning higher category of
c. PBI document or information according to the
d. LAC degree of security needed.
a. Degrading
1176. The type of intelligence that is immediate in b. Classification
nature and necessary for more effective police c. Upgrading
planning. d. Advancement
a. Line Intelligence
b. Strategic Intelligence 1185. It is a process or method of obtaining
c. Police Intelligence information from a captured enemy who is
d. Departmental Intelligence reluctant to divulge information.
a. Interview
1177. It is considered as the most secured method of b. Forceful Interrogation
disseminating the information to the user of c. Interrogation
classified matters is by means of: d. Tactical Interrogation
a. Debriefing
b. Conference 1186. The purpose of evaluation and analysis is to
c. Cryptographic method determine if the information is true and-
d. Seminar a. Reliable
b. Accurate
c. Correct
1178. It refers to the combination of all analyzed data d. Probably true
to form a logical picture or theory.
a. Integration 1187. This kind of intelligence is long range in nature:
b. Evaluation a. Line Intelligence
c. Deduction b. Operational Intelligence
d. Interpretation c. Strategic Intelligence
d. Counter Intelligence
1179. In intelligence functions, a black list means:
a. Neutral 1188. It refers to a place, building or enclosed area
b. Unwanted where police undercover men meet for
c. Friendly debriefing or reporting purposes.
d. Unfriendly a. Safe house
b. Log
1180. It is claimed that 99% of information is obtained c. Live Drop
from conspicuous sources and 1% of information d. Decoy
is obtained from clandestine sources.
Clandestine means. 1189. It is more comprehensive than the NAC or LAC,
a. Observable which includes some or all of the circumstances.
b. Overt a. National Agency Check
c. Visible b. Background Investigation
d. Covert c. Complete Background Investigation
d. Personnel Security Investigation
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 the source of or agency and the accuracy of the
1190. He is regarded as the Greatest Spymaster at all information.
time: a. Evaluation
a. Frederick the Great b. Recording
b. Alexander the Great c. Credibility
c. Arthur Wellesley d. Appraisal
d. Joseph Hernandez

1191. What specialist group of CIA that was established

to research, create and manage technical 1199. It refers to the most dangerous type of
collection discipline and equipment. informant.
a. Women
a.National Clandestine Service b. Double Crosser
b.Directorate of Support c. False
c. Directorate of Intelligence d. Anonymous
d. Directorate of Science and Technology
1200. It is the transforming of coded message into
1192. The persons listed in________ are allowed to plain text.
enter a certain establishment or building. a. Coding
a. Access list b. Encrypting
b. Black List c. Decoding
c. Blue Print d. Reclassify
d. Silver list
1201. After the planning on how intelligence is to be
1193. The deliberate destruction, disruption, or collected, the intelligence officer must have
damage of equipment, a public service, as by thorough knowledge of the __________.
enemy agent or dissatisfied employees.
a. Subversion a. The strength of the area where the information
b. Sabotage will be gathered
c. Espionage b. Where they will be collecting the information
d. None of these c. Available sources of information
d. The vulnerabilities of the possessor of intelligence
1194. The combination of the elements isolated
analysis with other known information related to 1202. He often dresses as a beggar & went to the
the operation. street of Rome to gather first hand information,
a. Recording he is considered as the greatest military
b. Analysis strategist.
c. Integration a. Alexander the Great
d. Interpretation b. Hannibal
c. Frederick the Great
1195. It deals with the demographic and psychological d. Genghis Khan
aspects of groups of people.
a. Sociological Intelligence 1203. If information comes with a low reliability and
b. Economic Intelligence doubtful accuracy, will this information be
c. Biographical Intelligence discarded or refused acceptance?
d. Political Intelligence a. Yes
b. True
1196. Which among the following principles of c. No
intelligence deemed to be the most important? d. False

a.intelligence requires continuous security measures 1204. It is one of the Functional Classification of Police
b. Intelligence and operation are interdependent Intelligence which refers to the knowledge
c. Intelligence must be available on time essential to the prevention of crimes and the
d. Intelligence must be flexible investigation, arrest, and prosecution of criminal
offenders.
1197. It is the careful inspection of a place to a. Internal Security Intelligence
determine its suitability for a particular b. Criminal Intelligence
operational purpose. c. Public Safety Intelligence
a. Casing d. Preventive Intelligence
b. Loose Tail
c. Rough Shadowing 1205. If the information or documents are procured
d. Stakeout openly without regard as to whether the subject
of the investigation becomes knowledgeable of
1198. It refers to the determination of the pertinence the purpose or purposes for which it is being
of the information to the operation, reliability of regarded.
a. Overt Operation

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 b. Clandestine c. Analysis
c. Surveillance d. Demonstration
d. Covert Operation
1214. What is the evaluation rating of Unreliable and
1206. Which of the following is the most common Possibly true?
reason why an informer gives information to the a. -2
police? b. E-2
a. Monetary Reward c. E-3
Popularity d. C-3
Revenge
As a good citizen 1215. Phase of intelligence covering the activity
devoted in destroying the effectiveness of hostile
1207. A method of collecting information thru foreign activities and the protection of
interception of telephone conversation. information against espionage, subversion and
a. Bugging sabotage.
b. Wire Tapping a. Passive Intelligence
c. Code name b. Counter Intelligence
d. NONE c. Line Intelligence
d. Demographic Intelligence
1208. Is the condition, situation, and circumstance the
enemy’s’ area of consideration that render the 1216. Refers to the knowledge essential to the
criminal groups susceptible to damage, maintenance of peace and order.
deception, or defeat by the police organization. a. CRIMINT
a.Conclusion b. SIGINT
b.Capabilities c. PUSINT
c. Vulnerabilities d. INSINT
d.Evaluation

1209. It is the general statement describing the current 1217. Who directs the organization conducting the
police internal defense, internal development, clandestine activity?
psychological operation and responsibilities of a. Manager
the organization b. Superior
a. Area of operation c. Sponsor
b. Capabilities of organized crime d. Agent
c. the crime situation
d. the mission 1218. Agents who molds the attitudes, opinions, and
actions of an individual group or nation.
1210. It is defined as evaluative and interpreted a. Propagandist
information concerning organized crime and b. Support Agent
other major police problems. c. Principal Agent
A.Military Intelligence d. Action Agent
b.Military Information
c.Police Intelligence 1219. Refers to a place where agents or informants
d.Police Investigation leave their messages to the other Agents.
a. Live Drop
1211. The term appropriate for someone who gives b. Safe House
information in exchange for a reward is: c. Decoy
a. Informer d. Bait
b. Informant
c. Special informer 1220. All except one are interrelated to one another.
d. Confidential Informant a. Fixed Surveillance
b. Stakeout Surveillance
1212. The intelligence required by department or c. Stationary Surveillance
agencies of the government to execute its d. Active Surveillance
mission and discharge its responsibilities.
a. Counter 1221. The agent will gain access to the subject by going
b. Departmental to the different hang out places of the subject.
c. Line a. Social Assignment
d. National b. Residential Assignment
c. Work Assignment
1213. Is the reduction of information into writing or d. None of these
some other form of graphical representation and
the arranging of this information into groups 1222. A person who informs solely for the pecuniary or
related items. other material gain he is to receive.
a. Recording a. Gratitude
b. Integration b. Repentance

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 c. Remuneration a. Memory
d. Vanity b. records
1223. National Intelligence Coordinating Agency is led c. Log
by a- d. Report
a. Director
b. General 1232. It is defined as an art and science of codes and
c. President ciphers.
d. Director-General a. Cryptography
b. Cryptanalysis
1224. Integrated product of intelligence developed by c. Decipher
all government departments concerning the d. Coding
broad aspect of national policy and national
Security. 1233. The protection resulting from the application of
a National Intelligence various measures which prevent or delay the
b.Departmental Intelligence enemy or unauthorized person in gaining
c. International Intelligence information through communication.
d. Social Intelligence a. Communication Security
b. Physical Security
1225. .The process of categorizing a document or c. Document Security
information according to the degree of security d. Internal Security
needed.
a. Classification 1234. Those documents place on a Blue Folder are
b. Upgrading considered as:
c. Reclassification a. Top Secret
d. None of these b. Secret
c. Restricted
1226. Final clearance will remain valid for a period d. Confidential
of____ from the date of issuance.
a. 2 years 1235. Documents which are classified as Secret should
b. 5 years be placed on-
c. 4 years a. Blue Folder
d. 1 year b. Black folder
c. Green Folder
1227. It refers to the person who conducts the d. Red Folder
surveillance.
a.Surveillant 1236. It is a certification by a responsible authority that
b Subject the person described is cleared to access and
c. Interrogator classify matters at appropriate levels.
d. Interviewee a. Security Clearance
b. Document Clearance
1228. The "Great Mogul" and wise master of Hindustan c. Interim Clearance
employed more than 4,000 agents for the sole d. Nome of these
purpose of bringing him the truth that his throne
might rest upon it. 1237. Extreme precautions are taken against losing the
a. Joseph Petrosino subject is employed where constant surveillance
b. Edgar Hoover is necessary.
c. Napoleon Bonaparte a. Close tail
d. Akbar b. Loose tail
c. Rough Shadowing
1229. The purpose of evaluation and analysis is to d. Surveillance
determine if the information is true and-
a Reliable 1238. M evaluates the information as usually reliable
b. Correct and probably true.
c. Probably true a. C-4
d. Accurate b. B-3
1230. It refers to those measures, which seek actively c. B-2
to block the enemies’ effort to gain information d. C-5
or engage in espionage, subversion, and
sabotage.
a. Counter Intelligence 1239. Mossad is the National Intelligence agency of
_____________.
b. Passive Counter Intelligence a. Russia
c. Active Counter Intelligence b. Germany
d. Intelligence c. Israel
d. Pakistan
1231. Chronological records of activities that took place
in the establishment under surveillance.
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 1240. Law enforcement in China was carried out by 1249. This pertains to all those forms of policing that,
_______ which developed in both chu and jin in some sense transgress national borders:
kingdom of the Spring and Autumn period. a. International Policing
a. Watch man b. Global Policing
b. Prefect c. National Policing
c. Gendemarie d. Transnational Policing
d. Constabulary

1241. She is the first Filipino commissionedofficer in a 1250. In US, he introduced police reforms to include
UN integral mission. educational requirement for police officer:
a. P/D Rodolfo A. Tor a. James Q. Wilson
b. Insp. Anrisa I. Mitra b. Sir Henry Peel
c. C SPO2 Ester A. Marcidas c. August Volmer
d. None of these d. O.W. Wilson

1242. New York Police Department (NYPD) have limited 1251. The motto of Hongkong Police force:
jurisdiction on _______: a. Law and Order
a. USA b. Safer Communities together
b. New York c. Serve and Protect
c. None of these d. We serve with pride and Care
d. Los Angeles
1252. Where do you can find the so called Police
1243. The Penal Provisions of the electronic Commerce Ombudsman? It’s outside review organization for
Act: police officer whose are changed of committing
a. RA 5678 any form of misconduct:
b. RA 9165 a. Northern Ireland
c. RA 1298 b. England
d. RA 8792 c. China
d. Japan
1244. In the etymology of the word police the ancient
word “Polisoos” referred to a person who_____? 1253. Throughout the United Kingdom, the rank
a. Enforcing Law structured of police force is identical up to the
b. Civil Policy rank of?
c. Guarding a City a. Chief Constable
d. Citizenship b. Chief Inspector
c. Chief Superintendent
1245. During the middle ages, there were two guard d. Inspector
officer of the kingdom of France with police
responsibilities those are the Marshal of France 1254. In USA, what state are among the first to hire
and ________: women and minorities as police officer.
a. Constable of France a. Massachusetts
b. Queens Royal Guard b. California
c. Scotland Yard c. New York
d. Constabulary d. Washington
1246. Peace officers are treated as state servants and
people have minimal share in their duties or any 1255. In Taiwan police Agency, what is the comparable
direct connection with them. This reflected the: rank to inspector or sub-lieutenant?
a. Continental Theory a. Police Rank 4
b. Home rule Theory b. Police Supervisor Rank 4
c. Old Concept c. Police Officer Rank 1
d. Modern concept d. Police Supervisor Rank 1
1247. The typical number of Detectives are roughly
________ of a police service personnel: 1256. In Taiwan National Police Agency, what is the
a. 75% lowest possible rank of its police personnel?
b. 5 to 10% a. Police Rank 1
c. 15 to 25% b. Police Officer Rank 1
d. 7 to 10% c. Investigator 1
d. Constable
1248. In USA, FBI only have jurisdiction over federal
crimes or those with an interstate components. 1257. It is being acknowledge by Federal Bureau
The statement is: Investigation and INTERPOL to be the “Asia’s
a. Correct Finest” police force and in having, set up the
b. Partially Correct foundation for the social stability of Hong Kong
c. False and has won a good reputation as one of the
d. partly False safety cities in the world.

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 a. Philippine National Polic 1267. The lowest rank in Singapore Police Force:
b. Hong Kong Police Force a. Junsa
c. Japan Police Department b. Constable
d. National Police Agency c. Sergeant
d. Police Officer
1258. It is the highest possible rank in Australia Police
Force: 1268. Irish Police are called:
a. Commissioner General a. Militsiya
b. Director General b. Constable
c. Commissioner c. Police Force
d. Director d. Garda Socha

1259. The code of secrecy of Mafia: 1269. In 2006 he was tasked to head the UN integral
a. Omerta Mission in Timor-Leste, he is the first Filipino
b. Morse police commissioner of a United Nation
c. Nostra Compra Operation.
d. Cosa Nostra a. SPO2 Ester A. Marcidas
b. Insp. Aurisa I. Mitra
1260. The supreme governing body of the INTERPOL is c. P/D Rodolfo A. Tor
the: d. None of these
a. Executive Assembly
b. Major Assembly 1270. It States that the yardstick of police proficiency
c. National Assembly relies on the absence of crime.
d. General Assembly a. Home rule
b. Continental
1261. The general Secretariat office of the INTERPOL is c. Old police service
run by the: d. Modern police service
a. Director General
b. Supervisor 1271. The first secretary general of the Interpol.
c. Inspector General a. Oskar Dressler
d. Secretary General b. Ronald K. Noble
c. Johann Schober
1262. In US, who is responsible in reducing corruption d. Aberdeen Scotland
and introduced professionalism in Winchita,
Kansas and Chicago Police Department: 1272. The first president of the Interpol.
a. August Volmer a. Oskar Dressler
b. Margaret Adams b. Ronald K. Noble
c. William Stewart c. Johann Schober
d. O.W. Wilson d. Aberdeen Scotland
1263. The police rank in Japan that is called Keishi:
a. Policeman 1273. Group of highly specialized a armed man who
b. Chief Superintendent inflicts fear and uses violence to accomplish
c. Superintendent their objectives with a usual international scope of
d. Senior Superintendent activity.
a. Organized Crime
1264. It is the counterpart of Police Community b. Transnational Crime
Precinct in Japan: c. Transnational Organized crime
a. Keishi d. Terrorist
b. Koban
c. Omerta 1274. Is the terrorist group which was founded by
d. Keiban Osama Bin Laden in 1980?
a. Al Qaeda
1265. In Japan it is not considered as a rank but it is the b. Jihad
highest position in Japan Police Organization: c. Mafia
d. Nuestra Costra
a. Commissioner Secretariat
b. Commissioner 1275. Is the term which refers to the holy war waged
c. Chairman by members of the Islamic religion against the
d. Commissioner General Jews?
1266. The Japan’s Police Organization is headed by a a. Al Qaeda
Commissioner General who is appointed by: b. Jihad
a. Japans Emperor c. Mafia
b. Prime Minister d. Nuestra Costra
c. National Public Safety Commission
d. Japan Commission

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 1276. It is the category of terrorist organization which 1284. Richard Perez joined the PNP in 1996. She was 29
is aimed in achieving political autonomy or years old then. What year will Amado will retire?
religious freedom. a. 2016
a. Revolutionary b. 2023
b. Separalist c. 2012
c. Ethnocentric d. 2031
d. Political
1285. It refers to a kind of retirement where PNP
1277. It is the anchor of the investigation of all crimes commissioned and non-commissioned officer
committed via the internet: may retire and be paid separation benefits
a. Dynamic IP Address corresponding to a position two ranks higher
b. Internet Protocol Address than his/her rank:
c. Static IP Address a. Retirement in the next higher grad
d. Email Address b. Compulsory retirement
c. Early retirement program
1278. It is the act of illegally accessing the computer d. Optional Retirement
system or network of an individual, group or
business enterprise without the consent of the 1286. It is a part of the PNP but enjoining an
party’s system: independence from the PNP. It has an
a. Computer Fraud investigative and adjudicatory power over PNP
b. Hacking members.
c. Cracking a. Internal Affairs Service
d. Theft b. National Police Commission
c. People’s Law Enforcement Board
1279. It refers to a Code written with the intention of d. National Appellate Board
replicating itself.
a. Trojan Horse 1287. In police operational planning the use of the
b. Worm wedge, squad diagonal or deployed line would
c. Virus be probable used for:
d. None of these a. Arm confrontation
b. Relief Operation
1280. It is a center created by Executive Order No. 62 c. Civil Disturbance
to establish a shared database among concerned d. VIP Security
agencies for information on criminals,
methodologies, arrests and convictions on 1288. What is the appropriate training course for POIII
transnational crime to SPOI?
a. Officers Senior Executive Course
a. Philippine Center on Transnational Crimes (PCTC) b. Officer Basic Course
b. National Commission on Anti Hijacking (NACAH) c. Senior Leadership Course
c. International Criminal Police Organization (ICPO) d. Junior Leadership Course
d. Philippine National Police (PNP)
1281. What is the highest rank of police officer in 1289. Reasons for suspension or withdrawal of
Japan? deputation of local chief executives as
a. KEISHI SOKAN representative of the NAPOLCOM:
b. KEISHI SO Repeated unauthorized absences;
c. KEISHI KAN
d. KEIBU-HO

1282. The founder of the Texas Rangers and known to .II. Abuse of authority;
be the “Father of Texas”. III. Habitual tardiness;
a. Stephen Austin IV. Providing material support to criminals; and
b. Vernon Knell V. Engaging in acts inimical to national security.
c. Dave Batista
d. Johann Schober
A. I, II, III, V
1283. An order strengthening the operational, B. II, V, IV, I
administrative and information support system C.I, II, IV, III
of the PCTC. Under this EO, the centre shall D. I, II, III, IV, V
exercise general supervision and control over 1290. Planning for emergencies of a specific nature at
NACAHT, ICPO, PNP or DILG known locations.
a. EO 100 a. Functional Plan
b. EO 465 b. Time Specific Plans
c. EO 465 c. Tactical Plans
d. EO 789 d. Operational Plans
1291. A retired PNP uniformed personnel can get the
lump sum of his retirement benefits for the
period of the first _____.
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 a. 10 years d. Ayman Al Zawahiri
b. 5 years
c. 6 years 1300. What kind of force is needed during armed
d. 2 years confrontation?
a. Reasonable force
1292. Specific Qualifications may be waived like Age, b. Logical Force
Height, Weight and Education, only when the c. Rational Force
number of qualified applicants falls below the d. Evenhanded Force
minimum annual quota. Appointment status 1301. The peace-keeping detail shall not be stationed
under a waiver program is ________. in the picket line (or confrontation line) but
a. Temporary should be stationed in such manner that their
b. Probationary presence may deter the commission of criminal
c. Permanent acts or any untoward incident from either side.
d. Regular The members of the peace-keeping detail shall
stay outside a _______ radius from the picket
1293. __________ is given to any PNP member who line.
has exhibited act of conspicuous and gallantry at a. 50 feet
the risk of his life above and beyond the call of b. 50 meter
duty. c. 100 feet
a. Meritorious Promotion d. 100 meter
b. Special Promotion
c. Regular Promotion 1302. In transporting Detention Prisoner, if transported
d. On-the-Spot Promotion by a patrol jeep, the subject must be-

1294. Which among the following has no promotional a. Seated on the left rear seat and a PNP escort shall
authority over the members of the PNP? sit at the rear on the Right side facing the subject
a. Deputy Director General b. Seated on the Right rear seat and a PNP escort
b. Director General shall sit at the rear on the left side facing the subject
c. President of the Philippines c. Seated on the Left rear seat and a PNP escort shall
d. Regional Director sit at the rear on the left side facing the subject
1295. Any PNP member shall be dismissed immediately d. Seated on the Right rear seat and a PNP escort
from the service after due notice and summary shall sit at the rear on the Right side facing the
hearings if it was proven that he went on AWOL subject
for a continuous period of:
a. 30 days or more
b. 15 days or more
c. 20 days or more
d. 60 days or more 1303. Female detainees shall not be transported in
1296. Refers to the actual restraint of armed persons handcuffs but only with necessary restraint and
following a high-risk stop. proper escort, preferably aided by a police
a. Dragnet Operation woman. The statement is-
a. Partially True
b. Hasty Checkpoint b. Wholly True
c. High-Risk Arrest c. Partially False
d. High Risk Stop d. Wholly False

1297. PO3Maine Mendoza, receives 19, 870.00 base 1304. During rallies, strikes, demonstrations or other
pay since he was promoted. After five years from public assemblies, employment of tear gas and
promotion, what would be his monthly base pay water cannons shall be made under the control
after adding his longevity pay? and supervision of the-
a. 21, 857.00 a. Ground Commander
b. 19, 970.00 b. Incident Commander
c. 24, 870.00 c. Immediate Commander d.
d. 31, 549.00 Superior Officer
1298. It refers to those situations or conditions that
may induce incidents for some kind of police 1305. What should be the action of patrol officers,
action: when responding to Calls for Police Assistance,
a. Police Accident except?
b. Police Brutality a. Stop the car at some distance away from the
c. Police Hazard scene.
d. Police Operation b. Focus all efforts to arrest criminals
c. Determine the crime committed.
1299. The word “Abu Sayyaf” in Arabic literally means- d. None of these
a. The Sword Bearer
b. The Base
c. Islamic Congregation

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 1306. Where should the patrol officer turnover the c. Staff function
information and pieces of evidence gathered at d. Auxiliary function
the crime scene? 1314. Marcos is a robber who is looking at the earrings
a. SOCO team of Josephine while Insp. Gonzales is standing
b. Immediate Supervisor near Josephine, Marcos plan to rob is not
c. Responding unit weaken by existence of Insp. Gonzales but the
d. Medico Legal Officer ______ for successful robbery is prevented.
a. Ambition
1307. Request for police assistance in the b. Intention
implementation of final decisions or orders of c. Motive
the court in civil cases and of administrative d. Opportunity
bodies on controversies within their jurisdiction 1315. Police personnel whose rank at the time of his
shall be acted upon by the appropriate police retirement is Superintendent shall retire with the
office. The request is filed at least _____ prior to rank of __________:
the actual implementation. a. Superintendent
a. 3 days b. C/Superintendent
b. 10 days c. Sr. Superintendent
c. 5 days d. C/Inspector
d. 15 days 1316. Refers to the immediate, recent chase or follow-
up without material interval for the purpose of
1308. It may be utilized to break up formations or taking into custody any person wanted by virtue
groupings of demonstrations who continue to be of a warrant, or one suspected to have
aggressive and refused to disperse despite earlier committed a recent offense while fleeing from
efforts. one police jurisdictional boundary to another
a. Tear Gas that will normally require prior official inter-unit
b. Water Cannon coordination but which the pursuing unit cannot,
c. Truncheon at that moment, comply due to the urgency of
d. Shield the situation.
1309. It is the brief stopping of an individual, whether a. Hot Pursuit
on foot or in a vehicle, based on reasonable b. Hasty Checkpoint
suspicion/probable cause, for the purpose of
determining the individual’s identity and c. Dragnet Operation
resolving the officer’s suspicion concerning d. High Risk Stop
criminal activity. 1317. Which among the following terms is not related
a. Frisking to each other?
b. Search a. Hot Pursuit
c. Spot Check b. Fresh Pursuit
d. Pat-down Search c. Cross Jurisdictional Pursuit
1310. Refers to a location where the search, which is d. Bright Pursuit
duly authorized by the PNP, is conducted to 1318. Refers to the highest degree of restraint that the
deter/prevent the commission of crimes, enforce police, military and other peace keeping
the law, and for other legitimate purposes. authorities shall observe during a public
a. Clear Zone assembly or in the dispersal of the same.
b. Public Place a. Reasonable Force
c. Police Checkpoint b. Greatest Lenience
d. Pre-Determined Area c. Maximum Tolerance
1311. Electronic blotter is a computerized system, d. Utmost Patience
which was accepted by the courts, prosecutors’ 1319. Which among the following aspects of a.
office and the public in general. What police Security is the weakest of them all?
office is using this kind of blotter? a. Physical security
a. Makati b. Personnel security
b. Cebu c. Document and information security
c. Baguio d. Personal Security
d. Davao
1312. It refers to the venue or place established or 1320. “There is no impenetrable barrier”. The
designated by local government units within statement is-
their respective jurisdictions where a public a. Partially Correct
assembly could be held without securing any b. Partially Wrong
permit for such purpose from the local c. Absolutely Correct
government unit concerned. d. Absolutely Wrong
a. Secured Area
b. Wide Space 1321.It refers to any structure or physical device
c. Freedom Park capable of restriction, deterring or delaying illegal
d. Clear Zone access to an installation.
1313. The police function in which patrol belong is: a. Hazard
a. Line function b. Perimeter Barrier
b. Administrative function c. Barrier
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 d .Energy Barrier 1330. The type of fence that is primarily designed to
allow complete visual access between two areas is:
1322. It is normally provided at main perimeter a. Solid fence
entrances to secure areas located out of doors, and b. Semi-solid fence
manned by guards on a full time basis. c. Full-view fence
a. Guard Control Stations d. Masonry Fence
b. Tower
c. Tower Guard 1331.The minimum age requirement for Security
d. Top Guard Manager or Operator of a security agency is:
a. 40 yrs. Old
1323 .This lamps have the advantage of providing b. 25 yrs. Old
instant illumination when the switch is open and c. 30 yrs. Old
most commonly used protective lighting system. d. 35 yrs. Old
a. Incandescent Lamp
b.Gaseous Discharge Lamp 1332.The following are the categories of automatic
c. Mercury Vapor Lamp alarm system, except:
d. Quarts Lamp a. Photoelectric
b. Electric Eye Device
1324. The following are the areas to be lighted: c. Audio detection
A.Parking Areas; d. Bill Traps
b.Thoroughfare; 1333. Which of the following is not a false key?
c. Pedestrian Gates; a. A picklock or similar tool .
d. Vehicular Gates; and b. A duplicate key of the owner.
E.Susceptible Areas. c. A genuine key stolen from the owner.
a. a, c, e d.Any key other than those intended by the owner.
b. a, b, c, d 1334. The Normal weight of a safe is at least:
c. a, c, d, e a. 500 lbs.
d. a, b, c, d, e b. 750 lbs.
c. 1000 lbs.
1325. It refers to records that are irreplaceable; d. 600 lbs.
reproduction of this record does not have the same
value as the original. 1335. The minimum number of guards required for a
a. Vital Documents company security force is:
b. Important Documents a. 1000
c. Useful Documents b. 30
d. Non- Essential Documents c. 100
d. 200
1326. It is the importance of firm with reference to
the natural economy and security. 1336. It refers to a system use in big installation
a.. Relative Operation whereby keys can open a group of locks.
b Relative Security a. Key Control
c. Relative Vulnerability b. Master Keying
d. Relative Criticality of Operation c. Change Key
d. Great Grand Master Key
1327. A new Private security agency that has been
issued a temporary license to operate is good for 1337. What is called as devices and contrivance
how many years? installed inside and outside a facility to compliment
a. One and provide additional security measures and
b. Two operates to advertise entry into sensitive and
c.Three protected area?
d.Four a. Protective locks
b. Protective cabinet
1328. The removal of the security classification from c. Protective barrier
the classified matter. d. Protective Lighting
a.Segregation
b. Declassify 1338. A fixed point or location to which an officer is
c. Reclassify assigned for duty:
d. Exclusion a. Post
b. Beat
1329.The form of security that employs c. Area
cryptography to protect information refers to: d. Route
A. Document and information security
b. Operational security
c. Communication security
d. Industrial security

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 1345. In questioned document, it is where all
characteristics are grouped.
A. Class characteristics
B. Individual characteristics
C. Both A and B
D. Neither
1346. Writing was written by one person when there is a
sufficient number of identical writing habits and
the absence of divergent characteristics. This is in
consonance with;
A. Identification
B. Non-identification
C. Either
D. Niether
1347. Embellishment is an example of
A. Individual Characteristics
B. Class Characteristics
C. Both
D. Neither
1348. Hiatus is a gap between strokes due to
A. Speed in writing
B. Defective writing instrument
1339. The thickness of paper is expressed in thousands C. Unevenness of writing materials
of inch. D. All of the choices
A. Measurement 1349. Among the following, which is not an element of
B. Caliper movement?
C. Buffer A. Line Quality
D. Calibre B. Rhythm
1340. Chemical used to whiten paper pulp. C. Speed Freedom
A. Bleach D. emphasis
B. Alum 1350. Writing, done rapidly, will exhibit no pen lift,
C. Sufite except those at the
D. Pulp A. Middle of the words/strokes
1341. A form of printing to produce a raised impression B. End of the stroke
or pattern on the surface of a sheet of paper. C. Beginning of strokes
A. Lithograph printing D. B and C
B. Embossing
C. Edge chains 1351. The orientation of the writing instrument is
D. Reprographing referred to as
1342. The original inventor of Fourdrinier paper A. Pen position
machine. B. Pen hold
A. Fourdrinier Brothers C. Pen emphasis
B. Bryan Donkin D. Pen orientation
C. Nicholas-Louis Robert 1352. The relation between the tall and short letters is
D. Milton Reynolds referred to as
1343. Quality of a paper related to the amount of light A. Ratio
that can be transmitted through its surface. B. Proportion
A. Thickness C. Line quality
B. Opacity D. All
C. Translucent 1353. In questioned document examination, it is
D. Texture referred to as the flourishing succession of motion
1344. Fundamentally, the grand mission and objective of which are recorded in a written record.
document examiner is to determine and conclude A. Line quality
with scientific basis and technique who is the B. Rhythm
A. Beneficiaries C. Speed in writing
B. Writer or signatory D. Movement
C. Master mind 1354. Slant is the angle or inclination of the axis of the
D. Conspirator letters relative to the

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G.S.T. 2019
 A. Baseline 1363. Authenticity of private documents is not
B. Slope necessary when
C. Alignment A. It is 30 years old
D. Staff B. More than 30 years old
1355. Uncommon and well fixed characteristic that C. Less than 30 years old
serve as a fundamental point of identification. D. More or less 30 years old
A. Slant 1364. During paper manufacture, the following are
B. Habit included except
C. Movement A. Security fiber
D. All B. Watermarks
1356. Baseline is the ruled or imaginary line upon which C. Iridescent band
the writing ______ D. Serial number
A. Holds 1365. Which of the following is not a crime called
B. Rests forgery?
C. Stays A. Forging the seal of the government
D. Slants B. Counterfeiting of coins
1357. Among the following, which is a common defect C. Mutilation of coins
of forgery? D. Using forged signature or counterfeit seal or
stamp
A. Patching 1366. The imitation of a legal or genuine coin.
B. Retracing A. Counterfeit
C. A and B B. Mutilation
D. None C. Utter
1358. Letters that extend a distance vertically above the D. Import
linear letters. 1367. When a spurious coin is made, there is
A. Infra-linear A. Counterfeiting
B. Supra-linear B. Uttering
C. Linear C. Mutilation
D. None D. Importing
1359. The only question to tackle in this kind of 1368. Mutilation of coins without the intent to defraud
signature forgery is the determination of the is
probable writer of the forgery. A. Not punishable under the revised penal
A. Simple forgery code
B. Simulated forgery B. Not punishable by any law
C. Traced forgery C. Punishable under the revised penal code
D. A and B D. Punishable under Art. 164 of the RPC.
1360. A kind of signature forgery where the 1369. To make false instrument intended to be passed
resemblance of the questioned signature and for the genuine one is a form of
genuine is apparent. A. Falsification
A. Fraudulent B. Forgery
B. Simulated C. Tracing
C. Simple D. Fraud
D. Traced 1370. Which of the following method should be used in
1361. To identify whether simple forgery was order for the naked eye to see a charred
committed, which of the following should be document?
retrieved? A. X-ray
A. Standard signature from the forger B. Spectrograph
B. Standard of the genuine signature C. Ultra violet
C. Standard of the person who made the D. Infra red
forgery 1371. Which of the following security features of a
D. Identity of the forger paper bill does not react to ultra-violet light?
1362. One of the following statements best describe A. Serial Number
what a collected standard is. B. Watermark
A. It has the advantage of easily finding it. C. Fluorescent printing
B. Attempt to disguise is removed. D. Invisible security fibers
C. The accused is aware that the specimen will 1372. Paper is for china while papyrus is for
be used against him. A. Sumer
D. None B. Turkey

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 C. Sumeria 1381. In typewriting examination which of the following
D. Egypt first to be conducted?
1373. What is gustatory sensation? A. Examination of the questioned specimen
A. Smell B. Collecting of typewriting standards
B. Taste C. Locate the type writer used
C. Skin D. Examination of the exemplar
D. Hearing 1382. Aside from fingerprint, what is the other
43. The Bible (Genesis 1:3-5) God created the earth and identification in securing NBI clearance?
there should be light and darkness which is daylight and A. Thumb mark
night. Among these, what is the basic component of B. Pending case
photography? C. Picture
A. All of these D. Signature
B. Film 1383. Which of the following is a must to be considered
C. Camera in a sketch?
D. Light A. Compass direction
1374. Positive result of photography is called – B. Name of placed
A. Picture C. Time
B. Photograph D. Location
C. Positive 1384. In addition to medicine, as prober, how can you
D. Negative preserve perishable evidence like injuries,
1375. Other term for lie detector is – contusions, hematoma and the like?
A. GSR A. Recording
B. Pneumograph B. Sketching
C. Cardiograph C. Photography
D. Polygraph D. Note taking
1376. In key classification, is it placed on the leftmost 1385. In questioned document examination, it refers to
corner on the numerator? a stroke which goes back to writing stroke.
A. Yes A. Patching
B. Maybe B. Retouching
C. No C. Retracing
D. Sometimes D. Restroking
1377. Flash bulb and electronic flash are two examples 1386. In photography probe, when murder occurred
of light of short duration. Which among of these is showing disarray of cabinets, photography is
popular today? essential to show defense of the -
A. Flash bulb A. Suspect
B. Electronic bulb B. Witness
C. Lamp C. Victim
D. Flash light D. Kibitzers
1378. Can a strong acid destroy the fingerprint 1387. In the story of crime, with the use of firearm, the
permanently? energy coming from the muzzle point is called -
A. Yes A. Armor-piercing
B. No B. Velocity
C. Maybe C. Lead bullet
D. This time D. Muzzle energy
1379. In forensic ballistic, the firearm examiner 1388. What are the two types of firearms according to
examines the firearm usually involved in a crime the construction of the interior of the barrel?
or the case_____? A. Short and long barreled firearms
A. In court B. Small arms and artilleries
B. In progress C. Lands and grooves
C. Controversy D. Smoothbore and rifled bore
D. Handled 1389. What is the symbol of tented arch?
1380. In polygraph, it is the process of detecting false A. Dash
statement or signs of - B. T
A. Detection C. Te
B. Deception D. A and/or B
C. Lie 1390. It is the centermost part of the fingerprint pattern.
D. Untrue statement A. Inner terminus
B. Delta

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 C. Inner shoulder A. James MacKenzie
D. Core B. Angelo Mosso
1391. Fingerprint patterns like loop and whorl are found C. William Marston
in the - D. John Larson
A. Pattern area 1401. What is the color of blood in post mortem lividity?
B. Delta
C. Core
D. Type lines A. Blue
1392. What is the test in examination of blood if belong B. Violet
to human or animal? C. Pink
A. Takayama D. Bright red
B. Benzidine 1402. In crime laboratory concerning the study of types,
C. Kestle Meyer model of firearm and its bullets is done by -
D. Precipitin A. Ballistician
1393. How many standards in questioned documents is B. Ballistic engineer
needed to prove? C. Forensic engineer
A. 5 standards D. Firearm prober
B. 10 signatures 1403. What is the type of document which is notarized
C. Sufficient amount by a RTC judge?
D. 5 pages A. Public
1394. In USA, what year photography was used for court B. Official
presentation? C. Private
A. 1909 D. None of these
B. 1859 1404. Going back to a defective portion of a writing
C. 1890 stroke is called -
D. 1903 A. Slicing
1395. What is the official purpose of conducting post B. Embracing
mortem examination? C. Retouching
A. To determine the duration of death D. Patching
B. To determine the manner of death 1405. What is the part of firearm that extract cartridge
C. To determine the deadly weapon from the chamber?
D. To determine the cause of death. A. Breech
1396. What part of the polygraph machine is B. Firing pin
responsible in detecting pulse rate and heart C. Extractor
beat? D. Ejector
A. Kymograph 1406. The caliber of the smoothbore firearm is
B. Pneumograph measured by -
C. Polygraph A. Gauge
D. Cardiograph B. Caliber
1397. In Dactyloscopy, if we say a person with C. Caliper
polydactyl, he or she has - D. Hundredth of an inch
A. Extra fingerprint 1407. In polygraph test, after the subject affirms that he
B. Extra hand is involved in a crime the examiner should report
C. Extra finger it to the -
D. Added finger A. Victim
1398. What year did the colored photography was B. Investigator
accepted in US court? C. Object relative
A. 1956 D. Prosecutor
B. 1978 1408. In fingerprint, which of the following is the pattern
C. 1946 which refers to the rolled fingers onto the rolling
D. 1960 impression columns?
1399. Blood stays liquid for how many hours? A. Rolled impression
A. 6-8 hours B. Indexing impression
B. 9-10 hours C. Palm impression
C. 8-12 hours D. Little finger impression
D. 3-6 hours 1409. A complete rotation of a fired bullet in the rifling
1400. The one who creates his own systolic in polygraph of a gun is also termed as –
examination? A. Twist of rifling

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 B. Gyroscopic action B. Sphygmomanometer
C. Rotating motion C. Pneumograph
D. Pitch of rifling D. Galvanograph
1410. In photography, it is an exhibit shown in court for 1420. In Dactyloscopy, the primary purpose and
scrutiny by litigants and others. importance of fingerprint is for -
A. Police photography A. Indemnification
B. Photograph B. Comparison
C. Forensic photography C. Identification
D. Crime scene photography D. Collection
1411. In what way to determine the date of a paper was 1421. Photography at the crime scene taken at the
made? crime scene which will be used for court
A. Wiremark presentation is called -
B. Trademark A. Crime scene photography
C. Copyright B. Forensic photography
D. Watermark C. Crime photography
1412. Tripod has how many feet? D. Police photography
A. It depends 1422. The study of projectiles the moment the bullet
B. Two leaves the muzzle of the gun is a kind of –
C. Three A. Interior ballistics
D. Four B. Terminal ballistics
1413. In robbery case involving force upon things, which C. Forensic ballistics
should be closely photographed? D. Exterior ballistics
A. Weapons used 1423. A magistrate and law professor in Austria who is
B. Victims wounds known for introducing the word “Criminalistics.”
C. Entrance and exit A. Hans Gross
D. Things stolen B. Alphonse Bertillon
1414. What is the advantage of other agencies with C. Prof. R.A. Riess
other agencies when it comes to authenticity? D. Edmond Locard
A. Signature and photograph 1424. In dactyloscopy, is plain whorl always with two
B. Thumb mark and photograph deltas?
C. Thumb mark and signature a. No
D. Signature only b. Never
1415. What is the best test in determining the presence c. Yes
of blood? d. Maybe
A. Benzedine 1425. A light proof box with a means of forming an
B. Marquis image, with a means of holding sensitized material
C. Takayama and with a means of regulating the amount of
D. Teichman light that enters the camera at a given time.
1416. Is taking a tranquilizer and medicine for colds a. camera
affects the result of polygraph examination? b. light
A. Yes c. film
B. No d. lens
C. Depends 1426. The location of the blood pressure in the chart
D. Maybe paper
1417. It is where handwriting rest? a. Side
A. Feet b. Middle
B. Vase line c. Lower
C. Baseline d. Upper
D. Alignment 1427. What is the most common death caused by
1418. Medically speaking, it is the sudden stoppage of asphyxia?
the heart that results to death. a. strangulation
A. Instantaneous rigor b. drowning
B. Heart attack c. throttling
C. Myocardial infarction d. Hanging
D. Death 1428. What is being affected in intracranial
1419. In polygraph test, it indicates air in system, and is hemorrhage?
measured in millimeter by the - a. brain
A. Kymograph b. stomach

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 c. lung B. Microscope examination
1429. A firearm which has a size of less than 1 inch C. Chemical examination
a. small firearm D. Serology examination
b. handgun 1439. If you didn’t clean the fingerprint slab, what will
c. revolver be the effect to the fingerprint?
d. shotgun A. Blurred
1430. What is the measure of the rubber tube in the B. Sticky
pneumograph? C. Classified
a. 20 inches D. Clear
b. 10 inches 1440. What is found on the left white portion of the
c. 7 inches portrait?
d. 8 inches A. Vignette
1431. An industrial complex must establish its first line B. Watermark
of physical defense. It must have: C. Security fiber
a. the building itself D. Fiber
b. communication barrier 1441. In Henry System how many clasifications of
c. perimeter barrier fingerprints are there?
d. window barrier A. 2
102. If the dead person is laying, where will the B. 3
blood go during livor mortis? C. 8
A. Back D. 7
B. Neck 1442. Indication of tremor due to old age, illiteracy and
C. Head sickness is what kind of signature?
D. Legs A. Genuine
1432. If there are 6 grooves, is it also the same in lands? B. Spurious
A. Yes C. Forged
B. No D. Simulated
C. Partly Yes 1443. If in the CS, you found semen and blood, can you
D. Partly No consider it as rape on minor?
1433. What is the other term for dot? A. Yes
A. Islet B. No
B. Core C. Partly Yes
C. Delta D. Partly No
D. Bifurcation 1444. In polarization film, how long is the developing?
1434. In writing, what is being used? A. 5 minutes
A. Finger B. 7 min
B. Forearm C. 3 min
C. Hands D. 8 minutes
D. All of the choices 1445. What do you call the outer cover of the bullet?
1435. There are three types of fingerprint pattern; arch, A. Jacketed
whorl and _____. B. Metallic
A. Ulnar loop C. Silver
B. Radial loop D. Ogive
C. Loop 1446. In snake, the two snake venum is neorotoxic and
D. Arch _____.
1436. Is your name Eric? What kind of question is this? A. Hemotoxic
A. Irrelevant B. Viral
B. Relevant C. Surgical
C. Control D. B or C
D. Evidence
1437. In polygraph examination, what is being detected?
A. Lying 1447. Why is polygraphy in the Philippines not
B. Dying admissible?
C. Truth A. Under experimental stage
D. Response B. Under analysis
1438. In pubic hair, what is the best examination to be C. Based on opinion
conducted in the crime laboratory? D. Unskill
A. DNA

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 1448. Phos means light, graphia means _____. 1458. A Smith & Wesson type of firearm has a class
A. Write characteristics of:
B. Study a. Four lands, four grooves right twist
C. Technology b. Six lands, six grooves left twist
D. Record c. Seven lands, seven grooves right twist
d. Five lands, five grooves right twist
1449. In major classification, the right thumb is the
numerator while the left is the denominator?
A. Yes 1459. To impact a motion of rotation to a bullet during
B. No its passage inside the barrel to insure gyroscopic
C. It depends stability in its flight is called:
1450. If you are a patrol officer, what type of CS will you a. Range
photograph even though there is no SOCO b. Gauge
photographer? c. Rifling
A. Vehicular accident scene d. Center-fire
B. Infanticide scene 1460. Most commonly these marks are found on bullets
C. Homicide scene fired from a Revolver due to a poor alignment of
D. Parricide scene the cylinder with the bore:
1451. What is the most common symptom of coma? a. Shaving marks
b. Skid marks
A. Unconsciousness
c. Pivot marks
B. Blackening of lips d. landmarks
C. Dilated eyes 1461. The inventor of gunpowder is credited to:
D. consciousness a. James Forsythe
1452. The dead person is dehydrated. What is lacking? b. Philip O. Gravelle
A. H2O c. Van Amberg
B. Blood d. Berthold Scwartz
C. Air 1461. That science dealing with the motion of projectile
D. Anesthesia from the time the firer squeezes the trigger up to
1453. In police laboratory, the one examined by the time it reaches the muzzle of the barrel is
biologist is not limited to ____. called:
A. Semen
a. Posterior ballistics
B. Blood b. Interior ballistics
C. Riverstone c. Exterior ballistics
D. None of these d. Terminal ballistics
1454. These bullets when fired emit bright red flame 1462. The marks left on a bullet by a gun barrel are
from their base, thereby showing the gunner the different from those left by any other gun barrel.
path as well as the striking point of the bullet. This fact is most useful in directly identifying the:
a. Jacketed bullet
b. Armor-piercing a. Person who fired the particular gun
c. Semi-wed cutter bullet b. Direction form which a shot was fired
d. Tracer bullet c. Gun from which a bullet was fired
1455. The caliber of the firearms can be determined by d.Bullet which caused a fatal wound
the bore diameter measured from:
1463. A patrolman should fire his pistol:
a. Land to firearm
b. Land to land a. At no time
c. Land to groves b. Primarily to stop a quarrel
d. Groves to land c. To impress upon citizen the need for respect
1456. The breech end of the chamber of the firearm is d. Only as a last resort
sealed by a solid flat block of metal against which 1464. . Which of the following, the best method to use
the barrel comes into position when the weapon in firing a revolver is to keep:
is closed for firing, which is termed as:
a. Both eyes closed
a. Extractor
b. Both eyes open
b. Breechface
c. Only the right eye is open
c. Head space
d. Only the left eye is open
d. Breechblock
1465. .Pistols with the same number of barrel grooves
1457. The firearms that propelled projectiles more than
on the differentiated by the direction of the twist
one inch in diameter is called.
of the rifling which may be either be to the left or
a. Machine gun
b. Musket to the right. Of the following statement the one
c. Artillery which can most accurately be inferred is that:
d. Single-shot firearm

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 a. Most pistols have the same number of grooves c. Pistols with the same number of land can be
b. Same pistols have rifling twisted both left and right differentiated by the direction of the lead
c. The direction of the twist in any pistol can be either d. The angle lead is the angle which the land from the
left or right width of the groove
d. All of the above
1466. The secret of good shooting form is: 1474. The marks left on a bullet by a gun barrel are
different from those left by any other gun barrel.
a. Proper sighting of the target This fact is most useful in directly identifying the:
b. Firing slowly and carefully
c. A relaxed and natural position a. Person who fired the particular gun
d. Speed at which the bullet leaves the revolver b. Direction form which a shot was fired
c. Gun from which a bullet was fired
1467. The term muzzle velocity refers most d. Bullet which caused a fatal wound
accurately to the: 1475. A patrolman should fire his pistol:

a. Acceleration of the projectile in flight a. At no time

b. Average speed of the bullet in flight b. Primarily to stop a quarrel
c. Rate of expansion of the grooves in the muzzle c. To impress upon citizen the need for
d. Speed at which the bullet leaves the revolver respect
d. Only as a last resort
1468. Discharged bullet are initiated at:

a. On base or nose 1476. Which of the following, the best method to use in
b. Left side firing a revolver is to keep:
c. Right side
d. The end of the bullet a. Both eyes closed
1469. Discharged shell are initiated at: b. Both eyes open
c. Only the right eye is open
a. Inside or outside of a case near open end d. Only the left eye is open
b. Where firing pin strikes 1477. .Pistols with the same number of barrel grooves
c. On any part of the shell on the differentiated by the direction of the twist
d. None of the above
of the rifling which may be either be to the left or
1470. Rifling in the bore of small arms is
to the right. Of the following statement the one
designed to:
which can most accurately be inferred is that:
a. Increase the speed of the bullet
b. Decrease the amount of recoil a. Most pistols have the same number of
c. Mark the bullet for purposes of identification grooves
d. Prevent the bullet from turning and over and in the b. Same pistols have rifling twisted both left
air and right
c. The direction of the twist in any pistol can
be either left or right
1471. The caliber of the gun is: d. All of the above
1478. The secret of good shooting form is:
a. Its barrel length
b. The circumference of its barrel a. Proper sighting of the target
c. The size of the ammunition used b. Firing slowly and carefully
d. Diameter of the bore c. A relaxed and natural position
1472. A homicide was committed by a shotgun, all parts d. Speed at which the bullet leaves the
revolver
of the exploded shell have been recovered by the
1479. The term muzzle velocity refers most
investigator of the crime. In order to identify the
accurately to the:
shell with the gun that fired, the laboratory should
be given: a. Acceleration of the projectile in flight
b. Average speed of the bullet in flight
a. The cap, the weds and the pellets c. Rate of expansion of the grooves in the
b. The cap and the wads muzzle
c. The cap and the pellets d. Speed at which the bullet leaves the
d. The shot shell only revolver
1473. Which of the following, the most accurate 1480. Discharged bullet are initiated at:
statement concerning the identification of an
unknown firearm by means of the ballistics is that: a. On base or nose
b. Left side
a. Most pistol which have left dead have at least eight c. Right side
lands d. The end of the bullet
b. The width of the grooves in pistol can be determined
by the angle of lead 1481. Discharged shell are initiated at:

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 a. Inside or outside of a case near open end 1488. The pitch or rate of twist in the rifling of a Pistol
b. Where firing pin strikes or Rifle barrels is called:
c. On any part of the shell
d. None of the above a. Land
1482. Rifling in the bore of small arms is b. Groove
designed to: c. Lead
d. One complete revolution inside the bore
a. Increase the speed of the bullet 1489. Identifying markings or imprint are not left on a
b. Decrease the amount of recoil shell by the:
c. Mark the bullet for purposes of
identification a. Firing
d. Prevent the bullet from turning and over b. Ejector
and in the air c. Extractor
1483. The caliber of the gun is: d. Hammer
1490. It is the part of the mechanism in a firearm that
a. Its barrel length withdrawn the shell or cartridge from the
b. The circumference of its barrel
chamber is called the:
c. The size of the ammunition used
d. Diameter of the bore a. Ejector
1484. A homicide was committed by a shotgun, all parts b. Primer
of the exploded shell have been recovered by the c. Striker
investigator of the crime. In order to identify the d. extractor
shell with the gun that fired, the laboratory should
be given:

a. The cap, the weds and the pellets

b. The cap and the wads
c. The cap and the pellets 1491. A revolver to be tested and used in
d. The shot shell only evidence should be picked up by:

a. Inserting a pencil or ballpen in the barrel

1485. Which of the following, the most accurate b. Placing a piece of wire or string through the trigger
statement concerning the identification of an guard
unknown firearm by means of the ballistics is that: c. Grasping the handle with the handkerchief
d. Grasping the barrel with clean cloth
a. Most pistol which have left dead have at 1492. The part of a .45 caliber semi-automatic pistol
least eight lands found at the scene of the crime is normally not
b. The width of the grooves in pistol can be individual marked for identification in the:
determined by the angle of lead
c. Pistols with the same number of land can a. Trigger
be differentiated by the direction of the b. Ejector
lead c. Slide
d. The angle lead is the angle which the land d. barrel
from the width of the groove 1493. The type of bore found on sewed-off shotgun is
1486. Paraffin test is used to: usually a:

a. Detect whether a witness is telling the a. Rifled bore

truth b. Choke bore
b. Discover whether the deceased person was c. Full choke bore
poisoned d. Smooth bore
c. Estimate the approximate time of death of 1494. The maximum distance form the muzzle at which
the deceased a firearm discharge will usually produce
d. Determine whether a suspect has fired a detectable powder pattern on a target is about:
gun recently
a. 6 to 10 inches
1487. The term double action with reference to b. 6 to 10 feet
revolver means most nearly that: c. 6 to 10 yards
d. 6 to 10 meters
a. The revolver has both safely and automatic firing 1495. When a shot is fired from an automatic pistol by a
action criminal:
b. Pressure upon the trigger both cocks and released
the hammer a. The empty shell remain within the chamber
c. The revolver can fire with or without automatic shell b. The empty in most cases will be found at the scene
ejection of firing
d. The shell of a fired shot is ejected and fresh cartridge c. The shell is rarely found at the crime scene
is pushed from the magazine at the same time

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 d. The shell is usually disposed by the perpetrator a. Automatic
1496. When the “draws” of the revolver is completed, b. Repeating arms
the index finger should: c. Single action
d. Ejector
a. Grasp the stock 1505. Weapon in which pressure upon the trigger both
b. Be straight along the barrel cocks and releases the hammer:
c. Touch the outside of the trigger guard
d. Be inside of the trigger guard a. Single action
1497. A member of the police force may properly used b. Trigger
his pistol: c. Hammer
d. Double action
a. To disperse a disorder group of people 1506. When a barrel of a game guns are almost
b. To subdue a maniac invariability bored with a slightly constriction near
c. To prevent the escape of a pelon the muzzle end is known as:
d. To stop a man suspected of having committed a
crime a. Shotgun
1498. A policeman arriving at the scene of a crime b. Choke
found a revolver, in reference to this he should be c. Gauge
most careful: d. Chamber
1507. The only sure method of determining the velocity
a. To see that it is not loaded is by the use of:
b. To put on the safety lock
c. Not to handle it unnecessarily a. Micrometer
d. To mark it readily on the barrel b. Taper Gauge
c. Caliber
1499. The term “MAGNUM” originated in: d. Chronograph
1508. One of the most important single case in Firearms
a. United States Identification History was that involving two men
b. France who were supposed to have their employer and
c. England
his housekeeper in upper New York State:
d. Italy
1500. The chemical eating away of the bore of an arm
a. Castelo Case
due to rusting or the action of salts deposited b. Timbol Case
from the cap or gunpowder is: c. The Stielow Case
d. Castaneda case
a. Pressure
b. Extractor 1509. During the seven years of radical agitation that
c. Corrosion followed the arrest of these men , It was
d. Priming Composition
apparently forgotten that they had been seized on
1501. The mechanical wear and fear of the bore of an
specific charge of murdering one Parameter, a
arm due to sliding friction when the bullet passes
paymaster and his guard Berrdelli. Forensic
through is:
Ballistics sprange into national prominence during
a. Ejector this last phrase of:
b. Single action
c. Erosion a. Brownell Case
d. Potassium nitrate b. Sacco-Vanzetti Case
1502. When the mechanism is so arranged that it will c. Mitchell Case
fire continuously while the trigger is depressed is d. Weber Case
1510. He is doctor of medicine in Medical corps in the
called:
First World War who had transferred to the
a. Double action ordinance corps and considered the Father of
b. Caliber modern Ballistics:
c. Automatic
d. Trigger a. Lieutenant Van Amberg
1503. The distance that the rifling advances to make b. Maj. Calvin Goddard
one complete turn inside the gun barrel is called: c. Capt. Edward C. Crossman
d. Philip O. Gravelle
a. Gauge 1511. The most important single process in barrel
b. Breech End manufacture from the standpoint of the
c. Pitch of rifling identification expert is:
d. Velocity
1504. Weapon in which pressure upon the trigger a. Reaming operation
releases the hammer that must be manually b. Rifling operation
cocked is called: c. Boring operation

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 d. Grinding or machining a. Boat tail bullet
b. Tracer bullet
1512. That part of the mechanism in a firearm which c. Incendiary bullet
causes empty shells or cartridge cases to be d. Ball type
thrown from the gun is called: 1520. A short barrel rifle, with its barrel not longer than
22”.
a. Extractor
b. Ejector a. Gatling guns
c. Hammer b. Pistolized shotgun
d. trigger c. Carbine
1513. This process of combustion results in the solid d. muskets
powder being converted into gases rapidly, and at 1521. A type of weapon designed to propel projectile by
a high temperature, and it is the expansion of means of compressed air is:
these gases which causes the explosive force
a. Springfield armory
which propels the bullet or shot charge along the b. Marlin rifle
barrel. This force is known as: c. Carbine
d. Air rifle
a. Energy 1522. The class characteristics of a 9 mm Browning
b. Pressure Pistol is:
c. Velocity
d. High Intensity a. 5 lands, 5 grooves, right hand twist
1514. A type of firearm having six lands, six grooves b. 4 lands, 4 grooves, right hand twist
with the right hand twist is: c. 6 lands, 6 grooves, right hand twist
d. 7 lands, 7 grooves, right hand twist
a. Smith & Wesson 1523. A caliber 6.35mm is equivalent to:
b. Browning type
c. Colt type a. Caliber .32
d. Webley type b. Caliber .25
1515. An instrument used for the propulsion of c. Caliber .45
projectile by the expansive force of gases coming d. Caliber .22
from burning powder a: 1524. How many lead pellets dies a 12 gauge 00 bunch
shot shotgun cartridges contains:
a. Helixometer
b. Firearm a. 12 gauge
c. Stereoscopic b. 24 pellets
d. Comparison microscope c. 6 pellets
1516. A knurled ring or serrated groove around the d. 9 pellets
body of the bullet which contains lubricant in 1525. Here is a case, when two specimens are
order to minimize friction during the passage of examined under the comparison microscopic and
the bullet inside the bore is: was erroneously drawn a conclusion and actually
no identity exist, this matching is called:
a. Jacketed bullet
b. Wad cutter bullet a. Photomicrograph
c. Cannelure b. Pseudomatch
d. Plated bullet c. Microphotograph
1517. The bouncing off or deflection of a bullet from its d. striagraph
original trajectory is: 1526. When the bullet enters the rifled bore from a
stationary position and is forced abruptly into the
a. Range rifling, its natural tendency is to go straight
b. Fouling forward before encountering the regular rifling
c. Key hole shot
twist is called:
d. ricochet
1518. Occurs when a cartridge fails to explode on time
a. Shaving marks
or there is a delayed in explosion due to faulty b. Skidmarks
functioning of the primer or faulty ignition of the c. Individual characteristics
propellant is: d. Slippage marks
1527. Those characteristics which are determinable
a. Misfire only after the manufacture of the firearm. They
b. Recoil are characteristics whose existence is beyond the
c. Hang-fire
control of men and which have random
d. velocity
1519. type of bullet that contains a mixture, such as distribution. Their existence in a firearm is
phosphorus or other material, that can set fire brought about through the failure of the tool in its
upon impact is called: normal operation through wear and tear, abuse,

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 mutilation, corrosion, erosion and other fortuitous b. 6.35 mm
causes: c. 9 mm
d. 7.63 mm
a. Forensic ballistics 1537. When a cartridge fails to explode on time or
b. Class characteristics delayed in explosion;
c. Riflings
d. Individual characteristics a. Misfired cartridge
1528. The steel block which closes the rear of the bore b. Hang-fire
against the force of the charge is: c. Tapered cartridge
d. Rebated cartridge
a. Breechface 1538. What is the equipment in measuring the velocity
b. Breechblock of the bullet?
c. Chamber a. Omoscope
d. bore b. Helixometer
1529. Firearms which propel projectile of less than one c. Chronograph
inch in diameter are generally classified as: d. micrometer
1539. Riflings located inside the barrel of a gun is a
a. Artillery combination of:
b. Small arms a. Pitch grifling
c. Cannons b. Twist
d. Recoilless rifle c. Lands & grooves
1530. It is the study of firearms Identification by means d. cannelures
of the ammunition fired through them:
1540. The sound created at the muzzle of the firearm
a. Ballistics after explosion is called:
b. Forensic Ballistics
a. Suppressor
c. Terminal ballistics
b. Muzzle blast
d. Interior ballistics
c. Compensation
1531. The class characteristics of a Smith & Wesson,
d. choke
revolver caliber .38 is: 1541. What are muzzle loading firearms?
a. Muskets
a. Six lands, six grooves, right hand twist
b. Shotgun
b. Five lands, five grooves, right hand twist
c. Single sot firearms
c. Six lands, six grooves, left hand twist
d. Rifled arms
d. Four lands, four grooves, right hand twist
1542. In a caliber 7.62 mm x 51 cartridge. What do you
1532. Velocity of the bullet is being measure in:
mean by 51?
a. Foot pound a. The diameter of the cartridge case
b. Lbs./sq. inch b. The shoulder of the cartridge case
c. Feet per second c. The diameter of the cartridge
d. millimeter d. The length of the cartridge case
1533. How many types of problem are there in Forensic 1543. A caliber 7.62 mm x 51 is equivalent
Ballistics? a. Caliber .32
b. Caliber .30
a. 8 c. Caliber .308
b. 7 d. Caliber 30.06
c. 6 1544. How many pellets are there in a 00 buckshot
d. 5 shotgun cartridge 12 gauge?
1534. What is that part in a cartridge cases where in the a. 12 pellets
flame coming from the priming composition b. 9 pellets
passes? c. 10 pellets
d. 16 pellets
a. Shell head 1545. . A firearm which features a movable firearm
b. Vent which is manually actuated in motion parallel to
c. Primer pocket the barrel by the shooter;
d. anvil a. Slide action type
1535. What is the most powerful handgun in the world? b. Lower action type
c. Bolt action type
a. Magnum .357
d. Single shot firearm
b. Magnum .44
1546. A device primarily designed for another purposes
c. Magnum .50
that have a gun mechanism in corporated in
d. Magnum .41
1536. What is the equivalent of a caliber .25 in them.
millimeter? a. Gas gun
b. Liberator
a. 7.65mm c. Freakish device

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 d. Flare guns 1556. In a caliber .30-30. What do you mean by the
1547. The numerals, letters and symbols stamped into second 30?
the head of the cartridge case to shotshell to
identify the manufacturer, caliber or gauge. a. Refers to the caliber
a. Headspace b. Refers to the weight of gunpowder
b. Headstamp c. Refers to the weight of the cartridge case
c. Proof mark d. Refers to the weight of the bullet
d. ratchet 1557. In a caliber .250-3000.The 3000 refers to the.
1548. The distance from the face of the closed breech
a. Muzzle energy
of a firearm to the surface in the chamber on
b. Diameter of the cartridge
which the cartridge seats. c. Muzzle velocity of the bullet
a. Keyhole d. Pressure developed
b. Headspace 1558. In a caliber .45 pistol. What is defective when
c. Gas operator more than one bullets will come out of the barrel
d. Silencer
in one press of the trigger?
1549. The most important single process in barrel
manufacture from the standpoint of the a. Slide
identification expert. b. Main spring
a. Reaming operation c. Disconnector
b. Rifling operation d. Magazine catch
c. Boring operation 1559. The amount of force which must be applied to
d. Grinding operation the trigger of a firearm to cause sear to be
1550. The tumbling of the bullet in flight and hitting the released.
target sideways;
a. Ricochet a. Velocity
b. Hang-fire b. Muzzle energy
c. Key hole shot c. Trigger pull
d. misfired d. Shocking power
1551. An obsolete barrel designed in which the major 1560. Characteristic of photographic paper usually
length of the barrel in smooth and the few inches utilized in police photography?
are rifled. a. Single, glossy, white
b. Single, matte, cream
a. Gas operated
c. Double, glossy, white
b. Damascus barrel
d. Double matte, cream
c. Paradox gun
1561. When a photograph was developed, the objects in
d. Cape gun
open space casts a deep and uniform shadow,
1552. A notched wheel on the rear of a revolver
what was the lighting condition when the shot
cylinder to rotate when force is applied by a level was taken?
called a hand. a. Bright
a. Headspace b. Dull
b. Ratchet c. Hazy
c. Trigger pull d. Cloudy
d. Cylinder stop
1553. A rigid loop which partially surrounds the trigger
to prevent accident discharge or damage to it. 1562. Refers to the response of film to different
a. Trigger pull wavelength of light source.
b. Trigger guard a. Spectral sensitivity
c. Trailing edge b. Color sensitivity
d. Thumb rest c. Light sensitivity
1554. Pressure developed after explosion is measured d. Film sensitivity
in: 1563. A film sensitive to ultra violet rays and blue color
only.
a. feet/second
a. Blue sensitive
b. Lbs./sq. inch
b. Orthochromatic
c. Foot pound
c. Panchromatic
d. Millimetre
d. Infra red
1564. Lighting condition when objects in open space
1555. Used in cases such as for sending signals and
casts no shadow.
enabling to see enemies in the dark. a. Bright
b. Dull
a. Harpoon guns c. Hazy
b. Gas guns d. Cloudy
c. Flare guns
d. Care guns 1565. Lens corrected for astigmatism.
a. Aprochomat lens

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 b. Anastigmat lens d. 30 to 60 minutes
c. Achromatic lens 1577. In enlarging a photograph what would be the ideal
d. Rapid rectilinear lens paper for printing?
1566. A camera used for surveillance must have a lens a. Chloride paper
with focal length that is: b. Bromide paper
a. Wide angle lens c. Contact paper
b. Normal lens d. Chloro-bromide paper
c. Telephoto lens 1578. This refers to the absence of all colors.
d. Narrow angle lens a. White
1567. When a material does not allow light to pass its b. Red
medium it is said to be: c. Blue
a. Transparent d. Black
b. Translucent 1579. A lighting condition wherein subject in open space
c. Opaque casts a transparent shadow.
d. All of the above a. Hazy
1568. To separate colors, this homogenous medium b. Cloudy Dull
absorbs and transmits light rays passing through c. Cloudy bright
it. d. Bright
a. Filter 1580. To view watermarks in disputed documents, what
b. Stop bath particular method of photography is utilized?
c. Developer a. Bounce light
d. Fixer b. Side light
1569. In crime scene photography what is the sufficient c. Transmitted light
lens type for interior photograph? d. Reflected light
a. Wide angle lens 1581. Its primary function is to prevent the
b. Normal lens contamination of two chemical solution in
c. Telephoto lens chemical processing in photography.
d. Narrow angle lens a. Development
1570. It is used to allow light to enter through the lens b. Stop-bath
for a predetermined time interval. c. Fixation
a. View finder d. Bleaching
b. Shutter 1582. Which among the following comprises the
c. Light tight box essential parts of a camera?
d. Holder of sensitized material a. Body, Lens, Shutter, Holder of sensitized
1571. Its primary use in photography is focus the light to material, View finder
the subject. b. Light tight box, Shutter, holder of
a. Light tight box sensitized material, View finder
b. Shutter c. Body, Lens, Range finder, holder of
c. Lens sensitized material, Shutter
d. View finder d. Light tight box, Shutter, range finder, Lens,
1572. It refers to the nearest distance at which a lens is holder of sensitized material
focused with a given particular diaphragm 1583. A lens with a focal length of less than the diagonal
opening. of its negative material.
a. Depth of field a. Wide angle lens
b. Hyper-focal distance b. Normal lens
c. Focal distance c. Long lens
d. Scale bed d. Telephoto lens
1573. It is the distance measured from the nearest to 1584. Mechanism that is used to measure the angle of
the farthest object. convergence of light coming from a subject as
a. Depth field seen from two apertures.
b. Hyper-focal distance a. Focusing scale
c. Scale bed b. Scale bed
d. Focal distance c. View finder
1574. Which among the following is not a primary color? d. Range finder
a. Red
b. Blue
c. Yellow
d. Green 1585. It is a magnified picture of a small object produced
1575. It is a microscopically small photograph. by connecting the lens of a camera with the ocular
a. Microphotograph of a compound microscope.
b. Photomicrograph a. Microphotograph
c. Photomacrograph b. Photomicrograph
d. Macrophotograph c. Photomacrograph
1576. The normal developing time of a paper or film. d. Macrophotograph
a. 1 to 1 ½ minutes 1586. Attributed as the person who first discovered first
b. 5 to 10 minutes true photography.
c. 20 to 30 minutes a. William Henry Fox Talbot
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 b. Thomas Wedgewood d. Focal length
c. Louis Jacques Mande Dagurre 1597. Infrared radiation is also referred to as:
d. Joseph Nicephore Niepce a. Laser light
1587. Basic film exposure with an ASA rating of 100 at b. Coherent light
bright sunlight with normal subject. c. Black light
a. 1/30 f-8 d. Heat rays
b. 1/125 f-11 1598. The emulsion speed rating of films expressed in
c. 1/60 f-4 logarithmic values refers to:
d. 1/250 f 2-8 a. ISO rating
1588. In police photography, to obtain a general view of b. ASA rating
the scene we use a camera at what particular c. DIN rating
level? d. BSI rating
a. Elevated 1599. Commonly used hardening agent in an acid fixing
b. Eye level solution.
c. Bird’s eye view a. Hypo or silver halide
d. Worm’s eye view b. Potassium Alum
1589. The wavelength of electromagnetic energy in c. Sodium Sulfate
reference to visible light is: d. Acetic Acid
a. 001 to 100 1600. Chemical used as an accelerator in a developer
b. 300 to 400 solution.
c. 400 to 700 a. Hydroquinone
d. 700 to 1000 b. Sodium sulfite
1590. Photography is defined as drawing with what c. Sodium carbonate
particular element? d. Potassium bromide
a. Light 1601. Refers to the product of illumination and time.
b. Camera a. Exposure
c. Film b. Development
d. Developer c. Sensitized material
1591. It refers to a lens that is characterized as by the d. Photograph
thicker center and thinner sides. 1602. Chemical used in developing to prevent fogging.
a. Positive lens a. Potassium Bromide
b. Negative lens b. Sodium Sulfite
c. Concave lens c. Sodium Carbonate
d. Convex lens d. Boric Acid
1592. It is the film with the widest range of sensitivity to 1603. A homogenous mixture which absorbs and
the various energies of the electromagnetic transmits differentially light rays passing through
spectrum. it.
a. Infra-red a. Stop bath
b. X-ray b. Fixer
c. Orthochromatic c. Filter
d. Panchromatic d. Dektol
1593. The first use of photography in police work is in 1604. Papillary or friction ridges may be located at:
what particular field? a. Fingers
a. Crime prevention b. Palms
b. Identification files c. Soles of the feet
c. Surveillance work d. All of the choices
d. Crime scene investigation 1605. The fingerprint classification which is used in the
1594. The chemical processing step wherein the latent US and other English speaking country.
image recorded on the paper or film becomes a. Henry System
visible. b. Batley System
a. Fixer c. Bertillion System
b. Bleacher d. Galton System
c. Stop bath 1606. Which among the following is considered as a
d. Developer basic type of ridge characteristics?
a. Ridge endings
b. Bifurcation
1595. Refers to the process of taking pictures with the c. Dots
use of microscope. d. All of the choices
a. Microphotography 1607. Study of the characteristics formed by the sides of
b. Photomicrography papillary ridges as means of identification.
c. Macrophotography a. Edgeoscopy
d. Photomacrography b. Poroscopy
1596. The primary controlling factor of the sharpness of c. Podoscopy
image refers to: d. Chiroscopy
a. Hyper-focal distance 1608. In taking fingerprints the absolute control of the
b. Focal distance subject’s hand is:
c. Focusing a. Necessary
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 b. Unnecessary d. Whorl
c. Optional 1620. A fingerprint pattern with a single loop but it has
d. Excessive two deltas.
1609. Usually occupational damage to ridge formation a. Accidental loop
is: b. Double loop
a. Temporary c. Whorl
b. Permanent d. Central pocket loop
c. Lasting 1621. What pattern bears a downward slant of ridge
d. Stable from the thumb toward the little finger?
1610. An inking pad which requires no ink or roller. a. Tented Arch
a. Porelon b. Radial loop
b. Special pad c. Ulnar loop
c. Inkless pad d. Loop
d. None of the foregoing 1622. A fingerprint pattern which one or more ridges
1611. If the same digits of both hands are missing, the enter on either side of the impression by a
impression are arbitrarily classified as. recurve, and terminate on the same side where
a. Plain whorl with meeting tracing the ridge has entered.
b. Loops with ridge count a. Tented arch
c. Arches b. Radial loop
d. Dependent on ridge tracings c. Ulnar loop
1612. Referred to as outer terminus: d. Loop
a. Delta 1623. It is a triangular shaped and formed by the
b. Dots bifurcation of a ridge at the outer portion of the
c. Bifurcation pattern.
d. None of the foregoing a. Latent prints
1613. Failure to clean the slab after using it produces: b. Ridge
a. Impression of false markings c. Core
b. Accentuation of patterns d. Delta
c. Pattern reversals
d. Difficulty in photographing 1624. The three basic types of ridge characteristics are:
1614. In taking fingerprints ______ are rolled away from a. Enclosure, long ridges and upthrusts
the body of the subject. b. Criss-crossing ridges, incipient ridges and
a. All fingers spurs
b. All fingers except the thumbs c. Ridge endings, dots and bifurcations
c. Both thumbs d. Type lines, converging ridges and recurving
d. Both little fingers ridges
1615. Impressions which are taken simultaneously on 1625. A single ridge that bifurcates and meets again to
the fingerprint card are referred to as: form a single ridge is called:
a. Rolled impressions a. Enclosure ridge
b. Plain impressions b. Dot ridges
c. Fragmentary impressions c. Short ridges
d. Visible impressions d. Resembling a loop
1616. Known for his rule which states that “No two
individuals in the world are exactly the same size
and that human skeleton does not change after 20 1626. Which part of the human body has no papillary
years. ridges.
a. Darwin a. Soles of the foot
b. Mendel b. Palm
c. Galton c. Finger
d. Bertillon d. Elbow
1617. The easiest means of discovering latent 1627. Points often missed in rolling impression.
fingerprint, is to view the area: a. Bifurcation
a. Obliquely b. Core
b. About half an inch distance c. Delta
c. Directly d. Ridge
d. About one inch distance 1628. Fingerprints left at the crime scene which may be
1618. Fingerprint pattern in which two or different type an impression or imprint.
of pattern are represented: a. Latent print
a. Accidental Whorl b. Pattern
b. Central pocket loop c. Loop
c. Double loop d. Arch
d. Whorl 1629. Which among the following is not considered as a
1619. A distinct fingerprint pattern with two separate basic fingerprint pattern?
loops, with its respective shoulder and deltas. a. Loop
a. Double loop b. Arch
b. Accidental loop c. Whorl
c. Central pocket loop d. Accidental
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 1630. A fingerprint pattern in which the ridges form a b. Dangerous drugs
sequence of spirals around core axes. c. Poison
a. Whorl d. Antidotes
b. Central pocket loop 1641. Refers to poisons which produces inflammation of
c. Double loop the mucus membrane and characterized by
d. Accidental vomiting, pain in the abdomen and purging.
1631. Refers to the study of sweat gland openings found a. Corrosives
on papillary ridges as a means of identification. b. Irritants
a. Poroscopy c. Narcotics
b. Edgeoscopy d. Tetanics
c. Podoscopy 1642. When a substance acts directly upon the spinal
d. Dactyloscopy cord producing immobility or stiffness to the parts
1632. A ridge which forks out into two ridges. to which they are attached, it is classified as:
a. Delta a. Corrosives
b. Bifurcation b. Irritants
c. Core c. Narcotics
d. Pores d. Tetanics
1633. Fingerprints pattern in which the downward slant 1643. In criminal investigation metallurgy plays an
or ridges from the little finger toward the thumb. important application in:
a. Ulnar loop a. Counterfeit coins
b. Radial loop b. Theft and Robbery
c. Arch c. Bombs and Explosives
d. Whorl d. Restoration of tampered serial numbers
1634. Basis of fingerprint identification. 1644. Agents which depress or retard the physiological
a. Pores action of an organ.
b. Ridges a. Corrosives
c. Friction ridges b. Sedatives
d. Latent print c. Tetanics
1635. Fingerprinting is universally used as a valuable d. Narcotics
method of identification due to following reason;
except: 1645. According to the methods of isolation, what
a. Fingerprints are not changeable poison is isolated by means of distillation.
b. There are no two identical fingerprints a. Volatile poisons
c. Wounded or burned out patterns will re- b. Non volatile poisons
appear c. Metallic poisons
d. It is formed in the ninth month of d. Tetanic poisons
pregnancy 1646. When the effect of a poison is marked by
disturbance of function or death within a short
1636. Period of a person’s life wherein papillary ridges time, the poisoning is classified as:
are formed and developed? a. Acute poisoning
a. 3rd month of fetus life b. Sub-acute poisoning
b. 6th month of infancy c. Chronic poisoning
c. At birth d. Suicidal poisoning
d. 3 months after birth 1647. When the action of the poison is marked by
1637. Nucleus of the fingerprint pattern which may disturbance produced in distant part from the site
resemble a loop, spiral or rod. of application, it is classified as:
a. Delta a. Local
b. Core b. Remote
c. Ridge c. Combined
d. Whorl d. Acute
1638. Minimum identical characteristic detail to justify
the identity between two points. 1648. Referred to as the circulating tissue of the body.
a. Nine a. Semen
b. Twelve b. Blood
c. Fifteen c. Cells
d. Eighteen d. Muscles
1639. Study which deals of poisons, their origin, physical 1649. A man of average built would normally have how
and chemical properties, physiological action, many quarts of blood?
treatment and method of detection. a. 6 quarts
a. Forensic Chemistry b. 7 quarts
b. Toxicology c. 8 quarts
c. Posology d. 9 quarts
d. Forensic Medicine 1650. It is a stray yellow colored liquid, and comprises
1640. A substance which when introduced into the body about 65% of the blood.
is absorbed in the blood stream and acting a. Platelets
chemically is capable of producing noxious effect. b. Fibrin
a. Drugs c. Leucocytes
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 d. Plasma d. Microscopic analysis
1651. It is the oxygen carrier of the blood. 1662. Kind of ink is wherein the use of chemical
a. Plasma bleaches is ineffective.
b. Hemoglobin a. Carbon
c. Erythrocytes b. Logwood
d. Fibrin c. Nigrosine
1652. Reliable and easy way to test blood even when it d. Gallotanic
is decomposed and stained with contamination. 1663. Refers to any agent which neutralizes poison and
a. Benzidine test its effects.
b. Van Deen’s Test a. Emetics
c. Phenolphthalein test b. Antidotes
d. Precipitin test c. Alkaloids
1653. Stage of blood examination wherein the actual d. Tetanics
proof that subject is definitely blood. 1664. Which among the following exhibits bluish
a. Preliminary test fluorescence when exposed to u.v. light?
b. Confirmatory test a. Blood
c. Precipitin test b. Semen
d. Blood typing and grouping c. Saliva
1654. Test to determine whether blood is of human d. Urine
origin or not. 1665. Oldest known explosive.
a. Preliminary test a. Black powder
b. Confirmatory test b. Smoke powder
c. Precipitin test c. Dynalite
d. Blood typing and grouping d. TNT
1666. Deals with the study and identification by means
1655. Positive result in the preliminary examination for of body fluids.
semen in Barberio’s test. a. Immunology
a. Picric acid b. Serology
b. Spermine picrate c. Posology
c. Napthol diazonium d. Pharmacology
d. Anthraquinous chloride 1667. The process in reproducing physical evidence by
1656. Animal fiber may be best described by: plaster moulds.
a. It is composed of protein a. Casting
b. Gives yellow fluorescence under ultra b. Cementing
violet light c. Moulage
c. It burns fast d. Pickling
d. It has acid like odor when burned 1668. Major component of a glass.
1657. When gunpowder explodes, this would determine a. Lime
the approximate time of firing the gun? b. Silica
a. Soot c. Soda
b. Nitrates and nitrites d. Lime
c. Gases 1669. Highly irritant poison which causes local
d. Metallic fragments destruction of tissues and causes nausea.
1658. In determining whether the hair is of human or a. Corrosives
animal origin what should the chemist examine b. Irritants
under the microscope? c. Tetanics
a. Parts of the shaft d. Asthenics
b. Parts of the tip
c. Parts of the hair 1670. A super cooled liquid which possess high viscosity
d. Parts of the root and rigidity.
1659. A fiber which burns rapidly and the fumes turns a. Lime
blue litmus to red, it is: b. Soda
a. Cotton c. Glass
b. Silk d. Gel
c. Fiber glass 1671. An organic bacterial poison.
d. Steel wool a. Strychnine
1660. It is the part of the hair which is referred to as a b. Ptomaine
race determinant? c. Brucine
a. Cortex d. Chloroform
b. Cuticle 1672. This test is used to detect the presence of semen
c. Medulla particularly in stained clothing.
d. Shaft a. Microscopic test
1661. A test for fiber used in determining whether it is b. Barberio’s test
of human or animal origin c. Florence test
a. Ignition test or burning d. Ultraviolet test
b. Fluorescence analysis 1673. The best method in comparative soil analysis.
c. Chemical analysis a. Chemical examination
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 b. Density gradient test d. Gallotanic
c. Ultra-violet light examination 1685. It refers to the obscuring of writing by
d. Microscopic test superimposing ink, pencil or other marking
1674. To know whether a paper is not easily torn, what material.
test is utilized? a. Erasure
a. Accelerated aging test b. Obliterated writing
b. Bursting strength test c. Indented writing
c. Opacity examination d. Contact writing
d. Microscopic examination 1686. Female pelvis diameter is _______ compared with
1675. A gas with a rotten egg odor usually made by male pelvis.
decaying body. a. Greater
a. Chloride b. Equal
b. Ammonia c. Lesser
c. Carbon dioxide d. Less significant
d. Hydrogen sulfide
1676. The application of chemical principles in the
examination of evidence.
a. Forensics
b. Criminalistics 1687. How many minutes is necessary persistent
c. Instrumentation cessation in respiration, circulation and brain
d. Forensic Chemistry function is sufficient to declare a person clinically
1677. To positively determine the presence of blood in dead?
stained material, what test is used? a. 10-15 minutes
a. Takayama Test b. 15-30 minutes
b. Phenolphtalien test c. 30-45 minutes
c. Baberio’s test d. 45-60 minutes
d. Florence test
1678. According to the method of isolation, volatile 1688. A simple test used to determine cessation of
poisons may be isolated by means of what respiration by placing water or mercury in a
process? container on top of the chest of a person and no
a. Extraction visible movement is noticed.
b. Dilution a. Winslov test
c. Distillation b. Florence test
d. Dialysis c. Barberio test
1679. Which of the following is not an accurate test for d. Castle Meyer test
the presence of alcohol in the human body? 1689. A muscular change characterized by the softness
a. Saliva test of the muscles and in which it no longer responds
b. Harger breath test to mechanical or electrical stimulus due to the
c. Fecal test dissolution of proteins.
d. Drug test a. Stage of primary flaccidity
1680. A disturbance produced by poison on that part b. Stage of secondary flaccidity
with which the poison came into contact. c. Rigor mortis
a. Acute d. Livor mortis
b. Local 1690. In tropical countries, hair and nails are detached
c. Remote from a dead body in how many days?
d. Combined a. 7
1681. A material which is used to which is used to b. 14
improve the quality of the paper. c. 21
a. Sizing material d. 28
b. Rosin 1691. Maggots are seen in dead bodies particularly in
c. Gelatin warm countries within how many days from
d. Starch death?
1682. By adding Millon’s reagent, a pink color would be a. 1
formed if it is pesent. b. 2
a. Rosin c. 3
b. Starch d. 4
c. Casein 1692. Refers to a fracture where there is a break in the
d. Gelatin bone, loss of alignment of the affected bones and
1683. Oldest ink material known to man. separation of fragment bones.
a. Logwood a. Simple fracture
b. Nigrosine b. Compound fracture
c. Carbon c. Comminuted fracture
d. Gallotanic d. None of the foregoing
1684. Only type of ink wherein age may be determined. 1693. Bleeding usually in the cavity or organs in the
a. Logwood body.
b. Nigrosine a. Internal hemorrhage
c. Carbon b. Hematoma
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 c. Contusion 1703. Average time for the stomach to empty its
d. Internal wound contents after meals.
1694. Abrasion due to contact with a rough, hard object. a. 2 to 3 hours
a. Imprint abrasion b. 3 to 4 hours
b. Pressure abrasion c. 4 to 5 hours
c. Friction abrasion d. 5 to 6 hours
d. Graze 1704. Rate of growth of human hair.
1695. Refers to an abrasion due to pressure applied and a. 0.4 to 0.5 mm. / day
with accompanying movement over the skin. b. 0.5 to 0.6 mm. / day
a. Pressure abrasion c. 0.6 to 0.7 mm. / day
b. Imprint abrasion d. 0.7 to 0.8 mm. / day
c. Impact abrasion 1705. A person is considered dead if the rate of fall of
d. Graze body temperature is about:
1696. A nervous disease marked by seizures with a. 10 to 15 deg. F
convulsion and loss of consciousness. b. 15 to 20 deg. F
a. Epilepsy c. 20 to 25 deg. F
b. Apoplexy d. 25 to 30 deg. F
c. Catalepsy 1706. A break or solution in the continuity of the skin.
d. Uremia a. Wound
1697. Refers to the accumulation in the blood ordinarily b. Trauma
eliminated in the urine; specifically a toxic c. Bruise
condition seen in urinary suppression, marked by d. Scratch
nausea, vertigo, vomiting, coma and convulsion. 1707. A wound which inflicted in the body which is so
serious that it will endanger one’s life.
a. Epilepsy a. Non-mortal wound
b. Apoplexy b. Mortal wound
c. Catalepsy c. Trauma
d. Uremia d. Coup injury
1698. Livor mortis or post mortem lividity is completed 1708. A collection of blood underneath the skin.
in how many hours when the blood has already a. Contusion
clotted or diffused to different parts of the body b. Bruise
wherein the discoloration is permanent and c. Petechiae
darker in color? d. Hematoma
a. 12 hours 1709. Straining or tearing of tendons, ligaments and
b. 24 hours muscles causing skin discoloration and extreme
c. 36 hours pain.
d. 48 hours a. Sprain
1699. In blood grouping, should there be no b. Contusion
agglutination with either group A or B what would c. Fracture
be the particular blood group of the sample. d. Dislocation
a. Group A 1710. It is fracture wherein a break of the skin and bone
b. Group B is evident.
c. Group AB a. Simple
d. Group O b. Compound
1700. Period of time wherein human bones will not c. Comminuted
exhibit changes. d. Dislocation
a. 10 years 1711. A displacement of the articular surface of the
b. 20 years bone without external wounds.
c. 30 years a. Sprain
d. 40 years b. Fracture
1701. It is the formation of a soft, friable and brownish c. Hematoma
white greasy substance in the soft fatty tissue d. Dislocation
after death. 1712. In gunshot wounds, when there is evident burning
a. Saponification of tissue and blackening of the skin, it may be
b. Rigor mortis ascertained that it is a near contact fire meaning
c. Mummification that the distance of the body to the gun is
d. Maceration approximately.
1702. A discoloration of the body after death when the a. 6 inches
blood tends to pool in the blood vessels of the b. 12 inches
most dependent portions of the body and starts c. 18 inches
20 to 30 minutes after death and is completed by d. 24 inches
12 hours. 1713. A physical injury which is found at the site and
a. Rigor mortis also the opposite site of the application of force.
b. Primary flaccidity a. Extensive injury
c. Maceration b. Coup injury
d. Livor mortis c. Contre coup injury
d. Coup and contre coup injury
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 1714. A physical injury found at the site of the b. Post mortem rigidity
application of force. c. Cadaveric spasm
a. Extensive injury d. Secondary flaccidity
b. Coup injury
c. Contre coup injury
d. Coup and contre coup injury 1725. Approximate time for the completion of one case
for DNA testing.
1715. A wound produced by a blunt instrument such as a. Minimum of 2 weeks
log and stone. b. Minimum of 4 weeks
a. Punctured wound c. Minimum of six weeks
b. Hack wound d. Minimum of eight weeks
c. Lacerated wound
d. Incised wound 1726. Period of time wherein there body would be
skeletonized, under normal conditions in tropical
1716. When the person was stabbed by an ice pick, countries.
what wound would be exhibited? a. 1 month
a. Punctured wound b. 3 months
b. Hack wound c. 6 months
c. Lacerated wound d. 12 months
d. Incised wound 1727. In cases of suicide, what would be the noticeable
1717. Wound produced by a butcher’s knife. muscular change.
a. Punctured wound a. Cold stiffening
b. Hack wound b. Heat stiffening
c. Lacerated wound c. Instantaneous rigor
d. Incised wound d. Putrefaction
1718. The basic building blocks of DNA are as follows 1728. Fixed discoloration of the blood clothed inside the
ACGT, A stands for what? blood vessels or has diffused to different parts of
a. Adenine the body.
b. Adenide a. Diffusion lividity
c. Adenum b. Clotting of the blood
d. Adenoid c. Rigor mortis
1719. In crimes which took place twenty years ago, what d. Hypostatic lividity
sample should be obtained for DNA testing? 1729. Approximate average amount of semen per
a. Fingerprints ejaculation under normal conditions.
b. Hair a. 2 to 2.5 cc
c. Skeleton b. 2.5 to 5 cc
d. Teeth c. 5 to 10 cc
1720. It is inherited from the mother found in the d. 1.5 to 3.5 cc
mitochondria which is in the cell body 1730. DNA is found in all nucleated cells of the body, it is
a. Nuclear DNA regarded as the fingerprint of life. What does it stands
b. Helix for?
c. Mitochondrial DNA a. Deonatural acid
d. DNA nucleus b. Dynamic natural anti-body
1721. Period of time wherein human bones will not c. Deoxyribonucleic acid
exhibit changes. d. Deoxyribunucliec acid
a. 10 years 1731. A powerful tool in identification which points to
b. 20 years the source of biological evidence by matching it
c. 30 years with samples from the victims, suspects and their
d. 40 years relatives.
1722. A complete, continuous, persistent cessation of a. DNA profiling
respiration, circulation and almost all brain b. Serology
function of an organism. c. Instrumentation
a. Somatic death d. Forensics
b. Cellular death 1732. Body fluids routinely tested because they are
c. Molecular death good sources of cells.
d. Apparent death a. Saliva and tears
1723. Manner of walking of a person which may be b. Semen and saliva
natural c. Urine and semen
a. Mannerism d. Semen and blood
b. Tic 1733. Human being’s tissue attached to the body which
c. Gait may undergo DNA testing.
d. Body language a. Hair
1724. This muscular change upon death lasts about 20 b. Bone
to 30 minutes and is characterized by the c. Skin
relaxation of the muscles and loss of their natural d. Fingernails
tone. 1734. It is the dissolution of the tissues by the digestive
a. Stage of primary flaccidity action of its bacteria and enzyme.
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 a. Primary flaccidity 1745. In determining the sex by analyzing the skeleton,
b. Post mortem rigidity which part is not used?
c. Cadaveric spasm a. Skull
d. Putrefaction b. Pelvis
1735. Conclusive evidence that subject person is a c. Sternum
female. d. Tibia
a. Possession of vagina 1746. A serious burn involving skin nerves, muscles and
b. Possession of ovaries bones, considered as the most severe burn
c. Possession of estrogen causing death due to loss of fluids and electrolytes
d. Possession of progesterone in the body and massive infection.
a. Sunburn
1736. A person with big face and prominent cheek b. 1st degree burn
bones. c. 2nd degree burn
a. Hippocratic facie d. 3rd degree burn
b. Mongolian facie 1747. A person who is devoid of oxygen for around 3 to
c. Myxedema facie 5 minutes would die, the case of death would be?
d. Facies lionine a. Stupor
1737. Conclusive evidence that a person is a male. b. Stroke
a. Presence of testis c. Asphyxia
b. Presence of androsterone d. Exhaustion
c. Possession of penis 1748. Most effective method in determining sex of an
d. Possession of testosterone individual.
1738. A whitish foam at the mouth and nostrils due to a. Gonodal test
mucous secretion of the respiratory track after b. Social test
death. c. Genital test
a. “Cutis anserina” d. Chromosomal test
b. Washerwoman 1749. Its medical-legal importance is to approximate the
c. “Champignon d’ ocume” time of death.
d. Cadaveric spasm a. Cadaveric spasm
1739. It is a death that occurs due to illness of the body. b. Putrefaction
a. Natural death c. Mascular contraction
b. Molecular death d. Rigor mortis
c. Somatic death 1750. Defloration is the laceration of the hymen due to:
d. Apparent death a. Masturbation
1740. A type of burn produced as a result of the body b. Fingering
coming into contact with a moving object. c. Sodomy
a. Thermal burn d. Sexual intercourse
b. Friction burn 1751. In cellular or molecular death, death of individual
c. Radiation burn cell occurs in:
d. Electrical burn a. 20 to 30 minutes
1741. A condition of a woman who have had one or b. 3 to 6 hours
more sexual experience but not had conceived a c. 12 to 24 hours
child. d. 24 to 36 hours
a. Moral virginity 1752. Most noticeable sign of death.
b. Demi-virginity a. Cessation of respiration
c. Physical virginity b. Progressive fall of body temperature
d. Virgo intact c. Insensibility of body and loss of power to
1742. Refers to the action of a bacteria to a dead body. move
a. Flaccidity d. Cessation of heart action and circulation
b. Rigidity 1753. Most common and scientific method of detecting
c. Lividity deception.
d. Putrefaction a. Polygraphy
1743. A condition of exposure to cold temperature of b. Polygraph
certain parts of the body which produces c. Truth serum
mechanical disruption of cell structure d. Interrogation
characterized by cold stiffening and diminished 1754. Devised an instrument capable of continuously
body temperature. recording pulse rate, respiration and blood
a. Gangrene pressure.
b. Frostbite a. William Marston
c. Trench foot b. Angelo Mosso
d. Immersion foot c. John Larson
1744. Failure of adequate heat elimination related to d. Sticker
the breakdown of sweating mechanism.
a. Heat cramp
b. Heat exhaustion 1755. Psychological response to any demand.
c. Heat stroke a. Reaction
d. Burning b. Stress
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 c. Pressure 1766. It records the subject’s skin resistance to a small
d. All of the above amount of electricity.
1756. For male subjects, what is the amount of air a. Cardisphygmograph
pressure is to be utilized in the system of cardio or b. Sphygmomanometer
vent. c. Galvanograph
a. 30 mm d. Pneumograph
b. 60 mm 1767. This component records the changes in the
c. 90 mm breathing of the subject.
d. 120 mm a. Cardisphygmograph
1757. A subject must have at least how many hours of b. Sphygmomanometer
sleep considered fit for polygraph examination. c. Galvanograph
a. 5 d. Pneumograph
b. 6 1768. Kind of lie wherein a person assumes another
c. 7 identity to deceive others.
d. 8 a. Black lie
b. White lie
1758. Type of question related to the facts of the case c. Red lie
and is answerable by NO. d. Yellow lie
a. Relevant question 1769. Deviation from normal tracing of the subject in
b. Irrelevant question the relevant question.
c. General question a. Reaction
d. Immaterial question b. Normal response
1759. Question known to the subject and is answerable by c. Specific response
YES. d. Positive response
a. Relevant question 1770. Chart tracing of subject when irrelevant questions
b. Irrelevant question were answered.
c. General question a. Reaction
d. Immaterial question b. Normal response
1760. An act of discovery, indicative of the fact that c. Specific response
something is hidden or obscure. d. Positive response
a. Fear 1771. Normal time interval for pre-test interview.
b. Deception a. 20 to 30 minutes
c. Detection b. 30 to 60 minutes
d. Reaction c. 60 to 90 minutes
1761. An inhibition of a previous activity of an effector d. 90 to 120 minutes
organ or organism as a result of stimulation. 1772. The primary objective of post test interview.
a. Response a. To thank the subject
b. Deception b. To obtain confession
c. Detection c. To make the subject calm
d. Reaction d. To explain polygraph test procedures
1762. Refers to an emotional response to a specific
danger, which appears to go beyond a person’s 1773. The purpose of pretest interview.
defensive power. a. To prepare subject for polygraph test
a. Response b. To obtain confession
b. Reaction c. To make the subject calm
c. Stimuli d. To explain polygraph test procedures
d. Fear 1774. Refers to questions to ascertain the subject’s
1763. This component drives the chart paper under the normal pattern of response.
recording pen simultaneously at the rate of 6 to a. Relevant questions
12 inches per minute. b. Irrelevant questions
a. Cardiosphygmograph c. Supplementary questions
b. Kymograph d. Control questions
c. Galvanograph 1775. The number of basic tracings in the modern
d. Pneumograph polygraph.
1764. Part of the galvanograph attached to the left a. 3
fingers of the subject. b. 4
a. Finger electrode plate c. 5
b. Diacritic notch d. 6
c. Rubber convoluted tube 1776. Developed the systolic blood pressure method for
d. Kymograph detecting deception.
1765. This component record changes of the subject a. William Marston
blood pressure and pulse rate. b. Harold Burtt
a. Cardiosphygmograph c. John Larson
b. Sphygmomanometer d. Leonarde Keeler
c. Galvanograph
d. Pneumograph 1777. He noted that respiratory and systolic blood
pressure changes were signs of deception.
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 a. William Marston c. Loop
b. Harold Burtt d. Staff
c. Leonard Keeler 1788. An oblong curve found in small letters f,g,h and l.
d. John Larson a. Hook
1778. Italian scientist who used hydrosphygmograph b. Spur
procedure for accused persons. c. Loop
a. Angelo Mosso d. Staff
b. Veraguth 1789. The introductory backward stroke added to the
c. Lombroso staff of many capital letters and which can also be
d. Vittorio Benussi seen occasionally in introductory strokes of small
1779. Pioneer who first used the term psychogalvanic skin letters.
reflex. a. Embellishment
a. Angelo Mosso b. Beard
b. Veraguth c. Buckle knot
c. Lombroso d. Hitch
d. Vittorio Benussi 1790. A loop made as a flourish which is added to a
1780. Who first incorporated the galvanograph with letter.
measurement, respiration component and blood a. Embellishment
pressure. b. Beard
a. Harold Burtt c. Buckle knot
b. Hans Gross d. Diacritic
c. Leonarde Keeler 1791. Additional unnecessary stroke for ornamental
d. John Larson purposes.
1781. Refers to any specimen or writing executed a. Embellishment
normally without any attempt to change or b. Hump
control its identifying habits and its usual quality c. Diacritic
of execution. d. Knot
a. Natural writing 1792. Balance quality of movement of the harmonious
b. Disguised writing recurrence of stress of impulse.
c. Cursive writing a. Line quality
d. System of writing b. Rhythm
1782. Jose Pidal in trying to fake his own signature to c. Baseline
hide his identity is using: d. Writing pressure
a. Natural writing 1793. Refers to the periodic increase in pressure or
b. Disguised writing intermittently forcing the pen against the paper
c. Cursive writing surface with increase pressure.
d. System of writing a. Writing pressure
1783. Writing in which are for most part joined b. Shading
together. c. Pen emphasis
a. Natural writing d. Natural variation
b. Disguised writing 1794. An imaginary line upon which the writing rests.
c. Cursive writing a. Line quality
d. System of writing b. Baseline
1784. Usual deviations found between repeated c. Foot
specimen of any individual handwriting or in the d. Hitch
product of any typewriter. 1795. A signature written by the forger in his own style
a. Normal variation of handwriting without attempting to copy to
b. Natural variation form of the genuine signature.
c. Tremor a. Traced forgery
d. Wrong hand writing b. Disguised forgery
c. Simulated forgery
1785. A person executing a signature while his arm is d. Simple forgery
steadied and assisted produces a: 1796. A freehand imitation and regarded as the most
a. Guided signature skillful type of forgery.
b. Normal signature a. Traced forgery
c. Scribble b. Disguised forgery
d. Handwriting signature c. Simulated forgery
1786. A preliminary embellished initial common to d. Simple forgery
capital letters.
a. Embellishment 1797. Which among the following is an indication of
b. Beard genuineness of handwriting?
c. Buckle knot a. Continuity
d. Diacritic b. Smoothness
1787. A minute curve which occurs at the end of c. Skillful writing
terminal strokes. d. Tremor
a. Hook
b. Spur
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 1798. Document which is completely written and signed a. Water marks
by the testator. b. Fiber marks
a. Genuine document c. Paper design
b. Disputed document d. Wire marks
c. Holographic document 1809. In utilizing a stereo-graphic photomicrograph,
d. Authentic document what particular condition is manifested?
1799. A document which contains some changes either a. Grainy image
as an addition or deletion. b. Two image
a. Altered documents c. Overlapping image
b. Disputed document d. Three dimensional image
c. Obliterated document 1810. An element which is added to complete another
d. Inserted document letter.
1800. It refers to the smearing over a writing to make a. Spur
the original undecipherable. b. Slant
a. Decipherment c. Diacritics
b. Restoration d. Arc
c. Obliteration 1811. It is a signature signed at a particular time and
d. Interlineation place, purpose and normal writing conditions.
1801. A class of signature for routine document or day a. Complete signature
to day correspondence. b. Standard signature
a. Formal c. Evidential signature
b. Complete d. Model signature
c. Cursory 1812. Periodic increase in pressure, characterized by
d. Careless scribble widening of the ink stroke.
1802. Refers to a class of signature to acknowledge a. Shading
important documents. b. Pen emphasis
a. Complete c. Pen lift
b. Cursory d. Pen pressure
c. Informal 1813. The most reliable criterion in judging the
d. Careless scribble authenticity of paper money.
1803. A process by which a canal like outline is produced a. Quality of the engraving
on a fraudulent document underneath the b. Color of the seal
genuine and tracing it with the use of pointed c. Wet strength of the paper
instrument. d. Watermarks
a. Carbon process 1814. A coin given the appearance of a legal tender but
b. Indention process made inferior or superior intrinsic value to that of
c. Projection process the genuine coin.
d. Transmitted light process a. Priceless coin
1804. A type face defect wherein one side is printed b. Mutilated coin
heavier than the rest of its outline. c. False coin
a. Off its feet d. All of the choices
b. Twisted letter 1815. It is a deviation showing free connecting and
c. Clogged type face terminal strokes made by the momentum of the
d. Rebound hand.
a. Tremor
b. Tremors of fraud
1805. It is the visible effect of bodily movement which is c. Genuine tremor
almost unconscious expression of fixed muscular d. Deterioration
habits reacting from fixed mental impressions. 1816. Any arcade formed in the body of the letters.
a. Handwriting a. Staff
b. Writing b. Slant
c. Typewriting c. Diacritics
d. Writing movement d. Humps
1806. A writing instrument that makes detection of
hesitation and pen-lifts difficult. 1817. A type face ordinarily spaced 10 characters to the
a. Ball point pen horizontal inch.
b. Fountain pen a. Pica
c. Iron nutgall ink b. Elite
d. Markers c. Proportional spacing machine
1807. Disconnection between letters or letter d. Adding machine
combination due to lack of movement control. 1818. Developed the system of handwriting
a. Pen lift classification utilized by most police departments.
b. Retouching a. Lee and Abbey
c. Patching b. Rolando Wilson
d. Retracing c. Levine
1808. A distinctive design which is translucent d. Landsteiner
impressed on the paper during manufacture.
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 1819. A kind of document executed by a person in c. Terminal ballistics
authority and by private parties but notarized by d. Posterior ballistics
competent officials. 1830. Part of the firearm which strikes the firing pin.
a. Official document a. Trigger
b. Public document b. Hammer
c. Commercial document c. Sear
d. Private document d. Main spring
1820. An act of diminishing the metal value of a genuine
coin. 1831. Applied to a shotgun which indicates bore
a. False coin diameter is equal to the diameter of the lead ball
b. Counterfeit coin whose weight in pound equal to reciprocal gauge
c. Priceless coin index.
d. Mutilation of coin a. Caliber
1821. It refers to the printing surface of a type block. b. Gauge
a. Character c. Shot
b. Design d. Charge
c. Pitch 1832. An ancient smooth bore weapon designed to
d. Type face shoot a single round lead ball.
1822. Refers to a ruled or imaginary line upon which the a. Shotgun
writing rests. b. Rifle
a. Base c. Musket
b. Baseline d. Pistol
c. Foot 1833. A smooth bore weapon designed to shoot a
d. Staff number of lead pellets in one charge.
1823. It is the process of making out what is illegible or a. Shotgun
what has been effaced. b. Rile
a. Decipherment c. Musket
b. Collation d. Pistol
c. Obliteration 1834. Part of the firearm which closes the rear of the
d. Comparison bore against the force of the charge.
1824. An act of setting two or more items to weigh their a. Breechblock
identifying characteristics. b. Breechface
a. Comparison c. Ejector
b. Collation d. Extractor
c. Conclusion 1835. Firearm mechanism which causes empty shell to
d. Examination be withdrawn from the chamber.
a. Breechblock
b. Breechface
1825. An examination of documents wherein it is c. Ejector
viewed with the source of illumination behind it d. Extractor
and the light passing through the paper. 1836. Channels cut in the interior surface of the barrel.
a. Transmitted light examination a. Rifling
b. Oblique photography examination b. Land
c. Infrared examination c. Groove
d. Ultraviolet examination d. Cannelure
1826. The art of attempting to interpret the personality 1837. Rearward movement of a firearm from firing.
of a person from his handwriting. a. Recoil
a. Questioned Document Examination b. Force
b. Polygraphy c. Backfire
c. Graphology d. Shot force
d. Psychology 1838. Refers to the mechanical wear and tear of the bore
1827. Any metallic body referred to as a bullet. due to sliding friction when the bullet passes
a. Projectile through it.
b. Ball a. Erosion
c. Shell b. Rusting
d. Missile c. Corrosion
1828. The science of dealing with the motion of d. Decomposition
projectiles at the same time it leaves the muzzle 1839. Distance that the rifling advances to make one
of the firearm to the time it hits the target. compete turn.
a. Interior ballistics a. Pitch of rifling
b. Exterior ballistics b. Choke
c. Terminal ballistics c. Trajectory
d. Posterior ballistics d. Recoil
1829. The science which deals with the effect of the 1840. Needed for a cartridge to be considered as a
impact of the projectile on the target. complete unfired unit
a. Interior ballistics a. Bullet
b. Exterior ballistics b. Primer
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 c. Gunpowder a. 3 test bullets/shell
d. All of the choices b. 4 test bullets
1841. Most common individual characteristic that are c. 5 test bullets/shell
visible on the base portion of then fired cartridge. d. 6 test bullets/shell
a. Firing pin impression 1853. It refers to the placement of the right and left
b. Ejector marks specimen in side by side position.
c. Extractor marks a. Drag marks
d. Chamber marks b. Positively matched
1842. Failure of cartridge to discharge. c. Juxtaposition
a. Misfire d. Pseudomatch
b. Hang fire 1854. Pattern or curved path of the bullet in flight.
c. Ricochet a. Range
d. Key hole shot b. Trajectory
1843. Invented the gunpowder. c. Velocity
a. Chinese d. Yaw
b. James Forsythe 1855. Bullets containing nitrate compounds which is set
c. Van Amberg on fire when it is projected.
d. Berthold Schwartz a. Incendiary bullet
1844. Refers to a complete unfired unit of ammunition b. Ball bullet
placed into gun chamber. c. Tracer bullet
a. Cartridge d. Explosive bullet
b. Primer 1856. Caliber in the firearm is measured in the barrel
c. Bullet from what particular part?
d. Shell a. From land to land
1845. The measurement of the bore diameter from land b. From land to groove
to land. c. From groove to groove
a. Gauge d. From groove to land
b. Mean diameter
c. Caliber
d. Riflings 1857. Revolver is distinguished from pistol by:
1846. This part of the firearm strikes the primer causing a. Frame
the firing of the cartridge. b. Barrel
a. Hammer c. Slide assembly
b. Ejector d. Rotating cylinder
c. Trigger 1858. The term double action in a firearm means.
d. Firing pin a. Cocks and releases the hammer
1847. Term used in referring to the tip of a bullet. simultaneously
a. Breech b. Manually cocks the hammer
b. Ogive c. Autoloads before firing
c. Rim d. Double pressing of trigger
d. Pitch 1859. Regarded as the father of ballistics,
1848. A smooth bore military firearm which has no a. Albert Osborne
riflings. b. Col. Calvin H. Goddard
a. Shotgun c. Hans Gross
b. Rifle d. Charles Waite
c. Pistol 1860. Raised portion between the groove found inside
d. Revolver the barrel.
1849. A bullet covered with a thick coating of copper a. Land
alloy to prevent leading. b. Caliber
a. Jacketed bullet c. Gauge
b. Metal cased bullet d. Rifling
c. Metal point bullet 1861. The unstable rotating motion of the bullet.
d. Plated bullet a. Yaw
1850. The tumbling of the bullet in its trajectory and b. Trajectory
hitting the target sideways. c. Velocity
a. Key hole shot d. Gyroscopic action
b. Ricochet 1862. A lead type bullet is usually fired from what
c. Hang fire particular firearm?
d. Misfire a. Rifle
1851. A part of ballistics dealing with firearm b. Revolver
identification. c. Pistol
a. Interior d. Sub-machine gun
b. Exterior 1863. It refers to the helical grooves cut in the interior
c. Terminal surface of the bore.
d. Forensic a. Rifling
1852. Minimum requirement for conclusive conclusions b. Breaching
in forensic ballistics. c. Ogive
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 d. Swaging 1873. Considered to be one of the most infallible means
1864. A primer with two vents or flash holes. of Identification.
a. Bordan primer a. DNA fingerprinting
b. Berdan primer
b. Dactyloscopy
c. Boxer primer
c. Fingerprint Identification
d. Battery primer
1865. Danao made firearms or homemade weapons are d. Photography
usually classified as: 1874. Identification of person can be done either by
a. Flare guns Comparison or by____?
b. Zip guns a. Exclusion
c. Matchlock
d. Freakish device
b. Examination
1866. The most reliable of all individual characteristics,
when fired cartridges are concerned. c. Experimentation
a. Extractor marks
b. Ejector marks d. Inclusion
c. Chamber marks 1875. The person credited for the discovery of the two
d. Breech face marks main layers of the friction skin.
1867. It literally means delay in discharge or the a. Alphonse Bertillion
cartridge’s failure to explode on time.
b. Marcelo Malpighe
a. Misfire
b. Hang fire c. Herman Welcker
c. Ricochet
d. Key hole shot d. J.C.A. Mayer
1868. A bullet fired from a firearm with an oversized or 1876. The first Chinese Ruler who devised a seal carved
oily barrel or its lands have been worn down from white jade containing the name and the
would produce what kind of markings? thumb print of the owner.
a. Slippage marks
a. Tien Chi
b. Skid marks
c. Rifling marks b. Tein Chi
d. Shearing marks c. Tein Shi
1869. Measuring device used to measure the velocity of d. Tien Shi
projectiles. 1877. He is known to be the father of personal
a. Caliper Identification having devised the first scientific
b. Chronograph
method of personal Identification.
c. Test bullet
a. John Dellinger
d. Bullet recovery box
1870. Refers to the means of recognizing the b. Cesare Lombroso
characteristics of persons so as to differentiate c. John F. W. Herschel
him from others d. Alphonse Bertillion
a. Dactyloscopy 1878. He took prints of his own palm twice with the
c. Identification lapse of forty-one years just to prove that prints
b. Personal
do not change, except for some scratches due to
d. Comparison
1871. Considered to be first scientific method of old age.
Identification in person done by measuring a. Herman Welcker
various bony structure of the human body. b. Marcelo Malpighi
a. Portrait-Parle c. J.C.A. Mayer
b. Photography d. Johnnes E. Purkenji
c. Antropometry 1879. The person who used fingerprints in replacement
d. Anthropometry for signature to avoid impersonation among
547. The following are principles in personal Indian native.
Identification, except. a. William Herschel
b. Dr. Henry Faulds
a. Law of individuality c. Dr. Francis Galton
c. Law of multiplicity of evidence d. Sir Edward Henry
b. Law of infallibility 1880. Is person considered to be the father of modern
d. Law of constancy fingerprint. His system of classification was
1872. Which of the following personal Identification is accepted in almost all English speaking country.
not easy to change? a. Sir Edward Richard Henry
a. Hair b. Juan Vucetich
b. Speech c. Alphonse Bertillion
c. Dress d. Dr. Hans Gross
d. personal pharapernalia

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 1881. Makes a publication of a report describing the 1889. Is the law which states that the greater the
ridges and pores of the hand and feet which was number of the similarity or differences the more
read before the Royal Society of London. probability for the conclusion to be correct.
a. Nehemiah Grew
b. G. Bidloo a. Law of Infallability
c. Hintze b. Law of Multiplicity of evidence
d. Albinus c. Law of Permenancy
1882. A system of Identification best used in case of d. Law of Barcelinity
burned body. 1890. The word Dactyloscopy was derived from what
a. Fingerprint word?
b. Skeletal Identification a. Greek word
c. Odontology b. French word
d. Photography c. Latin word
d. English word
1891. If screw driver is for mechanic. What is used by a
1883. The following are characteristics of man which photographer?
can easily be changed EXCEPT? A. Filter
B. Camera
a. Hair Growth C. Firearm
b. Body Ornamentation D. Handcuff
c. Speech 1892. Can exptert in Ballistics testify witout photograph
d. Clothing or demonstration?.
1884. The first conviction in the Philippine Case which a. Yes
gives recognition to the science of fingerprint? b. Partly Yes
a. People vs. Medina c. No
b. US vs. Jennings d. Partly No
c. Miranda vs. Arizona 1893. Burned document or charred document is best
d. West Case examined by.
1885. Anew Mexico Geologist who adopted the first a. Infrared Photography
individual use of fingerprints in August 8, 1882, by b. Ultraviolet Photography
using his own thumb mark as a protection to c. Macro Photography
prevent tampering with the pay order he issued. d. Micro Photography
a. Sgt John Kenneth Ferrier 1894. The average age of menopausal period of women
b. Gilbert Thompson to take place.
c. Capt James Parke a. 50 yrs old
d. Dr. Henry P. De Fores b. 45 yrs old
1886. The Filipino who top the first comprehensive c. 35 yrs old
examination in fingerprint which was initiated by
New York Police Dept. and FBI. d. 42 yrs old
a. Generoso Reyes 1895. Mustache and beard begin to appear in male at
b. Isabela Bernales the age of.
c. Patricio Agustin a. 14-16
d. Marcelo Bonifacio b. 13-15
1887. Father of fingerprint patterns who said that is c. 16 to 18
there is possibility for two prints to be the same it d. 12-14
is 1:63,000,000,000. 1896. Menstruation usually commences at the age of?
a. Francis Bacon a. 14
b. Francis Galton b. 13
c. J.C.A. Mayer c. 16
d. Herman Welker d. 12
1888. The person who used the system of identification 1897. In a robbery case, close up photographs must be
which was accepted by Spanish countries. taken to show:
a. Juan Vucetich a. Entrance
b. Henry Faulds b. Entrance and Exit
c. Sir Edward Richard Henry c. Exit
d. William Herschel d. Either a or b
1898. The development of breast in female commences
at the age of.

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 a. 13 to 14 c. Antropometry
b. 12 to 13 d. Anthropometry
c. 10-11 1907. The person credited for the discovery of the two
d. 11 to 12 main layers of the friction skin.
a. Alphonse Bertillion
1899. In photography, when we say tripod, how many b. Marcelo Malpighe
stands are there? c. Herman Welcker
a. 2 d. J.C.A. Mayer
b. 3.5
c. 4 1908. The first Chinese Ruler who devised a seal carved
d. 5 from white jade containing the name and the
thumb print of the owner.
1900. The first police surgeon or forensic pathologist a. Tien Chi
who performed the autopsy of Julius Cesar. b. Tein Chi
a. Landsteinir c. Tein Shi
b. Zacchias
c. Antistus d. Tien Shi
d. Hippocrates 1909. He is known to be the father of personal
1901. Used to see stains on clothes that are invisible to Identification having devised the first scientific
a normal light. method of personal Identification.
a. Ultra Violet Photography a. John Dellinger
b. Infra red photograhpy b. Cesare Lombroso
c. Macro Photography c. John F. W. Herschel
d. Micro photography d. Alphonse Bertillion
1902. It is an adjustable mechanism that regulates the 1910. He took prints of his own palm twice with the
amount of light reaching the film by varying the lapse of forty-one years just to prove that prints
length of time, and it is considered as the door of do not change, except for some scratches due to
the camera. old age.
a. Shutter a. Herman Welcker
b. lens b. Marcelo Malpighi
c. obscura c. J.C.A. Mayer
d. view finder d. Johnnes E. Purkenji
1903. It covers the surface of the dermis with blunt peg- 1911. The person who used fingerprints in replacement
like formation. for signature to avoid impersonation among
Indian native.
a. dermis a. William Herschel
b. Dermal papillae b. Dr. Henry Faulds
c. papillae c. Dr. Francis Galton
d. dermal d. Sir Edward Henry
1904. The morphological constituents of human hair are 1912. He is considered to be the father of modern
cuticle, cortex and medulla, is the statement fingerprint. His system of classification was
correct? accepted in almost all English speaking country.
a. Partly Yes a. Sir Edward Richard Henry
b. Partly No b. Juan Vucetich
c. Yes c. Alphonse Bertillion
d. No d. Dr. Hans Gross
1905. It is the sensitized material that has the primary 1913. Makes a publication of a report describing the
function of recording the image that is focused ridges and pores of the hand and feet which was
upon it by the lens of the camera. read before the Royal Society of London.
E. Filter a. Nehemiah Grew
F. Film b. G. Bidloo
G. Firearm c. Hintze
H. Handcuff d. Albinus
1906. Considered to be first scientific method of 1914. A system of Identification best used in case of
Identification in person done by measuring burned body.
various bony structure of the human body. a. Fingerprint
a. Portrait-Parle b. Skeletal Identification
b. Photography c. Odontology

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 d. Photography 1923. Is that parts of the friction skin which if damage
1915. Anew Mexico Geologist who adopted the first will constitute a permanent scar.
individual use of fingerprints in August 8, 1882, by a. Epidermis
using his own thumb mark as a protection to b. Stratum corneum
prevent tampering with the pay order he issued. c. Dermis
a. Sgt John Kenneth Ferrier d. Stratum mucosum
b. Gilbert Thompson 1924. He is considered as the Father of Poroscopy.
c. Capt James Parke a. Francis Galton
d. Dr. Henry P. De Fores b. Marcelo Malpighe
1916. The Filipino who top the first comprehensive c. John Herschel
examination in fingerprint which was initiated by d. Edmond Locard
New York Police Dept. and FBI.
a. Generoso Reyes 1925. Is the scientific study of the tiny opening across
b. Isabela Bernales the ridges.
c. Patricio Agustin a. Podoscopy
d. Marcelo Bonifacio b. Poroscopy
1917. Father of fingerprint patterns who said that is c. Chiroscopy
there is possibility for two prints to be the same it d. Edgeoscopy
is 1:63,000,000,000. 1926. Up to what deep a cut or injury will constitute a
a. Francis Bacon permanent scar in a normal friction skin?
b. Francis Galton a. less than 1cm
c. J.C.A. Mayer b. less than 1 mm
d. Herman Welker c. more than 1cm
1918. The person who used the system of identification d. more than 1mm
which was accepted by Spanish countries. 1927. Considered to be one of the most notorious
a. Juan Vucetich criminal in U.S who attempt to destroy his friction
b. Henry Faulds skin with the use of corrosive acid.
c. Sir Edward Richard Henry a. John Derenger
d. William Herschel b. John Dillenger
1919. The word Dactyloscopy was derived from what c. Robert James Pitts
word? d. Robert Joworski
a. Greek word 1928. Are the strips of skin without coloring pigment
b. French word and without hair found on the palm of the hand
c. Latin word and soles of the feet?
d. English word a. Epidermal skin
1920. Is the science of fingerprint study, which deals b. Papillary skin
with the interpretation of one’s personality? c. Friction
a. Dactyloscopy d. All of the choices
b. Dactylomancy 1929. Is the outer layer of the Epidermis layer which
c. Dactylography covers the skin?
d. Dactylo-analysis a. Epidermis
1921. Is an impression designed by the ridges on the b. Stratum corneum
inside of the last joint of the fingers and thumb on c. Stratum Sangum
some smooth surface with the aid of sweet or ink? d. Stratum musocum
a. Dactyloscopy 1930. Is the scientific study of the prints of the palm of
b. Dactyloanalysis the hands?
c. Latent Print a. Podoscopy
d. Fingerprint b. Chiroscopy
1922. Which of the following serves the importance of c. Poroscopy
Poroscopy? d. Chairoscopy
a. For determination of whether the prints 1931. Is that appears as tiny black line with white dots
belong to a young or adult person. (called pores) in an inked finger impression?
b. For Identification of person a. sweat pores
c. For determination of whether the prints b. furrows
was taken during the lifetime or after c. ridges
death of a person d. sweat duct
d. B and C only

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 1932. What are the depressed portions or canal c. loop
structure of the friction skin (found between d. tented arch
ridges). 1941. What type of a pattern consisting of two ore more
a. Pores deltas, one or more ridge forming a complete
b. indentions circuitry and when an imaginary line is drawn
c. furrows from left delta to right delta it touches or cross
d. duct the circuiting ridge/s considered as the most
1933. What is the tiny openings on the skin from where common type of whorl.
sweat is excreted? a. plain whorl
a. duct b. central pocket loop whorl
b. furrows c. double loop whorl
c. pores d. accidental whorl
d. sweat glands 1942. In an accidental whorl type of pattern, what
1934. That part of the friction skin between the pattern is excluded in the combination?
epidermis and dermis layer which responsible for a. ulnar loop
the ridge formation b. plain whorl
a. Generating layer c. tented arch
b. Dermal papillae d. plain arch
c. Sweat glands 1943. The core and delta are also termed as _____?
d. Dermis Papillary a. inner terminus
1935. Is the principle in the study of fingerprint which b. outer terminus
states that fingerprint is a reliable and positive c. focal point
means of Identification? d. pattern area
a. Principle of Individuality 1944. A point on a ridge formation, in front or near the
b. Principle of Infallibility center of the diverging typelines.
c. Principle of Constancy a. Core
d. Principle of Permanency b. island ridge
1936. What pattern type has the ridges that enter on c. delta
one side of the pattern and flow to the other side d. convergence
with a rise or wave in the center? 1945. What is the rule where there are two or more
a. Loop possible bifurcation deltas which conform to the
b. tented arch definition of delta?
c. plain arch a. the one nearest the core should be chosen
d. exceptional arch b. the one away from the core should be
1937. In order for a pattern to be considered as loop it counted
c. the one which does not open towards the
should have _______ridge count.
core is counted
a. 1 d. the one towards the core should be
b. 2 counted
c. at least 1 1946. What is that spreading of two ridges that
d. 3 previously running side by side?
1938. What type of a pattern possesses an angle, an a. Bifurcation
uptrust, or two of the three basic characteristics b. convergence
of the loop? c. divergence
a. Plain arch d. enclosure
b. central pocket loop 1947. What kind of a ridge resembles a dot, fragment or
c. tented arch a period?
d. accidental whorl a. Lake
1939. What is the type of a pattern in which the looping b. ending ridge
or slanting ridges flows towards the little finger? c. island ridge
a. loop d. incipient ridge
b. radial loop 1948. What ridge divides itself into or more branches
c. ulnar loop that meets to form the original figure?
d. tented arc a. bifurcation
b. island ridge
1940. A type of a pattern consisting of a core, delta, c. lake ridge
recurving ridge and a ridge count of at least one. d. convergence
a. radial loop 1949. What type of a ridge is that which curves back to
b. ulnar loop the direction from which it started?

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 a. diverging ridge d. ridge summing
b. recurving ridge 1958. Is an instrument used for the spreading of the
c. converging ridge fingerprint ink to the slab?
d. bifurcation a. Fingerprint brush
1950. Is a point along the recurving ridge in which the b. Fingerprint lifting tapes
ridge curves inward? c. Fingerprint roller
a. sufficient recurve d. fingerprint card
b. appendage 1959. The fingerprint card used in recording the subject
c. obstruction ridge print has a size of:
d. shoulder of loop a. 8 1/2” x 8 ½”
1951. Is a short horizontal ridge found inside a recurving b. 8” x 8”
ridge which has spoiled the inner line of flow from c. 9” x 9”
the inner delta to the center of the pattern. This d. 8” x 10”
is also found in the second type of central pocket 1960. The fingerprint card used in court exhibit the card
loop. has a size of:
a. bar a. 8 1/2” x 8 ½”
b. appendage b. 8” x 8”
c. uptrust c. 9” x 9”
d. obstruction d. 8” x 10”
1952. Is the type of pattern in which the course is traced 1961. Is a piece of plane glass or metal where the
the line flow above the right delta and there are fingerprint ink is distributed for fingerprinting?
three intervening ridges. a. Card Holder
a. meeting whorl b. Fingerprint roller
b. outer whorl c. Fingerprint transfer card
c. inner whorl d. ink slab
d. central pocket loop whorl 1962. A chemical compound used in conventional
1953. A ridge that is so thin or fine compare to other developing of latent prints being one of the best
regular ridge which is not included as a ridge methods that can be utilized by a fingerprint
count even if it has been cross by the imaginary technician.
line. a. Fingerprint powder
a. ending ridge b. Fingerprint Brush
b. incipient ridge c. Fingerprint Fuming Device
c. intervening ridge d. Inkless Inking Device
d. enclosure 1963. Is an instrument used for clipping the fingerprint
1954. What is that ridge that divides into two ridges and card to avoid movement of the card during
which resembles a fork structure printing?
a. divergence a. Card Holder
b. convergence b. Forceps
c. bifurcation c. Carrying Case
d. enclosure d. Fingerprint card clip
1955. Ridge forms in the person’s fingers and feet 1964. Is a card used in recording and preserving
during its infants stage which usually starts: developed latent print?
a. 3rd to 4th months of the fetus life a. Fingerprint lifting tapes
b. 4th to 5th months of the fetus life b. Fingerprint transfer card
c. 5th to 6th months of the fetus life c. Evidence Identification tags
d. 5th to 6th months before birth d. Post-mortem fingerprint Equipment
1956. Is the symbol used to represent a plain arch. 1965. Is the type of an impression made or printed on
a. T the card by individually rolling the ten fingers of
b. A the subject.
c. P a. Latent Prints
d. W b. Rolled Impression
c. Plain Impression
d. Molded Impression
1957. It is the process of counting the ridges which 1966. Is the type of impression taken simultaneously
intervene between the delta and core of a loop? and serves as a guide in checking the proper
a. ridge tracing rolling of the finger in the card?
b. ridge counting a. Rolled Impression
c. ridge tracking b. Plain Impression

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 c. Contaminated with colored substance 1976. It is the division in the fingerprint classification
d. Molded Prints which is always represented by a numerical value
depending upon a whorl pattern appearing on
1967. In taking prints of the subject the technician each finger.
always instruct the subject to: a. key division
a. Stand straight b. major division
b. Cooperate c. primary division
c. Relax d. final division
d. Help the technician rolling 1977. In getting the Secondary Division of a given
1968. One of the cardinal rule in taking of fingerprints of fingerprint from what finger does the Capital
the subject is that fingers must be: letter is derived.
a. Healthy a. thumb
b. Dry b. index
c. Moisten c. little finger
d. Oily d. middle finger
1969. In taking prints of the subject what fingers are 1978. The purpose of adding 1/1 to the sum of the
rolled away from the body of the subjects numerator and the denominator in the primary
a. Both thumbs division is ____.
b. All eight fingers a. so that there will be an equal value
c. All fingers including thumbs b. to complete the primary div.
d. All fingers except the thumbs c. to have a complete 32 numerical value
1970. An instrument used to hold or secure fingerprint d. for formality
cards in taking fingerprint of a dead person 1979. What patterns are included in the small letter
a. Card holder classification under the secondary division.
b. Spatula a. Radial loop, plain arch and Tented arch
c. Strip holder b. Rdial loop, Unar loop and Arch
d. Forceps c. Radial loop, Plain Arch and Ulnar loop
1971. When taking fingers for the purpose of taking d. Radial Loop, Arch, and Tented Arch
rolled impression the fingers must be inked
from______ to base of the first joint. 1980. In ridge counting a loop on the middle finger what
a. a. Base is the classification of 14 ridge count.
b. Tip a. Inner Loop
c. second joint b. Outer Loop
d. third joint c. Medium
1972. Occupational problems such as acid works, d. Small
plasters, cement mixer usually causes weak 1981. What patterns are almost always represented by a
friction skin and such is known as: dash in the classification formula except in the
a. Permanent Disabilities secondary division.
b. Temporary Deformities a. Ulnar loop and Plain Arch
c. Permanent Destructions b. Whorl and Arch
d. Deformities c. Plain and Tented Arch
1973. Is the term applied to a person whose fingers are d. Ulnar and Whorl
more than the usual number in both hands? 1982. It is a type of a whorl pattern in which when the
a. Polyfinger tracing ridge flows below the right delta and there
b. Deformities are five intervening ridges.
c. Polydactyl a. Outer Whorl
d. Bidactyl b. Meeting Whorl
1974. Is the process of placing under each pattern the c. Inner Whorl
letter symbols as a result of the interpretation? d. Accidental Whorl
a. Checking 1983. In the course of tracing a whorl pattern, once the
b. Identification tracing splits into two branches the tracing will
c. Classification proceed on the:
d. Blocking a. next ridge counting below the bifurcation
1975. Three blocks after finger number 4 is what finger. ridge
a. left thumb b. upper line of the bifurcation
b. index finger c. Lower limb
c. left index d. next ridge just below
d. left middle

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 1984. It refers to the number of ridges that appears 1993. In the case of a missing one digit in the fingerprint
between the tracing ridge and the right delta of a card of a subject, said missing finger will be
whorl pattern. interpreted as.
a. Ridge Count a. Amputated finger
b. Intervening Ridge b. Same as the corresponding digit of the
c. Incipient ridge other hand
d. Ridge tracing c. Meeting whorl
1985. A Loop with ridge count of 16 in the right is d. Outer loop
interpreted as ____, if the left thumb has 17 ridge 1994. If in case that there were no loop on all fingers,
count. how will the key be obtained.
a. Small a. Ridge count of the first plain whorl
b. Medium b. Ridge count of the first whorl
c. Large c. No key division to derived
d. Exceptional d. Just indicate Dash
1986. A ridge count of 17 in the left thumb is interpreted 1995. In the event that same fingers of both hand is
as ____ when the right thumb reaches 17. missing what will be the pattern interpretation of
a. Small the two missing fingers.
b. Large a. Plain Whorl
c. Medium b. Plain Whorl With Meeting Tracing
d. Exceptional c. Dash
1987. What do you call a loop in the left thumb having a d. Same as the pattern of the next fingers
ridge count of 17 or more.
a. Small
b. Medium 1996. It is the term applied to cases of missing or cut
c. Large finger?
d. Exceptional a. Mutilated finger
1988. What division in the fingerprint classification is b. Amputated finger
derived by ridge counting a loop and tracing a c. Fragmentary finger
whorl on the thumb. d. Deformities
a. Key Division 1997. What will be the primary Division if all fingers are
b. Final Division amputated.
c. Major Division a. 1/1
d. Secondary Division b. 31/31
1989. What division in the classification is place at c. 32/32
extreme right of the fingerprint card represented d. 16/16
by a numerical value. 1998. What division will be left blank in the classification
a. key formula if all fingers are missing?
b. final a. Major and Final Division
c. Major b. Key and Major Division
d. Primary c. Major and sub-secondary
1990. Final Division is derived by getting the ridge count d. key and final Division
of a loop or a whorl appearing on the; 1999. Menstruation usually commences at the age of?
a. Little Finger a. 14
b. Thumb Finger b. 13
c. Index Finger c. 16
d. Middle Finger d. 12
1991. The key Division is derived by getting the ridge 2000. What type of a pattern possesses an angle, an
count of the uptrust, or two of the three basic characteristics
a. ulnar Loop of the loop?
b. Radial Loop a. Plain arch
c. First Loop b. tented arch
d. First Radial Loop c. central pocket loop
1992. What Fingers are not included in looking for a d. accidental whorl
loop in the key division? 2001. Is the process of counting the ridges which
a. Both Index intervene between the delta and core of a loop?
b. Both little a. ridge tracing
c. Both thumb b. ridge counting
d. Both middle c. ridge tracking

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 d. ridge summing c. questioned
2002. In assigning the numerical value of whorl pattern, d. disputed
what finger should be given a value of 4 when a 2011. In Q.D it is the term used when a person having
whorl pattern appears therein: the ability to write with both left and right.
a. left little finger and right thumb a. cacography
b. right thumb and left little finger b. calligraphy
c. right little finger and left thumb c. calcography
d. left thumb and right d. ambidextrous
2003. If all the fingers in the right hand are whorls and 2012. Which of the following are NOT considered as the
all the fingers of the left hand are loops, what will secondary colors, EXCEPT.
be the primary division? a. yellow
a. 25/29 b. Blue
c. 24/28 c. Green
b. 29/25 d. Red
d. 28/24 2013. An interruption in a stroke caused by removing
2004. What would be the secondary division if all the the writing instrument from the paper is called..
fingers at right hand are plain arches while all the a. pen emphasis
left hand fingers are tented arches? b. pen pressure
c. pen jump
a. aA3a/tT3T d. pen lift
c. A2a/tT2t 2014. The term document came from latin word
b. aT3a/aA3t “documentum”, which means.
d. tT3t/aA3a a. write
2005. What division in the formula classification is left b. to teach
blank if all fingers are amputated? c. lesson
a. Major and key d. paper
b. key and final
c. Key and primary 2015. It is the extra deposit of ink in the initial and
d. final and major terminal stroke due to the slow withdrawal of
2006. The word Photography was coined by _____? the pen from the paper ( usually applicable to the
a. John F. W. Herschel fountain pen). a. whirl
b. Louis Jacques Mande Daguerre b. knob
c. Henry Fox Talbot c. sour
d. Leonardo Da Venci d. loop
2007. What color will produced if r RED and BLUE colors
are combined each other? 2016. The portrait printed in the 20 peso-bill is
a. magenta a. Manuel Quezon
c. yellow b. Emilio Aguinaldo
b. cyan c. Segio Osmena
d. Green d. Apolinario Mabini

2008. Which of the following are NOT considered as the 2017. The only security features that the BSP was
primary colors, EXCEPT. portrait in the new 500 and 1,000 peso bill is.
a. yellow a. optically variable ink
b. Blue b. optical device
c. Green c. optical ink
d. Red d. optically variable device
2009. The act of attempting to interpret the character or
personality of an individual from his handwriting. 2018. It is Embossed “1000” denominated value at the
a. paleography lower right corner of the face of the note changes
b. collation color from green to blue when viewed at different
c. graphology angles
d. cacography a. optically variable ink
2010. In Q.D it is the term used by some document b. optical device
examiners and attorneys to characterize known c. optical ink
material. d. optically variable device
a. exemplar
b. evidence

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 2019. What changes of color of the parrot in 500 peso b. Pseudo match
bill and the clam in 1000 peso when the note is c. Juxtaposition
rotated at 90 degrees? d. Drag marks
2228. In the United States, crimes are committed by juveniles
a. blue to green
using home-made weapons generally referred to as:
b. green to blue
a. Freakish device
c. red to green
b. Zip guns
d. green to red c. Matchlock
2020. The new banknote of the BSP is made of what d. Flare guns
kind of paper. 2229. A copper jacketed fired bullet is usually fired from:
a. abaca-cotton a. Revolver
b. plastic-polymer b. Pistol
c. abaca c. Rifle
d. cotton d. Pistol & Revolver
2230. A 12 gauge shotgun has an equivalent diameter of:
2021. The portrait printed in the 200 peso-bill is
a. 730”
a. Diosdado P Macapagal
b. 728”
b. Emilio Aguinaldo c. 729”
c. Segio Osmena d. 724”
d. Apolinario Mabini 2231. A complete unfired unit ammunition is inserted into the
2022. How many security features are there in the new chamber of firearm for firing is referred to as:
500 peso bill? a. Bullet
a. 8 b. Shell
b. 9 c. Primer
c. 7 d. Cartridge
2232. Rifling located inside the barrel of a gun is a
d. 6
combination of:
2023. How many security features are there in the new
a. Pitch
1000 peso bill?
b. Twist
a. 8 c. Lands & grooves
b. 9 d. Cannelures
c. 7 2233 Class characteristics are determinable even:
d. 6 a. During
2024. The equipment is Forensic Ballistics that b. After
measures the pitch of rifling is: c. Before
d. Never the manufactures of the firearm
a. Chronograph
2234. The caliber is determined with the aid of:
b. Helixometer
a. Combined microscope
c. Micrometer
b. Micrometer
d. Taper gauge
c. Macrometer
1463. A magnified photograph of a small object
d. Manufacturer of the firearm
produced by connecting a camera with the ocular of 2235. An investigator who recovered a fired bullet from the
a compound microscope is: crime scene will request the ballistician to determine:
a. Photomacrograph a. Owner of the firearm
b. Microphotograph b. Model of the firearm
c. Photomicrograph c. Caliber and types of the firearm
d. Photography d. Manufacture
2225. A center-fire cartridge case whose rim diameter is 2236. That science which deals with the motion of the
smaller than the diameter of the body of the case: projectiles at the time it leaves the muzzle of the gun to the
a. Rimmed cartridge time it hits the target is known as:
b. Rebated cartridge a. Terminal ballistics
c. Tapered cartridge b. Interior ballistics
d. Rimless cartridge c. Exterior ballistics
2226. If a bullet is fired through a weapon in which the lands d. Forensic ballistics
have been worn down or through a bore is slightly oversize or 2237. That science dealing with the effect of the impact of the
oily, the marks are called: projectile on target is called:
a. Skid marks
b. Slippage marks a. Exterior ballistics
c. Rifling marks b. Interior ballistics
d. Shearing marks c. Anterior ballistics
2227. When two specimens are compared under the d. Terminal ballistics
comparison microscope at the same direction, the same level,
the same magnification and the same image, they are called:
a. Positively match

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 2247. Criminals whose identity may be established
background identification.
2238. What type of prostitutes that trade sex for illegal a. Known criminals
drugs? b. Unknown criminals
a. Lot Lizards c. Convicted criminals
b. Hookers d. Unidentified criminals
c. Skeezers 2248. Compilation of known criminals available from police
d. Hustler files and records.
2239. It is the occasional or selective type of prostitute. She a. Rouge gallery
is usually a newcomer in the business? b. General photograph
a. Door knocker c. Police blotter
b. Street walker d. Modus operandi files
c. Call girl 2249. Type of shadowing where constant surveillance is
d. skeezers necessary.
2240. are the real professional type of prostitutes. She a. Loose tail
works in regular houses of prostitution or brothels? b. Rough shadowing
a. Door knocker c. Close tail
b. Street walker d. None of the foregoing
c. Call Girl 2250. The best way to label clothing to be used as evidence
d. Factory Girl is:
2241. These are the part-time prostitutes. They have their a. Place it in a pill box and label it
own legitimate work or profession but works as a b. Mark it by an inscription in ink at the lining
prostitutes to supplement their income? c. Place it in a plastic bag and label it
a. Door knocker d. Tag it with a label
b. Street walker 2251. To ensure privacy and avoid distraction an
c. Call Girl interrogation room must be:
d. Factory Girl a. With no windows or views
2242. The following countries which comprises the Golden b. There should only be one door
Triangle, EXCEPT. c. It must be sound proof
d. All of the choices
a. Vietnam 2252. In this type of interrogation the investigator must have
b. Thailand great knowledge of the case and is preferable when
c. Myanmar the subject is not the talkative type.
d. Laos a. Narrative type
2243. Is a serial cheater who betrays his spouse or long term b. Question and answer type
partner repeatedly? c. Stern type
d. Simple interrogation
a. philander 2253. What should the investigator do to protect while in
b. prostitution transport those collected evidence from the crime
c. philandering scene?
d. prostitute a. Seal it
2244. What do you call a prostitute who offers services to b. Mark it
female customers? c. Pack it properly
d. Label it
a. gigolo 2254. Shadowing has the following purposes, except:
b. pimps a. To detect evidences of criminal activities
c. callboy b. To establish association of a suspect
d. Johns c. To locate wanted persons
2245. A vehicle downhill with a slope of 0.15 and a drag d. None of the foregoing
factor of 0.70 leaves a skid marks of 20.6 meters, what 2255. “A” wanted to kill “B” the former pointed his gun to
is the approximate speed of the said vehicle when the latter, as “A” pressed the trigger, the gun jammed
involved in accident. . and “B” managed to escape. This is an example of:
a. 64 kms./hour a. Attempted felony
b. 54 kms./hour b. Frustrated felony
c. 46 km.s/hour c. Consummated felony
d. 45 kms./hour d. Consummated felony
2246. This method of identification depends on the ability of 2256. Kind of recognition whereby the description and
the witness to describe the person seen committing the characteristics maybe vague that identification is
crime. difficult.
a. Verbal description a. Known fugitives
b. Photographic files b. Professional criminals
c. Police line up c. Ordinary criminals
d. General photograph d. Unknown fugitives

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 2257. The methods of determining and finding the a. Motive
best way to remedy the specific cause or b. Intent
causes of the complaint or grievance refers to: c. Opportunity
a. Cross examination d. Deceit
b. Grievance procedures 2268. Motive in giving information wherein the
c. Investigative procedure informant delights in giving information to gain
d. Criminal procedures favorable attention from the police.
2258. A type of informant reveals information usually of no a. Competition
consequence of stuff produced from thin air. b. Repentance
a. False informant c. Vanity
b. Double-crosser informant d. Jealousy
c. Mercenary informant 2269. Employed where a general impression of the subject’s
d. Frightened informant habits and associate are required.
2259. Clandestine operation in police parlance. a. Surveillance
a. Covert intelligence b. Loose tail shadowing
b. Secret activity c. Rough shadowing
c. Over intelligence d. Close tail shadowing
d. Surveillance 2270. More advantageous because it permits immediate
2260. It is an art which deals with the identity and changes of men and less likely to be recognized.
location of the offender and provides evidence a. One man shadow
of his guilt through criminal proceeding. b. Two man shadow
a. Information c. Three man shadow
b. Interrogation d. ABC method
c. Instrumentation 2271. In this method of search, the searchers proceed slowly
d. Investigation at the same pace along the path parallel to one side of
2261. Special crime investigation is more concerned on: the rectangle. At the end of the rectangle, the
a. Physical evidence searcher turns and proceeds back along new lanes but
b. Tracing evidence parallel to the first movement.
c. Testimonial evidence a. Zone method
d. Associative evidence b. Strip method
2262. Is a person who provides an investigator with c. Spiral method
confidential information concerning a past or d. Wheel method
projected crime and does not wish to be 2272. In this method, the area to be searched is divided into
known as a source of information. quadrant and each searcher is assigned in each
a. Informants quadrant.
b. Witness a. Zone method
c. Informers b. Strip method
d. Confidential informants c. Spiral method
2263. Vigorous questioning of one who is reluctant to d. Wheel method
divulge information. 2273. The surroundings of the crime scene must be
a. Interview photograph to show the relative location and
b. Interrogation distances.
c. Investigation a. Environmental photograph
d. All of the foregoing b. Physical reconstruction
2264. A compilation of photographs of known criminals, c. Overview
utilized in investigation for identifying suspects in a d. Over-all photograph
crime. 2274. Made by the investigator at the crime scene. No scale,
a. Photographic file proportion ignored and everything is approximate.
b. 201 file a. Sketch
c. Rogue gallery b. Draft
d. Cartographic sketch c. Rough sketch
2265. This is an element of crime commission wherein one is d. Finished sketch
induced to commit the crime. 2275. Most common reason in discharging informants
a. Motive a. Burn out
b. Intent b. Too expensive to maintain
c. Opportunity c. Lack of loyalty
d. Deceit d. Reprehensible behavior
2266. In a police line-up, in which the purpose is to eliminate 2276. Object usually utilized in marking hard objects.
the power of suggestion as a factor in identification as a. Stylus
a procedure how many persons is needed in such a b. Pen
line-up? c. Ink
a. 3 to 5 d. Chalk
b. 5 to 7 2277. A form of investigation in which an investigator
c. 7 to 10 assumes a different and unofficial identity.
d. 10 to 15 a. Tailing
2267. It is the physical possibility that the suspect could have b. Shadowing
committed the crime. c. Surveillance
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 d. Roping b. Mercenary informants
2278. Interrogation fitted for subjects who are willing to talk. c. False informants
a. Narrative type d. Self-aggrandizing informants
b. Interrogation type 2289. That profession and scientific discipline directed to the
c. Question and answer type recognition, identification, individualization and
d. Stern type evaluation of physical science by application of natural
2279. Method employed by the police to deprive the liberty sciences in matters of law and science.
of a person taken into custody. a. Chemist
a. Protective custody b. Scientist
b. Detaining for questioning c. Criminalistics
c. Police restraint d. Toxicologist
d. All of the choices 2290. Is one in which all the ingredients of the offense are
2280. Necessary to determine the appearance of the crime committed in one place.
scene as well as the objects, what naturally occurred a. Local crimes
and what were the circumstances of the crime. b. Local action
a. Crime scene c. Transitory crimes
b. Physical reconstruction d. Transitory action
c. Mental reconstruction 2291. The number of persons who handle the pieces of
d. Reconstruction of the crime evidence from the scene of the crime and between the
times of the commission up to final disposition of cases.
2281. Paid informants
a. Anonymous informants a. Time custody
b. Rival elimination informants b. Time disposition
c. False informants c. Time disposal
d. Mercenary informants d. Chain of custody
2282. Most common type of shadowing.
a. One man shadow 2292. A declaration made under the consciousness of an
b. Two man shadow impending death.
c. Three man shadow a. Part of res gestate
d. Rough shadow b. Dying Declaration
2283. Articles and materials which are found in connection c. Confession
with the investigation and which aid in establishing the d. admission
identity of the perpetrator or the circumstances under 2293. Principles of science applied to law enforcement.
which the crime was committed or which, in general a. Instrumentation
assist in the prosecution of the criminal. b. Forensic
a. Tracing evidence c. Legal medicines
b. Corpus delicti d. Criminology
c. Associative evidence 2294. Evidence which offers least resistance to
d. Physical or material evidence decomposition
2284. Instrumental detection of deception a. Blood
a. Ballistic test b. Semen
b. Fingerprint test c. Saliva
c. Questioned document test d. Hair
d. Polygraph testing 2295. The sketch shows the crime scene with its nearest
2285. When the subject is in prone position what type of physical surroundings.
search should be implemented. a. Finished sketch
a. Kneeling search b. Sketch of details
b. Standing search c. Sketch of locality
c. Floor search d. Sketch of grounds
d. Wall search 2296. The explanation of any symbols used to identify
2286. This is ordinarily made at the time and scene of the objects in a sketch.
arrest. To discover weapons or evidences and determine a. Compass direction
the identity of the suspects. b. Title
a. Preliminary search of a person c. Legend
b. Wall search d. Scale
c. Standing search 2297. Such articles and evidences which assists the
d. Floor search investigator in locating the suspect.
2287. Most likely place to look for fingerprints of theft in an a. Physical evidence
automobile, which has been stolen and abandoned. b. Material evidence
a. Dashboard c. Associative evidence
b. Door handles d. Tracing evidence
c. Steering wheel 2298. Objects or substances which are essential part of the
d. Rear view mirror body of the crime.
2288. Uses his seeming desire to give information to talk to the a. Corpus delicti
law enforcers in order to get more information from b. Physical evidences
them than he gives. c. Material evidences
a. Double-crosser informants d. Associative evidences
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 2299. The primary consideration in transporting evidences. called cardinal questions of investigation. How many
a. Markings should be placed cardinal questions are there?
b. Proper turnover must be observed a. Three
c. Avoid altering contents b. Four
d. Proper packing to protect the evidence while in c. Five
transit d. Six
2300. General rule in handling pieces of evidence 2310. In bank robberies, this person is in charge of
a. MAC rule transportation by stealing the vehicle and providing
b. Right of way rule plate on it.
c. Last clear chance rule a. Drivers
d. None of the choices b. Ripper
2301. In handling clothing used as evidence, the stained c. Wheelman
areas are usually encircled. What is the primary d. Rover
objective? 2311. Refers to the standard arrow designating the north to
a. To show points of interest facilitate proper sketch orientation.
b. To have proper marking a. Proper north
c. To avoid contamination b. True north
d. To prevent alterations c. Legend
2302. If blood is in fluid condition, what is added to preserve d. Compass direction
the specimen? 2312. A search method in which the searchers follow each
a. Formaldehyde other in the path of the coiled beginning from the
b. Saline solution outside proceeding toward the center.
c. Alcohol a. Zone method
d. Distilled water b. Wheel method
2303. It is the surprise invasion of building or an area. c. Spiral method
a. Assault d. Strip method
b. Attack 2313. Taking into custody property described in the search
c. Raid warrant as a result of a search, to be utilized as
d. Surveillance evidence in a case.
2304. Primary requisite for conducting raids. a. Seizure
a. Search warrant b. Detention
b. Raiding team c. Safekeeping
c. Firearms d. Confiscation
d. Back-up personnel 2314. A method of criminal identification whereby
2305. A public officer when not being authorized by the perceptions of witnesses are key and
judicial order, shall enter a dwelling against the criminals are identified by depiction.
will of the owner thereof is committing: a. Verbal description
a. Legal entry b. General photographs
b. Violation of domicile c. Police line up
c. Trespassing d. Rouge gallery
d. Illegal entry 2315. Instrument used to open / close fire hydrants.
2306. A person undergoing custodial investigation enjoy his a. Sprinkler
constitutional rights namely: b. Fire pump
a. The right to oppose whatever accusation on c. Fire hose
him. d. Hydrant key
b. The right to plea guilty and not guilty
c. The right to remain silent, to counsel and the
right to be informed of such rights. 2316. Descriptive of any material when by its nature or as a
d. The right to face his accuser in public trial result of its reaction with other elements promotes a
rapid drop in temperature of the immediate
2307. A type of informant reveals information usually of no surroundings.
consequences of stuff concocted of thin air. a. Dust
a. False informant b. Oxidizing material
b. Mercenary informant c. Pyrolysis
c. Double crosser informant d. Cryogenic
d. Self-aggrandizing informant 2317. Lowest temperature of a liquid in open container at
2308. Is one in which the ingredients of the offense are which vapors are evolved fast enough to support
committed in many places. continuous combustion.
a. Local crime a. Ignition temperature
b. Local action b. Kindling temperature
c. Transitory crime c. Fire point
d. Transitory action d. Flash point
2318. The temperature at which flammable liquid form a
2309. The primary job of an investigator is to determine vapor-air mixture that ignites.
whether a crime has been committed, in order to a. Ignition temperature
determine such, he must have knowledge of the so- b. Kindling temperature
c. Fire point
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 d. Flash point 2330. Refers to the normal pattern or movement of fire, smoke
2319. Minimum temperature in which the substance and fire gases within a building or structure under
in the air must be heated in order to initiate or natural conditions.
cause a self-contained combustion without the a. Free radicals
addition of heat from outside sources. b. Pyrolysis
a. Boiling point c. Thermal balance
b. Ignition temperature d. Thermal imbalance
c. Fire point 2331. In this phase of the fire the maximum heat and its
d. Flash point destructive capabilities is developed.
2320. An exothermic chemical change in which a a. Initial phase
combustible material react with an oxidizing agent. b. Incipient phase
a. Thermal balance c. Free burning phase
b. Thermal imbalance d. Smoldering phase
c. Combustion 2332. A burnt pattern of inverted cone indicates.
d. Oxidation a. The fire triangle
2321. Rapid oxidation accompanied by heat and light. b. The fingerprint of the fire
a. Pyrolysis c. Flashover
b. Combustion d. Incipient phase of the fire
c. Detonation 2333. An occurrence when the heat has brought the
d. All of the foregoing combustible portion of the ceiling to their ignition
2322. A chemical decomposition of matter through the temperature, it is characterized by a sudden burst or
action of heat. shooting forth light and flames.
a. Pyrolysis a. Flashover
b. Combustion b. Backdraft
c. Detonation c. Thermal balance
d. Oxidation d. Thermal imbalance
2323. Measure of the rate of flow of heat, through unit area 2334. An explosive condition in the smoldering phase of fire,
of the material with unit temperature gradient. it is a result of a sudden introduction of oxygen.
a. Conduction a. Flashover
b. Thermal conductivity b. Backdraft
c. Radiation c. Thermal balance
d. Fission d. Thermal imbalance
2324. A means of heat transfer when energy travels through 2335. Which among the following is the primary objective in
space or materials as waves. investigating fires?
a. Conduction a. To determine its cause
b. Convection b. To prevent recurrence
c. Radiation c. To determine liable persons
d. Fission d. All of the foregoing
2325. It is legally classified as arson and set on purpose with 2336. Reason why fire investigation is unique.
a motive. a. It does not conform with regular investigative
a. Providential fire procedure
b. Accidental fire b. Unavailability of witnesses
c. Intentional fire c. Fire destroys evidence
d. None of the foregoing d. All of the foregoing
2326. Malicious and willful burning of a building, defined in 2337. They are fires caused by unforeseen acts of God.
the case of Ong Chat Lay 60 P 788. a. Providential
a. Arson b. Accidental
b. Providential fire c. Intentional
c. Accidental fire d. Incendiarism
d. None of the foregoing 2338. A combination of three elements namely: fuel, heat
2327. First element known to man by experience, a colorless, and oxygen.
tasteless and odorless gas which supports life and fire. a. Fire
a. Nitrogen b. Origin of fire
b. Hydrogen c. Fire triangle
c. Oxygen d. All of the foregoing
d. Neon 2339. Most important part of fire triangle for it is what burns.
2328. Known as ignition heat, it refers to any contrivance to a. Fuel
start a fire. b. Heat
a. Fuel c. Oxygen
b. Oxygen d. Gas
c. Heat 2340. A means by which heat is transformed by a circulating
d. None of the choices medium either gas or a liquid.
2329. Refers to gases liberated by heat. a. Conduction
a. Free radicals b. Convection
b. Flash point c. Radiation
c. Thermal balance d. Fission
d. Thermal imbalance 2341. The amount of heat necessary to convert solid to liquid.
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 a. Specific heat d. All of the foregoing
b. Latent heat 2353. Result of slow oxidation of a combustible material.
c. Heat of Combustion a. Spontaneous heating
d. Heat of fusion b. Combustible gases
2342. Formed by the incomplete combustion of acetylene or c. Combustible dust
natural cracking of hydrogen in the absence of air. d. None of the choices
a. Carbon black 2354. Refers to the preparation and gathering of materials to
b. Lamp black start a fire.
c. Soot a. Plants
d. Black bone b. Trailers
2343. Matter made up of very fine particles and condensed c. Accelerants
vapor as a result of combustion. d. Wick
a. Fire 2355. Act that would remove or neutralize a fire hazard.
b. Flame a. Abatement
c. Heat b. Combustion
d. Smoke c. Allotment
2344. Incandescent gases accompanied by oxidation. d. Distillation
a. Fire 2356. The burning of low grade heavy oils or resinous tarry
b. Flame materials with sufficient air forms lamp black commonly
c. Heat known as:
d. Smoke a. Black bone
2345. The threat to arson investigators after fire has been b. Used petroleum
contained. c. Soot
a. Backdraft d. Black iron
b. Flashover 2357. The use of more electrical devices which draw or
c. Carbon monoxide poisoning consume electrical current beyond the designed capacity
d. Falling debris of the existing electrical system.
2346. Color smoke produced accompanied by red flames a. Overloading
indicates the burning of what material? b. Jumper
a. Rubber c. Wire tapping
b. Nitrogen products d. Arcing
c. Asphalt singles 2358. One of the following is exempted from paying 0.01%
d. Chlorine of the assessed value of the building:
2347. Which among the following is commonly used in fire a. Schools
resistant materials? b. Department stores
a. Asbestos c. Hospitals
b. Diamond d. Single family dwellings
c. Asphalt 2359. Enclosed vertical passage that extends from floor to
d. Cotton floor, as well as from the base to top of the building.
2348. A form of static electricity of great magnitude a. Standpipe system
producing tremendous amperage and voltage, it is the b. Sprinkler system
most common cause of providential fires. c. Vertical shaft
a. Rays of the sun d. Flash point
b. Spontaneous heating 2360. Designed to prevent the spread of fire, having a fire
c. Arcing resistance rating of not less than four hours with
d. Lighting structural stability to remain standing even if the
2349. Most common source of accidental fire is related to: adjacent construction collapses under fire conditions:
a. Smoking a. Post wall
b. Arcing b. Fire trap
c. Sparkling c. Fire wall
d. Overloading d. Firewood
2350. A device used by arsonists to spread the fire within the 2361. A pre-requisite to grant permit/license by local
room or throughout the structure. government for any particular establishment.
a. Accelerant a. Fire service
b. Plants b. Fire safety inspection
c. Trailer c. Fire drill
d. Wick d. Fire protection assembly
2351. Usually comes in form of combustible liquid which is a 2362. Heat transfer by direct contact from one body to
contrivance to hasten the start of fire. another.
a. Accelerant a. Radiation
b. Plants b. Convection
c. Trailer c. Conduction
d. Wick d. Fission
2352. Most common reason of arson cases. 2363. The active principle of burning characterized by the
a. Revenge heat and light of combustion.
b. Profit a. Oxidation
c. Competition b. Flash point
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 c. Smoldering 2375. Refers to persons who after prolonged and excessive
d. Fire intake of alcoholic beverages develops physical and
2364. Changes whereby heat is absorbed before the reaction psychological changes and dependence to alcohol.
takes place. a. Alcoholics
a. Endothermic reactions b. Liquor addicts
b. Exothermic reactions c. Drunkard
c. Oxidation d. Chronic alcoholics
d. Combustion 2376. A fermented juice or product of fruit or plants which
2365. Product of an incomplete combustion. contains alcohol.
a. Soot a. Liquor
b. Charring b. Wine
c. Ashes c. Booze
d. All of foregoing d. Vodka
2366. Color of a luminous flame. 2377. Refers to a person who manages or owns houses of ill-
a. Orange-blue refute whereby the business of prostitution is
b. Blue conducted.
c. Yellow a. Operator
d. Red b. Banker
2367. Refers to the amount of heat released during c. Mama
complete oxidation whereby the organic fuel is d. Pimp
converted to water and carbon dioxide. 2378. Refers to a person who engages in sexual intercourse
a. Heat of combustion with another for hire.
b. Calorific value a. Prostitute
c. Fuel value b. Whores
d. All of the foregoing c. Knockers
2368. Refers to the quantity of heat absorbed by a substance d. All of the foregoing
when it changes state from solid to liquid or liquid to gas. 2379. The procurement and transportation of women from
a. Calorie far flung places for immoral purposes.
b. Latent heat a. White slavery
c. Thermal heat b. Prostitution
d. Specific heat c. Organized crimes
2369. Refers to gases that remain when the products of d. All of the foregoing
combustion are cooled to normal temperature. 2380. This place usually lodges several number of factory girls
a. Fire gases or professional prostitutes under the control of an
b. Combustion gases organized crime ring.
c. Oxidation gases a. Disorderly houses
d. Flame b. Furnished room houses
2370. Fires caused by human error and negligence. c. Call houses
a. Providential fires d. Massage clinics
b. Intentional fires 2381. Refers to a person who sets up and furnishes the
c. Accidental fires means with which to carry on the gambling game.
d. Incendiarism a. Maintainer
2371. Primary component of wood b. Conductor
a. Fiber c. Banker
b. Cellulose d. Operator
c. Carbon 2382. Anti gambling law
d. Pulp a. PD 1869
2372. During this fire phase, the burnt inverted cone pattern b. PD 1612
or fingerprint of fire is developed. c. PD 1602
a. Incipient phase d. PD 1866
b. Initial phase 2383. Social causes of prostitution are the following, except
c. Free burning phase a. Broken families
d. Smoldering phase b. Poverty
2373. Phase whereby the fire can no longer support the c. Anonymity of city life
flame and carbon monoxide builds up in volume. d. All of the choices
a. Incipient 2384. Refers to a person having no apparent means of
b. Initial phase subsistence.
c. Free burning phase a. Gambler
d. Smoldering phase b. Prostitute
2374. Most effective way of regulating vices. c. Vagrants
a. Continued police action by relentless drives in d. None of the foregoing
vice control 2385. Penalty provided for by law which punishes white
b. Sincere and honest law enforcement slave trade.
c. Both a and b a. Prision correctional
d. None of the choices b. Prison mayor
c. Reclusion temporal
d. Reclusion perpetua
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 2386. A person who manages or carries a gambling game. b. Hallucinogens
a. Maintainer c. Amphetamines
b. Conductor d. Methamphetamines
c. Banker 2398. A law which prohibits government officials to enter
d. Operator and gamble in Philippine casinos.
2387. Refers to the increasing the dosage of drugs to a. PD 1602
maintain the same effect. b. PD 1869
a. Tolerance c. PD 510
b. Physical dependence d. PD 483
c. Poly drug abuse 2399. Office that controls and regulates gambling.
d. Drug experimenter a. PAGCOR
2388. A dark brown resin that is collected from the tops of b. PCGG
potent Cannabis Sativa. c. PACC
a. Marijuana d. PNP
b. Hashish 2400. A scheme or distribution of prizes by chance among
c. Opium persons who have paid or agreed to pay a valuable
d. Morphine consideration for the chance to obtain a prize.
2389. Derived from the Greek word “Narkotikos”, meaning a. Gambling
sleep, what is the other term given to narcotics? b. Sport
a. Opium c. Lottery
b. Opiates d. All of the choices
c. Morphine 2401. A bet or consideration placed on gambling games.
d. Heroin a. Wage
2390. It is the psychoactive agent of Marijuana. b. Wager
a. Tetrahydrocannabinol c. Prize
b. Cannabis sativa d. Banker
c. Papaver somniferum 2402. Principal alkaloid of opium which constitute as much
d. Methamphetamine as 25% of the substance:
2391. Codeine which is an alkaloid of opium is primarily used a. Hashish
as: b. Codeine
a. Pain killer c. Morphine
b. Cough reliever d. Heroin
c. Stimulant 2403. Amphetamine is a representative of good class of
d. Depressant stimulants known as:
2392. Who among the following acts as the chairman of the a. Crank
DDB? b. Pep pills
a. Secretary of Justice c. Knock-out drops
b. Secretary of National Defense d. Stick
c. Secretary of Education 2404. Agency which supervises the enforcement of law on
d. Secretary of Health prohibited and regulated drugs.
2393. Originally known as “Kakuseizai” meaning walking a. DDB
drug, it was brought to the Philippines by a Japanese b. NBI
tourist. c. PACC
a. Marijuana d. PNP
b. Cocaine 2405. Are drugs which produce insensibility, stupor,
c. Shabu melancholy or dullness of the mind with delusions.
d. Opium a. Narcotics
2394. The most potent derivative from opium. b. Stimulants
a. Codeine c. Depressants
b. Cocaine d. Hallucinogens
c. Morphine 2406. Chemical substance which effects a person in such a
d. Heroin way as to bring out physiological, behavioral or
2395. Source of Cocaine which is a hardy plant cultivated in emotional change.
Bolivia and first used by the Incas of Peru. a. Alcohol
a. Tetrahydrocannabinol b. Coca leaf
b. Papaver somniferum c. Drug
c. Amphetamine d. Marijuana
d. Erythroxylon coca 2407. Drugs that produce perceptual alteration, varying
2396. The most popular and latest sex drug, whose chemical emotions, thought disruption and ego distortion.
name is “Methy Dioxy Methamphetamine”. a. Depressants
a. Chomper b. Tranquilizers
b. Ecstacy c. Hallucinogens
c. Shabu d. Stimulants
d. Heroin 2408. An immoral conduct or habit, the indulgence of which
2397. Illegal drugs modified molecularly by chemists to leads to depravity, wickedness and corruption of the
circumvent legal restrictions. mind and body.
a. Designer drugs a. Abuse
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 b. Vice b. Impaired reflexes coordination and
c. Addiction concentration
d. Gambling c. Acute panic, anxiety reaction – external fear of
2409. A person who calls and takes bets from gamecock losing control
owners and other bettors. d. Altered sense of time/disorientation
a. Promoter 2419. A drug-obtained from the leaves of coca, a South
b. “Cristo” American shrub. It is a central nervous system
c. Banker stimulant.
d. Gambler a. Marijuana
2410. Most common problem encountered by the police in b. Shabu
vice control measures: c. Cocaine
a. Unwillingness of government officials to work d. Opiates
against vices 2420. A game or scheme the result of which depends wholly
b. Lack of cooperation from the victims of vices upon chance or hazard.
c. Public apathy a. Gambling
d. Clandestine nature of the commission of the acts b. Sports
2411. The process of undergoing or producing gradual c. Tupada
chemical change which later becomes sour or d. All of the above
alcoholic. 2421. Study reveal that the reason why “ Marijuana” is
a. Distillation difficult to control is that:
b. Fermentation a. The big demand
c. Ionization b. The plant can be easily cultivated
d. Purification c. Can easily be smuggled from outside the
2412. A degree of intoxication wherein the person becomes country
argumentative and over confident. d. Can be easily smoked surreptitiously
a. Slight inebration 2442. The forceful and intelligent questioning of one who is
b. Moderate inebration reluctant to divulge information?
c. Drunk A. interview
d. Coma C. interrogation
2413. This method of therapy of alcoholics is based on B. information
conversion and fellowship. D. instrumentation
a. Aversion treatment 2443. It is what induces the criminal to act and not to be
b. Psychotherapy method shown in order to obtain conviction?
c. Withdrawal method A. intent
d. Program of alcoholic anonymous B.desire
2414. Oldest profession known to man which involves C. motive
habitual indulgement in sexual intercourse for money D. opportunity
or profit. 2444. Information gathered upon initiative of the
a. Gambling investigator from informants, vendors, taxicab
b. Prostitution driver, GRO, and others.
c. Addiction A. Grapevine Sources
d. All of the foregoing B. Cultivated Sources
2415. Classy type of prostitute who engages in prostitution C.Regular Sources
to supplement their income. D.Cognitive interview
a. Call girls 2445. What interrogation techniques when the
b. Factory girls investigator indicates he does not consider his
c. Hustler subject’s indiscretion a grave offense.
d. Door knocker A. Sympathetic Appeal
B. Mutt and Jeff
2416. Usually operated by experienced madam, who rent C Extenuation
legitimate roomers to maintain an appearance of D. Emotional Appeal
responsibility. 2446. It is a self-incriminatory statement by the
a. Disorderly houses subject falling short of an acknowledgment of
b. Furnished room houses guilt.
c. Call houses
d. Massage clinics a. Confession
2417. The Golden triangle where 80% of illicit drugs of the b. Extra-Judicial Confession
world originated is located specifically in: c. Admission
a. Thailand-Burma-China border d. Judicial Confession
b. Laos-Thailand-China border
c. Thailand-Burma-Laos border 2447. It refers to Police files of Photograph of known
d. Burma-Vietnam-Thailand border criminals, their Modus Operandi, hiding places
2418. Grass of marijuana, is a crude drug made from and names of associate criminals.
Cannabis Sativa a plant that contains meal a. Physical Line-up
altering ingredient. Which among the b. Physical Show-up
following is not an immediate effect of weed? c. Geographic Sketch
a. Moderate heart beat and pulse rate d. Rogues Gallery
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 2448. It is the general questioning of all persons at the B. Death
crime scene/ traffic accident, no need to recite C. Reclusion temporal
the Miranda doctrine D. Destierro
A. Custodial Investigation 2458. The Unit now charged with conducting field
B. Interview operation and technical investigation at the
C. Field Inquiry crime scene is:
D. Interrogation a. PNP Crime Laboratory
2449. It is a distinct pattern of how a crime is b. Criminal Investigation and Detection
committed and is established by a series of Group
crimes under one classification. c. Scene of the Crime Operation
A. Modus Operandi d. Crime Scene Investigation
B. Modes of Operation
C. Methods of Operation 2459. Police Officer Athan is the first officer to arrive
D. Pattern of Operation at the scene of a shooting incident. he saw the
2450. It refers to a person who gives information victim lying on the pavement sustaining
relevant to a criminal case about the activities multiple gun shot wounds, but still moving.
of the criminals voluntarily to the investigator What is the proper course of action he should
and who may even be willing to be a witness. take?
A. Informant a. Cordon the area and wait for the SOCO
B. Informer team to arrive
C. Mercenary b. Ask the desk officer to proceed to the
D. Women crime scene and assist him with the
2451. Methods of Search whereby the searchers will situation.
proceed at the same place along the path C. Call the investigator and inquire
parallel to one side of the rectangle. about his decision concerning the victim.
A. Wheel search method D. Evacuate the victim and bring him to the
B.Quadrant Search nearest hospital.
C. Spiral search method 2460. In the crime of theft, the corpus delicti is ____
D. Strip Search a. the property taken
2452. Crime scene photographs are admissible as b. the fact that the crime was committed
evidence in court; it should be taken from ____. c. anything of value
A. General View d. Intent of the suspect
C. Close-up view 2461. One of the elements of sketch wherein the
B. Mid-range graphical representation must indicate the ____
D. General to Specific direction for proper orientation of the scene.
2453. It is the simplest and most effective way of A. North
showing actual measurements and of B. West
identifying significant items of evidence in their C. East
location at the scene. D. South
A. Sketch 2462. The following are the rules to be observed
B. Rough Sketch when intervening a witness, EXCEPT:
C. Final Sketch a. allow implied answer
D. Finish Sketch b. saving faces
2454. What kind of Sketch gives picture of the scene c. one question at a time
of the crime and its environs, including d. avoid leading questions
neighboring buildings, roads, etc.? 2463. In case there is no other available means of
a. Sketch of Locality establishing the age of the offender, what
b. Sketch of Environs should be done if he claims that he is still a
c. Sketch of the Ground minor?
d. Sketch in Details a. Do not listen to his claim because
2455. Elements of the Sketch: probably he is already of majority age.
a. Measurement and compass direction b. Wait for the court to determine the age
b. Essential items and scale of proportion of the offender
c. Legend and title c. Resolve the issued in favor of the
d. All of the choices declarant
2456. During a custodial investigation, Jayson was d. Ask the social worker to determine the
subjected to physical harm by continuously age of the offender
kicking and punching him in the stomach so that 2464. 24. The desk officer upon receipt of the crime
the same may confess. incident shall have the following duties, EXCEPT:
A. Coercion a. Record the date and time the report was
B. Physical torture made
C. Duress b. Immediately respond to the crime scene
D. Verbal threats c. Made a synopsis of the incident
2457. A person who killed his spouse but was entitled d. Inform his superior officer or duty officer
to the benefits of Article 247 of the Revised regarding the report
Penal Code shall suffer the penalty of: 2465. What is the area located adjacent to the crime
A. Reclusion perpetua scene where the briefing is to be conducted and
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 also the place where the evidence custodian C. Stab wound
receives the evidence collected during crime D. Lacerated wound
scene investigation? 2473. What is the means of identifying physical
A. crime scene evidence in which the investigator inscribe
C. fixed post initial date and time directly?
B. command post A. marking
D. reception area B. labeling
2466. In preliminary survey of the crime scene, the C. tagging
team leader performs the following duties, D. none of these
EXCEPT: 2474. A knife found at the crime scene to be used as a
a. Takes down note to document evidence should be marked where ____.
important factors A. At the tip of the blade
b. Makes a general assessment of the B. At the frame
crime scene C. At the base
c. Photograph the crime scene before D. At the handle
walking through the crime scene 2475. What may be added to blood to preserve for a
d. Defines the extent of search area week?
2467. What is the purpose of conducting final survey A. Sodium Chloride
of the crime scene? B. Sodium Fluoride
a. To determine whether or not the C. Sodium Dioxide
processing has been completed. D. NONE
b. To turn over the scene to the Chief of 2476. What is the most important part of the hair?
Police. A. Follicle
c. To check all evidence gathered from the B. Medulla
crime scene. C. Root
d. To determine whether there is a need to D. All of these
request for additional personnel 2477. What is the minimum number of hair strands is
2468. After the conduct of final survey by the team needed?
leader to whom will the crime scene be turned A. 10 strands
over? B. 30 to 60 strands
A. Chief of Police C. 120 strands
B. PCP Commander D. unlimited
C. Investigator-on-case 2478. Mummification is a condition of arrested
D. owner of the place decomposition due to the absence of moisture.
2469. Are all physical evidence found and collected at It is common in hot dry conditions, usually takes
the crime scene to be transported to the Crime ___ to form.
Laboratory? A. 3 months
a. Yes, because they were collected for B. 1 month
examination C. 6 months
b. Yes, because the Investigator is not D. 1 year
allowed to take custody of evidence 2479. A dead body was found and there is already
c. No, because the SOCO Team has no presence of maggots, it indicates that the dead
authority to bring the evidence to the body was at least ___.
Crime Laboratory if the investigator did A. 2 days
not request B. 5 days
d. No, only those which require further C. 3 days
laboratory examination will be D. 1 week
transported. 2480. The lifting or removal of a dead body from the
2470. Once the crime scene has been thoroughly grave for the conduct of medical examination:
documented and locations of evidence was A. Inhumation
noted, the collection process begins and will B. Exhumation
usually start with – C. Autopsy
A. point of exit D. Interment
B. fragile evidence 2481. The purpose of the autopsy is to determine
C. large objects which of the following
D. removal of cadaver a. The actual cause of death of the victim
2471. Who conducts the final survey of the crime b. The actual killer of the victim
scene? c. The modus operandi involved
A. Chief Investigator d. The motive behind killing
B. Team Leader 2482. 41. The method used to support a likely
C. Chief of Police sequence of events by the observation and
D. Investigator-on-case evaluation of physical evidence, as well as
2472. This is produced by forcible contact on the statement made by those involved with the
body by sharp edged instrument like bolos, incident:
knives, and broken glasses:
A. Incised wound a. Crime Scene Reconstruction
B. Punctured wound b. Physical reconstruction
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 c. Mental reconstruction C. suspect
d. Any of the above D. all of these
2483. The purposes of a crime scene search are the 2491. Which among the following is an essential
following, EXCEPT: element of parricide?
a. To identify the method of operation a. by means of treachery
b. To analyze physical evidence b. relationship of the offender with the
c. To reduce the number of suspects victim
d. To obtain physical evidence c. relationship of the offender with the
2484. In the course of investigating the house where a witness
stabbing took place, police find what to be d. age of the victim
bloodstains on the front door, since the 2492. In crime scene investigation, who determines its
unknown perpetrator and the victim who may entry/exit?
die were both cut their identities need to be A. the prober
established through the bloodstains. How will B. SOCO
the police collect the stains? C. COP
a. moisten a piece a clean cotton with a D. First responded
saline solution and rub gently. 2493. After developing the latent print found at the
b. remove the door and submit it to the crime scene, it is best to lift it first then take
crime lab photographs as a back record, is it a correct
c. scrap the stain into white paper using a practice and do you agree with the prober?
clean razor blade A. yes
d. blot the stain with a clean tissue soaked B. no
in alcohol C. maybe
2485. The primary reason a finished sketch is made D. It depends
from a rough sketch is for 2494. What would be the best camera position in
A. scale and proportion taking photographs showing a view of what a
B. future use witness might have seen?
C. accuracy and clarity a. at 6 foot distance from the camera man
D.courtroom presentation b. parallel to the subject witness
2486. What is the court process requiring a person to c. overhead
bring documents in his possession to the d. at the eye level
courts? 2495. Sharp-pointed steel which is used to scratch or
a. summon engraved the initial on a collected hard object is
b. subpoena ducestecum called?
C.subpoena testificandum A. Collection
D. bill of particulars C. Scratcher
2487. What is the best method of collection evidence B. Luminous
like footprints and tire prints? D. Stylus
A. Casting 2496. As regards to the suspect, what will be the
B. Dental Stone purpose of interrogation?
C. Plaster of Paris a. To extract illegally the confession of a
D. Photograph suspect
2488. Investigation has 3 I’s, to be precise these are b. To extract the information he possesses
the information, interview/interrogation and c. To extract a confession of admission
instrumentation. Among of them information is d. All of the above
deemed to be the most important because 2497. Before going to court, be sure to review the
a. Information involves the elements of the ___?
crime a. Names of the suspect
b. Information identifies the perpetrator of b. Names of the witness
the crime c. Number of the cases
c. Information identifies witnesses that will d. Facts of the cases
lead to the suspect
d. None of these
2489. Paint recovered from the victim at the scene of
a hit-and-run may be particularly useful in the 2498. In collecting bloodstains at the crime scene,
investigation process because the year and prober must keep in mind that before placing
make of the car involved may be determinable. the specimen in a paper packet it must be
The paint chips evidence collected should be allowed first to ____?
ideally placed on? A. Refrigerate
a. Clear plastic envelope B. Air dried
b. Clear plastic container C. Moist
c. Small plastic bag D. Freeze
d. Cotton 2499. Why is it important for a perishable material to
2490. Which of the following is the primary source of be preserved by the way or the methods of
evidence? preservation?
A. victim a. So that the evidence will not be
B. crime scene destroyed
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 b. In order that this evidence will reach the opening without breaking the same and gets
court in the same physical condition as items there. What crime is committed?
when they were collected A. Robbery
c. To avoid the miscarriage of justice by B. Theft
the acquittal of the accused C. Robbery w/ force upon things
d. All of the above D. None
2500. In police photography, when one say tripod, the 2508. The Access Devices Regulation Act of 1998:
stand has how many legs or vertical support? A. RA 8484
A. two B. RA 7877
B. four C. RA 7080
C. one D. RA 8353
D. three 2509. If stolen goods such as laptops and cell phones
2501. Pointed metal instrument is used to mark bullet are found in your house by the police, then it is
and empty shell for ____.
A. proper and lasting mark a. Prima facie evidence of Fencing
B. preservation b. Prima facie evidence of theft
C. marking it c. Conclusive Evidence of Theft
D. labeling d. Conclusive Evidence of Fencing
2502. Which of the following is not the function of 2510. The following are the grounds to execute a
criminal investigation? Lawful warrantless arrest EXCEPT:
a. Identify, locate and arrest the person A. Seized in “Plain view”
who commits crime B. Customs search
b. Prosecute and convict the criminal C. Search of a moving vehicle
c. Identify, collect and preserve evidence D. None of the choices
d. Bring the offender to justice 2511. After serving the search warrant, deliver
2503. Below are serious crimes which leave physical immediately the things or property seized to
evidence, EXCEPT: the ____ together with an inventory duly
a. Homicide verified under oath.
b. Carnapping and arson a. Judge who issued the warrant
c. Sexual assault and robbery b. Prosecution Counsel
d. Libel c. Requesting Party
2504. There are two robbers who broke into a house d. Any of these
and carried away some valuables. After they 2512. The validity period of Search Warrant is ____.
left such house these two robbers decided to A. 10 days
cut or divide the loot already so that they can B. No time Limit
go of them . So while they are dividing the C. 15 days
loot the other robber noticed that the one D. NONE
doing the division is trying to cheat him and so 2513. The taking of a person into custody in the
he immediately boxed him. Now this robber manner authorized by law for the purpose of
who was boxed then pulled out his gun and presenting that person before the court to
fired at the other one killing the latter. What answer for the commission of a crime.
crime is committed?
a. Robbery and Murde
b. Murder A. Search
c. Robbery w/ Homicide B. Arrest
d. Homicide C. Initial Contact
D. Warrant of Arrest
2514. Who shall issue a Search Warrant?
2505. If a person had an enemy and killed him and A. Judge
after killing him, saw that he had a beautiful ring B. Executive Branch
and took this, the crime would be? C. Investigator on Case
a. Robbery and Murder D. Prober
b. Robbery and Theft 2515. All but one are the instances you can execute a
c. Robbery w/ Homicide lawful warrantless arrest.
d. Murder A. Flagrante Delicto
2506. A committed robbery but during the robbery he B. Escaped prisoner
saw B a beautiful woman which he raped it. But C. Hot pursuit Principle
B. pardoned A, and they get married. What D. None of these
crime is committed? 2516. Physical evidence is generally given weight the
A. Robbery courts because-
B. Robbery w/ Rape a. it speaks for itself
C. Robbery and Rape b. it cannot lie
D. NONE c. not affected by emotion
2507. On a sari-sari store, a vehicle bumped the wall. d. all of the choices
The wall collapsed. There was a small opening 2517. Physical or personal appearance is important
there. At night, a man entered through that when testifying in court because –

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 a. it will determine the quality of your d. Notify the superior officer as quickly as
testimony possible but do not leave the scene
b. it will determine the quantity of your unguarded while doing so
testimony 2525. The primary reason for conducting a search in
c. it will affect the weight given to your the crime scene is to –
testimony by the court a. Obtain obvious physical evidence
d. it will reduce the chances of the defense b. Ascertain the reasons for the crime
2518. What does DNA stand for? c. Undercover hidden evidence
a. Deoxyrebunucleic Acid d. Determine the criminals method of
b. Deoxyribunucleic Acid operation
c. Deoxyribonucleic Acid 2526. Marking of evidence, as far as practicable,
d. Deoxyribunucliec Acid should be made on the item itself upon
2519. It is the art of suspect’s surveillance, and this collection, in a place least likely to affect the
was pioneered by Allan Pinkerton appearance of its -
a. Every contact leaves a Mark A. Physical Integrity
b. modus operandi B. Evidentiary
c. shadowing C. Legal Integrity
d. casing D. Integrity and Identity
2520. The fact that no physical evidence was found at 2527. In pursuing a criminal and when it appears that
the scene of the crime will most likely mean the pursuit is not possible, what should you not
that – do?
a. the victim cleaned up before the police a. Better use your time and efforts to alert
arrived another unit
b. the suspect was professional b. Forego the pursuit and keep on what
c. the suspect was juvenile you are formerly doing
d. the police probably did not conduct a c. Inform the dispatched of the unit
complete search for evidence. d. Use radio for possible active pursuit in
2521. During an interview, planning is important and coordination with other police units
must follow the order of time and bring out 2528. This situation takes place when a police officer
facts orderly as they happened, this technique induced a person to commit a crime and arrest
is called – him after the commission of the crime.
a. chronological questioning A. Instigation
b. psychological questioning B. Search
c. physical questioning C. Recidivism
d. None of these D. Entrapment
2522. It is best to interrogate a suspect in a “foreign 2529. The investigator who collects physical evidence
territory” such as the investigator room at the should take it to the laboratory by himself
police station because the place – whenever this is possible, otherwise, he should
a. Is comfortable to the suspect obtain a receipt from each person to whom he
b. Is familiar to the suspect gives or receives evidence. This statement is
c. Provides food and cigarette to the applicable to –
investigator a. Chain of custody of evidence
d. Intimidates the suspect b. Cardinal rules in investigation
2523. When a police officer finds a tool at the crime c. Three tools in investigation
scene, he should first of all – d. To establish the guilt of the accused
a. Pick it up for a closer examination, 2530. It is the duty of the officer who first arrives at
taking care not to jar the crime scene.
b. wait until the crime scene has been a. Locate and apprehend the accused
sketched, photographed and b. Protection of the crime scene
measurements taken before he collects c. Collect evidence
the evidence d. Present evidence of guilt
c. immediately collects it and always sends
it to the Crime Laboratory for specific 2531. These are some of the investigative activities in
examination a homicide case, EXCEPT:
d. Compare the following edge of the took a. record the crime scene through notes,
with impression to determine if this was photographs, and sketches
the tool used in crime b. recognizes, collect, and preserves all
2524. All of the following are generally accepted rules physical evidences and clue materials
of behavior that should be followed by police c. establish the cause and the manner of
officer first arriving at the crime scene of a death of the victim
murder committed indoors, EXCEPT – d. alleged suspicion as they initially appear
a. Try to keep witnesses separated to the investigators
b. Record the time of discovery of the 2532. Another set of the investigative activities in a
crime homicide case, are the following, EXCEPT:
c. Discus the crime with persons who a. determine the categories and modes of
witness the incident death

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 b. seek additional information by c. there is violence or intimidation of any
interviewing witness person
c. ascertaining the motive of the suspect d. it engender fear and quality of life
d. questioning the suspect after explaining 2540. The most likely place to look for fingerprints of
his rights the thief in an automobile which has been
2533. White-collar crimes are generally very difficult stolen and abandoned is on
to prevent and when detected or reported, they A. Door handles
pose many ____. C. Steering wheel
a. investigative difficulties B. Rear view mirror
b. investigative tasks D. Dashboard
c. investigative problems 2541. If criminal investigation is a process, after
d. investigative burden identifying then collecting information and
2534. To secure conviction of white-collar criminals, evidences, the next logical step to do is
the investigator must develop ___, eh must also a. presents them in court
remember that the victim may suddenly lose b. preserves their legal integrity
interest in aiding prosecution. c. evaluate their strength in establishing
a. every phase of the case proof
b. contingency of case d. recognize their importance in the case
c. friendly atmosphere 2542. During a quarrel on a crowded street of
d. rapport with victim Avenida, one man, stabs another and flees. PO1
2535. The following are characteristics of organized Lim policeman arriving at the scene a short time
crime, EXCEPT: later finds the victim unconscious, calls for an
a. close-knit nature of its membership ambulance and orders the crowd to leave. His
b. their elaborate planning and lack of action was
impulsiveness a. bad; there may have been witnesses to
c. violence and intimidation are common the assault among the crowd
tools b. good; it is proper first aid procedure to
d. basically a street gang with criminal skills give an injured person room and air
2536. The following statements, answers the c. bad; the assailant is probably among the
questions “when” and “how” rape can be crowd
committed, EXCEPT: d. good; a crowd may destroy needed
a. sexual assault by inserting penis into evidence
another person’s mouth e. bad; it is poor public relations for the
b. inserting any instrument or object into police to order people about needlessly.
the genital or anal orifice or another
person 2543. The correct order of a crime scene analysis is:
c. committed under all the elements a. sketch, search, photograph
enumerated by Art. 324 of the Revised b. search, sketch, photograph
Penal Code c. photograph, search, sketch
d. rape case is a crime against chastity d. photograph, sketch, search
2537. Rape is committed under any of the following 2544. It is often important to know the time of death.
circumstance, EXCEPT: The reasons offered to this are as follows,
a. through the use of force, threat or EXCEPT:
intimidation a. to question individual who last talk with
b. when the offended party is deprived of the victim
reasons or otherwise unconscious b. to look for flaws on a witness’s account
c. by means of fraudulent machinations or of incident
grave abuse of authority c. protect the innocent from malicious
d. it is an exclusive offense committed by allegations
man to a woman d. to know what was occur and how did it
2538. As provided by the Revised Penal Code, robbery occur
is divided into two different classifications, one 2545. 1st Driver’s License is a matter of right not only a
is robbery by the use of force upon things, and privilege, 2nd Driver’s License is issued to a
the other is: person, who has all the qualification as provided
a. robbery with violence, or intimidation of by law, 3rd Driver’s License is a public document
person a. The 1st and 2nd statements are incorrect
b. taking of personal property belonging to b. The 1st and 3rd statements are correct
another c. The 2nd and 3rd statements are correct
c. with intent, to gain and to possess the d. All statements are correct
property 2546. Which of the following is not a function of
d. pre-conceived plans and unexpected warning symbol?
opportunity a. To call the decrease of speed
b. To seek carefulness on the part of
2539. The following are the elements of the crime motorist of the approaching danger
robbery, EXCEPT: c. To direct motorist along the establish
a. personal property belonging to another direction
b. the taking must be with intent to gain
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 d. To notify traffic units an approaching D. PD 96
hazardous circumstance either on or 2555. The effectiveness of traffic law enforcement
adjacent to road program is best measured by which of the
2547. 106. These are the functions of guide signs, following:
EXCEPT: a. A cutback of traffic accidents and
a. To guide motorist along established interruption
routes b. A amplify in traffic enforcement actions
b. To inform proper routes c. A dwindle in the ratio of convictions to
c. To help him along his way to the most enforcement manner
simple and direct method d. None of these
d. To call the diminution of speed 2556. 115. In an intersection not controlled by lights
2548. 107. A number of traffic regulations revolve or peace officers, pedestrian have the right of
around questions of right of way, for practically way the moment he starts to cross.
purposes, one of the following is the best A. Absolutely true
definition of “Right of Way”. B. Partly true
a. The personal right to move from one C. Absolutely false
place to another D. Partly false
b. The privilege of immediate use of 2557. It refers to a modern urban system of roadway
particular section of highway above street level for free-flow traffic.
c. The way or place open to the motorist A. Expressway
and pedestrian B. Subway
d. The right of a vehicle to occupy a space C. Skyway
which at the time is occupied by another D. Tunnel road
vehicle 2558. City roads inter-link between municipalities and
2549. It is intended to inform road user of special within the city with a right of way of 15 meters;
obligation, instruction nor prohibitions which what is the minimum width of sidewalk?
they must comply. A. 1.0 to 1.2 meters
A. Traffic Signs B. 1.5 to 1.8 meters
B. Informative Signs C. 1.2 to 1.5 meters
C. Regulatory Signs D. 2.0 meters
D. Danger/warning signs 2559. It refers to enforcement actions which consist
of taking a person into custody for the purpose
2550. A kind of road according to political subdivision of holding or detaining him to answer a charge
within town proper Right of Way not less than of law violation before a court.
10 meters. A. Arrest
A. National Road B. Traffic Arrest
B. Municipal Road C. Traffic Citation
C. Barangay Road D. Traffic Warning
D. City Road 2560. Holder of student driver’s permit for the period
2551. It refers to a vehicles covered by certificate of of not less than ___ can apply for non-
public convenience or special permit issued by professional driver’s license
LTFRB A. 150 Days
A. Private B. 180 Days
B. For Hire C. 60 Days
C. Government D. 30 Days
D. Diplomatic 2561. Any motor Vehicle Accident that results in injury
2552. Professional and non-professional driver’s other than serious to one or more persons:
license is valid for ___ from the date of issuance A. Property damage
and renewable every birth month. B. Less Serious Injury
A. 18 Months C.Fatal Accident
B.36 Months D. Non-fatal Accident
C. 24 Months 2562. When two vehicles approach an intersection at
D.12 Months approximately the same time, which shall give
2553. It is any accident occurring on a public traffic the right of way:
way involving persons using vehicle or a. The vehicle coming from the right
transportation, but not involving a motor b. Vehicle from the center
vehicle in motion: c. The vehicle coming from the left
a. Vehicle Traffic Accident d. The vehicle that arrives first
b. Motor Vehicle Non-Traffic Accident 2563. Which of the following consideration does not
c. Non-Motor Vehicle Traffic Accident act as a deterrent to motorist and pedestrian?
d. Non-Motor Vehicle Non Traffic Accident A. Fear of fine and punishment
2554. Which of the following law created the B.Loss of driving privileged
Metropolitan Manila Development Authority C.Possibility involve in an accident
(MMDA)? D.Increase of insurance premium
A. RA 8750 2564. Human errors as one cause of traffic
B .RA 7924 congestion is best characterized by, EXCEPT:
C. RA 8749 A.Poor legislation activities
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 B.Lack of foresight on the part of pedestrians 2573. A systematic examination of all the facts
C.Effective and efficient traffic officers relating to conditions, actions and physical
D.Slow drivers or bad driving habit features associated with motor collision or
2565 The following are NOT functions of Land accident –
Transportation Office, EXCEPT: A.traffic engineering
A.Reparation of vehicles B.traffic accident investigation
B.Registration and licensing C.reckless driving
C.Rental and license D.hit and run
D.Licensing operating 2574. A public officials, law enforcement officers or
2566. One of the following statements that best anybody who are not a member of the
indicates the main purpose of traffic law organization who can helps the organization
enforcement is: A. Enforcer
A.reduce traffic by punishing B.violators of B. Capo
traffic rules C. Corrupter
C.keep traffic moving at a steady rate to avoid D. Corruptee
bottlenecks 2575. What type of OCG which is manned by semi-
control the speed limited in densely organized individual with the end view of
populated areas attaining psychological gratification such as
D.prevent traffic accidents and expedite the adolescent gangs.
flow of traffic A.In-Group Oriented Organized Crime
2567. Most common defect attributed to the human B.Political Graft
element in cases of traffic vehicular accidents: C.Predatory Organized Crime
A. Intellectual D.Syndicated Organized Crime
B. Perceptual 2576. A continuing illegal activity of group of person
C. Decision which is primarily concerned with the
D. Attitudinal generation of profits, irrespective of national
2568. Statistically it is considered as the most boundaries as a result of globalization.
common reason for public utility vehicular accidents. A.Transnational Organized Crime
A.Not observing the proper distance and B.Transnational Crime
following too close C.Organized Criminal Group
B.Unnecessary D.NONE
C.Recklessness 2577. What category of terrorist group which is What
D.Discussion regarding fare category of terrorist group which is dedicated
2569. What is the general rule for the movement of to overthrow an established order and
vehicular traffic in the Philippines? replacing it with a new political or social
A. “keep to the left” structure?
B. Safety First A. Ethnocentric
C. “keep to the right” B. Revolutionary
D. “watch out” C. Separalist
2570. What would drivers do when an emergency D. Political
vehicle approaches displaying legally authorized red 2578. ICT in Electronic Commerce Act of 2000 stands
light and sounding a siren? for?
A.pull aside and stop the car abruptly A.InformationConnection Technology
B.continue driving slowly without regard of B.InformationCommunication
the emerging Technology
C.yield at the right of way and wait for the C.InternetCommunication
passage of the vehicle Technology
D.disregard the red light and siren D.Internet Connection Technology
2571. As you are driving in a public thoroughfare, 2579. Economic crime is known as:
you approach an intersection with the traffic A.Blue Collar Crime
light with a “green color” on but a traffic B.Wildlife Smuggling
policeman is standing at the center of C.White Collar Crime
intersection conducting the flow normally. As a D.Wildlife trafficking
driver you will ignore the traffic man and 2580. It is the Latin term meaning to frighten:
follow the automatic traffic light- A. Terrorisme
A. True B.Terrere
B. False C. Rapere
C. Sometimes D. Vestigarre
D. It depends 2581. It refers to the code of silence and secrecy
2572. Term used for an operator or a vehicle which code of silence that forbids Mafiosi from
strikes another vehicle, object or person and betraying their comrades to the authorities:
left the scene without stopping to identify A. Capo
himself or render aid B. Omerta
A. hit and run C. Jihad
B. third party liability D. Ideology
C. reckless driving
D. side sweeper
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 2582. It was an event said to be the origin of conflict 2592. These are the most frequent terrorist acts,
in Mindanao and for the establishment of accounting for as much as 80% of terrorist-
Moro National Liberation Front (MNLF): related violence:
A.Rizal Day Bombing A. Bombings
B.Ninoy assassination B. Assassinations
C.Black September C. Kidnapping
D.Jabbidah Massacre D. Prostitution
2583. Arch-terrorist who used to be the most wanted 2593. This is also known as the Human Security Act
terrorist in the world who issued a “fatwa” of 2007:
that calls all Muslims around the world to slay A. RA 9372
Americans and their allies. B. RA 9160
A. Abu-Abbas C. RA 9165
B. Ramzi Ahmed Yousef D. RA 8294
C. Ahmed Yassin 2594. This is the country which believed to be the
D. Osama bin-Laden origin of Mafia and Cosa Nostra:
2584. This refers to an attribute of organized crime A. United States of America
that their memberships have limitations based B. Italy
on kinship, criminal record, or similar C. Japan
considerations: D. China
A.No Political Goals 2595. An Asian organized crime that represents
B.Hierarchical mystical symbol in the form of an equilateral
C.Constitutes a Unique Subculture triangle representing the heaven, earth and
D.Limited or Exclusive Membership man:
2585. Organized crime differs from terrorism in A. Yakuza
terms of their: B. Triad
A. membership C. Tongs
B. motivation D. Born to Kill of Vietnam
C. leadership 2596. Chain of custody should be observed by the
D. networking investigating team of cybercrimes:
2586. This theory refers to those processes by which A.The Statement is wrong
the community influences its members B.The statement is true
towards conformity with established norms C.None of these
and behavior. D.All of these
A. differential association 2597. Internet pornography is punishable under E-
B. social control Commerce Act of 2000:
C. anomie A.The Statement is correct
D. strain B.Statement is wrong
2587. It is a form of modern day slavery. C.either of the above
A. Human Trafficking D.neither of the above
B. Prostitution 2598. Under E-Commerce Act of 2000, internet cafes
C. Drug Trafficking and cyber cafes, where majority of
D. Sex tourism cybercrimes are perpetuated, are legally
2588. The crime of human trafficking shall be required to have permanent logs and records
qualified when: of their clients:
A.the person trafficked is an elderly A.The statement is true
B.the person trafficked is a special child B.The statement is false
C.the person trafficked is a woman C.Neither of the above
D.the person trafficked is a child D.Either of the above
2599. The E-Commerce Act of 2000 provides that
2589. The convention held at Palermo Italy in 2000 telecommunication companies are legally
provides that an organized criminal group bound to cooperate with the law enforcement
must have a membership of at least ___: agencies in the course of their investigation:
A. 3 or More A.The statement is absolutely correct
B. 2 or More B.The statement is absolutely wrong
C. 4 or More C.The statement is partially correct
D. 5 or More D.The statement is partially wrong
2590. In what terrorist group does Abu Sayyaf is
formerly included. 2600. It is the maximum imprisonment for violation
A. Al Qaeda of E-Commerce Act of 2000.
B. MILF A. 20 years
C. MNLF B. 12 years
D. JI C. 6 years
2591. In Arabic, Abu Sayaff means: D. 3 years
A.Swords bearer 2601. It is a crime whereby the proceeds of unlawful
B.Islamic Congregation activity are transacted or attempted to be
C.Father of the Swordsman transacted, to make them appear to have
D.The Base originated from legitimate sources:
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 A. Estafa 2610. It refers to a computer program that can copy
B.Money Laundering itself and infect a computer without
C. Anti-Money Laundering permission or knowledge of the user
D. Swindling A. Virus
2602. This refers to any distinctive mark, B. Trojan Horse
characteristic and/or sound in electronic form, C. Logic Bomb
representing the identity of a person and D. Worm
attached to or logically associated with the 2611. What kind of hacker who breaks into computer
electronic data message: systems with malicious intent, usually for some
A. electronic key criminal purpose.
B. originator A. Black Hat Hackers
C. electronic signature B. Gray Hat Hacker
D. electronic date message C. White Hat Hackers
2603. Only a computer forensic expert should search D. Any color
for any evidence contained in a computer 2612. This terrorist organization in the Philippines is
hardware. known as “Back to Islam”.
A.The statement is absolutely correct A. Abu Sayyaf
B.The statement is absolutely wrong B. MILF
C.The statement is partially correct C. Je naah Islamiya
D.The statement is partially wrong D. Rajah Solaiman Movement
2604. It is an act known as the Access Devices Act of
1998: 2613. It is a term used to describe a massive weapon
A. RA 8551 with the capacity to indiscriminately kill large
B. RA 8484 numbers of people.
C. RA 9160 A.Nuclear
D. RA 9165 B.Weapon of mass destruction
2605. What is the name of the operation launched by C.Anthrax
US Navy Seals that killed Osama Bin Laden? D.Chemical weapons
A.Operation Geronimo 2614. Considered to be the oldest and the biggest
B.Operation Jabbidah criminal organization in the world.
C.Operation Neptune Spear A. Al Qaeda
D.Operation Merdeka B. Jihad
2606. These are Italian Organized Crime, EXCEPT? C. Chinese Mafia
A. The Neopolitan Camera D. Nuestra Costra
B. Sinilian Mafia
C. Cali Cartel 2615. What is the constant temperature at which the
D. Sacra Corona Unita vapor pressure of the liquid is equal to the
2607. It is a center created by Executive Order No. 62 atmospheric pressure?
to establish a shared database among A. vapor density
concerned agencies for information on B. fire point
criminals, methodologies, arrests and B. boiling point
conviction on transnational crime. D. vapor pressure
A.Philippine Center on Transnational Crimes
(PCTC) 2616. It is a combustion product and a manifestation
B.National Commission on Anti Hijacking of fire when it is in its gas-phased combustion.
(NACAH) A. Flames
C.International Criminal Police Organization B. Exothermic reaction
(ICPO) C. Endothermic reaction
D.Philippine National Police (PNP) D. NONE
2617. What type of Flame is orange-red, deposit soot
at the bottom or a vessel being heated due to
2608. It is known as IP address that changes every incomplete combustion and has a low
time the internet accesses his ISP: temperature.
A. ISP A. Luminous
B. Dynamic IP address B. Non-luminous
C. Static IP Address C. Laminar
D. IP Address D. Turbulent
2609. It refers to an act sending fraudulent mails or 2618. The cause of the majority of fire deaths is
website pop-ups, to get victims to divulge ____.
sensitive financial information such as credit A. Infection
card numbers or social security numbers. C. shock
A. Phising B. burns
B. Hacking D. asphyxiation
C. Cracking 2619. What kind of gas exists solely in the gaseous
D. Identity Theft state under pressure and at normal
atmospheric temperature inside its container?
A. cryogenic gas
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 B. liquefied gas D. sparkling
C. compressed gas 2629. The most common motive for arson is
D. nuclear gas A. jealousy
B. profit
2620. When heat is transmitted in circulating C. spite
medium, the method is called ____. D. revenge
A. radiation 2630. Which of the following is “prima facie”
B. oxidation existence of arson?
C. convection A.inflammable substance found in the
D. conduction premises
2621. Which of the following does NOT fall under B.simultaneous fire in more than one part
class A fires? of the building
A. none of the choices C.building insurance
B. burning nipa hut D.any of the choices
C. exploding gas depot 2631. What is the process of raising the temperature
D. forest fire to separate the on-volatile from the less
2622. Which of the following best illustrate arson? volatile parts and then cooling and condensing
A.simultaneous fire the resulting vapor so as to produce a nearly
B.thick reddish smoke purified substance?
C.faulty electric wiring A. combustion
D.unexplained explosion B. evaporation
2623. Why water is prohibited to quench Class D C. distillation
fires? D. condensation
A.water is not capable of extinguishing the
fire 2632. What is the instrument used to open and close
B.there is the danger of electrocution a fire hydrant?
C.burning metals are too hot A. hydrant key
D.explosion may occur B. key board
2624. Mechanical device strategically located in an C. fire hose
installation or street where fire hose is D. jumper
connected so that water with pressure will be 2633. What equipment is made of trussed or solid
available to extinguish fire. beam where rungs are connected horizontally
A. fire hose box to the beam forming ascent or descent?
B. fire truck A. rope
C. hose reel B. hydrant
D. fire hydrant C. ladder
2625. In scientific terms, the fuel in a combustion D. nozzle
reaction is known as ___. 2634. What are the cross members between the
A. reducing agent beam and used in climbing the ladder called?
B. oxidizing agent A. hangar
C. cooling agent B. beams
D. chemical agent C. rungs
2626. 236. This is the normal/ common behavior of D. braces
fire in a building: 2635. Aware of the common modus operandi of
A.It only moves horizontally arson cases in our midst, which of the
B.It has a circular movement following facilities should you check?
C.It moves sideways while moving vertically A.Gift-wrapped packages
D.It has a circular movement while moving B.Electric switch system
horizontally C.Telephones
2627. A sudden introduction of air into a closed D.All of these
space containing an oxygen-starved 2636. The clearing of smoke and heated gases at the
superheated product of incomplete highest point of the roof is referred to as:
combustion or oxygen-deficient free radicals, A. vertical ventilation
may result to an explosion, which is called: B. cross ventilation
A. Spontaneous ignition C. forced ventilation
B. flashover D. horizontal ventilation
C. Backdraft 2637. If a high wind has an extinguishing effect on a
D. Flash fire fire, the most probable extinguishing method
is:
2628. It refers to the increase or rising of amperage A. smothering
while electric current is flowing in a B. fuel removal
transmission line resulting to the damage or C. cooling
destruction of insulating materials, maybe D. dilution
gradual or rapid, internal or external. 2638. The most important element of Fire?
A. Arcing A.Fuel
B. Induced Current B.Chemical chain reaction
C. Over Heating C.Heat
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 D.Oxygen A.The person died because of asphyxia
2639. A complete and detailed checked of the B.The person died because of the burning
structures and material involved in the fire to C.The person was killed before it was
make sure that every spark and ember has burned
been extinguished and to have assurance D.The person died not of fire but because of
against suffocation
A. Overhaul 2648. What type of ladder is best suited for
B. Rescue firefighting operation involving high-rise
C. Salvage building?
D. None A. attic
2640. When firemen are working at the nozzle of a B. extension
hose they usually lean forward on the hose. C. aerial
What is the most likely reason for taking this D. hook
position? 2649. 257.What type of ground ladder which
A.The stream is projected farther contains only one section, it ranges between
B.The surrounding air is cool making the 12 to 16 feet.
firemen comfortable A. Straight ladder
C.A backward force is developed which B. Attic ladder
must be counter acted C. Extension ladder
D.The firemen can see better when the D. Wall ladder
stream strikes 2650. Highly flammable chemicals that are used to
2641. If arson is only the means of killing the victim, facilitate flame propagation.
the crime that you have to file is: A. Plant
A. murder with arson B. Trailer
B. arson with murder C. Accelerant
C. murder D. Gasoline
D. arson 2651. Eyes and Ears of Fire Prober.
2642. This kind of Fire extinguisher contains chemical A. Witness
powder intended to fight all classes of fires. B. Society
A. H20 C. First responder
B. Liquefied D. Owner
C. Dry Chemical 2652. Revised Fire Code of the Philippines.
D. Soda Acid A. RA 9514
2643. All except one are aggravating circumstances B. PD 1185
in Arson. C. RA 8294
A.If committed with intent to gain: D. RA 8484
B.If committed with the benefit of another: 2653. All BUT one are the basis of criminal liability in
C.If the offender is motivated by spite or Arson.
hatred towards the owner or occupant of A.Kind and character of the building burned
the property burned: B.Location of the building
D.If committed by a syndicate C.Extent or value of the damage
E.None of the Above D.Whether inhabited or not
2644. What color of smoke is present when the E.None of the choices
materials burning are Phosphorus, vegetable 2654. The amount of drug that produces untoward
or hay? effect of symptoms of poisoning.
A. Black A. Minimal Dose
B. White B. Abusive Dose
C. Yellow C. Toxic Dose
D. Blue D. Maximal Dose
2645. After the fire fighting operation and fire out
has been declared, what is the first thing that a 2655. A kind of Drug users, whose activities revolve
fire prober must determine? almost entirely around the drug experience
A.look for survivors and securing supplies.
B.search for debris A. Situational
C.locate the point of origin B. Hard-core
D.established corpus delicti C. Hippies
2646. Any liquid fuel with flash point above 37.80C D. Spree
(1000F) is a: 2656. Drug in gaseous form enter the lungs and are
A. Combustible liquid quickly absorbed by the rich capillary system, it
B. Corrosive liquid is probably the second most commonly used
C. Flammable liquid route of drug administration,
D. Volatile liquid A. Snorting
2647. A burned body found was subjected to B. inhalation
autopsy; however examination of lungs and C. oral ingestion
blood showed no abnormal quantity of carbon D. Injection
monoxide or dioxide, what will be your
interpretation under such circumstance?
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 2657. Among the countries involved in the first 2667. The Academy shall be headed by a ____, with
important drug traffic route, which is the rank of Director. He/She shall be
responsible for preparation for distribution? appointed by the ___.
A. Middle East A. Chairman/President
B. USA B. Secretary/PDEA DG
C. Turkey C. CSUPT/President
D. Europe D. SUPT/PDEA DG
2668. The policy-making and strategy-formulating
body in the planning and formulation of
policies and programs on drug prevention and
control
2658. Which among the following responsible for A. PDES
producing almost 60% of Opium in the world. B. DDB
A. Golden triangle C. PNP Narcotics
B. Golden Crescent D. NBI Narcotics
C. Silver Triangle 2669. They serve as permanent consultant of the
D. White Christmas Dangerous Drug Board:
2659. What countries constitute the Golden A.NBI Director and PNP Director General
Crescent? B.PDEA Director General and PNP, Chief
A.Iran, Afghanistan, Pakistan, India C.PNP Director and PDEA Director
B.Peru, Columbia, Bolivia D.Secretary of DILG and Secretary of Justice
C.Burma, Laos, Thailand 2670. If the clandestine laboratory is established in
D.Myanmar, Laos, Thailand the following circumstances such will serve as
2660. It refers to the “the paradise of drug users in Aggravating Circumstances:
Europe”. A.Conducted in the presence or with the
A. Philippines help of minor/s
B. Mexico B.Established within one hundred (100)
C. Spain meters of a residential, business, church
D. Lebanon or school premises.
2661. It is a kind of abused drugs that relieve pain C.Secured or protected with booby traps
and often induce sleep. D.Concealed with legitimate business
A. Sedatives operations
B. Stimulants E.Employment of a practitioner, chemical
C. Hallucinogen engineer, public official or foreigner
D. Narcotics. F.all of the choices
2662. It is the most important alkaloids and 2671. The Dangerous Drug board shall be composed
constitutes about 10% of the use raw opium. of how many Ex-officio Members?
A. Morphine A. 2
B. Heroin C. 2
C. Codeine B. 12
D. Opium D. 17
2663. The drug taken from the cola bust plant 2672. Marijuana plant can easily be identified by:
Ertyroxylon coca. A.Its branches which occur at opposite
A. Cocaine points on the stalk
B. Marijuana B.Its stalk that grows up to 12 feet
C. Papayer Somniferum C.Its finger-like leaves broken into leaflets
D. claviceps purpurea whose edges are serrated in shape.
2664. Opium subjected to Marquis Test will run into D.Its pungent scent when matured or fully
___ specs. grown.
A. Blue
B. Orange 2673. What agency of the government supervises
C. Violet drug rehabilitation centers and drug testing
D. Red networks and laboratories?
2665. PDEA is headed by Director General with the A.Department of Interior and Local
rank of ___ Government
A. Assistant Secretary B.Department of Health
B. Secretary C.Department of Justice
C. Chairman D.Department of Social Welfare and
D. Undersecretary Development
2666. What is the minimum age required to be able 2674. The term of office of the Chairman of the
to become a PDEA agent? Dangerous Drug Board:
A. 16 A. 2 years
B. 18 B. 6 years
C. 21 C. 4 years
D. s25 D. co-terminus
2675. The penalty imposed for possession of
Dangerous Drug Paraphernalia shall be:
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 photograph the same in the presence of the following,
EXCEPT.
A.To person from whom such items were
A.6 years and 1 day to 12 years and a fine of confiscated or his representative or
50 to 200 thousand pesos. counsel
B.6 months and 1 day to 4 years and a fine B.A representative from the media
of 10 to 50 thousand pesos. C.A representative from the DOJ
C.4 months and 1 day and a fine of 10 to 40 D.Any elected public official
thousand pesos. E.None of the choices
D.6 months rehabilitation
2676. It is an act of introducing any dangerous drugs 2682. In what quantity of specimen should be taken
into the body of any person with or without by forensic examiner of drugs for scientific
his/her knowledge either by injection analysis:
inhalation, ingestion or other means. A.Not more than five (5) grams per
A. Administer package/bag
B. Use B.Not more than three (3) tablets for
C. Dispense capsules or tables
D. Deliver C.Not more than fifty (50 ml) for liquid
solution
2677. Operation of drug syndicates are usually made D.Not more than ten (10 grams) for dried
secretly that makes it detection quite difficult. leaves and not more than 2 plants.
Various techniques were made by its operator E.All of the choices
in concealing their activities. 2683. The following shall not be subject to
A. Hide-out operation Mandatory Drug Testing EXCEPT:
B. Safe house A.Students of Secondary and Tertiary
C. Clandestine Operation Schools
D. Drug Syndicate B.Persons apprehended or arrested for
2678. Comprehensive Dangerous Drug Act took violation of the Provision of
effect on: Comprehensive Dangerous Drug Act.
A. June 7, 2002 C.Officers and Employee of public and
B. July 4, 2002 private offices
C. July 30, 2002 D.A and C only
D. June 18, 2003 2684. Preliminary Investigation of cases involving
2679. The following shall undergo Mandatory Drug dangerous drugs shall be terminated within a
Testing according to R.A. 9165, EXCEPT period of:
A.Officers and Employee of public and A. 180 days
private offices. B. 45 days
B.Applicant for firearms license and for B. 30 days
permit to carry firearms outside residence D. 60 days
C.Officers and Members of the Military, 2685. An analytical test using some tools or device
police and other law enforcement agencies design to validate or affirm the result of a
D.All candidates for public office whether preliminary or screening test.
appointed or elected both in national or A. Screening test
local government units. B. Confirmatory rest
E.All persons charged before the C. Physical test
prosecutor’s office with a criminal offense D. Chemical Test
having an imposable penalty of not less 2686. The ____ shall designate special courts from
than six (6) years and one (1) day. among the existing RTC in each judicial region
2680. Apprehending team having initial custody and to exclusively try and hear cases involving
control of dangerous drugs or controlled of violation of RA 9165.
chemical, or plant sources of dangerous drugs A. DOJ
or laboratory equipment shall immediately B. Supreme Court
after seizure, physical inventory and C. DDB
photograph the same in the presence of the D. Sandiganbayan
following, EXCEPT.
A.To person from whom such items were
confiscated or his representative or
counsel.
B.A representative from the media. 2687. The law that penalized the use and possession
C.A representative from the DOJ. or the unauthorized sale of Solvent Volatile
D.Any elected public official. substances is:
E.None of the choices A. P.D. 1519
2681. Apprehending team having initial custody B. P.D. 1916
and control of dangerous drugs or controlled of chemical, or C. P.D. 1619
plant sources of dangerous drugs or laboratory equipment D. P.D. 580
shall immediately after seizure, physical inventory and

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 2688. A laboratory examination is only required to C. Prostitutions
apprehend offender within 24 hours if the D. Gambling
person arrested has: 2698. After filling of the criminal cases, the court
A.Physical sign of drug abuse shall conduct ocular inspection of the
B.Symptoms of Drug abuse confiscated, seized and/or surrendered
C.Visible manifestation that suspect was dangerous drugs, and controlled precursors
under the influence of drugs within:
D.All of the choices A. 24 hours
2689. Within how many minutes after intake of B. 30 days
alcoholic beverage is the absorption is faster? C. 72 hours
A. 20 to 30 minutes D. 48 hours
B. 30 to 60 minutes 2699. That part of the body most affected to by
C. 10 to 20 minutes heavy drinking are:
D. 50 to 60 minutes A.digestive system and nervous system
2690. It is the percentage of alcohol blood which B.brain and veins of the body
indicates that the person is under the C.the lungs and heart
influence of the liquor (alcohol)? D.None of the above
A. 0.05 2700. Can a high school student be compelled to
B. 1.5 undergo drug test?
C. 0.15 A. yes
D. 0.50 B. maybe
2691. The person who manages houses of ill-refute C. upon circumstances
where the business of prostitution is D. No
conducted. 2701. SPO4 Mabagal intentionally failed to appear as
A. Pimp a prosecution witness during trial of the case
B. prostitute against the alleged drug dealer caught in buy-
C. Knocker bust operation. What will be his penalty?
D. Maintainer A.20 years and 1 day to life imprisonment
2692. The person is argumentative and B. 12 years and 1 day to 20 years
overconfident. There is slight impairment of C. Life imprisonment
mental difficulties. D. Death penalty
A. Slight inebriation
B. Moderate inebriation 2702. PO3 Ingcad planted 0.5 grams of shabu to their
C. Drunk suspect and PO2 Tayson planted 1 gram of
D. Very drunk shabu. Is their penalty the same?
A. No
2693. Persons who were found guilty under the B. False
Section 70 of RA 9165 is ____: C. Yes
A.Qualified to apply for probation D. True
B.Disqualified to apply for probation 2703. DDB can issue subpoena Testificandum and
C.Allowed to apply for probation subpoena duces tecum relative to the conduct
D.Not allowed to apply if the sentence is of investigation involving the violations of RA
more than 6 years and 1 day 9165.
2694. What drug is known as the “assassins of the A. True
youth”. B. Partially True
A. Marijuana C. False
B. Ecstacy D. Partially False
C. Shabu
D. None of these
2695. Opium alkaloid, used for painkiller, but more
as a cough reliever? 2704. A dangerous drug which predominant
A. morphine legitimate use as a veterinary anesthetic.
B. cocaine A. Ketamine
C. opium B. Codeine
D. codeine C. Anesthesia
2696. When drunken person does not know the D. Sleeping pills
intoxicating strength of the beverage he has 2705. What penalty is provided for a Drug user for its
taken. 2nd violation.
A. involuntary A.6 Months Rehabilitation
B. Intentional B.12 Months Rehabilitation
C. Habitual C.6 Years and 1 Day to 12 Years
D. Coma D.12 Years and 1 Day to 20 Years
2697. Immoral conduct or habit, indulgence of which 2706. It refers to the willful act of any person of
leads to depravity, wickedness and corruption maliciously and secretly inserting, placing,
of the mind and body. attaching, or adding directly or indirectly,
A. Morality through any overt or cover acts:
B. Vices A. Entrapment
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 B. Planting of Evidence D. Morphine
C. Instigation 2717. Can marijuana causes aggressive criminal
D. Black mailing behavior?
2707. It is the Agency of the government that will A. Yes
take charge and have custody of all dangerous B. No
drugs confiscated: C. Sometimes
A. Maritime Police D. It depends
B. Dangerous Drug Board
C. PDEA 2718. It is very important to rehabilitate every drug addict to?
D. NBI A. Reintegrate him to society
E. PNP B. Punish him
2708. “A” was arrested for possessing seven (7) C. Give him a lesson
grams of Shabu at 7:00 P.M. October 23, 2012. D. Incapacitate him
Up to what time and date the arresting officers
have to subject “A” to a drug test as required 2719. In investigation, “corpus delicti” means body of the
by the law? crime scene. Legally, it means
A.7:00 P.M., October 25 A. proof in the commission of crime
B.7:00 P.M., October 24 B. body of the victim
C.8:00 A.M., October 26 C. wrongful act
D.8:00 A.M., October 25 D. none of these
2709. Which among the following data concerning 2720. Deals with the study of major crimes based on the
photographs as evidence is LEAST essential? application of special investigative technique.
A.date and hour which each photograph A. background investigation
was taken B. criminal investigation
B.identification of the police photographer C. preliminary investigation
C.proof of ownership of the camera D. special investigation
D.focal length of the lens 2721. What is the other name for marijuana?
2710. The primary reason a finished sketch is made A. rope
from a rough sketch is for _____. B. grassland
A.scale and proportion C. weed
B.future use D. leaf
C.accuracy and clarity 2722. Purpose of coordination prior to buy-bust operation
D.courtroom presentation regarding drug operation.
2711. All except are object evidence that should be A. information
taken photograph individually, EXCEPT? B. abuses
A. Knife C. integrity
B. Semen D. reliability
C. stone 2723. The Miranda Law in the Philippine setting is:
D. Gun A. RA 7438
2712. All are considered as emergency vehicle, B. RA 8353
EXCEPT? C. RA 9160
A. Police car on call D. RA 9165
B. Ambulance on call
C. Fire Truck on call 2724. What is the world’s oldest cultivated plant as a source
D. Physician’s car of a prohibited drug?
2713. Children who are prohibited to be seated in   A. Marijuana
the front seat of any running motor vehicle: B. Opium
A.Seven years old C. Coca bush
B.six years and old and under D. Peyote
C.under six years old 2725. What drugs are capable of provoking changes of self-
D.seven years old and under awareness and emotion?
2714. Marijuana is also known as?   A. Narcotics
B. Stimulants
A. Coke C. Depressants
B. Poppers D. Hallucinogens
C. Cannabis 2726. What is that state arising from repeated administration
D. Morphine of a drug on a periodic or on a continuing basis?
2715. Who will be punished of life imprisonment in  A. Habituation
illegal drug cases? B. Drug dependence
A. User C. Drug Addiction
B. Pusher D. Physical dependence
C. Possessor 2727. What classification would solvents, paints and gasoline
D. Coddler which are examples of substances that are sniffed to obtain
2716. Most abuse drugs in the Philippines? intoxication fall?
A. Marijuana  A. Depressants
B. Shabu B. energizers
C. Cocaine C. inhalants
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 D. tranquilizers
2738. “Shabu” is chemically known as:
2728. What is the act of injecting or that means of A. methamphetamine
introducing the dangerous drug into the physiological system B. methamphetamine HCL
of the body? C. methyl amphetamine
A. Consumption D. methyleneamine
B. Use
C. Administration 2739. A dark brown resin that is collected from the tops of
D. Abuse potent Cannabis Sativa.
2729. If a person devotes considerable time and effort in A. hashish
obtaining the drug, thinking and discussing about it and using B. marijuana
it to meet his problems and to escape from reality, he is – C. morphine
A. Socially dependent on drugs D. opium
B. Mentally dependent on drugs
C. Psychologically dependent on drugs 2740. Scientific name for cocaine.
D. Physically dependent on drugs A. cannabis sativa
2730. A derivative of opium 5 times more powerful than B. erythroxylon coca
morphine. C. methamphetamine hydrochloride
A. amphetamines D. methyl benzoyl ecgonine
B. cocaine
C. heroin 2741. Analgesic or pain-killing substance that depresses vital
D. iodine body functions such as blood pressure, pulse rate, and
breathing rate. The regular administration of narcotics will
2731. The most important constituent of opium is the drug: produce physical dependence.
A. cocaine A. depressants
B. codeine B. hallucinogens
C. heroin C. narcotic
D. morphine D. stimulants
2732. The number of persons who handle the evidence from 2742. What is the method of introduction of drugs into the
the scene of the crime and between the times of the deeper layer of the skin by means of special electric current?
commission of the crime up to the final disposition of the A. Topical method
case. B. Injection method
A. chain of custody C. Iontophoresis
B. time of custody D. Oral method
C. time of disposal
D. time of disposition
2733. The substance known as the “miracle drug” refers to:
A. morphine 2743. What part of the globe is the principal source of all
B. cocaine forms of cocaine?
C. heroin A. South East Asia
D. codeine B. South America
2734. The word hashish is derived from the name of C. Middle East
Hasan/Hashasin, a Muslim leader. Hashish refers to: D. South West Asia
A. female marijuana plant 2744. Shabu originated in China while Cocaine originated in
B. male marijuana plant A. Columbia
C. marijuana leaves B. India
D. the marijuana resin C. Mexico
2735. What drug is the hydrochloride of an alkaloid D. France
obtainable by the action of acetic anhydride or morphine in 2745. What is the group of drugs that are considered to be
which the alkaloid base may be made by treating morphine mind altering and gives the general effect of mood distortion?
with acetyl chloride, washing the product with a dilute A. Sedatives
alkaline solution and crystallizing from alcoholic solution? B. Hallucinogens
A. cocaine C. Hypnotic
B. codeine D. Tranquillizers
C. heroin 2746. What drug is known as the “assassins of the youth”?
D. paregoric A. Heroin
2736. Methyl Benzoyl Ecgonine is known as B. Marijuana
A. cocaine C. Cocaine
B. marijuana D. Shabu
C. opium
D. shabu 2747. Which of the following refers to acute cases of
2737. Is any agent which neutralizes, opposes or counteracts withdrawal of drugs that causes serious physical illness?
poison or its effect A. Psychological dependence
A. alkaloid B. Physical dependence
B. antidote C. Addiction
C. emetic D. Withdrawal syndrome
D. titanic
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2748. The drug addict who shows many “tracks” from 2757. What is the penalty of planting of evidence in drug
injection of hypodermic needles is mostly addicted to incidents?
A. liquid amphetamine A. Reclusion Perpetua
B. Shabu B. Life Imprisonment
C. Heroin C. Death
D. freebase cocaine D. Fine
2758. Who is the primary author of RA 9165?
2749. Psychologically speaking, in terms of motives and A. Sen. Ramon Revilla
functions of drug use, the more a drug is used the more it B. Sen. Miriam Defensor Santiago
tends to C. Sen. Joker Arroyo
A. reduce the need for the drug D. Sen. Tito Sotto
B. satisfy more than one motive or need
C. increase the satisfaction of use 2759. These are the requirements during the conduct of
D. give sense of well being actual buy-bust operations.
  A. poseur buyer
2750. Which of the following drugs produces the effect of B. marked money
mood elevation, heightened alertness, and increase energy? C. all of the choices
A. Solvents D. none of these
B. LSD 2760. Any person who pays for, raises or supplies money for,
C. Shabu or underwrites any of the illegal activities prescribed by RA
D. Narcotics 9165.
  A. employee
2751. If amphetamines are known as “uppers”, what drugs B. caretaker
are known as “downers”? C. financier D.
A. Hallucinogens lookout
B. Barbiturates
C. solvents 2761. What do you call a prostitute who offers services
D. cocaine to female customers?
a. Johns
b. Gigolo
2752. Who has committed an act which is punishable under c. Pimps
RA 6425, as amended, with a penalty range of reclusion d. Rentboys
perpetua to death and a fine of P500,000 to P10,000,000.00? 2762. What is the theory of organized crime wherein the
A. Pedro who is caught cultivating marijuana penalty of crimes must be severe in order to deter the
plants in a plantation in the Cordillera. commission of crimes?
B. Julio who was caught for illegal possession a. Anomie
of opium pipes and other paraphernalia. b. Deterrence theory
C. Dr. Peter Allay who issued an unlawful c. Rational choice theory
medical prescription d. None of the above
D. Pablo who maintains a den for the illegal 2763. What type of prostitutes that trade sex for illegal
use of volatile substances. drugs?
2753. What drugs are synthetic that stimulate the central A. Lot lizards
nervous system and are commonly referred to as “uppers”? C. Hookers
A. Amphetamines B. Skeezers
B. Naptha D. Punters
C. Barbiturates 2764. Globalization refers to the rapid growth and
D. Diazepam development of what culture?
2754. What group of drugs is used medically as pain killers? a. Northern
A. opiates b. Eastern
B. Track c. Western
C. Shabu d. Southern
D. coke
2755. What drugs are capable of provoking changes of self- 2765. Crimes consummated by the use of computers
awareness and emotion? and other highly modern devices.
  A. Narcotics a. Transnational crimes
B. Stimulants b. white collar crimes
C. Depressants c. modern crimes
D. Hallucinogens d. cyber crimes
2756. It is an Act Instituting the Comprehensive Dangerous 2768. The following are transnational crimes, except
Drugs Act of 2002, Providing Funds Therefore and for Other a. drug trafficking
Purposes. b. gun smuggling
  c. money laundering
A. RA 9165 d. illegal recruitment
B. RA 1956 2769. The following countries comprises the Golden
C. RA 9156 Triangle, except
D. RA 1965 a. Thailand
b. Laos
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 c. Myanmar 2780. It is a wholly police responsibility and entails
d. Vietnam looking for defects in the behavior of the motorists,
2770. A term used to describe a place where trafficked pedestrian, vehicles and roadway condition.
person are brought and forced to become prostitutes. A. Apprehension
a. sweat shops B. Adjudication
b. hotels C. Defection
c. brothels D. Prosecution
d. motels 2781. Traffic arrest can be made when the following
2771. Founder of the Abu-Sayyaf Group? are present, EXCEPT:
a. Khaddafy Janjalani A to avoid continues violation
b. Hashim Salamay B. offense committed is serious
C. the violator will not attend in court
c. Abdurajack Janjalani D. involved in vehicular accident
d. Nur Misuari 2782. The following are the good ways of searching
the scene of hit-and-run accident, EXCEPT:
2772. It is correct to say that the world’s first traffic A.look over the grounds at what seems to
light came into being before the automobile was in be the point of collision
use? B.follow the path that the vehicle took in
A. No leaving the scene
B. It depends C.study the objects the vehicle has struck
C. Sometimes D.established the identity of the vehicles
D. Yes 2783. These are the basic steps in traffic accident-
2773. In planning for a traffic control program, which investigation, EXCEPT
of the following is NOT a factor to consider A.goes to scene as quickly as possible
A.model of cars and vehicles B.Gassesses the situation and call for
B.existing road /highway system assistance
C.incidence of traffic accidents C.care to the injured and protect their
D.traffic congestion hazards property
2462
2774. In interviewing persons involved in a traffic 2784. A general principle of traffic accident,
accident what is the primary consideration to be investigation is to:
taken by the police investigator. A.Look for the key event that causes the
A.Conduct each interview separately accident
B.Listen only to witnesses because they are B.Regard any unfavorable factor, existing
not biased immediately prior to the accident, as a
C.Listen to both sides cause
D.Conduct the interview jointly C.Consider violations as primary causes and
2775. When two vehicles approach or enter an any factors as secondary causes
intersection at the same time who shall yield the D.Consider road conditions as limiting
right of way as a general rule conditions rather as causes
A. The driver on the left 2785. One of the following is exempted from paying
B.The faster vehicle 0.01% of the assessed value of a building.
C.The driver on the right A. single family dwellings
D. The slower vehicle B. department store
2776. When cruising on a four-lane two-way C. hospitals
highway, slow moving vehicles should use the: D. schools
A.lanes 2 and 3 2786. This marking on the roadway indicates that
B.outer lanes the lane is for right turn only:
C.inner lanes A.Two headed arrow
D.either the inner or outer lanes B.Arrow pointing to left
2778. As a general rule, you should overtake on the C.Straight arrow on the pavement
left side, except when- D.The arrow is pointing to the right
A.the oncoming traffic is free from an 2787. In this manner, a traffic enforcer while
obstruction observing the flow of traffic tries to attract attention
B.the opposite traffic is free from oncoming of the motorists by keeping in full view of traffic:
motor vehicles A. Stationary
C.traversing on a two-way two-lane B. Visible
highway C.Conspicuous
D.cruising along a four-lane two-way traffic D. Inconspicuous
way 2788. Licensed person allowing limited number of
2779. The double solid white line: passengers, freight or cargo in public utility truck or
A.doesn’t allow lane changing buses
B.allows overtaking A. Operator
C.allows lane changing B. Driver
D.allows parking C.Conductor
D. Pedestrian

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 2789. It is the separation of a traffic unit in motion b. the recruit will drink the blood of a
from an object with which it has collided; the force sacrificed animal mixed with his blood and
between the object ceases at this time. pass beneath an arch of swords while
A. Stopping reciting his oath to the organization.
B. Disengagement c. the recruit will put body tattoos and lift
C. Maximum Engagement three fingers while reciting his oath.
D. Initial Contact d. the recruit will drink the blood of a
2790. A friction mark on a pavement made by a tire sacrificed animal mixed with his blood and a
that is sliding without rotation. Sliding of wheels may picture of a saint will be burned on his palm
be due to braking to collision damage, or rarely, to while reciting his oath.
other circumstances. 2799. What do the Yakuza do with their
A. Skid Mark tattoos?
B.Scuff Marks a. Cover them as they are sacred.
C.Skip skid b. They undress to show everybody their
D. Gas Skid tattoos.
2791. The place and time after or beyond which c. They undress only inside their house.
accident cannot be prevented by a particular traffic d. They only undress during oicho kabu.
unit.
A.point of no escape 2800. What OPLAN was created by the
B.point of Possible Perception PNP as their campaign against most wanted
C.Perception Delay persons and other fugitives?
D.Any of the above a. Oplan Cleansweep
2792. Main cause of human trafficking. b. Oplan Criminal
a. lack of employment opportunities c. Oplan Pagtugis
b. poverty d. Oplan Batas
c. corruption in government 2801. 31. It is a type of anomie wherein a
d. organized crimes person who accepts the cultural goals to
2793. Meaning of the phase Abu Sayyaf become rich but failed to accept the
a. Holder of the sword institutional means of achieving it.
b. Founder of the sword a. Rebellion
c. Bearer of the sword b. Retreatism
d. Keeper of the sword c. Conformity
2794. The other name given to the UN d. Innovation
Convention Against Transnational Crimes 2802. It is a type of anomie wherein an
a. Palerna Convention individual does not accept the cultural goal
b. Paterno Convention but accepted the institutional means of
c. Palermo Convention achieving it?
d. Paderno Convention a. Innovation
2795. A prostitute who solicits customers b. Retreatism
in public places is called c. Rebellion
a. street walker d. Ritualism
b. Johns. 2803. It is referred to as oldest and
c. call boy. biggest criminal organization in the world.
d. whore. a. Mafia
2796. Placement is also called as b. Yakuza
a. heavy soaping c. Chinese Triad
b. banking d. Cali Cartel
c. immersion 2804. The name given to a person
d. spin dry. afflicted with a mental illness wherein he is
2797. The Yakuza has the ritual of sexually aroused by young children.
putting tattoos in almost all parts of their a. Pedophile
bodies. The reason is b. pervert
a. their white bodies are very good materials c. Maniac
to make drawings. d. Pedophilia
b. it one culture of the Japanese to put tattoos
on their bodies. 2805. The former and original name of
c. they delight in showing theother members the Mafia
their tattoos. a. Sicilian Clan
d. anybody without tattoos are expelled from b. Code of Omerta
the group. c. Mafiosi
2798. The initiation of the Chinese Triad d. La Cosa Nostra
consists of 2806. Moslem who participated in the
a. placing a drop of blood of the recruit on a Afghan war are referred to as
photograph of a saint and then let it burn a. Jihadis
on his palm while reciting his oath to the b. Fundamentalists
organization. c. Mujaheddins
d. Holy warriors
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 2807. Founder of the New People’s a. organization
Army of NPA b. faction
a. Jose Mari Chan c. cell
b. Jose Maria Sison d. station
c. Jose Marie Gonzales 2818. Terrorist group responsible for the
d. Jose Maria Sioson bombing of the US destroyer USS Cole in
2808. A member of the Bar refers to this Yemen
profession a. Hezbollah
a. judges b. Hamas
b. investigators c. Al Qaeda
c. lawyers d. Fatah
d. prosecutors

2819. One of the most important

2809. The year the UN Convention components of terrorist-related
Against Transnational Crimes was held. investigations is the collection and
a. 2000 preservation of what?
b. 2002 a. physical evidence
c. 2001 b. witnesses
d. 2003 c. information
2810. The founder of the Moro Islamic d. all of these
Liberation Front 2820. It is otherwise known as the “Anti-
a. Nur Misuari Wire Tapping Law.”
b. Khadaffy Janjalani a. RA 4200
c. Hashim Salamat b. RA 4002
d. Abdurajack Janjalani C. RA 2004
D. RA 4020
2811. The founder of the Moro National 2821. Meaning of the term “Jihad”.
Liberation Front a. Holy War
a. Nur Misuari b. Holy Mass
b. Khadaffy Janjalani c. Holy Cow
c. Hashim Salamat d. Holy Ghost
d. Abdurajack Janjaalani 2822. Founder of the terrorist group Al
2812. In the strategy of terrorist, what is Qaeda
used for the people, government and the a. Yasser Arafart
world to know their aims? b. Osama Bin Laden
a. Television c. Abdurajack Janjalani
b. Newspaper d. Abu Nidal
c. Radio 2823. Standard rifle of socialist and
d. All of the choices communist countries
2813. Refers to the terrorist group a. M16
“Soldiers of God”. b. AK47
a. Abu Sayaff c. M14
b. Hezbollah d. Galil
c. Fatah 2824. Terrorist group that operates
d. Hamas within a single state or country.
2814. The most notorious and sought a. Transnational
after terrorist group responsible for the 9/11 b. national
bombing in the USA. c. international
a. Hezbollah d. none of them
b. Al Qaeda 2825. The most wanted terrorist in the
c. Fatah world.
d. Hamas a. Yasser Arafat
2815. South America country principal b. Abu Nidal
source of cocaine. c. Osama Bin Laden
a. Brazil d. Mohammad Alzawari
b. Spain 2826. It is entitled as, ”An Act to Secure
c. Columbia the State and Protect the People from
d. Chile Terrorism,”
2816. Country which is 2/3 controlled by a. RA 9372
Hezbollah b. RA 9732
a. Israel c. RA 9273
b. Gaza Strip d. RA 9237
c. Lebanon 2827. It can be defined as the use of
d. West bank force of the fear of force to achieve a
2817. The smallest terrorist group in its political end.
hierarchy. a. terrorism
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 b. violence b. B.Medical Justice
c. felony c. C.Medico Legal Officer
d. criminal act d. Medical Scientist
2828. Who formally organized the
Kuratong Baleleng?
a. Francisco Manuel 2838. These are the three fold aims of
b. Franco Calanog the criminal investigator, EXCEPT:
c. Fidel Ramos a. to identify the guilty party
d. Fajardo Sebastian b. to provide evidence of his guilt
c. to locate the guilty party
d. to file charges at the proper court
2829. An organized crime in the 2839. It is a type of search wherein one
Philippines which is made up of former searcher is assigned to each subdivision of a
MNLF and MILF rebels. quadrant. Tax evasion
a. A.Lexus Group a. zone method
b. B.Pentagon Group b. spiral method
c. C.Abu Sayyaf c. wheel method
d. D.Ilonggo KFR Group d. strip method
2830. The largest and most powerful 2840. It is the simplest way to locate
triad. points on sketch to give the distances from
a. A.Su Yee On two mutually perpendicular lines. common
b. B.14K
c. C.Wo Shing Wo a. surveying methods
d. Sham Shui Po b. cross projection
2831. What numeric code refer to the c. rectangular coordinates
Dragon head of the chinese triads? d. polar coordinate
a. A.438 2841. It is existing between the
b. B.49 investigator and the subject, and it is usually
c. C.489 determines the success of the investigation.
d. D.426 a. rapport
2832. What do you call the act of lending b. personality
money in exchange of exorbitant interest? c. breadth of interest
a. Tax evasion d. the approach
b. Revolutionary tax 2842. Usually, the conduct of
c. Sokaiya investigation must start with this, purposely
d. Loansharking to develop rapport with the subject, either
2833. What kind of vices are Lotto and the victim or suspect.
casino? a. opening statement
a. common b. inquiry of subject
b. prohibited c. narration
c. regulated d. sympathetic approach
d. unusual
2834. What is the penalty of a person 2843. It is also called as ‘uppers’ and to
using a diplomatic passport in importing increase mental and physical function
prohibited drugs inside the country? a. stimulants
a. A.8-12 years b. Depressants
b. B.life imprisonment to death c. Hallucinogens
c. C.40 years to life imprisonment d. Narcotics/ Opiates
d. all of the above 2844. A drugs that ‘derived from opium’
2835. What are the two divisions of and medically potent pain killers/ cough
Criminalistics? suppressants
a. Physiacl and metallurgical a. stimulants
b. Scientific and technological b. Depressants
c. Hallucinogens
c. Biological and physiological d. Narcotics/ Opiates
d. Biblical and Astrological 2845. It I also called ‘downers’ drugs
2836. What is secreted by the endocrine reducing functional nervous activity.
glands which trigger and control many kinds a. stimulants
of bodily activities and behavior? b. Depressants
a. A.Tears c. Hallucinogens
b. B.Hormone d. Narcotics/ Opiates
c. C.Blood
d. Sweat
2837. Who among the following has the
authority to conduct examination of a 2846. It is also called ‘psychedelics’ drugs
deceased person? that causes hallucinations and changes our
a. A.Medico Legal prober
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 perception, thought, emotion and 2855. A massacre that occurred June
consciousness and physical function 4,1989, China wherein the pro-democracy
a. stimulants protesters was killed
b. Depressants a. Tiananmen square massacre
c. Hallucinogens b. Beijing square massacre
d. Narcotics/ Opiates c. Tienanmen massacre
2847. The following countries which d. Tienanmen square massacre
considered as GOLDEN CRESCENT, and also 2856. A case of reckless imprudence
considered as world’s top supplier for occurred at Pasig City, the offender is a
opium. Which of the choices does not resident from Manila while the victim from
belong. Quezon City. Where the case should be
a. Vietnam filed?
b. Iran a. Quezon City
c. Afghanistan b. Pasig City
d. Pakistan c. Manila
2848. According to PDEA goal that d. either of the above choices
Philippines’ will be a Drug Free Country in 2857. It is a willfully and maliciously
year___? placing any dangerous drugs to implicate
a. 2035 person to drug related crime.
b. 2025 a. Buy bust operation
c. 2030 b. Instigation
d. 2020 c. entrapment
2849. It is the PDEA campaign to fight d. planting evidence
illicit drugs with the participation of the 2858. September 11, 2001 tragedies is
community. known as Intelligence_______.
a. Oplan lambat sibat a. Invalidate
b. operation private eye b. unsolved
c. operation public eye c. success
d. oplan galugad d. failure
2850. In the PNP what campaign was
created to fight against drug trafficking. 2859. In investigation wherein a Death
a. Oplan lambat sibat appearing to be suicidal or accidental it
b. operation private eye should be treated as?
c. operation public eye a. Homicide case
d. oplan cleansweep b. Suicide case
c. Murder case
2851. A fire just started only a very small d. Any of the choices
or insignificant portion of house was being 2860. What is the penalty when a person
damaged. bringing into country of illegal drugs using
a. Consummated arson diplomatic channel or passport.
b. Attempted arson
c. Frustrated arson a. Life imprisonment
d. No crime b. Life imprisonment-death
2852. When a person sets fire to his own c. death
property under what circumstances which d. no penalty because of immunity
expose to danger of life or property of
another.
a. Reckless imprudence resulting to damage of 2861. In E-crimes it is accessing in order
property to corrupt,alter,steal or destroy information
b. Arson and communication system
c. malicious mischief a. hacking
d. no crime b. Trojan
2853. Burning of house was due to c. virus
lightning as a result of his prayer. d. intellectual property
a. Reckless imprudence resulting to damage of
property
b. Arson 2862. The vehicles should not parked at
c. malicious mischief these area.
d. no crime a. Private driveway
b. intersection
2854. It can effectively assist law c. pedestrian lane
enforcement agencies in combating d. fire hydrant
organized crime and terrorism. e. all the choices
a. family
b. school
c. NGO
d. Community
Page 148 of 229
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 2863. What is the penalty when a police d. Cryogenic
officer failed to appear in court to testify in a 2872. Lowest temperature of a liquid in
drug case without justifiable reason? open container at which vapors are evolved
a. 12 to 20 yrs imprisonment fast enough to support continuous
b. 20 to 40 yrs imprisonment combustion.
c. Life imprisonment a. Ignition temperature
d. Death b. Kindling temperature
2864. Most important equipment in c. Fire point
traffic accident investigation? d. Flash point
a. cellphone 2873. The temperature at which
b. camera flammable liquid form a vapor-air mixture
c. Manila that ignites.
d. All of the choices a. Ignition temperature
2865. What is the penalty when less than b. Kindling temperature
5 grams shabu,heroin,morphine was c. Fire point
confiscated. d. Flash point
a. 12 yrs & 1 day to 20 yrs and fine of 300k to 2874. Minimum temperature in
400k which the substance in the air must
b. 6 yrs & 1 day to 12 yrs and fine of 300k to be heated in order to initiate or
400k cause a self-contained combustion
c. 20 yrs & 1 day to 40 yrs and fine of 300k to without the addition of heat from
400k outside sources.
d. 6months & 1 day to 6 yrs and fine of 300k a. Boiling point
to 400k b. Ignition temperature
2866. Refers to the standard arrow c. Fire point
designating the north to facilitate proper d. Flash point
sketch orientation. 2875. An exothermic chemical change in
a. Proper north which a combustible material react with an
b. True north oxidizing agent.
c. Legend a. Thermal balance
d. Compass direction b. Thermal imbalance
2867. A search method in which the c. Combustion
searchers follow each other in the path of the d. Oxidation
coiled beginning from the outside proceeding 2876. Rapid oxidation accompanied by
toward the center. heat and light.
a. Zone method a. Pyrolysis
b. Wheel method b. Combustion
c. Spiral method c. Detonation
d. Strip method d. All of the foregoing
2868. Taking into custody property 2877. A chemical decomposition of
described in the search warrant as a result of matter through the action of heat.
a search, to be utilized as evidence in a case. a. Pyrolysis
a. Seizure b. Combustion
b. Detention c. Detonation
c. Safekeeping d. Oxidation
d. Confiscation 2878. Measure of the rate of flow of
2869. A method of criminal heat, through unit area of the material with
identification whereby the unit temperature gradient.
perceptions of witnesses are key and a. Conduction
criminals are identified by depiction. b. Thermal conductivity
a. Verbal description c. Radiation
b. General photographs d. Fission
c. Police line up 2879. A means of heat transfer when
d. Rouge gallery energy travels through space or materials as
2870. Instrument used to open / close waves.
fire hydrants. a. Conduction
a. Sprinkler b. Convection
b. Fire pump c. Radiation
c. Fire hose d. Fission
d. Hydrant key 2880. It is legally classified as arson and
2871. Descriptive of any material when by set on purpose with a motive.
its nature or as a result of its reaction with a. Providential fire
other elements promotes a rapid drop in b. Accidental fire
temperature of the immediate surroundings. c. Intentional fire
a. Dust d. None of the foregoing
b. Oxidizing material
c. Pyrolysis
Page 149 of 229
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 2881. Malicious and willful burning of a a. To determine its cause
building, defined in the case of Ong Chat Lay b. To prevent recurrence
60 P 788. c. To determine liable persons
a. Arson d. All of the foregoing
b. Providential fire 2891. Reason why fire investigation is
c. Accidental fire unique.
d. None of the foregoing a. It does not conform with regular
2882. First element known to man by investigative procedure
experience, a colorless, tasteless and odorless b. Unavailability of witnesses
gas which supports life and fire. c. Fire destroys evidence
a. Nitrogen d. All of the foregoing
b. Hydrogen 2892. They are fires caused by
c. Oxygen unforeseen acts of God.
d. Neon a. Providential
2883. Known as ignition heat, it refers to b. Accidental
any contrivance to start a fire. c. Intentional
a. Fuel d. Incendiarism
b. Oxygen 2893. A combination of three elements
c. Heat namely: fuel, heat and oxygen.
d. None of the choices a. Fire
2884. Refers to gases liberated by heat. b. Origin of fire
a. Free radicals c. Fire triangle
b. Flash point d. All of the foregoing
c. Thermal balance 2894. Most important part of fire triangle for
d. Thermal imbalance it is what burns.
2885. Refers to the normal pattern or a. Fuel
movement of fire, smoke and fire gases within b. Heat
a building or structure under natural c. Oxygen
conditions. d. Gas
a. Free radicals 2895. A means by which heat is
b. Pyrolysis transformed by a circulating medium either
c. Thermal balance gas or a liquid.
d. Thermal imbalance a. Conduction
2886. In this phase of the fire the b. Convection
maximum heat and its destructive c. Radiation
capabilities is developed. d. Fission
a. Initial phase 2896. The amount of heat necessary to
b. Incipient phase convert solid to liquid.
c. Free burning phase a. Specific heat
d. Smoldering phase b. Latent heat
2887. A burnt pattern of inverted cone c. Heat of Combustion
indicates. d. Heat of fusion
a. The fire triangle 2897. Formed by the incomplete
b. The fingerprint of the fire combustion of acetylene or natural cracking
c. Flashover of hydrogen in the absence of air.
d. Incipient phase of the fire a. Carbon black
b. Lamp black
c. Soot
d. Black bone
2888. An occurrence when the heat has 2898. Matter made up of very fine
brought the combus-tible portion of the ceiling particles and condensed vapor as a result of
to their ignition temperature, it is combustion.
characterized by a sudden burst or shooting a. Fire
forth light and flames. b. Flame
a. Flashover c. Heat
b. Backdraft d. Smoke
c. Thermal balance 2899. Incandescent gases accompanied
d. Thermal imbalance by oxidation.
2889. An explosive condition in the a. Fire
smoldering phase of fire, it is a result of a b. Flame
sudden introduction of oxygen. c. Heat
a. Flashover d. Smoke
b. Backdraft 2900. The threat to arson investigators
c. Thermal balance after fire has been contained.
d. Thermal imbalance a. Backdraft
2890. Which among the following is the b. Flashover
primary objective in investigating fires? c. Carbon monoxide poisoning
Page 150 of 229
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 d. Falling debris d. Distillation

2901. Color smoke produced 2911. It is also called as ‘uppers’ and to

accompanied by red flames indicates the increase mental and physical function
burning of what material? a. stimulants
a. Rubber b. Depressants
b. Nitrogen products c. Hallucinogens
c. Asphalt singles d. Narcotics/ Opiates
d. Chlorine 2912. A drugs that ‘derived from opium’
2902. Which among the following is and medically potent pain killers/ cough
commonly used in fire resistant materials? suppressants
a. Asbestos a. stimulants
b. Diamond b. Depressants
c. Asphalt c. Hallucinogens
d. Cotton d. Narcotics/ Opiates
2903. A form of static electricity of great 2913. It I also called ‘downers’ drugs
magnitude producing tremendous amperage reducing functional nervous activity.
and voltage, it is the most common cause of a. stimulants
providential fires. b. Depressants
a. Rays of the sun c. Hallucinogens
b. Spontaneous heating d. Narcotics/ Opiates
c. Arcing
d. Lighting 2914. It is also called ‘psychedelics’ drugs
2904. Most common source of accidental that causes hallucinations and changes our
fire is related to: perception, thought, emotion and
a. Smoking consciousness and physical function
b. Arcing a. stimulants
c. Sparkling b. Depressants
d. Overloading c. Hallucinogens
2905. A device used by arsonists to d. Narcotics/ Opiates
spread the fire within the room or 2915. The following countries which
throughout the structure. considered as GOLDEN CRESCENT, and also
a. Accelerant considered as world’s top supplier for
b. Plants opium. Which of the choices does not
c. Trailer belong.
d. Wick a. Vietnam
2906. Usually comes in form of b. Iran
combustible liquid which is a contrivance to c. Afghanistan
hasten the start of fire. d. Pakistan
a. Accelerant 2916. According to PDEA goal that
b. Plants Philippines’ will be a Drug Free Country in
c. Trailer year___?
d. Wick a. 2035
b. 2025
2907. Most common reason of arson c. 2030
cases. d. 2020
a. Revenge 2917. It is the PDEA campaign to fight
b. Profit illicit drugs with the participation of the
c. Competition community.
d. All of the foregoing a. Oplan lambat sibat
2908. Result of slow oxidation of a b. operation private eye
combustible material. c. operation public eye
a. Spontaneous heating d. oplan galugad
b. Combustible gases 2918. In the PNP what campaign was
c. Combustible dust created to fight against drug trafficking.
d. None of the choices a. Oplan lambat sibat
2909. Refers to the preparation and b. operation private eye
gathering of materials to start a fire. c. operation public eye
a. Plants d. oplan cleansweep
b. Trailers
c. Accelerants 2919. A fire just started only a very small
d. Wick or insignificant portion of house was being
2910. Act that would remove or damaged.
neutralize a fire hazard. a. Consummated arson
a. Abatement b. Attempted arson
b. Combustion c. Frustrated arson
c. Allotment d. No crime
Page 151 of 229
G.S.T. 2019
 d. Any of the choices
2920. When a person sets fire to his own 2928. What is the penalty when a person
property under what circumstances which bringing into country of illegal drugs using
expose to danger of life or property of diplomatic channel or passport.
another.
a. Reckless imprudence resulting to damage of a. Life imprisonment
property b. Life imprisonment-death
b. Arson c. death
c. malicious mischief d. no penalty because of immunity
d. no crime 2929. In E-crimes it is accessing in order
2921. Burning of house was due to to corrupt,alter,steal or destroy information
lightning as a result of his prayer. and communication system
a. Reckless imprudence resulting to damage of a. hacking
property b. Trojan
b. Arson c. virus
c. malicious mischief d. intellectual property
d. no crime 2930. The vehicles should not parked at
2922. It can effectively assist law these area.
enforcement agencies in combating a. Private driveway
organized crime and terrorism. b. intersection
a. family c. pedestrian lane
b. school d. fire hydrant
c. NGO e. all the choices
d. Community
2931. What is the penalty when a police
2923. A massacre that occurred June officer failed to appear in court to testify in a
4,1989, China wherein the pro-democracy drug case without justifiable reason?
protesters was killed a. 12 to 20 yrs imprisonment
a. Tiananmen square massacre b. 20 to 40 yrs imprisonment
b. Beijing square massacre c. Life imprisonment
c. Tienanmen massacre d. Death
d. Tienanmen square massacre 2932. Most important equipment in
traffic accident investigation?
a. cellphone
b. camera
c. Manila
d. All of the choices
2924. A case of reckless imprudence 2933. What is the penalty when less than
occurred at Pasig City, the offender is a 5 grams of shabu,heroin,morphine was
resident from Manila while the victim from confiscated.
Quezon City. Where the case should be a. 12 yrs & 1 day to 20 yrs and fine of 300k to
filed? 400k
a. Quezon City b. 6 yrs & 1 day to 12 yrs and fine of 300k to
b. Pasig City 400k
c. Manila c. 20 yrs & 1 day to 40 yrs and fine of 300k to
d. either of the above choices 400k
2925. It is a willfully and maliciously d. 6months & 1 day to 6 yrs and fine of 300k
placing any dangerous drugs to implicate to 400k
person to drug related crime. e.
a. Buy bust operation 2934. Refers to the terrorist group
b. Instigation “Soldiers of God”.
c. entrapment a. Abu Sayaff
d. planting evidence b. Hezbollah
c. Fatah
2926. September 11, 2001 tragedies is d. Hamas
known as Intelligence_______. 2935. The most notorious and sought
a. Invalidate after terrorist group responsible for the 9/11
b. unsolved bombing in the USA.
c. success a. Hezbollah
d. failure b. Al Qaeda
c. Fatah
2927. In investigation wherein a Death d. Hamas
appearing to be suicidal or accidental it 2936. South America country principal
should be treated as? source of cocaine.
a. Homicide case a. Brazil
b. Suicide case b. Spain
c. Murder case c. Columbia
Page 152 of 229
G.S.T. 2019
 d. Chile d. criminal act
2937. Country which is 2/3 controlled by 2947. The largest and most powerful
Hezbollah triad.
a. Israel a. Su Yee On
b. Gaza Strip b. 14K
c. Lebanon c. Wo Shing Wo
d. West bank d. Sham Shui Po
2938. The smallest terrorist group in its
hierarchy.
a. organization
b. faction
c. cell
d. station
2939. Terrorist group responsible for the
bombing of the US destroyer USS Cole in
Yemen
a. Hezbollah
b. Hamas
c. Al Qaeda
d. Fatah
2940. One of the most important
components of terrorist-related
investigations is the collection and
preservation of what?
a. physical evidence
b. witnesses
c. information
d. all of these

2941. Meaning of the term “Jihad”.

a. Holy War
b. Holy Mass 2948. The apprehension or taking into
c. Holy Cow custody of a child in conflict with the law by
d. Holy Ghost law enforcement officers or private citizens
2942. Founder of the terrorist group Al
is termed as:
Qaeda
a. Yasser Arafart
b. Osama Bin Laden A.Arrest
c. Abdurajack Janjalani B.Initialcontact
d. Abu Nidal C.Childcustody
2943. Standard rifle of socialist and D. All of the above
communist countries
a. M16
2949. It is the study of human society, its
b. AK47
c. M14 origin structure, functions and direction.
d. Galil a. criminology
2944. Terrorist group that operates b. sociology
within a single state or country. c. psychology
a. Transnational d. anthropology
b. national 2950. The science of classifying the
c. international
physical characteristics.
d. none of them
2945. The most wanted terrorist in the a. free will
world. b. positivism
a. Yasser Arafat c. atavism
b. Abu Nidal d. somatology
c. Osama Bin Laden 2951. The approach that is using the
d. Mohammad Alzawari perspective of heredity in explaining the
2946. It can be defined as the use of
cause of crime.
force of the fear of force to achieve a
political end. a. geographical approach
a. terrorism b. biological approach
b. violence c. psychiatric application
c. felony d. psychological application
Page 153 of 229
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 2952. The purpose of penalty in the 2961. What is a person who kills 3 or
positivism school of criminology. more in a separate events?
a. retribution A.mass murder
b. rejection B. serial killer
c. reformation C.homicidal   
d. restoration D. spree killer
2953. It is the study of formation of the 2962. A bank robber who kills some
skull in relation to the behavior of the individual in the bank, flees with hostages,
criminal. and kills a number of people while in flight
a. entomology diving a chase would be an example of:
b. penology
c. phrenology A. Serial Murder
d. criminology B. Spree Murder
2954. Children shall be given priority C. Mass Murder
during_____ as result of armed conflict.? D. Multiple Murder
a. war 2963. What is the legal term for
b. treatment nighttime?
c. evacuation A. sanctuary
d. education
2955. Science concerned with improving B.absurdity
the quality of offspring. C. ephitomy
a. criminology D. nocturnity
b. eugenics
2964. These are the rights of an accused
c. genetics
that are derived from special laws enacted
d. heredity
by Congress.
A. Constitutional rights
B. Civil rights
2956. Commonly known as victimless C.Statutoryrights
crime: D. Natural rights
A.occassional crime 2965. If Metro Manila accounts for 26%
B.political crime of the national total crime volume of 84,
C.public order crime 875, How many crimes were reported to the
D. conventional crime police?
2957. A child whose basic needs have a. 22, 868
been deliberately unattended. b. 22, 068
a. abandoned child c. 20, 250
b. dependent child d. 32, 644
c. abusive child 2966. What is the antonyms of the word
d. neglected child arrest?
2958. The principle that events including A. Apprehend
criminal behavior that has sufficient causes.. B. Search
a. atavism C. Set free
b. narassism D. Renounce
c. determinism 2967. How many members composed
d. positivism the “Pangkat?”
2959. An established and generally A. 1 member C.
accepted moral values refer to. 2 members
a. integrity B. 3 members
b. morality D. 4 members
c. ethical standard 2968. Murder cases numbered 180 in
d. authority 2010 and 220 in 2011. What was the percent
2960. This refers to a significant loss of increase?
contact with reality. a. + 22.2%
a. split mind b. + 20.2%
b. psychosis c. + 22.0%
c. neurosis d. + 20.1%
d. schizoprenia

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 2969. If the population in municipality A D. Life Course Theory
is 195, 000 and the crime volume is 2, 540, 2977. In the power control theory by
what is the crime rate? Hagan, which father and mother share
similar roles in the workplace and power in
a. 1230.6
the family
b. 1465.2 A. Feminist theory
c. 1302.6 B. Egalitarian family
d. 1203.5 C. Patriarchal family
2970. In 2011 there were 90,345 crimes D. Matriarchal family
reported to the police. If the 2011 2978. These views suggest that males
population was 63 million what was the such as judges, police officers, and
prosecutors tend to have traditional views
crime rate?
on women thus, they are more lenient to
a. 147.5 b. 145.7 them as compared to their male
c. 143.4 counterparts.
d. 154.7 A. Paternalism
2971. In 2000 the police recorded a total B. Chivalry Hypothesis
of 84,875 crimes committed. If the C. Masculinity
population was 62 million what was the D. Power Control Theory
2979. This new branch in criminology
crime rate?
opposes the theoretical perspective and
a. 139.6 b. 193.6 proposes the involvement of all stakeholders
c. 136.9 in the use of non violent solutions
d. 163.9 A. Peacemaking Criminology
2972. If Metro Manila accounts for 26% B. Sociology of Law
of the national total crime volume of 84, C. Restorative Justice
875, how many crimes were reported to the D. Non Violent Criminological Hypothesis
2980. This crimes are those that the
police?
lower class commit against the upper class of
a. 20, 250 society in a capitalist system
b. 32, 644 A. Crimes of Passion
c. 22, 068 B. Crimes of Accommodation and Resistance
d. 22, 858 C. Crimes of domination and Repression
2973. If the 128 murder cases in City B D. Crimes of Lower class group
2981. The ruling class in a capitalist
represent 40% of the total murder cases in
system is the
the province, what is the total value for
A. Proletariat
murder cases province wide? B. Bourgeois
a. 120 C. Capitalist
b. 420 D. Ruling class
c. 430 2982. Who proposed the theory of
d. 340 capitalism and invoked communism as a
remedy?
2974. This theory views crime and
A. George Vold
delinquency as a result of the frustration and
B. Karl Marx
anger people experience over their inability
C. Emile Durkheim
to achieve legitimate social and financial
D. Max Weber
success.
2983. This theory believes that society is
a. strain theory
divided into two groups with competing
b. psychological theories
values the upper class and lower class.
c. differential association theory
A. Class Theory
d. labeling theory
B. Differential Opportunity
C. Conflict Theory
2975. This theory suggest that stability D. Consensus Theory
and changes in criminal and deviant 2984. A problem that occurs when
behavior through time and different stages offenders who have been released from the
in life. system are placed in a program simply
A. Self Derogation Theory because the program exist.
B. Anomie Theory A. Diversion Movement
C. Life Course Theory B. Intervention
D. Routine Activities Theory C. Net widening
2976. This theory suggest that females D. Primary Deviance
and males are becoming equal in society in 2985. The term criminology was
terms of family, politics, and education originally derived from Italian word:
A. Feminist Theory a. crimen
B. Paternalism b. criminologo
C. Liberation Theory c. criminologia
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G.S.T. 2019
 d. criminologie recruitment. What crime according to result
2986. It is the scientific study of crime did she committed?
and the effort of the society to prevent and a. acquisitive crime
repressed them? b. extinctive crime
a. Crime c) instant crime
b. Criminology d) situational crime
c. Victimology 2996. It refers to the study of the role of
d. Criminal justice the victim in the commission of a crime.
2987. The study of Criminology involves a. criminal victim
the use of knowledge and concept of other b. criminal psychiatry
sciences and field of study which makes the c. victimless crime
study of criminology: d. victimology
a. Dynamic 2997. It is the scientific study of human
b. Nationalistic behavior or man’s external manifestation in
c. Social science relation to criminality.
d. An applied science a) Epidiomology
2988. Criminal ________ refers to the b) Criminal Psychiatry
study of the relationship between criminality c) Criminal psychology
and the inhabitants of a certain locality: d) Physical anthropology
a.Ecology 2998. A crime can be classified according
b) Demography to its stages of commission. What crime is
c) Epidiomology committed when the offender merely
d) Physical anthropology commences the execution of an offense by
2989. It is the study of human society, Its overt act but which nevertheless did not
origin, structure, functions and direction. perform all acts of execution which would
a. Sociology produce the felony by reason of some cause
b. Criminology other than his own spontaneous desistance?
c. Psychology a. Attempted crime
d. Anthropology b. Consummated crime
2990. It deals primarily with the study of c. Frustrated crime
crime causation. d. Complex crime
a. Criminology 2999. It is the process by which individual
b. Criminal Etiology reduce the frequency of their offending
c. Victimology behavior as the age increases.
d. Criminal Sociology a. doing gender
2991. An act or omission in violation of b. aging out
the public law commanding or forbidding it. c. criminal reduction
a. Crime d. active precipitation
b. Felony 3000. Crimes are classified under the
c. Offense Revised Penal Code according to their
d. Infraction of law gravity. What crime to which the law
2992. Crimes are committed either by attaches the capital punishment or afflictive
dolo or deceit or by _____________. penalties.
a. Culpa a. grave felonies
b. intent b. less grave felonies
c. Fault c. light felonies
d. both a and c d. complex felonies
2993. The following are the elements of 3001. What crimes according to the time
Dolo or deceit, EXCEPT: or period of the commission are those which
a. Intelligence are committed only when the circumstances
c. Freedom or situation is conducive to its commission
b. Intent like for instance, committing theft in a
d. Negligence crowded place.
2994. Perla, a victim of rape, was able to a. seasonal crimes
identify her assailant, a neighbor, before he b. instant crimes
dies on her way to the hospital where she c. situational crimes
was declared dead on arrival, This crime is d. continuing crimes
called, 3002. There are crimes that are
a. complex crime committed within a certain length of time.
b. simple crime What crime is committed by a series of acts
c) instant crime in a lengthy space of time?
d) situational crime a. static crime
2995. Ms. Malou Wang is a skilled b. instant crime
woman in making deception through verbal c. situational crime
communication. She had committed estafa d. episoidal crime
to several persons through illegal 3003. Crimes such as theft, shoplifting,
and others which are committed to maintain
Page 156 of 229
G.S.T. 2019
 one’s livelihood or as a means for living are 3012. It is a proposal of a double male or
what crimes? super male syndrome. This theory held that
a. Rational crimes the possession of an extra Y-chromosome
b. Irrational crimes causes males to be violent and aggressive.
c. Blue-collar crimes a. XYY syndrome b XXY
d. White collar crimes syndrome
3004. It is that element of intentional c. YYX syndrome d. YXX
felony which means that the person who syndrome
committed the felony has the capacity to 3013. A phenomenon that refers to the
distinguish between what is right and wrong handling down of delinquent behaviors as
and fully understands the consequences of socially learned and transferred from one
his actions: generation to the next taking place mostly
a. intelligence among disorganized urban areas.
b. imprudence a. Cultural Transmission b) Social
c. intent Phenomenon
d. freedom c. Crime d)
3005. A psychological disorder in which a Delinquent behavior
child shows developmentally inappropriate 3014. In this theory of crime causation,
impulsivity, hyperactivity and lack of mankind is viewed as manifestations of
attention. basically evil human nature reflecting either
a. psychotism with the prince of darkness or an expression
b. attention deficit hyperactivity disorder of divine wrath.
c. neuroticism a. Classical theory
d. KSP disorder b. positivist theory
3006. The commission of criminal acts c. Demonological theory
using the instruments of modern technology d. neo-classical theory
such as computers or the internet. 3015. An attempt to determine
a. cyber sex intelligence and personality on the basis of
b. cyber crime the size and shape of the skull.
c. computer crimes a. Physiognomy
d. computer hacking b. palmistry
3007. An act in violation of the criminal c. Craniology
law that is designed to bring financial gain to d. Somatotype
the offender. 3016. It involves the measurement of
a. organized crime facial and other body characteristics as
b. economic crime indicative of human personality.
c. cyber crime a. Physiology
d. profit crime b. somatotype
3008. This term literally means “little c. Physiognomy
war”. Today, the term is used d. Palmistry
interchangeably with the term “terrorism”. 3017. According to Sheldon, the three
a. violence “somatotypes” or body built which have
b. revolution relationships to personality characteristics
c. guerilla are the following, EXCEPT:
d. rebel a. Ectomorph
3009. The killing of a large number of b. extomorph
people over time by an offender who seeks c. Endomorph
to escape detection. d. Mesomorph
a. road rage 3018. A type of violent offender who
b. hate crime uses violence as a means of perpetrating the
c. mass murder criminal act:
d. serial murder a. Culturally violent offender
3010. Known as the “Mother of b. pathologically violent offender
Criminals”. c. Criminally violent offender
a. Margaret Juke b. Ada d. d. situationally violent offender
Kallikak 3019. One way of classifying criminals is
c. Ada Juke on the basis of etiology. What kind of
d. Ada Edwards criminal is that whose action arises from the
3011. It refers to an study showing the intra-psychic conflict between the social and
relationship between the physical built of a anti-social components of his personality?
person to his personality structure and the a. Acute
type of offense he is most prone to commit c. Chronic
a. physiognomy b) b. neurotic
somatotype d. normal
c. phrenology 3020. Criminals can also be classified
d) psychology according to this behavioral system. What
are those criminals who have high degree of
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 organization that enables them to commit
crime without being detected and usually 3029. This theory contested the findings
operates in a large scale? of Beccaria’s Free Will Study, stating that its
a. ordinary criminals absence among mentally retardate persons
b. professional criminals or those with some psychological imbalances
c. situational criminals and personality disorders or physical
d. organized criminals disabilities, could likewise lead to violation of
3021. A forcible sex in which the offender laws thereby citing said theory as one of
and the victim are acquainted with each crime causation.
other. a. Classical Criminology
a. statutory rape b. Positivist Criminology
b. date rape c. Neoclassical Criminology
c. marital rape d. Social Structure Theory
d. acquaintance rape 3030. This refers to the act of killing a
3022. According to Lombroso, these are large number of people in a single violent
physical characteristics that distinguish born outburst.
criminals from the general population and a. Road rage
are throwbacks to animals or primitive b. serial killing
people. c. Mass murder
a. physical deviations d. mass destruction
b. distinguishable traits 3031. A type of sexual deviancy where
c. atavistic stigmata the person achieves sexual gratification by
d. ape-like appearance cruelty, psychotic desire to often torment
3023. It is the most essential part of the torture or otherwise abuse his victim.
definition of the criminal law: a. Masochism
a. elements b. bestiality
b. penalty c. Sadism
c. degree of evidence d. Incest
d. motive 3032. A sexual relationship between
persons closely related by blood.
3024. The concept that conduct norms a. Incest
are passed down from one generation to the b. sadism
next so that they become stable within the c. Masochism
boundaries of a culture. d. rape
a. heredity 3033. These are violent acts directed
b. inheritance toward a particular person or members of
c. cultural transmission group merely because the targets share
d. DNA discernible racial, ethnic, religious or gender
3025. Group of urban sociologists who characteristics.
studies the relationship between a. Violent crimes
environmental conditions and crime. b. hate crimes
a. classical school c. Copy-cat crimes
b. chicago school d. victimless crimes
c. neo-classical school 3034. A term to denote a premeditated,
d. positive school politically motivated violence perpetrated
3026. He is recognized as the first against non-combatant targets by
codifier of laws: subnational groups or clandestine agents,
a. Drakon usually intended to influence an audience.
b. the Hittites a. Rebellion
c. Solon b. piracy
d. Hammurabi c. Terrorism
3027. He said that individuals are like d. little war
human calculators. Before a person commits 3035. It conceded that certain factors
a crime, he first analyzes whether the such as insanity might inhibit the exercise of
satisfaction he would gain is greater than the free will.
possible negative effect he would have to a. Classical theory
suffer if the gets caught doing the crime: b. neo-classical
a. Cesare Beccaria c. Sociological
b. Cesare Lombroso d. positivist
c. Edwin Sutherland 3036. These are crimes committed by a
d. Jeremy Bentham person of respectability and high social
3028. Who stated that crime is normal in status in the course of occupation.
a society? a. Blue collar crimes
a. Cesare Beccaria b. crime of the upper world
b. Cesare Lombroso c. White collar crimes
c. Emile Durkheim d. crime of the underworld
d. Enrico Ferri
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 3037. Public order crime is otherwise
known as: 3045. He introduced the “theory of
a. Violent crimes imitation” which states that individuals copy
b. economic crimes behavior patterns of other individuals, and
c. Organized crimes that those with weaker personalities tend to
d. victimless crimes get influenced easier by those with stronger
3038. The law that provides Board personalities:
Examination for Criminologists in the a. Emile Durkheim b)
Philippines. Adolphe Quetelet
a. R.A. 6975 c) Gabriel Tarde
b. R.A. 8551 d) Enrico Ferri
c. R.A. 6506 3046. A term that used to describe
d. R.A. 8353 motorists who assault each other.
3039. Criminals who have a high degree a. road rage
of organization to enable them to commit b. predation
crimes without being detected. c. hate crime
a. Professional criminals d. serial murder
b. ordinary criminals 3047. This theory argues that intelligence
c. Organized criminals is largely determined genetically; that
d. expert criminals ancestry determines IQ; and, that low
intelligence as demonstrated by low IQ is
3040. Who among the following are the linked to behavior including criminal
“Holy Three in Criminology”? behavior:
a. Lombroso, Bentham, Beccaria a. Nature Theory
b. Lombroso, Garofalo, Ferri b) Psychological theory
c. Beccaria, Bentham, Ferri c) Strain Theory
d. Beccaria, Garofalo, Lombroso d) Labeling theory
3041. Culture Conflict Theory was
thorough studied by ____ wherein he 3048. The theory which states that
concluded that the main difference between attachment, connection and link to society
a criminal and a non-criminal is that each is will determine whether a person shall
responding to different sets of conduct commit a crime or not:
norms. a. social control
a) Emile Durkheim b) social disorganization
b) Andre Michael Guerry c) social bond
c) Thorsten Sellin d) social learning
d) Abraham Maslow 3049. The philosophy of justice that
asserts that those who violate the rights of
3042. This school of thought in others deserve to be punished. The severity
criminology states that although individuals of the punishment should be commensurate
have self-rule, there are other factors that with the seriousness of the crime.
affect the exercise of their autonomy, which a. restorative justice
cause them commit crimes: b. jus desert
a) neo-classical c. utilitarianism d.
b) utilitarianism equality of punishment
c) classical 3050. A condition in which the glucose in
d) positivist the blood falls below levels necessary for
3043. This theory reflects the way people normal and efficient brain functioning.
react to a given situation based on the social
influences they acquired from other people a. hyperglycemia
that practically determine their behaviors. b. hyperglycomia
This theory likewise serves as the learning c. hypoglycemia
process of delinquent behaviors and d. hypoglycomia
considered as one of the most important 3051. This school on crime causation
theory in crime causation. emphasized economic determinism and
a) Social Disorganization theory concentrated on the need for the quality
b) Culture Conflict theory among all citizens. They provided statistical
c) Differential Association Theory data which claimed to show that variations
d) Social Reaction Theory in crime rates are associated with variations
3044. It is the breakdown of social order in economic conditions.
as a result of the loss of order in a society. a. Cartographic School
a. synomie b. Socialist School
b) anarchy c. Psychiatric School
c) anomie d. Chicago School
d) chaos 3052. “Manie sans delire” (madness
without confusion) This was the term used
by Philippe Pinel describing the personality
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 that is characterized by an inability to learn 3060. His study focused on the Kallikak
from experience, lack of warmth, and no family tree and he concluded that
sense of guilt better known as: feeblemindedness is inherited and related to
a. psychotic personality deviant behavior and poverty. He was the
b. psychopathic personality first person to use the term “moron”.
c. neurotic behavior a. Robert Dugdale
d. dementia praecox b. Henry Goddard
c. Eaenest Hooton
d. Charles Goring
3053. A police officer’s frustration in the 3061. This theory focuses on the
realization of his ambition and goals in life development of high crime areas associated
both as an officer of the law, and as a with the disintegration of conventional
private citizen, can push him to a life of values caused by rapid industrialization,
crime, as pointed out in this particular increased migration and urbanization.
theory. a. Cultural Deviance Theory
b. Differential Association Theory
a. Disorganization Theory c. Social Disorganization Theory
b. Culture Conflict Theory d. Strain Theory
C.Differential Association Theory
d. Strain Theory 3062. A societal stage marked by
normlessness in which disintegration and
3054. Crimes which occur per 100,000 chaos have replaced social cohesion.
population per month. It is the theoretical a. Social disorganization
basis which determines the peace and order b. Anomie
situation. c. Strain
a. index crimes d. Synomie
b. crime rate 3063. It is otherwise known as the
c. non-index crimes decline in criminal activities together with
d. crime statistics the time.
3055. The Idea that low female crime and a. Birth cohort
delinquency rates are a reflection of the b. aging out phenomenon
leniency which the police treat female c. Criminal aging
offenders. d. crime rate
a. Doing gender 3064. He invoked that only justified
b. masculinity hypothesis rationale for laws and punishment is the
c. Chivalry hypothesis principle of the greatest happiness shared by
d. pre-menstrual syndrome the greatest number of people.
3056. A stage of development when girls a. Utilitatrianism
begin to have sexual feeling for their fathers. b. Jeremy Bentham
a. Oedipus complex c. Felicific Calculus
b. doing gender d. Cesare Beccaria
c. Electra complex
d. chivalry hypothsis 3065. The beginning to have sexual
3057. The legal principle by which the feelings for the mother, which occurs during
decision or holding in an earlier case the third year from birth is known as:
becomes the standard by which subsequent a. Oedipus Complex
similar cases are judged. It literally means b. Inferiority Complex
“to stand by decided cases”. c. Electra Complex
a. jus desert d. Incest
b. stare decisis 3066. Serious illegal detention is a crime
c. story decisis committed through series of acts or episodes
d. just stare and in much longer time. This crime is
3058. This is a theory by Robert Merton classified as:
which assumes that people are law abiding a. Instant crime
but under great pressure, they will resort to b. episoidal crime
crime. c. Situational crime
a. strain theory d. seasonal crime
b. social learning 3067. The following are the
c. cultural deviance characteristics of the Classical School of
d. anomie Criminology:
3059. The first IQ test was developed by I. The basis of criminal liability is human free
a French psychologist named: will and the purpose of penalty is
a. Rafael Garofalo retribution
b. Albert Bandura II. Man is essentially a moral creature with an
c. Walter Reckless absolute free will to choose between right
d. Alfred Binet and wrong.

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 III. Criminals are distinguishable from non- special laws like the violation of “Anti-
criminals because of their physical Smoking Law”.
deviations. a. Mala prohibita
IV. That every man is therefore responsible for b. less grave felonies
his act. c. Mala in se
d. light felonies
a. I, II, III are correct. 3076. The principle of criminal law which
b. I, III, IV are correct. is “nullum crimen nulla poena sine lege”
c. II, III, IV are correct. means:
d. I, II, IV are correct. a. An act done by me against my will is
3068. It conceded factors such as insanity not my act
might inhibit the exercise of free will. b. There is no crime where no law
a. Classical theory punishing it.
b. positivist theory c. Ignorance of the law excuses no one.
c. Neo-classical theory d. Mistake of fact is an excuse.
d. radical theory 3077. He was the one who introduced
3069. His great contributions to the following definition of criminology: “It is
criminology were the principle of the entire body of knowledge regarding
utilitarianism and the felicific calculus. crime as a social phenomenon. It includes
a. Cesare Beccaria within its scope the process of making laws,
b. Jeremy Bentham of breaking laws and of reacting towards the
c. Cesare Lombroso breaking of the laws”:
d. Emile Durkheim a) Raffaelle Garofalo
3070. He propounded the theory of b) Edwin Sutherland
evolution that inspired the now known c) Cesare Beccaria
“Father of Modern Criminology” to develop d) Paul Topinard
the theory of atavism. 3078. Classical Theory states that
a. Cesare Lombroso individuals have freewill. It is focused on an
b. Charles Goring individual's choice as to whether or not he
c. Cesare Beccaria will commit a crime and the purpose of
d. Charles Darwin Classical Theory in giving punishment
3071. According to him, people with is________________.
criminal behavior, should be prohibited from a) Restoration
having children. b) Treatment
a. Robert Dugdale c) Retribution
b. Henry Goddard d) Deterrence
c. Charles Goring
d. George Wilker
3072. It states that individuals are 3079. Refers to the circumstances which
deviant mainly because they have been attendant in the commission of a crime serve
labeled as deviant by social agencies and to increase the penalty, without however
others. The notion of deviance is not exceeding the maximum of the penalty
inherent in the act itself, but rather in the provided by law for the offense.
reaction and stigma attached to the actor. a. Justifying
a. Containment Theory b. Exempting
b. Theory of Imitation c. Mitigating
c. Social Process Theory d. Aggravating
d. Social Reaction theory 3080. Those wherein the acts of the
3073. Cesare Lombroso classified this person are in accordance with the law,
type of criminal with five (5) or more hence he incurs no criminal liability.
atavistic stigmata. a. Exempting
a. Born-criminal type b. aggravating
b. insane c. Justifying
c. Criminaloid d. Mitigating
d. pseudo-criminal 3081. Mr. A committed loitering within
3074. These are crimes which are wrong the vicinity of Manila City Hall on January 14,
from their very nature. Examples of these 2011. June 14, 2011, a city ordinance was
are murder, robbery, and other violations of passed punishing loitering within the vicinity
the Revised Penal Code. of Isetan Recto. Can A be held liable for his
a. Heinous crimes act of loitering?
b. mala in se a. Yes, for there is a law passed punishing it
c. Serious crimes b. Yes under the principle of retroactive
d. mala prohibita effect of criminal law
3075. These are crimes which are wrong c. No, for the act was done prior to the
only because there are laws that prohibit effectivity of the law.
them in order to regulate an orderly society. d. No, for A did not loiter again.
Examples of these are the violations of
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 3082. His theory was that God did not c. from the time of his conception
make all the various species of animals in d. upon reaching the age of majority
two days, as what the bible says but rather 3089. Refers to a person appointed by
that the species had evolved through a the court to act as the legal guardian of the
process of adoptive mutation and natural child even though the parents of the child
selection which led to his conclusion that are still alive when the best interest of the
man was traced to have originated from the said child so require.
apes. a. adopter
a. Jeremy Bentham b. loco parentis
b. Charles Darwin c. guardian ad litem
c. Prince Charles d. temporary guardian
d)Charles de Gaulle 3090. Under the RA 9344 a child over 15
3083. Having spent half of his life in the under 18 is exempt from criminal liability
study of the causes of crime and true to his unless:
dedication to his lifetime works, upon his a. he is committed a henious crime
death he willed his brain and body to the b. he is the principal accused
Institute of Anatomy at the University of c. he acted without discernment
Turin in Italy to be further studied. To this, d. he acted with discernment
he was named the “Father of Modern and 3091. The Child in Conflict with the law
Empirical Criminology”. cannot be prosecuted for the commission of
a) Cesare Beccaria the following, EXCEPT:
b) Edwin Sutherland a. mendicancy
c) Cesare Lombroso b. sniffing of rugby
d) Jeremy Bentham c. prostitution
3084. Having spent half of his life in the d. theft
study of the causes of crime and true to his 3092. A child left by himself without
dedication to his lifetime works, upon his provisions for his needs/or without proper
death he willed his brain and body to the supervision falls under what special category
Institute of Anatomy at the University of of a child?
Turin in Italy to be further studied. To this, a. abandoned child
he was named the “Father of Modern and b. abused child
Empirical Criminology”. c. neglected child
a) Cesare Beccaria d. dependent child
b) Edwin Sutherland 3093. In the absence of death of both
c) Cesare Lombroso parents of the child who shall continue to
d) Jeremy Bentham exercise authority over the child?
3085. Which of the following is NOT I. Surviving grand parents
included in the components of criminal II. Elder brother and sister over 21 years
justice system of the United States? of age
a. Law enforcement III. Surviving parents of child
b. Corrections IV. Actual custodian of the child over 21
c. Prosecution years of age.
d. Courts a. I, II and IV only
3086. The power of the state to give any b. I and II only
form of charity of public nature. It is the c. I, II, III only
philosophy behind the view that youthful d. all of the above
offender/child in conflict with the law is the 3094. Is a self-association of peers,
victim of improper care and that the state is bound together by mental interest, who
duty bound to provide protection. acted in concert in order to achieve a specific
a. positivism purpose which includes the conduct of illegal
b. loco parentis activities and control over a particular
c. patria potestas d. territory, facility or type of enterprises.
parens patriae a. Juvenile gang
3087. Under the law, they are the one b. Organized criminal
responsible for preventing the child from c. a bond
becoming addicted to intoxicating drinks, d. street corner gang
narcotic drugs, smoking, gambling or any
harmful practices. 3095. The court can suspend parental
a. DSWD b. authority if it finds that the parent:
Parents I. Treats the child with excessive
c. state harshness of cruelty.
d. police II. Gives the child corrupting order,
3088. The civil personality of the child is counsel or example
deemed to have been commenced upon: III. Compel the child to beg
a. birth of the child IV. Imposed to child disciplinary actions.
b. when the child celebrates his first a. I and II only
birthday c. I and III only
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 b. I, II, III and IV a. be friendly
d. I, II and III only b. be firm and show them that you are
3096. Who among the following is strong
considered as “Child in Conflict with the c. show to them that your bearing is good
Law”? and stand with pride
a. Bryan who is 15 years old. d. let them know that you are an agent of a
b. Yang who is 10 years old. person in authority
c. Lover Boy who is 17 years old 3105. A child born inside a marriage
d. anyone of them where either party is suffering from an
3097. Refers to the totality of the impediments.
circumstances which are most beneficial for a. illegitimate child
the child. b. legitimated child
a. child as zone of peace b. c. legitimate child
nation building d. adopted child
c. best interest of the child 3106. This refers to the apprehension or
d. presumption of minority taking into custody of a child who committed
3098. Is the mass obligation which the an offense by the law enforcement officer:
parents have in relation to the persons and a. initial contact with the child
property of their an unemancipated child. b. preliminary investigation
a. Paretal authority c. initial investigation
b. Patria Potestas d. inquest proceedings
c. Parens’ Patriae 3107. This common procedure applied
d. Parental Responsibility when arresting an offender shall NOT be
3099. A person of such age is employed when the person who is the
automatically exempted from criminal subject of apprehension is a child.
liability but should be taken to the custody a. informing the suspect is a child
and care of his parents, DSWD b. stating the reason for the arrest
representative or any institution engage in c. employing reasonable force
child caring. d. use of handcuffs
a. 15 years and below 3108. It refers to the totality of the
b. under 18 years of age circumstances and conditions which are
c. under 15 years of age most congenial to the survival, protection
d. under 21 years of age and feelings of security of the child and most
3100. Refers to a child raise to the status encouraging to the child's physical,
of legitimate child by subsequent marriage psychological and emotional development. It
of his/her parents. also means the least detrimental available
a. illegitimate alternative for safeguarding the growth and
b. legitimated development of the child.
c. legitimate a. Child at risk
d. adopted b. Best Interest of the Child
3101. In case of separation between c. Full development.
parents of the child, a child of such age is d. Child welfare program
given by the court the preference to choose 3109. In case of a child in conflict with
between either parents. the law his age shall be determine in the
a. under 9 years of age absence of proof what principle shall be
b. 7 years of age observed?
c. 10 years of age a. He is presumed to be minor
d. 5 years of age b. He should prove his age
3102. Refers to aggregate of persons c. The Birth certificate should be produced
working in commercial, industrial and pending such issuance he should be hold.
agricultural establishments or enterprises d. The testimony of the child should be enough
whether belonging to the labor or to prove his age.
management whose primary duty is to care 3110. It is the psychological, emotional
for the welfare of the working children. and behavioral reactions and deficits of
a. civic association of adult women victims and their inability to respond
b. community to repeated physical and psychological
c. Samahan violence?
d. youth association A. Battered Woman Syndrome
3103. Parental authority is deemed B. Battered Wife
terminated upon: C. Abused Woman
a. death of the parents D. Rape trauma syndrome
b. emancipation of the child 3111. Child in conflict with the law may
c. death of the child undergo diversion program without
d. All of the choices necessity of court intervention on the
3104. Which of the following is the best following:
way for the police to win youth’s trust and
confidence?
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 a. Where the imposable penalty for the crime c. Abandoned child
committee is not more than six (6) years d. dependent child
imprisonment; 3118. Ms. RCBC, a 25-year old
b. Where the imposable penalty for the crime mongoloid, was raped by her addict
committed exceeds six (6) years neighbor, Mr. Go. How do you classify her as
imprisonment; a victim?
c. Where the imposable penalty for the crime a. an adult
committed exceeds six (6) years but not b. an insane
more than 12 years imprisonment; c. a child
d. Where the imposable penalty for the crime d. an adolescent
committed does not exceeds 12 years
imprisonment.
3112. Once the court, after trial finds 3119. It is the act of buying and selling
that a child in conflict with the law is guilty children:
of the crime charged, the court shall: a. exploitation
A. Pronounce its judgment; b. prostitution
B. Wait for the application for suspension of c. abuse
sentence of the child and order his turn over to d. trafficking
DSWD. 3120. This refers to the maltreatment of
C. Automatically place the child in conflict children, whether habitual or not:
with law under suspension of sentence. a. exploitation
D. Determine the civil liability and order the b. abuse
final discharge of the child in conflict with the law. c. prostitution
d. trafficking
3113. Once the child in conflict with the 3121. Children are declared as
law reached the age of 18 while under ____________ in situations of armed
suspended sentence the court may: conflict:
A. Order the execution of sentence; a. priorities for evacuation
B. Order the discharge of the child in conflict b. exemptions
with the law; c. zones of peace d.
C. Extend the suspended sentence at certain shields
period or to its maximum age of 21. 3122. This refers to pledging by the
D. Any of the above choices debtor of his or her personal services or
3114. All records and proceedings those of a person under his or her control as
involving children in conflict with the law security or payment for a debt, when the
from initial contact until final disposition of length and nature of services are not clearly
the case shall be: defined:
a. placed in the dockets of court forms part a. debt bondage
of the public record; b. involuntary servitude
b. open to the public; c. abuse
c. considered restricted; d. slavery
d. considered privileged and confidential 3123. A working child below fifteen years
3115. Mona was charged with vandalism old may be allowed to work for only _______
on her 18th birthday when she painted her hours per day:
neighbor’s walls with greeting to herself. a. eight
How will you classify Mona as an offender? b. four
a. juvenile offender c. five
b. habitual offender d. six
c. adult offender 3124. Publication of photographs of
d. none persons or children in various obscene or
3116. All statements, EXCEPT ONE, are indecent poses meant to cause sexual
correct: excitement to those who will see them is a
a. the family becomes a cause of juvenile form of:
delinquency when parents find it hard to balance a. adult entertainment
their jobs with their parental responsibilities b. illegal publication
b. peer group is a factor to juvenile delinquency c. obscene material
c. parental rejection causes juvenile delinquency d. pornography
d. it is only within the family that a child must 3125. Employers shall provide an
learn his life values opportunity for education to all working
3117. Being an orphan, Pedro Basurero, children up to this level:
roams the street 24 hours a day with no a. elementary
place to go, surviving on foods given by kind- b. college
hearted people with no one to supervise him c.secondary
at his young age of six (6). How do you d. vocational
categorize Pedro as a child? 3126. In employing children, the
a. neglected child b. employment contract must be signed:
independent child
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 a) by the Department of Labor and b. The 1st statement is correct, the 2nd is
Employment incorrect.
b) in the presence of the family’s lawyer c. The 1st statement is incorrect, the 2 nd is
c) by the child’s parent or guardian correct.
d) and notarized by a Notary Public d. Both statements are incorrect.
3127. In cases of working children, this 3135. The “Anti-Violence Against Women
has the duty of securing the permit from the and their Children Act of 2004”:
Department of Labor and Employment: a. R.A. 9262
a. parents b. R.A. 7610
b. working child c. R.A. 9208
c. manager d. R.A. 9344
d. employer 3136. It refers to an act of inflicting
3128. This form of violence includes acts physical harm upon the woman or her child
causing or likely to cause mental or resulting to the physical and psychological or
emotional suffering of the victim such as but emotional distress.
not limited to intimidation, harassment, a. stalking
stalking and repeated verbal abuse: b. economic abuse
a. battery c. battery
b. psychological d. sexual violence
c. sexual 3137. This includes the employment, use,
d. physical inducement or coercion of a child to engage
3129. The crime of human trafficking in sexual intercourse or lascivious conduct;
shall be qualified when: the molestation, prostitution and or incest
a) the person trafficked is an elderly with children.
b) the person trafficked is a woman a. sexual abuse
c) the person trafficked is a special child b. physical abuse
d) the person trafficked is a child b. psychological abuse
3130. This refers to any word or deed d. cruelty
which debases, degrades or demeans the
intrinsic worth and dignity of the child as 3138. Refers to a program organized by
human being. travel establishments and individuals which
a. eglect consist of packages or activities, utilizing and
b. psychological abuse offering escort and sexual services as
c. sexual abuse enticement for tourists.
d. cruelty a. prostitution
b. exploitation
3131. The following person are liable for c. sex tourism
child prostitution, EXCEPT: d. pornography
a. those who act as procurer of child 3139. Refers to an intentional act
prostitute committed by a person who knowingly and
b. children recruited as prostitutes without lawful justification follows the
c. managers or owners of the establishment woman or her child or places the woman or
where the prostitution takes place her child under surveillance directly or
d. clients of child prostitute indirectly.
3132. This refers to the use, hiring, a. stalking
employment and coercing of children as b. economic abuse
actors or models in printed pornographic c. battery
materials: d. sexual violence
a. indecent shows 3140. A working child over fifteen but
b. child prostitution under eighteen may work but his work hours
c. obscene publication must not exceed ____ hours:
d. child exploitation a) eight
3133. The legislative act that penalizes b) seven
the acts, means and purposes of human c) ten
trafficking: d) six
a. R.A. 9344 3141. A working child who is below
b. R.A. 7610 eighteen but over fifteen years old may be
c. R.A. 9208 allowed to work between the hours of:
d. R.A. 8043 a) six to eight o’clock pm b) seven
to eight o’clock p
3134. 1st. The crime of trafficking in c) six to ten o’clock pm
person is qualified when the trafficked d) seven to ten o’clock pm
person is a child. 3142. It means failure to provide, for
2nd. As a general rule, children below 15 reasons other than poverty, the basic needs
years of age shall not be employed. of the child, such as food, clothing, medical
care, shelter and basic education
a. Both statements are correct. a. sexual abuse
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 b. physical abuse 3151. This refers to the document issued
c. psychological abuse by the court signifying the approval of the
d. neglect application for adoption:
3143. Refers to acts that make or a) decree of adoption
attempt to make a woman financially b) petition for adoption
dependent. c) annulment
a. stalking d) rescission
b. economic abuse 3152. This is the legal age in the
c. battery Philippines:
d. sexual violence a) twenty-one
b) seventeen
3144. No child shall be employed as a c) eighteen
model in any advertisement directly or d) twelve
indirectly promoting the following: 3153. A child who has been voluntarily or
I. alcoholic beverages and intoxicating involuntarily committed to the DSWD or to a
drinks duly licensed child placement agency and is
II. pornographic materials free from parental authority:
III. medicines for use of adults a) child legally available for adoption
IV. cigarettes and any form of gambling b) legally-free child
a. I, II, III are correct c) emancipated child
b. II, III, IV are correct d) abandoned child
c. I, II, IV are correct 3154. This form of violence includes acts
d. I, III, IV are correct causing or likely to cause mental or
3145. The law that provides special emotional suffering of the victim such as but
protection of children against child abuse, not limited to intimidation, harassment,
exploitation and discrimination. stalking and repeated verbal abuse:
a. R.A. 7610 a) battery
b. R.A. 9208 b) psychological
c. R.A. 9231 c) sexual
d. P.D. 603 d) physical
3146. The law prohibiting the worst 3155. A working child who is below
forms of child labor. eighteen but over fifteen years old may be
a. R.A. 9262 allowed to work between the hours of:
b. R.A. 7610 a) six to eight o’clock pm
c. R.A. 9231 b) seven to eight o’clock p
d. R.A. 9344 c) six to ten o’clock pm
3147. This form of child abuse includes d) seven to ten o’clock pm
lacerations, fractured bones, burns, internal 3156. Emancipation takes place when:
injuries and serious bodily harm suffered by a) the parents decide to emancipate him or
a child: her
a. psychological b) the child becomes 18 years old
b. emotional c) the child is already married
c. physical d) the child applies for it
d. cruelty d) games and gadgets
3157. The CICL shall be entitled to the
3148. This refers to offenses where there automatic suspension of sentence until the
is no private offended party: maximum age of __:
a. Victimology a) twenty-three
b. public order crime b) eighteen
c. Victimless crime c) twenty-one
d. d. both a and c d) twenty
3158. In case the child has been found
3149. This is the Latin term for parental guilty by the court, he shall be ordered to be
authority: transferred to _______:
a) loco parentis a) a youth rehabilitation center
b) patria potestas b) a youth detention home
c) parens patriae c) a city or municipal jail
d) patria adorada d) an agricultural camp
3150. Before any petition for adoption 3159. Preliminary investigation shall only
may be approved, the adopter and the be conducted when the:
adoptee must first undergo a supervised trial a) CICL is over fifteen but under eighteen
custody for a period of: b) CICL is disqualified for diversion
a) at least six months c) CICL acted with discernment
b) not more than six months d) victim filed the complaint
c) at least one year 3160. The law enforcement officer must
d) not less than one year ensure that all statements signed by the

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 child during investigation are witnessed and c) law enforcer
signed by the following: b) CICL
a) his parents, lawyer and social worker d) judge
b) his parents or guardian 3169. The duty of determining the age of
c) legal counsel the child in conflict with the law lies with the
d) social worker _______:
3161. The body search of the child in a) social worker
conflict with the law must be done only by a b) law enforcer
law enforcement officer: c) CICL
a) who has initial contact d) judge
b) assigned to the case
c) of the opposite sex 3170. The age of full criminal
d) of the same gender responsibility is:
3162. The first important thing that a law a. Less than 18 but more than 70 years old
enforcer must do upon initial contact is to b. More than 18 but less than 70 years old
____: c. Over 15 but under 18 years old
a) know the age of the child d. Not less than 18 but not more than 70 years
b) notify the local DSWD old
c) call the parents 3171. It pertains to the document that
d) make a report must be signed by the parents of the child in
conflict with the law as part of the conditions
3163. It is the best evidence to prove the of diversion:
age of the child in conflict with the law: a) contract of diversion proceedings
a) testimony of the parents of the child b) certification of conciliation
b) testimony of the child c) memorandum of agreement
c) certificate of birth d) contract of diversion
d) school records 3172. A child in conflict with the law who
3164. It is the holding in abeyance of the is under fifteen years of age shall be turned
service of the sentence imposed by the court over to the ________________ by the police
upon a finding of guilt of the child in conflict for the determination of appropriate
with the law, whereby the child undergoes program:
rehabilitation within a fixed period under a) nearest police station
such terms and conditions as may be b) family
ordered by the court: c) local DSWSD
a) probation d) court
b) suspension of sentence
c) parole 3173. The diversion proceedings must be
d) pardon completed within ____ days:
3165. It is a disposition under which a a) thirty
defendant, after conviction and sentence, is b) forty-five
released subject to conditions imposed by c) sixty
the court and to the supervision of a d) twenty
probation officer: 3174. If the court finds that the child in
a) suspension of sentence conflict with the law is guilty of the crime he
b) parole is accused of doing, the ____________ of the
c) probation sentence shall automatically be suspended:
d) pardon a) imposition
3166. A child in conflict with the law is b) determination
exempted from _____: c) execution
a) both criminal and civil liability d) discharge
b) neither criminal nor civil liability 3175. The ________________ has the
c) criminal liability only right to refuse the diversion program
d) civil liability only designed for the child:
3167. If the penalty for the crime a) offended party
committed by the CICL is imprisonment of b) parents of the child
more than six years, diversion will be within c) victim
the jurisdiction of the ____________: d) social worker
a) barangay 3176. When the court decides to execute
b) DSWD the suspended sentence, the child must be
c) police transferred to a:
d) court a) youth rehabilitation center
3168. Discernment is the determining b) youth detention home
factor if the CICL is over fifteen years old. c) agricultural farm
The decision as to whether the child acted d) prison
with or without discernment is made initially 3177. It shall be the duty of the
by the _______: ______________________ to make proper
a) social worker recommendation to the court regarding the
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 disposition of the child who is undergoing 3186. What is the process of interpreting
rehabilitation while under suspension of our behavior in ways to make it more
sentence: acceptable to the self usually with the use of
a) prosecutor good reasons and alibi to substitute for real
b) social worker cause?
c) lawyer a. projection
d) judge b. sublimation
3178. All records pertaining to the case c. rationalization
of the child in conflict with the law shall d. Compensation
remain _______ and ______:
a) privileged and confidential 3187. Conflicts and their behavioral
b) classified and confidential outcomes are classified as follows, EXCEPT:
c) privileged and restricted a. avoidance-approach
d) secret and confidential b. avoidance-avoidance
c. approach-avoidance
3179. The age of full criminal d. approach-approach
irresponsibility is: 3188. Manny, angry at his girlfriend,
a. Over 15 but under 18 years old who acted boxed a nearby tree manifests what
with discernment particular defense mechanism?
b. 18 to 70 years old a. repression
c. 15 years old and below b. sublimation
d. Below 18 even if the act is committed with c. displacement
discernment d. projection
3180. It refers to the sum total of man's 3189. An uncontrollable, morbid
reaction to his environment or the way propensity to steal or pathological stealing.
human beings act. a. kleptomania
a. Human Beings b. pyromania
b. Learning c. phobia
c. Human Behavior d. Dipsomania
d. Stimulus 3190. This type of conflict occurs when
there is an attraction to an object or state of
3181. Refers to any behavioral reactions affairs at the same time repulsion towards
or reflexes exhibited by people because of something associated with it.
their inherited capabilities or the process of a. avoidance-avoidance
natural selection. c. approach-approach
a. Inherited Behavior c. approach-avoidance
b. Inborn Behavior d. multiple
c. Learned Behavior 3191. This is the process of excluding
d. both a and c from the consciousness a thought or feeling
3182. It is a behavior pattern where an that causes pain, shame or guilt.
individual return to a state of form a. identification
adjustment and attempt to experience them b. regression
again in memory. c. repression
a. phobia d. fixation
b. anger 3192. This is an attempt to disguise or
b. frustration cover-up felt deficiencies or undesirable
d. regression traits by emphasizing a desirable type of
3183. Defense mechanisms are used to behavior.
shield one’s self from _____. a. rationalization
a. anger b. sublimation
b. fear c. compensation
c. pleasure d. projection
d. pain 3193. Kadyo Tero, a B.S. Criminology
3184. Human behavior is man’s response student, after tasting an unripe mango
to the interpretation of the ______ from grimaced. This sensation is said to be:
within the person or from his environment. a. olfactory
a. stimulus b. Auditory
b. action c. cutaneous
c. perception (respose to sensation) d. gustatory
d. inclination 3194. This is a serious mental and
3185. This personality system controls emotional disorder that is a manifestation of
the gateway to action. withdrawal from reality.
a. alter ego a. Neurosis
b. Id b. Depression
c. ego c. Psychosis
d. Superego d. Anxiety

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 3195. This occurs when goal c. inheritance
achievement is blocked. d. Introvert
a. frustration 3205. Drug addicts and alcoholics may
b. conflict deny that they have problems. This is a
c. anxiety manifestation of what type of defense
d. Depression mechanism?
a. Fantasy
3196. The aggregate observable b. sublimation
responses of an organism to internal and c. Denial
external stimuli. d. displacement
a. human behavior 3206. Kenneth Totnak, a B.S. Criminology
b. behavior student in the evening session, blames his
c. personality poor performance in the preliminary
d. attribute examination to his professor rather than his
3197. The process by which behavior lack of preparation. This is an example of
changes as a result of experience or practice. what type of defense mechanism?
a. Reaction formation
a. actualization b. displacement
b. learning c. Sublimation
c. thinking d. rationalization
d. feeling 3207. Ms. Pining Garcia, frustrated on
3198. This type of conflict occurs when her boyfriend when she saw the latter
there are two desirable but mutually kissing another girl, cries. This is an example
exclusive goals. of what defense mechanism?
a. avoidance-avoidance a. Regression
b. approach-approach b. suppression
c. approach-avoidance c. Repression
d. multiple d. displacement
3199. This type of conflict when there 3208. Texting while driving is an example
are two courses of action, each of which has of what classification of human behavior?
both pleasant and unpleasant consequences. a. Habitual
a. avoidance-avoidance b. symbolic
b. approach-approach c. Instinctive
c. approach-avoidance d. complex
d. multiple
3200. This is an excessive, irrational and 3209. It
uncontrollable fear of a perfectly natural refers to the person’s knowledge of a given
situation or object. stimulus which largely helps to determine
a. melancholia the actual behavioral response in a given
b. phobia situation.
c. exaltation a. Perception
d. Mania b. awareness
c. Sensation
3201. It is characterized by anxiety, d. Learning
depression and phobia.
a. psychoses 3210. A person who is a balanced
b. neuroses introvert and extrovert is said to be:
c. abnormality a. Psychotic
d. Psychopathy b. ambivert
c. Neurotic
3202. Hydrophobia is fear of ________. d. angry bird
a. Water 3211. He is known as the “Father of
b. darkness Psychoanalysis”.
c. Snakes a. Tom Cruise
d. deep water b. Gina Ferrero-Lombroso
3203. A distortion in reality such as c. Sigmund Freud
delusion, hallucination and regression. d. Cesare Lombroso
a. psychosis 3212. Coping mechanism is the way
b. neurosis people react to __________.
c. abnormality a. Fear
d. psychopathy b. anxiety
3204. A transmission of physical c. Frustration
characteristics, mental traits, tendency to d. Anger
disease, etc. from parents to offspring.
a. heredity 3213. It can be seen among people who
b. environment handle their problems in a very objective
way.

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 a. Coping Mechanism d. Symbolic
b. Direct Approach 3223. It is the ability to withstand
c. Detour frustration without developing inadequate
d. Withdrawal modes of response such as being
3214. The most tolerated way of emotionally depressed or irritated,
handling frustration. becoming neurotic, or becoming aggressive.
a. Defense Mechanism a. Frustration Tolerance
b. Direct Approach b. Frustration Shield
c. Detour c. Frustration Flexibility
d. Withdrawal d. all of the above
3215. A type of defense mechanism 3224. Mr. Six Footer, an aspiring PNP
whereby a person concentrates in area applicant, turned up applying into the Armed
where he can excel. Forces of the Philippines when he failed in
a. Displacement the initial height and weight measurement
b. compensation stage because he was under height. This is
c. Rationalization an example of:
d. fantasy a. Sublimation
3216. What type of defense mechanism b. repression
is manifested by Pining Garcia when he c. Substitution
joined the fraternity, Alpha Phi Chupapi, d. withdrawal
because of low self-esteem? 3225. Which of the following items does
a. Identification not belong to the group?
b. projection a. prostitution
c. Fantasy b. assassination
d. regression c. sabotage
3217. This refers to an action-producing d. bombing
agent: 3226. It is characterized by infantile level
a. Motives of response, lack of conscience, deficient
b. Drives feeling of affection to others and aggression
c. Stimulus to environment and other people.
d. sensation a. schizophrenic personality
3218. Human actions in relation to b. psychopathic personality
events taking place inside the body such as c. compulsive neurosis
the brain and the nervous system is known d. neurotic personality
as: 3227. Which of the following is not a
a. Neurological common tactic in terrorism?
b. psychological a. robbery
c. Cognitive c. bombing
d. Humanistic b. hijacking
d. kidnapping
3219. A child who is always brushing his 3228. This is an abnormal mental
teeth after eating manifests what particular condition whereby a person performs an act
classification of human behavior? while sleeping.
a. Habitual a. somnambulism
b. complex b. mesmerism
c. Instinctive c. somnolencia
d. symbolic d. delirium
3220. Displaying the diplomas and 3229. Animals are used for the
graduation awards signify one’s academic achievement of sexual excitation and
achievement. This classification of human gratification.
behavior is known as: a. voyeurism
a. Habitual b. fetishism
b. complex c. pedophilia
c. Instinctive d. bestiality
d. symbolic 3230. A person suffers from _____ when
3221. Mathematical ability and English he developed a maladaptive behavior in his
communication skills are examples of what childhood as a result of an external influence
type of human behavior? that later on becomes a part of his lifestyle
a. Learned and which he uses to relate to the world
b. inborn around him.
c. Operant a. personality disorder
d. both a and c b. abnormal behavior
3222. Eating when you are hungry is an c. personality behavior
example of _______ behavior. d. abnormal personality
a. Habitual 3231. These are priorities in a hostage
b. complex taking situation EXCEPT,
c. Instinctive a. Preservation of life
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 b. Arrest of hostage taker 3241. A group of bank robbers
c. recover and protect property barricaded themselves inside the bank
d. involve the media together with their hostages; their demand
3232. Containment in a hostage taking is geared towards:
situation refers to: a. revenge
a. police handling of the situation b. economic gain
b. negotiation c. escape
c. contact d. vindication
d. control of area and people 3242. In hostage situation, non-verbal
3233. The cardinal rule to follow in a communication which indicates openness
hostage taking situation is, and willingness to listen can be shown by:
a. commanders should not negotiate, a. a posture of folded arms in a dominant
negotiators should not command position
b. open the communication at once b. calmly repeating words of comfort and
c. negotiate assurance
d. ask for demands c. by not attempting to trick or lie
3234. When both hostage and hostage d. keeping arms open and with a gesture that
taker develop a mutual feeling of sympathy, you are willing to negotiate
understanding, and other shared stand on 3243. It is referred to as sexual
issues, leading them to become enemies of gratification by watching nude woman or
the State, this turn referred to as, man.
a. Stockholm Syndrome a. exhibitionism
b. Confrontation b. voyeurism
c. Negotiation c. transvestitism
d. familiarization d. fetishism
3235. Motivation is classified under 28
needs. The need to assault or injure is: 3244. It is characterized by infantile level
a. need deference  of response, lack of conscience deficient
b. need aggression feeling of affection to others and aggression.
c. need recognition a. schizophrenic personality
d. need order b. psychopathic personality
3236. The need to influence or control c. compulsive neurosis
others is: d. neurotic personality
a. need order  3245. This is a mentally disturbed person
b. need dominance who is opposed to the principles upon which
c. need achievement society is based.
d. need exhibition a. Anti-social
3237. A person has _____ when he/she b. Psychopath
has painful memories associated with some b. Schizophrenic
shocking experience which are repressed d. Sociopath
and cannot be recalled.                        3246. A morbid insanity characterized by
a. anxiety a deep and morbid sense of religious feeling.
b. delusions a. mania
c. amnesia b. mania fanatica
d. phobia b. delusion
3238. The first step in hostage taking d. legal insanity
crisis is:
a. crowd control 3247. This is impairment in desire for
c. negotiation sexual gratification in the male or an inability
b. assault to achieve it.
d. traffic control a. masturbation
3239. Antonio, a funeral parlor attendant b. prostitution
takes place pleasure in imagining having c. exhibitionism
sexual relations with newly dead young d. frigidity
female bodies who were victims of suicides 3248. This is any pattern of behavior
or vehicular accidents. What sexual deviant including a habitual, preferred, and
act did Antonio commit? compelling need for sexual gratification by
a. necrophilia any technique, other than willing coitus
b. rape between man and woman and involving
c. incest actions that are directly results in genital
d. none excite.
3240. The most important person in a a. crime against chastity b. acts
hostage situation: of lasciviousness
a. negotiator c. sexual deviation
b. hostage taker d. sexual offenses
c. commander
d. hostage
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 3249. The best approach in negotiating 3257. In general, hostage takers are
with a Paranoid Schizophrenic hostage taker emotionally tense, when trapped expand a
is: great deal of emotional physical and psychic
a. to accept their beliefs as being true energy, hence:
b. to try to convince them that their beliefs are a. swift and precise attack will be one advantage for
wrong the authorities
c. to show them that they are just crazy b. shortening the time will pressed him to surrender
d. to try to bluff or trick them c. prolonging the passage of time shall wear them
3250. The following are reasons, why down
common criminals are easy to negotiate, d. aggravating their stress will lead them to
except: surrender.
a. fears of police assault and punishment 3258. Considered as a “mortal sin” in
b. criminals are usually rational thinkers hostage situation.
c. they are familiar with police operations and a. giving all the demands of the hostage taker
tactics b. acting that would prejudice the lives of the
d. their ultimate desire is to surrender hostages
3251. In the field of terrorism, the most c. deceiving and bluffing the hostage taker
common tactic used is_____? d. saying “no” to the demands of the hostage taker
A. Kidnapping
C. Bombing 3259. They serve as stimuli-producing
B. Assassination action that satisfies a need:
D. Extortion a. interest
3252. A personality disorder b. perception
characterized by suspiciousness, c. motives
hypersensitivity, envy, excessive self d. drives
important, and argumentativeness, plus a 3260. It is an effective planning,
tendency to blame others for one’s own formulation of an effective plan, policies,
mistakes and failure and to ascribe evil procedures and techniques in dealing with
motives to others. sudden violent act of terrorist.
A. Paranoid Personality a. Crisis management
B. Dependent Personality b. stress mgt.
C. Schizoid Personality c. hostage negotiation
D. Borderline Personality d. political analysis
3253. A personality disorder 3261. Last option in hostage crisis:
characterized by an inability to form social a. crowd control b.
relationships and can be classified as negotiation
“loners”. c. traffic control d.
A. Paranoid Personality assault
B. Schizoid Personality 3262. It is any incident in which people
C. Dependent Personality D. are being held by another person or persons
Borderline Personality against their will, usually by force or
coercion, and demands are being made by
3254. A personality disorder the perpetrator.
characterized by instability, reflected in a. kidnapping
dramatic mood shifts and behavior b. crisis management
problems. Such individuals are frequently c. hostage incident
described as impulsive and unpredictable. d. abduction
A. Borderline Personality B. 3263. “Persons in crisis” are those
Compulsive Personality hostage takers who take hostages:
C. Passive-aggressive Personality D. Anti- a. by reason of mental illness
social Personality b. by reason of prolonged frustration, despair
and problems
3255. When the disorder is characterized c. for personal reason
by chronic mental and physical fatigue and d. because of political and ideological belief
by various aches and pains, it is considered 3264. In psychoanalytic theory, the
as: unconscious wish for death is called;
A. Anxiety Disorder A. eros
B. Somatoform Disorder B. animus
C. Dissociative Disorder C. thanatos
D. Amnesia D. lupus
3256. The cardinal rule to follow in a 3265. In a crisis management, there is no
hostage taking situation is, other purpose but “SALVARI VITAS” , which
a. commanders should not negotiate, means:
negotiators should not command a. the truth will prevail
b. open the communication at once b. kill the hostage-taker
c. negotiate c. to save lives
d. ask for demands d. save the host
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 3266. When a highly trained and b. Ensure that the hostages be set free by
motivated group of hostage takers asked yielding to the demands of the hostage
non-negotiable demands, they were left with takers.
three options: (1) choose martyrdom, kill the c. Hostage takers desist from his threats.
hostages and commit suicide; (2) lessen d. hostage takers come to the fold of the law
demands to a more realistic proportions; by surrendering or be incapable of causing
and (3) surrender. If they choose martyrdom harm
and kill hostages, the useful action is: 3274. Which of the following is
a. attack them swiftly with precision considered least among terroristic tactic?
b. withhold the media from the terrorist a. noise barrage
c. give all their demands b. assassination
d. let the hostages killed c.bombing
3267. In hostage negotiation, if the d.kidnapping
hostage taker demands an 3275. In dealing with the hostage taker,
airplane/helicopter, what will you do? the negotiator should not:
a. go to your ground commander a.give his name
b. give it with consent b. give his rank and designation
c. talk to him and delay the moment c.give in to all demands
d. assault and kill him immediately d.look friendly or accommodating
3276. The highest ranking field
3268. Considered to be the oldest tactic commander should not also be the chief
in terrorism: negotiator because:
a. Prostitution
b. Bombing a. hostage takers will be afraid
c. Assassination b. he is not authorized to grant concessions
d. Kidnapping c. of conflict of interest as mediator and
3269. These are important in a hostage decision maker
taking situation, EXCEPT: d. hostage takers will not trust him
a. Presence of linguist negotiator 3277. What is known to be the oldest but
b. Considerable screening of all members commonly used terrorist tactic where target
c. Dry run or constant practice are often police, military officials or political
d. Inclusion of the media people in the figures?
negotiation a.Hijacking
3270. It is the position from which a unit b. Ambush
commander and his staff exercise command c.Assassination
over the hostage incident. d. Kidnap for Ransom
a. command post 3278. The stage of advance planning,
b. outer perimeter organization and coordination and control in
c. inner perimeter response to an anticipated future crisis
d. command headquarters occurrence is called
3271. It is an assault team responsible in a. Proactive Crisis Management
carrying out assault operation whenever b. Reactive Crisis Management
negotiation fails. c. Performance Stage
a. Negotiation Team d. Reaction Phase
b. Medical Team
c. Tactical Team 3279. A comprehensive plan which
d. Response Team delineates responsibilities and specific action
3272. Pursuant to the PNP Police to be taken when a bomb incident or bomb
Operational Procedures Manual of 2010, this threat occurs is called
group should immediately be activated in a. Floor plan
case of hostage situation: b. Bomb threat plan
a. Hostage Negotiation Team c. Drill
b. Civil Disturbance Management d. Contingency plan
Team
c. Crisis Management Task Group 3280. the crime charged against a child in
d. PNP Command Post conflict with the law is more than 12 years of
3273. P/SSupt. Pablo Job is the highest imprisonment, which will determine
ranking PNP officer who first arrives in a whether diversion is necessary?
hostage taking incident. As a rule he serves A. The Police
now as a ground commander on the said B. The Prosecutor
crisis. Having decided to conduct hostage C. The Court
rescue operations, the objectives are as
follows, except one: D. The Barangay Chairman
a. Ensure that the hostages are safe or 3281. From the moment a child is taken
unharmed, and set free. into custody, the law enforcement officer
shall immediately but not later than
hours after apprehension, turnover custody
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 of the child to the Social Welfare and 3290. It refers to a person whose behavior results with
Development Office. repeated conflict with the law.
A. Nine A. Delinquent
B. Eight B. Habitual delinquent
C. Seven C. Juvenile
D. Six D. Recidivist
3291. Failure to provide for the child’s support for this
3282. An Act Strengthening the Juvenile period shall be a presumptive evidence of the intent to
Justice System in the Philippines. abandon.
A. RA 9344 A. 3 Months
B. RA 10630 B. 5 Months
C. RA 10627 C. 4 Months
D. RA 8960 D. 6 Months
3283. It is one of the most important assets of the nation. 3292. These are undesirable conditions in the community
Thus, every effort should be exerted to promote his which are harmful to the youth, EXCEPT.
welfare and enhance his opportunities for a useful and A. Gambling Houses
happy life. B. Recreational Facilities
A. Teenager C. Vice Dens
B. Kid D. Attractive Nuisances
C. Child 3293. This view asserts that children who started
D. Youth delinquent careers early and committed violent acts
3284. The Juvenile Justice and Welfare Council is under throughout their adolescence would likely to continue as
what agency of the government? adults.
A. Department of Justice A. Culture conflict
B. Department of Social Welfare and Development B. Persistence
C. Department of Tourism C. Containment theory
D. Department of Interior and Local Government D. Reflective role taking
3285. It refers to any form of detention or imprisonment, 3294. If the offender is over nine years of age but under 18
or to the placement of a child in conflict with the law in a years of age at the time of the commission of the crime,
public or private custodial setting, from which the child in he is often referred to as?
conflict with the law is not permitted to leave at will by A. Socialized delinquent
order of any judicial or administrative authority. B. Truant
A. Apprehension C. Criminal
B. Confinement D. Youth offender
C. Deprivation of Liberty 3295. What is an institution that receives and rehabilitates
D. Incarceration youthful offenders or other disturbed children who have
behavioral problems for the purpose of determining the
3286. It refers to any organization whose members are 21 appropriate care for them or recommending their
years or older which is directly or indirectly involved in permanent treatment or rehabilitation in other child
carrying out child welfare activities and programs. welfare agencies?
A. NGO A. Rehabilitation Center
B. Youth association B. Reintegration Center
C. Youth organization C. Reformation Center
D. Civic organization D. Restoration Center
3296. Which among the following is not part of the rights
3287. The taking of the statement of the child in conflict of a child in conflict with the law?
with the law shall be conducted in the presence of the A. The right to be imposed a sentence of capital
following, EXCEPT. punishment or life imprisonment, without the
A. Child’s counsel of choice possibility of release
B. Local Social Welfare and Development Officer B. The right not to be subjected to torture or other
C. Child’s relative cruel, inhuman or degrading treatment or
D. Child’s parents punishment
C. The right not to be deprived, unlawfully or
3288. It shall coordinate with the Local Council for the arbitrarily, of his/her liberty; detention or
Protection of Children in the formulation and imprisonment being a disposition of last resort, and
implementation of juvenile intervention and diversion which shall be for the shortest appropriate period of
programs in the If community. time
A. Women and Children Protection Desk D. The right to bail and recognizance, in appropriate
B. Local Government Unit cases
C. Sangguniang Kabataan 3297. It refers to inherited propensities which cannot be
D. Local Social Welfare and Development considered a criminal one unless there is a probability
3289. It attributes variations in delinquency to influence that a crime will be committed.
social structures. A. Precipitating factor
A. Biogenic approach B. Environmental factor
B. Sociogenic approach C. Biologic factor
C. Psychogenic approach D. Predisposing factor
D. All of these
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3298. A person who learns the facts or circumstances that of that expected of a normal child of the same
give rise to the belief that a child has suffered abuse may chronological age.
report the same to what agency? A. Trainable group
A. School B. Borderline or low normal group
B. Neighborhood Association C. Educable group
C. Barangay Council D. Custodial group
D. Church 3307. This cause of behavioral disorder of the youth is a
3299. Who are those with any behavioral disorder, result of factors such as personal problems, ignorance
whether functional or organic, which of such a degree of and curiosity.
severity as to require professional help or A. Predisposing factor
hospitalization? B. Environmental factor
A. Mentally Ill Children C. Biologic factor
B. Physically Handicapped Children D. Precipitating factor
C. Emotional Disturbed Children 3308. This is where the molding of the character of the
D. Retarded at Maturity child starts and every member of the family should strive
3300. A delinquent child who internalizes his conflicts and to make it a wholesome and a harmonious place.
becomes preoccupied with his feelings is a: A. Family
A. Social delinquent B. Home
B. Accidental delinquent C. Church
C. Asocial delinquent D. School
D. Neurotic delinquent 3309. The youth misdeed may be attributed to their
3301. It exists when the children are maltreated, raped or learning process cultured in on youth gangs, stigmatizing
seduced; when children are exploited, over worried or contacts with governmental and social control agencies
made to beg in the streets or public places, or when and other similar variables.
children are in moral danger, or exposed to gambling, A. Biogenic approach
prostitution, or other vices. B. Socio-genic approach
A. Physically Neglected Child C. Psychogenic approach
B. Emotionally Neglected Child D. None of the above
C. Psychologically Neglected Child 3310. What program is required for the child in conflict
D. Sexually Neglected Child with the law to undergo after he/she is found responsible
3302. The implementation of the comprehensive juvenile for an offense without resorting to formal court
intervention program shall be reviewed and assessed proceedings?
annually by Local Government Unit and its result shall be A. Diversion
submitted by the provincial and city governments to the B. Community Service
Juvenile Justice and Welfare Council not later than of C. Parole
what date of every year? D. Probation
A. February 28 3311. It is the application of the criminal justice to minors
B. April 30 and youthful offender through the cooperation of the
C. March 30 criminal justice system.
D. May 30 A. Child Justice System
3303. This is the highest group of mentally retarded, with B. Youth Justice System
I.Q.s from about 75 to about 89. The members of this C. Minor Justice System
classification are only slightly retarded and they can D. Juvenile Justice System
usually get by in regular classes if they receive some 3312. A category of delinquency which may be credited to
extra help, guidance and consideration. peer pressure or pure curiosity on the part of the young
A. Trainable group person.
B. Custodial group A. Social
C. Educable group B. Accidental
D. Borderline or low normal group C. Neurotic
3304. It refers to any club, organization or association of D. Asocial
individuals below twenty-one years of age which is 3313. Putting a child under duress to consent to engage in
directly or indirectly involved in carrying out child or an activity.
youth welfare programs and activities. A. Coercion
A. Samahan B. Cruelty
B. Student organization C. Molestation
C. Sanguniang Kabataan D. Abuse
D. Youth association 3314. It is otherwise known as Special Protection of
3305. A theory that point criminal behavioral patterns to Children Against Child Abuse, Exploitation and
childhood socialization and pro or anti social attachments Discrimination Act of 1992.
over the life course. A. RA 6809
A. Culture conflict B. RA 9344
B. Social development model C. RA 9262
C. Differential opportunity D. RA 7610
D. Containment theory 3315. It asserts that lower class youths with limited
3306. This group’s I.Q. ranges from about 50 to about 75, legitimate opportunity, join gangs and pursue a criminal
and the intellectual development is approximately ½ to ¾ career to achieve alternate means universal success
goals.
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 A. Culture conflict 3324. It refers to anti-social act which deviates from
B. Social development model normal pattern of rules and regulations.
C. Containment theory A. Recidivism
D. Differential opportunity B. Juvenile delinquency
3316. Under the “Juvenile Justice and Welfare Act of C. Quasi recidivism
2006”, which among the following refers to a child who is D. Delinquency
alleged as, accused of, or adjudged as, having committed 3325. It refers to persons and individuals who are effective
an offense under Philippine laws? deterrents to crime and delinquency such as police or
A. Juvenile Delinquent watchful and concerned neighbors.
B. Child in Conflict with the Law A. Clever guardians
C. Minor Offender B. Proficient guardians
C. Capable guardians
D. Youth Criminal
D. Qualified guardians
3317. It is devoted and focused on curbing the problem on
delinquency through undertaking preventive programs,
policies and activities.
A. Philippine National Police 3326. It exists when the child is malnourished, ill clad and
B. Department of National Defense without proper shelter. A child is unattended when left
C. Local Government by himself without provision for his needs and/or
D. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology without proper supervision. What classification of
3318. An Act Prohibiting the Employment of Children neglected child is this?
Below 15 Years of Age in Public and Private A. Physically Neglected Child
Undertakings. B. Psychologically Neglected Child
A. RA 7610 C. Emotionally Neglected Child
B. RA 9262 D. Sexually Neglected Child
C. RA 7658 3327. It refers to a system dealing with children at risk and
D. RA 9231 children in conflict with the law, which provides child-
3319. A type of gang in which vices, consumption of drugs appropriate proceedings, including programs and
and illicit experiences is stressed. services for prevention, diversion, rehabilitation, re-
A. Conflict sub-culture integration and aftercare to ensure their normal growth
B. Criminal sub-culture and development.
C. Retreatist sub-culture A. Child Justice and Welfare
D. All of these B. Youth Justice and Welfare
3320. It refers to one with no proper parental care or C. Minor Justice and Welfare
guardianship, whose abandonment is for a period of at D. Juvenile Justice and Welfare
least six months. 3328. A phenomenon that occurs when youth who regard
A. Neglected Child themselves as delinquents are giving an inner voice to
B. Deserted Child their perception or view of how significant others feel
C. Unattended Child about them.
D. Abandoned Child A. Reflective role taking
3321. It refers to the programs provided in a community B. Culture conflict
setting developed for purposes of intervention and C. Persistence
diversion, as well as rehabilitation of the child in conflict D. Containment theory
with the law, for reintegration into his/her family and/or 3329. A legal act of entrusting a child to the care of the
community. Department of Social Welfare and Development or any
A. Community Juvenile Programs duly licensed child placement agency or individual.
B. Community Rehabilitation Programs A. Placement
C. Community Outreach Programs B. Commitment
D. Community - Based Programs C. Consignment
3322. Who shall coordinate with the Local Councils for the D. Entrustment
Protection of Children (LCPC) in the formulation and 3330. Failure to provide the basic needs of a child.
implementation of juvenile intervention and diversion A. Abuse
programs in the community? B. Cruelty
A. Sangguniang Kabataan C. Exploitation
B. Kabataan Partylist D. Neglect
C. Commission on Human Right 3331. High moral principles should be instilled in the child
D. National Youth Commission by the following, EXCEPT.
3323. Their degree of success or accomplishment depends A. Government
upon the quality and type of education they receive as B. School
well as on the treatment at home and in the community, C. Home
their I.Q range from about 50 to 75. D. Church
A. Educable 3332. A child left by himself without provisions for his
B. Custodial needs and / or without proper supervision.
C. Borderline A. Unattended Child
D. Trainable B. Neglected Child
C. Dependent Child
D. Abandoned Child
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3333. It refers to an alternative, child-appropriate process 3342. Duty of any head of a public or private hospital upon
of determining the responsibility and treatment of a child any knowledge of a child who have been treated or
in conflict with the law on the basis of his/her social, suffered from abuse.
cultural, economic, psychological or educational A. Report to the DSWD within 48 hours upon discovery
background without resorting to formal court of abuse
proceedings. B. Report the incident to the family
A. Diversion C. Report the incident to the law enforcement
B. Friendly Interview authority
C. Due Process D. File a case in court in behalf of the child
D. Preliminary Investigation 3343. Aside from the child, who may file a complaint
3334. Family home type which provide temporary shelter against any violation of R.A. 7610?
from 10 to 20 days for children under observation by the A. Parents or guardians
DSWD. B. Ascendants or collateral relatives within the 3 rd
A. Receiving homes degree of consanguinity
B. Maternity homes C. Barangay Chairman Officer or DSWD or at least any
C. Nursery three responsible citizen
D. Shelter care institution D. All of the choices
3335. His delinquent act has a cold, brutal, vicious quality 3344. The anti-social behavior of the youth is a direct
for which the youth feels no remorse. result of internal conflict and pre-occupation with his
A. Asocial own emotion and mood.
B. Neurotic A. Neurotic
C. Accidental B. Social
D. Social C. Accidental
3336. It is known as spontaneous remission, it is the D. Asocial
manner by which an individual reduce the rate of their 3345. Forcing an activity on the child without consent.
aberrant behavior as they age. A. Coercion
A. Aging-out B. Abuse
B. Decadence C. Cruelty
C. Desistance D. Molestation
D. Reduction 3346. View that youth can move in and out of delinquency
3337. Who among the following shall primarily ensure that and that their lifestyle can adjust and embrace both
the status, rights and interests of children are upheld in deviant and conventional values.
accordance with the Constitution and international A. Swift
instruments on human rights? B. Drift
A. National Youth Commission C. Coast
B. Kabataan Partylist D. Waft
C. Commission on Human Rights 3347. A term coined by Wolfgang to denote a delinquent
D. Sangguniang Kabataan offender who is arrested more than four times before the
3338. Sellin’s study which asserts that it is a condition age of majority and stands a good chance of becoming an
which results from rules and norms of an individual’s adult criminal.
sub-cultural affiliation disagreement with the role of A. Acute offender
demands of conformist society. B. Severe offender
A. Differential opportunity C. Chronic offender
B. Culture conflict D. Desperate offender
C. Containment theory 3348. A child who is bound to travel abroad alone may do
D. Social development model so with a permit or clearance issued by:
3339. Delinquency is a result of faulty biology or some A. The parents
hereditary defect. B. The guardians
A. Psychogenic approach C. Department of Social Welfare and Development
B. Biologic approach D. Any of the choices
C. Sociogenic approach 3349. This refers to children who are unable to cope with
D. Biogenic approach their family life and chooses to leave the family home.
3340. It is characterized by disrespect or disobedience for This is a direct result of feeble-mindedness, disagreeable
authority. home conditions, broken homes and misdirected fancy
A. Emotional Disorder for adventures.
B. Vagrancy A. Vagrancy
C. Truancy B. Cheating
D. Anti Social Behavior C. Lying
3341. These are crippled, deaf, mute, blind, or otherwise D. Stealing
defective which restricts their means of action on 3350. What is a child caring institution that provides care
communication with others. for six or more children below six years of age twenty-
A. Physically Handicapped Children four hours a day, except those duly licensed to offer
B. Mentally Subnormal primarily medical and educational services?
C. Essentially Incurable A. Nursery
D. Retarded at Maturity B. Detention Home
C. Day Care
D. Maternity
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3351. It refers to the totality of the circumstances and C. Juvenile
conditions, which are most congenial to the survival, D. None of the above
protection and feelings of security of the child and most 3360. What refers to anti-social act or behavior which
encouraging to the child's physical, psychological and deviates from the normal pattern of rules and regulation,
emotional development. custom and culture which society does not accept and
A. Anti Youth Exploitation Measure which therefore, justifies some kind of corrective
B. Special Protection of Minor measures in the public interest and it is being committed
C. Restorative Juvenile Justice by minors?
D. Best Interest of the Child A. Juvenile Delinquency
3352. A place of residence whose primary function is to B. Minor Delinquency
give shelter and care to pregnant women and their C. Child Delinquency
infants. D. Youth Delinquency
A. Maternity home 3361. Police officers who have taken into custody a child in
B. Hospital conflict with the law, under the juvenile justice act is
C. Rehabilitation center mandated to turn over said child to the custody of the
D. Foster homes Department of Social Welfare and Development or any
3353. This may be demonstrated by any of the following: accredited Non-Government Organization immediately
severe anxiety, depression, aggressive or withdrawal but not later than hours after apprehension.
behavior. A. 8
A. Psychological injury B. 24
B. Mental injury C. 12
C. Physical injury D. 36
D. Emotional injury 3362. This type of delinquent youth is characterized by
3354. It refers to a series of activities, which are designed aggressiveness and resentment to the authority of any
to address issues that caused the child to commit an person who tries to control his behavior.
offense. It may take the form of an individualized A. Neurotic
treatment program, which may include counseling, skills B. Accidental
training, education, and other activities that will enhance C. Asocial
his/her psychological, emotional and psychosocial well- D. Social
being. 3363. If the parents, guardians or nearest relatives of the
A. Diversion CICL refused to take custody, the child may be release to
B. Rehabilitation any of the following, EXCEPT.
C. Probation A. Duly registered nongovernmental or religious
D. Intervention organization
3355. If children, whether male or female, who for money, B. A barangay official or a member of the Barangay
profit or any other consideration or due to the coercion Council for the Protection of Children
or influence of any adult, syndicate or group, are indulge C. A local social welfare and development officer
in sexual intercourse or lascivious conduct it is known D. Duly authorized Women and Children Protection
as… Desk Officer
A. Child Abuse 3364. It accounts for individual offender by reference to
B. Child Trafficking learning process, which goes on in youth gangs,
C. Child Prostitution stigmatizing contacts with social control agencies and
D. Child Exploitation other variables of that time.
3356. It implies the keeping of unlawful behavior from A. Biogenic
occurring B. Psychogenic
A. Control C. Phatogenic
B. Recession D. Sociogenic
C. Repression 3365. It plays an active role in the promotion of child
D. Prevention rights, and delinquency prevention by relaying consistent
3357. Under the “Juvenile Justice and Welfare Act of messages through a balanced approach.
2006”, it refers to the person in authority or his/her A. The mass media
agent as defined in Article 152 of the Revised Penal Code, B. The family
including a barangay tanod. C. The community
A. Police Officer D. The educational system
B. Probation Officer 3366. What approach towards delinquency views the
C. Law Enforcement Officer lawbreaker as a person whose misconduct is the result of
D. Public Officer faulty biology?
3358. He is one whose basic needs have been deliberately A. Phatogenic
unattended or inadequately attended. B. Biogenic
A. Abandoned Child C. Psychogenic
B. Abused Child D. Sociogenic
C. Neglected Child 3367. In determining whether diversion is appropriate and
D. Dependent Child desirable, the following factors shall be taken into
3359. This period of human life covers puberty to 17 years consideration, EXCEPT.
old.
A. Adolescence A. The safety of the child
B. Early adolescence
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 B. The nature and circumstances of the offense charged by activating the offender, the victim and the community
in prevention strategies.
C. The circumstances of the child A. Restorative Justice
D. The best interest of the child B. Rehabilitative Justice
3368. It refers to offenses, which discriminate only against C. Reformative Justice
a child, while an adult does not suffer any penalty for D. Reintegrative Justice
committing similar acts. These shall include curfew 3377. It refers to a 24-hour residential care facility
violations; truancy, parental disobedience and the like. managed by the Department of Social Welfare and
A. Delinquency Development (DSWD), LGUs, licensed and/or accredited
B. Exclusive NGOs monitored by the DSWD, which provides care,
C. Status treatment and rehabilitation services for children in
D. Grave conflict with the law. Rehabilitation services are provided
3369. Children detained pending trial may be released on under the guidance of a trained staff where residents are
bail or as provided for under Sections 34 cared for under a structured therapeutic environment
and 35 of RA 9344. with the end view of reintegrating them into their
A. Probation families and communities as socially functioning
B. Recognizance individuals. Physical mobility of residents of said centers
C. Parole may be restricted pending court disposition of the
D. Bond charges against them.
3370. Which of the following refers to the maltreatment of A. Youth Reformation Center
a minor, whether habitual or not? B. Youth Reintegration Center
A. Caress C. Youth Rehabilitation Center
B. Abuse D. Youth Restoration Center
C. Discrimination 3378. The child who is under 18-years of age at the time of
D. Exploitation the commission of the offense is found guilty of the
3371. He is one who is without a parent or guardian, or offense charged, shall place the child under
whose parents, guardian or other custodian for good .
cause desire to be relieved of his care and custody; and is A. Recognizance
dependent upon the public of support. B. Diversion
A. Abandoned Child C. Bail
B. Neglected Child D. Suspended Sentence
C. Abused Child
D. Dependent Child 3379. Who is the chairman of the Lupon Tagapamayapa in
3372. It refers to aggregate of persons or those responsible the Barangay Level where there is a diversion program?
persons from various sector of the community. A. Punong Barangay
A. Organization B. BCPC Chairman
B. Association C. LSWDO
C. Club D. PNP member
D. Samahan
3373. A 24-hour child-caring institution that provide short 3380. This criminal justice model is
term resident care for youthful offenders. based on the idea that the most important
A. Bahay Pag-asa function of the CJS is the protection of the
B. Nursery public and the repression of criminal
C. Child caring institution conduct.
D. Foster home a. Crime prevention
b. Crime control
3374. The parents of guardian of a working child is c. Law and order
obligated by law to set up a trust fund for the child which d. Due process
shall constitute at least percent of the earning of 3381. According to this criminal justice
the child. model, the rights of an individual must be
A. 20 co-equal with the concern for public safety.
B. 40 a. Crime prevention
C. 30 b. crime control
D. 50 c. Law and order
3375. The chairman of Juvenile Justice and Welfare Council d. due process
under the law is: 3382. This concerns to the obligations of
A. The undersecretary of the DOJ the community to individuals, and requires
B. The undersecretary of DepEd fair disbursement of common advantages
C. The undersecretary of the DILG and sharing of common burden.
D. The undersecretary of the DSWD a. Prosecution
3376. It refers to a principle, which requires a process of b. justice
resolving conflicts with the maximum involvement of the c. equality
victim, the offender and the community. It seeks to d. trial
obtain reparation for the victim; reconciliation of the 3383. This function of the law
offender, the offended and the community; and enforcement is being done through
reassurance to the offender that he/she can be elimination of factors influencing the
reintegrated into society. It also enhances public safety occurrence of crimes, good community
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 relations, educating the citizens about their 3392. This document is required by the
role, introduction of delinquency prevention Prosecutor’s Office before it can entertain a
programs, good parenting and others. complaint on a case covered by the Barangay
a. Maintenance of law and order Court.
b. Reduction of crime a. Certificate of Non-Settlement
c. crime prevention b. Certificate of Non-arbitration
d. crime control c. Certificate to file action
3384. This principal character of the d. complaint affidavit
criminal justice process links all components 3393. It refers to the study of the various
of the CJS. agency of our government in charged of
a. Offender processing law violators to ensure the
b. Victim protection of the society and maintenance of
c. witness peace and order.
d. Crime a. Criminology
3385. The frontline defender of b. Criminal Justice
democracy in the CJS. c. Victimlogy
a. Prosecution d. Sociology
b. Correction 3394. Refers to the person who is being
c. Police implicated to the commission of a crime and
d. Court subject of an investigation.
3386. He is responsible in evaluating the a. Convict
evidence the police have gathered and b. respondent
deciding whether it is sufficient to warrant c. Accused
the filing of charge(s) against the alleged d. suspect
violator. 3395. Is the machinery of the state which
a. Investigator enforces the rules of conduct necessary to
b. judge protect life and property and to maintain
c. prosecutor peace and order?
d. solicitor genera a. Criminal Justice System
3387. He is an arbiter in court who b. Criminology
ensues that the defense and the prosecution c. Criminal law
adhere to the legal requirements of d. Criminal jurisprudence
introducing evidences. 3396. It is that degree of proof requires
a. Clerk of court in criminal case which would convince a
b. judge reasonable mind based on moral certainty
c. sheriff but which nevertheless does not preclude
d. jury the possibility of error.
3388. The pillar of the CJS which is not a. Preponderance of evidence
under the executive branch of the b. Clear and convincing evidence
government. c. substantive evidence
a. law enforcement (Excutive) d. proof beyond reasonable doubt
b. court
c. prosecution (Executive) 3397. A negotiation between the defense
d. correction (judiciary) counsel and the prosecutor, aimed at
3389. This is a governmental body that is reaching an agreement whereby the
charged with the responsibility of prosecutor uses discretion to obtain from
administering justice. the judge a lighter sentence in exchange for
a. Law enforcement the defendant’s entering a guilty plea.
b. correction a. arraignment
c. Prosecution b. preliminary investigation
d. court c. pre-trial
3390. Any person directly vested with d. plea bargaining
jurisdiction, whether as an individual or as a
member of some court, Government 3398. The PNP is the law enforcement
Corporation, board or commission. agency of the country which is under the
a. Agent of person in authority ________?
b. Government employee a. DOJ
c. Government officer b. DILG
d. person in authority c. NAPOLCOM
3391. A pillar of CJS which occupies a d. DSWD
unique position in the Philippine Criminal 3399. A person who is under custodial
Justice System serving as the lawyer of the investigation is basically protected by a
State or government in criminal cases. number of rights mandated under the
a. law enforcement constitution and this was even expounded in
b. court the legislative act known as _______?
c. prosecution a. Miranda Doctrine
d. correction b. R.A. 7438
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 c. Bill of Rights c. Criminal apprehension d. law
d. R.A. 6975 enforcement
3400. A body officially assembled under 3408. Directly under the supervision of
authority of law in which judicial power is the Department of Justice, its most
vested or the administration of justice is important function in the Criminal Justice
delegated. System is to maintain and recognize the rule
a. court of law through the speedy d2elivery of
b. corrections services particularly in the prosecution and
c. prosecution investigation of all crimes.
d. law enforcement a. National Prosecution Service
3401. A body of civil authority tasked to b. PNP
maintain peace and order, enforce the law, c. Ombudsman
protect life, liberty and property and ensure d. Solicitor General
public safety. 3409. What do you call a court covering
a. police two (2) or more municipalities?
b. prosecution a. MTC
c. court b. MeTC
d. corrections c. MCTC
3402. System of taking care of the d. MTC’s
custody, rehabilitation and treatment of 3410. What is that term which refers to
persons convicted of committing crime. the wise use of one’s own judgment in a
a. police given situation without referring to your
b. prosecution superior due to the eminence of the
c. court situation?
d. corrections a. Police resourcefulness b. Police
3403. The “Anti Graft and Corrupt discretion
Practices Act”. c. Police integrity d. police
a. R.A. 8294 prudence
b. R.A. 7080 3411. It refers to the art or science of
c. R.A. 1379 identifying law violators, locating and tracing
d. R.A. 3019 them in order to affect their arrest and
gather evidence to prove their guilt in court.
a. Crime prevention
3404. Exclusive original jurisdiction over b. criminal investigation
all offenses punishable with imprisonment c. Crime control
not exceeding six years. d. Intelligence work
a. Supreme Court 3412. An attached agency of the Office of
c. RTC the President tasked to implement and
b. Court of Appeals undertake drug law enforcement.
d. MTC a. Narcotics Command
3405. It is otherwise known as the b. AID-SOTF
Department of the Interior and Local c. PDEA
Government Act of 1990, enacted on d. NBI
December 13, 1990. Established the PNP, 3413. Sworn statement, subscribed by
BFP, BJMP and the PPSC. Offended party, any peace officer of public
a. R.A. 6975 officer in charged of enforcement of the law
b. P.D. 1184 violated filed either to the court or to the
c. R.A. 8551 office of the prosecutor.
d. R.A. 6040 a. Complaint
b. Information
3406. Refers to that sector of society c. Pleadings
composed of NGO’s, cause oriented groups d. Affidavit
and advocacy groups that promote the
welfare of the people against all forms of 3414. Is an inquiry or proceeding to
abuse and exploitation. determine whether there is sufficient ground
a. crime control to engender a well-founded belief that a
b. political parties crime has been committed and the
c. civil society respondent is probably guilty thereof, and
d. volunteer should be held for trial.
3407. It is the process of reducing if not a. preliminary investigation
eliminate the existence of a cause from b. Prejudicial question
initially occurring, thus, lessen the police c. inquest proceeding
work as suppressing the spread of d. custodial investigation
criminality.
a. Crime Prevention 3415. Preliminary investigation is
b. Crime control conducted on cases punishable by:

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 a. at least four (4) years, two (2) months and one (1) c. Jurisprudence
day. d. Territory
b. more than four years, two months and one day 3424. It is the authority of the court to
c. less than four years, two months and one day try/hear cases for the first time to the
d. six years, one day and above exclusion of other courts.
3416. It is the actual restraint of a person a. original jurisdiction
into custody of the law in order for him to b. exclusive jurisdiction
answer for the commission of an offense. c. appellate jurisdiction
a. Arrest d. concurrent jurisdiction
b. investigation 3425. It is the formal reading of the
c. invitation charges against a person accused of a crime
d. seizure and latter asking him whether he pleads
3417. It refers to the ways and means of guilty or not to the crime charged.
trapping and capturing the law breakers in a. arraignment
the execution of their criminal plan. b. preliminary investigation
a. Instigation c. plea
b. Entrapment d. promulgation of judgment
c. Investigation 3426. It is a body of men created to settle
d. Raid disputes within Barangay level.
3418. A pillar of our CJS which is not a. barangay tanod
under or interdependent from any branch of b. pangkat tagapagkasundo
government. c. barangay council
a. prosecution d. lupon tagapamayapa
b. correction 3427. It is the most common way by
c. court which the police discovers or it informed
d. community that a crime has been committed:
3419. During trial of a criminal case, it is a. When the witness voluntarily reports the
the prosecutor who directs the prosecution crime.
of the offense and he/she did it on the b. When the police discovers the crime
behalf of the state. Once a case is elevated c. When the victim reports the crime
to the higher court such as Court of Appeals, d. When the suspect surrenders
who represents the State in the prosecution 3428. The Lupon Tagapamayapa shall be
of the offense? composed of the Brgy. Chairman as
a. Chief State Prosecutor Chairman of the Lupon and the Brgy.
b. Solicitor General Secretary as the Secretary of the Lupon and
c. National or provincial prosecutor other members who shall be:
d. Judge a. more than 10 but less than 20
3420. It refers to the questioning b. not less than 10 but not more than 20
initiated by law enforcement officer after a c. more than 10
person has been taken into custody. d. less than 10
a. custodial investigation 3429. When arrest may be made?
b. interview a. At any time of the day and night
c. inquest b. At day time
d. interrogation c. At night time
3421. In cases committed by Public d. from sun dust till dawn
officer with salary grade 27 and above in 3430. Under what circumstances arrest
violation of Act 3019, R.A. 1379 or Art. 210 can be made even without a warrant?
to 212 of the Revised Penal Code a a. All of the choices
complaint should first be filed to the office of b. When the crime was committed in the presence of
_______ for the conduct of the required the arresting officer.
preliminary investigation. c. When the crime was in fact been committed and
a. Ombudsman there is personal knowledge based on probable
b. Solicitor General cause that the person to be arrest has committed it.
c. Judge of MTC d. When the person to be arrested is an escapee
d. the President 3431. It is a process directed to a person
3422. In flagrante delicto means ______? requiring him to attend and to testify or to
a. caught in the act bring with him any books or documents
b. caught after commission under his control at the trial of an action.
c. instigation a. subpoena
d. entrapment b. subpoena ad testificandum
3423. Courts in the Philippines are cloth c. subpoena duces tecum
with the power or try cases submitted to for d. warrant of arrest
adjudication. What term is use in referring to
the authority or power to hear and decided 3432. The “anti-Plunder Act”.
cases. a. R.A. 7080
a. Jurisdiction c. R.A. 3019
b. Venue b. R.A. 1379
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 d. R.A. 6713 a. Court of Justice
3433. This attached agency of the DOJ is b. Court of Appeals
tasked to provide free legal assistance to c. Sandiganbayan
poor members of society: d. Court of Tax Appeals
a. National Bureau of Investigation 3441. It a writ order of the court bearing
b. National Prosecution Service its seal and the signature of the judge
c. Board of Pardons and Parole directing the jail or prison authorities to
d. Public Attorney’s Office receive the convicted offender for service of
3434. This is the power to apply the law sentence.
to contests or disputes concerning legally a. Commitment Order
recognized rights or duties between the b. Mittimus
state and private persons, or between c. warrant of arrest
individual litigants in cases properly brought d. habeas corpus
before the judicial tribunal.
a. Judicial Power
b. Judicial Review
c. Court
d. Court of Justice
3435. This is the process or method
whereby accusations are brought before the
court of justice to determine the innocence
or guilt of the accused.
a. Prosecutor
b. Prosecution
c. Trial
d. Preliminary Investigation
3436. The settlement of a dispute by a
person/s chosen to hear both sides and to
come to a decision.
a. Mediation
b. Settlement
c. Arbitration
d. Agreement
3437. One who prosecutes another for a
crime in the name of the government?
a. Public Prosecutor
b. Private Prosecutor
c. Prosecution
d. Ombudsman
3438. It refers to the “court of last
resort”.
a. RTC
b. Sandiganbayan
c. Supreme Court
d. MTC
3439. This court was created under RA
1125, as amended, which has exclusive
appellate jurisdiction to review on appeal
decisions of the Commissioner of the
Internal Revenue involving internal revenue
taxes and decisions of the Commissioner of
Customs involving customs duties.
a. Court of Justice
b. Court of Appeals
c. Sandiganbayan
d. Court of Tax Appeals

3440. This court has jurisdiction over

crimes committed by high-ranking public
officials (with salary grade of 27 above),
which can only be committed because of
their position.
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 3449. It is a form of motivation granted
by the Director of Prisons whereby a number
of days are deducted from the length of
years that a prisoner have been sentenced
to serve for his good conduct.
a. Commutation of sentence
b. Parole
c. GCTA
d. reprieve
3450. Correctional institutions in the
3442. Is that branch of the criminal country is divided into National and Local
justice system charged with the custody, institution. What Department of the
supervision and rehabilitation of a convicted Executive Branch is the one in charge of the
offender. National Penitentiary?
a. Penology a. Bureau of Jail Management and
b. Probation Penology
c. Correction b. Department of Justice
d. Criminology c.Department of Interior and Local
3443. Executive clemencies are acts of Government
grace exercise by the president. Which of the d. Bureau of Correction
following is not one of them?
a. Pardon 3451. It is the suffering that is inflicted by
b. Amnesty the state for the transgression of the law.
c. Commutation of Sentence a. penalty
d. Parole b. self-defense
3444. Prison is a place for confinement of c. exemplarity
convicted prisoners. What classification of d. punishment
prisoners is sentenced to serve a prison term
of one day to three (3) years or whose fine is 3452. City and Municipal is the division of
less than 6,000 but more than 200 or both? our correctional institution which primarily
a. National prisoner in charge of those detention prisoner,
b. City prisoner awaiting for final judgment of their trial and
c. provincial prisoner serving short sentences and under the
d. municipal prisoner Bureau of Jail Management and Penology.
While it is true that even the Provincials Jails
3445. Prisons are institution for like the City and Municipal Jails are under
confinement of convicted offenders the DILG, it is subject to the control and
sentenced to more than three (3) years of supervision of the __________?
imprisonment. It is derived from the Greco- a. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology b.
Roman word _____? Department of Justice
a. Presinto c. Bureau of Correction
b. Precindio d. Provincial government
c. presidio 3453. This is the process wherein the
d. precinto inmate, after serving his sentence, is
3446. There are how many members the released to be able to mingle with the
composed the Lupon? community.
a. 3 members a. Reintegration
b. 5 to 10 members b. reincarnation
c. 10 to 20 members c. Realization
d. 5 members d. Rehabilitation
3447. It is granted to convicted offenders 3454. It refers to the examination of an
who have served a portion of their service individual’s person, house, papers or effects,
granted by the Board of Pardons and Parole. or other buildings and premises to discover
a. Pardon contraband or some evidence of guilt to be
b. Probation used in the prosecution of a criminal action:
c. Amnesty a. Search
d. Parole b. seizure
3448. It is a security facility, usually c. Raid
operated by the police stations, for the d. entrapment
temporary detention of persons held for
investigation or awaiting preliminary 3455. This court was established by
investigation before the prosecutor. virtue of PD1083, otherwise known as “Code
a. Lock-up jail of Muslim Personal Laws of the Philippines”.
b. Ordinary jail a. Court of Tax Appeals
c. workhouses b. Shari’a Court
d. prison c. Sandiganbayan
d. Family Court
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 3456. Refers to any person below 18 a. swift and precise attack will be one advantage for
years of age or those over but unable to fully the authorities
take care of themselves from neglect, abuse, b. shortening the time will pressed him to surrender
cruelty, exploitation or discrimination due to c. prolonging the passage of time shall wear them
some physical defect or mental disability or down
condition. d. aggravating their stress will lead them to
a. child surrender
b. wards 3465. When a highly trained and
c. physically disabled motivated group of hostage takers asked
d. youth non-negotiable demands , they were left
3457. Act or omission which may not be with three options: (1) choose martyrdom,
punishable if committed by an adult, but kill the hostages and commit suicide; (2)
becomes unlawful when they are committed lessen demands to a more realistic
by a child or a person of tender year or one proportions; and (3) surrender. If they
who is in need of supervision or assistance. choose martyrdom and kill hostages, the
a. crime useful action is:
b. status offense a. attack them swiftly with precision
c. delinquency b. withhold the media from the terrorist
d. felonies c. give all their demands
3458. It is the scientific study of crime d. let the hostages killed
and the effort of the society to prevent and 3466. The best approach in negotiating
repressed them? with a Paranoid Schizophrenic hostage taker
a. Penology is:
b. Victimology a. to accept their beliefs as being true
c. Criminology b. to try to commence them that their beliefs are
d. Sociology of law wrong
c. to show them that they are just crazy
3459. In hostage situation, non-verbal d. to try to bluff or trick them
communication which indicates openness 3467. The following are reasons, why
and willingness to listen can be shown by: common criminals are easy to negotiate,
a. a posture of folded arms in a dominant position except:
b. calmly repeating words of comfort and a. fears of police assault and punishment
assurance b. criminals are usually rational thinkers
c. by not attempting to trick or lie c. they are familiar with police operations and tactics
d. keeping arms open and with a gesture that you d. their ultimate desire is to surrender
are willing to negotiate
3460. These are priorities in a hostage 3468. Considered as a “mortal sin” in
taking situation EXCEPT, hostage situation.
a. Preservation of life a. giving all the demands of the hostage taker
b. Arrest of hostage taker b. acting that would prejudice the lives of the
c. recover and protect property hostages
d. involve the media c. deceiving and bluffing the hostage taker
3461. A hostage taker is characteristically d. saying “no” to the demands of the hostage taker
all of these, EXCEPT
a. mental derange 3469. P/SSupt. is the highest ranking PNP
b. suffers severe depression and mental aberration officer who first arrives in a hostage taking
c. sociopath personality incident. As a rule he serves now as a ground
d. mental balance commander on the said crisis. Having
decided to conduct hostage rescue
3462. These are not negotiable in a operations, the objectives are as follows,
hostage taking situation: except one:
a. guns and ammunition a. Ensure that the hostages are safe or unharmed
b. drinks and set free.
c. foods b. Ensure that the hostages be set free by yielding to
d. all of the choices the demands of the hostage takers.
c. Hostage takers desist from his threats.
3463. One of the following is not a d. Hostage takers come to the fold of the law by
terrorist tactics: surrendering or be incapable of causing harm
a. bombing 3470. In a hostage negotiation and crisis
b. assassination management practice, it is a “cardinal rule”:
c. hostage-taking a. To bear weapon when talking to the hostage-taker
d. media exposure face to face
3464. In general, hostage takers are b. Seek better alternative than a negotiated
emotionally tense when trapped expand a agreement
great deal of emotional physical and psychic c. Not to agitate the hostage-taker
energy, hence: d. Never say “NO” to the demands of the hostage
taker
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 3471. In a crisis management, there is no B.Initialcontact
other purpose but “SALVARI VITAS”, which C.Childcustody
means: D. All of the above
a. the truth will prevail
3480. It is the study of human society, its
b. kill the hostage-taker
origin structure, functions and direction.
c. to save lives
d. save the hostages a. criminology
b. sociology
3472. Considered as a “Mortal Sin” in a c. psychology
hostage negotiation. d. anthropology
a. Giving all the demands of the hostage-taker 3481. The science of classifying the
b. Acting that would prejudice the lives of the
physical characteristics.
hostages
c. Deceiving and bluffing the hostage-taker a. free will
d. Saying “NO” to the demands of the hostage-taker b. positivism
c. atavism
3473. Last option in hostage crisis: d. somatology
a. crowd control 3482. The approach that is using the
b. negotiation perspective of heredity in explaining the
c. traffic control
cause of crime.
d. assault
a. geographical approach
3474. It is any incident in which people b. biological approach
are being held by another person or persons c. psychiatric application
against their will, usually by force or d. psychological application
coercion, and demands are being made by 3483. The purpose of penalty in the
the perpetrator. positivism school of criminology.
a. kidnapping
a. retribution
b. crisis management
c. hostage incident b. rejection
d. abduction c. reformation
d. restoration
3475. The following are the priorities in 3484. It is the study of formation of the
hostage taking situation, except: skull in relation to the behavior of the
a. preservation of life
criminal.
b. arrest of the hostage-taker
a. entomology
c. inclusion of the media
d. successfully negotiate b. penology
3476. “Persons in crisis” are those c. phrenology
hostage takers who take hostages: d. criminology
a. by reason of mental illness 3485. Children shall be given priority
b. by reason of prolonged frustration, during_____ as result of armed conflict.?
despair and problems
a. war
c. for personal reason
d. because of political and ideological belief b. treatment
3477. This is an assault team responsible c. evacuation
in carrying out assault operation whenever d. education
negotiation fails. 3486. Science concerned with improving
a. medical team the quality of offspring.
b. tactical team a. criminology
c. negotiation team b. eugenics
d. snipers c. genetics
3478. This asserts that strong self-image d. heredity
protects the youth from the influence and 3487. Commonly known as victimless
pressure of criminogenic pulls in his crime:
environment. A.occassional crime
A. Rational theory
B.political crime
B. Conflict theory
C. Label theory C.public order crime
D. Containment theory D. conventional crime
3479. The apprehension or taking into
custody of a child in conflict with the law by 3488. A child whose basic needs have
law enforcement officers or private citizens been deliberately unattended.
is termed as: a. abandoned child
b. dependent child
A.Arrest c. abusive child

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G.S.T. 2019
 d. neglected child 3497. What is the antonyms of the word
3489. The principle that events including arrest?
criminal behavior that has sufficient causes.. A. Apprehend
a. atavism B. Search
b. narassism C. Set free
c. determinism D. Renounce
d. positivism 3498. How many members composed
3490. An established and generally the “Pangkat?”
accepted moral values refer to. A. 1 member
C. 2 members
a. integrity
B. 3 members
b. morality D. 5 members
c. ethical standard 3499. He founded Sociology and applied
d. authority scientific methods in the study of society,
3491. This refers to a significant loss of which to him passes through stages divided
contact with reality. on the basis of how people try to understand
a. split mind it, leading them to adopt a rational scientific
understanding of the world. Comte called
b. psychosis
this the positive stage and those who
c. neurosis followed his writings were called,
d. schizoprenia a. August Comte
b. Positivists
3492. What is a person who kills 3 or c. Positivism
more in a separate events? d. Sociologists
3500. Refers to the counsel provided by
the government to assist destitute litigant?
A.mass murder
a. Counsel de officio
B. serial killer b. counsel de parte
C.homicidal    c. Public Attorney’s Office
D. spree killer d. volunteer counsel
3493. A bank robber who kills some 3501. He represent the government’s
individual in the bank, flees with hostages, position in a criminal case during court
and kills a number of people while in flight proceedings from the time of the suspect’s
diving a chase would be an example of: arrest until the adjudication of his case.
a. Counsel de officio
A. Serial Murder b. counsel de parte
B. Spree Murder c. Public Attorney’s Office
d. prosecutor
C. Mass Murder
3502. What is the highest rank in the
D. Multiple Murder national prosecution service SERVICE?
3494. What is the legal term for a. Prosecutor V
nighttime? b. Prosecutor IV
A. sanctuary c. Prosecutor VI
B.absurdity d. Chief Prosecutor
C. ephitomy
3503. The Office of the
D. nocturnity
____________represents the Government of
3495. These are the rights of an accused the Philippines, its agencies and
that are derived from special laws enacted instrumentalities and its officials and agents
by Congress. in any litigation, proceeding, investigation or
A. Constitutional rights matter requiring the services of lawyers
B. Civil rights a. Solicitor General
b. Public Attorney’s Office
C.Statutoryrights
c. Counsel de officio
D. Natural rights b. counsel de parte
3496. If Metro Manila accounts for 26% 3504. An office which Investigate and
of the national total crime volume of 84, prosecute on its own or on complaint by any
875, How many crimes were reported to the person, any act or omission of any public
police? officer or employee, office or agency, when
a. 22, 868 such act or omission appears to be illegal,
unjust, improper or inefficient
b. 22, 068
c. 20, 250 a. Solicitor General Office
d. 32, 644 b. Public Attorney’s Office
c. Ombudsman

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 b. Sandiganbayan 3512. It refers the process whereby
3505. An office which shall disputants are persuaded by the Punong
independently discharge its mandate to Barangay or Pangkat to amicably settle their
render, free of charge, legal representation, disputes
a. agreement
assistance, and counselling to indigent
b. conciliation
persons in criminal, civil, labor, c. conference
administrative and other quasi-judicial cases b. mediation
a. Solicitor General Office 3513. This theory views crime and
b. Public Attorney’s Office delinquency as a result of the frustration and
c. Ombudsman anger people experience over their inability
b. Sandiganbayan to achieve legitimate social and financial
3506. Is an inquiry or proceeding to success.
determine whether there is sufficient a. strain theory
ground to engender a well-founded belief b. psychological theories
that a crime has been committed and the c. differential association theory
respondent is probably guilty thereof and d. labeling theory
should be held for trial
a. custodial investigation 3514. This theory suggest that stability
b. inquest proceeding and changes in criminal and deviant
c. preliminary investigation behavior through time and different stages
b. arraignment in life.
3507. Is an inquiry made by the duty a. Self Derogation Theory
prosecutor to determine the legality of the b. Anomie Theory
arrest made especially those arrests made c. Life Course Theory
without a warrant d. Routine Activities Theory
a. custodial investigation
b. inquest proceeding 3515. This theory suggest that females
c. preliminary investigation and males are becoming equal in society in
b. arraignment terms of family, politics, and education
3508. It is the power to apply the laws to A.Feminist Theory
contests or disputes concerning legally B. Paternalism
recognized rights or duties of and between C.Liberation Theory
the state and the private persons or D. Life Course Theory
between individual litigants in cases properly 3516. In the power control theory by
brought before the judicial tribunals. Hagan, which father and mother share
similar roles in the workplace and power in
a. court power the family
b. legal power a. Feminist theory
c. judicial power b. Egalitarian family
b. right power c. Patriarchal family
3509. It has original exclusive jurisdiction d. Matriarchal family
over public officers accused of committing 3517. These views suggest that males
crimes in relation to their official functions such as judges, police officers, and
and whose salary grade is 27 and above. prosecutors tend to have traditional views
on women thus, they are more lenient to
a. Solicitor General Office them as compared to their male
b. Public Attorney’s Office counterparts.
c. Ombudsman a. Paternalism
b. Sandiganbayan b. Chivalry Hypothesis
c. Masculinity
3510. It is said that the home is the d. Power Control Theory
cradle of human personality, for it where the 3518. This new branch in criminology
child develops his fundamental attitudes and opposes the theoretical perspective and
habits that last throughout his life proposes the involvement of all stakeholders
a. school in the use of non violent solutions
b. community a. Peacemaking Criminology
c. barangay b. Sociology of Law
b. family c. Restorative Justice
3511. It is a body of men created to settle d. Non Violent Criminological Hypothesis
disputes within Barangay level. 3519. This crimes are those that the
lower class commit against the upper class of
a. barangay tanod
society in a capitalist system
b. barangay council
a. Crimes of Passion
c. pangkat tagpagkasundo
b. Crimes of Accommodation and Resistance
b. lupon tagapamayapa
c. Crimes of domination and. Repression

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 d. Crimes of Lower class group c. Social Process Theory
3520. The ruling class in a capitalist d. Social Reaction theory
system is the 3529. Cesare Lombroso classified this
a. Proletariat type of criminal with five (5) or more
b. Bourgeois atavistic stigmata.
c. Capitalist a. Born-criminal type
d. Ruling class b. insane
3521. Who proposed the theory of c. Criminaloid
capitalism and invoked communism as a d. pseudo-criminal
remedy? 3530. These are crimes which are wrong
a. George Vold from their very nature. Examples of these
b. Karl Marx are murder, robbery, and other violations of
c. Emile Durkheim the Revised Penal Code.
d. Max Weber a. Heinous crimes
3522. This theory believes that society is b. mala in se
divided into two groups with competing c. Serious crimes
values the upper class and lower class. d. mala prohibita
a. Class Theory 3531. These are crimes which are wrong
b. Differential Opportunity only because there are laws that prohibit
c. Conflict Theory them in order to regulate an orderly society.
d. Consensus Theory Examples of these are the violations of
3523. A problem that occurs when special laws like the violation of “Anti-
offenders who have been released from the Smoking Law”.
system are placed in a program simply a. Mala prohibita
because the program exist. b. less grave felonies
a. Diversion Movement c. Mala in se
b. Intervention d. light felonies
c. Net widening 3532. The principle of criminal law which
d. Primary Deviance is “nullum crimen nulla poena sine lege”
3524. It conceded factors such as insanity means:
might inhibit the exercise of free will. a. An act done by me against my will is not my
a. Classical theory act
b. positivist theory b. There is no crime where no law punishing it.
c. Neo-classical theory c. Ignorance of the law excuses no one.
d. radical theory d. Mistake of fact is an excuse.
3533. He was the one who introduced
3525. His great contributions to the following definition of criminology: “It is
criminology were the principle of the entire body of knowledge regarding
utilitarianism and the felicific calculus. crime as a social phenomenon. It includes
a. Cesare Beccaria within its scope the process of making laws,
b. Jeremy Bentham of breaking laws and of reacting towards the
c. Cesare Lombroso breaking of the laws”:
d. Emile Durkheim a) Raffaelle Garofalo
3526. He propounded the theory of b) Edwin Sutherland
evolution that inspired the now known c) Cesare Beccaria
“Father of Modern Criminology” to develop d) Paul Topinard
the theory of atavism. 3534. Classical Theory states that
a. Cesare Lombroso individuals have freewill. It is focused on an
b. Charles Goring individual's choice as to whether or not he
c. Cesare Beccaria will commit a crime and the purpose of
d. Charles Darwin Classical Theory in giving punishment
3527. According to him, people with is________________.
criminal behavior, should be prohibited from a) Restoration
having children. b) Treatment
a. Robert Dugdale c) Retribution
b. Henry Goddard d) Deterrence
c. Charles Goring
d. George Wilker 3535. Refers to the circumstances which
attendant in the commission of a crime serve
3528. It states that individuals are to increase the penalty, without however
deviant mainly because they have been exceeding the maximum of the penalty
labeled as deviant by social agencies and provided by law for the offense.
others. The notion of deviance is not a. Justifying
inherent in the act itself, but rather in the b. Exempting
reaction and stigma attached to the actor. c. Mitigating
a. Containment Theory d. Aggravating
b. Theory of Imitation
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 3536. Those wherein the acts of the b. Early adolescence
person are in accordance with the law, c. Juvenile
hence he incurs no criminal liability. d. None of the above
a. Exempting 3545. What refers to anti-social act or behavior which
b. aggravating deviates from the normal pattern of rules and regulation,
c. Justifying custom and culture which society does not accept and
d. Mitigating which therefore, justifies some kind of corrective
measures in the public interest and it is being committed
3537. A place of residence whose primary function is to by minors?
give shelter and care to pregnant women and their a. Juvenile Delinquency
infants. b. Minor Delinquency
a. Maternity home c. Child Delinquency
b. Hospital d. Youth Delinquency
c. Rehabilitation center 3546. Police officers who have taken into custody a child in
d. Foster homes conflict with the law, under the juvenile justice act is
3538. This may be demonstrated by any of the following: mandated to turn over said child to the custody of the
severe anxiety, depression, aggressive or withdrawal Department of Social Welfare and Development or any
behavior. accredited Non-Government Organization immediately
a. Psychological injury but not later than hours after apprehension.
b. Mental injury a. 8
c. Physical injury b. 24
d. Emotional injury c. 12
3539. It refers to a series of activities, which are designed d. 36
to address issues that caused the child to commit an 3547. This concerns to the obligations of
offense. It may take the form of an individualized the community to individuals, and requires
treatment program, which may include counseling, skills fair disbursement of common advantages
training, education, and other activities that will enhance and sharing of common burden.
his/her psychological, emotional and psychosocial well- a. Prosecution
being. b. justice
a. Diversion c. equality
b. Rehabilitation d. trial
c. Probation 3548. A probationer is allowed to do the
d. Intervention following except?
3540. If children, whether male or female, who for money, a. Stay away from bad associates
profit or any other consideration or due to the coercion
b. Work regularly to support his family
or influence of any adult, syndicate or group, are indulge
c. Make periodic office report
in sexual intercourse or lascivious conduct it is known
as… d. Go and play in a gambling den
a. Child Abuse 3549. Which of the following are the
b. Child Trafficking major goals of correction?
c. Child Prostitution a. Punishment, confinement, retribution, treatment
d. Child Exploitation b. Retribution, deterrence, incapacitation,
rehabilitation
3541. It implies the keeping of unlawful behavior from c. Deterrence, punishment, incapacitation,
occurring treatment
a. Control d. Deterrence, retribution, punishment, treatment
b. Recession 3550. A judicial action for legal
c. Repression disposition that allows the offender to
d. Prevention remain in the community subject to
3542. Under the “Juvenile Justice and Welfare Act of
conditions imposed by the court?
2006”, it refers to the person in authority or his/her
agent as defined in Article 152 of the Revised Penal Code, a. Reprieve
including a barangay tanod. b. Probation
a. Police Officer c. Commutation
b. Probation Officer d. Parole
c. Law Enforcement Officer 3551. Which of the following is an open
d. Public Officer correctional institution known to be the best
3543. He is one whose basic needs have been deliberately
and prison without walls?
unattended or inadequately attended.
a. Abandoned Child a. Davao penal farm
b. Abused Child b. Sablayan penal colony
c. Neglected Child c. San Ramon prison and penal farm
d. Dependent Child d. Iwahig penal colony
3544. This period of human life covers puberty to 17 years 3552. Which is called the finest penal
old.
farm in the world?
a. Adolescence
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 a. Davao penal farm a. Sexual relation
b. Sablayan penal colony b. Conjugal partnership
c. San Ramon prison and penal farm c. Conjugal privilege
d. Iwahig penal colony d. Conjugal visit
3553. . Under the UN Standard Minimum 3559. What institution conducts the
Rules for treatment of Prisoners, which of training program for uniformed personnel of
the following are the two basic principles the BJMP?
under rules of general application to a. Fire Training Center
prisoners? b. Philippine National Jail Academy
1. There shall be no discrimination on grounds of c. PNP Training Center
race, color, sex, language, religion, political or other opinion, d. Jail Management Training Institute
national or social origin, birth or other status 3560. Robin Padilla was convicted and
2. It is necessary to respect the religious belief and ready to serve his sentence inside the prison.
moral rule of the group to which the prisoner belong Why was he photographed at the Reception
3. The treatment of prisoner should emphasize not and Diagnostic Center?
their exclusion from the community, but their continuing part a. He is a actor and photogenic
in it b. It is rare opportunity to have his photograph
4. Unconvict prisoners are presumed to be innocent c. To have a souvenir photo of the actor
and shall be treated as such. d. Photographing the inmate is part of the
a. 2 and 3 reception procedure
b. 4 and 1 3561. A penalty having its minimum and
c. 1 and 2 maximum duration is referred to as
d. 3 and 4 a. Determinate sentence
3554. What does classical theory b. Capital punishment
provides? c. Corporal punishment
a. Criminal behavior is inherited and therefore could d. Indeterminate sentence
be controlled by regulating the reproduction of 3562. Which of the following executive
families clemency needs the concurrence of the
b. Criminal behavior is learned in interaction with congress?
other persons in the process of communication a. Pardon
c. Crime and delinquency are symptoms of social and b. Amnesty
penalty disorders c. Probation
d. The basis for criminal liability is human free will d. Parole
and the purpose of penalty is retribution 3563. It is an executive clemency
3555. The theory in criminal causation whereby the convicted person should serve
focuses on the criminal disorders, part of his sentence?
chromosomes irregularity, and abnormal a. Pardon
brain activity? b. Parole
a. Biological c. Probation
b. Psychological d. Amnesty
c. Sociological 3564. What should the court do where
d. Geological the accused violated the terms and
3556. Where Rene Boy shall be confined conditions of his probation?
if his sentence is 6 months or less? a. Court releases the probationer to the community
a. National prison b. Revoked and let the probationer served his
b. Municipal jail sentence
c. City jail c. Court order the probationer to apply for parole
d. Provincial jail d. Court should allow the probationer to continue his
3557. Crimes with no private offended probation
party? 3565. Which of the following is a minor
a. Complex crime offense in jail?
b. Status offense a. Rendering personal services to fellow inmate
c. Simple crime b. Loitering or being in an unauthorized place
d. Victimless crime c. Keeping or concealing keys or locks of places in the
3558. A married prisoner is visited by his jail where it is off- limits to inmates
wife and they were granted the time for d. Making untruthful statements or lies in official
their marital sexual obligation. What do you communication, transaction or investigation
call this affair?

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 3566. Failure to assist in putting out fires d. Prison guards
inside the jail is a type of offense? 3575. It is given to prisoners who have
a. Grave offense returned to their places of confinement
b. Less grave offense within 48 hours after a calamity.
c. Not so grave offense a. Good conduct time allowance
d. Minor offense b. Special time allowance
c. Visitation privileges
3567. How many hours should the jail d. Good treatment allowance
disciplinary board hear and decide the case 3576. Juan Manalo was convicted by final
brought before it? judgment to serve the term of imprisonment
a. 24 hours for 20 years. While serving his sixth year of
b. 12 hours imprisonment, an earthquake rocked the
c. 48 hours prison and several inmates escaped. Roberto
d. 72 hours returned the following day, how many years
3568. Minimum number of time in would be deducted from his sentence?
counting the inmates on daily basis? a. 4 years
a. Three times b. 8 years
b. Two times c. 9 years
c. Four times d. 11 years
d. Five times 3577. A person convicted to serve 6
3569. What is the duration should the years imprisonment would be classified as
probation officer submit his post sentence what kind of prisoner?
investigation to the court? a. Municipal prisoner
a. 60 days b. Insular prisoner
b. 30 days c. Provincial prisoner
c. within 60 days d. Detention prisoner
d. 15 days 3578. It is one of the forerunners of
3570. A shoemaker and became the modern correctional system wherein they
father of probation in the U.S confine the prisoners in single cell at night
a. Mathew Davenport Hill but allow them to work during the day.
b. Edward Savage a. Auburn system
c. John Augustus b. Pennsylvania system
d. Teodolo Natividad c. Elmira reformatory
3571. When does probation started? d. None of the above
a. 1938 3579. It is an institution intended to
b. 1841 detain or house political offenders.
c. 1896 a. Iwahig Penal farm
d. 1932 b. Davao Penal Farm
3572. It is regarded as the most c. San Ramon Prison and Penal farm
important program that aids in the d. Sablayan Prison Farm
rehabilitation or prisoners 3580. This forerunner whereby he
a. Recreational program introduced the theory of atavism?
b. Religious program a. Lombroso
c. Educational program b. Becarria
d. Employment of prisoners c. Ferri
3573. Person who are deemed d. Garofalo
instrumental on the reformation of prisoners 3581. It is the temporary suspension in
due to their daily contact with inmates? the execution of sentence?
a. Chaplain a. Pardon
b. Warden b. Appeal
c. Psychologist c. Commutation
d. Prison guards d. Reprieve
3574. Person who are deemed 3582. It is the deduction of the term of
instrumental on the reformation of prisoners imprisonment due to the convict’s good
due to their daily contact with inmates? behavior while serving his sentence?
a. Chaplain a. Special time allowance
b. Warden b. Parole
c. Psychologist c. Good conduct time allowance

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 d. Probation c. Executive Judge of the first instance
3583. A writ ordering the confinement of d. Appellate court
a person in penal institution. 3592. Pedro Juana was sentenced to
a. Detention order serve an imprisonment of six months, how
b. Commitment order many years would be the duration of his
c. Warrant of arrest probation?
d. None of the above a. One year
3584. Who grants probation? b. Two years
a. Probation officer c. Shall not exceed two years
b. Solicitor general d. Shall not be more than six years
c. Court 3593. In the hearing for the violation
d. All of the above committed by the probationer, the latter
3585. Where the application for shall have the right to be informed of the
probation should be filed? violation charged and to adduce evidence in
a. Board of Pardons and Parole his favor. This right is in pursuant to his right
b. Office of the Solicitor General to ___?
c. Trial court a. Equal protection
d. Appellate court b. Presumption of innocence
3586. The court shall resolve the c. Miranda rights
application for probation for _. d. Due process of law
a. Not later than 60 days 3594. What is the effect of the
b. Within 10 days termination of probation?
c. Within 5 days a. Erase criminal records
d. Within 15 days b. Operate to restore civil rights lost or suspended as
3587. Pending the submission of the a result of conviction
investigation report, the defendant may be c. Both A and B
allowed on temporary liberty through_. d. None of the above
a. Release on recognizance 3595. Probation aids shall have the term
b. Bail in office for ___?
c. Manifestation a. 3 years
d. Cash bond b. 1 year
3588. Probation shall be denied if the c. 2 years
court finds that_. d. 4 years
a. Probation will depreciate the seriousness of the 3596. Ideal number of days for proper
offense committed. classification of newly convicted offenders at
b. The offender is in need of correctional treatment the RDC?
c. There is undue risk that during the period of a. 45 days
probation the offender will commit another crime b. 30 days
d. All of the choices c. 60 days
3589. The probationer and his probation d. 15 days
program shall be under the control and 3597. An inherent responsibility of a
supervision of ___? warden in seeing to it that he continually
a. Probation officer motivates his staff and personnel to perform
b. Board of pardons and parole at their best.
c. Court a. Decision making
d. All of the above b. Control of prison operation and activities
3590. Is the denial of probation c. Personnel program
appealable? d. Executive leadership
a. It depends on the violation 3598. Place wherein a newly convicted
b. Yes prisoner is housed for at least a minimum
c. No period of 5 days to ten days for the conduct
d. Partially No of medical examination, vaccination, x-rays
3591. Who shall have the control over to prevent physical contamination
the probationer once the latter is permitted a. Reception diagnostic center
to reside under the jurisdiction of another b. Medical center
court? c. Quarantine unit
a. Regional Director d. None of the above
b. Executive judge of the municipal court

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 3599. A writ issued by the court to a c. John Augustus
correctional facility indicating the basis of d. Benjamin Franklin
confinement of a prisoner 3608. This case paved the way for the
a. Mittimus abolition of the first probation law?
b. Detention order a. People v. De Vera, 376 O.G. 164
c. Warrant of arrest b. People v. Vera, 376 O.G. 164
d. Writ of Hebeas Corpus c. Vera v. People, 376 O.G. 164
3600. A code which provides “an eye for d. People v. De Vera, 376 O,G. 164
an eye, a tooth for a tooth.” 3609. It serves as the basis in granting
a. Code of Babylon probation to qualified applicants.
b. Code of Kalantiaw a. Post Investigation Report
c. Hammurabi code b. Pre Sentence Investigation report
d. Bible c. Admission report
3601. A French word meaning “word of d. Post Sentence Investigation
honor” 3610. After receiving the PSIR, within
a. Pardon how many days must a judge decide
b. Probation whether to grant or deny the application for
c. Parole probation.
d. Amnesty a. 5 days
3602. Refers to those who are confined b. 15 days
in correctional facilities awaiting verdict in c. 30 days
their cases d. 60 days
a. Prisoner 3611. Under the Indeterminate Sentence
b. Detainees Law, who acts as the chairman of the Board
c. Probationer of Pardons and Parole?
d. Offender a. PNP Chief
3603. It is said to be the alternative for b. DILG Secretary
jail confinement in modern penology. c. DOJ Secretary
a. Amnesty d. Chief Executive
b. Parole 3612. Operation conducted by the BJMP
c. Probation where a prisoner maybe checked at anytime.
d. Pardon a. Search and seizure
3604. He advocated the Irish system b. Confiscation
which is considered by many as one of the c. Inspection
most famous contributor to the reformatory d. Operation greyhound
movement. 3613. These are long, narrow, single
a. Z.R. Brockway decked ships propelled by sails, usually
b. Alexander Macanochie rowed by criminals.
c. Ceasar Lombroso a. Hulks
d. Walter Crofton b. Ships of criminals
3605. He is the father of probation in the c. Galleys
Philippines d. none of the above
a. Ferdinand Marcos 3614. What is the standard ratio in
b. Manuel Roxas escorting a non- bailable inmate?
c. Teodulo Natividad a. One is to one security officer
d. Ramon Bagatsing Sr. b. One is to three security officers
3606. A Boston shoemaker who c. One is to two plus one security officers
advocated in behalf of alcoholic and youthful d. One is to one plus one security officer
offenders and known as the father of 3615. Offenders who are committed to
probation. the jail or prison in order to serve their
a. Mathew Davenport Hill sentence after final conviction of a
b. Edward Savage competent court is known as
c. John Augustus a. Detention prisoner
d. Alexander Rice b. Sentenced prisoner
3607. He is the first appointed probation c. Provincial prisoner
officer in the world. d. National prisoner
a. Hans Gross 3616. Penology came from the latin word
b. Edward Savage “poena” which means

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 a. Conviction d. Rehabilitation
b. Pain and suffering 3625. What code specified punishment
c. Punishment according to the social class of the
d. Deterrence offenders?
3617. It is the suffering inflicted by the a. Greek Code of Draco
state against an offending member of the b. Justinian Code
society for the transgression of the law c. Burgundian Code
a. Penalty d. Akadian Code
b. Punishment 3626. The establishment of the
c. Suffering usefulness and responsibility of the offender
d. Any of the above as a productive individual is a punishment
3618. When different crimes should be justified by
punished with different penalties, a. Expiation
punishment should therefore be b. Rehabilitation
a. Correctional c. Atonement
b. Legal d. Retribution
c. Productive of suffering 3627. The penalty of banishing a person
d. Commensurate with the offense from the place where he committed a crime
3619. An institution for the refers to what contemporary forms of
imprisonment of persons convicted of major punishment
offenses refers to a. Atonement
a. Jail b. Destierro
b. Prison c. Exile
c. Penitentiary d. Incapacitation
d. All of the above 3628. The early Roman place of
3620. Imprisonment for a term of 6 years confinement which was built under the
1 day to 12 years main sewer of Rome in 64 BC refers to
a. Prision correccional a. Town Gates
b. Reclusion temporal b. Wulnut Street Jail
c. Arresto mayor c. Bridewell Workhouse
d. Prision mayor d. Mamertime Prison
3621. A criminal can seek refuge in a 3629. What was the most popular
church in order to avoid punishment in a workhouse in London which was built for the
period of ninety days. This refers to employment of English prisoners?
a. Refuge a. Borstal prison
b. Securing sanctuary b. Panoptican prison
c. Hidden church c. Elmira reformatory
d. Claiming penitentiary d. None of the choices
3622. This were the former warships 3630. Which branch takes charge of the
used to house prisoners in the 18th century preparation of the daily menu, prepares and
and 19th century as means of relieving cooks food and serve to inmates?
congestion of prisones refers to a. General Service Branch
a. Galleys b. Mess Service Branch
b. Hulks c. Budget and Finance Brach
c. Gaols d. Property and Supply Branch
d. Warships 3631. The unit where the prisoner is
3623. In the ancient times, who were given thorough physical examination
commonly subjected to harsh punishments? including blood test, x-rays, vaccinations and
a. Middle class immunity for the purpose of insuring that
b. Black people the prisoner is not suffering from contagious
c. Slaves disease?
d. Any of the above. a. Rehabilitation Unit
3624. Offenders who were convicted b. Quarantine Cell
should be kept away from the society for its c. Medical and Health Center
protection. This is frequently called as d. RDC
a. Incapacitation 3632. Who provides the security system
b. Deterrence of sound custody, security and control of
c. Penalization inamtes and their movements and also

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 responsible to enforce jail or prison 3640. The public will be protected if the
discipline offender has being held in conditions where
a. Administrative Group he cannot harm others especially the public.
b. Security Group Punishment is effected by placing offenders
c. Rehabilitation Group in prison so that society will be ensured
d. Medical Group from further criminal depredations of
criminals.
A. Deterrence
3633. What law was passed during the B. Incapacitation & Protection
Aquino administration that renamed the C. Retribution
Bureau of Prisons to Bureau of Corrections? D. Atonement
a. E.O. 292 3641.
b. E.O. 229 He is the first leader to prescribe imprisonment
c. A.O 262 as correctional treatment for major
d. E.O. 292 offenders also responsible for the abolition
3634. Who appoints the Director of of death penalty and torture as a form of
Prisons who shall be the Head of the punishment.
Bureau? A. John Howard
a. Chief BJMP B.Charles Montesquieu
b. Sec. of DILG C. William Penn
c. Chief Executive D. Jeremy Bentham
d. Sec. of DOJ 3642. Director of the Prisons of Valencia,
3635. What agency has supervision and Spain who divided prisoners into companies
control over all the national prisons or and appointed prisoners as petty officer in
penitentiaries? charge.
a. Bureau of Prisons A. Domets of France
b. Bureau of Correction C. Manuel Montesimos
c. Bureau of Jail B. Zebulon Brockway
d. None of the above D. Evelyn Ruggles Brise
3636. Which of the following statements 3643. What governing law of Aklan and
is not true? Panay based on the beliefs, customs and
a. Provincial Jails in the Philippines are under the practices, it is also reflects the level of
jurisdiction of the DOJ uprightness and morality of the people?
b. Provincial Jails are managed and controlled by the A. Commonwealth Act No. 3203
provincial government B. Law of the Talion
c. The jail bureau controls the administration and C. Kalantiaw Code
supervision of all jails nationwide D. Penitentiary Act of 1779
d. The BJMP is under the DILG 3644. It refers to prison which is used to
3637. Who appoints jail Sr. Superintend? confine slaves where they were attached to
a. Chief Executive workbenches and forced to do hard labor in
b. DILG Sec the period of their imprisonment.
c. Chief BJMP A. Underground Cistern
d. Chief of BUCOR B. Ergastalum
3638. Who appoints the Chief Inspector C. Sing-Sing Prison
as warden? D. Alcatraz Prison
a. DILG sec 3645. It is known as the “Age of Reason
b. Chief Executive of Age of Enlightment”
c. Chief BJMP A. 1870 – 1880
d. Chief of BuCor B. 18th century
3639. Early forms of Prison Discipline by C. 19th century
means of uttering insulting words or D. 21st century
languages on the part of prison staff to the 3646. It refers to a Prison System
prisoners to degrade or break the confidence whereby prisoners are confined in their own
of prisoners. cells during the night and congregate work in
A. Degradation shops during the day also known as
B. Corporal Punishment “Congregate System”.
C. Monotony A. Auburn Prison System
D. Mass Movement B. Custody Oriented Prison

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 C. Pennsylvania Prison System 3655. A general agreed principle that
D. Treatment Oriented Prison women prisoners should be placed in a
3647. The first juvenile reformatory special building on the same site with the
which was opened in January 1825 and men prison.
located in New York City. A. Diversification by Sex
A. Borstal Institution B. Segregation
B. Elmira Reformatory C. Diversification by Age
C. New York House of Refuge D. Diversification by Degree of Custody
D. Panoptican Prison 3656. What satellite of NBP does RDC is
3648. One of the juridical conditions of situated?
Penalty, The consequence must be in A. Camp Bukang Liwayway
accordance with the law it is a result of a B. Camp Sampaguita
judgment rendered by a court of justice. C. Main building
A. Equal D. Chapel
B. Legal 3657. What is the prescribed color of
C. Commensurate w/ the offense uniform for Minimum Security Prisoners?
D. Personal A. Blue
3649. X was sentenced to serve with a B. Brown
penalty of Reclusion Temporal who has the C. Tangerine
jurisdiction to detain him? D.Gray
3658. It is located in Sto. Tomas, Davao
A. BuCor Del Norte, General Paulino Santos led the
C. BJMP first contingent which opened the colony.
B. PNP A. Davao Penal Colony
D. AFP B. Tagum
3650. Baby Ama was sentenced to serve C. Panabo
Prison Correctional. What is the duration of D. Kapalong
his penalty? E. Tanglaw
A. 12 Y&1D to 20 Y 3659. Gov. White E. Dwigth made the
C. 6Y&1D to 12 Y suggestion of the construction of this penal
B. 6M1D to 6 Y institution and it was established on 1904
D. 1M&1D – 6 M through the orders of Gov. Forbes. It is
3651. It is then known as Carcel y considered a one of the most open penal
Presidio. institutions in the world.
A. Old Bilibid Prison A. Iwahig
B. Manila City Jail B. Tagumpay
C. NBP C. Sta. Lucia
D. May Halique Estate D. Inagawan
3652. Formerly known as the Luhit Penal 3660. The following are the sub colonies
Settlement. of Sablayan Prison and Penal Farm.
A. Iwahig Prison and Penal Farm I. Central III. Pusog
B. San Ramon Prison II. Pasugui IV. Yapang
C. Sablayan Prison V. Panabo VI. Kapalong
D. New Bilibid Prison VII. Sta. Lucia VIII. Inagawan
3653. When an inmate is given a IX. Montible X. Central
“shakedown” before admission it meant A. I, II, III, IV
A. Process of Identification, Record, Fingerprint and B. V and VI
Photograph C. VII, VIII, IX & X
B. Examination for Contraband D. Either of these
C. His Commitment Paper are Delivered to Record 3661. Convicts committed to BUCOR are
Clerk brought to RDC for a total period of ____ for
D. All of These classification and determination of
3654. ____ is the Chairman of the appropriate program.
Classification Board in BJMP. A. 60 days
A. Assistant Warden B. 55 days
B. Medical Officer C. 5 days
C. Chief, Security Officer D. NONE
D. Jail Chaplain

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 3662. One of the components of RDC D. Affidavit
which is responsible in the examination of 3670. John was sentenced to serve
the prisoner’s mental and emotional make- Arresto Mayor, what classification of
up. sentenced prisoner is John classified?
A. Medical Center A. Municipal Prisoner
B. Sociologist C. City Prisoner
C. Psychologist B. Provincial Prisoner
D.Psychiatrist D. Insular Prisoner
3663. The Bureau of Jail Management 3671. Ser Chief is a newly arrived inmate
and Penology was created thru ____ as one committed for the first time. He classified as
of the Tri Bureau under the Department of a ____ among the classification of inmates
Interior and Local Government . according to privileges.
A. 1st class inmate
A. Section 13, RA 6975 NAPOLCOM
B. 3rd class inmate
B. Section 53, RA 6975
C. 2nd class inmate
C. Section 23 of RA 6975
D. Colonist
D. Section 60 of RA 6975
3672. What classification of Prisoners
3664. X was sentenced to serve with a
according to Degree of Security if the
penalty of Reclusion Temporal who has the
prisoner cannot be trusted in open
jurisdiction to detain him?
conditions and pose lesser danger than
A. BuCor
maximum-security prisoners in case they
C. BJMP
escape.
B. PNP
A. Minimum Security Prisoners
D. AFP
B. Medium Security Prisoners
3665. All except one is included in the
C. Maximum Security Prisoners
command group of BJMP
D. Any of the Above
A. Chief of Staff
3673. What is the lowest authorized
B. Deputy C/BJMP
disciplinary punishment imposable to
C. Chief of BJMP
inmates?
D. Chief of Directorial staff
A. Close Confinement
3666. One of the Administrative groups
B. Extra-Fatigue Duty
in BJMP responsible for preparation of the
C. Reprimand
daily menu, prepare and cook the food and
D. Temporary cancellation of recreational privileges
serve it to inmates.
3674. Close confinement in a cell in BJMP
A. Mess Service Branch
shall be between ___ in any calendar month
B. General Service Branch (maintenance)
provided that this punishment shall be
C. Budget and Finance Branch (financial)
imposed only in the case of an incorrigible
D. Property and Supply Branch (logistics)
prisoner when other disciplinary measured
3667. When the offender is in transit,
had been proven ineffective.
the ratio of __ for every offender shall be
A. 30-60 days
observed.
C. 1-7 Days
A. 1:1+1
B. 1 day
B. 1:2
D. NONE
C. 1:7
3675. All except one are instruments of
D. 1:500
restraints.
3668. When the offender is in transit, in
A. Handcuffs
case of ___ that demands extra precaution
B. Whipping Rod
additional guards shall be employed
C. Leg iron
A. High Profile offender
D. Strait Jackets
B. Female Offender
3676. Inmates ____ may be excused
C. High-risk offender
from mandatory prison labor.
D. Either of these
A. 60 years old
3669. If the inmate agrees to abide by
B. 56 years old
the same disciplinary rules imposed upon
C. 50 years old
convicted prisoners, he shall be asked to,
D. 21 years old
manifest his ___ in writing.
3677. The _____ may grant GCTA to an
A. Certification
inmate for good behavior with no record of
C. Agreement
B. Manifestation

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 disciplinary infraction or violation of prison 3685. In mess hall and dining area for
rules and regulation. purposes of precaution, the prescribe utensil
A. Director of BJMP for inmates shall be made of:
B. Warden A. Wood
C. President B. Paper
D. Director of Corrections C. Plastic
3678. Inmates earnings that may be used D. Carton
to buy his needs. 3686. It is a continuing state of good
A. ½ of his earnings order.
B. ¼ if his earnings A. Discipline
C. ¾ of his earnings B. Communication
D. Discretion of Warden C. Morale
D. Loyalty
3679. GCTA is a kind of ___ that can only 3687. Unload as method in searching the
be denied if the prisoner breaks the rules prisoner for possession of contraband’s
and only after due process is observed. inside the prison cell and compound.
A. right A. Frisking
B. Privileges B. Shakedown
C. Discretion C. Operation Greyhound
D. liberty D. Body Frisking
3680. A colonist when classified by the 3688. It is considered as the highest
director of the Bureau of Corrections who is income earner among the Philippine
punished with reclusion perpetua will have Correctional Institution.
benefit from an automatic reduction from A. Iwahig Penal Colony
maximum term of forty years to ___. B. San Ramon Prison and Penal Farm
A. 20 Years C. Davao Penal Colony
B. 25 Years D. Sablayan Prison and Farm
C. 30 Years 3689. The most common problem for
D. 35 Years national penitentiaries.
3681. Duration of viewing of privilege of A. Excessive number of inmates
a deceased relative is limited to ___ hours. B. Lack of funds
A. 3 C. Sex problems
B. 9 D. Discipline
C. 6 3690. Which of these authorizes the
D. 12 release of a detainee who has undergone
3682. Who among the following inmates preventive imprisonment equivalent to the
may not be allowed to see the remains of a maximum imposable sentence for the
dead immediate family member? offense he is charged with?
A. Minimum Security A. B.P 85
B.Maximum Security B. RA 4200
C. Medium Security C. B.P. 22
D. None of these D. PD 968
3683. Telephone calls are permitted for 3691. The act of prisoner trying to
inmates for a period not exceeding 5 convert or induce another to change his
minutes every ___ days. religious beliefs sect or the like to another
A. 30 while under confinement is referred to as
B. 90 A. Proselytizing
C. 60 B. Initiation
D. 120 C. Fraternization
3684. If escorting an inmate a guard shall D. Inducement
keep distance of not less than ____ paces 3692. Who composed of guards trained
from his charge. on proper handling and use of firearms who
A. 10 shall be ready to fire when the lives of the
B. 30 guards are in danger on orders of the Officer
C. 15 in Command.
D. 45 st
A. 1 group Anti-Riot
B. 4th Group Anti-Riot
C. 3rd Group Anti-Riot

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 D. 2nd Group Anti-Riot (6) months and /or a fine of P2,000.00 or
both, to the custody of a responsible person
3693. Within the radius by road from the in the community, instead of a bail bond-
confinement facility and the actual stay of A. RA 6036
the inmates to view the remains. B. PD 603
A. 20 kilometer C. Act 2489
B. 40 Kilometer D. RA 9262
C. 30 Kilometer 3701. If the Warden is taken as the
D. 50 Kilometer hostage, for all intents and purposes, he
3694. Under RA 9344, what happens to ceases to exercise authority and the next in
the sentence of a Child in Conflict with the command or the ___ officer present shall
law after conviction of a trial Court? assume the command.
A. His sentence serve A. Veteran
B. His sentence is suspended B. most senior
C. His sentence is suspended and is sent back to his C. assistant
family D. custodian
D. His sentence is NOT suspended 3702. In case of mass jailbreak, all
3695. One-fifth of the sentence for member of the custodial force shall be
Loyalty equivalent shall be deducted from immediately issued firearms and assigned to
the inmates sentence if, after the inmate critical posts to:
abandoned prison due to disorder arising A. plug off the escape routes
A. STA B. protect the other inmates
B. GCTA C. to shoot the escape
C. Commutation D. give warning shots
D.Visitation Privilege 3703. When a jailbreak, escape or riot in
3696. It is a kind of court to settle progress or has just been perpetrated in the
tribunal and even individuals people jail, the officer at the control centers shall
conflicts: immediately:
A. Bodong A. sound the alarm
C. Capic B. notify the nearest police precinct
B. Korte Supremo C. locked prisoners in their respective cells
D. Hito D. call the warden or the director
3697. The following are the aims of 3704. The following are the duties of the
diversification in prison or jail, except: custodial force in prison, except:
A. more effective execution of treatment programs A. Censor offender’s inmate
B. to prevent physical contamination of one group or B. Escort inmates
another C. Inspect security devices
C. to prevent unnecessary custodial risk D. Conduct disciplinary hearing
D. none of the above 3705. It served as the cornerstone or
3698. It provides some opportunities for rehabilitation
inmates of a normal sex life. A. Religion
A. Maternal Visit B. Education
B. Sodomy C. Discipline
C. Masturbation D. Recreational
D. Conjugal Visit 3706. Maiming; Physical Torture;
3699. An offender who surrenders from Electrocution; ____
escaping because of calamity immediately 48 A. Social degradation
hours after the pronouncement of the B. Exile
passing away of calamity shall be granted C. Physical torture
A. 1/5 reduction of sentence D. Death Penalty
B. 1/2 reduction of sentence 3707. It refers to those items, though
C. 1/3 reduction of sentence authorized, is already in excessive quantities
D. 4/5 reduction of sentence to become a fire hazard, a threat to security
or has become causative in making the place
3700. Which of these is known as the unsanitary.
Release on Recognizance Law providers for A. Contraband
the release of offender charged with an B. Paraphernalia
offense whose penalty is not more than six C. Prohibited items

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 D.Nuisance Contraband A. Partially true
3708. It refers to the entrusting for B. Partially false
confinement of an inmate to a jail by C. Absolute False
competent court or authority for D. Absolutely True
investigation, trial and/or service of 3716. All persons in custody shall before
sentence final conviction, be entitled to bail as a
A. Commitment matter of ____
B. Safekeeping A. Right
C. Entrustment B. preference
D. Imprisonment C. Privilege
3709. This was the right in ecclesiastical D. Discretion
court during the middle ages particularly in 3717. The visiting room officer shall be
England. responsible for compiling the regular visiting
A. Inquisition list for each inmate.
B. Incapacitation A. Special Visitor
C. Benefit of Clergy B. Strange Visitor
D. Retribution C. Regular Visitor
3710. The inmates may request a review D. Unusual visitor
of the findings of the Disciplinary Board and 3718. ____responsible for handling the
the propriety and the penalty to the ____. keys in Women’s quarter and the keys shall
A. Chairman of Disciplinary Board be available all the time.
B. BJMP A. Key Matron
C. Central office/BJMP B. .Resident Matron
D. Warden C. Matron
3711. If the inmate fails to claim his letter D. Any of these
within ____ after it has been posted, the 3719. Ms. Malou Wang has duration of
mail should be delivered to him. penalty of 6 years and one day to 12 years.
What correctional facility he should be
A. 48 hours incarcerated?
B. 24 hours A. Bureau of Correction
C. 30 days B. Prision Correctional
D. 60 days C. Prision Mayor
3712. All letters passed by censors should D. BJMP
bear the censor’s stamp at the ____ of each 3720. Mr. Abdul Salsalani was convicted
page and on the envelope. The letter should of the crime murder. After 12 days from the
be placed back in the same envelope and promulgation of the sentence he escaped
resealed. from his place of confinement. Abdul
A. Back Salsalani is:
B. Conspicuous Area A. liable of evasion of service of sentence
C. Side B. not liable for evasion of service of sentence
D. Top C. considered as an escaped prisoner
3713. In case if jailbreaks, who will D. Either of C
immediately sound the alarm? 3721. It should be executed by the
A. Desk Officer interviewer, which will exempt prison
B. Armorer authorities from any liability arising from
C. Control Center death or injury sustained while in prison:
D. Officer-in-Charge A. Waiver of Liability
3714. It is designed to improve their B. Waiver of Responsibility
communication and computation skills, such C. Waiver of Acceptance
as the ability to read and write in order to D. Waiver of Agreement
enhance their individual educational level. 3722. Before the actual date of interview
A. Skills Training the media shall file request within ____
B. Adult Education A. 1 day
C. Secondary Education B. 3 days
D. Non-Formal Education for Adults C. 2 days
3715. Detention Prisoners are allowed to D. 8 days
smoke cigars and cigarettes, except in
prohibited cases. The statement is –

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 3723. Who should make an immediate C. Ground Commander
preparation for the issuance of the necessary D. Security Teams
anti-riot equipment and firearms? 3731. Who among the following shall be
A. the Warden responsible in the custody of all the
C. Director for operation properties seized from the detainee prior to
B. Director his detention?
D. Desk Officer A. Custodial Officer
3724. The Jail Bureau shall be headed by B. Chief of Detention Center
a chief with a rank of Director, and assisted C. Evidence Custodian Officer
by Deputy Chief with the rank of Senior D. Court
Superintendent. This sentence is 3732. Female detainees shall not be
A. partially true transported in handcuffs but only with
C. true necessary restraint and proper escort
B. partially false preferably aided by a police woman. The
D. false statement is
3725. The U.N. Standard Minimum Rules A. Yes
for the treatment of offenders prescribes B. Wholly True
that penal facilities should not exceed C. Partially False
_____ inmates. D. Wholly False
A. 1000 3733. Ms. Malou Wang, a prisoner,
B. 1500 learns that she is already overstaying in jail
C. 1200 because her jail guard, Benny B. Rotcha, who
D. 2000 happens to be a law student advised her that
3726. Who among the following inmates there is no more legal ground for his
may not be allowed to see the remains of a continued imprisonment, and Benny told her
dead immediate family members? that she can go. Ms. Malou Wang got out of
A. Minimum security jail and went home. Was there any crime
B. Maximum security committed?
C. Medium security A. Evasion of Service
D. None of these B. Infidelity in the custody of prisoners
3727. Minimum number of times in C. Evasion through Negligence
counting the inmates on a daily basis. D. Delay in the Delivery of prison
A. Two 3734. As far as Benny B. Rotcha, the jail
B. Four guard who allowed Ms. Malou Wang to go, is
C. Three concerned, the crime committed is:
D. Five A. Evasion of Service
3728. Ideal number of days for an inmate B. Infidelity in the custody of prisoner
to be placed in the quarantine unit at the C. Evasion through Negligence
Reception and Diagnostic Center . D. Delay in the Delivery of prison
A. 55 days 3735. This refers to the one-in-charge of
B. 5 days a Prison.
C. 60 days A. Director
D. 15 days C. Warden
3729. In the 13th century, a criminal could B. Superintendent
avoid punishment by claiming refugee in a D. Wardress
church for a period of ___ at the end of 3736. What correctional institution
which time he has compelled to leave the houses accused persons awaiting
realm by a road or path assigned to him. investigation?
A. BUCOR
A. 30 days B. Jail
B. 50 days C. Penitentiary
C. 40 days D. Prison
D. 60 days 3737. Who supervised and control the
3730. In Operation Greyhound, all orders Provincial Jail.
concerning troop movements will emanate A. DILG
from him. B. Governor
A. Assistant team leader C. DOJ
B. Team Leader D. LGU

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 D. Selling illegal commodities
3738. It is one of the earliest devices for 3746. ____ program employs prisoner in
softening brutal severity of punishment various product or good-producing tasks.
through a compromise with the church. A. Agricultural
A. Benefit of Clergy B. Industrial
B. None C. Operational
C. Rehabilitation D. Administrative
D. Retribution 3747. The 2nd group shall not use riot
3739. Richard Alden was convicted to control gases, except on orders of the –
serve a penalty of 6 years imprisonment for
usurpation of a person in authority due to A. Desk Officer
his frequent introduction of himself as NBI B. Armorer
agent, what would be his classification under C. Control Center
PD 29? D. Officer-in-Charge
A. Detention prisoner 3748. Detention Prisoners are NOT
B. Municipal prisoner allowed to have a Conjugal Visit. The
C.Provincial prisoner statement is –
D. Insular prisoner A. True
3740. Theory which states that criminal B. Maybe True
behavior is learned in interaction with other C. Maybe False
persons in the process of communication. D. False
A. Differential Association Theory 3749. If Jail Officer I Masunurin was
B. Social Disorganization Theory appointed in 2013 at a monthly salary of
C. Classical Theory 19,000, how much is longevity pay in 2018?
D. Strain Theory A. 9000 pesos
3741. Having a pornographic materials B. 1900 pesos
inside jail is a? C. 9500 pesos
A. Minor offense D. NONE
B. Moral Turpitude 3750. An inmate shall be transferred to a
C. Grave Offense separation center for adjustment process
D. Less grave offense from life in prison to life is free community
3742. A chemical that is injected to a within –
Death Convict that puts him into deep sleep A. 60 days prior to release
in lethal injection. B. 30 days prior to release
A. Potassium Chloride (stops heart beat) C. 90 days before release
B. Hydrogen Peroxide (Paralyzes the muscles) C. D. 15 days prior to release
Sodium Thiopenthotal 3751. How many days are given to the
D. Sodium chloride (salt) disciplinary board of BJMP to resolve issue?
3743. If a regular convicted prisoner has A. 5 working days
3 shifting guards, X which is a Death Convict B. 2 days
should have___. C. 30 working days
A. 2 Shifting Guards D. 24 hours
B. 3 Shifting Guards 3752. How long does an inmate mother
C. 4 Shifting Guards who gave birth inside the jail is allowed to be
D. 5. Shifting Guards with his child?
3744. How do inmates know that they A. 6 months
have letters? B. 1 year
A. A list of mails for inmates is posted C. 2 years
B. A jail guard delivers the letter personally D. 7 years
C. An inmate trustees delivers the letters to the 3753. A colonist when classified by the
addressee director of the Bureau of Corrections who is
D. Inmate with letters are called to the Jail Warden’ punished with reclusion perpetua will have
Office benefit from an automatic reduction from a
3745. What is referred to as “hustling” maximum term of forty years to ____.
inside the prison? A. 20 years
A. Reporting illegal activities B. 25 years
B. Doing prison assignment C. 30 years
C. Using prohibited drugs D. 35 years

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 inside the compound of the Bureau of
3754. Close confinement in Prison shall Corrections?
not exceed – A. Office of the President
A. 45 days B. Philippine Charity Sweepstakes Office
B. 30 to 60 days C. United Nations Security Council
C. 7 days D. Asia Crime Foundation
D. 15 days
3755. Abdul Jackonini was sentenced to 3761. Mail letters of a Death Convict
imprisonment on March 21, 2013. On March should be documented within ____ before
25, 2013 the judge who promulgated the the execution.
decision died. What is the effect of the A. 24 hours
judge’s death to the service of Abdul’s B. 72 hours
sentence? C. 48 hours
A. His sentence will not be binding anymore D. NONE
B. He will have to serve his sentence 3762. Involves the formulation of a
C. His sentence will be suspended tentative treatment program best suited to
D. His sentence will be reduced the needs of the individual prisoner, based
on the findings.
A. treatment planning
C. reclassification
3756. It is the national record of a B. Execution of treatment Plan
prisoner at New Bilibid Prison. D. Diagnosis
A. Mittimus 3763. An authorization that permits
B. Carpeta inmate to leave place of confinement for
C. Commitment Order emergency reasons.
D. Prison Record A. Furlough
3757. How many days before election B. Prisonization
does inmate are prohibited from going out? C. Diversification
A. 30 days D. Counseling
B. 90 Days
C. 60 Days
D. 120 Days 3764. A warden who limits his role to
3758. Maya is in prison for the past 48 consider policy matters and major problems,
months and has never been involved in any his responsibility is centered on:
trouble, no matter how minor. If you were A. Decision Making
the prison director, how many days for each B. Personnel Program
month would you approve as Maya’s good C. Public Relations
conduct time allowance? D. Executive Leadership
A. 5 days 3765. For minimum security institution,
B. 8 days the purpose of fencing the surrounding is:
C. 10 days A. To keep away the civilian population from entering
D. 12 days the institution.
3759. A powerful earthquake destroyed a B. It is designed to prevent escapes.
prison where W,X,Y & Z are inmates. All, C. It is designed for agricultural purposes
except Z, escaped. W surrendered after 24 D. It is designed to facilitate open view of the
hours, X b. surrendered after 24 hours, X surrounding.
surrendered after 2 days and Y surrendered 3766. It is the primary objective of
after 3 days. Who among them are not custodial and security division?
entitled to Special Time Allowance for A. To prevent riots
Loyalty under Art. 98. B. To implement discipline
C. To prevent escapes
A. X D. To help in the reformation of prisoners
C. W 3767. 230. When the death penalty was
B. Y still enforced by means of lethal injection,
D. Z four guards keep a death watch, the convict
3760. Which of the following is confined in an individual cell ___ hours
organizations donated the Half-way House prior to the scheduled time of execution
which is usually 3:00 in the afternoon.

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 A. 6 A. Yes, because he committed another crime while
B. 24 serving his sentence
C. 12 B. Yes, because it can be the start of illicit activities in
D. 36 prison
3768. What is the population of a type A C. No. because what he violated is not a Felony
Jail? D. A and B
A. More than 100
B. 20 or less 3776. What is the legal process that
C. 21 to 99 results in the removal of conviction from the
D. 101 to 150 official records?
3769. This theory assumes that people A. Mitigation
are law abiding but under great pressure B. Expungement
they will resort to crime and that disparity C. Exoneration
between goals and means provides that D. Restriction
pressure. 3777. Who advocated the principle that
A. Differential Association Theory the basis of all social actions must be the
B. Psychoanalytic Theory utilitarian conception of the greatest
D. Strain Theory happiness for the greatest number?
3770. This is also known as “Youth A. John Howard
Camps” and is being maintained by Bucor B. Jeremy Bentham
where youth offenders may serve their C. Cesare Becaria
sentence in lieu of confinement in a prison. D. George Void
A. AFP Stockade 3778. Prison work assignments are
B. Agricultural and Forestry Camps usually given to prisoners.
C. Social Camps A. After recreational activities
D. A or C B. At early morning hours
3771. It was established in 1910 under C. Before sleeping hours
the American Regime. D. During middle hours of the day
A. Philippine Prison System 3779. Forced is used only by correctional
B. Provincial Jail System to,
C. Probation A. Exact respect
D. Parole B. Enforce discipline
3772. The following are the requisite of a C. Show physical strength and power
valid Commitment Order EXCEPT: D. Perform assignments
A. Signature of the Judge 3780. One of the effects of social stigma
B. Seal of the Court maintained by an unforgiving society against
C. Valid Identification of Prisoner criminals is ____.
D. Signature of the Clerk A. Worked out good relationship with the community
3773. A prisoner having the natural B. Respond to a rehabilitation program
inclination or tendency to evade custody C. Difficulties in securing employment
against the will of the custodian or from the D. Fostered friendship with co-prisoner
place where he is held in lawful custody or 3781. With respect to the UN Standard
confinement. Minimum Rules for the Treatment of
A. Escape Prone Prisoner Prisoners, which of the following should NOT
B. Mental Deranged Prisoner be done to the prisoners?
C. Sex Deviate Prisoner A. Untried prisoners shall be kept separate from
D. Alien Prisoner convicted prisoners.
3774. Where a person commits FELONY B. Young offenders shall be kept separated from adult
before beginning to serve or while serving prisoners.
his sentence on a previous conviction C. Women prisoners shall be segregated and kept away
A. Quasi-recidivism from male prisoners.
B. Reiteration D. Female prisoner shall be allowed to have her children
C. Habitual Delinquency stay with her.
D. Recidivism 3782. Which of the following unusual
offender should be under the close
3775. If a prisoner who is serving supervision of the jail physician?
sentence is found in possession of dangerous 1. Mentally-ill 3. Infirm or sick
drugs can be considered a quasi-recidivist? 2. Sex deviates 4. Escape-prone prisoners

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 A. 1 and 2 A. Administrator
B. 3 and 4 B. Sec. of DOJ
C. 1 and 3 C. Sociologist
D. 2 and 3 D. Clergyman
3783. Under RA 9263, who is 2nd in 3791. It is known as the Indeterminate
command in BJMP? Sentence Law that creates the board of
A. Deputy for Administration Indeterminate Sentence which took effect
B. Chief, Directorial Staff (4th in command) on December 5, 1933.
C. Deputy for Operation (3rd in command) A. EO 83 S. 1937
D. Any of these B. EO 94
3784. All original appointments of C. Act 4103
officers in the jail bureau shall commence D. EO 292
with the rank of ___ 3792. All except one are the requisites to
A. JO1 be eligible for review of a Parole cases.
B. Jail Inspector A. Final conviction
C. JO11 B. maximum period of sentence exceeds one yr
D. Jail Senior Inspector C. served the minimum period of said sentence
3785. What is the minimum tank D. None of the above
required to be appointed as Chief Bureau of 3793. All except one are objectives of the
Jail Management and Penology? Parole System.
A. Superintendent A. It standardize the penalty
B. C/Superintendent B. Prevent unnecessary and excessive deprivation of
C. Senior Superintendent liberty
D. Director C. Uplift and redeem valuable Human, material and
3786. It is a means correcting an offender economic usefulness
by placing him to an institution where he D. Individualize the administration of criminal law,
can be treated well until he becomes fully without prejudice to the basic needs of maintaining and
recovered and accepted by the community. protecting social order
A. Institutional Corrections 3794. Director of Prisons has the
B. Non Institutional Correction responsibility to forward the document to
C. BJMP the board, ____ before the expiration of
D. Parole prisoner’s minimum sentence.
3787. This is the basic needs of a A. 15 days
convicted person under custody. B. 45 days
a. Shelter b. Food e. cigarettes C. 30 days
b. gadgets d. Slippers f. Drinks D. 60 days
A. a,b,c,d 3795. The board shall assess and
B. a,c,d,e determine whether the petitioner is
C. c,d,e,f qualified for Parole, the decision or action
D. a,b,d,f must be suspended by ____ of the members
3788. It is a conditional release after the of the board.
prisoner’s conviction is final and executory A. 4 votes
and has already served the minimum period B. Majority
of the sentence imposed to him. C. 5 members of the Board
A. Parole D. at least four (4) votes
B. Word of Hohor 3796. If petition for Parole was granted,
B. Parole d’ Honeur BOARD will issue a ____ or specifically
D.Probare known as discharge on parole.
3789. He is the Governor/Superintendent A. Release Document
in Norfolk Island, a penal colony in the East B. Final Release & Discharge
of Australia and initiated the famous “Mark C. Discharge on Parole
System”. D. Summary Report
A. Alexander Macanochie 3797. One of the mandatory conditions
B. Edward Savage attached to the parolee is to report at least
C. Walter Crofton once a month for those residing outside
D. Edward Savage Metro Manila/to report at least twice a
3790. Ex-officio Chairperson of board of month for those who are residing in Metro
Pardons and Parole. Manila.

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 A. True 3805. Parole is not claimed as a right but
B. Partially True the Board of Parole grants it as a privilege to
C. False a qualified prisoner. This is statement is:
D. Partially False A. Partially true
3798. The Probation and Parole Officer C. True
submits ___ if parolee commits any violation B. Partially false
of the terms and conditions stated in the D. False
release document. 3806. The following are disqualifications
A. Violation Report for Parole to be granted.
B. Progress Report a. who escaped from confinement or evaded sentence;
C. Infraction Report b. those who have pending criminal case;
D. Summary Report c. habitual delinquencies;
3799. Upon receipt of the Report the d. suffering from any mental disorder; and
BOARD may issue an ____ against the e. conviction is on appeal
parolee. A. a,b,c, and e
A. Warrant of Arrest B. a,b,c, and d
B. Search Warrant C. b,c,d, and e
C. Order of Arrest D. a,b,c,d, and e
D. Order of Arrest & Recommitment (OAR) 3807. It is exercise exclusively within the
3800. What is the effect of the sound discretion of the President for the
recommitment of a Parolee? objective of preventing miscarriage of Justice
A. Serve the remaining portion of his sentence or correcting manifests injustice.
B. Serve the remaining portion of the maximum A. Parole
sentence B. Pardon
C. Minimum sentence impose C. Executive
D. Serve the original sentence of imprisonment in D. Reprieve
full 3808. Who has the authority to assist the
3801. As a general rule, a Parolee may Chief Executive in his exercise of the power
not transfer residence stated in the release to grant executive clemency?
document except if the petition for transfer A. DOJ
of residence is approved by ____. B. BOARD
A. Regional Director C. Administration
B. Probation & Parole Officer D. Administrator
C. BOARD 3809. Kind of Executive Clemency which
D. Administration exempts an individual within certain limits or
3802. A Chief Probation and Parole conditions from the punishment that the law
Officer may authorize outside travel his area inflicts for the offense he has committed
of jurisdiction for a period of NOT more than resulting from the partial extinction of his
___. criminal liability.
A. 30 days A. Absolute Pardon
B. 15 days B. Reprieve
C. 20 days C. Commutation of Sentence
D. 10 days D. Conditional Pardon
3803. If a travel of a Parolee is more than 3810. Pardon by the President shall be
30 days shall be approved by the ____. extended ____.
A. Regional Director A. Before Prosecution of Criminal Action
B. Probation & Parole Officer B. After Conviction of Final Judgment
C. BOARD C. After Filling of Complaint/Information
D. Administration D. Upon the discretion of the President
3804. A parolee may work or travel 3811. A pardon violator upon conviction
abroad if he has NO pending criminal case in will be liable for imprisonment of “prision
any court. Application for travel and work correctional”.
abroad shall be approved by the A. Article 95 of RPC
Administration and confirmed by the ____. B. Article 59 of RPC
A. Regional Director C. Article 159 of RPC
C. BOARD D. A and C
B. Probation and Parole Officer
D. Administration

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 3812. On Executive Clemency petition D. Teodulo Natividad
filed by prisoner should be addressed to 3819. First juvenile court established in
____. 1899
A. Board A. Chicago
B. Administrator B. Massachusetts
C. Chairman of BPP C. England
D. President D. Philippines
3813. Who shall endorse to the Board 3820. Federal Probation act signed by
the petition for absolute or conditional President Calvin Coolidge became a Law on
pardon if the crime committed is against the _____.
national security? A. April 26, 1878
A. DFA Secretary B. 1899
B. COMELEC C. 1887
C. DOJ Secretary D. March 4, 1925
D. DND Secretary 3821. Probation in Philippines was first
3814. Any wilful or malicious concealing introduced by virtue of ___ also known as
material information made by the client Philippine Probation Act of 1935
either or after the grant of Conditional A. HB 393
Pardon or Parole is a ground for the BOARD B. PD 968
to – C. Act 4221
A. Extend the period of Supervision D. RA 4221
B. Modify the conditions appeared on released 3822. Celebrated case which paved the
document way for declaring unconstitutional of the first
C. Cancel the Parole or recommend the revoke of probation law of November 16, 1937
Conditional Pardon A. People vs. Vera
D. Suspend the exercise of said privileges until good B. People vs. De Vera
behavior has shown by the client C. People vs. De Vega
3815. All except one are the instances D. People vs. Vega
wherein supervision of parole and 3823. How long is the period of
conditional pardon case deemed to probation of a defendant sentenced to a
archive/close. term of imprisonment of not more than one
A. Order o Arrest and recommitment issued by the (1) year?
Board against the client A. Not to exceed 6 years
B. Certificate of transfer of resident B. Not to exceed 8 years
C. Upon receipt of certificate of final release and C. Not to exceed 10 years
discharge of the client D. Not to exceed 2 years
D. Certified True Copy of the death certificate of the 3824. The power of the Chief Executive
deceased client to grant pardon is limited to the following,
3816. The power of the Chief Executive EXCEPT:
to grant pardon is limited to the following, A. Pardon is administered by the court
EXCEPT: B. Pardon cannot be extended o cases of impeachment.
A. Pardon cannot be extended to cases of impeachment C. No pardon, parole or suspension of sentence for the
B. No pardon, parole or suspension of sentence for the violation of any election law may granted without
violation of any election law may be granted without favourable recommendation of the Commission of
favourable recommendation of the Commission of Elections.
Elections D. Pardon is exercised only after conviction
C. Pardon is exercised only after conviction 3825. What court will you apply for
D. Pardon is administered by the Court Probation?
3817. Pardon can be extended to any of A. Regional Trial Court for 6 years and above
the cases, EXCEPT: B. MTC or MCTC for 6 years and below
A. Carnapping C. Same court, where you had been convicted
B. Impeachment D. Any of these
B. Estafa 3826. Waiting for the decision of the
D. Parricide court on the application for probation, the
3818. Father of Philippine Probation. offender applying for probation –
A. John Augustus A. Must stay in prison as a detainee
B. Edward Savage B. Maybe set free without bail
C. Matthew Davenport Hill C. Maybe released on bail or recognizance

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 D. all of these C. Upon its issuance
3827. When will the court deny D. Upon reporting to the probation officer
application for probation of a petitioner? 3835. Which of the following cases is
A. Petitioner is a foreigner disqualified to apply for probation?
B. Petitioner is a drug dependent A. Infanticide
C. Petitioner violates the condition C. Simple Theft
D. Petitioner can be treated well in an institution B. Malicious Mischief
3828. Juan dela Cruz was sentenced to D.Unjust Vexation
serve a penalty of Prision Correctional. Is he 3836. Who appoints Probation
qualified to apply for probation? Administrator, Regional Probation Officers
A. Yes and Assistant Probation Officers?
B. True A. DILG Secretary
C. No B. President
D. False C. DOJ Secretary
3829. Violations of the following Special D. Administrator
Laws shall disqualify an offender to avail of 3837. How many days are given to the
the benefits of PD 968. court to act on application for probation?
A. Omnibus Election Code A. 15 days
B. Robbery B. 60 days
C. Wage Rationalization Act C. 10 days
D. Videogram Law D. 5 days
3838. Probationer and his Probation
3830. As a general rule Violation of Officer will prepare a _____.
Comprehensive Dangerous Drug Act of 2002 A. Associate Plan
is disqualify to apply for Probation, EXCEPT: B. Supervision & Treatment Plan
A. Section 12 C. Treatment Program
B. Section 14 D. Orientation Plan
C. Section 13 3839. One of the mandatory conditions
D. Section 17 to a probationer is to present himself to the
E. Section 70 probation officer designated to undertake
3831. This decree mandated the his supervision within ___ from receipt of
disqualification of the petitioner’s said order.
application for probation if an appeal is A. 24 hours
perfected. B. 72 hours
A. PD 1357 C. 48 hours
B. BP 76 D. 150 hours
C. PD 968 3840. When shall probation order take
D.PD 1257 effect?
3832. He is a convicted defendant whose A. Three days after issuance
application for probation has been given due B. Upon its issuance
course by the court but fails to report to the C. Three Days Prior to Issuance
probation officer or cannot be located within D. Upon Reporting to the Probation Officer
a reasonable period of time. 3841. Modifications of conditions for
A. Absconding Petitioner probation is allowed ___.
B. Absconding Probationer A. 15 days after granting it
C. Disobedient Petitioner B. At any time during supervision
D. Uncooperative Petitioner C. Upon the application of the community
3833. Probation is a privilege granted to D. Any of these
deserving and qualified petitioners, when
does it become a matter of right?
A. After the submission of the PSIR
B. When the convict files a petition for probation
C. When the appeal was undertaken
D. When his probation is approved 3842. If the Probationer did not comply
3834. When shall probation order take with the conditions, if the reasons for non-
effect? compliance is not meritorious the court will
A. Three days after issuance issue a ____.
B. Three days prior to issuance A. termination order

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 B. Warrant of Arrest D. should be confined in prison
C. OAR 3851. Maximum term of office for those
D. Revocation Order appointed as members of the Board of
3843. What is the effect of the Pardon and Parole.
recommitment of a Probationer? A. 3 years
A. Serve the remaining portion of the his sentence B. 5 years
B. Serve the remaining portion of the maximum C. 4 years
sentence D. 6 years
C. Minimum sentence impose 3852. When will you close a probation
D. Serve the original sentence of imprisonment in full case?
3844. Under rules and methods A. When the probationer absconds the place
employed by probation, what is the B. When he incurred violations
maximum number of minor violations that C. When there is recommendation for revocation
would result in the revocation of the D. When the termination order is approved
probation order? 3853. Volunteer Probation Aides may be
A. 5 Violations appointed from among the citizen’s of ____
B. 3 Violations A. Good religious background
C. 4 Violations B. High Educational Level
D. 2 Violations C. Good Repute and Probity
3845. Maximum number of probationers D. High Social Standing
under supervision of a probation aide 3854. It refers to the manner or practice
A. 3 of managing or controlling places of
B. 7 confinement as in jails or prisons.
C. 5 A. Penology
D. 9 B. Penal Management
3846. Probation is a privilege granted to C. Correctional Administration
deserving and qualified petitioners, when D. Correction
does it become a matter of right? 3855. It refers to a long, low narrow,
A. After submission of the PSIR single decked ships propelled by sails,
B. When the convict files a petition for probation usually rowed by criminals. A. type of ship
C. When the appeal was undertaken used for transportation of criminals in the
D. When the probation is approved 16th century.
3847. Who is the ultimate beneficiary of A. Gaols
Probation Law? B. Galleys
A. Criminal C. Hulks
B. Society D. D. Mamertine Prison
C. Family
D. Governor 3856. Represented the earliest
3848. It refers to those that handle the codification of Roman Law incorporated into
investigation of petitioners for probation, the Justinian Code. It is also collection of
and the supervision of probationers, legal principles engraved on metal tablets
parolees and conditional pardonees. and set up on .
A. Parole and Probation Administration A.Twelve Tablets
B. Board of Pardons and Parole B. Burgundian Code
C. Secretary of Justice C. Hammurabic Code
D. Department of Justice D.Greek code of Draco
3849. Post Sentence Investigation report
must be submitted by the probation officer 3857. The most popular workhouse in
to the court within London which was built for the employment
A. 20 days and housing of English prisoners.
B. 60 days A. Bridewell
C. 30 days B. Hospicio de San Michelle
D. 90 days C. Saint Bridget” Well
3850. Those that have been once on D. Walnut Street Jail
probation under the Probation Law:
A. are qualified to apply for probation 3858. Who appoints Probation
B. are disqualified to apply for probation Administrator, Regional Probation Officers
C. may be granted for another probation and Assistant Probation Officers?

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 A. DILG Secretary b. two days
C. President c. Three days
B. DOJ Secretary d. four days
3867. This is the process wherein prison officials try to
D. Administrator
convert inmates and be affiliated into their religion:
a. Conversions
b. agitation
c. Proselytizing
d. Captivation
3859. It is the branch of criminology 3868. Prisoner who violated prison rules may be punished by
which deals with the management and a confinement in a disciplinary cell from _ to _ months
administration of inmates: depending upon the gravity of the offense committed:
a. Criminal justice a. One to two
b. Penology b. one to three
c. Victimology c. One to four
d. d. Jail Management d. one to five
3869. During the 11th and successive years of following years
3860. Any article, thing, or item of prisoners imprisonment, he shall be allowed to a deduction
prohibited by law/ or forbidden by jail rules of __ days for each month of good behaviour:
is called: a. Five
a. Instrument of restraint b. eight
b. contraband c. Ten
c. Handcuff d. fifteen
d. leg iron 3870. During the following years until the 10th year,
3861. It shall exercise supervision and control over all district, inclusive, of inmate’s imprisonment, he shall be allowed to a
city and municipal jails to ensure “a secured, clean and deduction of:
sanitary and adequately equipped jail for the custody and a. Five
safekeeping of city, municipal prisoners, any fugitive from b. eight
justice or persons detained awaiting for investigation or trial c. Ten
and/or transfer to the National Penitentiary: d. fifteen
a. Bureau of Corrections 3871. During the first two years of inmates imprisonment,
b. Dep’t of Social Welfare and Development he shall be allowed a deduction of:
b. Jail Bureau a. Five days
c. Department of Justice b. ten days
3862. Head count of inmates shall be conducted _ times a c. Seven days
day or as often as necessary to ensure that all inmates are d. twelve days
duly accounted for: 3872. GCTA means:
a. Two a. Good conduct turning allowance
b. Four b. . good conduct time allowance
c. Three c. Good conduct training allotment
d. d. Five d. d. none of the foregoing
3863. The head of prison may establish _______ whenever
the frequency of requests for interviews reach a volume that 3873. It is a form of bails that the court may release a person
warrants limitations: in custody of a responsible person.
a. Media group a. Property bond
b. news team b. Recognizance
c.Press pool c. Corporate surety
d. public affairs
d. Cash deposit
3864. An infant born while the mother is serving sentence in
CIW may be allowed to stay with the mother for a period not 3874. Under Article VII, Section 10 paragraph (B) of the
exceeding: Philippines Constitution, pardoning power is vested with the:
a. 1 month  a.   Department of Justice
b. 1 year b. Chief Executive
c. 6 months c.    Judiciary
d. 6 years
d. Legislative
3865. BUCOR has two (2) Assistant Directors, one for
 338. It is the authority of the President of the Philippines to
Administration and Rehabilitation and one for:
a. Health and Care services suspend the execution of a penalty, reduce the sentence
b. Prisons and Security and extinguish criminal liability.
c. Correction and Rehabilitation d. Custody and Security   a. Parole
c. Pardon
  b. Executive clemency
3866. A representative of the news media may file a written
d. none of the above
request with the head of prison for a personal interview of an
inmate that he/she shall file a written request at least: 3875. The B.J.M.P. is under
a. One day the administration of the:
  a.    DILG
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 c. BUCor  b.    right
  b.    PNP  c.    grace
d. DOJ  d. requirement                                               
3876. It is an act of clemency which changes a heavier 3885.    For a convicted offender, probation is a form of __.
sentence to  a less serious one or a longer term to a shorter  a.  punishment
term.  b.  treatment
  a.    Amnesty      c.  enjoyment
c. Reprieve  d.  incarceration   
  b.    Commutation 3886. PPA is headed by:
d. none of the foregoing a. Director
3877. The attempt to prevent future crimes through fear b. Administrator
of punishment. c. Secretary
  a.   Retribution d. Superior
b. Punishment 3887.    Is a pecuniary punishment imposed by the law
  c.   Deterrence tribunal upon a person convicted of crime or misdemeanor.
d. Rehabilitation a. Remission
3878. The temporary stay of execution of sentence is called b. Forfeiture
  a.    Reprieve c. Fine
c. Amnesty d. All of the above
  b.    Pardon 3888.    Who may grant GCTA to an inmate who displays
d. Communication good behavior and no record of violation of prisons rules and
regulations
a. President
b. Director of Prisons
c. Warden
3879. Defined by the BJMP refers to a person who is accused d. None of the above
before a court or competent authority and is temporarily 3889.   A person who is placed under probation.
confined in jail while undergoing or awaiting investigation, a. Petitioner
trial or final judgment. b. Probationer
a. Prisoner c. Probationee
b. Bail d. None of the above
c. Detainee
d. Arrest
3880. Crimes of adultery and concubinage shall not be
3890.      It refers to the total extinction of the criminal
prosecuted except upon a complaint filed by whom?
liability of the individual to whom it is granted without any
a. Parents
condition.
b. Offended Spouse
a. Special pardon
c. Guardians
b. Absolute pardon
d. Godfather
c. Conditional pardon
3881. He is considered as the American Pioneer of Probation
d. General pardon
a. Matthew Davenport Hill
3891. Which is not a form of bail?
b. John Augustus
a. Cash deposit
c. Father Cook
b. Corporate surety
d. d. Edward Savage
c. Recognizance
3882.   Which of the following is an executive clemency that
d. Title bond
requires  the concurrence of congress?
3892.   An offender who surrenders  from escaping because 
a.   probation    
of calamity  immediately  48 hours  after the pronouncement
b. Amnesty
of  the passing  away  of calamity  shall be granted
c.   pardon
a.    1/5 reduction of sentence
d. Parole
b.   1/2 reduction of sentence 
3883. Post sentence investigation report must  be submitted
c.    2/5 reduction of sentence
by the  probation officer to the court within
d.    2/6 reduction of sentence                             
 a. 20 days 
3893. He is considered as the father of probation in the
c. 60 days
Philippines.
 b. 30 days 
a. Ferdinand Marcos
d. none of the above
b. Teodulo Natividad
3884.     Parole is a matter of ___.
c. Fidel Ramos
 a.    privilege
d. Antonio Torres

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3894.  The following are forms of executive clemency, 3903.     Is a pardon which is conceded to a single individual
EXCEPT for an ordinary crime.
a.    Commutation         a. General pardon
 b.    Reform model b. Absolute pardon
 c.    Amnesty c. Conditional pardon
 d.    Pardon      d. Special pardon
3895. An agency under the Department of Justice that is 3904.   Refers to incurring of a liability to pay a definite sum
charged with custody and rehabilitation of national offenders, of money as the consequence of violating the provisions of
that is, those sentenced to serve a term of imprisonment of some statute or refusal to comply with some requirement of
more than three (3) years law.
 a.   BJMP     a. Remission
 b.   Bureau of Corrections b. Forfeiture
 c.   Provincial Government   c. Fine
 d.   Parole and Probation Administration d. All of the above
3896.  Pardon may be granted upon the recommendation of 3905. The power of the chief Executive to grant pardon is
what government agency limited to the following, except:
a. Parole and Probation Administration     a.  Pardon cannot be extended to cases of impeachment. 
b. Board of Pardons and Parole     b. No pardon, parole or suspension of sentence for the
c. Probation and Parole Administration violation  of any election law may be granted without
d. Board of Parole and Pardons favorable recommendation of the Commission of Elections. 
3897.   It is known as Juvenile Justice and Welfare Act of      c. Pardon is exercised only after conviction
2006.      d. Pardon is administered by the court        
a. R.A. 7610 3906.  It refers to commission of another crime during
b. P.D. 603 service of sentence of penalty imposed for another previous
c. R.A. 9262 offense.
d. R.A. 9344       a.   Recidivism    
3898.    The head of the Bureau of Corrections is the:       b.   Delinquency
a.    Director       c.   Quasi-recidivism
b.    Secretary of the dnd       d.   City prisoner 
c.    Chief of executive 3907. It refers to leniency or mercy.
d.    Prison inspector                                    a. Power
3899.  A term means a friend of a court b. Clemency
a.Amicos curae c. Grace
b.Amigos curae d. Damages
c. Amicus curiae 3908. A kind of pardon which applies to all persons falling on
d.None of the above a certain category.
3900.  The task of changing an offender’s attitude so that he a. Special pardon
or she may not commit another crime in the future. b. Absolute pardon
a.   Retribution c. Conditional pardon
b.   Deterrence d. General pardon
c.   Incapacitation 3909.   During the 3rd to 5th year inclusive of imprisonment of
d.   Rehabilitation   an inmate, He shall allow a deduction of how many days for
each month for displaying good behavior?
a. 10 days
b. 15 days
3901. He is considered as the father of Probation in England.
c. 8 days
a. Matthew Davenport Hill
d. 5 days
b. Father Cook
3910.   The act of grace from a sovereign power inherent in
c. John Augustus
the state which exempts an individual from the punishment
d. Edward Savage
which the law imposes or prescribes for his crime, extended
3902.  An attached agency of the Department of Justice
by the President thru the recommendation of the Board of
which provides  a less costly alternative to imprisonment of
Parole and Pardon is  called:
offenders who are likely to respond to individualized
a. Amnesty
community based treatment programs.
b. Parole
    a.   BJMP    
c. Probation
    b.   Bureau of  Corrections
d. Pardon        
    c.   Provincial Government  
3911. It refers to reduction or mitigation of the penalty.
    d.   Parole and Probation Administration
a. Reprieve

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b. Amnesty  a.    President
c. Probation  b.    Board of Pardons and Parole
d. Commutation  c.    Director of Prison
3912. Refers to the conditional release of an offender from a  d.    Court     
correctional institution after he has served the minimum of
his prison sentences.
a. Parole                                      
b. Pardon 3921. The Bureau of Corrections is under the:
c. Probation a.    Department of Social Welfare and Development
d. None of the above   b.    Department of Justice
  c.    Department of the Interior and Local Government
3913.  The who investigates  for the  court a referral  for
  d.    Department of Health
probation or supervises a probationer or both 3922. is the redress that the state takes against an offending
a. police officer  member of society that usually involves pain and suffering:
b. probationer officer a. incarceration
c. intelligence officer b. floggings
d. law enforcer   c. ordeal
                                         d. punishment
3914.   When does probation revocable before the final
3923. This code introduced the concept of restitution.
discharge of the probationer by the court for the violation of But punishments were meted according to the social
any of the conditions of probation.    class of the offender:
a. any time during probation a. Justinian code
b. 1st 3 months of the probationer b. The Greeks
c. after 1 year under probation c. Burgundian code
d. none of the above d. Code of Hammurabi
3924. According to this ancient law that
3915. It is a report given to a parolee when he or she has
was practice in the areas of Babylon,
been subsequently convicted of another crime; The killer is answerable not to the
a. progress report family but to the king:
b. violation report a. Code of Hammurabi
c. infraction report b. Roman twelve tables
d. arrest report c. Pharaoh’s law
3916. The following are disqualifications for parole EXCEPT d. Burgundian code
3925. This Roman Catholic tribunal was responsible for the
one:
detection and punishment of unbelievers and heresy:
a. those who escape from confinement or evaded a. Inquisition
sentence b. Lateran council
b. those convicted of offense punished by death penalty, c. Ecclesiastical court
reclusion perpetua or life imprisonment d. Tortio millenio adviniente
c. those who are habitual delinquents 3926. borne out of the need to maintain the health of
prisoners so that their profitability can be maximized not out
d. none of the above
of humanitarian reasons as the government and the
3917. During the 11 th and successive years of imprisonment
merchants want to make it appear:
of an inmate, he shall allowed a deduction of how many days a. UN convention for profitability of prisoners
for each month for displaying good behavior? b. US convention for rehabilitation of prisoners
a. 10 days c. UN convention for treatment of prisoners
b. 15 days d. US convention for treatment of prisoners
c. 8 days 3927. In an attempt to further limit the blood feuds, the
feudal lords instituted official methods by which God could
d. 5 days
indicate who was innocent and who was guilty. One such
3918. It refers to the withdrawal or withholding of method was called:
punishment for a time after conviction and sentence. a. Trial by fighting
a. Reprieve b. Trial by ordeal
b. Amnesty c. Trial by combat
c. Probation d. Dei indicum
d. Commutation 3928. Exist as the more common forms of punishment. this
was tied to the crime committed:
3919. Refers to the head of Bureau of Correction.
a. Banishment
a. Administrator b. Death
b. Warden c. Torture
c. Director d. Mutilation
d. Commander 3929. Isolating the offender for the purpose of protecting the
3920. Among the following, which has the authority to grant public and at the same time rehabilitating them by requiring
parole? the latter to undergo institutional treatment program:
a. Solitary confinement
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b. Punishment a. king Ur Nammu
c. Floggings b. king Herodes
d. Imprisonment c. Emperor Justin
3930. It is conditional release after the prisoner has served
d. None of the above
part of his sentenced on prison for the purpose of gradually
3940. Death Penalty awaits slaves who commit murder,
re-introducing them to free life:
a. Probation assaults on noble or middle class women, sexual relations
b. Parole with noble or middle class women and giving aid or comfort
c. Pardon to escape offender:
d. Executive clemency a. Burgundian code
3931. This school argues that since children and lunatic b. Drakonian code
cannot calculate pleasure and pain they should not be
c. Law of Talion
prepared as criminals and as such that they should not be
punished: d. The Greeks
a. Classical school 3941. This people love to philosophize that their brand of
b. Neo classical school justice was not vengeful and retributive. They maintain that
c. Positivist school justice should reform the offender but must also serve as
d. Hedonism deterrence to others from committing offense:
3932. This approached of penology assessed at the time of a. The Romans
French Revolution:
b. The Greeks
a. Classical school
b. Neo classical school c. The Jews
c. Positivist school d. The Americans
d. Hedonism 3942. Today, the stand of the Church has become a
3933. According to this theory “a criminal is like a sick man complete reversal of the past. it was the late Pro-Life Pope
who needs not to be punished but treated in a hospital so John Paul II who reversed this so called:
that his illness which has something to do with the a. Eclessiastical court
commission of crime may be cured”:
b. Inquisition
a. Corrections
b. Penology c. Ordeal
c. Classical d. Culture of death
d. Positivist 3943. punishment inflicted by Greek Justice which is also
3934. This school views as crime as social phenomenon: practice of the Israelites in Jesus time:
a. Classical school a. stoning to death
b. Neo classical school
b. breaking on a wheel
c. Positivist school
c. burning alive
d. Sociology
3935. It is the study and practice of a systematic management d. trial by ordeal
in jails or prisons and other institutions concerned with the 3944. the offended party is fastened by metal bands to a
custody, treatment and rehabilitation of criminal offenders: board made of wood and then had their bones systematically
a. Penology broken:
b. Corrections a. stoning to death
c. Correctional administration
b. breaking on a wheel
d. Penal management
3936. a Latin word which means pain or suffering: c. burning alive
a. Penology d. trial by ordeal
b. Poena 3945. like breaking on a wheel, burning alive was once
c. Peona practiced by Romans. The Roman Catholic Church has also
d. All of the abovementioned been known to resort to this form of punishment during the
3937. It is the field of criminal justice administration which time of inquisition for non believers, witches and heretics:
utilizes the body of knowledge and practices of the
a. stoning to death
government and the society in handling individuals who have
been convicted of an offense: b. breaking on a wheel
a. Penology c. burning alive
b. Corrections d. trial by ordeal
c. Criminal justice 3946. The systematic transfer of offenders to colonized land
d. All of the above started to intensify in 17th Century.
3938. The principle of tit for tat appears throughout this a. Absolutely true
code: b. Probably true
a. Code of drakon c. Absolutely false
b. Code of Hammurabi
d. Probably false
c. Justinian code
d. Burgundian code
3939. existed 350 years before Hammurabi or 2100 years
before Christ was born, the king ruled the City of Ur in ancient 3947. Is the procedure by which prisoner are selected for
Sumeria: release on the basis of individual response and progress

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within the correctional institution and a service by which they c. Both statement is true
are provided with necessary control of guidance as they d. Both statement is false
served the remainder of their sentence with in the free 3956. The following institutions are controlled and
community: supervised by our government EXCEPT:
a. Probation a. New Bilibid Prisons
b. Parole b. Manila City Jail
c. Imprisonment c. Iwahig Penal Colony
d. Reprieve d. Elmira Reformatory
3948. The indeterminate sentence law was approved on: 3957. The confinement of an inmate may be transferred to
a. December 5, 1933 an AFP stockade provided the inmate is certified as minimum
b. December 25, 1933 security risk and is __ years of old who can no longer perform
c. December 5, 1955 manual work:
d. December 25, 1955 a. More than 60
3949. The following are conditions of probation: EXCEPT: b. more than 50
a. Granted by the court c. More than 70
b. He was once on Probation d. more than 80
c. Must not have committed any crime against national 3958. As a general rule, viewing the remains of the deceased
security relative of an inmate may be enjoyed only if the deceased
d. Penalty should not exceed six years imprisonment relative is in a place within a radius of ___ kilometres by road
3950. The following are the unanticipated consequence of from prison:
punishment; EXCEPT: a. 10
a. It develops a caution in the parts of criminal committing b. 30
crime during night time c. 20
b. Generally stops constructive effort (lack of respect to the d. d. 40
law) 3959. An inmate over _ years of age may be excused from
c. Punishment elevates the criminal mandatory labor:
d. Develops public attitude of idolizing criminals a. 50
3951. It assumes that every individual has free will and b. 60
knows the penal laws: c. 55
a. Classical school d. 65
b. Neo classical 3960. The color of maximum security risk prisoner’s uniform:
a. Tangerine
c. Positivist
b. Blue
3952. This school focuses on crimes and on the
c. Brown
corresponding punishment attached to it:
d. Yellow
a. Classical school 3961. The color of medium security risk prisoner’s uniform:
b. Neo classical a. Tangerine
c. Positivist b. Blue
3953. This school maintains that criminals must be c. Brown
rehabilitated to institutions provided by the government and d. Yellow
should not be punished contrary to other schools ideology: 3962. The color of minimum security risk prisoner’s uniform:
a. Classical school a. Tangerine
b. Blue
b. Neo classical
c. Brown
c. Positivist d. Yellow
3954. BJMP stands for:
a. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
b. The government
c. The jail bureau 3963. The act of getting out unlawfully from confinement or
d. None of the abovementioned custody by an inmate:
3955. STATEMENT 1: Provincial Prisons/Jails are a. Detention
administered and controlled by the Provincial Government b. emancipation
(Governor). c. Release of prisoner
STATEMENT 2: The Bureau of Corrections is under the d. escape
supervision of the Department of the Interior and Local 3964. The following are considered instruments of restraint;
Government. EXCEPT:
a. Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is false a. Leg irons
b. Statement 1 is false, statement 1 is true b. whipping rod
c. Straight jacket

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d. handcuffs 3974. He introduced the progressive stage system. It was
3965. Type A jail has a population of ___ offenders: also referred to as the Irish System:
a. 100 or more a. Evelyn Ruggles Brise
b. Manuel Montesinos
b. 21- 99
c. Sir Walter Crofton
c. 150 or more d. Alexander Macanochie
d. 20 or less 3975. He was the superintendent of the Elmira
3966. Type B jail has a population of ___ offenders: Reformatory in New York. He introduced a system of grades
a. 21 – 99 for prisoners:
b. 120 a. Zebulon Brockway
c. 20 or less b. Alexander Macanochie
c. Manuel Montesinos
d. 150
d. Domer of France
3967. Type C jail has a population of ___ offenders: 3976. The progressive development of the prison system
a. 21 – 99 came to the middle of the __ century:
b. 120 a. 18th
c. 20 or less b. 19th
d. 150 c. 20th
3968. This correctional facility introduced individuals d. 21st
housing in cellblocks, with congregate work in shops during
3977. This law brought about extensive reforms in the
the day:
prison and authorized o penitentiary house with 16 cells to be
a. Elmira reformatory built in the yard of the jail to carry out solitary confinement
b. Borstal institution with labor for ``hardened atrocious offenders’’:
c. Auburn prison system a. ACT of 1890
d. Pennsylvania prison system b. ACT of 1790
3969. His progressive move was noted when the convicts c. ACT of 1690
after good behavior were given marks and after accumulating d. ACT of 1590
the required number, a ticket to leave was issued to
deserving convicts:
a. Sir Walter Crofton
b. Alexander Macanochie
c. Zebulon Brockway
d. Manuel Montesinos 3978. The new prison had the traditional lay out of large
3970. opened in 1876, was the first penal institution to rooms for the inmates:
remodel its philosophy away from punitive and retributive a. Auburn Prison
practices and veered towards reformation and treatment b. Pennsylvania
educational and vocational are imparted to the prisoner as a c. Walnut Street
way to treat his lack of life skills to survive according to the d. Irish Prisons
rules of the outside society:
3979. On the year ___, the Elmira Reformatory is
a. Elmira reformatory founded:
b. Sing-sing prisons a. 1875
c. Alcatraz b. 1876
d. Walnut street jail c. 1877
3971. This is considered as the “institution of silent d. 1888
system” due to the imposition of strict code of silence: 3980. He was the Director of Prison in Valencia, Spain
a. Auburn which organized prisoners into companies and appointed
b. Pennsylvania petty officer in charge:
c. Walnut street a. Sir Evelyn Ruggles Brise
d. Irish prisons b. Manuel Montesinos
3972. He established an agricultural colony for male c. Alexander Maconochie
youth: d. Sir Walter Crofton
3981. This state prison contained cells in the pits similar
a. Sir Evelyn Ruggles Brise to the underground cistern of long ago rome:
b. Sir Walter Crofton a. St Michael System
c. Manuel Montesinos b. Sing-Sing prisons
d. Domer of france c. Maine State prisons
3973. assigned as superintendent of the English Penal d. Wal nut street
Colony located at Norfolk Island in Australia: 3982. An agricultural colony for male juveniles was
a. Alexander Macanochie established by Domer of France. The boys were confined in
cottages with an appointed ___ to supervise them:
b. Domer of France a. Penal guards
c. 8Sir Walter Crofton b. Immediate supervisors
d. Zebulon Brockway c. House fathers
d. Big brothers

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3983. Under the Irish system, a prison who wanted to 3991. The post-sentence investigation
lessen their period of imprisonment should be confined in a report is submitted to court
singular cell (Solitary confinement) for a period of ___ within___________?
months with a reduce diet:
A.    10-days period           
a. 6 months
       B.    30-days period
b. 7 months
c. 8 months        C.    15-days period
d. 9 months        D.    60-days period
3984. This system created by Sir Walter Crofton is an 3992. To what agency is an alien parolee
equivalent to a modern day parole: turned over for
a. Progressive stage system disposition,documentation and
b. Spanish system
appropriate order?
c. Criminal justice system
d. None of the foregoing A.    Bureau of Corrections            
3985. It features consisted solitary confinement of        B.    Bureau of Immigration and
prisoners in their own cell day and night: Deportation
a. Auburn system        C.    Board of Pardons and Parole
b. Pennsylvania system        D.   National Bureau of Investigation
c. St Michael System 3993. A complaint may be filed by any of
d. Irish system
the following, EXCEPT:
3986. He was a penologist and is sometimes regarded as
the father of prison reform in the United States of America: A.    The offended party           
a. Alexander Maconochie        B.    other public officers
b. Zebulon Reed Brockway        C.    any peace officer
c. Sir Walter Crofton        D.    Offender
d. Domer of France 3994. The President grants
3987. It is considered the best reform institution for absolute/conditional pardon based on
young offenders:
the recommendation of
a. Borstal Institution
b. St. Michael Institution A.    Bureau of Corrections            
c. Auburn System        B.    Office of the Executive Secretary
d. Pennsylvania        C.    Board of Pardon and Parole
3988. This is the discipline being implemented in        D.    Parole and Probation Administration
Louisiana state penitentiary. Under this discipline, every
inmate is responsible for the actuations of all the others:
3995. A penalty having its minimum and
a. Rough Rider Industries
maximum duration is referred to as
b. I am my Brother’s keeper
c. Conditional setting a. Determinate sentence
d. collective responsibility b. Capital punishment
c. Corporal punishment
3989. Sweden, a convict may undergo d. Indeterminate sentence
probation with community service and 3996. Which of the following executive
render service to the community for
clemency needs the concurrence of the
___ to ____ hours depending on the
seriousness of the crime committed: congress?
a. 50 – 250 a.Pardon
b. 40- 280 a. Amnesty
c. 40 – 240 b. Probation
d. 50 – 260 c. Parole
3403. what type of questions are allowed to be 3997. It is an executive clemency
asked to a witness who is unwilling to testify? whereby the convicted person should
A.    Intelligent             serve part of his sentence?
       B.    Misleading a.Pardon
       C.    Unresponsive b.Parole
       D.    Leading c.Probation
3990. Which theory of criminal d.Amnesty
punishment holds that punishment is 3998. How many days before election
imposed on the offender to allow does inmate are prohibited from going
society to vent its anger toward and out?
exact vengeance upon the criminal? A. 30 days
A.    Retribution             B. 90 Days
       B.    Restoration C. 60 Days
       C.    The Executive D. 120 Days
       D.    The Quasi-Judiciary

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 3999. Maya is in prison for the past 48 4. Order of Court
months and has never been involved in a. 4 and 1
any trouble, no matter how minor. If b. 1 and 2
c. 3 and 4
you were the prison director, how
d. 2 and 3
many days for each month would you 4006. An advantageous result in the
approve as Maya’s good conduct time integration of correctional agencies is:
allowance? a. More physical facilities to maintain
A. 5 days b. More prisoners to supervise
B. 8 days c. Divided resources such as manpower and
C. 10 days finances
d. Better coordination of services and
D. 12 days
increased cost-efficiency
4000. The post-sentence investigation
report is submitted to court
within___________?
A.    10-days period            4007. A petition for the grant of absolute
       B.    30-days period or conditional pardon shall be
       C.    15-days period favorably endorsed to the Board by the
_______ if the crime committed by the
       D.    60-days period
petitioner is against national security.
4001. Ideal number of days for an inmate a. Secretary of Foreign Affairs
to be placed in the quarantine unit at b. Secretary of Justice
the Reception and Diagnostic Center . c. Secretary of National Defense
A. 55 days d. Secretary of the Interior and Local
B. 5 days Government
C. 60 days 4008. Under which condition can a
prisoner be immediately released
D. 15 days
provided he is not a recidivist or he had
not been previously convicted 3 or
more times of any crime?
4002. In the 13th century, a criminal could a. If he has been in jail for 60 days and the
avoid punishment by claiming refugee maximum penalty for the offense he may
in a church for a period of ___ at the be found guilty of is destierro
b. If he has been in jail for 30 days and the
end of which time he has compelled to
maximum penalty of the offense he may be
leave the realm by a road or path
found guilty of is prision correccional
assigned to him. c. If he has been in jail for 30 days and the
maximum penalty of the offense he may be
A. 30 days found guilty of is reclusion perpetua
B. 50 days d. If he has been in jail for a period equal to or
C. 40 days more than the possible maximum term of
punishment of the offense he may be found
D. 60 days
guilty of
4003. Who among the following may be 4009. Zosimo was convicted to a prison
granted conditional pardon? term of prision correccional. Will he
a. A sick prisoner, certified as such by qualify for probation?
government physician a. No, his sentence is six (6) years and one (1)
b. A prisoner who served as “bastonero” day
c. A prisoner who is sixty years old and above b. No, his sentence is more than six (6) years
d. A prisoner who returned to prison after he and one (1) day
broke his probation conditions c. Yes, his sentence is less than six (6) years
4004. The following are considered and one (1) day
minor offenses of an inmate, EXCEPT: d. Yes, his sentence is three (3) years and one
a. Rendering service to fellow inmate (1) day
b. Failing to stand at attention and give due 4010. There are four (4) acknowledged
respect when confronted by or reporting to goals of _____________ as follows:
any officer or member of the custodial force retribution, deterrence, incapacitation
c. Willful waste of food and rehabilitation.
d. Littering or failing to maintain cleanliness a. Criminal intent
and orderliness in his quarter and/or b. Criminal mind
surroundings c. Criminal sanction
4005. What documents are attached to d. Criminal action
the Release Document of the parolee? 4011. The system of key control in a jail
1. Prison record includes:
2. Name of the Parole and Probation Officer a. An updated system of monitoring and
3. Location of the Prison or Confinement control of keys
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 b. A documented inventory of security
personnel
c. A collection of all padlocks and keys 4018. Which authorizes the release of a
d. An accurate listing of all keys and receipting detainee who has undergone
them preventive imprisonment equivalent to
4012. To what agency is an alien parolee the maximum imposable sentence for
turned over for disposition, the offense he is charged with?
documentation and appropriate order? a. Batas Pambansa 95
a. Bureau of Immigration and Deportation b. Batas Pambansa 85
b. Bureau of Corrections c. Batas Pambansa 105
c. Board of Pardons and Parole d. Batas Pambansa 965
d. National Bureau of Investigation 4019. What is the primary purpose of the
presentence investigation?
a. To help the judge in selecting the
4013. The Post-Sentence Investigation appropriate sentence of the offender
Report is submitted to court within b. To exonerate the offender
_____________. c. To give the offender an opportunity to
a. 10-day period defend himself
b. 30-day period d. To assist the judge in dismissing the case
c. 15-day period
d. 60-day period
4020. According to the control theory,
crime and delinquency result when an
4014. The President grants individual’s bond to
absolute/conditional pardon based on ________________ is weak and
the recommendation of: broken.
a. Board of Pardon and Parole a. Behavior
b. Bureau of Corrections b. Police
c. Parole and Probation Administration c. Law
d. Office of the Executive Secretary d. Society
4015. Which of the following are
classified as detainees?
1. Accused person who is confined in jail while 4021. A drug user who is placed under
undergoing investigation probation may be made to serve his
2. Accused person who is confined in jail while awaiting sentence by the court if he
of undergoing trial a. Becomes unruly and undisciplined
3. Accused person who is confined in jail while awaiting b. Commits another offense
final judgment c. He is 21 years old
4. Accused person who is confined in jail and already d. Violates any of the conditions of his
convicted to serve a prison term probation
a. 3, 4 and 1 4022. JOI Jean Sibuto confiscated white
b. 2, 3 and 4 crystalline substance rolled in a
c. 4, 1 and 2 transparent sachet and she suspected
d. 1, 2 and 3 it to be “shabu”. What should he do
first?
4016. Why is probation service analogous a. Record the incident in the logbook
to parole service? b. Bring the substance to NBI
a. Both have similar investigation and c. Properly identify the substance
supervision functions. d. Properly preserve the evidence
b. Both services are performed by the 4023. All data gathered about the
prosecutors. probation applicant shall be treated
c. Both services are performed by alcoholics. _________________.
d. Both services are under the courts. a. Comprehensively
b. Appropriately
c. Confidentially
4017. The Probation Officer and d. Judiciously
Volunteer Probation Aides undertake
supervision and visitation of the
probationer. However, control over the 4024. Is the court order revoking the
probationer and probation program is grant of probation appealable?
exercised by: a. Definitely yes, it is appealable
a. The Chief of Police of the place where b. Definitely no, it is not appealable
he/she resides c. It depends on the outcome of the
b. The Parole and Probation Administrator investigation
c. The Secretary of Justice d. It depends on the violations committed
d. The Court who placed him on probation

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 4025. Which theory of criminal 4032. Inmates with heart diseases need
punishment holds that punishment is to be treated with a little more care
imposed on the offender to allow than other inmates. Which of the
society to vent its anger toward and following should NOT be done by a jail
exact vengeance upon the criminal? officer?
a. Retribution a. Ensure that the inmates see the medical
b. Restoration staff regularly
c. Rehabilitation b. Ensure that the inmates comply with his
d. Deterrence prescribed diet
4026. What is referred to as the c. Avoid assigning strenuous jobs to the
reduction of the duration of a prison inmate
sentence? d. Prescribe the medicine to the heart-patient
a. Commutation of sentence inmate
b. Parole
c. Absolute pardon
d. Conditional pardon 4033. What is the classification of the
4027. There are various types of prison prisoner’s offense of possession of
programs. For what purpose is a lewd or pornographic literature and/or
rehabilitative program? photographs?
a. It secures prisoners from escape or violence a. Minor offense
b. It employs prisoners in various products or b. Less grave offense
good-producing tasks c. Victimless offense
c. It attempts to improve a prisoner’s job skills d. Grave offense
or educational achievement 4034. Juveniles are not capable of
d. It assigns prisoners to daily routine work committing deviant acts, and what are
like laundry and janitorial considered deviant acts are deviant
4028. There are two (2) inmates arguing only by mainstream standards, not by
over loss of some items in their cell. the offender’s standards. This
You are the guard on duty. What will assumption is advanced by the
you do? ________________ theory.
a. Invite both of them to the office and a. Social
investigate the matter b. Juvenile
b. Poke your gun at both of them to stop the c. Cultural deviance
heated discussion d. Choice
c. Confine the culprit in a segregated room 4035. If people fear being apprehended
d. Look for witnesses to testify who is the and punished, they will not risk
culprit breaking the law. This view is being
held by the __________ theory.
a. Displacement
4029. Pedro Ayog is a probationer who is b. General deterrence
ordered by the Court to pay certain c. Discouragement
amounts to the victim as part of his d. Incapacitation
civil liability. To whom shall he pay the 4036. One of the following is NOT a
amount for remittance of the victim? gauge in determining the age of the
a. Municipal treasurer child and that is:
b. Cashier of the trial court a. Baptismal certificate
c. Clerk of Court of the Trial Court b. Birth certificate
d. Cashier of the Probation Office c. Looks
d. Warts
4037. What do you call the monitoring
and support of juveniles who have
4030. The ______________ model of been released from custody or
correctional institution focuses in supervision by the juvenile court.
security, discipline and order: a. After care
a. Rehabilitative b. Welfare
b. Reintegration c. Duty
c. Medical d. Concern
d. Custodial
4031. Studies are conducted to
determine the experiences of residents 4038. The scientific approach to the
with crimes which are not usually study of criminal behavior is
reported to the police. What are these ____________________.
studies called? a. Research
a. Population surveys b. Survey
b. Police surveys c. Criminology
c. Victimization surveys d. Study
d. Information surveys
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 4039. To be eligible for the grant of 18-25 feet high, on top are catwalks in
conditional pardon, what portion of the every corner, a tower post is manned
sentence must have been served by a by heavily armed guards:
petitioner-prisoner? a. Maximum security facility
a. At least one half of the minimum of his b. Medium security facility
indeterminate sentence c. Super maximum security facility
b. At least one half of the maximum of his d. Minimum security facility
indeterminate sentence 4047. Which of the following procedures
c. At least one fourth of the maximum of his should be observed in handling drug
indeterminate sentence addicts who are incarcerated?
d. At least one third of the minimum of his 1. They should be segregated especially during the
indeterminate sentence withdrawal period
4040. Who among the following can 2. They should be closely supervised to prevent
apply for release under the Law on attempts to commit suicide or self-mutilation
Release on Recognizance? 3. They should not be administered
a. One who is charged with an offense whose sedatives/stimulants unless prescribed by a
penalty is three (3) years and above physician
b. One who is charged with an offense whose 4. They should be transferred to mental institution of
penalty is twelve (12) months and above proper psychiatric treatment
c. One who is charged with an offense whose a. 2, 3 and 4
penalty is not more than six (6) months b. 3, 4 and 1
d. One who is charged with an offense whose c. 4, 1 and 2
penalty is six (6) months and above d. 1, 2 and 3
4041. Which of the following is NOT an
objective in the conduct of interview of
probation applicant? 4048. A prisoner who is aggressive,
a. To diagnose the applicant’s problems violent, quarrelsome and does not
b. To determine how the person shall respond cooperate with other inmates is
to supervision referred to as
c. To gather information about the person a. Squealer
d. To determine his paying capacity b. Sucker
c. Hustler
4042. Who is the Boston bootmaker who d. Tough
was the founder of probation in the 4049. When does an applicant who was
United States? granted probation report to the
a. Sir Walter Crofton assigned Probation Officer for
b. Alexander Maconochie Interview?
c. John Murray Spear a. Within thirty-six (36) hours from receipt of
d. John Augustus probation order
4043. What is meant by the concept of b. Within fifteen (15) days from receipt of
probation which is from the Latin word probation order
“probatio” and had historical roots in c. Within seventy-two (72) hours from his
the practice of judicial reprieve? receipt of the probation order
a. Live with integrity d. Within twenty-four (24) hours from receipt
b. Testing period of probation order
c. Walk with faith 4050. What agency issues the Certificate
d. Out of the institution of Final Release and Discharge of a
4044. Sociologists look at corrections as: Parolee?
a. The intervention which documents the a. Bureau of Corrections
attitudinal response of offenders and staff b. Board of Pardons and Parole
to processes of punishment c. Parole and Probation Administration
b. The medium through which prisoners d. Department of Justice
change their behavior and attitudes 4051. Pedro was arrested by the police
c. The consolidation of interactions between for theft in the amount of P5,000.00.
correctional officers and the prisoners He was brought to the police station
d. A total institution in which the basic and an administrative record of the
physiological needs of prisoners were to be arrest was prepared. He was
met away from the outside world fingerprinted, interrogated and placed
in a line-up for identification by
4045. What is the function responsibility witnesses. What process did he
of prison guards? undergo?
a. Inmates’ health a. Preliminary hearing
b. Prison security b. Booking
c. Prisoner’s interpersonal relations c. Trial
d. Prison industry d. Indictment
4046. Level of security facility which is
usually enclosed by a thick wall about
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 4052. The “Discharge on Parole” issued a. The prisoner is sent to half-way house
by the Board to the parolee, and also b. The execution of sentence is suspended
issued by the President of the c. The probationer is sent to prison
Philippines to a pardonee upon the d. The prison term is doubled
Board’s recommendation.
a. Release document 4059. To what programs shall prisoners
b. Release folders be assigned so that they can engage in
c. Release signatures producing goods?
d. Release notes a. Industrial
b. Operational
c. Agricultural
4053. What is called the body of d. Administrative
unwritten guidelines which expresses 4060. In case of mass jailbreak, all
the values, attitudes and types of members of the custodial force shall
behavior that older inmates demand of proceed to their assigned critical posts
younger ones? armed with their issued firearms to:
a. Code of jail conduct a. Shoot at the escapees
b. Rehabilitation guidelines b. Protect the other inmates
c. Code of silence c. Plug off the escape routes
d. Inmate social code d. Give warning shots
4054. Which of the following guidelines 4061. When shall the prison record and
shall be followed when the parolee carpeta of a petitioner for executive
commits an infraction of the terms and clemency be forwarded to the Board of
conditions appearing in his Release Pardon and Parole (BPP)?
Documents? a. Within three (3) months from receipt of the
1. His Parole and Probation Officer prepares and BUCOR Director of the request of the BPP
submits an Infraction Report to the Board of Pardon for prison record and carpeta
and Parole b. At least one (1) month before the expiration
2. Upon receipt of Infraction Report, the Board orders of the minimum of the prisoner’s
the arrest of the parolee indeterminate sentence
3. The Parolee is recommitted to prison if the Board c. Within five (5) months from receipt of the
finds that the continuation of his parole is BUCOR Director of the BPP request for
incompatible with public welfare prison record and carpeta
4. The parolee is made to pay fine for his infraction d. Within one (1) month from receipt of the
a. 2, 3 and 4 BUCOR Director of the request made by the
b. 4, 1 and 2 BPP for the prison record and carpeta
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 3, 4 and 1
4055. You are a jail personnel assigned to 4062. Which of the following contributes
censor inmates’ mails. In one mail, you to prison violence?
found unusual names and sentences. a. Prison industry
What shall you do? b. Inhuman prison conditions, including
a. Report the matter to the Jail Warden overcrowding and threats of homosexual
b. Put back the letter inside the envelope and rapes
give it to the inmate c. Conjugal visits
c. Study the letter carefully and analyze the d. Work furlough allowing inmates to go out
contents to determine the real meaning of and work
the names and sentences 4063. Which of the following factors
d. Xerox the letter before giving it to the makes it difficult for a released
addressee prisoner to lead a straight life?
4056. The classical theory of criminology a. Scientific advances have made modern
provides that the basis for criminal living more pleasant
liability is ______________________ b. Police conduct close supervision on
a. Individual’s thinking released prisoners
b. Individual’s mental state c. Lasting reformation must come from within
c. Human free will and cannot be imposed
d. Human facilities d. Many of his contacts and friends are
4057. He said the “crime must be underworld characters
considered an injury to society, and the 4064. Under the plan for riots and violent
only rational measure of crime is the disturbances, what shall be done at the
extent of injury.” sound of the first pre-arranged alarm?
a. Jeremy Bentham a. Assault group of jail guards fire at the
b. Cesare Beccaria rioters
c. James Wilson b. Saturate the area with riot gas
d. John Howard c. All inmates must be locked up inside their
4058. What is the effect of the grant of respective cell
probation? d. Disperse the rioters and get their leaders
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 4065. Which agency exercises 4073. The approval of the application of
supervision over parolees? probation is done by the Judge thru the
a. Bureau of Pardon and Parole issuance of
b. Probation and Parole Administration a. Probation Citation Ticket
c. Bureau of Corrections b. Probation Order
d. Department of Justice c. Probation Certificate
4066. The judge approves or denies the d. Probation Clearance
grant of probation based on the report
of the
a. Social worker 4074. According to this theory, social
b. Probation officer actions are repeated (or not repeated)
c. Prosecutor as a consequence of their association in
d. Police office the actors mind with punishing or
rewarding experiences.
4067. What law grants probation to first a. Containment
time offenders who are sent to prison b. Differential Association
terms of not more than six (6) years? c. Operant Conditioning
a. Presidential Decree No. 448 d. Differential Identification
b. Presidential Decree No. 968 4075. This theory assumes that people
c. Presidential Decree No. 603 are law-abiding but under great
d. Presidential Decree No. 1184 pressure they will resort to crime. . .
4068. An offender can apply for Release a. Strain theory
on Recognizance is he is convicted with b. Differential association theory
an offense whose penalty is: c. Social learning theory
a. Three (3) years and above d. Psychoanalytic theory
b. Not more than six (6) months 4076. What is referred to as the
c. Twelve (12) months and above reduction of the duration of a prison
d. Six (6) months and above sentence?
4069. Which of the following is the a. Parole
prison administrator’s tool for b. Commutation of sentence
controlling and stabilizing prison c. Absolute pardon
operation? d. Conditional pardon
a. Leadership 4077. It is a report on the background of
b. Supervision the convict, prepared for the judge to
c. Activity decide on the approval or denial of
d. Recreation application of probation.
4070. Mario is soon to be released from a. Probation Report
camp Bukang Liwayway. He is sent to a b. Post-Sentence Investigation Report
pre-release facility called c. Pre-Sentence Investigation Report
_______________ for counseling and d. Pre-Trial Report
therapy. 4078. By what term is selling of illegal
a. Recreation Center commodities inside prison or jail
b. Congregate Group known?
c. Half-way House a. Gleaning
d. Diagnostic Center b. Hustling
4071. What is referred to as the concept c. Benting
of the “greatest happiness of the d. Vending
greater number” espoused by Jeremy
Bentham?
a. Utilitarianism 4079. There are various types of prison
b. Rehabilitation programs. What type of program that
c. Reformation secures prisoner from escape or
d. Conformance violence?
4072. Juanito was convicted and a. Maintenance
sentenced for the crime of serious b. Rehabilitative
physical injuries to a prison term of c. Industrial
prision correccional. Based on his d. Security
penalty, is he qualified for probation? 4080. The National Record of the
a. Yes, his sentence is less than 6 years and 1 prisoner at the New Bilibid Prison is
day called
b. No, his sentence is more than 6 years and 1 a. Carpeta
day b. Released Document
c. No, his sentence is 6 years and 1 day to 12 c. Commitment Order
years d. Mittimus
d. Yes, his sentence is 3 years and 1 day 4081. The founder of the Classical School
of Criminological Theory.

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 a. John Howard a. Status
b. Jeremy Bentham b. Sporadic
c. Cesare Lombroso c. Criminal
d. Cesare Beccaria d. Collective
4082. If probation is granted by a court 4089. The correctional program which
judge, who grants pardon? enables an individual to enhance his
a. Secretary of Justice employability, develop his intellectual
b. President of the Philippines faculties, and graduate to a free
c. Chief Justice of the Supreme Court existence in community living all at the
d. Director of Board of Pardon and Parole same time is referred to as
_______________
4083. What guarantees the appearance a. Livelihood program
in court of a defendant granted release b. Guidance counseling
on recognizance? c. Education program
a. His/her promise to live a new life d. Religious program
b. His/her fear of being sent back to prison 4090. What rehabilitation program that
c. His/her ties with family, friends, provides a presocial environment
employment, etc. within the prison to help the inmates
d. His/her capacity to raise bail develop noncriminal ways to coping
outside?
a. Psychotherapy
4084. Prisoners are awarded ________ b. Behavior therapy
off from their minimum or maximum c. Occupational therapy
term for maintaining good behavior or d. Milieu therapy
participating in various types of 4091. Prisoners should not be given
vocational, educational and treatment corporal punishment nor confined in
programs. dark cells or sweat boxes as these are:
a. Good time a. Somewhat prohibited
b. Credits b. Relatively prohibited
c. Days off c. Absolutely prohibited
d. Vacation d. Fairly prohibited
4085. Which of the following 4092. Which does not form part of the
requirements shall qualify a prisoner basic principles for riot control?
for parole? a. Preparation of a specific plan of action
1. Confinement in jail or prison to serve an b. Dissemination of plan to everyone
indeterminate sentence c. Rapid execution of plan
2. Maximum period exceeds one (1) year pursuant to a d. Firmness in executing the plan
final judgment of conviction 4093. Prison time is considered a dead
3. Service of the minimum period of said sentence less time when minutes seem to crawl and
the good conduct time allowance earned the soul grows bitter. Which of the
4. Service of 1/2 of the minimum period of sentence following mitigate the oppressiveness
a. 4, 1 and 2 of time?
b. 2, 3 and 4 a. Administrative program
c. 3, 4 and 1 b. Security programs
d. 1, 2 and 3 c. Rehabilitation programs
4086. When an accused is released from d. Custodial program
imprisonment on his or her promise to 4094. A Prisoner who is sentenced to a
return to court as required, or upon prison term of three (3) years and one
the undertaking of a suitable person (1) day to death, is known as:
that he will guarantee the accused’ a. Provincial Prisoner
appearance in court, there is what is b. Insular Prisoner
called: c. City Prisoner
a. Promise d. Municipal Prisoner
b. Acknowledgment
c. Surety
d. Recognizance 4095. How is an offender released from
4087. According to the routine activities prison or jail?
theory, the volume and distribution of 1. After service of sentence
predatory crimes are affected by the 2. Issuance of order of the court
following, EXCEPT: 3. Grant of parole
a. Presence of motivated offenders 4. Grant of pardon
b. Absence of capable guardians 5. Grant of amnesty
c. Availability of suitable targets 6. Any lawful order of competent authority
d. Absence of motivated offenders a. 1,3,4,5 and 6
4088. A group that has a short history, b. 1,2,3,4 and 5
limited size, and little define territory is c. All of those listed above
a type of gang known as: d. 2,3,4,5, and 6
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 4096. The institution during the Golden a. Shoot at the escapees
Age of Penology in 1870 to 1880 that b. Protect the other inmates
used parole extensively. c. Plug off the escape routes
a. Irish Prison System d. Give warning shots
b. Elmira Reformatory 4105. When shall the prison record and
c. Federal Bureau of Prisons carpeta of a petitioner for executive
d. Irish Parole Organization clemency be forwarded to the Board of
4097. Strip search should be conducted: Pardon and Parole (BPP)?
a. In the presence of other inmates so that there are a. Within three (3) months from receipt of the
witnesses BUCOR Director of the request of the BPP
b. At the warden’s office for prison record and carpeta
c. At the admission office in the presence of other jail b. At least one (1) month before the expiration
personnel of the minimum of the prisoner’s
d. Private room where it will be out of the view of the indeterminate sentence
others to avoid further embarrassment c. Within five (5) months from receipt of the
4098. Idea of probation first existed early BUCOR Director of the BPP request for
in the 19th century in prison record and carpeta
a. Japan d. Within one (1) month from receipt of the
b. U.S.A. BUCOR Director of the request made by the
c. England BPP for the prison record and carpeta
d. Ireland

4106. Which of the following contributes

4099. You are a jail personnel assigned to to prison violence?
censor inmates’ mails. In one mail, you a. Prison industry
found unusual names and sentences. b. Inhuman prison conditions, including
What shall you do? overcrowding and threats of homosexual
a. Report the matter to the Jail Warden rapes
b. Put back the letter inside the envelope and c. Conjugal visits
give it to the inmate d. Work furlough allowing inmates to go out
c. Study the letter carefully and analyze the and work
contents to determine the real meaning of 4107. Which of the following factors
the names and sentences makes it difficult for a released
d. Xerox the letter before giving it to the prisoner to lead a straight life?
addressee a. Scientific advances have made modern
4100. The classical theory of criminology living more pleasant
provides that the basis for criminal b. Police conduct close supervision on
liability is ______________________ released prisoners
a. Individual’s thinking c. Lasting reformation must come from within
b. Individual’s mental state and cannot be imposed
c. Human free will d. Many of his contacts and friends are
d. Human facilities underworld characters
4101. He said the “crime must be 4108. Under the plan for riots and violent
considered an injury to society, and the disturbances, what shall be done at the
only rational measure of crime is the sound of the first pre-arranged alarm?
extent of injury.” a. Assault group of jail guards fire at the
a. Jeremy Bentham rioters
b. Cesare Beccaria b. Saturate the area with riot gas
c. James Wilson c. All inmates must be locked up inside their
d. John Howard respective cell
4102. What is the effect of the grant of d. Disperse the rioters and get their leaders
probation? 4109. Which agency exercises
a. The prisoner is sent to half-way house supervision over parolees?
b. The execution of sentence is suspended a. Bureau of Pardon and Parole
c. The probationer is sent to prison b. Probation and Parole Administration
d. The prison term is doubled c. Bureau of Corrections
4103. To what programs shall prisoners d. Department of Justice
be assigned so that they can engage in 4110. The judge approves or denies the
producing goods? grant of probation based on the report
a. Industrial of the
b. Operational a. Social worker
c. Agricultural b. Probation officer
d. Administrative c. Prosecutor
4104. In case of mass jailbreak, all d. Police office
members of the custodial force shall
proceed to their assigned critical posts
armed with their issued firearms to:
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 4111. What law grants probation to first c. Operant Conditioning
time offenders who are sent to prison d. Differential Identification
terms of not more than six (6) years? 4119. This theory assumes that people
a. Presidential Decree No. 448 are law-abiding but under great
b. Presidential Decree No. 968 pressure they will resort to crime. . .
c. Presidential Decree No. 603 a. Strain theory
d. Presidential Decree No. 1184 b. Differential association theory
4112. An offender can apply for Release c. Social learning theory
on Recognizance is he is convicted with d. Psychoanalytic theory
an offense whose penalty is: 4120. What is referred to as the
a. Three (3) years and above reduction of the duration of a prison
b. Not more than six (6) months sentence?
c. Twelve (12) months and above a. Parole
d. Six (6) months and above b. Commutation of sentence
4113. Which of the following is the c. Absolute pardon
prison administrator’s tool for d. Conditional pardon
controlling and stabilizing prison 4121. It is a report on the background of
operation? the convict, prepared for the judge to
a. Leadership decide on the approval or denial of
b. Supervision application of probation.
c. Activity a. Probation Report
d. Recreation b. Post-Sentence Investigation Report
4114. Mario is soon to be released from c. Pre-Sentence Investigation Report
camp Bukang Liwayway. He is sent to a d. Pre-Trial Report
pre-release facility called 4122. By what term is selling of illegal
_______________ for counseling and commodities inside prison or jail
therapy. known?
a. Recreation Center a. Gleaning
b. Congregate Group b. Hustling
c. Half-way House c. Benting
d. Diagnostic Center d. Vending
4115. What is referred to as the concept
of the “greatest happiness of the
greater number” espoused by Jeremy 4123. There are various types of prison
Bentham? programs. What type of program that
a. Utilitarianism secures prisoner from escape or
b. Rehabilitation violence?
c. Reformation a. Maintenance
d. Conformance b. Rehabilitative
4116. Juanito was convicted and c. Industrial
sentenced for the crime of serious d. Security
physical injuries to a prison term of 4124. The National Record of the
prision correccional. Based on his prisoner at the New Bilibid Prison is
penalty, is he qualified for probation? called
a. Yes, his sentence is less than 6 years and 1 a. Carpeta
day b. Released Document
b. No, his sentence is more than 6 years and 1 c. Commitment Order
day d. Mittimus
c. No, his sentence is 6 years and 1 day to 12 4125. The founder of the Classical School
years of Criminological Theory.
d. Yes, his sentence is 3 years and 1 day a. John Howard
4117. The approval of the application of b. Jeremy Bentham
probation is done by the Judge thru the c. Cesare Lombroso
issuance of d. Cesare Beccaria
a. Probation Citation Ticket
b. Probation Order 4126. If probation is granted by a court
c. Probation Certificate judge, who grants pardon?
d. Probation Clearance a. Secretary of Justice
b. President of the Philippines
c. Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
4118. According to this theory, social d. Director of Board of Pardon and Parole
actions are repeated (or not repeated)
as a consequence of their association in
the actors mind with punishing or 4127. What guarantees the appearance
rewarding experiences. in court of a defendant granted release
a. Containment on recognizance?
b. Differential Association a. His/her promise to live a new life
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 b. His/her fear of being sent back to prison c. Education program
c. His/her ties with family, friends, d. Religious program
employment, etc. 4134. What rehabilitation program that
d. His/her capacity to raise bail provides a presocial environment
within the prison to help the inmates
develop noncriminal ways to coping
4128. Prisoners are awarded ________ outside?
off from their minimum or maximum a. Psychotherapy
term for maintaining good behavior or b. Behavior therapy
participating in various types of c. Occupational therapy
vocational, educational and treatment d. Milieu therapy
programs. 4135. Pardon cannot be extended to one
a. Good time of the following instances:
b. Credits a. Rape
c. Days off b. Murder
d. Vacation c. Impeachment
4129. Which of the following d. Brigandage
requirements shall qualify a prisoner 4136. It was held as the 1st probation
for parole? officer employed by the government:
1. Confinement in jail or a. John Augustus
prison to serve an b. Teodolo C Natividad
indeterminate sentence c. Edward N Savage
2. Maximum period exceeds one (1) year pursuant to d. Mattew Davenport
a final judgment of conviction
3. Service of the minimum period of said sentence 4137. Which of the following is a
less the good conduct time allowance earned prerogative of the chief executive with
4. Service of 1/2 of the minimum period of sentence concurrence of congress:
a. 4, 1 and 2 a. probation
b. 2, 3 and 4 b. amnesty
c. 3, 4 and 1 c. pardon
d. 1, 2 and 3 d. parole
4130. When an accused is released from 4138. What crimes apparently have no
imprisonment on his or her promise to complaining victims such as gambling,
return to court as required, or upon prostitution and drunkenness?
the undertaking of a suitable person a. Compound crime
that he will guarantee the accused’ b. Complex crime
appearance in court, there is what is c. Blue collar crime
called: d. Victimless crime
a. Promise 4139. An open institution usually a penal
b. Acknowledgment form or camp.
c. Surety a. Maximum security institution
d. Recognizance b. Minimum security institution
4131. According to the routine activities c. Medium security institution
theory, the volume and distribution of d. None of these
predatory crimes are affected by the 4140. They assist probation and parole
following, EXCEPT: office in the supervision of the
a. Presence of motivated offenders probationers.
b. Absence of capable guardians a. Volunteer workers
c. Availability of suitable targets b. Volunteer probation officers
d. Absence of motivated offenders c. Volunteer community workers
d. Volunteer probation aides
4132. A group that has a short history,
limited size, and little define territory is 4141. It ensures a more careful selection
a type of gang known as: of the institution in which the prisoner
a. Status is to be confined.
b. Sporadic a. Quarantine unit
c. Criminal b. Courts
d. Collective c. RDC
4133. The correctional program which d. Correction
enables an individual to enhance his 4142. The continuing relationship
employability, develop his intellectual between probation officer and
faculties, and graduate to a free probationer is known as?
existence in community living all at the a. Pre-Sentence Investigation
same time is referred to as b. None of these
_______________ c. supervision
a. Livelihood program d. affiliation guidance
b. Guidance counseling

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 4143. The ideal ratio or escort is____
prison guard for every____number of
inmates.
a. 1:2
b. 1:4
c. 1:12
d. 1:7

4144. He was the first Superintendent of

Elmira sentence reformatory.
a. John Augustus
b. John Howard
c. Zebulon Brockway
d. Teodulo Natividad

4145. Reducing the degree of Death

penalty inflected upon the council.
a. amnesty
b. commutation
c. pardon
d. commutation of sentence

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