CHANDAN KUMAR | 1 WhatsApp +91 9939063185 AIR LAW 1.Which Annex to the Chicago Convention covers dangerous goods carried in aircraft? A) Annex 16 B) Annex 15 C) Annex 17 D) Annex 18 2. What is each contracting state of ICAO required to provide? {A) Facilities for SAR operations to be undertaken in its airspace B) Details of Aerodrome Operating Minima to each operator using its airspace C) Modern radio navigation facilities for aeroplanes transiting its airspace ) Oceanic control facilities in oceanic areas adjacent to territorial airspace 3. For aircraft flying over the high seas, which rules shall be in force? A) The rules established by the state of registry of the aircraft B) The rules established under the Convention of international civil aviation C) The rules established by the state(s) adjacent to the high seas over flown D) The rules established by the state of the operator of the aircraft 4, Where was the Convention on International Civil Aviation signed in 19442 A) Montreal B) Chicago ) Geneva 1D) Rome. 5. The objectives of ICAO were ratified by the: A) Chicago convention 1944 B) Montreal convention 1948 C) Warsaw convention 1929 1D) Geneva convention 1936 6. Annex 14 to the convention on international civil aviation contains SARPS for: A) none of the above B) Security ©) Facilitation D) Aerodromes 7. Where there is an amendment to an International Standard a State must give notice to! A) The ICAO Assembly within 30 days of the adoption of the amendment B) The ICAO Council within 60 days of the adoption of the amendment ) The ICAO Assembly within 60 days of the adoption of the amendment 1) The ICAO Council within 30 days of the adoption of the amendmentCHANDAN KUMAR | 2 WhatsApp +91 9939063185 8. According to the Chicago Convention, aircraft of Contracting States shall have the right to make flights into or in transit non-stop across the territory of other contracting States and to make stops for non-traffic purposes without the necessity of obtaining prior permission. This applies to the following flights: A) To aircraft engaged in commercial non-scheduled fights only B) To aircraft on non-commercial flights only C) To aircraft of scheduled air services only 1) To aircraft not engaged in scheduled international air services 9. The Paris Convention of 1919 defined the status of international airspace and gave the authority to the Commander of the aeroplane to act in accordance with what law? A) The law of the state of registration B) The law of the state of the aerodrome bf departure ©) International Law 1D) The law of the state of the operator 10. The Air Navigation Commission consists of: A) 15 members appointed by the ICAO Council B) 15 members appointed by the ICAO Assembly C) 33 members appointed by the ICAO Council 1) 33 members appointed by the ICAO Assembly 11. One of the main objectives of ICAO Is to: A) approve the ticket prices set by international airline companies B) develop principles and techniques for international aviation ©) approve new international airlines with jet aircraft 1) approve new international airlines 112. Which of the following concerning aviation, applies in areas where international law is applicable? A) ICAO Law applies B) The law of the state of registry of the aeroplane applies €) ICAO rules apply D) Law as agreed by the Geneva Convention on Territorial Waters and Contiguous Zones applies 13. For which flights is the article about cabotage in the Convention of Chicago applicable? A) For national carriers B) For cargo fights €) For domestic flights D) For international flights 14, The ‘Standards’ contained in the Annexes to the Chicago convention are to be considered: A) binding for all member states B) binding for the member states that have not notified ICAO about a national difference ©) advice and guidance for the aviation legislation within the member states ) binding for all air line companies with international trafficCHANDAN KUMAR | 3 WhatsApp +91 9939063185 15. Annex 17 to the Convention of Chicago covers: A) Facilitations B) Aerodromes ©) Operation of aircraft D) Security 16. Concerning the Chicago Convention of 1944: A) Only 52 nations were permitted to attend B) Each state was required to recognise the other states attending €) Each state has total sovereignty over the airspace above its territory D) All states in the world attended 17. What Is the obligation of a State in the event of non-compliance with an International Standard? ‘A) The State has to notify the Council of ICAO and publish such differences in the national AIP B) The State has to publish such differences in the national AIP only CC) The State has to notify the Assembly of ICAO and publish such differences in the national AIP ) Modifications to International Standards shall be published in the national AIP only; differences to Recommended Practices have to be notified to ICAO 18. Which of the following is obligating for members of ICAO? A) ICAO must be informed about differences from the standards In any of the Annexes to the convention B) ICAO shall approve the pricing of tickets on international airline connections C) ICAO must be informed about changes in the national regulations 1D) ICAO must be informed about new flight crew licenses and any suspended validity of such licenses 19. If a state finds that It is impracticable to comply with an International Standar¢: A) It shall give immediate notice to ICAO of the differences between its own practices and the International Standard B) It shall give 45 days notice to ICAO of the differences between its own practices and the International Standard ) It shall give 90 days notice to ICAO of the differences between its own practices and the International Standard 1D) It shall give 60 days notice to ICAO of the differences between its own practices and the International Standard 20. The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) establishes: A) aeronautical standards adopted by all states B) standards and recommended international practices for contracting member states ) standards and recommended practices applied without exception by all states, signatory to the Chicago convention ) proposals for aeronautical regulations in the form of 18 annexes 21. Which of the following statements is true regarding the Rules of the Air over the high seas? A) There are no rules over the high seas B) Rules are only applied where Oceanic Control is applied (i.e. Shanwick OCA etc.) C) The rules as defined by ICAO (Annex 2 to the Chicago Convention) apply 1D) The rules applicable are the rules as defined by the state of registrationCHANDAN KUMAR | 4 WhatsApp +91 9939063185 22. What is the definition of HIGH SEAS? A) Sea state 6 or above B) Sea areas outside of territorial waters of any state CC) Sea areas where there is more than one state bordering the sea D) Sea areas more than 12 nm from the closest shore 23. Where is the headquarters of ICAO? A) Montreal B) New York C) Paris ) London 24, Non-scheduled aircraft of one contracting state have the right: A) To make flights into or transit non-stop across another contracting state and make stops for non- traffic purposes without the necessity to obtain prior permission B) To make flights into or transit non-stop across another contracting state and make stops for traffic Purposes without the necessity to obtain prior permission ©) To make flights into o transit non-stop across another contracting state and make stops for traffic Purposes, prior permission must be obtained prior to the flight D) To make flights into or transit non-stop across another contracting state and make stops for non- traffic purposes, however, prior permission must be obtained prior to the flight 25. Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of Montreal by written notification to the depositary governments. The denunciation shall take effect: ‘A) 6 months following the date on which notification Is received by the Depositary Governments 8) 3 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depositary Governments. ) 4 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depositary Governments, 1D) 2 months following the date ICAO is informed 26. Which is the permanent body of ICAO being responsible to the Assembly? A) The Council B) The Secretary General of ICAO C) The Air Navigation Commission D) The President of the Assembly 27. Article 36 of the Chicago Convention is concerned with photographic apparatus in aircraft. What rights does a state have with regard to article 367 A) Allof the above B) The police can arrest persons using cameras in aircraft C) The use of cameras is espionage and is therefore prohibited D) The state may prohibit or regulate the use of photographic equipment in aircraft over its territory 28. What is the proper name given to a business that includes the provi of public transport of passengers or cargo? of flights for the purpose A) A scheduled air service B) Anair transport undertakingCHANDAN KUMAR | 5 WhatsApp +91 9939063185 ©) A commercial air operation BD) Anairline 29. An aircraft flying over the territory of another state must: A) Follow the rules of the Al of the State that has issued the aircraft Certificate of airworthiness B) Follow the rules of the Alr of the State of the Operator €) Follow the rules of the Air of the State it is over flying 1D) Follow the rules of the Alr of the State of Registration 30. Which body of ICAO finalises the Standard and Recommended Practices (SARPS) for submission for adoption? A) the Air Navigation Commission B) the Regional Air Navigation meeting C) the Assembly ) the Council 31. Who is responsible for the development and modifications of the SARPS: A) the Contracting States B) the ICAO Assembly C) the ICAO Council 1D) the ICAO Air Navigation Commission 32. The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) was established by the international convention of: A) The Hague 8) Montreal ©) Warsaw D) Chicago 33. Which of the following ICAO documents contain International Standards and Recommended Practices (SARPS)? A) Regional Supplementary Procedures (SUPPS) B) ICAO Technical Manuals ©) Procedures for Air Navigation Services (PANS) D) Annexes to the Convention on international civil aviation 34, Which Annex to the Chicago Convention deals with Licensing of Aircrew? A) Annex 1 B) Annex 9 ©) Annex 6 D) Annex 2 35, The president of the ICAO Council is elected for A) 10 years 8) 5 yearsCHANDAN KUMAR | 6 WhatsApp +91 9939063185 ©) 1 year 1) 3 years 36. Any contracting state may denaunce the Convention of Tokyo by notification addressed to.. A) International Civil Aviation Organization B) all States Members of United Nations CC) United Nations D) the other Contracting States 37. The international convention defining rules relative to the responsibilities of international air carriers for the carriage of passengers, baggage and freight Is the: A) Hague Convention B) Tokyo Convention ¢) Warsaw Convention 1) Montreal Convention 38, The right to damages Is lost if an action Is not brought within 2 years, this time starts from: A) The date of arrival at the destination, or from the date on which the carriage ceased B) The date of arrival at the destination, or from the date on which the aircraft ought to have arrived, or from the date on which the carriage ceased ) The date of arrival at the destination, or from the time at which the aircraft ought to have arrived, or from the date on which the carriage ceased D) The date of arrival at the destination 39, The privilege for an airplane registered in one state and enroute to or from that state, to take on passengers, mail and cargo in a second state and put them down in a third state is called: A) 1st freedom rights B) 4th freedom rights ©) 3rd freedom rights ) Sth freedom rights 40. The convention of Tokyo applies to damage: ‘A) caused in the territory of a contracting state or in a ship or aircraft registered there in , by an aircraft registered in the territory of another contraction state B) the above convention does not deal with this item ) only caused in the territory of a contracting state by an aircraft registered in the territory of another contracting state 1D) caused in the territory of a contracting state by any aircraft regardless the registration 41. An airline is planning a flight that will require a technical landing in a neighboring state. Which freedom of the Air will be exercised? A) ath freedom, 8) 1st freedom ©) 3rd freedom 1D) 2nd freedomCHANDAN KUMAR | 7 WhatsApp +91 9939063185 42. The privilege to land in another ICAO participating State for technical reasons is calle A) the Second Freedom 8) the Fourth Freedom ) the First Freedom D) the Third Freedom 43, The problems of hijacking were discussed at: AA) the Chicago convention B) the Montreal convention €) the Tokyo convention D) the Geneva convention 44. Does the liability of a carrier extend to the carriage of mail and cargo as well as passengers? A) Yes but only to internal, not international flights B) Yes, but only to scheduled flights (3rd, 4th and Sth freedom flights) €) Yes, but only mail and international cargo D) No 45, The Warsaw convention and later amendments deals with: {A) limitation of the operator's responsibility vis-a -vis passenger and goods transported B) operator's license for international scheduled aviation C) the security system at airports D) the regulation of transportation of dangerous goods 46. Under the terms of the Tokyo convention of 1963, what is a contracting state required to do in the event of an act of unlawful seizure occurring within the territory of that state? A) Nothing B) The responsibility of the state is limited to the safety of the passengers only C) The responsibility rests with the Commander not the contracting state D) The state shall take all appropriate measures to restore control of the aircraft to its lawful Commander, or to preserve his control of the aircraft 47. The first freedom of the air is: A) The opportunity to operate a commercial flight with passengers on board between two states B) The right to land for a technical stop ) The right to board passengers from the state where the aircraft is registered and to fly to an other state D) The right to overly without landing 48. wk stat ich freedom gives the privilege to land for non-traffic purposes in another ICAO contracting A) the 3rd freedom B) the 4th freedom €) the 2nd freedom D) the ist freedomCHANDAN KUMAR | 8 WhatsApp +91 9939063185 49, Sth Freedom of the Air is: A) The right to carry revenue traffic between two points within a treaty nation (B) by the carrier of another nation (A) B) Revenue traffic flown between two nations (C to A) by carrier of a third nation (B) €) The right to carry revenue traffic between any points of landing on flights between 3 or more treaty partner nations (B to C to D) 1D) The right to carry revenue traffic from treaty partner’ s territory (B) to carrier’ s base nation (A) 50. What is the status of IATA? A) It is the international legislative arm of ICAO B) It is an associate body of ICAO €) It is a trade association of aviation operators and others involved with international aviation D) It represents the air transport operators at ICAO 51. The Wersaw Convention of 1929 dealt with the liabilities of carriers and their agents. Specifically what was agreed with regard to passengers? AA) That a limit of liability be applied in all cases where a claim was made against the carrier B) That a passenger was carried at his/her own risk €C) That claims for compensation, except claims involving gross negligence, be limited to an agreed sum 1D) That compensation would be payable only in the event of death in a crash 52. The privilege to land for non-traffic purposes, e.g. refueling, maintenance is to following freedom of the air: A) 3rd freedom 8) 1st freedom ¢) 2nd freedom D) 4th freedom 53. An aircraft having sustained damage while on the territory of a Contracting State other than the State of Registry may fly without fare-paying passengers to an airport at which it can be restored to an airworthy condition if: A) It receives permission from the Contracting State where the damage occurred B) The repair works may be done at an airport that is not more than 250 nm away C) It receives permission of the State of Registry D) It receives permission from the manufacturer of the aircraft 5A, The second freedom of the air is the: A) right to land for a technical stop B) right to operate a commercial passenger flight with passengers on board between two states ) right to " cabotage” traffic, (trans-border traffic) D) right to overtly without landing 55. The convention which deals with offences against penal law is: A) the convention of Warsaw B) the convention of Rome ©) the convention of MadridCHANDAN KUMAR | 9 WhatsApp +91 9939063185 1D) the convention of Tokyo 56. Which convention makes acts of violence on board, destruction of aircraft in flight and destroying or damaging any air navigation facility punishable? A) The Tokyo convention B) The Montreal convention C) The Chicago convention D) The Warsaw convention 57. Ifa state applied CABOTAGE, what would be prevented? A) Non-scheduled operations in state B by aircraft registered in and owned by an operator in state A 8) International operations from state B by aircraft registered in and owned by an operator in state A ) Internal scheduled operations in state 8 by aircraft registered in and owned by an operator in state A D) Privately operated air taxi services 58. What does the second Freedom of the Air permit? A) To put down passengers mail and cargo in a state have taken them on in another state B) To land for technical purposes (non commercial) in the territory of another state ) To transport passengers, mail and cargo for valuable consideration from one aerodrome in a state to another in the same state D) To fly across the territory of another state without landing 59. According to the Tokyo Convention of 1963, who is considered to be competent to exercise jurisdiction over acts committed on board an aeroplane? A) The State over which the aeroplane was flying when the act took place B) The State of the Operator ¢) The Commander D) The State of Registration 60. How will a member State withdraw from the Tokyo Convention? A) By informing Japanese Civil Aviation Administration B) By informing all [CAO member states and ICAO. ) By informing all ICAO member states BD) By informing ICAO 61. According to which Convention may an aircraft commander impose measures upon a person ‘committing a crime or an offence on board the aircraft? A) The Convention of Chicago B) The Convention of Warsaw C) The Convention of Rome 1D) The Convention of Tokyo 62. A carrier is liable for damage sustained in the event of death or wounding of a passenger if the accident that caused the damage: A) Took place on board the aircraft or in the course of any of the operations of embarking and disembarking or after the booking in of the passengerCHANDAN KUMAR | 10 WhatsApp +91 9939063185 B) Took place on board the aircraft or in the course of any of the operations of embarking and disembarking including time spent after the passenger has checked in for flight ) Took place on board the aircraft or in the course of any of the operations of embarking and disembarking D) Took place on board the aircraft 63. The right to damages is lost if an action is not brought within A) 6 months. B) 1 year €) 2 years D) 5 years 64. 6th Freedom of the Air is: A) Revenue traffic flown between two nations (C to A) by carrier of a third nation (B) B) The right to carry revenue traffic between two points within a treaty nation (B) by the carrier of another nation (A) ) The right to carry revenue traffic between any points of landing on flights between 3 or more. treaty partner nations (B to C to D) D) A combination of Freedoms 3 and 4. Revenue traffic flown between two treaty partner nations (C to A) through carrier’ s base nation (B) 65. " Cabotage" refers to: A) domestic air services B) crop spraying ©) a national air carrier 1D) a flight above territorial waters 66. Which convention deals with the liability of a carrier to passengers and freight consignees where the limit of compensation is limited to US$10 000 except in cases of gross negligence? A) Tokyo B) Warsaw ©) Paris 1D) Rome 67. What are the measures by which free movement of aeroplanes, crew, passengers and goods not destined for the state in which the aeroplane has landed in, known as? A) Open skies policy B) Green Channel operations €) Facilitation D) Duty free zoning 68. When an aircraft subjected to an unlawful interference has landed it shall notify by the most expedious means of the State of Registry of the aircraft and the State of the operator of the landing and shall similarly transmit all other relevant information to the: ‘A) two aforementioned States, each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each State Whose citizens were detained as hostages, each State whose citizens are known to be on board the aircraft and the ICAO 8) two aforementioned States, each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries on board theCHANDAN KUMAR | 11 WhatsApp +91 9939063185 aireraft and the ICAO C) two aforementioned States and the ICAO D) two aforementioned States, each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each State whose citizens are known to be on board the aircraft and the ICAO 69. What flights are protected by the Prevention of Terrorism Act? A) Military flights only B) Private fights only ¢) All fights D) Public transport flights only 70. What does the International Air Transport Agreement provide for? A) The freedom for aeroplanes of one State to land in the territory of another State for the purpose of refueling 8) The freedom for aeroplanes to fly over the territory of any other State without landing (©) Free and unhindered transit of aeroplanes over the high seas D) The carriage of traffic between the state of registration of the aircraft and any other participating state 71. Which convention deals with the unification of rules related to damage caused by aircraft to third parties on the surface? A) The Montreal convention B) The Rome convention C) The Guatemala Convention ) The Tokyo Convention 72. The aircraft commander, when he has reasonable grounds to believe that a person has committed or is about to commit, on board the aircraft, an offence against penal law... A) may deliver such person to the competent authorities B) may require the assistance of passengers to restrain such person C) may not require or authorise the assistance of other crew members 1D) may request such person to disembark 73. Where are the duties and responsibilities of the Commander defined? A) In the Ops Manual B) In Annex 1 with additional responsibilities detailed in Annex 6 C) In Annex 6 with additional JAR-OPS 1 requirements taking precedence D) In the Air Navigation Order 74, What can the Commander of an aircraft do if he has reason to believe that a person has or is about to commit an offence in the aeroplane that is against penal law? A) Deliver the person to the competent authority B) Land in any country and off-load the offender C) Answers a, b and c are all correct D) Use force to place the person in custodyCHANDAN KUMAR | 12 WhatsApp +91 9939063185 75. The convention signed by the states and moved by a desire to endure adequate compensation for persons who suffer damage caused on the surface by foreign aircraft is: A) the Warsaw Convention B) the Paris Convention €) the Rome Convention D) the Tokyo Convention 76. The Rome Convention and later amendments deals with: A) Regulation of transportation of dangerous goods B) Damage caused by any aircraft to third parties on the surface ©) Offences and certain other acts committed on board aircraft 1D) Damage caused by foreign aircraft to third parties on the surface 77. Where vias the 1952 convention that deals with damage caused by foreign aircraft to third parties on the ground, held? A) Paris B) Tokyo ¢) Rome D) Warsaw 78. If a person is injured by a part falling from an aircraft flying over the state but registered in another state, which convention covers this? A) Paris B) Chicago ¢) Rome D) Tokyo 79. Any person who suffers damage on the surface shall, upon proof only that damage was caused by an aircraft in flight or by any person or thing falling therefore will be entitled to compensation as provided by: A) the Warsaw Convention B) the Montreal Convention €) the Rome Convention D) the Chicago Convention 80. Who is responsible when damage is caused by an aeroplane to persons or property on the ground? A) The Operator B) The aerodrome manager authority, if the incident happened inside the boundary of the aerodrome ) The pilot actually flying or at the controls when the incident happened 1D) The Commander is responsible providing that no other person can be held responsible 81. The state of design shall ensure that there exists a continuing structural integrity program to ensure the airworthiness of the aeroplane, which includes specific information concerning corrosion prevention and control, in respect of aeroplanes: A) up to 5,700 kg maximum certificate take-off and landing massCHANDAN KUMAR | 13 WhatsApp +91 9939063185 B) over 5,700 kg maximum certificate take-off mass C) over 5,700 kg maximum certificate take-off and landing mass D) up to §,700 kg maximum certificate take-off mass 82. When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft shall be allowed to resume its flight, if: A) the state of manufacture informs the state of registry that the damage sustained is of a nature such that the aircraft is still airworthy B) the state of registry considers that the damage sustained is of a nature such that the aircraft is still airworthy C) the state of design and the state of manufacture inform the state of registry that the aircraft is still airworthy D) the state of registry, the state of design and the state of manufacture consider that the aircraft is still airworthy 83. Who is competent to issue a Certificate of Airworthiness? A) None of the listed here B) Always the Contracting State in which the power plants have been designed, manufactured and approved ©) Only such qualified Contracting States specifically listed in Annex 7 1D) The Contracting State which approves the aircraft on the basis of satisfactory evidence that the aircraft complies with appropriated airworthiness requirements 84. Which of the following is not found on the Certificate of Airworthiness: A) The aircraft serial number B) The nationality or common mark and registration mark €) The category of aircraft D) The name and address of the owner 85. The Standards of Airworthiness, detailed in Annex 8 part IIT are applicable to: A) aeroplanes of over 25,700kg maximum certified take-off mass, intended for the carriage of passengers, cargo or mail in international air navigation B) aeroplanes of over 5,700kg maximum certified take-off mass, intended for the carriage of cargo or ‘mail in international air navigation ) aeroplanes of over 5,700kg maximum certified take-off mass, intended for the carriage of passengers, cargo oF mail in international air navigation D) aeroplanes of over 5,700kg maximum certified take-off mass, intended for the carriage of passengers only 86. Who is responsible for determining the continuing airworthiness of an aeroplane? A) The Owner/Operator B) The Commander C) The certifying manager for the JAR 145 approved maintenance operation 1D) The State of Registry 87. The standards of Annex 8 (Airworthiness of Aircraft) relate to: A) Large turbojet powered aeroplanes 8) Large airplanes ) Passenger carrying aeroplanes D) Aircraft with MTOM greater than 5700kgsCHANDAN KUMAR | 14 WhatsApp +91 9939063185 88. Annex 8 covers airworthiness of aircraft. Who is responsible for the administration of the Certificates of Airworthiness? A) The authority of the state of manufacture B) The authority of the state of registration ) The Operator 1D) The authority of the state of the Operator 89. According to ICAO Annex 8, a certificate of airworthiness shall be renewed or shall remain valid subject to the: A) Laws of the State of registry and operation B) Laws of the State in which is operated C) Laws of the State of registry D) Requirements laid down by ICAO 90. The cotinuation of validity of a Certificate of Airworthiness is dependant upon what? A) The establishment of a schedule for servicing and repair of the aeroplane in accordance with JAR 145, B) The continued registration of the aeroplane C) The continued use of the aeroplane for the purpose stated on the certificate of registration D) The continued airworthiness of the aeroplane as determined by periodic inspections 91. The loading limitations shall include: A) all limiting mass and centers of gravity B) all limiting mass, centers of gravity position, mass distributions and floor loading C) all limiting mass, centers of gravity position and floor loading D) all limiting mass, mass distributions and centers of gravity 92. Which of the following statements are correct concerning the flight crew compartment door? A) It must be bomb-proof B) It must be capable of being locked ) It shall be inaccessible to passengers D) It shall be made of fireproof material 93. A gyroplane is classified as a: A) Rotorcraft B) Airship ©) Non-power driven ) Lighter-than-air aircraft 94, Which annexes to the Chicago Convention deals with registration and marking of aircraft? A) Annex 7 B) Annex 6 ©) Annex 14 D) Annex 11CHANDAN KUMAR | 15 WhatsApp +91 9939063185 95. The height of the marks on the fuselage (or equivalent structure) and on the vertical tail surfaces of heavier than air aircraft shall be A) at least 20 centimetres B) at least between 20 centimetres and 40 centimetres €) at least 30 centimetres D) at least 40 centimetres 96. Which of the following is a prohibited combination in aircraft registration letters? ay TT B) RTB ©) Lue by YW 97. When letters are used for the registration mark, combinations shall not be used which might be confused with the {A) five letter combinations used in the international code of signals B) letters used for an ICAO identification documents. C) four letter combinations beginning with Q D) three letters combinations used in the international code of signals 98. When the first character of the registration mark is a letter: A) It may not be followed by @ number B) The registration mark must be completed by the national emblem C) It shall be followed by a number D) It shall be preceded by a hyphen 99. When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent signals for example: A) PAN 8) DDD c) RCC by ue 100. According to Annex 7, the registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a combination of letters and numbers and shall be that assigned by: A) the International Telecommunication Union B) the International Civil Aviation Organization CC) the state of registry only D) the state of registry or common mark registering authority 101. Regarding an aircraft Certificate of Registration: A) Aircraft may only have one owner B) Aircraft can be registered in more than one state C) Aircraft registration cannot be changed from one state to another D) Aircraft can only be registered in one countryCHANDAN KUMAR | 16 WhatsApp +91 9939063185 102. How high are the markings on the horizontal surfaces of an aeroplane? A) 25cm B) 50cm ©) 30cm D) 40cm 1103. Certain registration marks are prohibited by Annex 7 (Aircraft Nationality and Registration Markings). These include: A) EEE LLL NHQ B) XxX PAN TTT ©) LLL zzz YY 1D) 000 MAY DAY 1104. When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent or distress signals for example A) DDD B) RCC ©) tue D) xxx 105. When letters are used for registration mark, combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent signals for example A) RCC B) LLL cy TT D) FFF 106. The certificate of registration shall A) Both a) and c) are correct B) Be visible to the passengers at all times ) Be reproduced on the portion of the airline ticket that stays with the passenger D) Be carried on board the aircraft at all times 107. Annex 7 (Aircraft Nationality and Registration Marks) contains: A) Recommendations only B) Standards only C) SARPS. D) PANS: 108. What self medication is permitted by aircrew? A) Only drugs which enhance, not degrade, performance B) None C) Only drugs which do not have side effects incompatible with aircrew duty 1D) Only proprietary certain brands for colds and fluCHANDAN KUMAR | 17 WhatsApp +91 9939063185 109. When a contracting state renders valid a licence issued by another contracting state the validity of the authorization AA) shall not extend more than 15 days from the date of the licence B) shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence other than for use in private flights CC) shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the license D) the Contracting state rendering a licence valid may extend the date of the validity at its own discretion 110. " Demonstration of skill to revalidate or renew ratings, and including such oral examination as the examiner may require” is the definition for a: A) revalidation. B) conversion. €) proficiency check. D) skill test. 111. The assigment of the common mark to a common mark registering authority will be made by: A) the state of registry and accepted by the International Telecommunication Union B) the International Telecommunication Union CC) the state of registry ) the International Civil Aviation Organisation 112. The applicant to exercise the functions of an Instrumental Flight Rating in aeroplanes shall rove, according to Annex I, PERSONNEL LICENSING, his/her capability to pilot such aircraft only by Instrumental rules and an engine . ‘A) Amphibious/inactive or simulated inactive B) Single-engine/inactive C) Multi-engine / inoperative or simulated inoperative D) Land/inactive 113. AIRAC is: A) Aeronautical Information Regulation and Control B) Aeronautical Information Rules and Control C) Aviation Information Rules and Control BD) Aviation Information Regulation and Control 114. What is Special VFR? A) AVER procedure to enable an aeroplane to transit a control zone or area in IMC without compliance with TFR B) A VER flight cleared by ATC to operate within a CTR in meteorological conditions below VMC C) Any flight cleared by ATC to operate in conditions less than VMC in which the pilot is required to remain clear of cloud and in sight of the surface ) A flight in IMC for which the pilot and/or the aeroplane is unable to comply with the requirements of FR 115. With regard to civil and state aircraft (Article 3). Which of the following is not a state aircraft: A) Search and rescue aircraft B) Police aircraftCHANDAN KUMAR | 18 WhatsApp +91 9939063185 ) Customs aircraft 1B) Military aircraft 116. How is Flight Visibility defined? A) The measured visibility assessed by a certified meteorological observer B) The forecast visibility at 3000 ft above the aerodrome ) The visibility reported by a pilot currently flying in the vicinity 1D) The visibility forward from the flight deck of an aeroplane in flight 117. When does FLIGHT TIME end? A) When the aeroplane first stops after landing to disembark passengers B) At engine shut down when the aeroplane has stopped in the parking bay ) When all the passengers have disembarked D) At touchdown, 118. Flight visibility is: A) the visibility along the runway which may be expected when approaching to land B) the minimum horizontal visibility in any direction from the flight deck of an aircraft in flight CC) the visibility forward from the flight deck of an aircraft in flight D) the visibility along the runway which may be expected on take-off. 119. Which of the following correctly defines flight visibility? A) The visibility at an aerodrome, as reported by an accredited observer B) the visibility in the direction of take-off or landing over which the runway lights or surface markings may be seen from the touchdown zone ) The visibility forward from the cockpit of an aeroplane in flight D) The visibility forward from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight, corrected for slant range error 120. Which of the following correctly defines Special VFR? A) Any flight cleared by ATC to operate in conditions less than VMC in which the pilot is required to remain clear of clouds and in sight of the surface B) A VFR procedure to enable an aeroplane to transit a control zone or area in IMC without compliance with IFR ) A flight cleared by ATC to operate within a CTR in conditions below VMC 1D) A flight in IMC for which the pilot and/or aeroplane is unable to comply with the requirements of IFR 121. What is a danger area? A) An airspace of defined dimensions within which activities dangerous to the flight of aircraft may exist at specified times 8) A NOTAM activated airspace where the general flight rules are disregarded ) An airspace of defined dimensions above the land areas or territorial waters of a State within which flight of aircraft is prohibited D) An airspace of defined dimensions within which air traffic control service is provided to IFR flights and to VER flights in accordance with the airspace classification 122. An aircraft is deemed to be in flight: A) from the time the aircraft first moves under its own power until it comes to rest after landing B) from the time the main wheels lose contact with the runway until they regain contact on landingCHANDAN KUMAR | 19 WhatsApp +91 9939063185 CC) from the time the aircraft moves into the manoeuvring area to the time it comes to rest after landing D) from the time the engines are started until they are shut down after landing 123, What is aerodrome traffic? A) All traffic on the manoeuvring area of an aeradrome and fiying in the vicinity of the aerodrome B) All traffic flying through the aerodrome traffic zone. ) All traffic on the movement area of an aerodrome ) Local flying aeroplanes in or adjacent to the visual circuit 124. PANS are: A) Procedures for Air Navigation Services B) Practices for Air Navigation Services ) Practices for Air Navigation Standards 1D) Procedures for Air Navigation Standards 125. An aircraft is considered to overtake another if it approaches the other aircraft from the rear on a line forming an angle of less than: ‘A) 70 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter 8) 80 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter CC) 60 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter 1D) 50 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter 126. What is the meaning of AGL? A) Above ground level or aerodrome ground level B) Aerodrome ground level C) Altitude of ground level BD) Above ground level 127. In the case of a piloted flying machine, it shall be deemed to be in flight: A) from the time the aircraft first moves under its own power until the moment it comes to rest after landing 8) from the time the main wheels lose contact with earth until they gain contact again on landing CC) from the time the engines are started until they are shut down after landing ) from the time the aircraft moves into the manoeuvring area until it leaves the manoeuvring area after landing 128. Which of the following defines flight visibility? A) The forward distance at which objects can be discerned in the air with reference to atmospheric conditions B) The forward visibility from the cockpit of an aircraft in fight C) Visibility determined in flight not obscured by cloud, dust, haze or precipitation D) The ability to determine in the air the distance and identity of unlighted objects by day and lighted objects by night 129. How is night defined? A) The hours of darknessCHANDAN KUMAR | 20 WhatsApp +91 9939063185 8) From 30 minutes after sunset until 30 minutes after sunrise €¢) The hours between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning 1D) The hours when the sun is below the horizon I twilight 130. Who shall have the final authority over the disposition of the aircraft? A) The Owner B) The Commander ) The Authority D) The Operator 131. When operating under Special VFR clearance, the responsibility for remaining clear of obstacles on the ground rests with A) the handling pilot B) the aircraft commander ©) air traffic controt D) all of the above 132, PANS-OPS means: A) Pilots Alternate Navigational Systems and Operational Procedures B) Procedures for Air Navigation Systems - Airfield operations C) Primary and Alternate Navigation Systems and Operations 1D) Procedures for Air Navigation Services - Aircraft operations 133. The document that specifies the recommendations for instrument procedures is called... A) the Convention of Chicago B) PANS OPS Doc 8168 ) the Air Pilot ) the Air Navigation bulletin 134, The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument approach, to bring an aircraft into position for landing on runway which is not suitably located for straight-in approach, Is A) Visual approach B) Visual manoeuvring (circling) C) Aerodrome traffic pattern 1) Contact approach 135. What is defined as the portion of a flight in which the aircraft descends below 1000 ft above the relevant DH or MDH? A) Glide path B) Go around / Missed Approach ¢) Approach to landing ) Final approach 136. A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a turn in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the designated track is called a:CHANDAN KUMAR | 21 WhatsApp +91 9939063185 A) Procedure turn B) Reversal track ©) Base tun ) Race track 137. The Transition Level: A) is calculated and declared for an approach by the Pilot-in command B) shall be the highest available flight level below the transition altitude that has been established €) shall be the lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitude ) is published for the aerodrome in the Section ENR of the AIP 138. NOZ is: A) Airspace of defined dimensions extending to either side of an ILS localiser course and/or MLS final approach track centre line B) Airspace of defined dimensions extending to either side of an ILS glide path course and/or MLS. final approach track centre line ©) Airspace of defined dimensions extending to either side of an ILS glide path course and/or MLS initial approach track centre line D) Airspace of defined dimensions extending to either side of an ILS localizer course and/or MLS initial approach track centre line 139. A notice containing information concerning flight safety, air navigation, technical, administration or legislative matters and originated at the AIS of a state is called: A) Aeronautical Information Circular (AIC) 8B) Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) C) NOTAM 1D) AIRAC 140. A * precision approach” is a direct instrument approac A) using bearing, elevation and distance information B) using bearing, elevation and distance information, providing the pilot uses a fight director or an autopilot certified to a height below 200 ft ) carried out by a crew of at least two pilots trained with 2 specific working method ) using at least one source of bearing information and one source of elevation or distance information 141. VORTAC is: A) A combined VOR and TACAN combination where the bearing is from the TACAN and the range from the VOR, B) Range and bearing are supplied from the TACAN element and the VOR is a switch on device. €) A combined VOR and TACAN combination where the bearing is from the VOR element and the range from the TACAN element. D) TACAN refined for missed approach positioning. 142. Based on operational considerations, a margin may be added to the OCA of a non-precision approach. The result is then called: A) DA 8B) MDH ©) DHCHANDAN KUMAR | 22 WhatsApp +91 9939063185 D) MDA 143. The " estimated total time” in block 16 of a VER flight plan is the estimated time: A) of endurance at cruising power taking into account pressure and temperature on that day B) required by the aircraft from brake release at take-off until landing C) required by the aircraft from the moment it moves by its own power until it stops at the end of the flight (block time) 1D) required by the aircraft from take-off to arrive overhead the destination airport 144. A radial is: ‘A) a magnetic bearing extending from a VOR station B) a magnetic bearing to or from a VOR station, depending on whether the aircraft is inbound or outbound to or from the VOR. C) a magnetic bearing to a VOR station 1b) aQoM 145. A circling approach A) A flight manoeuvre to be performed only under radar vectoring 8) A visual manoeuvre to be conducted only in IMC. ©) A contact flight manoeuvre 1D) A visual flight manoeuvre keeping the runway in sight 146. What is the meaning of MEHT? A) Maximum eye height B) Mean height over threshold ¢) Minimum eye height 1) Minimum elevation height 1147. What is the meaning of OCA? A) Oceanic control area B) Occasional €) Oceanic control area or obstacle clearance altitude D) Obstacle clearance altitude 148. What does the abbreviation DER mean? A) Dead reckoning B) Distance error rectification ) Departure end routing D) Departure end of runway 149. OCH for a precision approach is defined as: ‘A) The lowest altitude at which an aircraft can perform a safe flight B) The lowest height above mean sea level of the relevant runway used in establishing compliance with appropriate obstacle clearance requirements ) The lowest altitude above the aerodrome elevation used in establishing compliance with appropriate obstacle clearance requirements D) The lowest height above the elevation of the relevant runway threshold , at which a missedCHANDAN KUMAR | 23 WhatsApp +91 9939063185 approach must be initiated to ensure compliance with the appropriate obstacle clearance criteria 150. What is DER? A) Descent rate B) Departure end of runway ) Dead end of runway D) Direct entry routing 151. What is a STAR? A) Standard arrival B) Special terminal arrival C) Supplementary terminal arrival D) Standard instrument arrival 152. When does night exist? ‘A) During the period when the centre of the Sun's disc is 6° below the horizon B) From the beginning of evening civil twilight until the beginning of morning civil twilight ) During the hours of darkness D) From 30 minutes after sunset until 30 minutes after sunrise 153. What Is the meaning of DER: A) displaced end of runway B) dead reckoning ©) dead end of runway 1D) departure end of runway 154, What does AL mean? A) Above aerodrome level B) Aerodrome altitude level C) Angle of attack limitation D) Acknowledge 155. The minimum height to which an aircraft may safely continue a precision approach, without visual reference is known as the A) decision height B) minimum descent altitude ) decision altitude D) minimum break-off altitude 156. A visual approach is: A) Any part of an instrument approach that is carried out in VMC B) The circling part of a precision approach to a runway other than the runway on which the landing is. to be made €) An instrument approach where the pilot has the option to continue the approach visually, providing that he has the necessary visual criteria 1) An approach made under VFR using height and track guidance 157. What does the abbreviation OIS mean?CHANDAN KUMAR | 24 WhatsApp +91 9939063185 A) Obstacle identification surface 8) Obstruction in surface ©) Obstacle in surface ) Obstacle identification slope 158. Having filed a flight plan to a particular destination and having landed at another destination, you should notify ATC: A) within 30 minutes after landing at the alternate destination B) you may only land at your flight planned destination €) within 30 minutes of your intended ETA at your original destination D) within 60 minutes after landing at the alternate destination 159. A fight plan should be amended or @ new flight plan submitted and the old flight plan cancelled in the event of a delay. For controlled flights, this should be done in the event of a delay in excess of: A) 60 minutes B) 30 minutes C) None of the above is correct ©) 20 minutes 160. A landing aircraft is not normally permitted to cross the beginning of the runway on its final approach until the preceding departing aircraft has: A) None of the above 8) Until all preceding landing aircraft are at the end of the runway in use C) Crossed the end of the runway threshold D) Started a tun 161. What is the maximum speed adjustment that a pilot should be requested to make when under radar control and established on intermediate and final approach? A) £ 20KT. B) £25 KT ©) £15KT D) # 10KT 1162. Deviation from the TAS in the fight plan is to be reported to ATC, By how much would the TAS have to deviate before it is reported? A) 3% B) 5% ©) 10 kts D) 20 kts 1163. When flying in advisory airspace and using an advisory service, separation is provided from: A) all other traffic B) other known traffic C) other IFR traffic 1) other traffic using the advisory service 164. In class D airspace the minimum flight visibility for VER flight above FL 100 isCHANDAN KUMAR | 25 WhatsApp +91 9939063185 A) 8 km B) 1500 ft ©) 1500 m DB) Skm 165. FIS: A) Provides advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flight 8) Provides control useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flight ) Provides an aerodrome and approach control service for the efficient conduct of flight D) Provides flight plan services for the safe and efficient conduct of flight 166. What should you reply when told " squawk 0412" A) Code 0412, B) Wilco C) Squawk 0412 D) Roger 167. ATMA is: a) acTR 8) an area in which submission of a flight plan is not required ©) available at all times to VFR trafic D) a CTA established to cover several major air traffic routes around one or more major aerodromes 168. To put" L" in the wake turbulence category box of an ATC flight plan what maximum weight must the aircraft have? A) 7 000 kg, 8) 20000 kg ©) 7 000 Lbs D) 5 700 kg 169. The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is: A) 5 minutes B) 6 minutes ©) 10 minutes 1D) 3 minutes 170. Two aircraft are reporting over the same VOR, they should be separated by: A) at least 15° and a distance of 15 nm B) at least 20° and a distance of 15 nm ) at least 45° and a distance of IS nm D) at least 30° and a distance of 15 nm 171. The Alerting Service Is provided by: A) The ATC unit responsible for the aircraft at that moment, when itis provided with 121.5 MHz B) Only by ATC unitsCHANDAN KUMAR | 26 WhatsApp +91 9939063185 ©) The Area Control Centres. 1D) The ATS unit responsible for the aircraft at that moment 172. The period of validity for take-off slots assigned by CEU (flow control centre): |A) depends on the type of flight (10 minutes for international flights, 5 minutes for domestic flights) B) is 10 minutes €) is 15 minutes D) is S minutes 173. Whenever practicable, NOTAM’ s are distributed by: A) Fax B) AFTN ©) Printed brochure D) E-Mail 174, Which of the follawing is information that is not given in AIP approach and landing charts: A) Visibility minima B) DME-frequencies C) Obstacles penetrating the obstacle free area in the final approach sector 1D) OCH or OCA 175. The ICAO document concerning the provision of the AIS is Annex... to the Convention on Civil Aviation. A)7 B)9 )1s ©) 16 176. Geographical co-ordinates indicating latitude and longitude are expressed in terms of: A) GPS-84 B) WGS-94 ©) GPs-94 D) WGs-84 177. A runway would not be reported as - flooded - unless: A) extensive standing water is visible B) 60% of the runway surface is covered by at least 3mm of water C) 30% of the runway surface is covered to a depth between 3mm and 15mm with water ) significant patches of standing water are visible 178. The ASHTAM provides information on the status of activity of a volcano when a change in its activity is, or is expected to be of operational significance. This information is provided using the volcano level of colour code. When volcanic eruption in progress or volcano dangerous, eruption likely, with ash plume/cloud is reported above FL 250 or is expected to rise above FL 250, the level of alert colour code is A) GREEN B) ORANGECHANDAN KUMAR | 27 WhatsApp +91 9939063185 c) YELLOW D) RED 179. An integrated 2eronautical information package consists of the following elements A) AIP, including amendment service; supplements to AIP, NOTAM, AIC and checklist summaries B) AIP, supplements to AIP; NOTAM and PIB; AIC and checklist summaries ©) AIP, including amendment service; supplements to AIP; NOTAM, AIC; AIRAC 1D) AIP, including amendment service; supplements to AIP; NOTAM and pre-flight information bulletin (PIB); AIC; checklists and summaries 180. The SIGMET service in the AIP is in the following part: A) MET B) ENR ©) AGA D) GEN 181. Which of the following is not considered when establishing Aerodrome Operating Minima? A) Adequacy and provision of ground aids. 'B) Dimensions and characteristics of runways. €) The frequency of meteorological reports. 1D) The competence and experience of flight crews, 182. " Instrument runways" are the following runways intended for the operation of aircraft using Instrument approach procedures. A) Precision approach runways in general B) Precision approach runways category I, II and II] C) Instrument approach runways, precision approach runways category I, II and IIT 1D) Non precision approach runways, precision approach runways category I, II and IIT 183. What is a PAPI? A) Precision Approach Power Indicator B) Precision Approach Power Index CC) Precision Approach Path Indicator ) Precision Approach Path Index 184, The aeradrome elevation is the height of: {A) the highest point in the landing area B) the airfield reference datum ©) the apron D) the threshold of the main precision runway 185. For planning purposes, an aerodrome is categorised by aerodrome reference code. This consists of two elements: A number, and a letter. What does the number relate to? A) Single wheel loading classification B) Load classification number €) Take-off distance required for an aeroplane D) Crash/Rescue categoryCHANDAN KUMAR | 28 WhatsApp +91 9939063185 186. What is the name for a taxiway connected to @ runway at an acute angle designed to allow aeroplanes to turn off at higher speeds than are achieved on other exits thereby minimising runway occupancy time? A) Rapid exit taxiway B) High speed exit lane ) Rapid turn off lane B) Acute angle exit 187. The part of an aerodrome used for embarking and disembarking passengers, loading of cargo and ‘mail as well as the servicing of aircraft is called? A) Stand B) Ramp ) Parking Bay 1D) Apron 188. A precision approach runway CAT II is an instrument runway served by ILS and visual aids Intended for operations down to A) @ RVR of 250 meters and a DH of not less than 200 ft B) a RVR of 550 meters and a DH of not less than 200 ft ©) @ RVR of 200 meters and a DH of not less than 100 ft. 1D) a RVR of 300-450 meters and a DH of not less than 100 189. " An area symmetrical about the extended runway centre line and adjacent to the end of the strip primarily intended to reduce the risk of damage to an aeroplane undershooting or overrunning the runway" is the definition for: A) Clearway B) Stopway ©) None of the above D) Runway end safety area 190. A runway may be contaminated by frozen water deposits. What are the three states of frozen water reported by ATC? A) Clear ice, rime ice and snow B) Thin ice, occasional ice, heavy ice ¢) Snow, ice and slush 1D) Light snow, heavy snow, blizzard 191. For planning purposes, an aerodrome is categorised by aerodrome reference code. This code is. composed of two elements: a number and a letter. What does the number relate to? A) Aerodrome reference field length B) Single wheel loading classification ) Crash/Rescue category D) Load classification number 192. An aerodrome reference point is defined as the.CHANDAN KUMAR | 29 WhatsApp +91 9939063185 A) pre-flight altimeter check location B) location of the landing threshold €) the designated geographical location of the aerodrome ) elevation of the highest point of the landing area 193. Objects located beyond 15 km radius of the aerodrome are normally considered to be obstacles In flight (enroute obstacles) if they exceed... in height. A) 250 meters B) 150 meters ©) 200 meters D) 100 meters 194. " A defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off run available prepared as a suitable area in which an aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off” is the definition for: A) Runway end safety area B) Runway strip ¢) Stopway D) Clearway 195. According with the " Aerodrome Reference Code" the " Code number 4" shall identify an aircraft reference field length of: A) 1.500 m B) 1600 m ¢) 1.800 mand over. DB) 1.200 m 196. What does code element 2 of the aerodrome reference code refer to? A) Inner main gear wheel span B) Wing span and outer main gear wheel span ©) Fuselage width D) Aircraft length 197. For an inbound aircraft, the PIC can be asked to provide which of the following: ‘A) 3 copies of the general declaration, 3 copies of the cargo manifest, 2 copies of a simple stores list B) 3 copies of the general declaration, 2 copies of the cargo manifest, 2 copies of a simple stores list, C) 2 copies of the general declaration, 2 copies of the cargo manifest, 2 copies of a simple stores list D) 2 copies of the general declaration, 3 copies of the cargo manifest, 2 copies of a simple stores list 198. An aircraft flying to another contracting state: AA) Is liable to pay customs duty on all unused fuel and oil carried B) Is admitted to that state temporarily free of customs duty in regard to oil and fuel remaining only C) Is admitted to that state temporarily free of customs duty in regard to oil, fuel and hydraulic fluid remaining only D) Is admitted to that state temporarily free of customs duty 199. An aircraft arriving in the United Kingdom from the USA must land at:CHANDAN KUMAR | 30 WhatsApp +91 9939063185 A) A designated customs airport B) Any airport it wishes to ) Major international airports only ) Any of the above 200. Which is the correct order of priority: A) Power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft shall give way to airships, gliders and balloons 8) All aircraft shall give way to aircraft which are seen to be towing other aircraft ) Gliders shall give way to airships and balloons D) Gliders do not give way to balloons 201. What is the minimum fight altitude permitted over towns and settlements and populated areas? A) The altitude which permits the aircraft to land safely in the event of an engine failure B) 1000 fe within a radius of 8 km ) soo fe 1D) 1000 ft above the highest obstacle within 600 m of the aircraft position 202. A controlled flight is requested to inform the appropriate ATC unit whenever the average True Air Speed at cruising level varies or is expected to vary from that given in the flight plan by plus or A) 5% B) 2% ©) 3% D) 10% 203. An aircraft being towed by night must display: A) the same lights that are required in flight B) an anti-collision beacon ) flashing navigation lights 1) steady navigation lights. 204. Anti-collision lights on an aircraft must be switched on: A) All aircraft moving on the manoeuvring area B) As soon as engines are running ) Between SS and SR or any other period specified by the appropriate authority ) ll aircraft operating on the movement area 205. If the ground visibility is reported 1000 m, can a special VFR flight take off from an aerodrome in a control zone? A) Yes B) Yes, provided the pilot remains in visual contact with the ground ¢) No ) Yes, provided the cloud ceiling is higher than 500 ft 206. Except when necessary for take-off or landing, a VR flight over congested areas of cities, towns or settlements or over an open-air assembly of persons shall not be flown at a height less than ‘A) 300 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 ft. from the aircraftCHANDAN KUMAR | 31 WhatsApp +91 9939063185 8) 600 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 300 m from the aircraft C) 300 m above the highest obstacle 1D) 300 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft 207. You are outside controlled airspace on a VFR flight above 3,000ft. Your distance from the cloud should be: AA) clear of cloud and in sight of the surface B) 1,000 ft horizontally and 1,000 ft vertically ©) 2,000 ft and 3 NM horizontally D) 1,000 ft vertically and 1.5 km horizontally 208. When flying under IFR, you experience total communications failure in conditions of no cloud and unlimited visibility. What should you do? A) Descend to en-route minimum sector altitude and land at the nearest suitable IFR aerodrome B) Proceed to destination under VFR ©) Continue under IFR and follow the filed fight plan D) If able to maintain VMC, land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and then inform ATC 209. Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding level to be maintained by an aircraft flying IFR outside controlled airspace? A) 2000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of course B) 2 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 nautical miles of course ) 1 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of the estimated position of the aircraft 1D) 1000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 nautical miles of course 210. If the intention is to change from IFR to VER at some point during flight, the letter... is to be Inserted in item... of the flight plan. xES A) v8 8) 1,8 x6 DY, 8 211. Aerodrome control can use light signals when radio communications are not possible. For an aircraft on the ground, a red flashing light means: A) Permission to cross landing area or to move onto taxiway B) Move off the landing area or taxiway and watch out for aircraft C) Vacate manoeuvring area in accordance with local instructions D) Stop 212. The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that: A) landing, take-off and taxiing is allowed on runway and/or taxiway only B) this aerodrome is using parallel runways ) taxiing need not be confined to the taxiways 1) glider flying is performed outside the landing area 213. A steady green light from aerodrome control to an aircraft on the ground means: A) cleared to land