General pharmacology MCQ

MCQs of Pharmacology

1. The science which deals with the drug

and their action on human body is called-
(a) Physiology
(b) Pathology
(c) Pharmacology
(d) Microbiology
Ans. c
2. The study of absorption, distribution,
metabolism and excretion of drug is
known as-
(a) Pharmacy
(b) Pharmacokinetics
(c) Pharmacodynamics
(d) Pharmacopoeia
Ans. b
3. The science which is concerned with
the study of mechanism of action of drug
and pharmacological effects produced on
the human body is known as-
(a) Pharmacokinetics
(b) Toxicology
(c) Pharmacology
(d) Pharmacodynamics
Ans. d
4. The substances produced by or
derived from living organisms that are
used to kill bacteria or prevent their
multiplication is called-
(a) Antibiotics
(b) Antidotes
(c) Hormones
(d) Enzymes
Ans. a
5. Drugs are excreted from the body
through-
(a) Kidney
(b) Breast milk, saliva, sweat & bile.
(c) Intestine
(d) All of the above.
Ans. d
6. Which of the following is a source for
obtaining drugs-
(a) Animals and plants
(b) Micro-organisms
(c) Synthetic origin
(d) All of the above
Ans. d
7. The rate of absorption of a drug is
affected by
(a) Route of drug administration
(b) Solubility of the drug
(c) Site of administration
(d) All of the above
Ans. d
8. Putting a drug in liquid form into a
body cavity or body orifice, is known as-
(a) Inhalation
(b) Instillation
(c) Insertion
(d) Insufflation
Ans. b
9. Application of the drug to the skin
usually by a friction is known as-
(a) Insertion
(b) Insufflation
(c) Instillation
(d) Inunction
Ans. d
10. Nitroglycerine is administered by
which route
(a) By sublingual route
(b) By inhalation
(c) By parenteral route
(d) By insertion
Ans. a
 
11. When the drug is introduced in the
bone h- marrow, this route is called-
(a) Intra peritoneal
(b) Intrathecal
(c) Intramedullary
(d) Intra arterial
Ans. c
12. When the medicine is administered
into the spinal cavity, this route is known
as-
(a) Intrathecal
(b) Intra osseous
(c) Intra peritoneal
(d) Intracardiac
Ans. a
13. Test dose of penicillin is administered
by which of the following route-
(a) Subcutaneous
(b) Intravenous
(c) Intramuscular
(d) Intradermal
Ans. d
14. When a drug is adminstered through
the layers of skin into areolar tissue, this
is known as-
(a) Intradermal administration
(b) Intra arterial administration
(c) Subcutaneous administration
(d) Intramuscular administration
Ans. c
 

15. In order to administer a drug safely,

the nurse should know to read which of
the following fact in the drug order-
(a) Name of the patient and name of the drug
(b) Dosage of the drug and route of
adminstration
(c) Date and signature of the physician
(d) All of the above
Ans. d
16. Which of the following statement
regarding drug administration is
incorrect-
(a) When drug is administered by injection,
there is very rapid response of drug.
(b) By parenteral route the drug go directly
into the blood so no absorption is required.
(c) Parenteral route can be used in case of a
unconscious patient.
(d) Parenteral route can not be used in case
of a unconscious patient. administration
which of the
Ans. d
17. Regarding drug administration which
of the following statement is correct-
(a) The child dose is less in comparision to
the adult dose.
(b) In administration of drugs to female
patient the factors like pregnancy, lactation
and menstruation are to be considered.
 
(c) Five rights (Right Pt. Right Drug, right
dose, right time, right method) ensures safety
in giving drugs.
(d) All of the above
Ans. d
18. Drugs used to relieve pain are-
(a) Antipyretics
(b) Analgescis
(c) Antibiotics
(d) Anti-pruritics
Ans. b
19. Drug which help in reducing fever
are-
(a) Analgescis
(b) Anti-inflammatory
(c) Antipyretic
(d) Antiseptic
Ans. c
20. The drug used to prevent or treat
convulsions in a epileptic patient is-
(a) Antihistamine
(b) Anticoagulant
(c) Anaesthetics
(d) Anticonvulsants
Ans. d
 

21. Substances used to counteract the

effects of poison are-
(a) Antitussives
(b) Antidotes
(c) Anti-inflammatory
(d) Anaesthetics
Ans. b
22. Drugs used to destroy and expel
worms are-
(a) Antibiotics
(b) Anti-inflammatory
(c) Antihelminthics
(d) Antipruritics
Ans. c
23. A drug that relieves itching is-
(a) Antiseptic
(b) Antipruritic
(c) Anti-infective
(d) Anti-inflammatory
Ans. b
24. Drugs which are used to prevent or
relieve nausea and vomiting-
(a) Emetics
(b) Antiemetics
(c) Anti diarrheties
(d) Steroids
Ans. b
25. An agent used to increase the level of
haemoglobin content in the blood is–
(a) Haematinics
(b) Haemostatic
(c) Oxytocics
(d) All of the above
Ans. a
26. Drugs which are used to increase the
urine output are-
(a) Antihypertensive
(b) Diuretics
(c) Anti diuretic hormone
(d) None of the above
Ans. b
27. Drugs which dilate the blood vessels
and used to lower blood pressure-
(a) Vasodilators
(b) Vsoconstrictor
(c) Mydriatics
(d) Myotics
Ans. a
28. Cardiotonics are the drugs used to-
(a) Treat dysrrhythmias
(b) Treat inflammatory disease of the heart
(c) Increase heart rate and cardiac muscle
contractions
(d) All of the above
Ans. c
29. Anxiolytics are drugs used-
(a) To treat depression
(b) To relieve anxiety
(c) To induce sleep
(d) None of the above
Ans. b
30. Mydriatics are drugs which-
(a) Constrict the pupil of the eye 30
(b) Dilate the pupil of the eye
(c) Dilate the blood vessels
(d) Contract the blood vessels
Ans. b
Pharmacology MCQs pdf

31. Myotics are drugs which-

(a) Constrict the pupil of the eye
(b) Constrict the blood vessels
(c) Dilate the blood vessels
(d) Dilate the pupil of the eye
Ans. a
32. Hypnotics are the drug which-
(a) Relieve anxiety
(b) Induce sleep
(c) Reduce muscle tone and cause muscle
relaxation
(d) all of the above
Ans. b
33. Galactogouge is the drug which-
(a) Increase breast milk secretion
(b) Increase blood glucose level
(c) Decrease blood glucose level
(d) Increase appetite 198.
Ans. a
34. Which vitamin is also known as anti-
sterility vitamin-
 
(a) Vitamin C
(b) Vitamin E
(c) Vitamin K
(d) Vitamin A
Ans. b
35. In following which is the advantage
of intravenous (I.V.) drug
administration-
(a) Useful in emergency conditions
(b) Large volume of solution can be
administered.
(c) There is very rapid response of drug.
(d) All of the above
Ans. d
36. In ‘Intra-articular’ route of drug
administration injection is given into-
(a) Arteries
(b) Atria
(c) Joints
(d) Areolar tissue
Ans. c
37. In following which is the
disadvantage of I.V. route-
(a) If excess dose once injected, the drug can
not be taken back.
(b) Only trained persons can use this method.
(c) Possibility of introduction of infection.
(d) All of the above
Ans. d
38.In an unconscious patient which is
the preferred route of drug
administration-
(a) Oral ingestion
(b) Inhalation
(c) Enteral route
(d) Intravenous
Ans. d
39. Which of the following is a
complication of injections-
(a) Infections
(b) Pyrogenic reactions
(c) Tissue trauma
(d) All of the above
Ans. d
40. Repeated injections on the same spot
can cause-
(a) Induration of the skin and scar formation
(b) Injury to the nerves
(c) Injury to the walls of the blood vessels
(d) All of the above
Ans. d
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41. Selection of the site of injection

depends upon-
(a) Route ordered by the physician
(b) The quantity of medication to be given
(c) The characteristics of medication to be
given
(d) All of the above
Ans. d
42. 5% glucose saline means-
(a) Each 100 ml contains 5 gms glucose and
5 gm sodium chloride
(b) Each 100 ml. contains 5 gms. glucose and
0.9 gm, sodium chloride.
(c) Each 100 ml contains 5 gms. glucose and
0.4 gms sodium chloride.
(d) Each 100 ml contains 0.5 gms. glucose
ana 0.9 gm. sodium chloride
Ans. b
43. Before giving an injection the nurse
should be able-
(a) To select equipment appropriately.
(b) To select the site quickely and accurately.
(c) To prepare the medications as desired.
(d) All of the above
Ans. d
44. Which of the following is the
advantage of plastic syringes-
(a) Plastie syringes are disposable and
cheaper.
(b) Plastic syringes do not break easily.
(c) There is decreased risk of air embolism.
(d) All of the above.
Ans. d
45. In following which factor should be
considered in the selection of syringes
and needles-
(a) The route ordered
(b) Viscosity of medication solution.
(c) Amount of medication to be administered
(d) All
Ans. d
46. Which of the following is not a part of
syringe-
(a) Barrel
(b) Plunger or piston
(c) Shaft
(d) None of the above
Ans. c
47. In selecting the needles, the nurse
should see that-
(a) The bevel should be sharp and without
hooks
(b) Needle size should be of smallest gauge
appropriate for medication.
(c) Needle should fit tightly to the syringe,
(d) All of the above
Ans. d
48. Which fact is true about
paracetamol-
(a) It has analgesic and antipyretic drug.
(b) It has weak anti-inflammatory property.
(c) It is hepatotoxic in large dose.
(d) All of the above.
Ans. d
49. 5% dextrosein normal saline (NS) is-
(a) Isotonic fluid
(b) Hypotonic fluid
(c) Hypertonic fluid
(d) None of the above
Ans. c
50. Which of the following statement is
not true about aspirin (Acetyl salicylic
acid)-
(a) Aspirin has analgesic, antipyretic and anti-
inflammatory actions.
(b) Aspirin can cause gastric ulceration and
GI bleeding.
(c) Aspirin increases platelet aggregation and
help in blood coagulation
(d) Aspirin provides symptomatic relief in
rheumatoid arthritis.
Ans. c
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51. What is true about normal saline

solution (NS)-
(a) It is also known as 0.9% sodium chloride
(b) NS is a isotonic solution.
(c) NS should be avoided in congestive heart
failure and pulmonary oedema.
(d) All of the above facts are true.
Ans. d
52. In the following which fluid solution
is a isotonic solution-
(a) Ringer’s lactate solution (RL).
(b) 0.45% sodium chloride solution
(c) Normal saline solution (NS).
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Ans. d
53. Which of the following I.V. fluid
solution is a hypotonic solution- .
(a) 0.25% sodium chloride solution.
(b) 2.5% dextrose solution.
(c) 0.45% sodium chloride solution.
(d) All of the above.
Ans. d
54. The symbol of grain is-
(a) grn
(b) gr
(c) g
(d) gn
Ans. b
55. The standard unit of weight in metric
system is-
(a) Kilogram
(b) Gram
(c) Miligram
(d) Pound
Ans. a
56. 1 kilogram is equal to-
(a) 2 pounds
(b) 0.2 pounds
(c) 10 pounds
(d) 2.2 pounds
Ans. d
57. Quantity of adrenalin in 100 ml of 1
in 1000 solution is-
(a) 1 gm.
(b) 10 gm.
(c) 0.1 gm
(d) 100 gm
Ans. c
58. 1 fl. ounce is same as-
(a) 60 ml
(b) 40 ml
(c) 25 ml
(d) 50 ml
Ans. c
59. 1 ounce (0,) is equal to-
(a) 30 grams
(b) 50 grams
(c) 15 grams
(d) 45 grams
Ans. a
60. 1 gallon is same as-
(a) 6000 ml
(b) 4000 ml
(c) 2000 ml
(d) 1500 ml
Ans. b
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61. I gallon is equal to-

(a) 30 fl. ounce
(b) 40 fl. ounce
(c) 100 fl. ounce
(d) 160 fl. ounce
Ans. d
62. What quantity of sodium chloride is
required to make 1 litre of normal saline
(NS) is-
(a) 0.9 gm
(b) 90 grams
(c) 9 um
(d) 900 gm
Ans. c
63. 1 pint is equal to-
(a) 500 ml
(b) 300 ml
(c) 100 ml
(d) 150 ml
Ans. a
64. 1 pint is equal to-
(a) 40 oZ (ounce)
(b) 20 oz
(c) 15 oZ
(d) 30 oZ
Ans. b
65. 5 pints is same as-
(a) 1500 ml
(b) 1000 ml
(c) 3500 ml
(d) 2500 ml
Ans. d
66. 1 tea spoonful is same as
(a) 5 ml
(b) 2 ml
(c) 10 ml
(d) 15 ml
Ans. a
67. 1 tablespoon is same as-
(a) 5 ml
(b) 10 ml
(c) 15 ml
(d) 2.5 ml
Ans. c
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68. 1 litre is equal to-

(a) 5 pints
(b) 1 pints
(c) 10 pints
(d) 2 pints
Ans. d
69. Analgesics are used to-
(a) Induce sleep
(b) Relieve anxiety
(c) Relieve vomiting
(d) Relieve pain
Ans. d
70. 5% dextrose is a-
(a) Isotonic solution
(b) Hypotonic solution
(c) Hypertonic solution
(d) None of the above
Ans. a
71. 5% dextrose in NS (Normal Saline) is
a-
(a) Isotonic solution
(b) Hypotonic solution
(c) Hypertonic solution
(d) None of the above
Ans. c
72. Mannitol is a-
(a) Isotonic solution
(b) Hypotonic solution
(c) Hypertonic solution
(d) None of the above
Ans. a
73. In following which fluid solution is
hypertonic-
(a) 5% dextrose in NS
(b) 5% dextrose in ½ NS.
(c) 5% dextrose in RL
(d) All of the above
Ans. d
74. Which of the following is a antiemetic
drug-
(a) Metoclopramide
(b) Domperidone
(c) Ondansetrone
(d) All of the above.
Ans. d
75. The poison act was passed in-
(a) 1875
(b) 1919
(c) 1940
(d) 1930
Ans. b
76. Meaning of abbreviation ‘gtt’ is-
(a) Gallon
(b) Gram
(c) A drop
(d) Mailligram.
Ans. c

77. The symbol of gallon is-

(a) gal
(b) g
(c) ga
(d) gln
Ans. a
78. Ung. abbreviation is used for-
(a) Lotion
(b) Spirit
(c) Oil
(d) Ointment
Ans. d
79. In following which is the symbol of
powder-
(a) Pul.
(b) Pod.
(c) Pulv.
(d) None of these
Ans. c
80. Mist. abbreviation is used for-
(a) Minim
(b) Measure
(c) Mixture
(d) Milligram
Ans. c
81. Which of the following is the symbol
of water-
(a) dil.
(c) aq.
(b) fl.
(d) aq. dest.
Ans. c
82 Lin. is abbreviation for-
(a) Liquid
(b) Lotion
(c) Oil
(d) Liniment
Ans. d
83. Meaning of abbreviation stat. is-
(a) Alternate days
(b) At once
(c) At night
(d) Repeat
Ans. b
84. Prn. abbreviation is used for-
(a) When required
(b) Each hour
(c) Tomorrow morning
(d) Each morning
Ans. a
85. If a physician prescribe a drug with
h.s. Symbol, the nurse understand that
the drug is to be given-
(a) Tonight
(b) At bed time
(c) Alternate days
(d) At once
Ans. b
86. The abbreviation h.n. is used for-
(a) Each night
(b) Tonight
(c) Alternate night
(d) None of the above
Ans. b
87. Meaning of abbreviation S.O.S. is-
(a) Before meals
(b) after meals
(c) Each morning
(d) if necessary in emergency
Ans. d
88. When a drug is prescribed with
symbol a.c. it means-
(a) The drug should be given after meals
(b) The drug should be given before meals
(c) The drug should be given in empty
stomach
(d) The drug should be given each night.
Ans. b
89. Meaning of abbreviation c.m.
(a) Each morning
(b) Tonight
(c) Tomorrow morning
(d) Each night
Ans. c
90. Maximum amount of a drug can be
given through I.M. route-
(a) 5 ml
(b) 20 ml
(c) 15 ml
(d) 10 ml
Ans. a
91. In following which is not a natural
opium alkaloid-
(a) Morphine
(b) Codeine
(c) Pethidine
(d) Noscapine
Ans. c
92. Which of the following is not a
synthetic opium alkaloid-
(a) Pethidine
(b) Methadone
(c) Morphine
(d) None of the above
Ans. c
93. A patient suffering from severe pain
due to acute pancreatitis, which
analgesic is preferred to relieve pain-
(a) Acetyl salicylic acid (Asprin)
(b) Morphine hydrochloride
(c) Meperdine hydrochloride (pethidine)
(d) All of the above
Ans. c
94. Which of the following is a synthetic
opiod-
(a) Pethidine
(b) Tramadol
(c) Methadone
(d) All
Ans. d
95. Fentanyl is a –
(a) Antiemetic drug.
(b) Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug
(c) Anti tubercular drug
(d) Synthetic opioid analgesic.
Ans. d
96. Opioid analgesics (Narcotic
analgesics) can produce-
(a) Sedation and analgesia.
(b) Euphoria and respiratory depression.
(c) Nausea, vomiting and constipation.
(d) All of the above.
Ans. d
97. Morphine is contraindicated in a
patient with head injury because it can
cause-
(a) Respiratory depression
(b) Increased intracranial pressure
(c) Mental clouding and vomiting
(d) All of the above
Ans. d
98. What is true about pethidine-
(a) Pethidine is a synthetic derivative of
morphine.
(b) Pethidine is preferred to morphine as
analgesic.
(c) It is used as an analgesic in visceral pain.
(d) All of the above are true.
Ans. d
99. What is incorrect about tramadol-
(a) It is a synthetic opioid.
(b) It is a naturally occurring opium alkaloid.
(c) It is an effective analgesic.
(d) It is used in acute and chronic pain.
Ans. b
100. The antidote of morphine overdose
is-
(a) N – acetyl cysteine
(b) Naloxone
(c) Atropine sulphate
(d) Esmolol
Ans. b
101. Which of the following is a natural
penicillin-
(a) Benzyl penicillin – G
(b) Procaine penicillin – G
(c) Benzathine penicilline
(d) All of the above
Ans. d
102. Which of the following natural
penicilline has longest duration of action-
(a) Benzyl penicillin – G
(b) Procaine penicillin – G
(c) Benzathine penicillin (Penidura)
(d) Phenoxy methyl penicillin
Ans. c
103. Which penicillin is effective both
orally and parenterally-
(a) Amoxicillin
(b) Cloxacillin
(c) Ampicilline
(d) Ofloxocin
Ans. a
104. Which of the following route is
included in enteral route-
(a) Oral
(b) Sublingual
(c) Rectal
(d) All
Ans. d
105. Which of the following antibiotic
have bactericidal action-
(a) Gentamycin
(b) Vancomycin
(c) Chloramphenicol
(d) Penicillin
Ans. a, d

106. In following which statement is

true-
(a) The penicillin are bactericidal drug that
inhibit cell wall synthesis and thereby kills
bacteria.
(b) Penicillin in high dose is neurotoxic
(c) The enzyme penicillinase destroys the
natural penicillins.
(d) All of the above are true
Ans. d

107. The following is a first generation

cephalosporin-
(a) Cefuroxime
(b) Ceftazidime
(c) Cefadroxil
(d) Ceftrioxone
Ans. c

Pharmacokinetic Mcq

01. Pharmacokinetics is:

a) The study of biological and therapeutic

effects of drugs
b) The study of absorption, distribution,
metabolism and excretion of drugs
c) The study of mechanisms of drug action
d) The study of methods of new drug
development

02. What does “pharmacokinetics” include?

a) Complications of drug therapy

b) Drug biotransformation in the organism
c) Influence of drugs on metabolism
processes
d) Influence of drugs on genes

03. What does “pharmacokinetics” include?

 a) Pharmacological effects of drugs
b) Unwanted effects of drugs
c) Chemical structure of a medicinal agent
d) Distribution of drugs in the organism

04. What does “pharmacokinetics” include?

a) Localization of drug action
b) Mechanisms of drug action
c) Excretion of substances
d) Interaction of substance

05. The main mechanism of most drugs absorption

in GI tract is:
a) Active transport (carrier-mediated
diffusion)
b) Filtration (aqueous diffusion)
c) Endocytosis and exocytosis
d) Passive diffusion (lipid diffusion)

06. What kind of substances can’t permeate

membranes by passive diffusion?

a) Lipid-soluble
b) Non-ionized substances
c) Hydrophobic substances
d) Hydrophilic substances
07. A hydrophilic medicinal agent has the following
property:

a) Low ability to penetrate through the cell

membrane lipids
b) Penetrate through membranes by means
of endocytosis
c) Easy permeation through the blood-brain
barrier
d) High reabsorption in renal tubules

08. What is implied by «active transport»?

a) Transport of drugs trough a membrane by

means of diffusion
b) Transport without energy consumption
c) Engulf of drug by a cell membrane with a
new vesicle formation
d) Transport against concentration gradient

09. What does the term “bioavailability” mean?

a) Plasma protein binding degree of
substance
b) Permeability through the brain-blood
barrier
 c) Fraction of an uncharged drug reaching
the systemic circulation following any
route administration
d) Amount of a substance in urine relative to
the initial doze

10. The reasons determing bioavailability are:

a) Rheological parameters of blood

b) Amount of a substance obtained orally
and quantity of intakes
c) Extent of absorption and hepatic first-
pass effect
d) Glomerular filtration rate

11. Pick out the appropriate alimentary route of

administration when passage of drugs through
liver is minimized:

a) Oral
b) Transdermal
c) Rectal
d) Intraduodenal

12. What is characteristic of the oral route?

a) Fast onset of effect
 b) Absorption depends on GI tract secretion
and motor function
c) A drug reaches the blood passing the liver
d) The sterilization of medicinal forms is
obligatory

13. Tick the feature of the sublingual route:

a) Pretty fast absorption
b) A drug is exposed to gastric secretion
c) A drug is exposed more prominent liver
metabolism
d) A drug can be administrated in a variety
of doses

14. Pick out the parenteral route of medicinal agent

administration:
a) Rectal
b) Oral
c) Sublingual
d) Inhalation

15. Parenteral administration:

a) Cannot be used with unconsciousness
patients
b) Generally results in a less accurate
dosage than oral administration
 c) Usually produces a more rapid response
than oral administration
d) Is too slow for emergency use

16. What is characteristic of the intramuscular

route of drug administration?
a) Only water solutions can be injected
b) Oily solutions can be injected
c) Opportunity of hypertonic solution
injections
d) The action develops slower, than at oral
administration

17. Intravenous injections are more suitable for oily

solutions:
a) True
b) False

18. Correct statements listing characteristics of a

particular route of drug administration include
all of the following EXCEPT:

a) Intravenous administration provides a

rapid response
b) Intramuscular administration requires a
sterile technique
 c) Inhalation provides slow access to the
general circulation
d) Subcutaneous administration may cause
local irritation

19. Most of drugs are distributed homogeneously.

a) True
b) False

20. Biological barriers include all except:

a) Renal tubules
b) Cell membranes
c) Capillary walls
d) Placenta

21. What is the reason of complicated penetration

of some drugs through brain-blood barrier?

a) High lipid solubility of a drug

b) Meningitis
c) Absence of pores in the brain capillary
endothelium
d) High endocytosis degree in a brain
capillary
22. The volume of distribution (Vd) relates:
a) Single to a daily dose of an administrated
drug
b) An administrated dose to a body weight
c) An uncharged drug reaching the systemic
circulation
d) The amount of a drug in the body to the
concentration of a drug in plasma

23. For the calculation of the volume of distribution

(Vd) one must take into account
:
a) Concentration of a substance in plasma
b) Concentration of substance in urine
c) Therapeutical width of drug action
d) A daily dose of drug

24. The term “biotransformation” includes the

following:
a) Accumulation of substances in a fat tissue
b) Binding of substances with plasma
proteins
c) Accumulation of substances in a tissue
 d) Process of physicochemical and
biochemical alteration of a drug in the
body

25. Biotransformation of the drugs is to render

them:
a) Less ionized
b) More pharmacologically active
c) More lipid soluble
d) Less lipid soluble

26. Tick the drug type for which microsomal

oxidation is the most prominent:

a) Lipid soluble
b) Water soluble
c) Low molecular weight
d) High molecular weight

27. Pick out the right statement:

a) Microsomal oxidation always results in
inactivation of a compound
b) Microsomal oxidation results in a
decrease of compound toxicity
 c) Microsomal oxidation results in an
increase of ionization and water
solubility of a drug
d) Microsomal oxidation results in an
increase of lipid solubility of a drug thus
its excretion from the organism is
facilitated

28. Stimulation of liver microsomal enzymes can:

a) Require the dose increase of some drugs
b) Require the dose decrease of some drugs
c) Prolong the duration of the action of a
drug
d) Intensify the unwanted reaction of a drug

29. Metabolic transformation (phase 1) is:

a) Acetylation and methylation of
substances
b) Transformation of substances due to
oxidation, reduction or hydrolysis
c) Glucuronide formation
d) Binding to plasma proteins

30. Biotransformation of a medicinal substance

results in:
a) Faster urinary excretion
 b) Slower urinary excretion
c) Easier distribution in organism
d) Higher binding to membranes

Pharmacodynamic

01. Pharmacodynamics involves the study of

following EXCEPT:

a) Biological and therapeutic effects of drugs

b) Absorption and distribution of drugs
c) Mechanisms of drug action
d) Drug interactions

02. Pharmacodynamics involves the study of

following?

a) Mechanisms of drug action

b) Biotransformation of drugs in the organism
c) Distribution of drugs in the organism
d) Excretion of drug from the organism

03. Pharmacodynamics involves the following?

 a) Information about main mechanisms of drug
absorption
b) Information about unwanted effects
c) Information about biological barriers
d) Information about excretion of a drug from the
organism

04. Pick out the answer which is the most

appropriate to the term “receptor”

a) All types of ion channels modulated by a drug

b) Enzymes of oxidizing-reducing reactions
activated by a drug
c) Active macromolecular components of a cell or
an organism which a drug molecule has to
combine with in order to elicit its specific effect
d) Carriers activated by a drug

05. What does “affinity” mean?

a) A measure of how tightly a drug binds to plasma

proteins
b) A measure of how tightly a drug binds to a
receptor
c) A measure of inhibiting potency of a drug
d) A measure of bioavailability of a drug
01. Target proteins which a drug molecule binds are:

a. Only receptors
b. Only ion channels
c. Only carriers
d.All of the above

02. An agonist is a substance that:

a. Interacts with the receptor without producing

any effect
b.Interacts with the receptor and initiates
changes in cell function, producing various
effects
c. Increases concentration of another substance to
produce effect
d. Interacts with plasma proteins and doesn’t
produce any effect

03. If an agonist can produce maximal effects and

has high efficacy it’s called:

a. Partial agonist
b. Antagonist
c. Agonist-antagonist
 d.Full agonist

04. If an agonist can produce submaximal effects

and has moderate efficacy it’s called:

a. Partial agonist
b. Antagonist
c. Agonist-antagonist
d. Full agonist
05. An antagonist is a substance that:

a) Binds to the receptors and initiates

changes in cell function, producing
maximal effect
b) Binds to the receptors and initiates
changes in cell function, producing
submaximal effect
c) Interacts with plasma proteins and doesn’t
produce any effect
d) Binds to the receptors without directly
altering their functions

06. A competitive antagonist is a substance that:

a) Interacts with receptors and produces

submaximal effect
 b) Binds to the same receptor site and
progressively inhibits the agonist
response
c) Binds to the nonspecific sites of tissue
d) Binds to one receptor subtype as an
agonist and to another as an antagonist

07. The substance binding to one receptor subtype

as an agonist and to another as an antagonist is
called:

a) Competitive antagonist
b) Irreversible antagonist
c) Agonist-antagonist
d) Partial agonist

08. Irreversible interaction of an antagonist with a

receptor is due to:

a) Ionic bonds
b) Hydrogen bonds
c) Covalent bonds
d) All of the above

09. Mechanisms of transmembrane signaling are the

following EXCEPT:
 a) Transmembrane receptors that bind and
stimulate a protein tyrosine kinase
b) Gene replacement by the introduction of
a therapeutic gene to correct a genetic
effect
c) Ligand-gated ion channels that can be
induced to open or close by binding a
ligand
d) Transmembrane receptor protein that
stimulates a GTP-binding signal transducer
protein (G-protein) which in turn
generates an intracellular second
messenger

10. Tick the second messenger of G-protein-coupled

(metabotropic) receptor:

a) Adenylyl cyclase
b) Sodium ions
c) Phospholipase C
d) cAMP
019. All of the following statements about efficacy and
potency are true EXCEPT:
 a. Efficacy is usually a more important clinical
consideration than potency
b. Efficacy is the maximum effect of a drug
c. Potency is a comparative measure, refers to the
different doses of two drugs that are needed to
produce the same effect
d.d)The ED50 is a measure of drug’s efficacy

020. Give the definition for a therapeutical dose:

a) The amount of a substance to produce the minimal

biological effect
b) The amount of a substance to produce effects
hazardous for an organism
c) The amount of a substance to produce the
required effect in most patients
d) The amount of a substance to accelerate an
increase of concentration of medicine in an
organism

021. Pick out the correct definition of a toxic dose:

a) The amount of substance to produce the minimal

biological effect
 b) The amount of substance to produce effects
hazardous for an organism
c) The amount of substance to produce the necessary
effect in most of patients
d) The amount of substance to fast creation of high
concentration of medicine in an organism

022. Which effect may lead to toxic reactions when a

drug is taken continuously or repeatedly?

a) Refractoriness
b) Cumulative effect
c) Tolerance
d) Tachyphylaxis

023. What term is used to describe a more gradual

decrease in responsiveness to a drug, taking days or
weeks to develop?

a) Refractoriness
b) Cumulative effect
c) Tolerance
d) Tachyphylaxis
024. What term is used to describe a decrease in
responsiveness to a drug which develops in a few
minutes?

a) Refractoriness
b) Cumulative effect
c) Tolerance
d) Tachyphylaxis

025. Tachyphylaxis is:

a) A drug interaction between two similar types of

drugs
b) Very rapidly developing tolerance
c) A decrease in responsiveness to a drug, taking days
or weeks to develop
d) None of the above

ANS
1) Indirect-acting cholinomimetic agent acts via?
a) Stimulation of action of acetylcholinesterase
b) Binds to and activate muscarinic and nicotinic
receptors
c) Inhibition of hydrolysis of endogenous acetylcholine
d) Release of acetylcholine from the storage site

2) All of the followings are reversible indirectly acting

cholinomimetics, except:
a) Physostigmine
b) Echothiophate
c) Edrophonium
d) Neostigmine

3) The drug used in the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis is

…………………........?
a) Edrophonium
b) Pyridostigmine
c) Neostigmine
d) Ambenonium

4) Which of the following cholinomimetic drug is used

for the treatment of craving reduction in nicotine
addiction?
a)  Bupropion
b) Cevimeline
c)Varenicline
d) Galantamine

5) Stimulation of which subtype of the muscarinic

cholinergic receptor causes miosis?
a) M1
b) M2
c) M4
d) M3
e) M5

6) The drug of choice in the management of atropine

poisoning is ……………………........?
a) Edrophonium
b) Physostigmine
c) Echothiophate
d) Pyridostigmine

7) Following are the uses of Bethanechol, except:

a) Neurogenic ileus
b) Congenital megacolon
c) Postpartum or postoperative urinary retention
d) All of the above
8) Which of the following muscarinic antagonist is used
to prevent or decrease vestibular disturbances, motion
sickness?
a) Atropine
b) Scopolamine
c) Homatropine
d) Tropicamide

9) Which antimuscarinic agent is effective in the

treatment of mushroom poisoning?
a) Pralidoxime
b) Pilocarpine
c) Atropine
d) Homatropine

10) In organophosphate poisoning, the drug

is given to relieve neuromuscular
manifestation is…………………........?
a) Pralidoxime
b) Atropine
c) Homatropine
d) Benzodiazepines

11) All of the following actions are mediated

by muscarinic receptors except:
a) Negative chronotropic and inotropic effects
b) Detrusor muscle contraction and relaxation of
trigone and sphincter muscles of the urinary bladder
c) Decreased peristalsis and contraction of the
gastrointestinal tract
d) Increased peristalsis and relaxation of the
gastrointestinal tract

12) Following statements about indirect-

acting adrenergic agonists are true except:
a) Interaction with a specific adrenoceptor
b) Release of the endogenous catecholamines
c) Do not bind to specific receptor
d) Inhibition of the reuptake of catecholamines
already released

13) Which of the following alpha-adrenergic

blocking drugs show the first dose
phenomenon?
a) Yohimbine
b) Phentolamine
c) Tolazoline
d) Prazosin
14) Metoprolol is different from propranolol
in the following context;
a) Metoprolol is less likely to cause
bronchoconstriction
b) Metoprolol has selectivity for beta-2 adrenoceptor
c) Metoprolol is used to treat hypertension
d) Metoprolol inhibits renin release from the kidney

15) Following agent act by competitive

antagonism at the neuromuscular junction of
nicotinic cholinoceptors:
a) Isoflurophate
b) Succinylcholine
c) Dantrolene
d) Atracurium

16) Drug of choice for the treatment of

altitude sickness is ………………….......?
a) Timolol
b) Pilocarpine
c) Acetazolamide
d) Neostigmine

17) A patient with antimuscarinic toxicity

shows the following symptoms:
a) Blurred vision
b) Xerostomia
c) Urinary retention
d) All of the above

18) Which of the following drug is the β

blocker with an additional vasodilatory
effect?
a) Propanolol
b) Carvedilol
c) Pindolol
d) Nadolol

19) All of the following are the adverse effects

of selective β 2 agonists, except
a) Tremor
b) Tachycardia
c) Hyperglycemia
d) Hyperkalemia

20) Which of the following agent is used to

treat malignant hyperthermia?
a) Dantrolene
b) Atracurium
c) Succinylcholine
d) Mecamylamine
Multiple Choice Answers:

1-c) Inhibition of hydrolysis of

endogenous acetylcholine
2-b)Echothiophate
3-a)Edrophonium
4-c)Varenicline
5-d)M3
6-b)Physostigmine
7-d)All of the above
8-b) Scopolamine
9-c) Atropine
10-a) Pralidoxime
11-c)Decreased peristalsis and
contraction of the gastrointestinal tract
12-a) Interaction with a specific
adrenoceptor
13-d) Prazosin
14-a)Metoprolol is less likely to cause
bronchoconstriction
15-d) Atracurium
16-c) Acetazolamide
17-d) All of the above
18-b) Carvedilol
19-d) Hyperkalemia
20-a) Dantrolene

Q.1 “2-Acetoxy-N,N,N-trimethylethanaminium” is
the IUPAC nomenclature of which drug?
a) Acetylcholine
b) Cevimeline
c) Trospium chloride
d) Carvedilol
Q.2 Molecular weight of Acetylcholine is?
a) 146.21 gm/mol
b) 199.32 gm/mol
c) 428 gm/mol
d) 406.5 gm/mol
Q.3 Match the following with correct
classifications of the drugs.
 i. Cavedilol A. Antispasmodic
agent

ii. Trospium B. Cholinergic

chloride agonist. Choline
ester.

iii. C. Mixed α/ß

Acetylcholine blocker

iv. Metocurine D. Nicotinic

antagonist
 a) i-,B ii-,C iii-A, iv-D
b) i-D, ii-A, iii-C, iv-B
c) i-C, ii-A, iii-B, iv-D
d) i-B, ii-A, iii-C, iv-A
Q.4 Mechanism of action of Acetylcholine can be
due to?
a) Antagonism of cholinergic receptors
b) Agonism of cholinergic receptors
c) Anticholinestrase inhibition
d) Anticholinestrase Stimulation
Q.6 Trimethylamine and 2-chloroethylacetate
reacts together to give?
a) Cevimeline
b) Acetylcholine
c) Zolpidem
d) Trospium chloride
 Q.7 The drug Acetylcholine is mainly used for?
a) Alzhiemer’s disease
b) Myasthenia gravis
c) Reversing action of muscle relaxants
d) All of the above
 
ANSWERS
1-a
2-a
3-c
4-b
5-a
6-b
7-d

1. Which of the following is not a cholinergic

drug
1. Scopolamine
2. Muscarine
3. Pilocarpine
4. Bethenacol 

Answer- 1

2. Which of the following statements is not true

regarding neostigmine
1. It is a reversible anticholinesterase
2.It crosses the blood brain barrier
3.It is used to treat myasthenia gravis
4.It should not be used in organophosphorus
poisoning 
Answer-2

3. Which among the following diuretics causes

most severe kaliuresis
1. Furosemide
2. Hydrochlorothiazide
3. Mannitol
4. Acetazolamide
Answer-4

4. The tetracycline antibiotic that does not

require dose reduction in renal failure is
1. Doxycycline
2. Demeclocycline
3. Minocycline
4. Oxytetracycline

Answer-4
5.All the following are indications for use of H1
antihistamines except
1. Hay fever
2. Anaphylactic reaction
3. Allergic rhinitis
4. Anticholinergic poisoning

Answer-4

1. PART II Cholinomimetic drugs

01. Acetylcholine is not a specific

neurotransmitter at:
a) Sympathetic ganglia
b)Sympathetic postganglionic nerve
endings
c) Parasympathetic ganglia
 d) Parasympathetic postganglionic nerve
endings\

02. Muscarinic receptors are located in:

a) Autonomic ganglia
b) Skeletal muscle neuromuscular junctions
c) Autonomic effector cells
d) Sensory carotid sinus baroreceptor zone

03. Indicate the location of M2 cholinoreceptor

type:
a) Heart
b) Glands
c) Smooth muscle
d) Endothelium

04. The symptoms of mushroom poisoning

include all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Salivation, lacrimation, nausea, vomiting
b)Dryness of mouth, hyperpyrexia,
hallucination
c) Headache, abdominal colic
d) Bradycardia, hypotension and shock

05. Which of the following cholinomimetics

activates both muscarinic and nicotinic
receptors?
a) Lobeline
 b) Pilocarpine
c) Nicotine
d)Bethanechol

06. Indicate a cholinomimetic agent, which is

related to direct-acting drugs:
a) Edrophonium
b) Physostigmine
c) Carbachol
d) Isoflurophate

07. Characteristics of carbachol include all of the

following EXCEPT:

a) It decreases intraocular pressure

b)It causes mydriasis
c) It exerts both nicotinic and muscarinic
effects
d) It is resistant to acethylcholiesterase
08. Acetylcholine is not used in clinical practice
because:

a) It is very toxic
b) The doses required are very high
c) It is very rapidly hydrolyzed
d) It is very costly
 09. Parasympathomimetic drugs cause:
a) Bronchodilation
b) Mydriasis
c) Bradycardia
d) Constipation

10. Which of the following direct-acting

cholinomimetics is mainly muscarinic in
action?
a) Bethanechol
b) Carbachol
c) Acetylcholine
d) None of the above

11. Which of the following direct-acting

cholinomimetics has the shortest duration of
action?
a) Acetylcholine
b) Methacholine
c) Carbachol
d) Bethanechol

12. Bethanechol has all of the following properties

EXCEPT:
a) It is extremely resistant to hydrolysis
b) Purely muscarinic in its action
 c) It is used for abdominal urinary bladder
distention
d) It exerts both nicotinic and muscarinic
effects

13. A M-cholinimimetic agent is:

a) Carbachol
b) Pilocarpine
c) Acetylcholine
d) Bethanechol

14. Characteristics of pilocarpine include all of the

following EXCEPT:

a) It is a tertiary amine alkaloid

b) It causes miosis and a decrease in
intraocular pressure
c) Causes a decrease in secretory and motor
activity of gut
d) It is useful in the treatment of glaucoma

15. Which of the following cholinomimetics is a plant

derivative with lower potency than nicotine but
with a similar spectrum of action?
 a) Lobeline
b) Pilocarpine
c) Carbochol
d) Acetylcholine

16. Which of the following cholinomimetics is

indirect-acting?

a) Lobeline
b) Edrophonium
c) Pilocarpine
d) Carbachol

17. The mechanism of action of indirect-acting

cholinomimetic agents is:

a) Binding to and activation of muscarinic or

nicotinic receptors
b) Inhibition of the hydrolysis of
endogenous acetylcholine
c) Stimulation of the action of
acetylcholinesterase
d) Releasing acetylcholine from storage site

18. Indicate a reversible cholinesterase inhibitor:

 a) Isoflurophate
b) Carbochol
c) Physostigmine
d) Parathion

19. Which of the following cholinesterase inhibitors

is irreversible?

a) Physostigmine
b) Edrophonium
c) Neostigmine
d) Isoflurophate

20. Indicate cholinesterase activator:

a) Pralidoxime
b) Edrophonium
c) Pilocarpine
d) Isoflurophate

21. Isofluorophate increases all of the following

effects except:

a) Lacrimation
b) Bronchodilation
c) Muscle twitching
d) Salivation
 22. Indicate a cholinesterase inhibitor, which has an
additional direct nicotinic agonist effect:

a) Edrophonium
b) Carbochol
c) Neostigmine
d) Lobeline

PART II Cholinomimetic drugs

 Acetylcholine is not a specific neurotransmitter at:

a) Sympathetic ganglia
b)Sympathetic postganglionic nerve endings
c) Parasympathetic ganglia
d)Parasympathetic postganglionic nerve endings

2.Muscarinic receptors are located in:

a) Autonomic ganglia
b)Skeletal muscle neuromuscular junctions
c) Autonomic effector cells
d)Sensory carotid sinus baroreceptor zone
003. Indicate the location of M2 cholinoreceptor type:

a)Heart
b)Glands
c) Smooth muscle
d)Endothelium

004. The symptoms of mushroom poisoning include all of

the following EXCEPT:

a) Salivation, lacrimation, nausea, vomiting

b)Dryness of mouth, hyperpyrexia, hallucination
c) Headache, abdominal colic
d)Bradycardia, hypotension and shock

Which of the following cholinomimetics activates both

muscarinic and nicotinic receptors?

A.Lobeline
B. Pilocarpine
C. Nicotine
D.Bethanechol

Indicate a cholinomimetic agent, which is related to

direct-acting drugs:
 A.Edrophonium
B. Physostigmine
C. Carbachol
D.Isoflurophate

Characteristics of carbachol include all of the following

EXCEPT:

A.It decreases intraocular pressure

B.It causes mydriasis
C. It exerts both nicotinic and muscarinic effects
D.It is resistant to acethylcholiesterase

Acetylcholine is not used in clinical practice because:

a. It is very toxic
b. The doses required are very high
c. It is very rapidly hydrolyzed
d. It is very costly

009. Parasympathomimetic drugs cause:

a) Bronchodilation
b) Mydriasis
c) Bradycardia
d) Constipation
 010. Which of the following direct-acting
cholinomimetics is mainly muscarinic in action?
a) Bethanechol
b) Carbachol
c) Acetylcholine
d) None of the above

011. Which of the following direct-acting

cholinomimetics has the shortest duration of action?
a) Acetylcholine
b) Methacholine
c) Carbachol
d) Bethanechol
012. Bethanechol has all of the following properties
EXCEPT:
a) It is extremely resistant to hydrolysis
b) Purely muscarinic in its action
c) It is used for abdominal urinary bladder distention
d) It exerts both nicotinic and muscarinic effects
013. A M-cholinimimetic agent is:
 a) Carbachol
b) Pilocarpine
c) Acetylcholine
d) Bethanechol
014. Characteristics of pilocarpine include all of the
following EXCEPT:
a) It is a tertiary amine alkaloid
b) It causes miosis and a decrease in intraocular
pressure
c) Causes a decrease in secretory and motor activity
of gut
d) It is useful in the treatment of glaucoma
015. Which of the following cholinomimetics is a plant
derivative with lower potency than nicotine but with a
similar spectrumof action?
a) Lobeline
b) Pilocarpine
c) Carbochol
d) Acetylcholine
016. Which of the following cholinomimetics is indirect-
acting?
 a) Lobeline
b) Edrophonium
c) Pilocarpine
d) Carbachol
017. The mechanism of action of indirect-acting
cholinomimetic agents is:
a) Binding to and activation of muscarinic or nicotinic
receptors
b) Inhibition of the hydrolysis of endogenous
acetylcholine
c) Stimulation of the action of acetylcholinesterase
d) Releasing acetylcholine from storage sites
018. Indicate a reversible cholinesterase inhibitor:
a) Isoflurophate
b) Carbochol
c) Physostigmine
d) Parathion
019. Which of the following cholinesterase inhibitors is
irreversible?
a) Physostigmine
b) Edrophonium
 c) Neostigmine
d) Isoflurophate
020. Indicate cholinesterase activator:
a) Pralidoxime
b) Edrophonium
c) Pilocarpine
d) Isoflurophate
021. Isofluorophate increases all of the following effects
except:
a) Lacrimation
b) Bronchodilation
c) Muscle twitching
d) Salivation
022. Indicate a cholinesterase inhibitor, which has an
additional direct nicotinic agonist effect:
a) Edrophonium
b) Carbochol
c) Neostigmine
d) Lobeline
023. Сholinesterase inhibitors do not produce:
a) Bradycardia, no change or modest fall in blood
pressure
b) Increased strength of muscle contraction, especially
in muscles weakened by myasthenia gravis
c) Miosis and reduction of intraocular pressure
d) Dramatic hypertension and tachycardia
024. Which of the following cholinomimetics is
commonly used in the treatment of glaucoma?
a) Pilocarpine
b) Lobeline
c) Acethylcholine
d) Neostigmine
025. Indicate the organophosphate cholinesterase
inhibitor, which can be made up in an aqueous solution
for ophthalmic use and retains its activity within a week:
a) Physoctigmine
b) Edrophonium
c) Echothiophate
d) Neostigmine
026. Which of the following cholinomimetics is most
widely used for paralytic ileus and atony of the urinary
bladder?
a) Lobeline
b) Neostigmine
c) Pilocarpine
d) Echothiophate
027. Chronic long-term therapy of myasthenia is usually
accomplished with:
a) Edrophonium
b) Neostigmine
c) Echothiophate
d) Carbachol
028. Which of the following cholinomimetics is a drug of
choice for reversing the effects of nondepolarizing
neuromuscular relaxants?
a) Echothiophate
b) Physostigmine
c) Edrophonium
d) Pilocarpine
029. Indicate the reversible cholinesterase inhibitor,
which penetrates the blood-brain barrier:
a) Physostigmine
b) Edrophonium
c) Neostigmine
d) Piridostigmine
030. Which of the following cholinomimetics is used in
the treatment of atropine intoxication?
a) Neostigmine
b) Carbochol
c) Physostigmine
d) Lobeline
031. The symptoms of excessive stimulation of
muscarinic receptors include all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Abdominal cramps, diarrhea
b) Increased salivation, excessive bronchial secretion
c) Miosis, bradycardia
d) Weakness of all skeletal muscles
032. The excessive stimulation of muscarinic receptors by
pilocarpine and choline esters is blocked competitively
by:
 a) Edrophonium
b) Atropine
c) Pralidoxime
d) Echothiophate
033. The toxic effects of a large dose of nicotine include
all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Hypotension and bradycardia
b) Convulsions, coma and respiratory arrest
c) Skeletal muscle depolarization blockade and
respiratory paralysis
d) Hypertension and cardiac arrhythmias
034. The dominant initial sights of acute cholinesterase
inhibitors intoxication include all of the following except:
a) Salivation, sweating
b) Mydriasis
c) Bronchial constriction

d) Vomiting and diarrhea

035. Which of the following drugs is used for acute toxic
effects of organophosphate cholinesterase inhibitors?
e) Atropine
 f) Pilocarpine
g) Pralidoxime
h) Edrophonium

PART III Cholinoreceptor blocking drugs

001. The group of nicotinic receptor-blocking drugs
consists of:
a) Ganglion-blockers
b) Atropine-similar drugs
c) Neuromuscular junction blockers
d) Both a and c
002. M3 receptor subtype is located:
a) In the myocardium
b) In sympathetic postganglionic neurons
c) On effector cell membranes of glandular and
smooth muscle cells
d) On the motor end plates
003. Which of the following drugs is both a muscarinic
and nicotinic blocker?
 a) Atropine
b) Benztropine
c) Hexamethonium
d) Succinylcholine
004. Indicate a muscarinic receptor-blocking drug:
a) Scopolamine
b) Pipecuronium
c) Trimethaphan
d) Pilocarpine
005. Which of the following agents is a ganglion-blocking
drug?
a) Homatropine
b) Hexamethonium
c) Rapacuronium
d) Edrophonium
006. Indicate the skeletal muscle relaxant, which is a
depolarizing agent:
a) Vencuronium
b) Scopolamine
c) Succinylcholine
d) Hexamethonium
007. Which of the following drugs is a nondepolarizing
muscle relaxant?
a) Pancuronium
b) Succinylcholine
c) Hexamethonium
d) Scopolamine
008. Indicate the drug, which is rapidly and fully
distributed into CNS and has a greater effect than most
other antimuscarinic
agents?
a) Atropine
b) Scopolamine
c) Homatropine
d) Ipratropium
009. The effect of the drug on parasympathetic function
declines rapidly in all organs EXCEPT:
a) Eye
b) Heart
c) Smooth muscle organs
d) Glands
010. The mechanism of atropine action is:
a) Competitive ganglion blockade
b) Competitive muscarinic blockade
c) Competitive neuromuscular blockade
d) Noncompetitive neuromuscular blockade
011. The tissues most sensitive to atropine are:
a) The salivary, bronchial and sweat glands
b) The gastric parietal cells
c) Smooth muscle and autonomic effectors
d) The heart
012. Atropine is highly selective for:
a) M1 receptor subtype
b) M2 receptor subtype
c) M3 receptor subtype
d) All of the above
013. Which of the following antimuscarinic drugs is often
effective in preventing or reversing vestibular
disturbances, especially motion sickness?
a) Atropine
b) Ipratropium
 c) Scopolamine
d) Homatropine
014. Atropine causes:
a) Miosis, a reduction in intraocular pressure and
cyclospasm
b) Mydriasis, a rise in intraocular pressure and
cycloplegia
c) Miosis, a rise in intraocular pressure and cycloplegia
d) Mydriasis, a rise in intraocular pressure and
cyclospasm
015. Patients complain of dry or “sandy” eyes when
receiving large doses of:
a) Atropine
b) Hexamethonium
c) Pilocarpine
d) Carbachol
016. All of the following parts of the heart are very
sensitive to muscarinic receptor blockade except:
a) Atria
b) Sinoatrial node
c) Atrioventricular node
 d) Ventricle
017. Atropine causes:
a) Bradycardia, hypotension and bronchoconstriction
b) Tachycardia, little effect on blood pressure and
bronchodilation
c) Decrease in contractile strength, conduction velocity
through the AV node
d) Tachycardia, hypertensive crisis and bronchodilation
018. Atropine is frequently used prior to administration
of inhalant anesthetics to reduce:
a) Muscle tone
b) Secretions
c) Nausea and vomiting
d) All of the above
019. Atropine is now rarely used for the treatment of
peptic ulcer because of:
a) Slow gastric empting and prolongation of the
exposure of the ulcer bed to acid
b) Low efficiency and necessity of large doses
c) Adverse effects
d) All of the above
020. Which of the following antimuscarinic drugs is a
selective M1 blocker?
a) Atropine
b) Scopolamine
c) Pirenzepine
d) Homatropine
021. Atropine causes:
a) Spasmolitic activity
b) Intestinal hypermotility
c) Stimulation of contraction in the gut
d) Stimulation of secretory activity
022. Which of the following drugs is useful in the
treatment of uterine spasms?
a) Carbachol
b) Vecuronium
c) Atropine
d) Edrophonium
023. Atropine may cause a rise in body temperature
(atropine fever):
a) In adults
 b) In pregnant women
c) In infants and children
d) All of the above
024. The pharmacologic actions of scopolamine most
closely resemble those of:
a) Hexamethonium
b) Atropine
c) Succinylcholine
d) Pilocarpine
025. Compared with atropine, scopolamine has all of the
following properties EXCEPT:
a) More marked central effect
b) Less potent in decreasing bronchial, salivary and
sweat gland secretion
c) More potent in producing mydriasis and cycloplegia
d) Lower effects on the heart, bronchial muscle and
intestines
026. Which of the following drugs is useful in the
treatment of Parkinson′s disease?
a) Benztropine
b) Edrophonium
 c) Succinylcholine
d) Hexamethonium
027. Indicate the antimuscarinic drug, which is used as a
mydriatic:
a) Pilocarpine
b) Neostigmine
c) Homatropine
d) Ipratropium
028. Which of the following agents is used as an
inhalation drug in asthma?
a) Atropine
b) Ipratropium
c) Lobeline
d) Homatropine
029. Which of the following agents is most effective in
regenerating cholinesterase associated with skeletal
muscle neuromuscular junctions?
a) Suscinilcholine
b) Pralidoxime
c) Pirenzepine
d) Propiverine
030. Indicate an antimuscarinic drug, which is effective in
the treatment of mushroom poising:
a) Pralidoxime
b) Pilocarpine
c) Homatropine
d) Atropine
031. Antimuscarinics are used in the treatment of the
following disorders EXCEPT:
a) Motion sickness
b) Glaucoma
c) Hyperhidrosis
d) Asthma
032. The atropine poisoning includes all of the following
symptoms EXCEPT:
a) Mydriasis, cycloplegia
b) Hyperthermia, dry mouth, hot and flushed skin
c) Agitation and delirium
d) Bradicardia, orthostatic hypotension
033. The treatment of the antimuscarinic effects can be
carried out with:
 a) Neostigmine
b) Hexametonium
c) Homatropine
d) Acetylcholine
034. Contraindications to the use of antimuscarinic drugs
are all of the following except:
a) Glaucoma
b) Myasthenia
c) Bronchial asthma
d) Paralytic ileus and atony of the urinary bladder
035. Hexamethonium blocks the action of acethylcholine
and similar agonists at:
a) Muscarinic receptor site
b) Neuromuscular junction
c) Autonomic ganglia
d) Axonal transmission
036. The applications of the ganglion blockers have
disappeared because of all of the following reasons
EXCEPT:
a) Orthostatic hypotension
b) Lack of selectivity
 c) Homeostatic reflexes block
d) Respiratory depression
037. Which of the following agents is a short-acting
ganglion blocker?
a) Homatropine
b) Trimethaphane
c) Hexamethonium
d) Pancuronium
038. Indicate the ganglion-blocking drug, which can be
taken orally for the treatment of hypertension?
a) Mecamylamine
b) Scopolamine
c) Trimethaphane
d) Vecocuronium
039. The systemic effects of hexamethonium include all
of the following EXCEPT:
a) Reduction of both peripheral vascular resistance and
venous return
b) Partial mydriasis and loss of accommodation
c) Constipation and urinary retention
d) Stimulation of thermoregulatory sweating
040. Ganglion blocking drugs are used for the following
emergencies EXCEPT:
a) Hypertensive crises
b) Controlled hypotension
c) Cardiovascular collapse
d) Pulmonary edema
041. Agents that produce neuromuscular blockade act by
inhibiting:
a) Interaction of acetylcholine with cholinergic
receptors
b) Release of acetylcholine from prejunctional
membrane
c) Packaging of acetylcholine into synaptic vesicles
d) Reuptake of acetylcholine into the nerve ending
042. Skeletal muscle relaxation and paralysis can occur
from interruption of functions at several sites, including
all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Nicotinic acethylcholine receptors
b) Muscarinic acethylcholine receptors
c) The motor end plate
d) Contractile apparatus
043. Nondepolarisation neuromuscular blocking agents:
a) Block acetylcholine reuptake
b) Prevent access of the transmitter to its receptor
and depolarization
c) Block transmission by an excess of a depolarizing
agonist
d) All of the above
044. Which of the following drugs has “double-
acetylcholine” structure?
a) Rocuronium
b) Carbachol
c) Atracurium
d) Succylcholine
045. Indicate the long-acting neuromuscular blocking
agent:
a) Rapacuronium
b) Mivacurium
c) Tubocurarine
d) Rocuronium
046. Which of the following neuromuscular blocking
drugs is an intermediate-duration muscle relaxant?
 a) Vecuronium
b) Tubocurarine
c) Pancuronium
d) Rapacuronium
047. Indicate the nondepolarizing agent, which has the
fastest onset of effect?

a) Succinylcholine
b) Rapacuronium
c) Pancuronium
d) Tubocurarine
048. Indicate the neuromuscular blocker, whose
breakdown product readily crosses the blood-brain
barrier and may cause
seizures:
a) Pancuronium
b) Succinylcholine
c) Tubocurarine
d) Atracurium
049. Which competitive neuromuscular blocking agent
could be used in patients with renal failure?
a) Atracurium
b) Succinylcholine
c) Pipecuronium
d) Doxacurium
050. Indicate the nondepolarizing agent, which has short
duration of action:
a) Succinylcholine
b) Tubocurarine
c) Mivacurium
d) Pancuronium
051. Which depolarizing agent has the extremely brief
duration of action?
a) Mivacurium
b) Rapacuronium
c) Rocuronium
d) Succinylcholine
052. Neuromuscular blockade by both succinylcholine
and mivacurium may be prolonged in patients with:
 a) Renal failure
b) An abnormal variant of plasma cholinesterase
c) Hepatic disease
d) Both b and c
053. Depolarizing agents include all of the following
properties EXCEPT:
a) Interact with nicotinic receptor to compete with
acetylcholine without receptor activation
b) React with the nicotinic receptor to open the
channel and cause depolarisation of the end plate
c) Cause desensitization, noncompetive block
manifested by flaccid paralysis
d) Cholinesterase inhibitors do not have the ability to
reverse the blockade
054. Which of the following neuromuscular blockers
causes transient muscle fasciculations?
a) Mivacurium
b) Pancuronium
c) Succinylcholine
d) Tubocurarine
055. Indicate muscles, which are more resistant to block
and recover more rapidly:
a) Hand
b) Leg
c) Neck
d) Diaphragm
056. Which neuromuscular blocking agent has the
potential to cause the greatest release of histamine?
a) Succylcholine
b) Tubocurarine
c) Pancuronium
d) Rocuronium
057. Which of the following muscular relaxants causes
hypotension and bronchospasm?
a) Vecuronium
b) Succinylcholine
c) Tubocurarine
d) Rapacuronium
058. Indicate the neuromuscular blocker, which causes
tachycardia:
 a) Tubocurarine
b) Atracurium
c) Pancuronium
d) Succinylcholine
059. Which of the following neuromuscular blocking
agents cause cardiac arrhythmias?
a) Vecuronium
b) Tubocurarine
c) Rapacuronium
d) Succinylcholine
060. Effects seen only with depolarizing blockade include
all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Hypercaliemia
b) A decrease in intraocular pressure
c) Emesis
d) Muscle pain
061. Which neuromuscular blocking agent is
contraindicated in patients with glaucoma?
a) Tubocurarine
b) Succinylcholine
c) Pancuronium
 d) Gallamine
062. Indicate the following neuromuscular blocker, which
would be contraindicated in patients with renal failure:
a) Pipecuronium
b) Succinylcholine
c) Atracurium
d) Rapacuronium
063. All of the following drugs increase the effects of
depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agents EXCEPT:
a) Aminoglycosides
b) Antiarrhythmic drugs
c) Nondepolarizing blockers
d) Local anesthetics
064. Which of the following diseases can augment the
neuromuscular blockade produced by nondepolarizing
muscle
relaxants?
a) Myasthenia gravis
b) Burns
c) Asthma
 d) Parkinsonism
065. Indicate the agent, which effectively antagonizes the
neuromuscular blockade caused by nondepolarizing
drugs:
a) Atropine
b) Neostigmine
c) Acetylcholine
d) Pralidoxime

PART IV Adrenoreceptor
activating drugs
001. Sympathetic stimulation is mediated by:
a) Release of norepinephrine from nerve terminals
b) Activation of adrenoreceptors on postsynaptic sites
c) Release of epinephrine from the adrenal medulla
d) All of the above
002. Characteristics of epinephrine include all of the
following EXCEPT:
a) It is synthesized into the adrenal medulla
b) It is synthesized into the nerve ending
 c) It is transported in the blood to target tissues
d) It directly interacts with and activates
adrenoreceptors
003. Which of the following sympathomimetics acts
indirectly?
a) Epinephrine
b) Norepinephrine
c) Ephedrine
d) Methoxamine
004. Indirect action includes all of the following
properties EXCEPT:
a) Displacement of stored catecholamines from the
adrenergic nerve ending
b)Inhibition of reuptake of catecholamines already
released
c) Interaction with adrenoreceptors
d)Inhibition of the release of endogenous
catecholamines from peripheral adrenergic neurons
005. Catecholamine includes following EXCEPT:
a) Ephedrine
b) Epinephrine
 c) Isoprenaline
d) Norepinephrine
006. Epinephrine decreases intracellular camp levels by
acting on:
a) α1 receptor
b) α2 receptor
c) beta1 receptor
d) beta2 receptor
007. Which of the following statements is not correct?
a) ALFA receptors increase arterial resistence, whereas
beta2 receptor promote smooth muscle relaxation
b) The skin and splanchic vessels have predominantly
alfa receptors
c) Vessels in a skeletal muscle may constrict or dilate
depending on whether alfa or beta2 receptors are
activated
d) Skeletal muscle vessels have predominantly alfa
receptors and constrict in the presence of
epinephrine and norepinephrine
008. Direct effects on the heart are determined largely
by:
 a) Alfa1 receptor
b) Alfa2 receptor
c) Beta1 receptor
d) Beta2 receptor
009. Which of the following effects is related to direct
beta1-adrenoreceptor stimulation?
a) Bronchodilation
b) Vasodilatation
c) Tachycardia
d) Bradycardia
010. Distribution of alfa adrenoreceptor subtypes is
associated with all of the following tissues except those
of:
a) Heart
b) Blood vessels
c) Prostate
d) Pupillary dilator muscle
011. Beta adrenoreceptor subtypes is contained in all of
the following tissues EXCEPT:
a) Bronchial muscles
b) Heart
 c) Pupillary dilator muscle
d) Fat cells
012. In which of the following tissues both alfa and beta1
adrenergic stimulation produces the same effect?
a) Blood vessels
b) Intestine
c) Uterus
d) Bronchial muscles
013. The effects of sympathomimetics on blood pressure
are associated with their effects on:
a) The heart
b) The peripheral resistance
c) The venous return
d) All of the above
014. A relatively pure alfa agonist causes all of the
following effects EXCEPT:
a) Increase peripheral arterial resistance
b) Increase venous return
c) Has no effect on blood vessels
d) Reflex bradycardia
015. A nonselective beta receptor agonist causes all of
the following effects EXCEPT:
a) Increase cardiac output
b) Increase peripheral arterial resistance
c) Decrease peripheral arterial resistance
d) Decrease the mean pressure
016. Which of the following statement is not correct?
a) Αlfa agonists cause miosis
b) Αlfa agonists cause mydriasis
c) Beta antagonists decrease the production of
aqueous humor
d) Αlfa agonists increase the outflow of aqueous humor
from the eye
017. A bronchial smooth muscle contains:
a) Αlfa1 receptor
b) Αlfa2 receptor
c) Beta 1 receptor
d) Beta 2 receptor
018. All of the following agents are beta receptor
agonists EXCEPT:
 a) Epinephrine
b) Isoproterenol
c) Methoxamine
d) Dobutamine
019. Which of the following drugs causes bronchodilation
without significant cardiac stimulation?
a) Isoprenaline
b) Terbutaline
c) Xylometazoline
d) Methoxamine
020. Αlfa-receptor stimulation includes all of the
following effects EXCEPT:
a) Relaxation of gastrointestinal smooth muscle
b) Contraction of bladder base, uterus and prostate
c) Stimulation of insulin secretion
d) Stimulation of platelet aggregation
021. Beta1 receptor stimulation includes all of the
following effects EXCEPT:
a) Increase in contractility
b) Bronchodilation
c) Tachycardia
 d) Increase in conduction velocity in the
atrioventricular node
022. Beta2 receptor stimulation includes all of the
following effects EXCEPT:
a) Stimulation of renin secretion
b) Fall of potassium concentration in plasma
c) Relaxation of bladder, uterus
d) Tachycardia
023. Hyperglycemia induced by epinephrine is due to:
a) Gluconeogenesis (beta2)
b) Inhibition of insulin secretion (alfa)
c) Stimulation of glycogenolysis (beta2)
d) All of the above
024. Which of the following effects is associated with
beta3-receptor stimulation?
a) Lipolysis
b) Decrease in platelet aggregation
c) Bronchodilation
d) Tachycardia
025. Which of the following statements is not correct?
 a) Epinephrine acts on both alfa- and beta-receptors
b) Norepinephrine has a predominantly beta action
c) Methoxamine has a predominantly alfa action
d) Isoprenaline has a predominantly beta action
026. Indicate the drug, which is a direct-acting both alfa-
and beta-receptor agonist:
a) Norepinephrine
b) Methoxamine
c) Isoproterenol
d) Ephedrine
027. Which of the following agents is an alfa1 alfa2 beta1
beta2 receptor agonist?
a) Methoxamine
b) Albuterol
c) Epinephrine
d) Norepinephrine
028. Indicate the direct-acting sympathomimetic, which
is an alfa1 alfa2 beta1 receptor agonist:
a) Isoproterenol
b) Ephedrine
c) Dobutamine
 d) Norepinephrine
029. Which of the following agents is an alfa1-selective
agonist?
a) Norepinephrine
b) Methoxamine
c) Ritodrine
d) Ephedrine
030. Indicate the alfa2-selective agonist:
a) Xylometazoline
b) Epinephrine
c) Dobutamine
d) Methoxamine
031. Which of the following agents is a nonselective beta
receptor agonist?
a) Norepinephrine
b) Terbutaline
c) Isoproterenol
d) Dobutamine
032. Indicate the beta1-selective agonist:
a) Isoproterenol
 b) Dobutamine
c) Metaproterenol
d) Epinephrine
033. Which of the following sympathomimetics is a
beta2-selective agonist?
a) Terbutaline
b) Xylometazoline
c) Isoproterenol
d) Dobutamine
034. Indicate the indirect-acting sympathomimetic agent:
a) Epinephrine
b) Phenylephrine
c) Ephedrine
d) Isoproterenol
035. Epinephrine produces all of the following effects
EXCEPT:
a) Positive inotropic and chronotropic actions on the
heart (beta1 receptor)
b) Increase peripheral resistance (alfa receptor)
c) Predominance of alfa effects at low concentration
 d) Skeletal muscle blood vessel dilatation (beta2
receptor)
036. Epinephrine produces all of the following effects
EXCEPT:
a) Decrease in oxygen consumption
b) Bronchodilation
c) Hyperglycemia
d) Mydriasis
037. Epinephrine is used in the treatment of all of the
following disorders EXCEPT:
a) Bronchospasm
b) Anaphylactic shock
c) Cardiac arrhythmias
d) Open-angle glaucoma
038. Compared with epinephrine, norepinephrine
produces all of the following effects EXCEPT:
a) Similar effects on beta1 receptors in the heart and
similar potency at an alfa receptor
b) Decrease the mean pressure below normal before
returning to the control value
c) Significant tissue necrosis if injected subcutaneously
 d) Increase both diastolic and systolic blood pressure
039. Norepinephrine produces:
a) Vasoconstriction
b) Vasodilatation
c) Bronchodilation
d) Decresed potassium concentration in the plasma
040. Which of the following direct-acting drugs is a
relatively pure alfa agonist, an effective mydriatic and
decongestant and can be used to raise blood pressure?
a) Epinephrine
b) Norepinephrine
c) Phenylephrine
d) Ephedrine
041. Characteristics of methoxamine include all of the
following EXCEPT:
a) It is a direct-acting alfa1-receptor agonist
b) It increases heart rate, contractility and cardiac
output
c) It causes reflex bradycardia
d) It increases total peripheral resistance
042. Which of the following agents is an alfa2-selective
agonist with ability to promote constriction of the nasal
mucosa?
a) Xylometazoline
b) Phenylephrine
c) Methoxamine
d) Epinephrine
043. Indicate the sympathomimetic, which may cause
hypotension, presumably because of a clonidine-like
effect:
a) Methoxamine
b) Phenylephrine
c) Xylometazoline
d) Isoproterenol
044. Isoproterenol is:
a) Both an alfa- and beta-receptor agonist
b) beta1-selective agonist
c) beta2-selective agonist
d) Nonselective beta receptor agonist
045. Isoproterenol produces all of the following effects
EXCEPT:
a) Increase in cardiac output
b) Fall in diastolic and mean arterial pressure
c) Bronchoconstriction
d) Tachycardia
046. Characteristics of dobutamine include all of the
following EXCEPT:
a) It is a relatively beta1-selective synthetic
catecholamine
b) It is used to treat bronchospasm
c) It increases atrioventricular conduction
d) It causes minimal changes in heart rate and systolic
pressure
047. Characteristics of salmeterol include all of the
following EXCEPT:
a) It is a potent selective beta2 agonist
b) It causes uterine relaxation
c) It stimulates heart rate, contractility and cardiac
output
d) It is used in the therapy of asthma
048. Characteristics of ephedrine include all of the
following EXCEPT:
a) It acts primarily through the release of stored
cathecholamines
b) It is a mild CNS stimulant
c) It causes tachyphylaxis with repeated administration
d) It decreases arterial pressure
049. Ephedrine causes:
a) Miosis
b) Bronchodilation
c) Hypotension
d) Bradycardia
050. Compared with epinephrine, ephedrine produces all
of the following features EXCEPT:
a) It is a direct-acting sympathomimetic
b) It has oral activity
c) It is resistant to MAO and has much longer duration
of action
d) Its effects are similar, but it is less potent
051. Which of the following sympathomimetics is
preferable for the treatment of chronic orthostatic
hypotension?
a) Epinephrine
b) Norepinephrine
c) Ephedrine
d) Salmeterol
052. Indicate the sympathomimetic drug, which is used
in a hypotensive emergency:
a) Xylometazoline
b) Ephedrine
c) Terbutaline
d) Phenylephrine
053. Which of the following sympathomimetics is
preferable for the emergency therapy of cardiogenic
shock?
a) Epinephrine
b) Dobutamine
c) Isoproterenol
d) Methoxamine
054. Indicate the sympathomimetic agent, which is
combined with a local anesthetic to prolong the duration
of infiltration nerve block:
a) Epinephrine
b) Xylometazoline
c) Isoproterenol
d) Dobutamine
055. Which of the following sympathomimetics is related
to short-acting topical decongestant agents?
a) Xylometazoline
b) Terbutaline
c) Phenylephrine
d) Norepinephrine
056. Indicate the long-acting topical decongestant
agents:
a) Epinephrine
b) Norepinephrine
c) Phenylephrine
d) Xylometazoline
057. Which of the following topical decongestant agents
is an alfa2-selective agonist?
 a) Phenylephrine
b) Xylometazoline
c) Ephedrine
d) Epinephrine
058. Indicate the sympathomimetic, which may be useful
in the emergency management of cardiac arrest:
a) Methoxamine
b) Phenylephrine
c) Epinephrine
d) Xylometazoline
059. Which of the following sympathomimetics is used in
the therapy of bronchial asthma?
a) Formoterol
b) Norepinephrine
c) Methoxamine
d) Dobutamine
060. Indicate the agent of choice in the emergency
therapy of anaphylactic shock:
a) Methoxamine
b) Terbutaline
c) Norepinephrine
 d) Epinephrine

CNS
THE CENTRAL NERVOUS SYSTEM
PART I Hypnotic drugs
001. Hypnotic drugs are used to treat:
a) Psychosis
b) Sleep disorders
c) Narcolepsy
d) Parkinsonian disorders
002. Hypnotic drugs should:
a) Reduce anxiety and exert a calming effect
b) Induce absence of sensation
c) Produce drowsiness, encourage the onset and
maintenance of sleep
d) Prevent mood swings in patients with bipolar affective
disorders
003. Which of the following chemical agents are used in
the treatment of insomnia?
a) Benzodiazepines
b) Imidazopyridines
c) Barbiturates
d) All of the above
004. Select a hypnotic drug, which is a benzodiazepine
derivative:
a) Zolpidem
b) Flurazepam
c) Secobarbital
d) Phenobarbitone
005. Tick a hypnotic agent – a barbituric acid derivative:
a) Flurazepam
b) Zaleplon
c) Thyopental
d) Triazolam
006. Select a hypnotic drug, which is an imidazopyridine
derivative:
a) Pentobarbital
b) Temazepam
c) Zolpidem
d) Chloral hydrate
007. Which of the following hypnotic agents is absorbed
slowly?
a) Phenobarbital
b) Flurazepam
c) Triazolam
d) Temazepam
008. Which of the following barbiturates is an ultra-short-
acting drug?
a) Secobarbital
b) Amobarbital
c) Thiopental
d) Phenobarbital
009. Indicate the barbituric acid derivative, which has 4-5
days elimination half-life:
a) Secobarbital
b) Thiopental
c) Phenobarbital
d) Amobarbital
010. Indicate the hypnotic benzodiazepine, which has the
shortest elimination half-life:
a) Temazepam
b) Triazolam
c) Flurazepam
d) Diazepam
011. Which of the following hypnotic drugs is more likely
to cause cumulative and residual effects?
a) Zolpidem
b) Temazepam
c) Phenobarbital
d) Triazolam
35
012. Which of the following hypnotic drugs increases the
activity of hepatic drug-metabolizing enzyme systems?
a) Phenobarbital
b) Zolpidem
c) Flurazepam
d) Zaleplon
013. Hepatic microsomal drug-metabolizing enzyme
induction leads to:
a) Barbiturate tolerance
b) Cumulative effects
c) Development of physical dependence
d) “hangover” effects
014. Hypnotic benzodiazepines are more powerful
enzyme inducers than barbiturates.
a) True
b) False
015. Indicate the hypnotic drug, which does not change
hepatic drug-metabolizing enzyme activity?
a) Flurazepam
b) Zaleplon
c) Triazolam
d) All of the above
016. Barbiturates increase the rate of metabolism of:
a) Anticoagulants
b) Digitalis compounds
c) Glucocorticoids
d) All of the above
017. Which of the following agents inhibits hepatic
metabolism of hypnotics?
a) Flumasenil
b) Cimetidin
c) Phenytoin
d) Theophylline
018. Which of the following factors can influence the
biodisposition of hypnotic agents?
a) Alterations in the hepatic function resulting from a
disease
b) Old age
c) Drug-induced increases or decreases in microsomal
enzyme activities
d) All of the above
019. Which of the following hypnotics is preferred for
elderly patients?
a) Phenobarbital
b) Flurozepam
c) Temazepam
d) Secobarbital
020. Which of the following hypnotics is preferred in
patients with limited hepatic function?
a) Zolpidem
b) Amobarbital
c) Flurozepam
d) Pentobarbital
021. Indicate the mechanism of barbiturate action (at
hypnotic doses):
a) Increasing the duration of the GABA-gated Cl-
channel openings
b) Directly activating the chloride channels
c) Increasing the frequency of Cl- channel opening events
d) All of the above
022. Imidazopyridines are:
a) Partial agonists at brain 5-TH1A receptors
b) Selective agonists of the BZ1 (omega1) subtype of
BZ receptors
c) Competitive antagonists of BZ receptors
d) Nonselective agonists of both BZ1 and BZ2 receptor
subtypes
023. Which of the following hypnotic agents is a positive
allosteric modulator of GABAA receptor function?
a) Zaleplon
b) Flurazepam
c) Zolpidem
d) All of the above
024. Indicate a hypnotic drug - a selective agonist at the
BZ1 receptor subtype:
a) Flurazepam
b) Zolpidem
36
c) Triazolam
d) Flumazenil
025. Which of the following hypnotic agents is able to
interact with both BZ1 and BZ2 receptor subtypes?
a) Zaleplon
b) Phenobarbital
c) Flurazepam
d) Zolpidem
026. Indicate the competitive antagonist of BZ receptors:
a) Flumazenil
b) Picrotoxin
c) Zolpidem
d) Temazepam
027. Flumazenil blocks the actions of:
a) Phenobarbital
b) Morphine
c) Zolpidem
d) Ethanol
028. Indicate the agent, which interferes with GABA
binding:
a) Flurazepam
b) Bicuculline
c) Thiopental
d) Zolpidem
029. Which of the following agents blocks the chloride
channel directly?
a) Secobarbital
b) Flumazenil
c) Zaleplon
d) Picrotoxin
030. Which of the following agents is preferred in the
treatment of insomnia?
a) Barbiturates
b) Hypnotic benzodiazepines
c) Ethanol
d) Phenothiazide
031. Barbiturates are being replaced by hypnotic
benzodiazepines because of:
a) Low therapeutic index
b) Suppression in REM sleep
c) High potential of physical dependence and abuse
d) All of the above
032. Which of the following benzodiazepines is used
mainly for hypnosis?
a) Clonozepam
b) Lorazepam
c) Flurazepam
d) Midazolam
033. Indicate the main claim for an ideal hypnotic agent:
a) Rapid onset and sufficient duration of action
b) Minor effects on sleep patterns
c) Minimal “hangover” effects
d) All of the above
034. Which stage of sleep is responsible for the incidence
of dreams?
a) REM sleep
b) Slow wave sleep
c) Stage 2NREM sleep
d) All of the above
035. During slow wave sleep (stage 3 and 4 NREM
sleep):
a) Dreams occur
b) The secretion of adrenal steroids is at its highest
c) Somnambulism and nightmares occur
d) The secretion of somatotropin is at its lowest
036. All of the hypnotic drugs induce:
a) Increase the duration of REM sleep
b) Decrease the duration of REM sleep
c) Do not alter the duration of REM sleep
37
d) Increase the duration of slow wave sleep
037. Which of the following hypnotic drugs causes least
suppression of REM sleep?
a) Flumazenil
b) Phenobarbital
c) Flurazepam
d) Secobarbital
038. Although the benzodiazepines continue to be the
agents of choice for insomnia, they have:
a) The possibility of psychological and physiological
dependence
b) Synergistic depression of CNS with other drugs
(especially alcohol)
c) Residual drowsiness and daytime sedation
d) All of the above
039. Hypnotic benzodiazepines can cause:
a) A dose-dependent increase in both REM and slow
wave sleep
b) Do not change sleep patterns
c) A dose-dependent decrease in both REM and slow
wave sleep
d) A dose-dependent increase in REM sleep and decrease
in slow wave sleep
040. Which one of the following hypnotic
benzodiazepines is more likely to cause rebound
insomnia?
a) Triazolam
b) Flurazepam
c) Temazepam
d) All of the above
041. Which of the following hypnotic benzodiazepines is
more likely to cause “hangover” effects such as
drowsiness,
dysphoria, and mental or motor depression the following
day?
a) Temazepam
b) Triazolam
c) Flurazepam
d) None of the above
042. Indicate the hypnotic drug, which binds selectively
to the BZ1 receptor subtype, facilitating GABAergic
inhibition:
a) Thiopental
b) Zolpidem
c) Flurazepam
d) Phenobarbital
043. Which of the following statements is correct for
zolpidem?
a) Causes minor effects on sleep patterns
b) The risk of development of tolerance and dependence
is less than with the use of hypnotic benzodiazepines
c) Has minimal muscle relaxing and anticonvulsant
effects
d) All of the above
044. Which agent exerts hypnotic activity with minimal
muscle relaxing and anticonvulsant effects?
a) Flurazepam
b) Triazolam
c) Zaleplon
d) None of the above
045. Zolpidem and zaleplon have effectiveness similar to
that of hypnotic benzodiazepines in the management of
sleep
disorders.
a) True
b) False
046. Which of the following hypnotic drugs is used
intravenously as anesthesia?
a) Thiopental
b) Phenobarbital
c) Flurazepam
d) Zolpidem
047. Indicate the usual cause of death due to overdose of
hypnotics:
a) Depression of the medullar respiratory center
b) Hypothermia
c) Cerebral edema
d) Status epilepticus
048. Toxic doses of hypnotics may cause a circulatory
collapse as a result of:
a) Blocking alfa adrenergic receptors
b) Increasing vagal tone
c) Action on the medullar vasomotor center
d) All of the above
38
PART II Antiseizure drugs
001. The mechanism of action of antiseizure drugs is:
a) Enhancement of GABAergic (inhibitory) transmission
b) Diminution of excitatory (usually glutamatergic)
transmission
c) Modification of ionic conductance
d) All of the above mechanisms
002. Which of the following antiseizure drugs produces
enhancement of GABA-mediated inhibition?
a) Ethosuximide
b) Carbamazepine
c) Phenobarbital
d) Lamotrigine
003. Indicate an antiseizure drug, which has an impotent
effect on the T-type calcium channels in thalamic
neurons?
a) Carbamazepin
b) Lamotrigine
c) Ethosuximide
d) Phenytoin
004. Which of the following antiseizure drugs produces a
voltage-dependent inactivation of sodium channels?
a) Lamotrigine
b) Carbamazepin
c) Phenytoin
d) All of the above
005. Indicate an antiseizure drug, inhibiting central effects
of excitatory amino acids:
a) Ethosuximide
b) Lamotrigine
c) Diazepam
d) Tiagabine
006. The drug for partial and generalized tonic-clonic
seizures is:
a) Carbamazepine
b) Valproate
c) Phenytoin
d) All of the above
007. Indicate an anti-absence drug:
a) Valproate
b) Phenobarbital
c) Carbamazepin
d) Phenytoin
008. The drug against myoclonic seizures is:
a) Primidone
b) Carbamazepine
c) Clonazepam
d) Phenytoin
009. The most effective drug for stopping generalized
tonic-clonic status epilepticus in adults is:
a) Lamotrigine
b) Ethosuximide
c) Diazepam
d) Zonisamide
010. Select the appropriate consideration for phenytoin:
a) It blocks sodium channels
b) It binds to an allosteric regulatory site on the GABA-
BZ receptor and prolongs the openings of the Cl-channels
c) It effects on Ca2+ currents, reducing the low-threshold
(T-type) current
d) It inhibits GABA-transaminase, which catalyzes the
breakdown of GABA
011. Phenytoin is used in the treatment of:
a) Petit mal epilepsy
b) Grand mal epilepsy
c) Myoclonic seizures
d) All of the above
012. Dose-related adverse effect caused by phenytoin is:
a) Physical and psychological dependence
b) Exacerbated grand mal epilepsy
c) Gingival hyperplasia
d) Extrapyramidal symptoms
39
013. Granulocytopenia, gastrointestinal irritation, gingival
hyperplasia, and facial hirsutism are possible adverse
effects of:
a) Phenobarbital
b) Carbamazepin
c) Valproate
d) Phenytoin
014. The antiseizure drug, which induces hepatic
microsomal enzymes, is:
a) Lamotrigine
b) Phenytoin
c) Valproate
d) None of the above
015. The drug of choice for partial seizures is:
a) Carbamazepin
b) Ethosuximide
c) Diazepam
d) Lamotrigine
016. The mechanism of action of carbamazepine appears
to be similar to that of:
a) Benzodiazepines
b) Valproate
c) Phenytoin
d) Ethosuximide
017. Which of the following antiseizure drugs is also
effective in treating trigeminal neuralgia?
a) Primidone
b) Topiramat
c) Carbamazepine
d) Lamotrigine
018. The most common dose-related adverse effects of
carbamazepine are:
a) Diplopia, ataxia, and nausea
b) Gingival hyperplasia, hirsutism
c) Sedation, physical and psychological dependence
d) Hemeralopia, myasthenic syndrome
019. Indicate the drug of choice for status epilepticus in
infants and children:
a) Phenobarbital sodium
b) Clonazepam
c) Ethosuximide
d) Phenytoin
020. Barbiturates are used in the emergency treatment of
status epilepticus in infants and children because of:
a) They significantly decrease of oxygen utilization by
the brain, protecting cerebral edema and ischemia
b) Short onset and duration of action
c) They do not have effect on sleep architecture
d) All of the above
021. Which of the following antiseizure drugs binds to an
allosteric regulatory site on the GABA-BZ receptor,
increases the
duration of the Cl-channels openings:
a) Diazepam
b) Valproate
c) Phenobarbital
d) Topiramate
022. Adverse effect caused by phenobarbital is:
a) Physical and phychological dependence
b) Exacerbated petit mal epilepsy
c) Sedation
d) All of the above
023. Which of the following antiseizure drugs is a
prodrug, metabolized to phenobarbital?
a) Phenytoin
b) Primidone
c) Felbamate
d) Vigabatrin
024. Indicate the antiseizure drug, which is a
phenyltriazine derivative:
a) Phenobarbital
b) Clonazepam
c) Lamotrigine
d) Carbamazepin
40
025. Lamotrigine can be used in the treatment of:
a) Partial seizures
b) Absence
c) Myoclonic seizures
d) All of the above
026. The mechanism of vigabatrin′s action is:
a) Direct action on the GABA receptor-chloride channel
complex
b) Inhibition of GABA aminotransferase
c) NMDA receptor blockade via the glycine binding site
d) Inhibition of GABA neuronal reuptake from synapses
027. Indicate an irreversible inhibitor of GABA
aminotransferase (GABA-T):
a) Diazepam
b) Phenobarbital
c) Vigabatrin
d) Felbamate
028. Tiagabine:
a) Blocks neuronal and glial reuptake of GABA from
synapses
b) Inhibits GABA-T, which catalyzed the breakdown of
GABA
c) Blocks the T-type Ca2+ channels
d) Inhibits glutamate transmission at AMPA/kainate
receptors
029. The mechanism of both topiramate and felbamate
action is:
a) Reduction of excitatory glutamatergic
neurotransmission
b) Inhibition of voltage sensitive Na+ channels
c) Potentiation of GABAergic neuronal transmission
d) All of the above
030. The drug of choice in the treatment of petit mal
(absence seizures) is:
a) Phenytoin
b) Ethosuximide
c) Phenobarbital
d) Carbamazepin
031. The dose-related adverse effect of ethosuximide is:
a) Gastrointestinal reactions, such as anorexia, pain,
nausea and vomiting
b) Exacerbated grand mal epilepsy
c) Transient lethargy or fatigue
d) All of the above
032. Valproate is very effective against:
a) Absence seizures
b) Myoclonic seizures
c) Generalized tonic-clonic seizures
d) All of the above
033. The drug of choice in the treatment of myoclonic
seizures is:
a) Valproate
b) Phenobarbital
c) Phenytoin
d) Felbamate
034. The reason for preferring ethosuximide to valproate
for uncomplicated absence seizures is:
a) More effective
b) Valproate′s idiosyncratic hepatotoxicity
c) Greater CNS depressant activity
d) All of the above
035. The mechanism of valproate action is:
a) Facilitation glutamic acid decarboxylase, the enzyme
responsible for GABA synthesis and inhibition of
GABAaminotransferase,
the enzyme responsible for the breakdown of GABA
(enhance GABA accumulation)
b) Inhibition of voltage sensitive Na+ channels
c) Inhibition of low threshold (T-type) Ca2+ channels
d) All of the above
036. Indicate the antiseizure drug, which is a sulfonamide
derivative, blocking Na+ channels and having additional
ability to
inhibit T-type Ca2+ channels:
a) Tiagabine
b) Zonisamide
c) Ethosuximide
41
d) Primidone
037. Indicate the antiseizure drug – a benzodiazepine
receptor agonist:
a) Phenobarbital
b) Phenytoin
c) Carbamazepine
d) Lorazepam
038. Which of the following antiseizure drugs acts
directly on the GABA receptor-chloride channel
complex?
a) Vigabatrin
b) Diazepam
c) Gabapentin
d) Valproate
039. Benzodiazepine΄s uselfulness is limited by:
a) Tolerance
b) Atropine-like symptoms
c) Psychotic episodes
d) Myasthenic syndrome
040. A long-acting drug against both absence and
myoclonic seizures is:
a) Primidone
b) Carbamazepine
c) Clonazepam
d) Phenytoin
041. Which of the following antiseizure drugs may
produce teratogenicity?
a) Phenytoin
b) Valproate
c) Topiramate
d) All of the above
042. The most dangerous effect of antiseizure drugs after
large overdoses is:
a) Respiratory depression
b) Gastrointestinal irritation
c) Alopecia
d) Sedation
PART III Antiparkinsonian agents
001. Which neurons are involved in parkinsonism?
a) Cholinergic neurons
b) GABAergic neurons
c) Dopaminergic neurons
d) All of the above
002. The pathophysiologic basis for antiparkinsonism
therapy is:
a) A selective loss of dopaminergic neurons
b) The loss of some cholinergic neurons
c) The loss of the GABAergic cells
d) The loss of glutamatergic neurons
003. Which of the following neurotransmitters is involved
in Parkinson′s disease?
a) Acetylcholine
b) Glutamate
c) Dopamine
d) All of the above
004. The concentration of dopamine in the basal ganglia
of the brain is reduced in parkinsonism.
a) True
b) False
005. Principal aim for treatment of Parkinsonian disorders
is:
a) To restore the normal balance of cholinergic and
dopaminergic influences on the basal ganglia with
antimuscarinic
drugs
b) To restore dopaminergic activity with levodopa and
dopamine agonists
c) To decrease glutamatergic activity with glutamate
antagonists
d) All of the above
006. Indicate the drug that induces parkinsonian
syndromes:
a) Chlorpromazine
b) Diazepam
42
c) Triazolam
d) Carbamazepine
007. Which of the following drugs is used in the treatment
of Parkinsonian disorders?
a) Phenytoin
b) Selegiline
c) Haloperidol
d) Fluoxetine
008. Select the agent, which is preferred in the treatment
of the drug-induced form of parkinsonism:
a) Levodopa
b) Bromocriptine
c) Benztropine
d) Dopamine
009. Which of the following agents is the precursor of
dopamine?
a) Bromocriptine
b) Levodopa
c) Selegiline
d) Amantadine
010. The main reason for giving levodopa, the precursor
of dopamine, instead of dopamine is:
a) Dopamine does not cross the blood-brain barrier
b) Dopamine may induce acute psychotic reactions
c) Dopamine is intensively metabolized in humans
d) All of the above
011. Indicate a peripheral dopa decarboxylase inhibitor:
a) Tolcapone
b) Clozapine
c) Carbidopa
d) Selegiline
012. The mechanism of carbidopa′s action is:
a) Stimulating the synthesis, release, or reuptake of
dopamine
b) Inhibition of dopa decarboxilase
c) Stimulating dopamine receptors
d) Selective inhibition of catecol-O-methyltransferase
013. Carbidopa is unable to penetrate the blood-brain
barrier, it acts to reduce the peripheral conversion of
levodopa to
dopamine.
a) True
b) False
014. When carbidopa and levodopa are given
concomitantly:
a) Levodopa blood levels are increased, and drug half-life
is lengthened
b) The dose of levodopa can be significantly reduced (by
75%), also reducing toxic side effects
c) A shorter latency period precedes the occurrence of
beneficial effects
d) All of the above
015. Which of the following preparations combines
carbidopa and levodopa in a fixed proportion?
a) Selegiline
b) Sinemet
c) Tolkapone
d) Biperiden
016. Which of the following statements is correct for
levodopa?
a) Tolerance to both beneficial and adverse effects
develops gradually
b) Levodopa is most effective in the first 2-5 years of
treatment
c) After 5 years of therapy, patients have dose-related
dyskinesias, inadequate response or toxicity
d) All of the above
017. Gastrointestinal irritation, cardiovascular effects,
including tachycardia, arrhythmias, and orthostatic
hypotension, mental
disturbances, and withdrawal are possible adverse effects
of:
a) Amantadine
b) Benztropine
c) Levodopa
d) Selegiline
018. Which of the following agents is the most helpful in
counteracting the behavioral complications of levodopa?
a) Tolkapone
b) Clozapine
c) Carbidopa
43
d) Pergolide
019. Which of the following vitamins reduces the
beneficial effects of levodopa by enhancing its
extracerebral metabolism?
a) Pyridoxine
b) Thiamine
c) Tocopherol
d) Riboflavin
020. Which of the following drugs antagonizes the effects
of levodopa because it leads to a junctional blockade of
dopamine
action?
a) Reserpine
b) Haloperidol
c) Chlorpromazine
d) All of the above
021. Levodopa should not be given to patients taking:
a) Bromocriptine
b) Monoamine oxydase A inhibitors
c) Carbidopa
d) Nonselective beta-adrenergic antagonists
022. Indicate D2 receptor agonist with antiparkinsonian
activity:
a) Sinemet
b) Levodopa
c) Bromocriptine
d) Selegiline
023. Which of the following antiparkinsonian drugs has
also been used to treat hyperprolactinemia?
a) Benztropine
b) Bromocriptine
c) Amantadine
d) Levodopa
024. Indicate a selective inhibitor of monoamine oxidase
B:
a) Levodopa
b) Amantadine
c) Tolcapone
d) Selegiline
025. Which of the following statements is correct?
a) MAO-A metabolizes dopamine; MAO-B metabolizes
serotonin
b) MAO-A metabolizes norepinephrine and dopamine;
MAO-B metabolizes serotonin
c) MAO-A metabolizes norepinephrine and serotonin;
MAO-B metabolizes dopamine
d) MAO-A metabolizes dopamine; MAO-B metabolizes
norepinephrine and serotonin
026. Treatment with selegilin postpones the need for
levodopa for 3-9 months and may retard the progression
of Parkinson′s
disease.
a) True
b) False
027. The main reason for avoiding the combined
administration of levodopa and an inhibitor of both forms
of monoamine
oxidase is:
a) Respiratory depression
b) Hypertensive emergency
c) Acute psychotic reactions
d) Cardiovascular collapse and CNS depression
028. Indicate selective catechol-O-methyltransferase
inhibitor, which prolongs the action of levodopa by
diminishing its
peripheral metabolism:
a) Carbidopa
b) Clozapine
c) Tolcapone
d) Rasagiline
029. Which of the following antiparkinsonian drugs is an
antiviral agent used in the prophylaxis of influenza A2?
a) Selegiline
b) Sinemet
c) Pergolide
d) Amantadine
030. The mechanism of amantadine action is:
a) Stimulating the glutamatergic neurotransmission
b) Blocking the excitatory cholinergic system
44
c) Inhibition of dopa decarboxilase
d) Selective inhibition of catechol-O-methyltransferase
031. Which of the following antiparkinsonism drugs is an
anticholinergic agent?
a) Amantadine
b) Selegilin
c) Trihexyphenidyl
d) Bromocriptine
032. Mental confusion and hallucinations, peripheral
atropine-like toxicity (e.g. Cycloplegia, tachycardia,
urinary retention, and
constipation) are possible adverse effects of:
a) Sinemet
b) Benztropine
c) Tolkapone
d) Bromocriptine
033. Indicate the antiparkinsonism drug which should be
avoided in patients with glaucoma:
a) Selegilin
b) Levodopa
c) Bromocriptine
d) Trihexyphenidyl
PART IV Ethyl alcohol
001. Alcohol may cause:
a) CNS depression
b) Vasodilatation
c) Hypoglycemia
d) All of the above
002. Alcohol:
a) Increases body temperature
b) Decreases body heat loss
c) Increases body heat loss
d) Does not affect body temperature
003. It is undesirable to take alcohol before going
outdoors when it extremely cold, but it may be harmless
to take some after
coming into a warm place from the cold.
a) True
b) False
004. The most common medical complication of alcohol
abuse is:
a) Liver failure including liver cirrhosis
b) Tolerance and physical dependence
c) Generalized symmetric peripheral nerve injury, ataxia
and dementia
d) All of the above
005. Effect of moderate consumption of alcohol on
plasma lipoproteins is:
a) Raising serum levels of high-density lipoproteins
b) Increasing serum concentration of low-density
lipoproteins
c) Decreasing the concentration of high-density
lipoproteins
d) Raising serum levels of very low-density lipoproteins
006. Which of the following metabolic alterations may be
associated with chronic alcohol abuse?
a) Hyperglycemia
b) Increased serum concentration of phosphate
c) Severe loss of potassium and magnesium
d) Decreased serum concentration of sodium
007. Alcohol potentiates:
a) SNS depressants
b) Vasodilatators
c) Hypoglycemic agents
d) All of the above
008. Which of the following drugs is most commonly
used for causing a noxious reaction to alcohol by blocking
its
metabolism?
a) Naltrexone
b) Disulfiram
c) Diazepam
d) Morphine
45
009. Which of the following agents is an inhibitor of
aldehyde dehydrogenase?
a) Fomepizole
b) Ethanol
c) Disulfiram
d) Naltrexone
010. Indicate the drug, which alters brain responses to
alcohol:
a) Naltrexone
b) Disulfiram
c) Amphetamine
d) Chlorpromazine
011. Which of the following agents is an opioid
antagonist?
a) Amphetamine
b) Naltrexone
c) Morphine
d) Disulfiram
012. Alcohol causes an acute increase in the local
concentrations of:
a) Dopamine
b) Opioid
c) Serotonine
d) All of the above
013. Management of alcohol withdrawal syndrome
contains:
a) Restoration of potassium, magnesium and phosphate
balance
b) Thiamine therapy
c) Substituting a long-acting sedative-hypnotic drug for
alcohol
d) All of the above
014. Indicate the drug, which decreases the craving for
alcohol or blunts pleasurable “high” that comes with
renewed drinking:
a) Disulfiram
b) Amphetamine
c) Naltrexone
d) Diazepam
015. The symptoms resulting from the combination of
disulfiram and alcohol are:
a) Hypertensive crisis leading to cerebral ischemia and
edema
b) Nausea, vomiting
c) Respiratory depression and seizures
d) Acute psychotic reactions
016. The combination of disulfiram and ethanol leads to
accumulation of:
a) Formaldehyde
b) Acetate
c) Formic acid
d) Acetaldehyde
017. The combination of naltrexone and disulfiram should
be avoided since both drugs are potential hepatotoxins.
a) True
b) False
018. Indicate the “specific” modality of treatment for
severe methanol poisoning:
a) Dialysis to enhance removal of methanol
b) Alkalinization to counteract metabolic acidosis
c) Suppression of metabolism by alcohol dehydrogenase
to toxic products
d) All of the above
019. Which of the following agents may be used as an
antidote for ethylene glycol and methanol poisoning?
a) Disulfiram
b) Fomepizol
c) Naltrexone
d) Amphetamine
020. The principal mechanism of fomepizol action is
associated with inhibition of:
a) Aldehyde dehydrogenase
b) Acethylholinesterase
c) Alcohol dehydrogenase
d) Monoamine oxidase
46
PART V Narcotic analgesics
001. Narcotics analgesics should:
a) Relieve severe pain
b) Induce loss of sensation
c) Reduce anxiety and exert a calming effect
d) Induce a stupor or somnolent state
002. Second-order pain is:
a) Sharp, well-localized pain
b) Dull, burning pain
c) Associated with fine myelinated A-delta fibers
d) Effectively reduced by non-narcotic analgesics
003. Chemical mediators in the nociceptive pathway are
all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Enkephalins
b) Kinins
c) Prostaglandins
d) Substance P
004. Indicate the chemical mediator in the antinociceptive
descending pathways:
a) BETA-endorphin
b) Met- and leu-enkephalin
c) Dynorphin
d) All of the above
005. 5. Which of the following mediators is found mainly
in long descending pathways from the midbrain to the
dorsal horn?
a) Prostaglandin E
b) Dynorphin
c) Enkephalin
d) Glutamate
006. Select the brain and spinal cord regions, which are
involved in the transmission of pain?
a) The limbic system, including the amygdaloidal nucleus
and the hypothalamus
b) The ventral and medial parts of the thalamus
c) The substantia gelatinosa
d) All of the above
007. Mu (μ) receptors are associated with:
a) Analgesia, euphoria, respiratory depression,
physical dependence
b) Spinal analgesia, mydriasis, sedation, physical
dependence
c) Dysphoria, hallucinations, respiratory and vasomotor
stimulation
d) Analgesia, euphoria, respiratory stimulation, physical
dependence
008. Which of the following opioid receptor types is
responsible for euphoria and respiratory depression?
a) Kappa-receptors
b) Delta-receptors
c) Mu-receptors
d) All of the above
009. Indicate the opioid receptor type, which is
responsible for dysphoria and vasomotor stimulation:
a) Kappa-receptors
b) Delta-receptors
c) Mu-receptors
d) All of the above
010. Kappa and delta agonists:
a) Inhibit postsynaptic neurons by opening K+ channels
b) Close a voltage-gated Ca2+ channels on presynaptic
nerve terminals
c) Both a and b
d) Inhibit of arachidonate cyclooxygenase in CNS
011. Which of the following supraspinal structures is
implicated in pain-modulating descending pathways?
a) The midbrain periaqueductal gray
b) The hypothalamus
c) The aria postrema
d) The limbic cortex
012. Indicate the neurons, which are located in the locus
ceruleus or the lateral tegmental area of the reticular
formation:
a) Dopaminergic
b) Serotoninergic
c) Nonadrenergic
d) Gabaergic
47
013. Which of the following analgesics is a phenanthrene
derivative?
a) Fentanyl
b) Morphine
c) Methadone
d) Pentazocine
014. Tick narcotic analgesic, which is a phenylpiperidine
derivative:
a) Codeine
b) Dezocine
c) Fentanyl
d) Buprenorphine
015. Which of the following opioid analgesics is a strong
mu receptor agonist?
a) Naloxone
b) Morphine
c) Pentazocine
d) Buprenorphine
016. Indicate the narcotic analgesic, which is a natural
agonist:
a) Meperidine
b) Fentanyl
c) Morphine
d) Naloxone
017. Select the narcotic analgesic, which is an antagonist
or partial mu receptor agonist:
a) Fentanyl
b) Pentazocine
c) Codeine
d) Methadone
018. Which of the following agents is a full antagonist of
opioid receptors?
a) Meperidine
b) Buprenorphine
c) Naloxone
d) Butorphanol
019. The principal central nervous system effect of the
opioid analgesics with affinity for a mu receptor is:
a) Analgesia
b) Respiratory depression
c) Euphoria
d) All of the above
020. Which of the following opioid analgesics can
produce dysphoria, anxiety and hallucinations?
a) Morphine
b) Fentanyl
c) Pentazocine
d) Methadone
021. Indicate the opioid analgesic, which has 80 times
analgesic potency and respiratory depressant properties of
morphine,
and is more effective than morphine in maintaining
hemodynamic stability?
a) Fentanyl
b) Pentazocine
c) Meperidine
d) Nalmefene
022. Which of the following opioid analgesics is used in
combination with droperidol in neuroleptanalgesia?
a) Morphine
b) Buprenorphine
c) Fentanyl
d) Morphine
023. Fentanyl can produce significant respiratory
depression by:
a) Inhibiting brain stem respiratory mechanisms
b) Suppression of the cough reflex leading to airway
obstruction
c) Development of truncal rigidity
d) Both a and c
024. Most strong mu receptor agonists cause:
a) Hypertension
b) Increasing the pulmonary arterial pressure and
myocardial work
c) Cerebral vasodilatation, causing an increase in
intracranial pressure
d) All of the above
48
025. Which of the following opioid analgesics can
produce an increase in the pulmonary arterial pressure and
myocardial
work?
a) Morphine
b) Pentazocine
c) Meperidine
d) Methadone
026. Morphine causes the following effects EXCEPT:
a) Constipation
b) Dilatation of the biliary duct
c) Urinary retention
d) Bronchiolar constriction
027. Therapeutic doses of the opioid analgesics:
a) Decrease body temperature
b) Increase body temperature
c) Decrease body heat loss
d) Do not affect body temperature
028. Which of the following opioid analgesics is used in
obstetric labor?
a) Fentanyl
b) Pentazocine
c) Meperidine
d) Buprenorphine
029. Indicate the opioid analgesic, which is used for
relieving the acute, severe pain of renal colic:
a) Morphine
b) Naloxone
c) Methadone
d) Meperidine
030. Which of the following opioid analgesics is used in
the treatment of acute pulmonary edema?
a) Morphine
b) Codeine
c) Fentanyl
d) Loperamide
031. The relief produced by intravenous morphine in
dyspnea from pulmonary edema is associated with
reduced:
a) Perception of shortness of breath
b) Patient anxiety
c) Cardiac preload (reduced venous tone) and afterload
(decreased peripheral resistance)
d) All of the above
032. Rhinorrhea, lacrimation, chills, gooseflesh,
hyperventilation, hyperthermia, mydriasis, muscular
aches, vomiting,
diarrhea, anxiety, and hostility are effects of:
a) Tolerance
b) Opioid overdosage
c) Drug interactions between opioid analgesics and
sedative-hypnotics
d) Abstinence syndrome
033. The diagnostic triad of opioid overdosage is:
a) Mydriasis, coma and hyperventilation
b) Coma, depressed respiration and miosis
c) Mydriasis, chills and abdominal cramps
d) Miosis, tremor and vomiting
034. Which of the following opioid agents is used in the
treatment of acute opioid overdose?
a) Pentazocine
b) Methadone
c) Naloxone
d) Remifentanyl
035. Indicate the pure opioid antagonist, which has a half-
life of 10 hours:
a) Naloxone
b) Naltrexone
c) Tramadol
d) Pentazocine
036. In contrast to morphine, methadone:
a) Causes tolerance and physical dependence more slowly
b) Is more effective orally
c) Withdrawal is less severe, although more prolonged
49
d) All of the above
037. Which of the following opioid analgesics is a partial
mu receptor agonist?
a) Morphine
b) Methadone
c) Buprenorphine
d) Sufentanyl
038. Indicate a partial mu receptor agonist, which has 20-
60 times analgesic potency of morphine, and a longer
duration of
action:
a) Pentazocine
b) Buprenorphine
c) Nalbuphine
d) Naltrexone
039. Which of the following opioid analgesics is a strong
kappa receptor agonist and a mu receptor antagonist?
a) Naltrexone
b) Methadone
c) Nalbuphine
d) Buprenorphine
040. Which of the following drugs has weak mu agonist
effects and inhibitory action on norepinephrine and
serotonin reuptake
in the CNS?
a) Loperamide
b) Tramadol
c) Fluoxetine
d) Butorphanol
PART VI Non-narcotic analgesics
001. Non-narcotic analgesics are mainly effective against
pain associated with:
a) Inflammation or tissue damage
b) Trauma
c) Myocardial infarction
d) Surgery
002. Non-narcotic agents cause:
a) Respiratory depression
b) Antipyretic effect
c) Euphoria
d) Physical dependence
003. Non-narcotic analgesics are all of the following
drugs EXCEPT:
a) Paracetamol
b) Acetylsalicylic acid
c) Butorphanol
d) Ketorolac
004. Select the non-narcotic drug, which is a
paraaminophenol derivative:
a) Analgin
b) Aspirin
c) Baclophen
d) Paracetamol
005. Which of the following non-narcotic agents is
salicylic acid derivative?
a) Phenylbutazone
b) Ketamine
c) Aspirin
d) Tramadol
006. Tick pirazolone derivative:
a) Methylsalicylate
b) Analgin
c) Paracetamol
d) Ketoralac
007. Which one of the following non-narcotic agents
inhibits mainly cyclooxygenase (COX) in CNS?
a) Paracetamol
b) Ketorolac
c) Acetylsalicylic acid
d) Ibuprofen
50
008. Most of non-narcotic analgetics have:
a) Anti-inflammatory effect
b) Analgesic effect
c) Antipyretic effect
d) All of the above
009. Indicate the non-narcotic analgesic, which lacks an
anti-inflammatory effect:
a) Naloxone
b) Paracetamol
c) Metamizole
d) Aspirin
010. Correct statements concerning aspirin include all of
the following EXCEPT:
a) It inhibits mainly peripheral COX
b) It does not have an anti-inflammatory effect
c) It inhibits platelet aggregation
d) It stimulates respiration by a direct action on the
respiratory center
011. For which of the following conditions could aspirin
be used prophylactically?
a) Noncardiogenic pulmonary edema
b) Peptic ulcers
c) Thromboembolism
d) Metabolic acidosis
012. All of the following are undesirable effects of aspirin
EXCEPT:
a) Gastritis with focal erosions
b) Tolerance and physical addiction
c) Bleeding due to a decrease of platelet aggregation
d) Reversible renal insufficiency
013. Characteristic findinds of salicylism include:
a) Headache, mental confusion and drowsiness
b) Tinnitus and difficulty in hearing
c) Hyperthermia, sweating, thirst, hyperventilation,
vomiting and diarrhea
d) All of the above
014. Analgin usefulness is limited by:
a) Agranulocytosis
b) Erosions and gastric bleeding
c) Methemoglobinemia
d) Hearing impairment
015. Methemoglobinemia is possible adverse effect of:
a) Aspirin
b) Paracetamol
c) Analgin
d) Ketorolac
016. Correct the statements concerning ketorolac include
all of the following EXCEPT:
a) It inhibits COX
b) It is as effective as morphine for a short-term relief
from moderate to severe pain
c) It has a high potential for physical dependence and
abuse
d) It does not produce respiratory depression
017. Indicate the nonopioid agent of central effect with
analgesic activity:
a) Reserpine
b) Propranolol
c) Clopheline
d) Prazosin
018. Select the antiseizure drug with an analgesic
component of effect:
a) Carbamazepine
b) Ethosuximide
c) Phenytoin
d) Clonazepam
019. Which of the following nonopioid agents is an
antidepressant with analgesic activity?
a) Fluoxetine
b) Moclobemide
c) Tranylcypramine
d) Amitriptyline
020. Tick mixed (opioid/non-opioid) agent:
51
a) Paracetamol
b) Tramadol
c) Sodium valproate
d) Butorphanol
PART VII Antipsychotic agents
001. Neuroleptics are used to treat:
a) Neurosis
b) Psychosis
c) Narcolepsy
d) Parkinsonian disorders
002. Most antipsychotic drugs:
a) Strongly block postsynaptic d2receptor
b) Stimulate postsynaptic D2 receptor
c) Block NMDA receptor
d) Stimulate 5-HT2 receptor
003. Which of the following dopaminergic systems is
most closely related to behavior?
a) The hypothalamic-pituitary system
b) The extrapyramidal system
c) The mesolimbic and mesofrontal systems
d) The chemoreceptor trigger zone of the medulla
004. Hyperprolactinemia is caused by blockade of
dopamine in:
a) The chemoreceptor trigger zone of the medulla
b) The pituitary
c) The extrapiramidal system
d) The mesolimbic and mesofrontal systems
005. Parkinsonian symptoms and tarditive dyskinesia are
caused by blockade dopamine in:
a) The nigrostriatal system
b) The mesolimbic and mesofrontal systems
c) The chemoreceptor trigger zone of the medulla
d) The tuberoinfundibular system
006. Extrapyramidal reactions can be treated by:
a) Levodopa
b) Benztropine mesylate
c) Bromocriptine
d) Dopamine
007. Which of the following statements is true?
a) D1 postsynaptic receptors are located in striatum
b) D2 pre- and postsynaptic receptors are located in
striatum and limbic areas
c) D4 postsynaptic receptors are located in frontal cortex,
mesolimbic system
d) All of the above
008. Which of the following antipsychotic drugs is
typical?
a) Clozapine
b) Quetiapine
c) Haloperidol
d) Olanzapine
009. Indicate the atypical antipsychotic drug:
a) Haloperidol
b) Clozapine
c) Thioridazine
d) Thiothixene
010. Atypical antipsychotic agents (such as clozapine)
differ from typical ones:
a) In reduced risks of extrapyramidal system dysfunction
and tardive dyscinesia
b) In having low affinity for D1 and D2 dopamine
receptors
c) In having high affinity for D4 dopamine receptors
d) All of the above
011. Tardive dyskinesia is the result of:
a) Degeneration of dopaminergic and cholinergic fibers
b) Hyperactive dopaminergic state in the presence of
dopamine blockers
c) Degeneration of histaminergic fibers
d) Supersensitivity of cholinergic receptors in the
caudate-putamen
52
012. Which of the following antipsychotic drugs has high
affinity for D4 and 5-HT2 receptors?
a) Clozapine
b) Fluphenazine
c) Thioridazine
d) Haloperidole
013. Indicate the antipsychotic drug, which is a
phenothiazine aliphatic derivative:
a) Thiothixene
b) Risperidone
c) Chlorpromazine
d) Clozapine
014. Indicate the antipsychotic drug, which is a
butyrophenone derivative:
a) Droperidol
b) Thioridazine
c) Sertindole
d) Fluphenazine
015. Indicate the antipsychotic drug, which is a
thioxanthene derivative:
a) Haloperidol
b) Clozapine
c) Chlorpromazine
d) Thiothixene
016. Indicate the antipsychotic agent – a dibenzodiazepine
derivative:
a) Fluphenazine
b) Clozapine
c) Risperidone
d) Droperidol
017. The strong antiemetic effect of the phenothiazine
derivatives is due to dopamine receptor blockade:
a) In the chemoreceptor trigger zone of the medulla
b) Of the receptors in the stomach
c) The medullar vomiting centre
d) All of the above
018. Phenothiazine derivatives are able to:
a) Alter temperature-regulating mechanisms
producing hypothermia
b) Decrease levels of prolactin
c) Increase corticotrophin release and secretion of
pituitary growth hormone
d) Decrease appetite and weight
019. Most phenothiazine derivatives have:
a) Antihistaminic activity
b) Anticholinergic activity
c) Antidopaminergic activity
d) All of the above
020. Indicate the antipsychotic drug having significant
peripheral alpha-adrenergic blocking activity:
a) Haloperidol
b) Chlorpromazine
c) Clozapine
d) Risperidone
021. Indicate the antipsychotic drug having a muscarinic-
cholinergic blocking activity:
a) Chlorpromazine
b) Clorprothixene
c) Risperidone
d) Haloperidol
022. Indicate the antipsychotic drug having H1-
antihistaminic activity:
a) Clozapine
b) Chlorpromazine
c) Olanzapine
d) All of the above
023. Parkinson′s syndrome, acute dystonic reactions,
tardive dyskinesia, antimuscarinic actions, orthostatic
hypotension,
galactorrhea are possible adverse effects of:
a) Haloperidol
b) Clozapine
c) Chlorpromazine
d) Risperidone
53
024. Orthostatic hypotension can occur as a result of:
a) The central action of phenothiazines
b) Inhibition of norepinephrine uptake mechanisms
c) Alpha adrenoreceptor blockade
d) All of the above
025. Adverse peripheral effects, such as loss of
accommodation, dry mouth, tachycardia, urinary
retention, constipation are
related to:
a) Alpha adrenoreceptor blockade
b) Muscarinic cholinoreceptor blockade
c) Supersesitivity of the dopamine receptor
d) Dopamine receptor blockade
026. Which of the following phenothiazine derivatives is
a potent local anesthetic?
a) Fluphenazine
b) Thioridazine
c) Chlorpromazine
d) None of the above
027. Which of the following phenothiazine derivatives
may produce cardiac toxicity, including ventricular
arrhythmias, cardiac
conduction block, and sudden death?
a) Thioridazine
b) Chlorpromazine
c) Perphenazine
d) Fluphenazine
028. Which of the following antipsychotic agents is
preferable in patients with coronary and cerebrovascular
disease?
a) Chlorpromazine
b) Fluphenazine
c) Haloperidol
d) Perphenazine
029. Which of the following antipsychotic agents is used
in combination with an opioid drug fentanyl in
neuroleptanalgesia?
a) Haloperidol
b) Droperidol
c) Chlorpromazine
d) Clozapine
030. The mechanism of haloperidol antipsychotic action
is:
a) Blocking D2 receptors
b) Central alpha-adrenergic blocking
c) Inhibition of norepinephrine uptake mechanisms
d) All of the above
031. Which of the following statements is correct for
clozapine?
a) Has potent anticholinergic activity
b) Has high affinity for D1 and D2 dopamine receptors
c) Produces significant extrapyramidal toxicity
d) Is related to typical antipsychotic agents
032. Which of the following antipsychotic drugs has the
high risk of potentially fatal agranulocytosis and risk of
seizures at
high doses?
a) Haloperidol
b) Risperidone
c) Clozapine
d) Chlorpromazine
033. Which of the following antipsychotic drugs has high
affinity for D2 and 5-HT2 receptors?
a) Droperidol
b) Clozapine
c) Thiothixene
d) Risperidone
034. Lithium carbonate is useful in the treatment of:
a) Petit mal seizures
b) Bipolar disorder
c) Neurosis
d) Trigeminal neuralgia
035. The drug of choice for manic-depressive psychosis
is:
a) Imipramine
b) Chlordiazepoxide
54
c) Isocarboxazid
d) Lithium carbonate
036. The lithium mode of action is:
a) Effect on electrolytes and ion transport
b) Effect on neurotransmitters
c) Effect on second messengers
d) All of the above
037. Which of the following statements is correct for
lithium?
a) Stimulate dopamine and beta-adrenergic receptors
b) Decrease catecholamine-related activity
c) Stimulate the development of dopamine receptor
supersensitivity
d) Decrease cholinergic activity
038. Which of the following adverse effects is associated
with lithium treatment?
a) Cardiovascular anomalies in the newborn
b) Thyroid enlargement
c) Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
d) All of the above
PART VIII Antidepressant agents
001. The principal mechanism of action of antidepressant
agents is:
a) Stabilization of dopamine and beta-adrenergic
receptors
b) Inhibition of the storage of serotonin and epinephrine
in the vesicles of presynaptic nerve endings
c) Blocking epinephrine or serotonin reuptake pumps
d) Stimulation of alfa2-norepinephrine receptors
002. Which of the following agents is related to tricyclic
antidepressants?
a) Nefazodon
b) Amitriptyline
c) Fluoxetine
d) Isocarboxazid
003. Indicate the second-generation heterocyclic drug:
a) Maprotiline
b) Imipramine
c) Phenelzine
d) Fluoxetine
004. Which of the following agents is related to the third-
generation heterocyclic antidepressants?
a) Amitriptyline
b) Maprotiline
c) Nefazodone
d) Tranylcypromine
005. Which of the following antidepressants is a selective
serotonin reuptake inhibitor?
a) Phenelzine
b) Desipramine
c) Maprotiline
d) Fluoxetine
006. Which of the following antidepressant agents is a
selective inhibitor of norepinephrine reuptake?
a) Fluvoxamine
b) Maprotiline
c) Amitriptyline
d) Tranylcypromine
007. Indicate the antidepressant, which blocks the
reuptake pumps for serotonin and norepinephrine:
a) Amitriptyline
b) Fluoxetine
c) Maprotiline
d) Phenelzine
008. Which of the following antidepressants is an
unselective MAO blocker and produces extremely long-
lasting inhibition of
the enzyme?
a) Moclobemide
b) Tranylcypramine
c) Selegiline
d) Fluoxetine
55
009. Indicate the irreversible MAO inhibitor, which is a
hydrazide derivative:
a) Moclobemide
b) Selegiline
c) Tranylcypramine
d) Phenelzine
010. Which of the following MAO inhibitors has
amphetamine-like activity and is related to nonhydrazide
derivatives:
a) Phenelzine
b) Moclobemide
c) Tranylcypramine
d) All of the above
011. Which of the following antidepressants is a selective
short-acting MAO-A inhibitor?
a) Maprotiline
b) Amitriptyline
c) Moclobemide
d) Selegiline
012. Monoamine Oxydase A:
a) Is responsible for norepinephrine, serotonin, and
tyramine metabolism
b) Is more selective for dopamine
c) Metabolizes norepinephrine and dopamine
d) Deaminates dopamine and serotonin
013. Which synapses are involved in depression?
a) Dopaminergic synapses
b) Serotoninergic synapses
c) Cholinergic synapses
d) All of the above
014. Block of which type of Monoamine Oxydase might
be more selective for depression?
a) MAO-A
b) MAO-B
c) Both MAO-A and MAO-B
d) MAO-C
015. The principal mechanism of MAO inhibitor action
is:
a) Blocking the amine reuptake pumps, which permits to
increase the concentration of the neurotransmitter at the
receptor site
b) Blocking a major degradative pathway for the
amine neurotransmitters, which permits more amines
to
accumulate in presynaptic stores
c) Inhibition the storage of amine neurotransmitters in the
vesicles of presynaptic nerve endings
d) Antagonism of alfa2-norepinephrine receptors
016. The irreversible MAO inhibitors have a very high
risk of developing:
a) Respiratory depression
b) Cardiovascular collapse and CNS depression
c) Hypertensive reactions to tyramine ingested in food
d) Potentially fatal agranulocytosis
017. The most dangerous pharmacodynamic interaction is
between MAO inhibitors and:
a) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
b) Tricyclics
c) Sympathomimetics
d) All of the above
018. Serotonin syndrome is a result of:
a) Increased stores of monoamine
b) Significant accumulation of amine neurotransmitters in
the synapses
c) Both a and b
d) Depleted stores of biogenic amines
019. The therapeutic response to antidepressant drugs is
usually over a period of:
a) 2-3 days
b) 2-3 weeks
c) 24 hours
d) 2-3 month
020. Which of the following antidepressants may have
latency period as short as 48 hours?
a) Tranylcypromine
b) Imipramine
c) Fluoxetine
56
d) Amitrityline
021. Which of the following features do MAO inhibitors
and tricyclic antidepressants have in common?
a) Act postsynaptically to produce their effect
b) Can precipitate hypotensive crises if certain foods are
ingested
c) Increase levels of biogenic amines
d) Are useful for the manic phase of bipolar disorder
022. Tricyclic antidepressants are:
a) Highly selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
b) Monoamine oxidase inhibitors
c) Selective norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors
d) Mixed norepinephrine and serotonin reuptake
inhibitors
023. Which of the following autonomic nervous system
effects is common for tricyclic antidepressants?
a) Antimuscarinic action
b) Antihistaminic action
c) Alfa adrenoreceptor-blocking action
d) All of the above
024. Indicate an effective antidepressant with minimal
autonomic toxicity:
a) Amitrityline
b) Fluoxetine
c) Imipramine
d) Doxepin
025. Fluoxetine has fewer adverse effects because of:
a) Mixed norepinephrine and serotonin reuptake
inhibition
b) Depleted stores of amine neurotransmitters
c) Minimal binding to cholinergic, histaminic, and
alfa-adrenergic receptors
d) All of the above
026. Which of the following tricyclic and heterocyclic
antidepressants has the greatest sedation?
a) Doxepin
b) Amitriptyline
c) Trazodone
d) All of the above
027. Which of the following tricyclic and heterocyclic
agents has the least sedation?
a) Protriptyline
b) Trazodone
c) Amitriptyline
d) Mitrazapine
028. Indicate a tricyclic or a heterocyclic antidepressant
having greatest antimuscarinic effects:
a) Desipramine
b) Amitriptyline
c) Trazodone
d) Mirtazapine
029. Indicate a tricyclic or a heterocyclic antidepressant
having least antimuscarinic effects:
a) Trazodone
b) Buprorion
c) Mirtazapine
d) All of the above
030. Which of the following antidepressants has
significant alfa2-adrenoreceptor antagonism?
a) Amitriptyline
b) Nefazodone
c) Mirtazapine
d) Doxepin
031. Indicate the main claim for an ideal antidepressant
agent:
a) A faster onset of action
b) Fewer adverse sedative and autonomic effects
c) Fewer toxicity when overdoses are taken
d) All of the above
032. Sedation, peripheral atropine-like toxicity (e.g.
Cycloplegia, tachycardia, urinary retention, and
constipation), orthostatic
hypotension, arrhythmias, weight gain and sexual
disturbances are possible adverse effects of:
a) Sertaline
b) Amitriptyline
c) Phenelsine
57
d) Bupropion
033. Which of the following drugs is least likely to be
prescribed to patients with prostatic hypertrophy,
glaucoma, coronary
and cerebrovascular disease?
a) Amitriptyline
b) Paroxetine
c) Bupropion
d) Fluoxetine
034. Indicate the antidepressant agent, which is a
phenyltolylpropylamine derivative:
a) Paroxetine
b) Maprotiline
c) Fluoxetine
d) Amitriptyline
035. The mechanism of fluoxetine action includes:
a) Selective inhibition of serotonine uptake in the CNS
b) Little effect on central norepinephrine or dopamine
function
c) Minimal binding to cholinergic, histaminic, and alfa-
adrenergic receptors
d) All of the above
036. Which of the following antidepressants is used for
treatment of eating disorders, especially buliemia?
a) Amitriptyline
b) Fluoxetine
c) Imipramine
d) Tranylcypromine
037. Sertaline and paroxetine are similar to fluoxetine in
the mechanism of action and therapeutic use, sertaline is
less likely
to interact adversely with other drugs.
a) True
b) False
038. A highly selective serotonine reuptake inhibitor is:
a) Sertaline
b) Paroxetine
c) Fluoxetine
d) All of the above
PART IX Anxiolytic agents
001. Anxiolytics are used to treat:
a) Neurosis
b) Psychosis
c) Narcolepsy
d) Bipolar disorders
002. Anxiolytic agents should:
a) Relieve pain
b) Reduce anxiety and exert a calming effect
c) Improve mood and behavior in patient with psychotic
symptoms
d) Produce drowsiness, encourage the onset and
maintenance of a state of sleep
003. Anxiolytics are also useful for:
a) Treatment of epilepsy and seizures
b) Insomnia
c) Muscle relaxation in specific neuromuscular disorders
d) All of the above
004. Indicate the agents of choice in the treatment of most
anxiety states:
a) Barbiturates
b) Benzodiazepines
c) Lithium salts
d) Phenothiazines
005. The choice of benzodiazepines for anxiety is based
on:
a) A relatively high therapeutic index
b) Availability of flumazenil for treatment of overdose
c) A low risk of physiologic dependence
d) All of the above
006. Which of the following anxiolitics is a
benzodiazepine derivative:
a) Buspirone
58
b) Clordiazepoxide
c) Meprobamate
d) Chloral hydrate
007. Indicate the benzodiazepine, which has the shortest
elimination half-life:
a) Quazepam
b) Triazolam
c) Diazepam
d) Clorazepate
008. Which of the following benzodiazepines has the
shortest duration of action?
a) Triazolam
b) Clorazepate
c) Prazepam
d) Clordiazepoxide
009. Which of the following benzodiazepines is less
likely to cause cumulative and residual effects with
multiple doses?
a) Clorazepate
b) Quazepam
c) Lorazepam
d) Prazepam
010. Anxiolytic dosage reduction is recommended:
a) In patients taking cimetidine
b) In patients with hepatic dysfunction
c) In elderly patients
d) All of the above
011. Which of the following benzodiazepines is preferred
for elderly patients?
a) Clorazepate
b) Clordiazepoxide
c) Triazolam
d) Prazepam
012. Which of the following anxiolytics is preferred in
patient with limited hepatic function?
a) Buspirone
b) Quazepam
c) Diazepam
d) Chlordiazepoxide
013. Indicate the mechanism of hypnotic benzodiazepine
action:
a) Increasing the duration of the GABA-gated Cl- channel
openings
b) Directly activating the chloride channels
c) Increasing the frequency of Cl- channel opening
events
d) All of the above
014. Which of the following anxiolytics is a partial
agonist of brain 5-HT1A receptors?
a) Buspirone
b) Alprozolam
c) Chlorazepat
d) Lorazepam
015. Indicate the competitive antagonist of BZ receptors:
a) Flumazenil
b) Buspirone
c) Picrotoxin
d) Diazepam
016. Indicate the agent, which interferes with GABA
binding:
a) Chlordiazepoxide
b) Bicuculline
c) Thiopental
d) Picrotoxin
017. Antianxiety agents have:
a) Sedative and hypnotic activity
b) Muscle relaxing and anticonvulsant effects
c) Amnesic properties
d) All of the above
018. Which of the following disadvantages does not limit
using benzodiazepines as antianxiety agents?
a) Tendency to develop psychologic dependence
b) A high risk of drug interactions based on liver
enzyme induction
59
c) Synergic CNS depression with concomitant use of
other drugs
d) The formation of active metabolites
019. Indicate the anxiolitic agent, which relieves anxiety
without causing marked sedative effects:
a) Diazepam
b) Chlordiazepoxid
c) Buspirone
d) Clorazepate
020. Which of the following anxiolytics has minimal
abuse liability?
a) Oxazepam
b) Buspirone
c) Flumazenil
d) Alprazolam
021. In contrast to benzodiazepines, buspirone:
a) Interact directly with gabaergic system
b) Has more marked hypnotic, anticonvulsant, or muscle
relaxant properties
c) Causes less psychomotor impairment and does not
affect driving skills
d) Has maximal abuse liability
022. Which of the following sedative-hypnotic drugs does
not potentiate the CNS depressant effects of ethanol,
phenothiazines, or tricyclic antidepressants?
a) Buspirone
b) Phenobarbital
c) Diazepam
d) Chloralhydrate
023. Limitation of buspirone is:
a) A low therapeutic index
b) An extremely slow onset of action
c) A high potential of development of physical
dependence
d) Impairment of mentation or motor functions during
working hours
024. Which drugs may be used as antianxiety agents?
a) BETA-blocking drugs
b) Clonidine - a partial agonist of alfa2 receptors
c) Tricyclic antidepressants
d) All of the above
025. Which of the following benzodiazepines is more
likely to cause “hangover” effects such as drowsiness,
dysphoria, and
mental or motor depression the following day?
a) Oxazepam
b) Triazolam
c) Clorazepat
d) Lorazepam
026. Additive CNS depression can be predicted if
benzodiazepines are used with:
a) Ethanol
b) Morphine
c) Clorpromazine
d) All of the above
027. Which dosage of benzodiazepines for 60-90 days
may produce severe withdrawal symptoms?
a) 50-60 mg/d
b) Less than 400 mg/d
c) More than 800 mg/d
d) Less than 40 mg/d
028. Restlessness, anxiety, orthostatic hypotension,
generalized seizures, severe tremor, vivid hallucination,
and psychosis
are possible symptoms of:
a) Tolerance
b) Withdrawal
c) Drug interactions between barbiturate and diazepam
d) None of the above
029. Flumazenil is used to:
a) Reverse the CNS depressant effects of hypnotic
benzodiazepines overdose
b) Hasten recovery following use of hypnotic
benzodiazepines in anesthetic and diagnostic procedure
c) Reverse benzodiazepine-induced respiratory depression
d) All of the above
030. Flumazenil given intravenously:
60
a) Has intermediate onset and duration of action about 2
hours
b) Acts rapidly but has a short half-life
c) Has an effect lasting 3-5 hours
d) Has duration of action longer than 6 hours
PART X CNS stimulants
001. Agents, stimulating CNS are all of the following
except:
a) Fluoxetine
b) Clozapine
c) Nootropil
d) Sydnocarb
002. Which of the following CNS stimulants are the
agents of selective effect?
a) Analeptics
b) General tonics
c) Psychostimulants
d) Actoprotectors
003. Indicate CNC stimulating drugs, which are the
agents of general action:
a) Nootropic agents
b) Analeptics
c) Psychostimulants
d) Antidepressants
004. Which of the following agents belongs to
psychostimulants?
a) Meridil
b) Camphor
c) Piracetam
d) Pantocrin
005. Indicate the nootropic agent:
a) Sydnocarb
b) Eleuterococci extract
c) Fluoxetine
d) Piracetam
006. Which of the following agents is a respiratory
analeptic?
a) Piracetam
b) Sydnocarb
c) Bemegride
d) Pantocrin
007. Indicate the CNC stimulating drug, which belongs to
adaptogens:
a) Amphetamine
b) Eleuterococci extract
c) Caffeine
d) Sydnocarb
008. Actoprotectors are:
a) Stimulators, improving physical efficiency
b) Cognition enhancers, improving the highest integrative
brain function
c) Stimulants, raising non-specific resistance towards
stresses
d) Agents, stimulating the bulbar respiratory and
vasomotor centers
009. Adaptogens cause:
a) Improvment of efficiency using physical loads and
acceleration of recovery after the load
b) Stimulation of respiratory and vasomotor centers
c) Temporary relief of the feeling of tiredness, facilitating
the professional work and fighting somnolence
d) Increased resistance towards stress situations and
adaptation to extreme conditions
010. Indicate the CNS stimulants, which mitigate
conditions of weakness or lack of tone within the entire
organism or in
particular organs?
a) Psychostimulants
b) Analeptics
c) General tonics
d) Antidepressants
011. Which of the following agents is a general tone-
increasing drug of plant origin?
a) Meridil
b) Eleuterococci′s extract
c) Pantocrin
61
d) Caffeine
012. Indicate a general tone-increasing drug, which is an
agent of animal origin?
a) Pantocrin
b) Amphetamine
c) Sydnocarb
d) Camphor
013. Amphetamine:
a) Is a powerful stimulant of the CNS
b) Stimulates the medullar respiratory center and has an
analeptic action
c) Increases motor and speech activity, mood, decreases a
sense of fatigue
d) All of the above
014. The mechanism of amphetamine action is related to:
a) Direct catecholamiergic agonist action
b) Inhibition of monoamine oxydase
c) Increasing a release of catecholaminergic
neurotransmitters
d) All of the above
015. Indicate the CNS stimulant, which is a piperidine
derivative:
a) Meridil
b) Amphetamine
c) Caffeine
d) Sydnophen
016. Which of the following CNS psychostimulants is a
sydnonymine derivative?
a) Caffeine
b) Sydnocarb
c) Meridil (methylphenidate hydrochloride)
d) Amphetamine
017. Sydnocarb causes:
a) Decreased sense of fatigue, it facilitates the
professional work and fights somnolence
b) The feeling of prosperity, relaxation and euphoria
c) Influx of physical and mental forces, locomotive and
speech excitation
d) Peripheral sympathomimetic action
018. Indicate the psychostimulant, which is a
methylxantine derivative:
a) Caffeine
b) Sydnocarb
c) Amphetamine
d) Meridil
019. Which of the following psychostimulants acts
centrally mainly by blocking adenosine receptors?
a) Meridil
b) Caffeine
c) Amphetamine
d) Sydnophen
020. Principal properties of caffeine include all of the
following EXEPT:
a) Cardiac analeptic (increase the rate and the force of the
cardiac contraction)
b) Adaptogenic (rise non-specific resistance towards
stresses and adapt to extraordinary challenges)
c) Psychoanaleptic (decrease the feeling of tiredness,
facilitates the professional work and fights somnolence)
d) Respiratory analeptic (stimulate the bulbar respiratory
center)
021. Caffeine can produce all of the following effects
except:
a) Coronary vasodialation
b) Relaxation of bronchial and biliary tract smooth
muscles
c) Vasodialation of cerebral vessels
d) Reinforcement of the contractions and increase of the
striaated muscle work
022. Caffeine does not cause:
a) Inhibition of gastric secretion
b) Hyperglycemia
c) Moderate diuretic action
d) Increase in free fatty acids
023. Therapeutic uses of caffeine include all of the
following EXCEPT:
a) Cardiovascular collapse and respiratory insufficiency
b) Migraine
c) Somnolence
d) Gastric ulceration
62
024. Adverse effects of caffeine include all of the
following EXCEPT:
a) Arrhythmias
b) Insomnia
c) Hypotension
d) Psychomotor excitation
025. Principal properties of cordiamine include all of the
following EXCEPT:
a) Cardiac analeptic
b) Respiratory analeptic
c) Coronarodilatator
d) Significant abuse potential
026. Сharacteristics of cordiamine include all of the
following EXCEPT:
a) It stimulates the CNS and facilitates the movement
coordination
b) It is a respiratory analeptic of mixed action (stimulates
both the medullar respiratory center and chemoreceptor of
carotid sinus zone)
c) It decreases the aortic and coronary flow
d) It counteracts the central depression produced by other
drugs (barbiturates)
027. Cordiamine is useful in the treatment of:
a) Hypotension
b) Coronary insufficiency
c) Respiratory insufficiency
d) All of the above
028. Respiratory and cardiac analeptics are all of the
following agents EXCEPT:
a) Cordiamine
b) Bemegride
c) Caffeine
d) Camphor
029. Bemegride:
a) Stimulates the medullar respiratory center (central
effect)
b) Stimulates hemoreceptors of carotid sinus zone
(reflector action)
c) Is a mixed agent (both central and reflector effects)
d) Is a spinal analeptic
030. Which of the following CNS stimulants belongs to
nootropics?
a) Camphor
b) Pantocrin
c) Sydnocarb
d) Piracetam
031. Characteristics of nootropics include all of the
following EXCEPT:
a) Selective influence on the brain
b) Improvement the ability to communicate with peers
c) Decline in the highest integrative brain functions
d) Increase in energetic exchange of the brain cells
032. Which of the following statements concerning
nootropics is not correct?
a) They improve the highest integrative brain functions
(memory, learning, understanding, thinking and the
capacity for
concentration)
b) They stimulate the bulbar respiratory center
c) They stimulate existing neuronal synapses to optimum
performance (adaptive capacity)
d) They stimulate existing neuronal synapses to damaging
influences, such as disturbances of the energy and
neurotransmitter metabolism or ischemia (protective
capacity)
033. Features of piracetam include all of the following
EXCEPT:
a) It is a GABA derivative
b) It does not influence the neuro-vegetative function
c) Improvement begins in the 3′rd week
d) It has a high potential of toxicity
034. Piracetam can produce all of the following effects
EXCEPT:
a) Antipsychotic
b) Anticonvulsant
c) Psychometabolic
d) Antihypoxic
035. Piracetam is widely used for the treatment of:
a) Senile dementia
b) Asthenia
63
c) Chronic alcoholism
d) All of the above
036. Indicate the CNS stimulant, which is used in
pediatric medicine, as it improves the communication
with the child,
increases the ability to study and communication with
peers, improves school-performance?
a) Meridil
b) Piracetam
c) Bemegride
d) Amphetamine
037. Which of the following CNS stimulants is used for
the cerebral stroke treatment?
a) Pantocrin
b) Sydnocarb
c) Piracetam
d) Caffeine
PART XI Drugs of abuse
001. Psychologic dependence is:
a) Decreased responsiveness to a drug following repeated
exposure
b) A combination of certain drug-specific symptoms that
occur on sudden discontinuation of a drug
c) Compulsive drug-seeking behavior
d) All of the above
002. Tolerance is associated with:
a) An ability to compensate for the drug effect
b) Increased disposition of the drug after chronic use
c) Compensatory changes in receptors, effector enzymes,
or membrane actions of the drug
d) All of the above
003. Addiction is associated with the existence of:
a) Psychological dependence
b) Physiological dependence
c) Tolerance
d) All of the above
004. Substances causing narco- and glue sniffings are all
of the following EXCEPT :
a) Stimulants
b) Antipsychotic drugs
c) Psychedelics
d) Sedative drugs
005. Which of the following abused drugs do not belong
to sedative agents?
a) Barbiturates
b) Tranquilizers
c) Cannabinoids
d) Opioids
006. Psychedelics are all of following agents EXCEPT:
a) Cocaine
b) LSD
c) Marijuana
d) Volatile substances (glues, solvents, volatile nitrites
and nitrous oxide)
007. In contrast to morphine, heroin is:
a) Used clinically
b) More addictive and fast-acting
c) More effective orally
d) Less potent and long-acting
008. Symptoms of opioid withdrawal begin 8-10 hours
after the last dose.
a) True
b) False
009. The acute course of opioid withdrawal may last:
a) 3-4 days
b) 7-10 days
c) 3-4 weeks
d) 26-30 weeks
010. Indicate the sedative-hypnotic agent, which has the
highest abuse potential:
a) Buspirone
64
b) Diazepam
c) Phenobarbital
d) Zolpidem
011. Characteristics of barbiturate intoxication (2-3 dose)
include all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Pleasant feelings of the “blow” in the head, vertigo,
myasthenia, stupor
b) Perceptual distortion of surroundings, disorders of
thinking, behavior
c) Locomotive, speech excitation, sharp swings from a
cheerful mood to an aggressive state
d) Sleep with the subsequent weakness and headaches
012. Barbiturate abstinent syndrome is shown by:
a) Crisis by 3 day of abstention
b) Anxiety, mydriasis, myasthenia, muscular convulsions,
vomiting, diarrhea
c) Psychosis as delirium (color visual and auditory
hallucinations)
d) All of the above
013. Which one of the following tranquilizers belongs to
strong euphorizing agents?
a) Mebicarum
b) Buspirone
c) Diazepam
d) Chlordiazepoxide
014. Tranquilizers intoxication (5-10 tablets) features
include:
a) Euphoria, burst of energy, increase in motor
activity, wave warmth all over the body
b) Visual hallucinations, a distorted feelling of time and
space
c) Physical bliss, body lightness, a wish to fly,
motionlessness
d) Synaesthesia (the sounds can be tensed, the colors can
be heard)
015. Which of the following abused drugs is related to
stimulants?
a) Cocaine
b) Amphetamine
c) Caffeine
d) All of the above
016. Cocaine exerts its central action by:
a) Inhibiting phosphodiesterase
b) Increasing a release of catecholaminergic
neurotransmitters, including dopamine
c) Inhibiting dopamine and norepinephrine reuptake
d) Altering serotonin turnover
017. “Crack” is a derivative of:
a) Opium
b) LSD
c) Cocaine
d) Cannabis
018. Cocaine intoxication appears by:
a) Short clouding of consciousness, lightness of body and
a feeling of flight
b) Wave warmth all over the body, physical bliss,
motionlessness
c) Clear consciousness, improved mood, influx of
physical and spiritual forces, locomotive and speech
excitation,
reappraisal of personality
d) All of the above
019. Which of the following stimulants is related to
psychedelics?
a) “ecstasy” (methylenedioxymethamphetamine)
b) Cocaine
c) “crack” (cocaine free base)
d) Caffeine
020. Cocaine may cause:
a) Powerful vasoconstrictive reactions resulting in
myocardial infarctions
b) The multiple brain perfusion defects
c) Spontaneous abortion during pregnancy
d) All of the above
021. Characteristics of cocaine abstinent syndrome
include all of the following phases EXCEPT:
a) Feeling of depression, irritability, confusion, insomnia
(the first 3 days)
b) Depression, apathy, excessive appetite, a wish to sleep
(the subsequent 1-2 days)
c) Psychosis as color visual and auditory
hallucinations (for 3 day)
d) New attack of depression, anxiety, irritability, dullness,
intense thirst for cocaine (after 1-5 days improvement)
022. Overdoses of cocaine are usually rapidly fatal from:
a) Respiratory depression
65
b) Arrhythmias
c) Seizures
d) All of the above
023. Which of the following agents is related to
hallucinogens?
a) Heroin
b) LSD
c) Cocaine
d) Opium
024. LSD produces:
a) Mood swings
b) Impaired memory, difficulty in thinking, poor
judgment
c) Perceptual distortion
d) All of the above
025. LSD decreases in brain:
a) 5-HT2 receptor densities
b) GABAA-benzodiazepine receptor densities
c) Adrenergic receptor densities
d) D2 receptor densities
026. Which of the following agents is related to cannabis?
a) Heroin
b) Ecstasy
c) Hashish
d) Crack
027. The early stage of cannabis intoxication is
characterized by:
a) Euphoria, uncontrolled laugher
b) Alteration of time sense, depersonalization
c) Sharpened vision
d) All of the above
028. Which of the following physiologic signs is a
characteristic of cannabis intoxication?
a) Bradycardia
b) Reddening of the conjunctiva
c) Miosis
d) Nausea and vomiting
029. Industrial solvent inhalation causes:
a) Quick intoxication, lasting only 5-15 minutes
b) Euphoria, relaxed “drunk” feeling
c) Disorientation, slow passage of time and possible
hallucinations
d) All of the above
030. Indicate the drugs of choice for reversing the
withdrawal syndrome:
a) Benzodiazepines
b) Neuroleptics
c) Antidepressants
d) All of the above
PART XII General anesthetics
001. The state of “general anesthesia” usually includes:
a) Analgesia
b) Loss of consciousness, inhibition of sensory and
autonomic reflexes
c) Amnesia
d) All of the above
002. Inhaled anesthetics and intravenous agents having
general anesthetic properties:
a) Directly activate GABAA receptors
b) Facilitate GABA action but have no direct action on
GABAA receptors
c) Reduce the excitatory glutamatergic neurotransmission
d) Increase the duration of opening of nicotine-activated
potassium channels
003. Indicate the anesthetic, which is an inhibitor of
NMDA glutamate receptors:
a) Thiopental
b) Halothane
c) Ketamine
d) Sevoflurane
66
004. An ideal anesthetic drug would:
a) Induces anesthesia smoothly and rapidly and secure
rapid recovery
b) Posses a wide margin of safety
c) Be devoid of adverse effects
d) All of the above
005. Which of the following general anesthetics belongs
to inhalants?
a) Thiopental
b) Desfluran
c) Ketamine
d) Propofol
006. Indicate the anesthetic, which is used intravenously:
a) Propofol
b) Halothane
c) Desflurane
d) Nitrous oxide
007. Which of the following inhalants is a gas anesthetic?
a) Halothane
b) Isoflurane
c) Nitrous oxide
d) Desflurane
008. Sevoflurane has largely replaced halothane and
isoflurane as an inhalation anesthetic of choice because:
a) Induction of anesthesia is achieved more rapidly and
smoothly
b) Recovery is more rapid
c) It has low post- anesthetic organ toxicity
d) All of the above
009. The limitation of sevoflurane is:
a) High incidence of coughing and laryngospasm
b) Chemically unstable
c) Centrally mediated sympathetic activation leading to a
rise of BP and HR
d) Hepatotoxicity
010. Which of the following inhalants lacks sufficient
potency to produce surgical anesthesia by itself and
therefore is
commonly used with another inhaled or intravenous
anesthetic?
a) Halothane
b) Sevoflurane
c) Nitrous oxide
d) Desflurane
011. Which of the following inhaled anesthetics has rapid
onset and recovery?
a) Nitrous oxide
b) Desflurane
c) Sevoflurane
d) All of the above
012. Indicate the inhaled anesthetic, which reduces
arterial pressure and heart rate:
a) Isoflurane
b) Halothane
c) Desflurane
d) Nitrous oxide
013. Which of the following inhaled anesthetics causes
centrally mediated sympathetic activation leading to a rise
in blood
pressure and heart rate?
a) Desflurane
b) Sevoflurane
c) Nitrous oxide
d) Isofurane
014. Indicated the inhaled anesthetic, which decreases the
ventilatory response to hypoxia:
a) Sevoflurane
b) Nitrous oxide
c) Desflurane
d) Halothane
015. Which of the following inhaled anesthetics is an
induction agent of choice in patient with airway
problems?
a) Desfurane
b) Nitrous oxide
c) Halothane
67
d) None of the above
016. Indicate the inhaled anesthetic, which causes the
airway irritation:
a) Nitrous oxide
b) Sevoflurane
c) Halothane
d) Desflurane
017. Which of the following inhaled anesthetics increases
cerebral blood flow least of all?
a) Sevoflurane
b) Nitrous oxide
c) Isoflurane
d) Desflurane
018. Indicate the inhaled anesthetic, which should be
avoided in patients with a history of seizure disorders:
a) Enflurane
b) Nitrous oxide
c) Sevoflurane
d) Desflurane
019. Which of the following inhaled anesthetics can
produce hepatic necrosis?
a) Soveflurane
b) Desflurane
c) Halothane
d) Nitrous oxide
020. Indicated the inhaled anesthetic, which may cause
nephrotoxicity:
a) Halothane
b) Soveflurane
c) Nitrous oxide
d) Diethyl ether
021. Which of the following inhaled anesthetics decreases
metheonine synthase activity and causes megaloblastic
anemia?
a) Desflurane
b) Halothane
c) Nitrous oxide
d) Soveflurane
022. Unlike inhaled anesthetics, intravenous agents such
as thiopental, etomidate, and propofol:
a) Have a faster onset and rate of recovery
b) Provide a state of conscious sedation
c) Are commonly used for induction of anesthesia
d) All of the above
023. Indicate the intravenous anesthetic, which is an ultra-
short-acting barbiturate:
a) Fentanyl
b) Thiopental
c) Midazolam
d) Ketamine
024. Indicate the intravenous anesthetic, which is a
benzodiazepine derivative:
a) Midazolam
b) Thiopental
c) Ketamin
d) Propofol
025. Which of the following agents is used to accelerate
recovery from the sedative actions of intravenous
benzodiazepines?
a) Naloxone
b) Flumazenil
c) Ketamine
d) Fomepizole
026. Neuroleptanalgesia has all of the following
properties EXCEPT:
a) Droperidol and fentanyl are commonly used
b) It can be used with nitrous oxide to provide
neuroleptanesthesia
c) Hypertension is a common consequence
d) Confusion and mental depression can occur as adverse
effects
027. Which of the following intravenous anesthetics has
antiemetic actions?
a) Thiopental
b) Propofol
c) Ketamine
d) Fentanyl
68
028. Indicate the intravenous anesthetic, which causes
minimal cardiovascular and respiratory depressant effects:
a) Propofol
b) Thiopental
c) Etomidate
d) Midazolam
029. Indicate the intravenous anesthetic, which produces
dissociative anesthesia:
a) Midazolam
b) Ketamine
c) Fentanyl
d) Thiopental
030. Ketamine anesthesia is associated with:
a) Cardiovascular stimulation
b) Increased cerebral blood flow, oxygen consumption
and intracranial pressure
c) Disorientation, sensory and perceptual illusions, and
vivid dreams following anesthesia
d) All of the above