Subject Wise

TEST
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Geography
(Indian Geography) s
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2022
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Physical Geography of India Indian Economic and Human
• Location Geography
➢ Latitude • Agriculture typology and major Crops grown in
➢ Longitude India
➢ Physiographic division of India • Agro-Climatic Regions
o Northern Mountains • Land Reforms and Land use pattern
o Plains of India • Animal Husbandry, Fisheries and Aquaculture
o Peninsular Plateau • Water Resources- Availability and potential:
o Islands of India Lakes, rivers, dams, power and irrigation projects,
➢ Drainage System wetlands and interlinking of rivers
o Himalayan Drainage System • Mineral Resourcesclassification and distribution
o Peninsular Drainage System • Energy Resourcesconventional and
o Other small river system nonconventional resources
• Indian Climate • Population and Growth trends - density, sex ratio,
➢ Spatial and temporal distribution of literacy, tribes and racial groups in India
temperature & pressure • Rural and Urban Settlements- types and
➢ Winds patterns
• Industries- types and their locational factors
➢ Rainfall
• Transport and Communication -railways, highways,
o Indian Monsoon
inland
▪ Mechanism
• water transport, shipping and sea-ports, air
▪ Onset
Transport
▪ Variability
o Rainfall distribution Map Based Questions from India
➢ Climatic Regions of India (Location of state, city, river, lakes, important
• Soils places including
➢ Classification of Soils Ramsar sites, Biosphere Reserves, Wildlife
Sanctuaries and National Parks)
➢ Problems of Soil and
Conservation Current Affairs:
• Indian Flora & Faun (1/6/2021-7/9/2021) from the below sources.
➢ Forests and their distribution
➢ Forest Conservation
• INSIGHTSIAS Current Affairs Quiz.
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➢ Fauna
• INSIGHTSIAS Current Affairs.
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• INSIGHTS REVISION THROUGH MCQs
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 Subject Wise Test – 6 (Questions) 2022
1. Consider the following statements regarding Peninsular Block
1. The Karbi Anglong and the Meghalaya Plateau in the northeast is extension of Peninsular Block.
2. The northeastern parts are separated by the Malda fault in West Bengal from the Chotanagpur plateau.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

2. Consider the following statements regarding Aravalli hills

1. They originate in Gujarat (at Palanpur) and extend till Haryana and terminate in the Delhi ridge.
2. Aravallis have an average elevation in the range of 4000-6000m.
3. Mt. Gurushikhar is the highest point of Aravallis.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3

3. Arrange the following hill ranges from north to south

1. Nallamala Hills 2. Palkonda Range 3. Cardomom Hills 4. Anaimalai Hills
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 2 4 3 B. 2 1 4 3 C. 2 4 1 3 D. 1 2 3 4

4. Arrange the following hill ranges from north to south.

1. Barail ranges 2. Mizo Hills 3. Mishmi Hills 4. Dafla Hills
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 2 3 4 1 B. 2 3 1 4 C. 3 4 1 2 D. 3 4 2 1

5. Consider the following statements regarding Dharwar System

1. The formation period ranges from 4 billion years ago to – 1 billion years ago.
2. They were formed when sedimentary rocks like sandstone, limestone etc., and clay were deposited in
synclinal folds.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

6. Consider the following statements regarding location of India

1. India’s mainland extends between latitudes 8°4’N and 37°6’N and longitudes 68°7’E and
97°25’E, area of the world.
2. Despite the fact that the latitudinal and longitudinal extent of the mainland is about 30°, the east-west extent
appears to be smaller than the north-south extent.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
t e s
7. Tropic of Cancer passes through which of the following states? d a
1. Rajasthan 2. Mizoram 3. Tripura 4. Jharkhand
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Select the correct answer using the code given below:
e _
A. 1, 2 and 3 only B. 2, 3 and 4 only C. 1, 2 and 4 only s
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
c
8. Consider the following statements regarding Kashmir Himalayas c _
1. The cold desert lies between the Greater Himalayas and the Karakoram ranges. p s
famous Dal Lake. e /u
2. Between the Great Himalayas and the Pir Panjal range, lies the world-famous valley of Kashmir and the

3. The Kashmir Himalayas are famous for Karewa formations.

Which of the statements given above are correct? - t.m
A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only
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C. 1 and 3 only
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D. 1, 2 and 3

9. Consider the following statements regarding Bugyals F

e d in Uttaranchal (at an elevation between 3400m and
1. Bugyals are high altitude alpine grasslands or meadows
4000m).
a d
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3. They are used by tribal herdsmen to grazelotheir cattle.
2. During winter months, the Bugyals present a riot of beautiful flowers and grass.

Which of the statements given abovew are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only o
B. 2 and
D 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
10. Molassis basin is located in the State of
A. Arunachal Pradesh B. Himachal Pradesh C. Mizoram D. Uttarakhand

11. Consider the following statements regarding Bhangar type of alluvial plains
1. It is a narrow belt ranging between 8-10 km parallel to the Shiwalik foothills at the break-up of the slope.
2. It is the region where most of the streams and rivers re-emerge without having any properly demarcated
channel.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

12. Barind Tract is located in

A. Desert areas of Rajasthan B. Punjab Plains
C. North Western Peninsula D. Bengal Basin

13. Kayals are located in

A. Kathiawar coast B. Kanada coast C. Konkan coast D. Malabar coast

14. Duncan Passage separates

A. Andaman group and Nicobar group of Inlands
B. South Andaman and Little Andaman
C. Minicoy from the main Lakshadweep archipelago
D. Islands of Minicoy and Maldives

15. Consider the following statements regarding Lakshadweep

1. The capital of this union territory is Minicoy.
2. The entire island group is built of coral deposits.
3. The entire group of islands is broadly divided by the Ten-degree channel, north of which is the Amini Island
and to the south of the Canannore Island.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3

16. Which of the following passes connect China?

1. Chang-La 2. Lipu Lekh 3. Nathu La 4. Jelep La
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1, 2 and 3 only B. 2, 3 and 4 only C. 1, 2 and 4 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

17. Consider the following statements regarding Drainage Patterns

1. When the rivers originate from a hill and flow in all directions, the drainage pattern is known as ‘centripetal’.
2. When the primary tributaries of rivers flow parallel to each other and secondary tributaries join them at right
angles, the pattern is known as ‘trellis’. t e s
3. The rivers originating from the Amarkantak range present a good example of radial drainage pattern.
d a
Which of the statements given above are correct?
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A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
e _
18. Consider the following statements regarding Antecedent Drainage c s
c _
1. In this type of drainage, a part of a river slope and the surrounding area gets uplifted and the river sticks to
p s
its original slope, cutting through the uplifted portion like a saw forming deep gorges like.

examples of Antecedent Drainage. e /u

2. The Damodar, the Subarnarekha, the Chambal, the Banas, and the rivers flowing at the Rewa Plateau are

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 - t.mD. Neither 1 nor 2

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19. Which of the following are right bank tributaries of River Ganga?
1. Yamuna 2. Son 3. Kosi
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Fr
4. Gandak
d
A. 1 and 2 only B. 3 and 4 only
d e C. 2, 3 and 4 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

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20. River Godavari flows through which of the following states?
1. Maharashtra
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2. Karnataka n 3. Orissa 4. Andhra Pradesh

A. 1 and 4 only
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Select the correct answer using the code given below:
D
B. 2 and 3 only C. 2, 3 and 4 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
21. Which of the following are tributaries of Kaveri River?
1. Koyna River 2. Musi River 3. Hemavati River 4. Amaravati River
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 and 2 only B. 3 and 4 only C. 2, 3 and 4 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

22. Tista or Teesta forms the boundary between

A. West Bengal and Sikkim B. West Bengal and Bihar
C. Assam and Sikkim D. Sikkim and Bhutan

23. Consider the following statements regarding Jhelum

1. The Jhelum is the largest tributary of the Indus.
2. It rises west of the Rohtang pass in the Kullu hills of Himachal Pradesh and flows through the Chamba
valley of the state.
3. It flows through Srinagar and the Wular lake before entering Pakistan.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3

24. Which of the following are west-flowing rivers?

1. Dhandhar 2. Kalinadi 3. Penner 4. Brahmani
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 3 and 4 only D. 1 and 4 only

25. Which of the following statement regarding western coastal plains is incorrect?
A. The western coastal plains are an example of submerged coastal plain.
B. Western Coastal Plains are very broad.
C. The rivers flowing through this coastal plain do not form any delta.
D. They provide natural conditions for the development of ports and harbours.

26. Consider the following statements regarding western disturbance

1. Western Disturbances are low-pressure systems, embedded in western winds (westerlies) that flow from
west to the east.
2. The moisture in these storms usually originates over the Mediterranean Sea, the Caspian Sea and the Black
Sea.
3. It is a term coined by an Indian Meteorologist for the weather phenomenon which is propagated from the
West.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3

27. Consider the following statements regarding Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ)
1. The Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) is known by sailors as the doldrums or the calms because of its t e s
monotonous windless weather.
d a
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2. The Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) is a high-pressure zone located at the equator where trade
u
winds converge, and so, it is a zone where air tends to ascend.
e _
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2c s
c _
28. Consider the following statements regarding break Monsoon period
p s
2. Middle of September is most prone to ‘breaks’ and that too long breaks. e /u
1. During break Monsoon, Monsoon trough runs from Sri Ganganagar in Rajasthan to Kolkata.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 - t.m
D. Neither 1 nor 2

o m
29. Which of the following regions receive rainfall in winter season?
1. Punjab, Haryana, Delhi and western Uttar Pradesh
2. Arunachal Pradesh and Assam d Fr
d e
3. Tamil Nadu coast, southern Andhra Pradesh, southeast Karnataka and southeast Kerala.

A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 only l o a

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
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30. Consider the following statements regarding Nor Westers
1. These are dreaded evening thunderstorms in Karnataka and Kerala.
2. These showers are useful for tea, jute and rice cultivation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

31. Consider the following statements regarding Retreating Monsoon

1. The retreating southwest monsoon season is marked by clear skies and rise in temperature.
2. Owing to the conditions of high temperature and humidity, these conditions bring relief to locals, to the
otherwise oppressive weather
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

32. Which of the following regions have variability of Rainfall less than 25 per cent?
1. Uttarakhand and Himachal Pradesh 2. Northern part of Jammu and Kashmir
3. Northeastern Peninsula 4. Eastern plains of the Ganga
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1, 2 and 3 only B. 2, 3 and 4 only C. 1, 2 and 4 only D. 1, 3 and 4 only

33. Match the following Koeppen’s Scheme Type of Climate Areas with the respective regions in India?
1. Amw: West coast of India south of Goa
2. As: Coromandel coast of Tamil Nadu
3. Bwhw: Arunachal Pradesh
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3

34. Tropical Moist Deciduous Forests is found in which of the following regions?
1. Along the Shiwalik range including terai and bhabar
2. Hills of eastern Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh
3. In Western Ghats, Belt surrounding the belt of evergreen forests.
4. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 and 4 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 2, 3 and 4 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

35. Which of the following statement regarding Tropical Evergreen is incorrect?

A. They are found in warm and humid areas with an annual precipitation of over 200 cm and mean annual
temperature above 22 degree C.
B. These forests are found in the western slope of the Western Ghats, hills of the northeastern region and the
Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
C. Tropical evergreen forests are well stratified.
D. There is a definite time-period for trees to shed their leaves, flowering and fruition.
t e s
36. Which of the following statement regarding Sholas is incorrect?
d a
A. The Shola vegetation are tropical montane forests found in the Western Ghats separated by rolling
u p
grasslands in high altitudes.
e _
C. Compared to 1973, Shola grasslands areas have seen a 7% increase by 2014. c s
B. It is a stunted forest growth of diverse grass species and made up of dwarf trees growing 25-30 feet.

c _
D. The vegetation is double -layered storey with closed canopy which hardly permits a single ray of sunlight to
penetrate in the natural vegetation.
p s
37. Consider the following statements regarding social forestry e /u
Urban forestry, Rural forestry, Agro forestry and Farm forestry. - t.m
1. The National Commission on Agriculture (1976) has classified social forestry into four categories, that is,

2. Agro-forestry is a term applied to the process under which farmers grow trees for commercial and non-
commercial purposes on their farm lands. o m
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only d Fr
C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
d e
l o a
38. Consider the following statements regarding soil classification
1. ICAR has classified the Indian soils on the basis of their nature and character as per the
w n
United States Department of Agriculture (USDA) Soil Taxonomy.

D o
2. Vertisols covers about 40% of the total soil coverage of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

39. Consider the following statements regarding Black soils

1. The black color is due to the presence of a small proportion of titaniferous magnetite of the parent rock.
2. The black soils are generally clayey, deep and impermeable.
3. Under rainfed conditions, they are used for growing cotton, millets, soybean, sorghum, pigeon pea, etc.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3

40. In which of the following regions can we find laterite soil?

1. Amarkantak plateau region of MP 2. Panchmahal district of Gujarat
3. Santhal Pangana divisions of Jharkhand 4. Found in patches in Western Ghats
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1, 2 and 3 only B. 2, 3 and 4 only C. 1, 2 and 4 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

41. Consider the following statements regarding Peaty Soils

1. They are found in areas of heavy rainfall and high humidity.
2. Organic matter in these soils may go even up to 40-50 per cent.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

42. Consider the following statements regarding Agro-ecological zones (AEZs)

1. Based on 50 years of climate data and an up-to-date soil database, the country has been divided into 12
agro-ecological zones (AEZs).
2. Each AEZ is as uniform as possible in terms of physiography, climate, length of growing period and soil type
for macrolevel land-use planning and effective transfer of technology.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

43. Which of the following are kharif crops?

1. Sorghum 2. Pearl millet 3. Cotton 4. Sugar cane
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1, 2 and 3 only B. 2, 3 and 4 only C. 1, 2 and 4 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

44. Consider the following statements regarding Tsunami

1. The speed of wave in the ocean depends upon the depth of water.
2. The speed of the Tsunami wave is less in the shallow water than in the ocean deep.
3. Over deep water the tsunami has very long wave-length and limited wave-height.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3 t e s
d a
45. Which of the following are initial conditions for the emergence of a tropical cyclone?
u p
1. Large and continuous supply of cold and moist air
e _
2. Absence of Coriolis force
3. Absence of strong vertical wind wedge c s
c _
4. Unstable condition through the troposphere that creates local disturbances around which a cyclone
develops.
p s
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 and 2 only B. 3 and 4 only C. 2, 3 and 4 onlye /u D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

46. Hydrological Drought occurs when - t.m

A. It is a situation when there is a prolonged period of inadequate rainfall marked with maldistribution.
o m
B. It is characterized by low soil moisture that is necessary to support the crops, thereby resulting in crop
failures.
d Fr
C. It results when the availability of water in different storages and reservoirs falls below what the precipitation
can replenish.
d e
l o a
D. When the productivity of a natural ecosystem fails due to shortage of water.

w n Rice
47. Consider the following statements regarding
1. It is best suited to regions which o
D havethroughout
2. The average temperature required
high humidity, prolonged sunshine and an assured supply of water.
the life period of the crop ranges from 21 to 37º C.
3. Rice cultivation in India extends from 8 to35ºN latitude.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3

48. In which of the following areas Jute is used as raw material?

1. Textile industries 2. Automotive industries
3. Paper industries 4. Decorative and furnishing materials
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 and 4 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 2, 3 and 4 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

49. Consider the following statements regarding Maize

1. Globally, maize is known as queen of cereals because it has the highest genetic yield potential among the
cereals.
2. Maize can be grown successfully in variety of soils ranging from loamy sand to clay loam.
3. India is the largest producer of maize and contributes nearly 35 % of the total production in the world.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3

50. Consider the following statements regarding Coffee

1. Coffee is grown in regions that receive 2,500-4,000 mm rainfall for more than 100 days.
2. India is the second-largest producer and exporter of coffee in the world.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

51. Consider the following statements regarding Nipah virus (NiV)

1. Nipah virus (NiV) is a zoonotic virus.
2. Nipah virus was first recognized in 1999 during an outbreak among pig farmers in, Malawi.
3. The incubation period (interval from infection to the onset of symptoms) is believed to range from 4 to 14
days.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3

52. LEMOA, COMCASA and GSOMIA are the agreements signed by India with
A. Russia B. France C. Japan D. USA

53. Consider the following statements regarding Border Area Development Programme (BADP)
1. The Border Area Development Programme (BADP) is an initiative of the Ministry of Defence.
2. It has been classified as a Core Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 t e s
d a
54. Houthi movement is associated with which of the following region?
u p
A. Panjshir valley, Afghanistan B. Iran C. Yemen D. Palestine
e _
c
55. Consider the following statements regarding National Mission on Edible Oil-Oil Palm (NMEO-OP)s
c
1. Farmers who opt for palm oil cultivation will receive price assurance from the government_ which will hedge
the farmers from price volatility.
p s
2. The scheme has a special focus on the Andaman and Nicobar Islands and the
3. The scheme has a sunset clause which is November 1, 2024. e / uNortheastern region of India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only - t
. m D. 1, 2 and 3

o m and Development Council (FSDC)

56. Consider the following statements regarding Financial Stability
1. The Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC) F rwas constituted by an Executive
Order under the Ministry of Finance in 2010.
e d
a
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
d
2. The finance secretary is the Chairman of the FSDC.

A. 1 only B. 2 only
n loC. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

57. Durand Line is an international o

w
border between
A. China and North Korea D B. China’s claim in South China Sea
C. North Korea and South Korea D. Afghanistan and Pakistan

58. Consider the following statements regarding Kigali Amendment

1. Kigali Amendment is a non-binding agreement designed to create rights and obligations in international law.
2. It is an international agreement to gradually reduce the consumption and production of hydrofluorocarbons
(HFCs).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

59. Consider the following statements regarding Deputy Speaker

1. Article 93 of the Constitution provides for the election of both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker.
2. They can be removed from office by a resolution passed in the Lok Sabha by a special majority of its
members.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

60. Consider the following statements

1. Flamingo Festival is held every year to promote tourism in Pulicat and Nelapattu bird sanctuary.
2. Pulicat Lake is the second largest brackish water lake or lagoon in India, after Chilika Lake.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

61. Under Competition Act, 2002, the powers of Competition Commission of India extends to matters related to
1. Anti-competitive agreements
2. Abuse of dominant position by enterprises
3. Regulates combinations i.e., acquisition, acquiring of control and M&A.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3

62. Consider the following statements regarding Indian SARS-CoV-2 Consortium on Genomics (INSACOG)
1. It is jointly initiated by the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, and Department of Biotechnology
(DBT) with Council for Scientific & Industrial Research (CSIR) and Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR).
2. It is a consortium of 28 National Laboratories to monitor the genomic variations in the SARSCoV- 2.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

63. Consider the following statements regarding BRICS

1. The acronym “BRICS” was initially formulated in 2001 by economist Jim O’Neill, of Goldman Sachs.
2. BRICS Contingent Reserve Arrangement (CRA) was a part of Fortaleza Declaration.
3. 2021 will be the second time that India will be hosting the BRICS Summit after 2016. t e s
Which of the statements given above are correct?
d a
A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
u p
e _
64. Consider the following statements regarding National Testing Agency (NTA)
1. It is registered under the Indian Societies Registration Act, 1860. c s
c _
2. It has been established as a specialist and self-sustained testing organization to conduct entrance
examinations for admission in higher educational institutions.
p s
Which of the statements given above are correct? e /u
3. It is mandated with creating an exam system that is scientific and at par with global standards.

A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only

t.m
C. 1 and 3 only
-
D. 1, 2 and 3

65. Deepor Beel, a Ramsar site is located in

A. West Bengal B. Gujrat C. Assamo m D. Orissa

d Fr
66. Which of the following are full members of Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO)?
1. Uzbekistan 2. Azerbaijan
d e
3. Afghanistan 4. Kazakhstan

A. 1 and 4 only l
B. 2 and 3 onlyo a
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
C. 2, 3 and 4 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
w n
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67. Consider the following statements regarding Infrastructure Investment Trust (InvITs)
D
1. An Infrastructure Investment Trust (InvITs) is Collective Investment Scheme similar to a mutual fund, which
enables direct investment of money from individual and institutional investors in infrastructure projects.
2. The InvITs are regulated by the RBI.
3. InvITs cannot invest more than 80% of their assets in under-construction projects.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3

68. Which of the following are core industries of India?

1. Natural Gas 2. Fertilizers 3. Refinery products 4. Electricity
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 and 4 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 2, 3 and 4 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

69. Bacillus Calmette–Guérin (BCG) vaccine is a vaccine primarily used to treat

A. AIDS B. Tuberculosis C. Whooping Cough D. Zika Virus

70. Israel shares border with

1. Saudi Arabia 2. Jordan 3. Syria 4. Lebanon
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 and 4 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 2, 3 and 4 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

71. Consider the following statements regarding International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)
1. It reports and is accountable only to United Nations Security Council.
2. The Board of Governors consists of all the member nations and each receive one vote.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

72. UNEP administers or provides secretariat functions for which of the following multilateral environmental
agreements (MEAs)?
1. Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES)
2. Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)
3. Basel Convention, Rotterdam Convention and Stockholm Convention
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3

73. Which of the following mountain railways are part of UNESCO World Heritage Site?
1. Matheran Hill Railway 2. Kalka–Shimla Railway
3. Darjeeling Himalayan Railway 4. Nilgiri Mountain Railway
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1, 2 and 3 only B. 2, 3 and 4 only C. 1, 2 and 4 only D. 1, 3 and 4 only
t e s
74. Consider the following statements regarding Socio Economic and Caste Census (SECC) 2011
d a
1. The Ministry of Home Affairs, commenced the Socio Economic and Caste Census (SECC) 2011, in 2011.
u p
_
2. It was the first time a comprehensive door to door exercise has been carried out for both rural and urban
e
India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? c s
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 c _
D. Neither 1 nor 2
p s
75. Who among the following are eligible to invest in Sovereign Gold Bond (SGB)?
1. Person’s who are resident in India 2. Trusts e /u
3. Universities 4. Charitable institutions
Select the correct answer using the code given below: .t m
A. 1, 2 and 3 only B. 2, 3 and 4 only -
C. 1, 2 and 4 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

o m
76. What is the minimum number of states a person has to pass to reach Gandhinagar from Aizwal, including
the state of origin and destination?
A. 6 B. 7 C. 8 D. 9 d Fr
d e
1. Nalsarovar Bird Sanctuary: Gujarat l a
77. Match the following Ramsar sites with the states they are located in.
o 2. Sultanpur National Park: Haryana
3. Pong Dam Lake : Jammu and Kashmir
w n 4. Hokera Wetland: Himachal Pradesh

A. 1 and 2 only
o
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
D
B. 2 and 3 only C. 3 and 4 only D. 1 and 4 only
78. Arrange the following National parks from West to East.
1. Sanjay Gandhi National Park 2. Nagarhole National Park
3. Pench National Park 4. Indravati National Park
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 2 4 3 B. 2 1 4 3 C. 2 4 1 3 D. 1 2 3 4

79. Match the following tiger reserves with the states they are located in.
1. Sanjay-Dubri: Madhya Pradesh 2. Nawegaon-Nagzira: Maharashtra
3. Ranthambore: Rajasthan 4. Srivilliputhur Megamalai: Kerala
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1, 2 and 3 only B. 2, 3 and 4 only C. 1, 2 and 4 only D. 1, 3 and 4 only

80. Which of the following sites have been included in the list of Cultural World Heritage Sites?
1. Archaeological Site of Nalanda Mahavihara
2. Champaner-Pavagadh Archaeological Park
3. Victorian and Art Deco Ensemble of Mumbai
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3

81. Match the following Dams with the associated River?

1. Bhakra Nangal Dam: Sutlej 2. Hirakud dam: Mahanadi
3. Indira Sagar Dam: Narmada 4. Nagarjuna Sagar Dam: Krishna
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 and 4 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 2, 3 and 4 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

82. Which of the following city is closest to the longitude of Delhi?

A. Jaipur B. Bhopal C. Hyderabad D. Raipur

83. Bhupen Hazarika Setu connects Assam with

A. West Bengal B. Meghalaya C. Arunachal Pradesh D. Nagaland

84. Match the following monasteries with the states/UTs they are located in.
1. Hemis Monastery: Ladakh
2. Tsulglagkhang Monastery: Himachal Pradesh
3. Bylakuppe Monastery: Arunachal Pradesh
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3

85. Consider the following statements regarding population density

1. The density of population in India is higher than Bangladesh. t e s
2. According to Census 2011, West Bengal has the highest density of population in India.
d a
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
u p
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
e _
86. Consider the following statements regarding Water Resources of India c s
1. India accounts for about 4 per cent of the world’s water resources. c _
p s
2. The mean annual flow in all the river basins in India is estimated to be 1,869 cubic km.

Which of the statements given above are correct? e /u

3. The total replenishable groundwater resources in the country are about 432 cubic km.

A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only

t.m
C. 1 and 3 only
-
D. 1, 2 and 3

87. Consider the following statements regarding mineral resources in South-Western Plateau Region
1. This belt is rich in ferrous metals and bauxite. o m
d Fr
2. Kerala has deposits of monazite and thorium, bauxite clay.
3. This belt has more diversified mineral deposits as compared to the north-eastern plateau belt.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
d e
A. 1 and 2 only
l o a
B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3

w n Iron Ore
88. Consider the following statements regarding

2. Haematite and magnetite areD

o ore in Asia.
1. India has the largest reserve of iron
the most important iron ores in India.
3. Karnataka alone contributes 72% of Haematite deposits in India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3

89. Consider the following statements regarding Mica

1. It is chemically inert, stable and does not absorb water.
2. Andhra Pradesh leads with 41% share in the country’s total resources.
3. Mica is widely distributed and occurs in igneous, metamorphic and sedimentary regimes.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3

90. Consider the following statements regarding copper production in India

1. India is self-sufficient in the production of copper ore.
2. Largest reserves/resources of copper ore are in the state of Rajasthan, accounting about 53%.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

91. Consider the following statements regarding Coalfields in India

1. Gondwana coal makes up to 98% of the total coal reserves in India and 99% of the coal production in India.
2. The carbon content in Gondwana coal is more compared to the Carboniferous coal.
3. Gondwana coal is free from moisture and contains phosphorus and sulphur.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3

92. Match the following Major Coal Mines with the states they are located in?
1. Bokaro: West Bengal 2. Raniganj Coalfield: Jharkhand
3. Talcher: Odisha 4. Neyveli: Tamil Nadu
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 3 and 4 only D. 1 and 4 only

93. Consider the following statements regarding silk production in India

1. India is the largest producer of silk in the world.
2. India has the unique distinction of being the only country producing all the five kinds of silk namely,
Mulberry, Eri, Muga, Tropical Tasar and Temperate Tasar.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

94. Indian Strategic Petroleum Reserve Limited (ISPRL) has established Strategic Petroleum Reserves (SPR)
facilities at which of the following locations?
1. Chandikhol 2. Mangaluru 3. Padur 4. Vishakhapatnam t e s
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
d a
A. 1, 2 and 3 only B. 2, 3 and 4 only C. 1, 2 and 4 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
u p
e _
95. Recoverable Shale gas reserve in India can be found in
1. Upper Assam 2. Pranahita – Godavari Basin c s
3. Vindhya Basins 4. Damodar Valley c _
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
p s
A. 1, 2 and 3 only B. 2, 3 and 4 only C. 1, 2 and 4 only
e /u D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

1. Puga Valley & Chummathang in Jammu & Kashmir - t.m

96. Which of the following are promising geothermal sites for electric power generation?
2. Cambay in Gujarat
3. Tattapani in Chattisgarh 4. Ratnagiri in Maharasthra
Select the correct answer using the code given below: o m
A. 1, 2 and 3 only B. 2, 3 and 4 only
d Fr
C. 1, 2 and 4 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

d e
97. Which of the following are raw materials for Iron and Steel Industry?
1. Coking coal 2. Limestone
l o a
3. Manganese
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
4. Fire clay

A. 1, 2 and 3 only
w n
B. 2, 3 and 4 only C. 1, 2 and 4 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

D o
98. Which of the following are major industrial regions of India?
1. Mumabi-Pune Region 2. Bengaluru-Tamil Nadu Region
3. Vishakhapatnam-Guntur Region 4. Kollam-Thiruvananthapuram Region
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1, 2 and 3 only B. 2, 3 and 4 only C. 1, 2 and 4 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

99. Consider the following statements regarding Delhi Mumbai Industrial Corridor
1. Delhi-Mumbai Industrial Corridor is a mega infra-structure project of USD 90 billion with the financial &
technical aids from World Bank.
2. Multi-modal High Axle Load Dedicated Freight Corridor (DFC) between Delhi and Mumbai passes through
the five States/UT only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

100. Consider the following statements regarding Indian Railways

1. About 85 percent of passengers and 70 percent of freight traffic are carried by Railways every year.
2. Freight remains the major revenue earning segment for Railways, accounting for 65% of its total revenue in
FY20.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

t e s
d a
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c s
c _
p s
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- t.m
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 Subject Wise Test – 6 (Solutions) 2022
1. Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
All the above statements are correct.
THE PENINSULAR BLOCK
The northern boundary of the Peninsular Block may be taken as an irregular line running from Kachchh along
the western flank of the Aravali Range near Delhi and then roughly parallel to the Yamuna and the Ganga as
far as the Rajmahal Hills and the Ganga delta. Apart from these, the Karbi Anglong and the Meghalaya
Plateau in the northeast and Rajasthan in the west are also extensions of this block. The northeastern
parts are separated by the Malda fault in West Bengal from the Chotanagpur plateau.
In Rajasthan, the desert and other desert–like features overlay this block. The Peninsula is formed essentially
by a great complex of very ancient gneisses and granites, which constitutes a major part of it.
The Peninsula mostly consists of relict and residual mountains like the Aravali hills, the Nallamala hills, the
Javadi hills, the Veliconda hills, the Palkonda range and the Mahendragiri hills, etc. The river valleys here are
shallow with low gradients.

2. Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
Aravalli hills
 They originate in Gujarat (at Palanpur) and extend till Haryana. They terminate in the Delhi ridge.
 They have a maximum extent of 800 km
 They are old fold mountain ranges, one of the oldest tectonic mountains in the world.
 Rocks that make up the Aravallis are more than 2 billion years old.
 Unlike other fold mountains, Aravallis have an average elevation in the range of 400-600m only.
This is because throughout their geological history they were subjected to the processes of weathering
and erosion. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
 Only a few peaks reach an elevation of above 1000m. These include - Mt. Gurushikhar (1722m, the
highest point of Aravallis), Mt.Abu (1158m, it's part of a plateau).
 Geologically, they are mainly made up of Dharwar igneous and metamorphic rocks.
 They contain the largest marble deposits in India.
 Rivers Banas, Luni, Sabarmati are born in Aravallis. Banas is a tributary of Chambal. Luni is an
ephemeral river which terminates in the Rann of Kutchch.
 They contain several passes that cut through them, especially between Udaipur and Ajmer like
Piplighat, Dewair, Desuri etc.
 They also contain several lakes such as Lake Sambhar (largest inland saline water body in India), Lake
Dhebar (south of Aravallis), Lake Jaisamand (in the Jaisamand wildlife sanctuary) etc.

3. Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification : t e s
d a
u p
e _
c s
c _
p s
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- t.m
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d e
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Hence, option (a) is correct.
D o
4. Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :

Hence, option (c) is correct.

5. Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Dharwar System
 Formation period ranges from 4 billion years ago to – 1 billion years ago.
 Highly metamorphosed sedimentary rock-system. [formed due to metamorphosis of sediments of
Archaean gneisses and schists].
 They are the oldest metamorphosed rocks.
 Found in abundance in the Dharwar district of Karnataka.
 Economically the most important rocks because they possess valuable minerals like high-grade
iron-ore, manganese, copper, lead, gold, etc.
Cuddapah System
 Named after the Cuddapah district of Andhra Pradesh, due to the large development of outcrops of
cudappah rocks
 They were formed when sedimentary rocks like sandstone, limestone etc., and clay were
deposited in synclinal folds (between two mountain ranges). Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
 Outcrops best observed in Cuddapah district of Andhra Pradesh.
 These rocks contain ores of iron, manganese, copper, cobalt, nickel, etc.
 They contain large deposits of cement grade limestones.

t e s
6. Correct Answer : C
d a
Answer Justification :
All the above statements are correct. u p
_
 India’s mainland extends between latitudes 8°4’N and 37°6’N and longitudes 68°7’E and 97°25’E,
e
area of the world.
c s
_
 The latitudinal and longitudinal extent of the mainland is about 30°. Despite this fact, the east-
c
west extent appears to be smaller than the north-south extent.
p s
 From Gujarat to Arunachal Pradesh, there is a time lag of two hours. Hence, time along the Standard
e /u
Meridian of India (82°30’E) passing through Mirzapur (in Uttar Pradesh) is taken as the standard

t.m
time for the whole country.

-
o m
d Fr
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 t e s
da
7. Correct Answer : D u p
Answer Justification :
e _
All the above statements are correct.
cs
The Tropic of Cancer passes through eight states in India:
c _
 Gujarat (Jasdan),
 Rajasthan (Kalinjarh), p s
 Madhya Pradesh (Shajapur),
e /u
t.m
 Chhattisgarh (Sonhat),
 Jharkhand (Lohardaga),
 West-Bengal (Krishnanagar), -
 Tripura (Udaipur) and o m
 Mizoram (Champhai).
d Fr
d e
l o a
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8. Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
All the above statements are correct.
Kashmir or Northwestern Himalayas
It comprises a series of ranges such as the Karakoram, Ladakh, Zaskar and Pir Panjal. t e s
The northeastern part of the Kashmir Himalayas is a cold desert, which lies between the Greater d a
Himalayas and the Karakoram ranges.
u p
_
Between the Great Himalayas and the Pir Panjal range, lies the world famous valley of Kashmir and the
e
famous Dal Lake.
c s
Important glaciers of South Asia such as the Baltoro and Siachen are also found in this region.
c _
The Kashmir Himalayas are also famous for Karewa formations, which are useful for the cultivation of
Zafran, a local variety of saffron. p s
e /u
Some of the important passes of the region are Zoji La on the Great Himalayas, Banihal on the Pir Panjal,
Photu La on the Zaskar and Khardung La on the Ladakh range. Some of the important fresh lakes such as Dal
t.m
and Wular and salt water lakes such as Pangong Tso and Tso Moriri are also in this region.
-
o m
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9. Answer Justification :
Bugyals: Bugyals are high altitude alpine grasslands or meadows in Uttaranchal (at an elevation
between 3400m and 4000m). These are referred to as ‘nature’s own gardens’.
The topography of the terrain is either flat or sloped. The surface of these bugyals is covered with natural
green grass and seasonal flowers. They are used by tribal herdsmen to graze their cattle. During the winter
season the alpine meadows remain snow-covered. During summer months, the Bugyals present a riot of
beautiful flowers and grass. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
Bugyals have a very fragile ecosystem. Some examples of Bugyals:
 Auli (near Joshimath) – A premier skii range is located here.
 Gorso t e s
 Kwanri Bugyal
d a
 Bedni
u p
 Panwali and Kush Kalyan
e _
 Dayara
 Munsiyari Bugyal c s
c _
10. Correct Answer : C
p s
Answer Justification :
e /u
Mizoram which is also known as the ‘Molassis basin’ which is made up of soft unconsolidated
deposits.
- t.m
Mizoram is known as LAND OF ROLLING MOUNTAINS, i.e., it has huge number of mountains. Formation of
m
most mountains is accompanied by formation of foreland basin or in simple terms valley type depression
o
Fr
which runs parallel to mountains. These depressions get accumulated with unconsolidated deposits known
as Molassis basin.
Hence, option (c) is correct.
e d
11. Correct Answer : D a d
Answer Justification :
n l o
Brahmaputra. o w
The northern plains are formed by the alluvial deposits brought by the rivers – the Indus, the Ganga and the

D
From the north to the south, these can be divided into three major zones: the Bhabar, the Tarai and the alluvial
plains. The alluvial plains can be further divided into the Khadar and the Bhangar.
Bhabar is a narrow belt ranging between 8-10 km parallel to the Shiwalik foothills at the break-up of the
slope. As a result of this, the streams and rivers coming from the mountains deposit heavy materials of rocks
and boulders, and at times, disappear in this zone.
South of the Bhabar is the Tarai belt, with an approximate width of 10-20 km where most of the streams and
rivers re-emerge without having any properly demarcated channel, thereby, creating marshy and swampy
conditions known as the Tarai. This has a luxurious growth of natural vegetation and houses a varied wildlife.
The south of Tarai is a belt consisting of old and new alluvial deposits known as the Bhangar and
Khadar respectively.
Hence, both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.

12. Correct Answer : D

Answer Justification :
Barind Tract (alternately called the Varendra Tract in English and Borendro Bhumi in Bengali) is the
largest Pleistocene era physiographic unit in the Bengal Basin. Hence, option (d) is correct.
 It covers most of Dinajpur, Rangpur, Pabna, Rajshahi, Bogra, and Joypurhat districts of Rajshahi
Division and Rangpur Division in Bangladesh as well as entirety of Uttar Dinajpur, Dakshin Dinajpur
and most of Maldah districts in West Bengal, India.
 It is made up of several separate sections in the northwestern part of Bangladesh, and, northern part of
West Bengal, India covering a total area of approximately 10,000 square kilometres (3,900 sq mi) of
mostly old alluvium.
 On the eastern edge of the tract is a lower fault escarpment. Through the fault troughs run the little
Jamuna, Atrai and Lower Punarbhaba rivers.
 To the west, the main area is tilted up, and to the east this area is tilted downwards. The climate of the
tract differs from that of much of India, in that more extreme temperature variations (ranging from 45
degrees Celsius down to five degrees Celsius) are encountered there. It is divided into three units: The
Recent Alluvial Fan, the Barind Pleistocene, and the Recent Floodplain.
 These are divided by long, narrow bands of recent alluvium.

13. Correct Answer : D

Answer Justification :
Western coast is mainly divided into following categories
 Kachchh and Kathiawar coast in Gujarat
 Konkan coast in Maharashtra
 Goan coast
 Kanada coast
 Malabar coast in Karnataka and Kerala
The Malabar coast has got certain distinguishing features in the form of ‘Kayals’ (backwaters), which are used
t e s
a
for fishing, inland navigation and also due to its special attraction for tourists. Every year the famous Nehru
d
Trophy Vallamkali (boat race) is held in Punnamada Kayal in Kerala.
Hence, option (d) is correct. u p
e _
14. Correct Answer : B
c s
Answer Justification :
c _
p s
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Hence, option (b) is correct.

15. Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :
 Lakshadweep is the smallest Union Territory of India and is located in The Arabian Sea.
t e s
jurisdiction of Kerala High Court. d a
 It consists of twelve coral atolls, three coral reefs, five banks, and numerous islets, and is under the

 The capital of this union territory is Kavaratti. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. u p

e _
 It is a famous tourist destination and has many states of the art hotels. Tall green coconut palms offer
spectacular beauty and turn this land into a tropical paradise.
c s
_
 The calm waters of the lagoons are home for an exotic underwater marine life that amazes viewers with
c
a play of colors and underwater antics.
p s
 Out in the open sea, Dolphins, Turtles, Tuna, Rays and Flying fish can be sighted. The main islands are
Kavaratti, Agatti, Amini and Minicoy.
e /u
t.m
https://www.mapsofindia.com/maps/lakshadweep/
 The entire island group is built of coral deposits.
-
 There are approximately 36 islands of which 11 are inhabited. Minicoy is the largest island with an area
of 453 sq. km.
o m
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 The entire group of islands is broadly divided by the Ten-degree channel, north of which is the
Amini Island and to the south of the Canannore Island.
e
 The Islands of this archipelago have storm beaches consisting of unconsolidated pebbles, shingles,
d
l o a
cobbles and boulders on the eastern seaboard.

16. Correct Answer : D

w n
Answer Justification :
D o
All the above statements are correct.
Shipki La (Pass)-Shipki La is a mountain pass and border post with a dozen buildings of significant size on
the India-China border. The river Sutlej enters India near this pass.

17. Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :
Important Drainage Patterns
(i) The drainage pattern resembling the branches of a tree is known as “dendritic” the examples of which are
the rivers of northern plain.
(ii) When the rivers originate from a hill and flow in all directions, the drainage pattern is known as
‘radial’. The rivers originating from the Amarkantak range present a good example of it. Hence,
statement 1 is incorrect.
(iii) When the primary tributaries of rivers flow parallel to each other and secondary tributaries join
them at right angles, the pattern is known as ‘trellis’.
(iv) When the rivers discharge their waters from all directions in a lake or depression, the pattern is
know as ‘centripetal’.

18. Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :
 Antecedent Drainage –
o Also called inconsequent drainage.
o A part of a river slope and the surrounding area gets uplifted and the river sticks to its
original slope, cutting through the uplifted portion like a saw forming deep gorges like
[Vertical erosion or Vertical down cutting].
o Examples of antecedent rivers or drainage – Indus, Sutlej, Brahmaputra, and other
Himalayan rivers.
 Superimposed drainage – t e s
o Also called superinduced drainage or epigenetic drainage.
d a
p
o a river flowing over a softer rock stratum reaches the harder basal rocks but continues to follow
u
the initial slope.
e _
maintaining its former drainage pattern. c s
o The stream has enough erosive power that it cuts its way through any kind of bedrock,

c _
o It exhibits discordance with the underlying rock structure as it originally developed on a cover of
p s
rocks that have now disappeared and retains their courses unaffected by the newly exposed
structures.
e /u
o Examples of Superimposed drainage or rivers – The Damodar, the Subarnarekha, the
t.m
Chambal, the Banas, and the rivers flowing at the Rewa Plateau.
-
19. Correct Answer : A
o m
Fr
Answer Justification :
Ganga River System
d
Ganga (Ganges) River system is the largest river system in India. It originates in the Gangotri glaciers. The
e
a d
upstream Bhagirathi joins the other stream named Alaknanda at Devprayag to form River Ganga. Ganga has
tributaries on both banks; its right bank tributaries are the Yamuna (which is a major river), and Son. While
n l o
Gomti, Ghaghara, Gandak, Kosi are some left bank tributaries. Hence, option (a) is correct.

reaches the Bay of Bengal. o w

The Ganges flows through Indian states of Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar and West Bengal. It finally

D
20. Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
All the above statements are correct.
Godavari
The Godavari River covers the second-longest course in India after the Ganga. The river originates at
Triambakeshwar in Maharashtra, and together with its tributaries (Pravara, Indravati, Maner Sabri etc.,)
flows through the states of Maharashtra, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Orissa (Odisha), Telangana,
Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka and Puducherry, to finally flow into the Bay of Bengal. Thanks to its long
course, the river is described as Dakshina Ganga.
t e s
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21. Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
Koyna River and Musi River are tributaries of River Krishna. Hence, option (b) is correct.
Kaveri River
The Kaveri (Cauvery) is a major river in Southern India and originates in Kogadu, Karnataka in the form of a
spring at Brahmagiri Hill at Talakaveri. Also known as the Ganges of the South, it is one of the holiest rivers in
South India. Kaveri River widens as many tributaries such as Hemavati, Moyari, Shimsha, Arkavati,
Honnuhole, Kabini, Bhavani, Noyill and Amaravati join it. It slithers about 800 kilometres across the three
states, Karnataka, Kerala and Tamilnadu, slightly touching Pudducherry and drains into the Bay of Bengal.
The catchment area of Cauvery River has been calculated at 72,000 km2 or 27,700 square miles. The river
generates a number of tributaries, which include the following:
 Hemavati River
 Shimsha River
 Honnuhole River
 Arkavathy River
 Kabini River
 Lakshmana Tirtha River
 Lokapavani River
 Bhavani River
 Amaravati River
 Noyyal River

22. Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :
Tista
Tista or Teesta is one of the important rivers in northeast India. The river is located in the state of Sikkim in
India. It is stated to be the lifeline of Sikkim, running through nearly the whole stretch of the state. On its
itinerary, the river forms the lush green moderate and humid river basins of the Himalayan mountain ranges.
The colour of the waters of this river is emerald green and the river creates the boundary between
West Bengal and Sikkim prior to meeting the Brahmaputra in the form of a tributary in Bangladesh. The
overall length of the Tista River is 315 km (196 miles). A number of Dams have been proposed on the river.
The Tista River has its source in the Cholomo Lake in northern Sikkim.
Hence, option (a) is correct.

23. Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification :
Tributaries of Indus
 The Jhelum, an important tributary of the Indus, rises from a spring at Verinag situated at the foot of the
t e s
Pir Panjal in the south-eastern part of the valley of Kashmir. It flows through Srinagar and the Wular
d a
lake before entering Pakistan through a deep narrow gorge. It joins the Chenab near Jhang in
Pakistan. u p
 The Chenab is the largest tributary of the Indus. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. e _
c s
 The Ravi is another important tributary of the Indus. It rises west of the Rohtang pass in the Kullu
c _
hills of Himachal Pradesh and flows through the Chamba valley of the state. Before entering
s
Pakistan and joining the Chenab near Sarai Sidhu. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
p
e /u
 The Satluj originates in the ‘Raksas tal’ near Mansarovar at an altitude of 4,555 m in Tibet where it is
known as Langchen Khambab. It flows almost parallel to the Indus for about 400 km before entering

enters the Punjab plains. It is an antecedent river.

- t.m
India, and comes out of a gorge at Rupar. It passes through the Shipki La on the Himalayan ranges and

24. Correct Answer : A

o m
Answer Justification :
d Fr
d e
l o a
w n
D o
25. Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
The western coastal plains are an example of submerged coastal plain.
Because of this submergence it is a narrow belt and provides natural conditions for the development of
ports and harbours.
Kandla, Mazagaon, JLN port Navha Sheva, Marmagao, Mangalore, Cochin, etc. are some of the important
natural ports located along the west coast.
The western coastal plains are narrow in the middle and get broader towards north and south. The rivers
flowing through this coastal plain do not form any delta.

26. Correct Answer : D

t e s
Answer Justification :
d a
All the above statements are correct.
u p
from west to the east. e _
Western Disturbances are low-pressure systems, embedded in western winds (westerlies) that flow

c s
 Western Disturbances develop in the mid-latitude region (north of the Tropic of Cancer), not in the
c _
tropical region, therefore they are called as mid latitude storms or extra-tropical storms.
s
 It is a term coined by an Indian Meteorologist for the weather phenomenon which is propagated
p
from the West.
e /u
 The phrase Western Disturbance was first used in published literature in 1947. However, its precursor
Winter Disturbance was coined earlier in 1931.
About Western Disturbance and its significance
- t.m
 A western disturbance is an extratropical storm originating in the Mediterranean region that brings
o m
sudden winter rain to the northwestern parts of the Indian subcontinent.

d Fr
 It is a non-monsoonal precipitation pattern driven by the westerlies.
 The moisture in these storms usually originates over the Mediterranean Sea, the Caspian Sea
and the Black Sea.
d e
l o a
 Extratropical storms are global phenomena with moisture usually carried in the upper atmosphere,

w n
unlike their tropical counterparts where the moisture is carried in the lower atmosphere.
 In the case of the Indian subcontinent, moisture is sometimes shed as rain when the storm system
o
encounters the Himalayas.
D
  Western disturbances are more frequent and stronger in the winter season.
 They are the cause of most winter and pre-monsoon season rainfall across northwest India.
 Precipitation during the winter season has great importance in agriculture, particularly for the rabi crops.

27. Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :
Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ)
 The Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ), known by sailors as the doldrums or the calms
because of its monotonous windless weather, is the area where the northeast and the southeast
trade winds converge.
 It encircles Earth near the thermal equator though its specific position varies seasonally.
 When it lies near the geographic Equator, it is called the near-equatorial trough.
 Where the ITCZ is drawn into and merges with a monsoonial circulation, it is sometimes referred to as
a monsoon trough, a usage that is more common in Australia and parts of Asia.
 The Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) is a low pressure zone located at the equator where
trade winds converge, and so, it is a zone where air tends to ascend. Hence, statement 2 is
incorrect.
 In July, the ITCZ is located around 20°N-25°N latitudes (over the Gangetic plain), sometimes called the
monsoon trough.
 This monsoon trough encourages the development of thermal low over north and northwest India.
 Due to the shift of ITCZ, the trade winds of the southern hemisphere cross the equator between 40°
and 60°E longitudes and start blowing from southwest to northeast due to the Coriolis force. It becomes
southwest monsoon.
 In winter, the ITCZ moves southward, and so the reversal of winds from northeast to south and
southwest, takes place. They are called northeast monsoons.

28. Correct Answer : D

Answer Justification :
What are the striking features of the ‘break’ Monsoon period?
• Normally the Monsoon trough runs from Sri Ganganagar in Rajasthan to Kolkata.
During break Monsoon, the trough shifts closer to the foothills of Himalayas or sometimes not visible
at all. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• Middle of August is most prone to ‘breaks’ and that too longer breaks. Hence, statement 2 is
incorrect. Consequently, Northeast and parts of South India receive good showers while rest of the country
remains mainly dry.
• Rainfall ceases over most parts of India. Heavy Monsoon showers are witnessed over/near the foothills
Himalayas, but not over the entire length simultaneously.
• The Himalayan region to the east of 85°E receives heavy Monsoon showers. Accordingly, Sub Himalayan
West Bengal, Sikkim, Assam and Arunachal Pradesh are more susceptible to heavier rainfall. Bihar, Jharkhand t e s
and West Bengal also receive above normal rainfall during this period.
d a
• In the Peninsular India, Rayalseema and Tamil Nadu receives good thundershowers.
u p
direction and rainfall reduces considerably. e _
• The northern plains witness a drop in humidity levels, the surface winds start blowing from the northwest

c s
• The Monsoon trough normally slopes southward with height because there is a drop in temperature. As
Monsoon in India takes a break, the trough does not show any southward slope.
c _
s
• The pressure gradient at surface levels over the Peninsular India weakens, while it becomes more over the
p
e
https://www.skymetweather.com/content/weather-faqs/what-is-break-monsoon-period/ /u
Gangetic plains. Normally, the reverse happens during the four month-long Monsoon season.

29. Correct Answer : D

- t.m
Answer Justification :
o m
Rainfall: Winter monsoons do not cause rainfall as they move from land to the sea. It is because firstly, they

d Fr
have little humidity; and secondly, due to anti cyclonic circulation on land, the possibility of rainfall from them
reduces. So, most parts of India do not have rainfall in the winter season. However, there are some exceptions
to it:
d e
l o a
 In northwestern India, some weak temperate cyclones from the Mediterranean Sea cause rainfall in
Punjab, Haryana, Delhi and western Uttar Pradesh. The average winter rainfall in Delhi is around 53
w n
mm. In Punjab and Bihar, rainfall remains between 25 mm and 18 mm respectively.

occasionally. D o
 Central parts of India and northern parts of southern Peninsula also get winter rainfall
  Arunachal Pradesh and Assam in the northeastern parts of India also have rains between 25 mm and
50 mm during these winter months.
 During October and November, northeast monsoon while crossing over the Bay of Bengal, picks up
moisture and causes torrential rainfall over the Tamil Nadu coast, southern Andhra Pradesh,
southeast Karnataka and southeast Kerala.
 All the above statements are correct.

30. Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :
Some Famous Local Storms of Hot Weather Season
(i) Mango Shower: Towards the end of summer, there are pre-monsoon showers which are a common
phenomenon in Kerala and coastal areas of Karnataka. Locally, they are known as mango showers since they
help in the early ripening of mangoes.
(ii) Blossom Shower: With this shower, coffee flowers blossom in Kerala and nearby areas.
(iii) Nor Westers: These are dreaded evening thunderstorms in Bengal and Assam. Their notorious nature
can be understood from the local nomenclature of ‘Kalbaisakhi’, a calamity of the month of Baisakh. These
showers are useful for tea, jute and rice cultivation. In Assam, these storms are known as “Bardoli
Chheerha”. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
(iv) Loo: Hot, dry and oppressing winds blowing in the Northern plains from Punjab to Bihar with higher
intensity between Delhi and Patna.

31. Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :
Season of Retreating Monsoon
The months of October and November are known for retreating monsoons.
The retreating southwest monsoon season is marked by clear skies and rise in temperature. The land is
still moist. Owing to the conditions of high temperature and humidity, the weather becomes rather
oppressive. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
This is commonly known as the ‘October heat’. In the second half of October, the mercury begins to fall rapidly,
particularly in northern India. The weather in the retreating monsoon is dry in north India but it is associated
with rain in the eastern part of the Peninsula. Here, October and November are the rainiest months of the year.
The widespread rain in this season is associated with the passage of cyclonic depressions which originate over
the Andaman Sea and manage to cross the eastern coast of the southern Peninsula. These

32. Correct Answer : D

Answer Justification :
Variability of Rainfall
A characteristic feature of rainfall in India is its variability. The variability of rainfall is
computed with the help of the following formula:
where C.V. is the coefficient of variation. t e s
da
u p
e _
cs
The values of coefficient of variation show the change from the mean values of rainfall. The actual rainfall in
some place’s deviates from 20-50 per cent. The values of coefficient of variation show variability of rainfall in
India. c _
p s
 A variability of less than 25 per cent exists on the western coasts, Western Ghats, northeastern

e /u
Peninsula, eastern plains of the Ganga, northeastern India, Uttarakhand and Himachal Pradesh
and south-western part of Jammu and Kashmir. These areas have an annual rainfall of over 100
cm.
- t.m
 A variability of over 50 per cent exists in the western part of Rajasthan, northern part of Jammu
m
and Kashmir and interior parts of the Deccan plateau. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
o
Fr
 These areas have an annual rainfall of less than 50 cm. Rest of India have a variability of 25-50 per
cent and these areas receive an annual rainfall between 50 -100 cm.
e d
33. Correct Answer : A
a d
Answer Justification :
n l o
o w
D
 t e s
da
u p
e _
cs
c _
p s
e /u
34. Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification : - t.m
All the above statements are correct.
o m
Fr
Tropical Moist Deciduous Forests
Climatic Conditions
 Annual rainfall 100 to 200 cm.
e d


Mean annual temperature of about 27°C
a d
 n o
The average annual relative humidity of 60 to 75 per cent.
l
Spring (between winter and summer) and summer are dry.
Characteristics
o w
D
  The trees drop their leaves during the spring and early summer when sufficient moisture is not
available.
 The general appearance is bare in extreme summers (April-May).
 Tropical moist deciduous forests present irregular top storey [25 to 60 m].
 Heavily buttressed trees and fairly complete undergrowth.
 These forests occupy a much larger area than the evergreen forests but large tracts under these
forests have been cleared for cultivation.
Distribution
 Belt running along the Western Ghats surrounding the belt of evergreen forests.
 A strip along the Shiwalik range including terai and bhabar from 77° E to 88° E.
 Manipur and Mizoram.
 Hills of eastern Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh.
 Chota Nagpur Plateau.
 Most of Odisha.
 Parts of West Bengal and
 Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

35. Correct Answer : D

Answer Justification :
Tropical Evergreen and Semi Evergreen Forests
 These forests are found in the western slope of the Western Ghats, hills of the northeastern
region and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
 They are found in warm and humid areas with an annual precipitation of over 200 cm and mean
annual temperature above 22 degree C.
 Tropical evergreen forests are well stratified, with layers closer to the ground and are covered with
shrubs and creepers, with short structured trees followed by tall variety of trees.
 In these forests, trees reach great heights up to 60 m or above.
 There is no definite time for trees to shed their leaves, flowering and fruition. Hence, option (d)
is correct.
 As such these forests appear green all the year round. Species found in these forests include
rosewood, mahogony, aini, ebony, etc.

36. Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification :
About the Sholas:
 The Shola vegetation are tropical montane forests found in the Western Ghats separated by rolling
grasslands in high altitudes.
 It is a stunted forest growth of diverse grass species and made up of dwarf trees growing 25-30
feet. t e s
 Vegetation is double layered storey with closed canopy which hardly permits a single ray of d a
sunlight to penetrate in the natural vegetation.
u p
_
 Compared to 1973, Shola grasslands areas have seen a 7% decline by 2014. Hence, option (c) is
e
correct.
c s
 According to the report, the change in vegetation will result in loss of water sources and is already
c _
leading to massive landslides.
p s
 Invasive species like eucalyptus, tea plantations and wattle and naturalized alien species like Lantana

impact on the Shola forest and grasslands. e /u

camara, Opuntia stricta, Parthenium hysterophorus and Senna spectabilis have had a serious

Importance of Sholas:
- t.m
 They serve as huge water harvesting and storage structures and are rich store houses of
biodiversity.
o m
Fr
 Many of the rivers in Kerala and Tamil Nadu originate from the Shola grasslands and are perennial.
 With depletion of Sholas and other forests, the streams that supply water to them dry up in summer.
d
37. Correct Answer : D d e
Answer Justification :
l o a
n
The National Commission on Agriculture (1976) has classified social forestry into three categories.
w
o
These are Urban forestry, Rural forestry and Farm forestry. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
D
  Urban forestry pertains to the raising and management of trees on public and privately owned lands in
and around urban centres such as green belts, parks, roadside avenues, industrial and commercial
green belts, etc.
 Rural forestry lays emphasis on promotion of agro-forestry and community-forestry.
o Agro-forestry is the raising of trees and agriculture crops on the same land inclusive of
the waste patches. It combines forestry with agriculture, thus, altering the simultaneous
production of food, fodder, fuel, timber and fruit.
o Community forestry involves the raising of trees on public or community land such as the village
pasture and temple land, roadside, canal bank, strips along railway lines, and schools etc.
Community forestry programme aims at providing benefits to the community as a whole.
Community forestry provides a means under which the people of landless classes can associate
themselves in tree raising and thus, get those benefits which otherwise are restricted for
landowners.
 Farm forestry is a term applied to the process under which farmers grow trees for commercial
and non-commercial purposes on their farm lands.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

38. Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :
Since Independence, scientific surveys of soils have been conducted by various agencies.
Soil Survey of India, established in 1956, made comprehensive studies of soils in selected areas like in the
Damodar Valley.
The National Bureau of Soil Survey and the Land Use Planning an Institute under the control of the Indian
Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) did a lot of studies on Indian soils. In their effort to study soil and to
make it comparable at the international level, the ICAR has classified the Indian soils on the basis of their
nature and character as per the United States Department of Agriculture (USDA) Soil Taxonomy.

t e s
d a
u p
e _
c s
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. c _
p s
39. Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification : e /u
All the above statements are correct.
- t.m
The black color is due to the presence of a small proportion of titaniferous magnetite or iron and black

om
constituents of the parent rock.
Black soils (Vertisols)
 Black soils are very dark and have a very high clay
r
Fandcontent. They have a high moisture retention
capacity. They become extremely hard on drying
e d sticky on wetting. Hence, they are very difficult to
cultivate and manage.
These soils cover an area of about 74 a
d

l o million ha, mainly in the central, western and southern states of
nare used for growing cotton, millets, soybean, sorghum, pigeon
India. They are inherently very fertile.
 w
Do
Under rainfed conditions, they
pea, etc.
  Under irrigated conditions, they can be used for a variety of other crops, such as sugar cane, wheat,
tobacco and citrus crops.
 These soils are also known as the ‘Regur Soil’ or the ‘Black Cotton Soil’.
 The black soils are generally clayey, deep and impermeable.
 They swell and become sticky when wet and shrink when dried. So, during the dry season, these soils
develop wide cracks. Thus, there occurs a kind of ‘self-ploughing’.
 Because of this character of slow absorption and loss of moisture, the black soil retains the moisture for
a very long time, which helps the crops, especially, the rain fed ones, to sustain even during the dry
season.
 Chemically, the black soils are rich in lime, iron, magnesia and alumina. They also contain potash. But
they lack in phosphorous, nitrogen and organic matter. The colour of the soil ranges from deep black to
grey.

40. Correct Answer : D

Answer Justification :
All the above statements are correct.
Laterite Soil
Laterite has been derived from the Latin word ‘Later’ which means brick. The laterite soils develop in areas
with high temperature and high rainfall. These are the result of intense leaching due to tropical rains. With rain,
lime and silica are leached away, and soils rich in iron oxide and aluminium compound are left behind. Humus
content of the soil is removed fast by bacteria that thrives well in high temperature. These soils are poor in
organic matter, nitrogen, phosphate and calcium, while iron oxide and potash are in excess. Hence, laterites
are not suitable for cultivation; however, application of manures and fertilisers are required for making the soils
fertile for cultivation.
Distribution
 Regions of laterite soil in the country are:
o It is found in patches in Western Ghats (Goa and Maharashtra).
o In the state of Orissa, in the Eastern Ghats,
o Amarkantak plateau region of MP
o Panchmahal district of Gujarat;
o Santhal Pangana divisions of Jharkhand

41. Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification :
All the above statements are correct.
Peaty Soils
They are found in the areas of heavy rainfall and high humidity, where there is a good growth of
vegetation. Thus, large quantity of dead organic matter accumulates in these areas, and this gives a rich
humus and organic content to the soil. Organic matter in these soils may go even up to 40-50 per cent.
These soils are normally heavy and black in colour. At many places, they are alkaline also. It occurs widely in t e s
the northern part of Bihar, southern part of Uttarakhand and the coastal areas of West Bengal, Odisha and d a
Tamil Nadu.
u p
Peaty and marshy soils (Histosols)
e _
Peaty and marshy soils are formed by plants growing in the humid regions under permanentlyswaterlogged
_ c coast of
conditions. They are found in Kerala, Orissa, West Bengal (Sundarbans) and along the South-East
s
Tamil Nadu. Where properly drained and fertilized, these soils often produce a very goodc rice crop.
42. Correct Answer : B / u p
Answer Justification :
m e
AGRO-ECOLOGICAL ZONES t .
-
Agriculture is highly dependent on soils and climate. The ever-increasing need for food to support the growing
population in the country demands a systematic appraisal of o itsm
soil and climate resources in order to prepare
F r
effective land-use plans. India has a variety of landscapes and climate conditions and this is reflected in the
development of different soils and types of vegetation.dBased on 50 years of climate data and an up-to-date
e20 agro-ecological zones (AEZs), as shown in Figure 2.
soil database, the country has been divided into
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. a d
n l o
w
Do
Each AEZ is as uniform as possible in terms of physiography, climate, length of growing period and
soil type for macrolevel land-use planning and effective transfer of technology.
http://www.fao.org/3/a0257e/A0257E02.htm
t e s
43. Correct Answer : D d a
Answer Justification :
u p
All the above statements are correct.
e _
There are two main cropping seasons, namely kharif (April–September) and rabi (October–March).
c s
_
The major kharif crops include rice, sorghum, pearl millet, maize, cotton, sugar cane, soybean and
c
p s
groundnut, and the rabi crops are wheat, barley, gram, linseed, rapeseed and mustard.
With its good range of climates and soils, India has a good potential for growing a wide range of horticultural

aromatic crops, spices and plantation crops. e /u

crops such as fruits, vegetables, potato, tropical tuber crops, mushrooms, ornamental crops, medicinal and

gross cropped area (Figure 1). - t.m

Foodgrain (cereals and pulses) crops dominate the cropping pattern and account for about 60 percent of total

o m
d Fr
d e
l o a
w n
D o
http://www.fao.org/3/a0257e/A0257E02.htm

44. Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification :
Tsunami
 Earthquakes and volcanic eruptions that cause the sea-floor to move abruptly resulting in sudden
displacement of ocean water in the form of high vertical waves are called tsunamis (harbor waves) or
seismic sea waves.
 Normally, the seismic waves cause only one instantaneous vertical wave; but, after the initial
disturbance, a series of after waves are created in the water that oscillate between high crest and low
trough in order to restore the water level.
 The speed of wave in the ocean depends upon the depth of water. It is more in the shallow water
than in the ocean deep. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
 As a result of this, the impact of tsunami is less over the ocean and more near the coast where they
cause large-scale devastations. Therefore, a ship at sea is not much affected by tsunami and it is
difficult to detect a tsunami in the deeper parts of sea.
 It is so because over deep water the tsunami has very long wave-length and limited wave-
t e s
height. Thus, a tsunami wave raises the ship only a metre or two and each rise and fall takes several
d a
minutes.
u p
 As opposed to this, when a tsunami enters shallow water, its wave-length gets reduced and the period
remains unchanged, which increases the wave height. e _
c s
 Sometimes, this height can be up to 15m or more, which causes large-scale destructions along the
c _
shores. Thus, these are also called Shallow Water Waves. Tsunamis are frequently observed along the
s
Pacific ring of fire, particularly along the coast of Alaska, Japan, Philippines, and other islands of
p
Southeast Asia, Indonesia, Malaysia, Myanmar, Sri Lanka, and India etc.
e /u
45. Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
- t.m
Tropical Cyclone
o m
Tropical cyclones are intense low-pressure areas confined to the area lying between 30° N and 30° S latitudes,

d Fr
in the atmosphere around which high velocity winds blow. Horizontally, it extends up to 500-1,000 km and
vertically from surface to 12-14 km. A tropical cyclone or hurricane is like a heat engine that is energised by the
e
release of latent heat on account of the condensation of moisture that the wind gathers after moving over the
d
oceans and seas.
l o a
There are differences of opinion among scientists about the exact mechanism of a tropical cyclone.
w n
However, some initial conditions for the emergence of a tropical cyclone are:

statement 1 is incorrect. D o
i) Large and continuous supply of warm and moist air that can release enormous latent heat. Hence,
(ii) Strong Coriolis force that can prevent filling of low pressure at the centre (absence of Coriolis force
near the equator prohibits the formation of tropical cyclone between 0°-5° latitude). Hence, statement 2 is
incorrect.
(iii) Unstable condition through the troposphere that creates local disturbances around which a cyclone
develops.
(iv) Finally, absence of strong vertical wind wedge, which disturbs the vertical transport of latent heat.

46. Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification :
Types of Droughts
Meteorological Drought: It is a situation when there is a prolonged period of inadequate rainfall marked with
mal-distribution of the same over time and space.
Agricultural Drought: It is also known as soil moisture drought, characterised by low soil moisture that is
necessary to support the crops, thereby resulting in crop failures. Moreover, if an area has more than 30 per
cent of its gross cropped area under irrigation, the area is excluded from the drought-prone category.
Hydrological Drought: It results when the availability of water in different storages and reservoirs like
aquifers, lakes, reservoirs, etc. falls below what the precipitation can replenish. Hence, option (c) is
correct.
Ecological Drought: When the productivity of a natural ecosystem fails due to shortage of water and as a
consequence of ecological distress, damages are induced in the ecosystem.

47. Correct Answer : D

Answer Justification :
All the above statements are correct.
About Rice
Climatic Requirements
In India rice is grown under widely varying conditions of altitude and climate. Rice cultivation in India
extends from 8 to35ºN latitude and from sea level to as high as 3000 meters. Rice crop needs a hot and
humid climate. It is best suited to regions which have high humidity, prolonged sunshine and an
assured supply of water. The average temperature required throughout the life period of the crop
ranges from 21 to 37º C.
Maximum temp which the crop can tolerate 40C to 42 C.
Nutritional value of Rice
Rice is a nutritional staple food which provides instant energy as its most important component is carbohydrate
(starch). On the other hand, rice is poor in nitrogenous substances with average composition of these
substances being only 8 per cent and fat content or lipids only negligible, i.e., 1per cent and due to this reason,
it is considered as a complete food for eating. Rice flour is rich in starch and is used for making various food
materials. It is also used in some instances by brewers to make alcoholic malt. Likewise, rice straw mixed with
other materials is used to produce porcelain, glass and pottery. Rice is also used in manufacturing of paper
pulp and livestock bedding. t e s
d a
48. Correct Answer : D
u p
Answer Justification :
e _
All the above statements are correct.
About Jute c s
c _
 Jute is an important natural fibre crop in India next to cotton. In trade and industry, jute and mesta crop
together known as raw jute as their uses are almost same.
p s
source of raw material for packaging industries only. e /u
 Raw jute plays an important role in the country’s economy. Raw jute was originally considered as a

- t.m
 But it has now emerged as a versatile raw material for diverse applications, such as, textile
industries, paper industries, building and automotive industries, use as soil saver, use as
decorative and furnishing materials, etc.
o m
Fr
 Raw jute being bio-degradable and annually renewable source, it is considered as an environment-
friendly crop and it helps in the maintenance of the environment and ecological balance.
d
 Further attraction of Jute lies in its easy availability, inexhaustible quantity at a comparatively cheaper
e
d
rate. Moreover, it can easily be blended with other natural and manmade fibres.
a
https://farmer.gov.in/cropstaticsjute.aspx
n l o
49. Correct Answer : A
o w
Answer Justification :
D
About Maize
 Maize (Zea mays L) is one of the most versatile emerging crops having wider adaptability under varied
agro-climatic conditions.
 Globally, maize is known as queen of cereals because it has the highest genetic yield potential
among the cereals.
 It is cultivated on nearly 150 m ha in about 160 countries having wider diversity of soil, climate,
biodiversity and management practices that contributes 36 % (782 m t) in the global grain production.
 The United States of America (USA) is the largest producer of maize contributes nearly 35 % of
the total production in the world and maize is the driver of the US economy. Hence, statement 3 is
incorrect.
 The USA has the highest productivity (> 9.6 t ha-1 ) which is double than the global average (4.92 t ha-
1). Whereas, the average productivity in India is 2.43 t ha-1.
 Maize can be grown successfully in variety of soils ranging from loamy sand to clay loam.
 However, soils with good organic matter content having high water holding capacity with neutral pH are
considered good for higher productivity.
 Being a sensitive crop to moisture stress particularly excess soil moisture and salinity stresses; it is
desirable to avoid low lying fields having poor drainage and also the field having higher salinity.
 Therefore, the fields having provision of proper drainage should be selected for cultivation of maize.

50. Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :
Coffee Industry and Exports
Introduction
In India, coffee is grown in regions that receive 2,500-4,000 mm rainfall for more than 100 days, followed
by a continuous dry period of a similar duration. Coffee growing areas in the country have diverse climatic
conditions, which are suitable for the cultivation of different varieties of coffee.
Key Markets and Export Destinations
 India is the third-largest producer and exporter of coffee in Asia, and the sixth-largest producer
and fifth-largest exporter of coffee in the world. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
 The country accounts for 3.14% (2019-20) of the global coffee production.
 The coffee production stood at 299,300 million tonnes (MT) during 2019-20P.
 The coffee production during 2020-21 is estimated at 342,000 million tonnes (MT).
Export of Coffee from India
 The total coffee export was US$ 738.86 million between April 2019 and March 2020.
Coffee Board of India
 The Coffee Board of India is engaged in the research, development, extension, quality upgrade, and
domestic and international promotion of Indian coffee. Since 2002, the board has been conducting the
India International Coffee Festival, a biennial event held in India in collaboration with other industry
stakeholders. t e s
https://www.ibef.org/exports/coffee-industry-in-india.aspx
d a
u p
51. Correct Answer : C
e _
Answer Justification :
c s
Nipah virus (NiV) is a zoonotic virus (it is transmitted from animals to humans) and can also be transmitted
c _
through contaminated food or directly between people. In infected people, it causes a range of illnesses from
s
asymptomatic (subclinical) infection to acute respiratory illness and fatal encephalitis. The virus can also cause
p
e /u
severe disease in animals such as pigs, resulting in significant economic losses for farmers.
Although Nipah virus has caused only a few known outbreaks in Asia, it infects a wide range of animals and

t.m
causes severe disease and death in people, making it a public health concern.
-
(subclinical) to acute respiratory infection and fatal encephalitis.
o m depending on local
F r
capabilities for epidemiological surveillance and clinical management.
d
it bats of the Pteropodidae family are thea de host of Nipah virus.
can also be transmitted directly from human-to-human.
natural

supportive care. n lo
Nipah virus was first recognizedo inw1999 during an outbreak among pig farmers in, Malaysia. Hence,
statement 2 is incorrect. D
No new outbreaks have been reported in Malaysia since 1999.
The incubation period (interval from infection to the onset of symptoms) is believed to range from 4 to
14 days.
https://www.who.int/news-room/fact-sheets/detail/nipah-virus

52. Correct Answer : D

Answer Justification :
Foundational agreements between India and the US:
So far, India has signed three foundational agreements:
1. The Logistics Exchange Memorandum of Agreement (LEMOA).
2. The Communications Compatibility and Security Agreement (COMCASA).
3. The General Security of Military Information Agreement (GSOMIA) was signed a long time ago. An
extension to the GSOMIA, the Industrial Security Annex (ISA), was signed at the last 2+2 dialogue.
What is 2+2 Dialogue?
The 2+2 dialogue is the highest-level institutional mechanism between India and USA that brings together the
perspectives of the two countries on foreign policy, defence and strategic issues.
The new dialogue format was agreed to between the India and the US during the visit of Prime Minister
Narendra Modi to Washington D.C. in June, 2017.
The dialogue mechanism includes defence and foreign ministers of the two countries.
It replaced India-U.S. Strategic and Commercial Dialogue for trade and commercial issues.

t e s
d a
Hence, option (d) is correct.
u p
https://epaper.thehindu.com/Home/ShareArticle?OrgId=GRM8UVL39.1&imageview=0
e _
53. Correct Answer : B c s
Answer Justification : c _
p s
Government of India is implementing the Border Area Development Programme (BADP) through the State

near the international border. e /u

Governments, as a major intervention to meet the developmental needs, and wellbeing of the people living

- t.m
The Border Area Development Programme (BADP) is an initiative of the Ministry of Home Affairs,
Government of India and aims at meeting special developmental needs and well-being of the people living in
m
remote and inaccessible areas near the International Boundary (IB). Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
o
Fr
The Programme was a 100% centrally sponsored gap filling programme till 2015-16. However, from 2016-17,
on the recommendations of the Sub-Group of Chief Ministers, it has been classified as a Core Centrally
d
Sponsored Scheme (CSS) and is now part of the National Development Agenda.
e
a d
The funding pattern of BADP (like other Core CSSs), in respect of 8 North Eastern States & 3 Himalayan
States is in the ratio 90:10 (Centre Share: State Share) and in respect of 6 other States is in the ratio 60:40.
n l o
The new funding pattern has been implemented from the financial year 2016-17.
w
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1562714
o
D
54. Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
The Houthi movement, officially called Ansar Allah and colloquially simply Houthis, is an Islamist political and
armed movement that emerged from Saada in northern Yemen in the 1990s. The Houthi movement is a
predominately Zaidi Shia force, whose leadership is drawn largely from the Houthi tribe. Hence, option (c) is
correct.

https://www.bbc.com/news/world-middle-east-58454674

55. Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :
The National Mission on Edible Oil-Oil Palm (NMEO-OP) is a new centrally sponsored scheme that was
announced by the Prime Minister during his Independence Day speech in 2021.
 The scheme basically aims at self-reliance in edible oil and has been allocated an outlay of Rs. 11,040
crore over a five-year period.
o Out of this, the centre will provide Rs 8,844 crore and the states’ share is Rs 2,196 crore.
 The aim of the scheme is to raise the domestic production of palm oil by three times to 11.20 lakh
tonnes by 2025-26 and to 28 lakh tonnes by 2029-30.
 The scheme has a special focus on the Andaman and Nicobar Islands and the Northeastern
region of India.
 The scheme has been announced at a time when the prices of edible oils have been rising over the
past few months.
o There was a 52% hike in the prices in July 2021 compared to the same time last year.
 It is proposed to have an additional 6.5 lakh hectares for palm oil by 2025-26. The ultimate target is to
reach 10 lakh hectares. t e s
 The National Mission on Oilseeds and Oil Palm (NMOOP) had been launched by the GOI In 2014-15. d a
From 2018-19, the NMOOP was merged with the National Food Security Mission (NFSM) as NFSM-
u p
OS&OP. The new scheme NMEO-OP will subsume the NFSMOS& OP.
e _
NMEO-OP Features
c s
_
Under this mission, farmers who opt for palm oil cultivation will receive price assurance from the
c
government which will hedge the farmers from price volatility.
p s
 This is a Minimum Support Price-type mechanism and the government will fix this at 14.3 per cent of
crude palm oil (CPO) price.
 This will eventually go up to 15.3%. e /u
- t.m
 The scheme has a sunset clause which is November 1, 2037. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
 This price assurance given to the farmers is called the Viability Price (VP).
m
o VP is the annual average CPO price of the last 5 years adjusted with the wholesale price index
o
to be multiplied by 14.3 %.
Fr
 Assistance for planting material for oil palm has been increased from Rs 12,000 per ha to Rs.29000 per
d
ha.
d e
l o a
 Maintenance and intercropping interventions also see a substantial increase.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1746942

w n
D o
56. Answer Justification :
The Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC) was constituted by an Executive Order of the Union
Government as a non-statutory apex body under the Ministry of Finance in 2010. The Raghuram Rajan
Committee (2008) on financial sector reforms first proposed the creation of FSDC.
FSDC – Council Members
 The finance minister is the Chairman of the FSDC. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
 Members of FSDC include Heads of the Financial Sector Regulators listed below:
o Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
o Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDA)
o Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
o Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA)
 Other members are Finance Secretary, Chief Economic Advisor and Secretary of the Department of
Financial Services.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1680793

57. Correct Answer : D

Answer Justification :
Durand Line
 Durand Line is the 2,670-kilometre-long international land border between Afghanistan and
Pakistan.
 The agreement demarcating the Durand Line was signed on November 12, 1893 between the British
civil servant Sir Henry Mortimer Durand and Amir Abdur Rahman, then the Afghan ruler.
 The line cut through Pashtun tribal areas on both sides of the border.
 The line stretches from the Afghanistan’s border with China to Afghanistan’s border with Iran.
 With independence in 1947, Pakistan inherited the Durand Line.
Hence, option (d) is correct.

t e s
d a
u p
e _
c s
c _
p s
/u
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/durand-line-friction-point-between-afghanistan-pakistan-7485631/
e
58. Correct Answer : B t . m
Answer Justification : -
Kigali Amendment and Ozone Depleting Substances:
r om and production of hydrofluorocarbons
1. It is an international agreement to gradually reduce the consumption
(HFCs).
d F
1. chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), halons, carbond e
2. Ozone-depleting substances are chemicals that destroy the earth’s protective ozone layer. They include:
tetrachloride (CCl4), methyl chloroform (CH3CCl3), hydro
o a
Bromo fluorocarbons (HBFCs), hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs), methyl bromide (CH3Br),
bromochloromethane (CH2BrCl) nl

international law. Hence, statement o w agreement designed to create rights and obligations in
3. Kigali Amendment is a legally binding
D 1 is incorrect.
4. While HFCs do not deplete the stratospheric ozone layer, they have high global warming potential
ranging from 12 to 14,000, which has an adverse impact on climate.
https://www.financialexpress.com/opinion/cooling-the-planet-cutting-hfc-use-good-new-challenges-to-ozone-
emerging/2320663/

59. Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :
About Deputy Speaker:
 Article 93 of the Constitution provides for the election of both the Speaker and the Deputy
Speaker.
 The constitutional office of the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha is more symbolic of parliamentary
democracy than some real authority.
 There is no need to resign from their original party though as a Deputy Speaker, they have to remain
impartial.
Roles and functions: They act as the presiding officer in case of leave or absence caused by death or illness
of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
Election:
 Usually, the Deputy Speaker is elected in the first meeting of the Lok Sabha after the General elections
from amongst the members of the Lok Sabha.
 It is by convention that position of Deputy Speaker is offered to opposition party in India.
Tenure and removal:
 They hold office until either they cease to be a member of the Lok Sabha or they resign.
 They can be removed from office by a resolution passed in the Lok Sabha by an effective
majority of its members.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/long-wait-for-a-deputy-speaker-for-lok-sabha/article36252613.ece

60. Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification :
All the above statements are correct.
About Pulicat Lake and Nelapattu bird sanctuary
 Nelapattu bird sanctuary is considered one of the biggest habitats for some hundreds of pelicans and
other birds. Located about 20 km north of the Pulicat Lake on the Andhra Pradesh-Tamil Nadu
border, the sanctuary is spread in about 459 hectares.
 Pulicat Lake is the second largest brackish water lake or lagoon in India, after Chilika Lake. It
straddles the border of Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu states with over 96% of it in Andhra Pradesh.
The lake encompasses the Pulicat Lake Bird Sanctuary. The barrier island of Sriharikota separates
the lake from the Bay of Bengal and is home to the Satish Dhawan Space Centre. Two rivers which
feed the lagoon are the Arani River at the southern tip and the Kalangi River from the northwest, in
t e s
addition to some smaller streams. The Buckingham Canal, a navigation channel, is part of the
d a
lagoon on its western side.
 Flamingo Festival is held every year to promote tourism in Pulicat and Nelapattu. u p
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/andhra-pradesh/winged-visitors-begin-reaching-pulicat- e _
lake/article36263777.ece
c s
c _
61. Correct Answer : D
p s
Answer Justification :
All the above statements are correct. /u
e
The Competition Act
The Competition Act, 2002, as amended by the Competition (Amendment) t . m
- Act, 2007, follows the
philosophy of modern competition laws. The Act prohibits anticompetitive agreements, abuse of
dominant position by enterprises and regulates combinations
r om (acquisition, acquiring of control and

Competition Commission of India d F

M&A), which causes or likely to cause an appreciable adverse effect on competition within India.

The objectives of the Act are sought to be achievedethrough the Competition Commission of India, which has
been established by the Central Government witha deffect from 14th October 2003. CCI consists of a
Chairperson and 6 Members appointed by lthe
n o Central Government.
o w of consumers and ensure freedom of trade in the markets of India.
It is the duty of the Commission to eliminate practices having adverse effect on competition, promote and
sustain competition, protect the interests
D
The Commission is also required to give opinion on competition issues on a reference received from a
statutory authority established under any law and to undertake competition advocacy, create public awareness
and impart training on competition issues.
https://www.cci.gov.in/about-cci

62. Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification :
All the above statements are correct.
About Indian SARS-CoV-2 Consortium on Genomics (INSACOG):
 The Indian SARS-CoV-2 Genomics Consortium (INSACOG) is jointly initiated by the Union Ministry of
Health and Family Welfare, and Department of Biotechnology (DBT) with Council for Scientific &
Industrial Research (CSIR) and Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR).
 It is a consortium of 28 National Laboratories to monitor the genomic variations in the SARS-CoV-2.
 It carries out whole genome sequencing of SARS-CoV-2 virus across the nation, aiding in
understanding the spread and evolution of the virus.
 INSACOG also aims to focus on sequencing of clinical samples to understand the disease dynamics
and severity.
About GISAID (Global initiative on sharing avian influenza data):
 GISAID, established in 2008, provides open-access to genomic data of influenza viruses and the
coronavirus responsible for the COVID-19 pandemic.
 The genome sequences of SARS-CoV-2 available on GISAID enabled global responses to the
pandemic, including the development of the first vaccines and diagnostic tests.
https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/governance/in-depth-what-ails-india-s-coronavirus-genome-
sequencingsystem-
78804#:~:text=India%20formed%20the%20Indian%20SARS,has%20gone%20up%20t
o%2028.&text=Delhi%20has%20sequenced%20and%20analysed%205%2C764%20samples%2

63. Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :
About BRICS and its importance:
1. BRICS is an acronym for the grouping of the world’s leading emerging economies, namely Brazil,
Russia, India, China and South Africa.
2. The acronym “BRICS” was initially formulated in 2001 by economist Jim O’Neill, of Goldman Sachs,
in a report on growth prospects for the economies of Brazil, Russia, India and China – which together
represented a significant share of the world’s production and population.
3. The importance of BRICS is self-evident: it represents 42% of the world’s population, 30% of the land
area, 24% of global GDP and 16% of international trade.
4. The BRICS seeks to deepen, broaden and intensify cooperation within the grouping and among the
individual countries for more sustainable, equitable and mutually beneficial development.
t e s
5. BRICS takes into consideration each member’s growth, development and poverty objectives to ensure
d a
relations are built on the respective country’s economic strengths and to avoid competition where possible.
6. During the sixth BRICS Summit in Fortaleza, Brazil (2014), the leaders signed the Agreement for u p
establishing the New Development Bank (NDB).
e _
s
7. BRICS nations signed BRICS Contingent Reserve Arrangement (CRA) in 2014 as part of Fortaleza
c
Declaration at Sixth BRICS summit.
c _
confronted by short term balance of payment crises. p s
8. Contingency Reserve Arrangement, aimed at ensuring liquidity for member-states when they are

India will be hosting the BRICS Summit after 2012 and 2016. e /u
9. The 13th BRICS Summit is going to be held under India’s Chairship in 2021. It will be the third time that

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

https://brics2021.gov.in/13th-summit - t.m
o m
Fr
64. Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
All the above statements are correct.
e d
d
National Testing Agency (NTA) has been established as a premier, specialist, autonomous and self-
a
l o
sustained testing organization to conduct entrance examinations for admission/fellowship in higher
educational institutions. n
o w challenge in terms
D
of matching with research based international standards, efficiency, transparency and error free delivery. The
National Testing Agency is entrusted to address all such issues using best in every field, from test preparation,
to test delivery and to test marking.
The NTA conducts entrance exams for admissions and fellowships to institutes of higher education in the
country.
1. The NTA was established in 2017.
2. It has become one of the largest competitive exams testing agencies in the world today.
3. It is mandated with creating an exam system that is scientific and at par with global standards.
4. It is registered under the Indian Societies Registration Act, 1860.
5. It will relieve the CBSE, AICTE and other bodies from their exam-conducting responsibilities.
6. It now conducts:
 JEE (Main)
 NEET – UG
 GPAT
 CMAT
 UGC – NET (assessment for fellowship)
7. The NTA is administered by its Governing Body.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1509156

65. Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification :
About Deepor Beel:
1. Deepor Beel is a Ramsar site and a part of it is also wildlife sanctuary (Rani Reserve forest) in Guwahati,
Assam.
2. Deepor Beel is a permanent freshwater lake, in an earlier channel of the Brahmaputra River, to the south of
the main river.
3. The site is an important destination for many migratory species of birds
Hence, option (c) is correct.
What is Ramsar convention?
It is an international treaty for the conservation and wise use of wetlands, named after the Iranian city of
Ramsar, on the Caspian Sea, where the treaty was signed on 2 February 1971.
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/other-states/assam-villagers-tell-wetlands-tragic-talethrough-
photos/article35927316.ece

66. Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :
The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) is a permanent intergovernmental international organisation,
the creation of which was announced on 15 June 2001 in Shanghai (China) by the Republic of Kazakhstan, the
People's Republic of China, the Kyrgyz Republic, the Russian Federation, the Republic of Tajikistan, and the
Republic of Uzbekistan. It was preceded by the Shanghai Five mechanism.
t e s
Which countries are members of the SCO?
 Currently, eight countries enjoy the status of the SCO full members: India, Kazakhstan, China, d a
Kyrgyzstan, Russia, Pakistan, Tajikistan and Uzbekistan; Hence, option (a) is correct. u p
 four countries — Afghanistan, Belarus, Iran and Mongolia — have an observer status with the
e _
SCO,
c s
_
 and six countries — Azerbaijan, Armenia, Cambodia, Nepal, Turkey and Sri Lanka — have a
c
dialogue partner status.
p s
The Heads of State Council (HSC) is the highest decision-making body in the SCO. It meets once every year
/u
to take decisions and give instructions on all important issues regarding SCO activity.
e
t.m
The Organisation has two permanent bodies — the Secretariat in Beijing (China) and the Regional Anti-
Terrorist Structure (RATS) in Tashkent.
http://eng.sectsco.org/docs/about/faq.html -
o m
67. Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
d Fr
d e
An Infrastructure Investment Trust (InvITs) is Collective Investment Scheme similar to a mutual fund, which
enables direct investment of money from individual and institutional investors in infrastructure projects to earn
a small portion of the income as return.
l o a
w n
The InvIT is designed as a tiered structure with Sponsor setting up the InvIT which in turn invests into the
eligible infrastructure projects either directly or via special purpose vehicles (SPVs).
D o
The InvITs are regulated by the SEBI (Infrastructure Investment Trusts) Regulations, 2014. Hence,
statement 2 is incorrect.
https://www.nseindia.com/products-services/infrastructure-investment-trusts-invit
As per the SEBI regulations, InvITs must invest at least 80% of their assets in projects that are completed and
revenue-generating. InvITs cannot invest more than 10% of their assets in under-construction projects.
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
This lowers the risk for investors as this reduces the biggest risk associated with the infrastructure sector i.e.
delay in completion, due to lack of regulatory approvals, financial closure etc.
The market regulator Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) requires InvITs to distribute a minimum of
90% of their cash earnings to investors semi-annually making them ideal for long-term steady cash flow-
seeking investors.
https://www.forbes.com/advisor/in/investing/what-are-invits-and-how-do-they-work/

68. Correct Answer : D

Answer Justification :
All the above statements are correct.
What is a core sector?
The Eight Core Industries comprise 40.27 per cent of the weight of items included in the Index of
Industrial Production (IIP). The eight core industries are: Coal, Crude oil, Natural Gas, Refinery products,
fertilizers, steel, cement and electricity.
IIP:
 The Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is an index which details out the growth of various sectors in an
economy such as mining, electricity and manufacturing.
 The all India IIP is a composite indicator that measures the short-term changes in the volume of
production of a basket of industrial products during a given period with respect to that in a chosen base
period.
 It is compiled and published monthly by the Central Statistical Organisation(CSO) six weeks after
the reference month ends.
https://www.thehindu.com/business/core-sector-logs-94-growth/article36211840.ece

69. Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :
What is BCG Vaccine?
Bacillus Calmette–Guérin (BCG) vaccine is a vaccine primarily used against tuberculosis (TB). Hence,
option (b) is correct.
 BCG was developed by modifying a strain of Mycobacterium bovis (that causes TB in cattle). It was
first used in humans in 1921.
 Currently, BCG is the only licensed vaccine available for the prevention of TB.
 It is the world’s most widely used vaccine with about 120 million doses every year and has an excellent
t e s
safety record.
 In India, BCG was first introduced in a limited scale in 1948 and became a part of the National TB d a
Control Programme in 1962. u p
_
 In children, BCG provides strong protection against severe forms of TB. This protective effect is far
e
more variable in adolescents and adults, ranging from 0–80%.
c s
_
 BCG also protects against respiratory and bacterial infections of the newborns, and other mycobacterial
c
diseases like leprosy and Buruli’s ulcer.
p s
 It is also used as an immunotherapy agent in cancer of the urinary bladder and malignant melanoma.
e /u
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/bcg-vaccine-100-years-and-counting/article36158137.ece

70. Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification : - t.m
m
India extended its support to restart the peace process between Israel and Palestine in a recent UN Security
o
Council meeting
More on this news:
d Fr
e
 India reiterated its commitment to ‘the establishment of a sovereign, independent and viable state
d
Israel in peace and security’ l o a
of Palestine, within secure, recognised and mutually agreed borders, living side by side with

n
 The issue of Afghanistan was also taken up at the meeting. A draft resolution is set to be taken up
w
o
which seeks protection of civilians and security guarantees for humanitarian access from
D
 Taliban. The resolution will also be used to enforce a window of evacuation for foreign nationals
who continue to remain stuck in Kabul.

t e s
d a
u p
e _
c s
c _
Saudi Arabia Doesn’t share border with Israel. Hence, option (c) is correct.
p s
/u
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/india-supports-palestine-peace-process-shringla/article36190666.ece
e
t.m
71. Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
About International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) -
o m
Set up as the world’s “Atoms for Peace” organization in 1957 within the United Nations family. It reports

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

d Fr
to both the United Nations General Assembly and Security Council.

It is headquartered in Vienna, Austria.

d e
Functions:
l o a
 Works with its Member States and multiple partners worldwide to promote the safe, secure and
n
peaceful use of nuclear technologies.
w
D o
 Seeks to promote the peaceful use of nuclear energy, and to inhibit its use for any military purpose,
including nuclear weapons.
Board of Governors:
22 member states (must represent a stipulated geographic diversity) — elected by the General Conference (11
members every year) – 2 year term. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
 At least 10 member-states — nominated by the outgoing Board.
 Board members each receive one vote.
Functions:
 Recommendations to the General Conference on IAEA activities and budget.
 Responsible for publishing IAEA standards.
 Responsible for making most of the policy of the IAEA.
 Appoints the Director General subject to General Conference approval.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/08/31/korea-may-have-restarted-n-reactor-iaea/

72. Answer : D
Answer Justification :
All the above statements are correct.
United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) is the leading global environmental authority that sets the
global environmental agenda, promotes the coherent implementation of the environmental dimension of
sustainable development within the United Nations system, and serves as an authoritative advocate for the
global environment.
As the leading global environmental authority, UNEP administers, or provides secretariat functions for, 15
multilateral environmental agreements (MEAs) and other entities as follows:
Global MEAs
1. Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)
2. Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES)
3. Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals (CMS)
 Agreement on the Conservation of African-Eurasian Migratory Waterbirds (AEWA)
 Agreement on the Conservation of Gorillas and Their Habitats
 Agreement on the Conservation of Populations of European Bats (EUROBATS)
 Agreement on the Conservation of Small Cetaceans of the Baltic, North East
 Atlantic, Irish and North Seas (ASCOBANS)
4. Basel Convention on the Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and their
Disposal
5. Rotterdam Convention on the Prior Informed Consent Procedure for Certain Hazardous Chemicals
and Pesticides in International Trade
6. Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants
7. Minamata Convention on Mercury
8. Vienna Convention for the Protection of the Ozone Layer
 Multilateral Fund for the Implementation of the Montreal Protocol
https://www.unep.org/about-un-environment/why-does-un-environment-matter/secretariats-and-conventions
t e s
d a
73. Correct Answer : B
u p
Answer Justification :
e _
The Mountain railways of India are the narrow-gauge railway lines that were built in the mountains of India.
c s
The Darjeeling Himalayan Railway, the Nilgiri Mountain Railway, and the Kalka–Shimla Railway, are
c _
collectively designated as a UNESCO World Heritage Site under the name "Mountain Railways of
s
India". The fourth railway, the Matheran Hill Railway, is on the tentative list of UNESCO World Heritage
p
Sites. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
e /u
All four are narrow-gauge railways, and the Nilgiri Mountain Railway is also the only rack railway in

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India.
The Mountain Railway of India consists of three railways: the Darjeeling Himalayan Railway located in the
-
foothills of the Himalayas in West Bengal (Northeast India) having an area of 5.34 ha., the Nilgiri Mountain
o m
Railways located in the Nilgiri Hills of Tamil Nadu (South India) having an area of 4.59 ha. and the Kalka

d Fr
Shimla Railway located in the Himalayan foothills of Himachal Pradesh (Northwest India) having an area of
79.06 ha. All three railways are still fully functional and operational.
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The two components of Matheran Light Railway and Kangra Valley Railway are proposed as extension to the
d
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inscribed series, the ‘Mountain Railways of India’ that has three components namely the Darjeeling Himalayan
Railway (1999), the Nilgiri Mountain Railway (2005) and the Kalka Shimla Railway (2008).
https://whc.unesco.org/en/list/944/
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https://whc.unesco.org/en/tentativelists/5919/
D
74. Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
The Ministry of Rural Development Government of India, commenced the Socio Economic and Caste
Census (SECC) 2011, in June 2011 through a comprehensive door to door enumeration across the country.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
This is the first time such a comprehensive exercise has been carried out for both rural and urban
India. It is also expected to generate information on a large number of social and economic indicators relating
to households across the country.
The SECC, 2011 has the following three objectives:
 To enable households to be ranked based on their Socio- Economic status. State Governments can
then prepare a list of families living below the poverty line
 To make available authentic information that will enable caste-wise population enumeration of the
country
 To make available authentic information regarding the socio-economic condition, and education status
of various castes and sections of the population
The SECC, 2011 will be conducted through a comprehensive programme involving the Ministry of
Rural Development, Ministry of Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation, The Office of the Registrar
General and Census Commissioner, India and the State Governments.
https://secc.gov.in/aboutusReport

75. Correct Answer : D

Answer Justification :
All the above statements are correct.
What is Sovereign Gold Bond (SGB)? Who is the issuer?
SGBs are government securities denominated in grams of gold. They are substitutes for holding physical gold.
Investors have to pay the issue price in cash and the bonds will be redeemed in cash on maturity. The Bond is
issued by Reserve Bank on behalf of Government of India.
Who is eligible to invest in the SGBs?
Persons resident in India as defined under Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 are eligible to
invest in SGB. Eligible investors include individuals, HUFs, trusts, universities and charitable
institutions. Individual investors with subsequent change in residential status from resident to non-resident
may continue to hold SGB till early redemption/maturity.
Can a Minor invest in SGB?
Yes. The application on behalf of the minor has to be made by his/her guardian.
What is the minimum and maximum limit for investment?
The Bonds are issued in denominations of one gram of gold and in multiples thereof. Minimum investment in
the Bond shall be one gram with a maximum limit of subscription of 4 kg for individuals, 4 kg for Hindu
Undivided Family (HUF) and 20 kg for trusts and similar entities notified by the government from time to time
per fiscal year (April – March). In case of joint holding, the limit applies to the first applicant. The annual ceiling
will include bonds subscribed under different tranches during initial issuance by Government and those t e s
purchased from the secondary market. The ceiling on investment will not include the holdings as collateral by d a
banks and other Financial Institutions.
u p
https://m.rbi.org.in/scripts/FAQView.aspx?Id=109
e _
c s
76. Correct Answer : B
c _
Answer Justification :
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d e
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D o
Hence, option (b) is correct.
t e s
77. Correct Answer : A
da
Answer Justification :
u p
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c _
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d e
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Hence, option (a) is correct.
D o
http://www.wiienvis.nic.in/Database/ramsar_wetland_sites_8224.aspx
78. Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :

Hence, option (d) is correct.

79. Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

t e s
da
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Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
D o
80. Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
All the above statements are correct.
Cultural World Heritage Sites in India (As on December, 2020)

http://www.wiienvis.nic.in/Database/whs_pas_8227.aspx
t e s
81. Correct Answer : D
da
Answer Justification :
u p
All the above statements are correct.
e _
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https://indiawris.gov.in/wiki/doku.php?id=large_dams_in_india
82. Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :

t e s
Hence, option (b) is correct.
d a
u p
83. Correct Answer : C
e _
Answer Justification :
c s
The Bhupen Hazarika Setu, also referred to as the Dhola–Sadiya Bridge, is a beam bridge in India,
c _
connecting the northeast states of Assam and Arunachal Pradesh. The bridge spans the Lohit River, a
p s
major tributary of the Brahmaputra River, from the village of Dhola (Tinsukia District) in the south to Sadiya to

Arunachal Pradesh. e /u
the north. The bridge is the first permanent road connection between the northern Assam and eastern

Hence, option (c) is correct.

- t.m
At 9.15 kilometres (5.69 mi) in length, it is the longest bridge in India over water. However, the 9.76 kilometres
(6.06 mi) Kacchi Dargah–Bidupur Bridge under construction in the Indian state of Bihar, is expected to become
o m
the longest bridge in India upon its estimated completion in November 2021.

know/article18582536.ece d Fr
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/other-states/dhola-sadiya-bridge-10-things-to-

d e
84. Correct Answer : A
l o a
Answer Justification :
1. Hemis Monastery
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2. Tabo Monastery D o
It is a Tibetan Buddhist monastery (gompa) of the Drukpa Lineage, in Hemis, Ladakh, India.
It is located in the Tabo village of Spiti Valley, Himachal Pradesh, India.
3. Tsulglagkhang Monastery
This is the home for His Holiness Dalai Lama and is situated in Maclodganj suburb of Dharamshala district in
Himachal Pradesh. It is also known as Dalai Lama's temple.
4. Thiksey Monastery
It is a gompa (monastery) affiliated with the Gelug sect of Tibetan Buddhism. It is located on top of a hill in
Thiksey village, approximately 19 kilometres east of Leh in Ladakh, India.
5. Tawang Monastery
It is located in Tawang city of Tawang district in the Indian state of Arunachal Pradesh, is the largest monastery
in India and second largest in the world after the Potala Palace in Lhasa, Tibet.
6. Bylakuppe Monastery (Namdraling)
It is the largest teaching center of the Nyingma lineage of Tibetan Buddhism in the world. It is located in
Bylakuppe, in the district of Mysore of the state of Karnataka. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
7. Rumtek Monastery
It is also called the Dharmachakra centre. It is a gompa (Buddhist ecclesiastical fortifications of learning,
lineage and sadhana). It is located near Gangtok, Sikkim.

85. Correct Answer : D

Answer Justification :
Density of population, is expressed as number of persons per unit area. It helps in getting a better
understanding of the spatial distribution of population in relation to land. The density of population in India
(2011) is 382 persons per sq km.
There has been a steady increase of more than 200 persons per sq km over the last 50 years as the density of
population increased from 117 persons/ sq km in 1951 to 382 persons/sq km in 2011. The data of Census
2011, give an idea of spatial variation of population densities in the country which ranges from as low as 17
persons per sq km in Arunachal Pradesh to 11,297 persons in the National Capital Territory of Delhi. Among
the northern Indian States, Bihar (1102), West Bengal (1029) and and Uttar Pradesh (828) have higher
densities, while Kerala (859) and Tamil Nadu (555) have higher densities among the peninsular
Indian states. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
Present data
 The population density in Bangladesh is 1265 per Km2 (3,277 people per mi2).
 The population density in India is 464 per Km2 (1,202 people per mi2).
 Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
https://www.worldometers.info/world-population/india-population/

86. Correct Answer : D

Answer Justification :
All the above statements are correct.
Water Resources of India
India accounts for about 2.45 per cent of the world’s surface area, 4 per cent of the world’s water t e s
d
resources and about 16 per cent of the world’s population. The total water available from precipitation in the a
u p
country in a year is about 4,000 cubic km. The availability from surface water and replenishable groundwater is
_
1,869 cubic km. Out of this, only 60 per cent can be put to beneficial uses. Thus, the total utilizable water
e
resource in the country is only 1,122 cubic km.
c s
Surface Water Resources
c _
There are four major sources of surface water. These are rivers, lakes, ponds and tanks. In the country, there
p s
are about 10,360 rivers and their tributaries longer than 1.6 km each. The mean annual flow in all the river
basins in India is estimated to be 1,869 cubic km.
e /u
However, due to topographical, hydrological and other constraints, only about 690 cubic km (32 per cent) of

basin and rainfall within its catchment area. - t.m

the available surface water can be utilised. Water flow in a river depends on size of its catchment area or river

Groundwater Resources
o m
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The total replenishable groundwater resources in the country are about 432 cubic km. The level of
groundwater utilisation is relatively high in the river basins lying in northwestern region and parts of south India.

e d
87. Correct Answer : A
a d
Answer Justification :
n l o
Minerals are generally concentrated in three broad belts in India. There may be some sporadic occurrences

1. The North-Eastern Plateau Regiono w

here and there in isolated pockets. These belts are :

D
  This belt covers Chhotanagpur (Jharkhand), Odisha Plateau, West Bengal and parts of Chhattisgarh.
2. The South-Western Plateau Region
 This belt extends over Karnataka, Goa and contiguous Tamil Nadu uplands and Kerala.
 This belt is rich in ferrous metals and bauxite.
 It also contains high grade iron ore, manganese and limestone.
 This belt packs in coal deposits except Neyveli lignite.
 This belt does not have as diversified mineral deposits as the north-eastern belt. Hence,
statement 3 is incorrect.
 Kerala has deposits of monazite and thorium, bauxite clay. Goa has iron ore deposits.
1. The North-Western Region
 This belt extends along Aravali in Rajasthan and part of Gujarat and minerals are associated with
Dharwar system of rocks. Copper, zinc have been major minerals.
 Rajasthan is rich in building stones i.e., sandstone, granite, marble. Gypsum and Fuller’s earth deposits
are also extensive.

88. Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :
Iron Ore
The two main types of ore found in our country are haematite and magnetite. It has great demand in
international market due to its superior quality.
Haematite and magnetite are the most important iron ores in India. About 79% haematite ore deposits are
found in the Eastern Sector (Assam, Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Odisha & Uttar Pradesh) while about
93% magnetite ore deposits occur in Southern Sector (Andhra Pradesh, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala, & Tamil
Nadu). Karnataka alone contributes 72% of magnetite deposit in India. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
Of these, haematite is considered to be superior because of its higher grade. Indian deposits of
haematite belong to the Precambrian Iron Ore Series and the ore is within banded iron ore formations
occurring as massive, laminated, friable and also in powdery form.

t e s
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89. Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
All the above statements are correct.
Mica is widely distributed and occurs in igneous, metamorphic and sedimentary regimes. Mica group
represents 34 phyllosilicate minerals that exhibits a layered or platy structure. Commercially important mica
minerals are muscovite (potash or white mica) and phlogopite (magnesium or amber mica). Granitic
pegmatites are the source of muscovite sheet, while phlogopite is found in areas of metamorphosed
sedimentary rocks into which pegmatite rich granite rocks have been intruded. It possesses highly perfect
basal cleavage due to which it can easily and accurately split into very thin sheets or films of any specified
thickness. It has a unique combination of elasticity, toughness, flexibility and transparency. It possesses
resistance to heat and sudden change in temperature and high dielectric strength.
It is chemically inert, stable and does not absorb water.
State-wise total resource distribution of Mica is as follows: -
 Andhra Pradesh leads with 41% share in the country’s total resources followed by
 Rajasthan (21%)
 Odisha (20%)
 Maharashtra (15%)
 Bihar (2%) and
 The remaining 1% is in Jharkhand and Telangana together.

90. Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :
Copper is a soft, malleable, and ductile metal with very high thermal and electrical conductivity. copper is one
of the few metals that occurs in nature in directly usable metallic form (native metals) and is an important non-
ferrous base metal having wide industrial applications, ranging from defence, space programme, railways,
power cables, mint, telecommunication cables, etc. India is not self sufficient in the production of copper
ore. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
In addition to domestic production of ore and concentrates, India imports copper concentrates for its smelters.
The domestic demand for copper and its alloys is met through domestic production, recycling of scrap and by
imports.
Largest reserves/resources of copper ore to a tune of 813 million tonnes (53.81%) are in the state of
Rajasthan followed by Jharkhand with 295 million tonnes (19.54%) and Madhya Pradesh with 283
million tonnes (18.75%).

91. Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification :
Gondwana Coalfields
 Gondwana coal makes up to 98% of the total coal reserves in India and 99% of the coal
production in India.
t e s
 Gondwana coal is free from moisture and contains phosphorus and sulphur The carbon content
in Gondwana coal is less compared to the Carboniferous coal(that is 350 million years old which is d a
almost absent in India because of its much younger age). Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. u p
 Gondwana coal forms India’s metallurgical grade as well as superior quality coal.
e _
s
 The Damuda series (i.e. Lower Gondwana) possesses the best-worked coalfields accounting for 80
c
percent of the total coal production in India.
c _
s
o 80 out of 113 Indian coalfields are located in the rock systems of the Damuda series[named
p
after Damodar river].
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 These basins occur in the valleys of certain rivers viz., the Damodar (Jharkhand-West Bengal); the

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Mahanadi (Chhattisgarh-Odisha); the Son (Madhya Pradesh Jharkhand); the Godavari and the Wardha
(Maharashtra-Andhra Pradesh); the Indravati, the Narmada, the Koel, the Panch, the Kanhan and
many more. -
m
 The volatile compounds and ash (usually 13 – 30 percent) and don’t allow Carbon percentage to rise
o
above 55 to 60 percent.
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92. Correct Answer : C
d e
Answer Justification :
a
nloIndia
List of Major Coal Mines in
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Hence, option (c) is correct.

t e s
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https://www.mapsofindia.com/maps/minerals/coal-mines-map.html
wn
93. Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification : D o
  India is the second largest producer of silk in the world with an annual silk production of 35,469
MT. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
 India has the unique distinction of being the only country producing all the five kinds of silk
namely, Mulberry, Eri, Muga, Tropical Tasar and Temperate Tasar.
 Among them, mulberry silk is the most popular variety, which contributes around 79% of the country’s
silk production.
 Sericulture is an important labour-intensive and agro-based cottage industry providing gainful
occupation to around 7.63 million persons in rural and semi-urban areas in India.
 Of these, a sizeable number of workers belong to the economically weaker sections of society. There is
substantial involvement of women in this Industry.

t e s
d a
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c _
94. Correct Answer : A p s
Answer Justification :
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Indian Strategic Petroleum Reserve Limited (ISPRL), a Government of India Special Purpose Vehicle, has

- t.m
established Strategic Petroleum Reserves (SPR) facilities with total capacity of 5.33 Million Metric Tonnes
(MMT) at 3 locations, namely (i) Vishakhapatnam, (ii) Mangaluru and (iii) Padur. As per the consumption
m
pattern of 2019-20, the total capacity is estimated to provide for about 9.5 days of crude oil requirement.
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In addition, Oil Marketing Companies (OMCs) in the country have storage facilities for crude oil and petroleum
products for 64.5 days, thus the current total national capacity for storage of crude oil and petroleum products
currently is 74 days.
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Taking advantage of low crude oil prices in April/May 2020, the Strategic Petroleum Reserves have been filled
to full capacity, leading to notional savings of approximately INR 5000 crore.
n l o
Under Phase II of the SPR Programme, the Government has given ‘in principle’ approval in June 2018

o w
for establishing two additional SPR facilities with total storage capacity of 6.5 MMT at two locations
namely (i) Chandikhol in Odisha (4 MMT) and (ii) Padur in Karnataka (2.5 MMT). Hence, option (a) is
correct. D
As per the consumption pattern of 2019-20, 6.5 MMT SPR capacity is estimated to provide for about additional
12 days of India’s crude oil requirement.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1694712

95. Correct Answer : D

Answer Justification :
All the above statements are correct.
Shale gas has abundant reserves around the world, which may be sufficient to meet the demand of clean
energy for many years to come. Shale gas is found in unconventional reservoirs typically trapped in shale rock,
having low permeability, originally deposited as clay and silt.
India
As per the US EIA 2015 report, India has got technically recoverable shale gas of 96 trillion cubic feet. The
recoverable reserves are identified in Cambay, Krishna – Godavari, Cauvery, Damodar Valley, Upper
Assam, Pranahita – Godavari, Rajasthan and Vindhya Basins. The Oil and Natural Gas Corporation has
drilled the first exploratory shale gas well in Jambusar near Vadodara, Gujarat, in Cambay basin during
October 2013. It is estimated that from this basin around 20 TCF shale gas is recoverable.
In addition to shale gas, India has got reserves of other unconventional natural gases like Coal Bed Methane,
Coal Mine Methane, and Tight Gas which are in the different stages of development/production. The country
has 9.9 trillion cubic feet of recoverable Coal Bed Methane (CBM). The CBM is extracted from virgin coal
mines. At present CBM is produced from four blocks - Jharia in Jharkhand, Raniganj East and South in West
Bengal and Sohagpur West in Madhya Pradesh.
https://www.thehansindia.com/posts/index/Opinion/2018-12-02/Shale-gas-reserve-in-India-source-of-
clean-energy/451020

96. Correct Answer : D

Answer Justification :
All the above statements are correct.
Geothermal Energy
Geothermal Energy is a mature renewable energy technology that has a potential to provide clean and reliable
energy for power generation and direct heating/ cooling. Geothermal Energy can be utilized for both electric
power production and direct heat applications including Ground Source Heat Pump (GSHP) for space or
district heating, generating hot water for domestic/ industrial use, running cold storages and greenhouse,
horticulture, etc.
However, Geothermal Energy has experienced modest growth worldwide in recent times as compared to other
RE sources especially wind or solar due to its site-specific nature, risk/uncertainty involved with resource
exploration and high capital cost.
As per preliminary investigations undertaken by the GSI, there are around 300 geothermal hot springs in India.
Most of these geothermal hot springs are in medium potential (100 C to 200 C) and low potential (<100 C)
zones. The promising geothermal sites for electric power generation are Puga Valley & Chummathang
in Jammu & Kashmir, Cambay in Gujarat, Tattapani in Chattisgarh, Khammam in Telangana & Ratnagiri t e s
in Maharasthra. The promising geothermal sites for direct heat use applications are Rajgir in Bihar,
d a
Manikaran in Himachal Pradesh, Surajkund in Jharkhand, , Tapoban in Uttarakhand & Sohana region in
u p
Haryana.
e _
97. Correct Answer : D c s
Answer Justification : c _
All the above statements are correct.
p s
The Iron and Steel Industry
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The development of the iron and steel industry opened the doors to rapid industrial development in India.

infrastructure. - t.m
Almost all sectors of the Indian industry depend heavily on the iron and steel industry for their basic

o m
The other raw materials besides iron ore and coking coal, essential for iron and steel industry are
limestone, dolomite, manganese and fire clay. All these raw materials are gross (weight losing), therefore,

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the best location for the iron and steel plants is near the source of raw materials. In India, there is a crescent
shaped region comprising parts of Chhattisgarh, Northern Odisha, Jharkhand and western West Bengal, which
d e
is extremely rich in high grade iron ore, good quality coking coal and other supplementing raw materials. The

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Indian iron and steel industry consists of large integrated steel plants as well as mini steel mills. It also includes
secondary producers, rolling mills and ancillary industries.
w n
98. Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification : D o
All the above statements are correct.

99. Correct Answer : D

Answer Justification :
Delhi Mumbai Industrial Corridor
Delhi-Mumbai Industrial Corridor is a mega infra-structure project of USD 90 billion with the financial &
technical aids from Japan, covering an overall length of 1483 KMs between the political capital and the
business capital of India, i.e. Delhi and Mumbai. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
A MOU was signed in December 2006 between Vice Minister, Ministry of Economy, Trade and Industry (METI)
of Government of Japan and Secretary, Department of Industrial Policy & Promotion (DIPP). A Final Project
Concept was presented to both the Prime Ministers during Premier Abe’s visit to India in August 2007.
Finally, Government of India has announced establishing of the Multi-modal High Axle Load Dedicated
Freight Corridor (DFC) between Delhi and Mumbai, covering an overall length of 1483 km and passing
through the six States - U.P, NCR of Delhi, Haryana, Rajasthan, Gujarat and Maharashtra, with end
terminals at Dadri in the National Capital Region of Delhi and Jawaharlal Nehru Port near Mumbai. Hence,
statement 2 is incorrect.
t e s
a
Distribution of length of the corridor indicates that Rajasthan (39) and Gujarat (38%) together constitute 77% of
d
the total length of the alignment of freight corridor.
u p
100. Correct Answer : B e _
Answer Justification :
c s
_
Indian Railways is among the world’s largest rail network, and its route length network is spread over 67,956
c
s
kms, with 13,169 passenger trains and 8,479 freight trains, plying 23 million travellers and 3 million tonnes
p
systems in the world under single management.
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(MT) of freight daily from 7,349 stations. India's railway network is recognised as one of the largest railway

t.m
Freight remains the major revenue earning segment for Railways, accounting for 65% of its total
revenue in FY20, followed by the passenger segment. In FY20-21, Indian Railways recorded the highest
-
loading in freight transportation. Freight traffic carried by Indian Railways stood at 1,232.64 million tonnes in
m
FY21. With this, the freight revenue of Indian Railways also increased to Rs. 1,17,386 crore (approx.) (US$
o
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16.04 billion) for the year 2020-21, as against Rs. 1,13,488 crore (US$ 16.10 billion) during fiscal 2019-20.
India has one of the largest road networks in the world with a total length of 5,897,671 kilometers
e
(3,664,643 mi) as of 31 March 2017. About 85 percent of passengers and 70 percent of freight traffic are
d
statement 1 is incorrect.
l o a
carried by roads every year. Road transport is relatively suitable for shorter distance travel. Hence,

n
https://www.ibef.org/industry/indian-railways.aspx
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