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Key CCNA

This document contains 28 multiple choice questions about networking technologies such as Cisco switches, routers, IPv4, IPv6, VLANs, routing, wireless networking, SNMP, and PPPoE. The questions cover topics such as switch port configurations, IPv6 addressing, routing protocols, troubleshooting physical layer issues, setting default routes, and SNMP components. The correct answers are provided for each question.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
94 views19 pages

Key CCNA

This document contains 28 multiple choice questions about networking technologies such as Cisco switches, routers, IPv4, IPv6, VLANs, routing, wireless networking, SNMP, and PPPoE. The questions cover topics such as switch port configurations, IPv6 addressing, routing protocols, troubleshooting physical layer issues, setting default routes, and SNMP components. The correct answers are provided for each question.

Uploaded by

nguyen hong son
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 19

QUESTION 1

Configuration of which option is required on a Cisco switch for the Cisco IP phone to work?
A. PortFast on the interface
B. the interface as an access port to allow the voice VLAN ID
C. a voice VLAN ID in interface and global configuration mode
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol in global configuration mode
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Which option describes a difference between EIGRP for IPv4 and IPv6?
A. Only EIGRP for IPv6 advertises all connected networks.
B. Only EIGRP for IPv6 requires a router ID to be configured under the routing process
C. As numbers are configure in EIGRP but not in EIGRPv3.
D. Only EIGRP for IPv6 is enabled in the global configuration mode.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
Which three statements about IPv6 prefixes are true? (Choose three.)
A. FEC0::/10 is used for IPv6 broadcast.
B. FC00::/7 is used in private networks.
C. FE80::/8 is used for link-local unicast.
D. FE80::/10 is used for link-local unicast.
E. 2001::1/127 is used for loopback addresses.
F. FF00::/8 is used for IPv6 multicast.
Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 4
Which symptom can cause duplex mismatch problem?
A. no earner
B. collisions on interface
C. giants
D. CRC errors
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit, you determine that Computer A cannot ping Computer
Which reason for the problem is most likely true?

A. The Subnet mask for Computer A is incorrect


B. The default gateway address for Computer A is incorrect
C. The subnet mask for computer B is incorrect.
D. The default gateway address for computer B is incorrect
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
How does a router handle an incoming packet whose destination network is missing from the
Routing table?
A. it discards the packet.
B. it broadcasts the packet to each network on the router.
C. it routes the packet to the default route.
D. it broadcasts the packet to each interface on the router
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
Two routers named Atlanta and Brevard are connected via their serial interfaces as illustrated,
but they are
unable to communicate. The Atlanta router is known to have the correct configuration.

Given the partial configurations, identify the fault on the Brevard router that is causing the lack
of connectivity.
A. incompatible IP address
B. insufficient bandwidth
C. incorrect subnet mask
D. incompatible encapsulation
E. link reliability too low
F. IPCP closed
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
Which two options are features of the extended ping command? (Choose two.)
A. It can send a specific number of packet
B. It can send packet from specified interface of IP address
C. It can resolve the destination host name
D. It can ping multiple host at the same time
E. it can count the number of hops to the remote host.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 9
VLAN 3 is not yet configured on your switch.What happens if you set the switchport access
vlan 3
commmand interface configuration mode?
A. The command is accepted and the respective VLAN is added to vlan dat.
B. The command is rejected.
C. The command is accepted and you must configure the VLAN manually.
D. The port turns amber.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit. The output that is shown is generated at a switch. Which three of these
statements are
true? (Choose three.)

A. All ports will be in a state of discarding, learning, or forwarding.


B. Thirty VLANs have been configured on this switch.
C. The bridge priority is lower than the default value for spanning tree.
D. All interfaces that are shown are on shared media.
E. All designated ports are in a forwarding state.
F. The switch must be the root bridge for all VLANs on this switch.
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 11
What will happen if a private IP address is assigned to a public interface connected to an ISP?
A. Addresses in a private range will be not routed on the Internet backbone.
B. Only the ISP router will have the capability to access the public network.
C. The NAT process will be used to translate this address in a valid IP address.
D. Several automated methods will be necessary on the private network.
E. A conflict of IP addresses happens, because other public routers can use the same range.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
Which two commands correctly verify whether port security has been configured on port
FastEthernet 0/12 on a
switch?(choose two)
A. SW1#show swithport port-security interface FastEthernet 0/12
B. SW1# show swithport port-secure interface FastEthernet 0/12
C. SW1# show port-secure interface FastEthernet 0/12
D. SW1#show running-config
E. SW1#show port-security interface FastEthernet 0/12
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 13
Which value is used to determine the active router in an HSRP default configuration?
A. Router loopback address
B. Router IP address
C. Router priority
D. Router tracking number
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit. A junior network administrator was given the task of configuring port
security on SwitchA to allow only PC_A to access the switched network through port fa0/1. If
any other device is detected, the port is to drop frames from this device. The administrator
configured the interface and tested it with successful pings from PC_A to RouterA, and then
observes the output from these two show commands.
Which two of these changes are necessary for SwitchA to meet the requirements? (Choose two.)

A. Port security needs to be globally enabled.


B. Port security needs to be enabled on the interface.
C. Port security needs to be configured to shut down the interface in the event of a violation.
D. Port security needs to be configured to allow only one learned MAC address.
E. Port security interface counters need to be cleared before using the show command.
F. The port security configuration needs to be saved to NVRAM before it can become active.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 15
Refer to the exhibit. What is the most appropriate summarization for these routes?

A. 10.0.0.0 /21
B. 10.0.0.0 /22
C. 10.0.0.0 /23
D. 10.0.0.0 /24
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.

What is the effect of the given configuration?


A. It configures an inactive switch virtual interface.
B. It configures an active management interface.
C. It configures the native VLAN.
D. It configures the default VLAN.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
Which LLDP extension provides additional support for VoIP?
A. TLV
B. LLDP-MED
C. LLDPv3
D. LLDP-VOIP
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
Which three circumstances can cause a GRE tunnel to be in an up/down state? (Choose three.)
A. The tunnel interface IP address is misconfigured.
B. The tunnel interface is down.
C. A valid route to the destination address is missing from the routing table.
D. The tunnel address is routed through the tunnel itself.
E. The ISP is blocking the traffic.
F. An ACL is blocking the outbound traffic.
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 19
Which two statements about northbound and southbound APIs are true? (Choose two.
A. Only southbound APIs allow program control of the network.
B. Only northbound APIs allow program control of the network.
C. Only southbound API interfaces use a Service Abstraction Layer.
D. Only northbound API interfaces use a Service Abstraction Layer.
E. Both northbound and southbound API interfaces use a Service Abstraction Layer.
F. Both northbound and southbound APIs allow program control of the network.
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 20
Which command is used to show the interface status of a router?
A. show interface status
B. show ip interface brief
C. show ip route
D. show interface
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit. The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green.
What would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose
three.)

A. Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch ports.
B. Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables.
C. Ensure cable A is plugged into a trunk port.
D. Ensure the switch has power.
E. Reboot all of the devices.
F. Reseat all cables.
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 22
Which command can you enter to set the default route for all traffic to an IP enable router
interface ?
A. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 GigabitEthernet0/1
B. router(config)#ip default-gateway GigabitEthernet0/1
C. router(config)#default-information originate
D. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 23
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator must establish a route by which London
workstations can
forward traffic to the Manchester workstations. What is the simplest way to accomplish this?

A. Configure a dynamic routing protocol on London to advertise all routes to Manchester.


B. Configure a dynamic routing protocol on London to advertise summarized routes to
Manchester
C. Configure a dynamic routing protocol on Manchester to advertise a default route to the
London router.
D. Configure a static default route on London with a next hop of 10.1.1.1.
E. Configure a static route on London to direct all traffic destined for 172.16.0.0/22 to 10.1.1.2.
F. Configure Manchester to advertise a static default route to London.
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 24
which API use HTTP meddages to tansfer data to applications residing on different host ?
A. OpFlex
B. REST
C. OpenStack
D. OpenFlow
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25
What are three components that comprise the SNMP framework? (Choose three)
A. MIB
B. manager
C. supervisor
D. agent
E. set
F. AES
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 26
What authentication type is used by SNMPv2 ?
A. username and password
B. community strings
C. HMAC-MD5
D. HMAC-SHA
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 27
How to create a trunk port and allow VLAN 20? (Choose Three.)
A. switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
B. switchport mode trunk
C. switchport trunk allowed vlan 20
D. switchport trunk native vlan 20
E. http://bbs.hh010.com/
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 28
During which phase of PPPoE is PPP authentication performed?
A. the PPP Session phase
B. Phase 2
C. the Active Discovery phase
D. the Authentication phase
E. Phase 1
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 29
Which of the following are benefits of VLANs? (Choose three.)
A. They increase the size of collision domains.
B. They allow logical grouping of users by function.
C. They can enhance network security.
D. They increase the size of broadcast domains while decreasing the number of collision
domains.
E. They increase the number of broadcast domains while decreasing the size of the broadcast
domains.
F. They simplify switch administration.
Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 30
At which severity level can syslog logging begin to affect router performance?
A. debugging
B. emergency
C. notification
D. critical
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 31
which value indicate the distance from the ntp authoritative time source?
A. priority
B. location
C. layer
D. stratum
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 32
What is new in HSRPv2?
A. prempt
B. a greater number in hsrp group field
C. http://bbs.hh010.com/
D. http://bbs.hh010.com/
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 33
Which cloud service is typically used to provide DNS and DHCP services to an enterprise?
A. IaaS
B. DaaS
C. SaaS
D. PaaS
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 34
What are three characteristics of the TCP protocol? (Choose three.)
A. It uses a single SYN-ACK message to establish a connection.
B. The connection is established before data is transmitted.
C. It ensures that all data is transmitted and received by the remote device.
D. It supports significantly higher transmission speeds than UDP.
E. It requires applications to determine when data packets must be retransmitted.
F. It uses separate SYN and ACK messages to establish a connection.
Correct Answer: BCF
QUESTION 35
What are three parts of an IPv6 global unicast address? (Choose three.)
A. an interface ID that is used to identify the local host on the network
B. an interface ID that is used to identify the local network for a particular host.
C. a subnet ID that is used to identify networks inside of the local enterprise site
D. a global routing prefix that is used to identify the network portion of the address that has been
provided by
an ISP
E. a global routing prefix that is used to identify the portion of the network address provided by a
local
administrator
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 36
What value is primarily used to determine which port becomes the root port on each nonroot
switch in a
spanning-tree topology?
A. lowest port MAC address
B. port priority number and MAC address.
C. VTP revision number
D. highest port priority number.
E. path cost
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 37
Which address block identifies all link-local addresses?
A. FC00::/7
B. FC00::/8
C. FE80::/10
D. FF00::/8
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 38
Which option is the benefit of implementing an intelligent DNS for a cloud computing solution?
A. It reduces the need for a backup data center.
B. It can redirect user requests to locations that are using fewer network resources.
C. It enables the ISP to maintain DNS records automatically.
D. It eliminates the need for a GSS.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 39
Which IPv6 header field is equivalent to the TTL?
A. Hop Limit
B. Flow Label
C. TTD
D. Hop Count
E. Scan Timer
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 40
Refer to the exhibit. The network shown in the diagram is experiencing connectivity problems.
Which of the
following will correct the problems? (Choose two.)
A. Configure the gateway on Host A as 10.1.1.1.
B. Configure the gateway on Host B as 10.1.2.254.
C. Configure the IP address of Host A as 10.1.2.2.
D. Configure the IP address of Host B as 10.1.2.2.
E. Configure the masks on both hosts to be 255.255.255.224.
F. Configure the masks on both hosts to be 255.255.255.240.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 41
Which three commands can you use to set a router boot image? (Choose three.)
A. Router(config)# boot system flash c4500-p-mz.121-20.bin
B. Router(config)# boot system tftp c7300-js-mz.122-33.SB8a.bin
C. Router(config)#boot system rom c7301-advipservicesk9-mz.124-24.T4.bin
D. Router> boot flash:c180x-adventerprisek9-mz-124-6T.bin
E. Router(config)#boot flash:c180x-adventerprisek9-mz-124-6T.bin
F. Router(config)#boot bootldr bootflash:c4500-jk9s-mz.122-23f.bin
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 42
Which type of mac address is aged automatically by the switch?
A. Dynamic
B. Static
C. automatic
D. manual
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 43:
Select and Place:

QUESTION 44
Refer to the exhibit.If the devices produced the given output,what is the cause of the
EtherChannel
problem?
A. There is a speed mismatch between SW1's Fa0/1 and SW2's Fa0/1 interfaces.
B. There is an MTU mismatch between SW1's Fa0/1 and SW2's Fa0/1 interfaces
C. There is an encapsulation mismatch between SW1's Fa0/1 and SW2's Fa0/1 interface
D. SW1's Fa0/1 interface is administratively shut down.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 45
Which statement about the inside interface configuration in a NAT deployment is true?
A. It is defined globally
B. It identifies the location of source addresses for outgoing packets to be translated using access
or route
maps.
C. It must be configured if static NAT is used
D. It identifies the public IP address that traffic will use to reach the internet
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 46
Router R1 has a static route that is configured to destination network.A directly connected
interface is configured with an IP address in the same destination network.Which statement
about R1 is true?
A. R1 refuses to advertise the dynamic route to other neighbors
B. R1 prefers the static route
C. R1 prefers the directly connected interface
D. R1 sends a withdrawal notification to the neighboring router
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 47
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the effect of this configuration?

A. The VLAN 10 VTP configuration is displayed


B. VLAN 10 spanning-tree output is displayed
C. The VLAN 10 configuration is saved when the router exits VLAN configuration mode
D. VLAN 10 is added to the VLAN database
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 48
What are types of IPv6 static routes? (Choose Three.)
A. Recursive Static routes
B. Directly connected static routes
C. Fully specified static routes
D. Dynamically specified static routes
E. injected static routes
F. Redistributed static routes
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 49
Refer to the exhibit.
Based on the exhibited routing table, how will packets from a host within the 192.168.10.192/26
LAN be
forwarded to 192.168.10.1?
A. The router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1.
B. The router will forward packets from R3 to R1 to R2.
C. The router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1 AND from R3 to R1.
D. The router will forward packets from R3 to R1.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 50
What is the effect of the overload keyword in a static NAT translation configuration?
A. It enables port address translation
B. It enables the use of a secondary pool of IP addresses when the first pool is depleted.
C. It enables the inside interface to receive traffic.
D. It enables the outside interface to forward traffic.
Correct Answer: A

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