ATLS Practice Test 3 Answers & Explanations
ATLS Practice Test 3 Answers & Explanations
com
ATLS Practice Test 3
Answers & Explanations
1. c. 21. d.
2. d. 22. a.
3. e. 23. d.
4. b. 24. e.
5. e. 25. b.
6. c. 26. b.
7. c. 27. a.
8. d. 28. d.
9. a. 29. d.
10. b. 30. e.
11. b. 31. a.
12. a. 32. b.
13. d. 33. d.
14. e. 34. a.
15. a. 35. a.
16. a. 36. e.
17. d. 37. c.
18. a. 38. c.
19. d. 39. d.
20. d. 40. c.
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1. c.
Decreased pulse pressure, per se, is not a sign of a compromised airway. Pulse pressure
is equal to systolic blood pressure minus diastolic blood pressure. In the setting of
trauma, a decreased pulse pressure may be an indication of Class II or worse hemorrhage,
since the body attempts to compensate by increasing peripheral vascular resistance. All
of the other choices may be signs or symptoms of airway compromise.
2. d.
Restrained pregnant women have a lower risk of death, premature delivery, and fetal
death. There does not appear to be any increase in pregnancyspecific risks from the
deployment of airbags. Note: The use of a shoulder restraint in conjunction with a lap
belt reduces the likelihood of direct and indirect fetal injury, because of the greater
surface area over which the deceleration force is dissipated, as well as the prevention of
forward flexion of the mother over the gravid uterus. Also, a lap belt worn too high over
the uterus may produce uterine rupture because of the transmission of direct force to the
uterus on impact.
3. e.
Pericardiotomy is required in patients with acute cardiac tamponade. Note : Cardiac
tamponade can usually be diagnosed with the FAST exam. If a qualified surgeon is not
available, pericardiocentesis should be performed, but it is not a definitive treatment for
cardiac tamponade. Cardiac tamponade most commonly results from penetrating
injuries; however, blunt injuries also can cause it. Cardiac tamponade is indicated by the
presence of Beck’s triad: venous pressure elevation, arterial pressure decline, and muffled
heart tones. However, muffled heart tones are difficult to assess in a noisy exam area,
and distended neck veins may be absent due to hypovolemia. Additionally, tension
pneumothorax, particularly on the left side, can mimic cardiac tamponade. Kussmaul’s
sign (a rise in venous pressure with inspiration) is also a sign of tamponade, and may also
be present in constrictive pericarditis and restrictive cardiomyopathy. Kussmaul
breathing, on the other hand, is deep and labored breathing associated with severe
metabolic acidosis.
4. b.
In a neurologically intact patient, the absence of pain or tenderness along the spine
virtually excludes the presence of a significant spinal injury, provided there is no
Note
intoxication, altered level of consciousness, or distracting injury. : It is possible to
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have SCIWORA (spinal cord injury without radiographic abnormalities), especially in a
pediatric patient. Potential breathing or circulatory problems should be addressed
before
obtaining cspine films. Atlantooccipital dislocation should be suspected if the Power's
> 1
ratio is , not <1.
5. e.
CT provides more accurate anatomical information than the other choices mentioned.
6. c
.
A GCS score of 8 or lower is an indication for a definitive airway. Intubation should not
be delayed.
7. c.
Plain films of the chest and pelvis are done during the primary survey. They can provide
very useful information regarding injuries such as fractured ribs, pneumothorax,
hemothorax, widened mediastinum, and pelvic fractures. Note: Given the patient's
tachycardia, spinal cord injury is not the most likely cause of his hypotension. Also, he
does not present with any chest injuries that would suggest an aortic injury. Pelvic injury
cannot be ruled out. From the information provided, the most likely cause of his
hypotension is blood loss from a pelvic fracture.
8. d.
A PaCO of 35 to 40 mm Hg may indicate impending respiratory failure during
2
pregnancy. This is because minute ventilation increases primarily as a result of an
increase in tidal volume. Hypocapnia (PaCO of 30 mm Hg) is therefore common in late
2
pregnancy. Note: The best initial treatment for the fetus is the provision of optimal
resuscitation of the mother. Logrolling the patient to the left will decompress the vena
cava. Rhimmunoglobulin should be administered within 72 hours of the injury.
Vasopressors may significantly constrict the placental arteries reducing fetal oxygenation.
9. a.
Multiple organ failure is complex and not well understood presently. One of the
hypotheses is that hypoperfusion leads to insufficient supply of oxygen to organs, which
causes cell death and organ dysfunction. Note: Vasodilation may occur in certain
hypoperfused organs as a compensatory mechanism; however, this is of minor
importance compared to organ failure. Hypoperfusion in the kidneys may result in acute
tubular necrosis, not acute glomerulonephritis. Hypoperfusion causes decreased ATP
production, not increased production. Hypoperfusion would result in an increased base
deficit due to increased anaerobic metabolism and, therefore, increased production of
lactic acid.
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10. b.
The Cushing reflex is a physiological response to increased intracranial pressure that
results in hypertension, bradycardia, and irregular breathing. It may indicate imminent
brain herniation.
11. b.
Initial treatment of frostbite involves rapidly rewarming the body part in circulating warm
water. Note: The application of dry heat may result in burning of the skin. Debridement
of blisters should be avoided as this increases the risk of infection. Early amputation is
not warranted. Massage of the affected area would likely cause more tissue damage and
should be avoided.
12. a.
Gastric emptying is delayed during pregnancy, so early gastric decompression is
important in order to avoid aspiration of gastric contents. Note: A hemoglobin level of
10 g/dL (hematocrit 30) is common in late pregnancy, and does not indicate recent blood
loss. A lap belt combined with a shoulder strap is the recommended type of restraint. It
reduces the likelihood of direct and indirect fetal injury, because of the greater surface
area over which the deceleration force is dissipated, as well as the prevention of forward
flexion of the mother over the gravid uterus. Also, a lap belt worn too high over the
uterus may produce uterine rupture because of the transmission of direct force to the
uterus on impact. A PaCO of 40 mm Hg may indicate impending respiratory failure.
2
The central venous pressure response to volume resuscitation is unchanged in pregnant
patients.
13. d.
Oxygen saturation is slow to respond to changes in ventilation parameters. For example,
if the esophagus happens to be intubated and the lungs receive no oxygen, it may take a
several seconds to a few minutes for the oxygen saturation to decline significantly. Note:
No single method for confirming tracheal tube placement has been shown to be 100%
reliable. Accordingly, the use of multiple methods for confirmation of correct tube
placement is now widely considered to be the standard of care. Such methods include
direct visualization as the tip of the tube passes through the glottis. With a properly
positioned tracheal tube, equal bilateral breath sounds will be auscultatable, and no
borborygmi will be heard at the epigastrium. Equal bilateral rise and fall of the chest
wall will be evident with ventilatory excursions. A small amount of water vapor will also
be evident within the lumen of the tube with each exhalation, and there will be no gastric
contents in the tracheal tube at any time. Waveform capnography is the gold standard for
the confirmation of tube placement within the trachea. Other methods relying on
instruments include the use of a colorimetric endtidal carbon dioxide detector, a
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selfinflating esophageal bulb, or an esophageal detection device. The distal tip of a
properly positioned tracheal tube will be located in the midtrachea, roughly 2 cm above
the carina; this can be confirmed by chest xray.
14. e.
The infant is in severe respiratory distress and still does not have an airway. She requires
oxygen immediately, and the only way to do this is with a surgical airway.
Cricothyroidotomy would work, but valuable seconds would be lost doing the procedure.
The best option in this scenario is needle cricothyroidotomy with jet insufflation. This
can be done very quickly, and the patient can be adequately oxygenated for 30 to 45
minutes, allowing time for a more permanent surgical airway. Note
: Heliox and racemic
epinephrine are used for various obstructive airways diseases there is no indication for
their use in this case. Repeat orotracheal intubation and nasotracheal intubation are
unlikely to be successful given the patient's presentation and the previously failed
attempts at oral tracheal intubation.
15. a.
The Glasgow Coma Score is obtained during the primary survey. Cervical spine xray,
rectal exam, and blood alcohollevel would be done during the secondary survey. If he is
not uptodate on his tetanus immunization, tetanus toxoid could be administered during
the secondary survey, or even later on provided it is within 48 hours of the injury.
16. a.
A closed forearm fracture would be addressed during the secondary survey; whereas, the
other choices would be addressed during the primary survey as they each may negatively
impact circulation, and possibly neurological status.
17. d.
Decreased breath sounds combined with dullness to percussion indicate fluid in the
respective hemithorax. Note
: Tension pneumothorax and pericardial tamponade would
each cause jugular venous distention. Hypovolemia from liver injury, without any other
injury, would not result in diminished breath sounds on the right side. A spinal cord
injury is inconsistent with the mechanism of injury, and would not usually result in
tachycardia.
18. a.
Treatment for a chemical burn affecting the skin is: immediately remove the chemical
causing the burn; immediately remove contaminated clothing and jewelry to prevent
further burning; rinse the burn (run a gentle, steady stream of cool tap water over the burn
for 20 to 30 minutes); loosely apply a bandage or gauze; ensure tetanus immunization is
uptodate. Note higher
: Patients who sustain a thermal injury are at risk for
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hypothermia. With electrical burns, exterior injuries are misleading as most of the
damage occurs underneath the skin extensive skin necrosis is not
typical. Patients with
circumferential truncal burns do not need prompt fasciotomies usually a fasciotomy is
not needed within the first 6 hours after a burn injury. Urinary output is the best way to
determine the adequacy of resuscitation.
19. d .
Given the history of intubation in the field, normal oxygen saturation, no hypotension,
and decreased breath sounds on the left, right mainstem bronchus intubation is likely.
The position of the endotracheal tube should be checked prior to doing any of the
invasive procedures listed. An AP chest xray can be obtained relatively quickly, but not
as quickly other assessments for ETT position.
20. d .
Autoregulation of cerebral blood flow normally occurs between mean arterial pressures
of 50 to 150 mm Hg. Note reduce
: Elevated intracranial pressure will tend to cerebral
perfusion. When there is increased intracranial pressure, one of the compensatory
mechanisms to lower intracranial pressure is reduction of the volume of cerebrospinal
fluid and venous blood in the cranial vault. Low PaCO causes cerebral vasoconstriction,
2
which reduces cerebral blood flow. Hypertonic fluids are used to limit brain edema in
patients with severe head injury.
d
21. .
The patient is in hypovolemic shock from abdominal hemorrhage. He needs a
laparotomy as soon as possible. Fluid resuscitation should be initiated immediately.
Note : As yet, embolization is generally contraindicated in hemodynamically unstable
patients, such as this one.
a
22. .
An initial, warmed 1 to 2 L bolus of lactated Ringer’s or normal saline is given. This
initial fluid amount includes any fluid given in the prehospital setting. Further
therapeutic and diagnostic decisions are based on the patient’s response to this bolus.
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23.
d
.
His GCS score is 10 (E = 3, V = 2, M = 5).
GCS E V M
5 Oriented Localizes pain
6 Obeys commands
A GCS score between 9 and 12 inclusive is classified as a moderate brain injury, and all
such patients require a head CT. Note: Mandatory intubation to protect the airway is
required with a GCS of 8 or less. Severe brain injury is defined as a GCS score between
3 and 8 inclusive. It is dangerous to assume that a level of consciousness or behavior is
solely attributable to elevated blood alcohol. A 2 L fluid bolus is not indicated, since he
is not in hypovolemic shock.
24. e.
If peripheral intravenous access cannot be obtained, intraosseous cannulation should be
performed. Any intravenous fluid or blood product may be administered via an
intraosseous line.
25. b.
A chest xray can accomplish many things, such as detect a pneumothorax or a
hemothorax, and determine endotracheal tube positioning. If any of these need to be
treated or corrected, appropriate measures can be taken in the smaller facility prior to
Note
transport. : A FAST exam and computerized tomography of the abdomen can be
done at the receiving facility, which likely has the capability of surgical intervention that
the smaller facility lacks. A lateral cervical spine xray would not change the
management of this patient at the smaller facility, so should not be done there. There is
no indication for the administration of methylprednisolone.
26. b.
After chest tube insertion, the patient's chest should be reexamined to ascertain if there is
any improvement. Ideally, there should be normal breath sounds and resonance to
percussion.
27. a.
ATLS has adopted the “Canadian CT Head Rule for Patients with Minor Head Injury.”
Essentially, it states that a CT scan should be obtained in all patients with suspected
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brain injury who have a clinically suspected open skull fracture, any sign of basilar skull
fracture, more than two episodes of vomiting, or in patients who are older than 65 years.
CT should also be considered if the patient has had loss of consciousness for longer than
5 minutes, retrograde amnesia for longer than 30 minutes, a dangerous mechanism of
injury, severe headaches, or a focal neurologic deficit. This patient has a
hemotympanum, which is indicative of a basilar skull fracture. Note: The blood alcohol
concentration is not a criterion for obtaining a CT of the head.
28. d.
Supraglottic airway devices are of value as part of a difficult or failed intubation plan.
Note: Supraglottic airway devices are not
equivalent to endotracheal tubes, and do not
provide a definitive airway. They do not
require neck extension for proper placement.
29. d.
This patient appears to be hypoventilating secondary to pain from the rib fractures.
Early and aggressive pain control, including intercostal blocks, epidural anesthesia, and
systemic opioids are effective and may be necessary. Note
: Taping, rib belts, and
external splints are contraindicated.
e
30. .
Generally a nonoperative approach is chosen in patients with splenic rupture who are
hemodynamically stable. Strict bed rest for 24 to 72 hours with careful monitoring is
required. Surgical consultation is still necessary in case laparotomy is required. If a
splenectomy is required (e.g. because of hemorrhage causing shock), the patient should
be immunized against pneumococcus, Haemophilus influenzae type b, and
meningococcus; and receive the influenza vaccine every winter.
a
31. .
Traumatic brain injury, per se, would not cause hypotension and tachycardia; but rather,
if herniation is imminent, hypertension and bradycardia. The suddenness of the
deterioration also makes traumatic brain injury unlikely; but, tends to point toward
etiologies such as worsening hemorrhage, cardiac tamponade, and tension pneumothorax.
b
32. .
Limbthreatening extremity injuries are characterized by the presence of ischemic or
crushed tissue.
d
33. .
The first priority in the management of a long bone fracture is control of hemorrhage.
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34.
a.
Urethral injuries are often associated with anterior pelvic fractures. Urethral disruptions
are divided into those above (posterior) or below (anterior) the urogenital diaphragm. A
posterior urethral injury usually occurs in patients with multisystem injuries and pelvic
fractures. In contrast, an anterior urethral injury results from a straddle impact and can be
an isolated injury. Treat contusions with urethral catheterization. Treat urethral
disruptions initially with suprapubic cystostomy. Before attempting urethral
catheterization, a retrograde urethrogram should be done to rule out urethral disruption.
Signs of urethral disruption are:
inability to void
unstable pelvic fracture
blood at urethral meatus
scrotal hematoma
perineal ecchymoses
highriding prostate
35. a .
The patient has paralysis and no sensation in his legs. He is hypotensive. He may be
tachycardic but this is impossible to determine without knowing his baseline heart rate;
however, athletes usually have low resting heart rates. He is pale and sweaty, which is
indicative of some type of shock. He likely has neurogenic shock.
36. e .
He is in neurogenic shock. The blood pressure may often be restored by the judicious use
of vasopressors after moderate volume replacement. In addition, atropine may be used to
counteract hemodynamically significant bradycardia.
c
37. .
All of the choices are consistent with a spinal cord injury, except for choice c.
c
38. .
A cervical spine series consists of AP, odontoid, and lateral views. Information from the
radiographs should be combined with information from the clinical exam, A CT scan of
the cervical spine could be done instead of, or in addition to, the plane films. Note : A
cspine series is not indicated in all trauma patients, and would only be done during the
secondary survey . A normal cspine series does not exclude all significant spinal injury,
e.g. it is possible to have a purely ligamentous spine injury, without associated fracture,
that results in instability.
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d
39. .
A flail chest is often associated with an underlying pulmonary contusion. The arterial
blood gases show hypoxemia, hypocapnia, and alkalosis, indicating respiratory alkalosis.
The injury most likely responsible for this is pulmonary contusion, since this would cause
impaired oxygenation, resulting in hyperventilation, which would cause carbon dioxide to
Note
be blown off, causing respiratory alkalosis. : A small pneumothorax may be
asymptomatic, or cause some anxiety and tachypnea.
40.
c.
Brain mass decreases approximately 10% by 70 years of age. This loss is replaced by
cerebrospinal fluid. Significant amounts of blood can collect in the cranial vault of an
elderly individual before overt symptoms become apparent.
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