Theory of Accounts: Module 2 Financial Statement Presentation
Theory of Accounts: Module 2 Financial Statement Presentation
OVERALL CONSIDERATIONS
1. Fair presentation and compliance with IFRS
Financial statements are required to be presented fairly as set out in the framework and in accordance
with IFRS and are required to comply with all requirements of IFRSs.
a. IAS 1 requires an entity to make an explicit and unreserved statement of compliance in the notes.
b. Inappropriate accounting policies are not rectified either by disclosure of the accounting policies
used or by notes or explanatory material.
c. IAS 1 acknowledges that in extremely rare circumstances, management may conclude that
compliance with an IFRS requirement would be so misleading that it would conflict with the
objective of financial statements set out in the Conceptual Framework. In such a case, the entity
may be permitted to depart from the requirement of an IFRS if the relevant regulatory framework
requires, or otherwise does not prohibit, such a departure. Shall disclose the following:
• that management has concluded that the financial statements present fairly the entity’s
financial position, financial performance and cash flows
• that it has complied with applicable IFRSs, except that it has departed from a particular
requirement to achieve a fair presentation
• the title of the IFRS from which the entity has departed, the nature of the departure,
including the treatment that the IFRS would require, the reason why that treatment would be
so misleading in the circumstances
• for each period presented, the financial effect of the departure on each item in the financial
statements that would have been reported in complying with the requirement
2. Going concern
Financial statements are required to be prepared on a going concern basis (unless entity is in liquidation or
has ceased trading or there is an indication that the entity is not a going concern). If management has
significant concerns about the entity’s ability to continue as a going concern, the uncertainties must be
disclosed.
3. Accrual basis of accounting
Entities are required to use accrual basis of accounting except for cash flow information.
4. Presentation consistency
An entity is required to retain presentation and classification from one period to the next unless:
• it is apparent that another presentation or classification would be more appropriate following a
significant change in the nature of the entity’s operations or a review of its financial statements
• an IFRS requires a change in presentation
If comparative amounts are changed or reclassified, an entity is required to disclose the following:
• the nature of the reclassification
• the amount of each item or class of items that is reclassified
• the reason for the reclassification
5. Materiality and aggregation
Each material class of similar assets and items of dissimilar nature or function is to be presented
separately. The Standards do not provide a quantitative or qualitative threshold in determining
materiality, it is a matter of professional judgment.
6. Offsetting
Offsetting of assets and liabilities or income and expenses is not permitted unless required by other IFRSs.
7. Comparative information
At least 1 year of comparative information (unless impractical). Listed entities in the Philippines are
required to disclose as a minimum three (3) of each statements of comprehensive income, statements of
changes in equity, and statements of cash flows.
When an entity changes the end of its reporting period and presents financial statements for a period
longer or shorter than one (1) year, it shall disclose the following:
• the period covered by the financial statements
• the reason for using a longer or shorter period
• the fact that amounts presented are not entirely comparable
An entity may use titles for the statements other than those stated above. All financial statements are
required to be presented with equal prominence.
When an entity applies an accounting policy retrospectively or makes a retrospective restatement of items
in its financial statements, or when it reclassifies items in its financial statements, it must also present a
statement of financial position as at the beginning of the earliest comparative period.
Reports that are presented outside of the financial statements – including financial reviews by
management, environmental reports, and value added statements – are outside the scope of IFRSs.
Notes are presented in a systematic manner and cross-referenced from the face of the financial
statements to the relevant note.
Other disclosures
a. Judgments and key assumptions – judgments management has made in the process of applying the
entity's accounting policies that have the most significant effect on the amounts recognized in the financial
statements and key assumptions concerning the future, and other key sources of estimation uncertainty
at the end of the reporting period, that have a significant risk of causing a material adjustment to the
carrying amounts of assets and liabilities within the next financial year.
b. Dividends – the amount of dividends proposed or declared before the financial statements were
authorized for issue but which were not recognized as a distribution to owners during the period, and the
related amount per share, and the amount of any cumulative preference dividends not recognized.
e. Other information –
● domicile and legal form of the entity
● country of incorporation
● address of registered office or principal place of business
● description of the entity's operations and principal activities
● if it is part of a group, the name of its parent and the ultimate parent of the group
● if it is a limited life entity, information regarding the length of the life.
8. Third Statement of Financial Position
The improvement clarifies in regard to a third statement of financial position required when an entity
changes accounting policies, or makes retrospective restatements or reclassifications:
● Opening statement is only required if impact is material
● Opening statement is presented as at the beginning of the immediately preceding comparative
period required by IAS 1 (e.g. if an entity has a reporting date of 31 December 2012 statement of
financial position, this will be as at 1 January 2011)
● Only include notes for the third period relating to the change.
1. The objective of IAS 1 Presentation of Financial Statements is to prescribe the basis for presentation of
general purpose financial statements, to ensure
a. intracomparability b. intercomparability c. faithful representation d. a and b
2. General purpose financial statements are those statements that cater to the
a. common and specific needs of a wide range of external and internal users.
b. common needs of a wide range of external and internal users.
c. common needs of a wide range of external users.
d. specific needs of a wide range of external users.
3. The purpose of general purpose financial statements is to provide information about the
a. economic resources and obligations of an entity that is useful to a wide range of users in making
economic decisions.
b. financial position and financial performance of an entity that is useful to a wide range of users in
making economic decisions.
c. financial position, financial performance and cash flows of an entity that is useful to a limited range of
users in making economic decisions.
d. financial position, financial performance and cash flows of an entity that is useful to a wide range of
users in making economic decisions.
5. An additional statement of financial position as at the beginning of the earliest comparative period is
prepared when an entity makes (choose the incorrect statement)
a. retrospective application c. prospective application
b. retrospective restatement d. makes reclassification adjustments
7. According to IAS 1, the general features of financial statements include all of the following, except
a. fair presentation and compliance with IFRSs c. materiality and aggregation
b. comparability of presentation d. comparative information
9. When an entity changes the end of its reporting period and presents financial statements for a period
longer or shorter than one year, an entity shall disclose all of the following, except
a. the period covered by the financial statements
b. the reason for using a longer or shorter period
c. the fact that amounts presented in the financial statements are not entirely comparable
d. a quantification of the possible adjustments that would eliminate the effects of the longer or shorter
reporting period
10. The statement of financial position may be presented either by showing current/noncurrent distinction
(classified) or based on liquidity (unclassified). IAS 1 encourages the
a. classified presentation c. combination of a and b
b. unclassified presentation d. none of these
11. In a classified statement of financial position, IAS 1 requires deferred tax assets and deferred tax
liabilities to be presented as
a. current items b. noncurrent items c. either a or b d. none of these
13. According to IAS 1, an entity shall present all items of income and expense recognized in a period:
a. in a single statement of profit or loss and other comprehensive income
b. in two statements – an income statement and a statement of comprehensive income
c. in a single statement of changes in equity
d. either a or b
14. Other comprehensive income comprises items of income and expense (including reclassification
adjustments) that are
a. not recognized in profit or loss as required or permitted by other PFRSs
b. recognized in profit or loss as required or permitted by other PFRSs
c. either a or b
d. none of these
15. Which of the following is not one of the components of other comprehensive income?
a. changes in revaluation surplus
b. remeasurements of the net defined benefit liability (asset) unrealized gains and losses on FVPL
c. translation gains and losses on foreign operation
d. effective portion of gains and losses on hedging instruments in a cash flow hedge
22. Additional disclosure is required when expenses are presented under the
a. nature of expense method c. either a or b
b. function of expense method d. classified or unclassified
24. Which of the following statements is correct in relation to the provisions of IAS 1?
a. Owner changes in equity are presented in the statement of profit or loss and other comprehensive
income.
b. Non-owner changes in equity are presented in the statement of changes in equity.
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
25. The notes is an integral part of the financial statements. It presents all of the following except
a. information regarding the basis of preparation of financial statements
b. information required by the PFRSs
c. other information relevant to users of financial statements
d. auditor’s opinion
26. Financial statements include a statement of financial position, a statement of comprehensive income, a
statement of changes in equity and a statement of cash flows. Which of the following is also included
within the financial statements?
a. A statement of retained earnings c. An auditor’s report
b. Accounting policies d. A directors’ report
27. A third statement of financial position as at the beginning of the earliest comparative period is required
a. When an entity applies an accounting policy retrospectively.
b. When an entity makes a retrospective restatement of items in its financial statements.
c. When an entity reclassifies items in its financial statements.
d. In all of the above cases.
32. An entity shall present a complete set of financial statements, including comparative information, at least
annually. When an entity changes the end of its reporting period longer or shorter than one year, an
entity shall disclose all of the following, except
a. Period covered by the financial statements.
b. The reason for using a longer or shorter period.
c. The fact that amounts presented in the financial statements are not entirely comparable.
d. The fact that similar entities in the geographical area in which the entity operates have done so in the
current year.
34. The presentation and classification of items in the financial statements shall be retained from one period
to the next.
a. Consistency of presentation b. Materiality c. Aggregation d. Comparability
35. An entity can change the presentation and classification of items in the financial statements from one
period to the next when
I. It is apparent following a significant change in the nature of the entity’s operations or a review of
its financial statement that another presentation or classification would be more appropriate.
II. A PFRS requires a change in presentation.
a. I only b. II only c. Either I or II d. Neither I nor II
36. Which of the following must be included in an entity’s statement of financial position?
a. Contingent asset c. Share capital and reserves analyzed by class
b. Property, plant and equipment analyzed by class d. Deferred tax
37. Which of the following must be included in an entity’s statement of financial position?
a. Investment property c. Contingent liability
b. Number of shares authorized d. Shares in an entity owned by that entity
38. An entity must present additional line items in a statement of financial position when
a. Such presentation is relevant to an understanding of the entity’s financial position.
b. Such presentation is a generally accepted practice in the sector in which the entity operates.
c. Such presentation is required by the tax authorities of the jurisdiction in which the entity operates.
40. Current and noncurrent presentation of assets and liabilities provides useful information when the entity
a. Supplies goods or services within a clearly identifiable operating cycle
b. Is a financial institution
c. Is a public utility
d. Is a nonprofit organization
41. A presentation of assets and liabilities in increasing or decreasing order of liquidity provides information
that is reliable and more relevant than a current and noncurrent presentation for
a. Financial institution c. Government-owned entity
b. Public utility d. Service provider
42. An entity shall classify an asset as current when (choose the incorrect one)
a. The entity expects to realize, or intends to sell or consume it, in its normal operating cycle.
b. The entity holds the asset primarily for the purpose of trading.
c. The entity expects to realize the asset within twelve months after the reporting period.
d. The asset is cash or cash equivalent restricted to settle a liability for more than twelve months after
the reporting period.
43. When there is much variability in the duration of the entity’s normal operating cycle, the operating cycle
is measured at
a. Its mean value b. Its median value c. Twelve months d. Three years
44. An entity shall classify a liability as current when (choose the incorrect one)
a. The entity expects to settle the liability in its normal operating cycle.
b. The entity holds the liability primarily for the purpose of trading.
c. The liability is due to be settled within twelve months after the reporting period.
d. The entity has an unconditional right to defer settlement of the liability for at least twelve months
after the reporting period.
45. A financial liability that is due to be settled within twelve months after the reporting period shall be
classified as noncurrent
I. When it is refinanced on a long-term basis on or before the end of the reporting period.
II. When the entity has the discretion to refinance or roll over the obligation for at least twelve
months after the reporting period under an existing loan facility.
a. I only b. II only c. Both I and II d. Neither I nor II
46. When an entity breaches an undertaking under a long-term loan agreement on or before the end of the
reporting period with the effect that the liability becomes payable on demand
I. The liability is classified as current if the lender has agreed after the reporting period and before
the issuance of the statements not to demand payment as a consequence of the breach.
II. The liability is classified as noncurrent if the lender agreed on or before the end of the reporting
period to provide a grace period for at least twelve months after the reporting period within
which to rectify the breach.
a. I only b. II only c. Either I or II d. Neither I nor II
48. It is the change in equity during a period resulting from transactions and other events, other than those
changes resulting from transactions with owners in their capacity as owners.
a. Profit or loss c. Other comprehensive income
49. It comprises items of income and expense, including reclassification adjustments, that are not recognized
in profit or loss as required or permitted by other PFRS.
a. Comprehensive income c. Profit or loss
b. Other comprehensive income d. Retained profit
51. These are amounts reclassified to profit or loss in the current period that were recognized in other
comprehensive income in the current or previous period.
a. Prior period errors c. Unusual and irregular items
b. Reclassification adjustments d. Correcting entries
56. What is the “first item” presented in the notes to financial statements?
a. Statement of compliance with PFRS.
b. Summary of significant accounting policies.
c. Supporting information for items presented in of the financial statements.
d. Other disclosures, including contingent liabilities, unrecognized contractual commitments and
nonfinancial disclosures.
59. Disclosure of information about key sources of estimation uncertainty and judgments
a. Is voluntary c. Is either voluntary or mandatory
b. Is mandatory d. Depends on the industry
60. The cross-reference between each line item in the financial statements and any related information
disclosed in the notes to the financial statements
a. Is voluntary c. Depends on the industry
b. Is mandatory d. Is either voluntary or mandatory
1. The historical changes of cash flows are classified in the statement of cash flows into
a. operating activities b. investing activities c. financing activities d. all of these
2. These include transactions that affect long-term assets and other non-operating assets.
a. operating activities b. investing activities c. financing activities d. all of these
3. These include transactions that enter into the determination of profit or loss. These transactions
normally affect income statement accounts.
a. operating activities b. investing activities c. financing activities d. all of these
6. According to IAS 7, interest income that is received in cash is presented in the statement of cash flows as
a. operating activities b. investing activities c. financing activities d. either a or b
7. According to IAS 7, interest expense that is paid in cash is presented in the statement of cash flows as
a. operating activities b. investing activities c. financing activities d. either a or c
8. According to IAS 7, dividends paid in cash are presented in the statement of cash flows as
a. operating activities b. investing activities c. financing activities d. either a or c
9. It refers to a method of presenting the operating activities section of a statement of cash flows whereby
each major class of gross cash receipts and gross cash payments are shown separately.
a. direct method c. indirect method
b. nature of expense method d. function of expense method
11. Under the indirect method, the cash flow from operating activities is determined by adjusting the
reported profit or loss by (choose the incorrect statement)
a. adding back non-cash expenses c. deducting decreases in operating liabilities
b. adding back decreases in operating assets d. adding back increases in operating assets
12. Under the indirect method, the cash flow from operating activities is determined by adjusting the
reported profit or loss by (choose the incorrect statement)
a. deducting non-cash income c. deducting decreases in non-operating liabilities
b. deducting increases in operating assets d. deducting gains on sale of non-operating assets
16. An investment is normally classified as cash equivalent when it has a short maturity of
a. 3 months or less from the date of acquisition c. 6 months from the end of reporting period
b. 3 months or less from the end of reporting period d. 6 months from the date of acquisition
17. All of the following can be classified as cash and cash equivalent, except
a. Redeemable preference shares acquired and due in 60 days c. Equity investments
b. Loan notes held due for repayment in 90 days d. A bank overdraft
18. An entity purchased a three-month treasury bill. In preparing the entity's statement of cash flows, this
purchase would
a. Be treated as outflow from operating activities c. Be treated as outflow from financing activities
b. Be treated as outflow from investing activities d. Have no effect
21. Bank overdrafts that are repayable on demand and the bank balance often fluctuates from positive to
overdrawn shall be classified as
a. operating activities c. financing activities
b. investing activities d. component of cash and cash equivalents
25. Which classification of the cash flow arising from the proceeds from an earthquake disaster settlement
would be most appropriate?
a. Cash flows from operating activities c. Cash flows from financing activities
b. Cash flows from investing activities d. Does not appear in the statement of cash flows
26. Which of the following items should be presented under cash flows from investing activities?
a. Employee costs c. Redemption of debentures
b. Property revaluation d. Development costs capitalized in the period
27. Which classification of the cash flow arising from the disposal proceeds of a major item of plant would be
most appropriate?
a. Cash flows from operating activities c. Cash flows from financing activities
b. Cash flows from investing activities d. Does not appear in the statement of cash flows
28. Noncash investing and financing transactions include all of the following, except
a. The acquisition of asset either by assuming directly related liability or by means of a finance lease.
b. The acquisition of an entity by means of an equity issue.
c. The conversion of debt to equity.
d. Noncash items such as depreciation provisions, deferred taxes and unrealized foreign currency gains
and losses.
30. An entity shall report cash flows from operating activities using
a. Direct method b. Indirect method c. Either a or b d. Neither a nor b
31. An entity shall report separately cash flows arising from investing and financing activities using
a. Direct method b. Indirect method c. Either a or b d. Neither a nor b
32. Under the indirect method, the net cash flow from operating activities is determined by adjusting net
income or loss for the effects of
I. Changes during the period in inventories, operating receivables and operating payables.
II. Noncash items such as depreciation provisions, deferred taxes, unrealized foreign currency gains
and losses, undistributed earnings of associates, and noncontrolling interest.
III. All other items for which the cash effects are investing or financing cash flows.
a. I and II only b. I and III only c. I only d. I, II and III
33. Cash advances and loans made by financial institutions are usually classified as
a. operating activities c. financing activities
b. investing activities d. component of cash and cash equivalents
34. Interest paid and interest and dividend received may be classified as cash outflows for
a. operating activities b. borrowing activities c. lending activities d. financing activities
36. Alternatively, which of the following cash flows should be classified as operating cash flows?
a. interest paid b. interest received c. dividend received d. dividend paid
37. Cash flows arising from income taxes shall be separately disclosed and classified as
a. operating activities b. investing activities c. financing activities d. ordinary activities
38. The aggregate cash flows from acquisition and disposal of a subsidiary shall
a. Be classified as operating activities c. Be classified as financing activities
b. Be classified as investing activities d. Not be reported
39. Dividends received from an equity investee shall be presented in the statement of cash flows as
a. Deduction from cash flows from operating activities
b. Addition to cash flows from operating activities
c. Deduction from cash flows from investing activities
d. Addition to cash flows from investing activities
40. Which of the following cash flows does not appear in a statement of cash flows using indirect method?
a. Net cash flow from operating activities c. Cash inflow from sale of equipment
b. Cash received from customers d. Cash outflow for dividend payment
41. In a statement of cash flows, which of the following would increase reported cash flows from operating
activities using the direct method?
a. Dividends received from investments c. Gain or retirement of bonds
b. Gain on sale of equipment d. Change from straight line to accelerated depreciation
42. Which should not be disclosed in the statement of cash flows using the indirect method?
a. Interest paid, net of amounts capitalized c. Cash flow per share
b. Income taxes paid d. Dividends paid on preference shares
43. How should a gain from the sale of an equipment for cash be reported in a statement of cash flows using
the indirect method?
a. In investing activities as a reduction of the cash inflow from the sale
b. In investing activities as a cash outflow
c. In operating activities as a deduction from income
d. In operating activities as an addition to income
44. In a statement of cash flows, if used equipment is sold at a gain, the amount shown as a cash flow from
investing activities equals the carrying amount of the equipment
a. Plus the gain
b. Plus the gain and less the amount of tax attributable to the gain
c. Plus both the gain and the amount of tax attributable to the gain
d. With no addition or subtraction
45. When preparing a reconciliation of net income to cash from operations, an increase in inventory will
result in an adjustment to reported net income because
a. Cash is increased because inventory is a current asset.
b. Inventory is an expense deducted in computing net earnings, but is not a use of cash.
c. The net increase in inventory is part of the difference between cost of goods sold and cash paid to
suppliers.
d. All changes in noncash accounts must be disclosed.
46. The amortization of bond premium related to long-term debt shall be presented in a statement of cash
flows prepared using the indirect method as
a. Inflow and outflow of cash.
b. Outflow of cash.
c. Deduction from net income to reconcile net income to cash from operating activities.
d. Addition to net income to reconcile net income to cash from operating activities.
47. The amortization of patent shall be presented in a statement of cash flows prepared using the indirect
method as
a. Inflow and outflow of cash c. Addition to net income
b. Outflow of cash. d. Deduction from net income
49. Which of the following is not added to net income as an adjustment to reconcile net income to cash from
operating activities in the statement of cash flows?
a. Increase in an accrued liability c. Loss on sale of non-operating asset
b. Amortization of discount on bond payable d. Increase in deferred tax asset
50. An entity acquired a building paying a portion of the purchase price in cash and issuing a mortgage note
payable to the seller for the balance. In a statement of cash flows what amount is included in investing
activities for the transaction?
a. cash payment b. acquisition price c. zero d. mortgage amount
51. Which of the following should be reported when preparing a statement of cash flows?
I. Conversion of long-term debt to equity
II. Conversion of preference share to ordinary share
a. I only b. II only c. Both I and II d. Neither I nor II
52. At the beginning of the current year, an entity sold used equipment for a cash amount equaling its
carrying amount for both book and tax purposes. During the year, the entity replaced the equipment by
paying cash and signing a note payable for new equipment. The cash paid for the new equipment
exceeded the cash received for the old equipment. How should these equipment transactions be reported
in the entity's statement of cash flows?
a. Cash outflow equal to the cash paid less the cash received
b. Cash outflow equal to the cash paid and note payable less the cash received
c. Cash inflow equal to the cash received and a cash outflow equal to the cash paid and note payable
d. Cash inflow equal to the cash received and a cash outflow equal to the cash paid
53. At the beginning of the current year, an entity signed a 20-year building lease that it reported as a finance
lease. The entity paid the monthly lease payment when due. How should the entity report the effect of the
lease payment in the financing activities section of its statement of cash flows?
a. An inflow equal to the present value of future lease payment at the beginning of the year less
principal and interest payment
b. An outflow equal to the principal and interest payment on the lease
c. An outflow equal to the principal payment only
d. The lease payment should not be reported in the financing activities section
54. An entity’s wages payable increased from the beginning to the end of the year. In the entity's statement of
cash flows in which the operating activities section is prepared under the direct method, the cash paid for
wages would be
a. Salary expense plus wages payable at the beginning of the year
b. Salary expense plus the increase in wages payable
c. Salary expense less the increase in wages payable
d. The same as salary expense
55. Which of the following is not disclosed in the statement of cash flows when prepared under the direct
method, either on the face of the statement or in a separate schedule?
a. The major classes of gross cash receipts and gross cash payments
b. The amount of income taxes paid
c. A reconciliation of net income to net cash flow from operations
d. A reconciliation of ending retained earnings to net cash flow from operations
Accounting policies
specific principles, bases, conventions, rules and practices applied by an entity in preparing and presenting
financial statements.
Selection and application of accounting Changes in accounting policies
policies An entity shall change an accounting policy only if the
a. When an IFRS specifically applies to a change:
transaction, other event or condition, the a. is required by an IFRS; or
accounting policy or policies applied to b. results in the financial statements providing reliable
that item shall be determined by applying and more relevant information about the effects of
the IFRS. transactions, other events or conditions on the entity’s
b. In the absence of an IFRS that specifically financial position, financial performance or cash flows.
applies to a transaction, other event or
condition, management shall use its
judgment. The following sources should
be referred to, to make the judgment:
● Requirements and guidance in other The following are not changes in accounting policies:
standards/interpretations dealing with a. the application of an accounting policy for transactions,
similar issues other events or conditions that differ in substance
● Definitions, recognition criteria and from those previously occurring; and
measurement concepts in the b. the application of a new accounting policy for
framework transactions, other events or conditions that did not
● May use other GAAP that use a similar occur previously or were immaterial.
conceptual framework and/or may
Principle:
consult other industry
practice/accounting literature that is not ● If change is due to new standard/interpretation, apply
in conflict with standards or transitional provisions.
interpretations ● If no transitional provisions, apply retrospectively.
Consistency of accounting policies
An entity shall select and apply its Retrospective application - applying a new accounting
accounting policies consistently for policy to transactions, other events and conditions as if
similar transactions, other events and that policy had always been applied.
conditions, unless an IFRS specifically ● However, if it is impracticable to determine either the
requires or permits categorization of items period-specific effects or the cumulative effect of the
for which different policies may be change for one or more prior periods presented, the
appropriate. If an IFRS requires or permits entity shall apply the new accounting policy to the
such categorization, an appropriate carrying amounts of assets and liabilities as at the
accounting policy shall be selected and beginning of the earliest period for which retrospective
applied consistently to each category. application is practicable, which may be the current
period, and shall make a corresponding adjustment to
the opening balance of each affected component of
equity for that period.
● Also, if it is impracticable to determine the cumulative
effect, at the beginning of the current period, of
applying a new accounting policy to all prior periods,
the entity shall adjust the comparative information to
apply the new accounting policy prospectively from the
earliest date practicable.
Such errors include the effects of mathematical mistakes, mistakes in applying accounting policies,
oversights or misinterpretations of facts, and fraud.
Principle: Disclosures:
Correct material prior period errors retrospectively in the first a. the nature of the prior period
set of financial statements authorized for issue after their error
discovery by: b. for each prior period presented,
a. restating the comparative amounts for the prior period(s) to the extent practicable, the
presented in which the error occurred; or amount of the correction:
b. if the error occurred before the earliest prior period i.for each financial statement
presented, restating the opening balances of assets, line item affected
liabilities and equity for the earliest prior period presented. ii. if IAS 33 applies to
the entity, for basic and
A prior period error shall be corrected by retrospective diluted earnings per share
restatement except to the extent that it is impracticable to c. the amount of the correction at
determine either the period-specific effects or the cumulative the beginning of the earliest
effect of the error. prior period presented
1. Choose the correct order of the hierarchy of financial reporting standards under IAS 8.
I. IFRSs comprising IASs, IFRSs, and Interpretations
II. Other accounting literature and industry practices
III. Requirements in other IFRSs dealing with similar transactions
IV. Management’s judgment
V. Standards issued by other standard-setting bodies that use a similar conceptual framework
VI. Conceptual framework
a. I, III, VI, V, IV, II c. I, IV, III, VI, V, II
b. I, III, VI, V, II, IV d. I, III, VI, IV, V, II
3. It results from changes in the realization (or incurrence) of expected inflow (or outflow) of economic
benefits from assets (or liabilities).
a. change in accounting policy c. error
b. change in accounting estimate d. any of these
11. These are the specific principles, bases, conventions, rules and practice applied by an entity in preparing
and presenting financial statements.
12. It is an adjustment of the carrying amount of an asset or a liability or the amount of the periodic
consumption of an asset that results from the assessment of the present status and expected future
benefit and obligation associated with the asset and liability.
a. Change in accounting estimate c. Correction of a prior period error
b. Change in accounting policy d. Change in reporting entity
13. This means “applying a new accounting policy to transactions, other events and conditions as if that
policy had always been applied”.
a. Retrospective application c. Prospective application
b. Retrospective restatement d. Prospective restatement
14. This means “applying a new accounting policy to transactions occurring after that date at which the
policy changed”.
a. Retrospective application c. Retrospective restatement
b. Prospective application d. Prospective restatement
15. This means “correcting the recognition, measurement and disclosure of amounts of elements of financial
statements as if a prior period error never occurred.”
a. Retrospective application c. Prospective application
b. Retrospective restatement d. Prospective restatement
19. Which of the following statements in relation to a change in accounting estimate is true?
I. Changes in accounting estimates are accounted for retrospectively. x
II. Changes in accounting estimates result from new information or new developments.
a. I only b. II only c. Both I and II d. Neither I nor II
20. When it is difficult to distinguish a change in an accounting policy from a change in an accounting
estimate, the change is treated as
a. Change in accounting estimate with appropriate disclosure
b. Change in accounting policy
c. Correction of an error
d. Initial adoption of an accounting policy
An entity shall adjust the amounts recognized in An entity shall not adjust the amounts
its financial statements to reflect adjusting events recognized in its financial statements to reflect
after the reporting period. non-adjusting events after the reporting period.
Examples:
a. the settlement after the reporting period of a Examples:
court case that confirms that the entity had a a. decline in fair value of investments between
present obligation at the end of the reporting the end of the reporting period and the date
period. when the financial statements are authorized for
b. the receipt of information after the reporting issue.
period indicating that an asset was impaired b. a major business combination after the
at the end of the reporting period, or that the reporting period or disposing of a major
amount of a previously recognized impairment subsidiary
loss for that asset needs to be adjusted. For c. announcing a plan to discontinue an
example: operation
i. the bankruptcy of a customer that occurs d. major purchases of assets, classification of
after the reporting period usually confirms assets as held for sale in accordance with
that the customer was credit-impaired at the IFRS 5, other disposals of assets, or
end of the reporting period; expropriation of major assets by government
ii. the sale of inventories after the reporting e. the destruction of a major production plant
period may give evidence about their net by a fire after the reporting period
realizable value at the end of the reporting f. announcing, or commencing the implementation
period. of, a major restructuring (see IAS 37)
c. the determination after the reporting period of g. major ordinary share transactions and
the cost of assets purchased, or the proceeds potential ordinary share transactions after
from assets sold, before the end of the reporting the reporting period
period. h. abnormally large changes after the reporting
d. the determination after the reporting period of period in asset prices or foreign exchange
the amount of profit-sharing or bonus rates
payments, if the entity had a present legal or i. changes in tax rates or tax laws enacted or
constructive obligation at the end of the announced after the reporting period that have
reporting period to make such payments as a a significant effect on current and deferred tax
result of events before that date assets and liabilities
e. the discovery of fraud or errors that show that j. entering into significant commitments or
the financial statements are incorrect. contingent liabilities, for example, by issuing
significant guarantees
k. commencing major litigation arising solely out
of events that occurred after the reporting
period.
Disclosures:
1. The date when the financial statements were authorized for issue and who gave that
authorization. If the entity’s owners or others have the power to amend the financial statements after
issue, the entity shall disclose that fact.
2. If an entity receives information after the reporting period about conditions that existed at the end of
the reporting period (adjusting events), it shall update disclosures that relate to those conditions, in
the light of the new information.
3. If non-adjusting events after the reporting period are material, non-disclosure could influence the
economic decisions that users make on the basis of the financial statements. Accordingly, an entity shall
disclose the following for each material category of non-adjusting event after the reporting period:
a. the nature of the event; and
b. an estimate of its financial effect, or a statement that such an estimate cannot be made.
Other considerations:
1. Going concern:
An entity shall not prepare its financial statements on a going concern basis if management determines
after the reporting period either that it intends to liquidate the entity or to cease trading, or that it has
no realistic alternative but to do so.
2. Dividends:
If an entity declares dividends to holders of equity instruments after the reporting period, the entity
Disclosures in the notes about going concern and dividends declaration shall be in accordance with IAS 1.
1. These refer to those that occur between then end of reporting period and the date the financial
statements are authorized by an entity’s management for issue.
a. events after the income statement c. external events
b. events after the reporting period d. intervening events
2. CPA Co. uses a calendar period for its financial reporting. Its current financial statements are authorized
for issue on March 1, 2015. CPA’s events after the reporting period are those events that occur
a. from January 1, 2015 to March 1, 2015 c. from January 1, 2014 to March 1, 2015
b. from December 31, 2014 to March 1, 2015 d. from March 1, 2015 to December 31, 2015
3. These are events that provide conditions that existed at the end of reporting period.
a. adjusting events c. nonreciprocal transfers
b. non-adjusting events d. events other than transfers
4. These are events that provide conditions that arose after the end of reporting period. If relevant to users,
these events are disclosed in the financial statements
a. adjusting events c. nonreciprocal transfers
b. non-adjusting events d. events other than transfers
5. It is the date when an entity’s management authorizes the financial statements for issue, regardless of
whether such authorization is for final issuance or for further approval by other parties.
a. date of authorization of financial statements for issue c. balance sheet date
b. financial reporting date d. valentine’s date
8. When after the end of the reporting period an event occurs that is indicative of conditions that arose after
the end of the reporting period
a. The entity shall disclose the nature and effect of the event in the financial statements.
b. The entity shall adjust the related amounts recognized in the financial statements.
c. The entity shall not disclose the nature and effect of the event in the financial statements.
d. The entity shall not adjust the related amounts recognized in the financial statements.
The disclosures have to be made in the related consolidated and separate financial
statements of:
● A parent
● Investors with joint control of an investee
● Investor with significant influence over an investee.
Objective The objective of this IAS 24 is to ensure that an entity’s financial statements contain the
disclosures necessary to draw attention to the possibility that its financial position and
profit or loss may have been affected by the existence of related parties and by
transactions and outstanding balances, including commitments, with such parties.
Definitions
1. Related party - a person or entity that is related to the entity that is preparing its financial statements
(in this Standard referred to as the ‘reporting entity’)
a. A person or a close member of that person’s family is related to a reporting entity if that person:
i. has control or joint control of the reporting entity
ii. has significant influence over the reporting entity
iii. is a member of the key management personnel of the reporting entity or of a parent of the
reporting entity
b. An entity is related to a reporting entity if any of the following conditions applies:
i. The entity and the reporting entity are members of the same group (which means that each
parent, subsidiary and fellow subsidiary is related to the others).
ii. One entity is an associate or joint venture of the other entity (or an associate or joint venture of a
member of a group of which the other entity is a member).
iii. Both entities are joint ventures of the same third party.
iv. One entity is a joint venture of a third entity and the other entity is an associate of the third
entity.
v. The entity is a post-employment benefit plan for the benefit of employees of either the reporting
entity or an entity related to the reporting entity. If the reporting entity is itself such a plan, the
sponsoring employers are also related to the reporting entity.
vi. The entity is controlled or jointly controlled by a person identified in (a).
vii. A person identified in (a)(i) has significant influence over the entity or is a member of the key
management personnel of the entity (or of a parent of the entity).
viii. The entity, or any member of a group of which it is a part, provides key management personnel
services to the reporting entity or to the parent of the reporting entity.
2. Related party transaction - a transfer of resources, services or obligations between a reporting entity
and a related party, regardless of whether a price is charged
3. Close members of the family of a person - those family members who may be expected to influence,
or be influenced by, that person in their dealings with the entity and include:
a. that person’s children and spouse or domestic partner;
b. children of that person’s spouse or domestic partner; and
c. dependents of that person or that person’s spouse or domestic partner
4. Compensation - includes all employee benefits (as defined in IAS 19 Employee Benefits) including
Entity
-Subsidiar
-Joint ventu
Entity Y1 Entity Y2 - Associat
-Controlled by Y -Y is KMP
-Jointly controlled by Y
-Significant influence
held by Y Entity Y3
-Controlled by Y2
Person Z
-Close family member of Y
Entity Z1 Entity Z2
-Controlled by Z -Z is KMP
-Jointly controlled by Z
-Significant influence
held by Z Entity Z3
-Controlled by Z2
Person X Person W
-Close family member -KMP of RE
of W -Significant influence over RE
i
Entity X1
-Controlled by X Entity W1
-Jointly controlled -Controlled by W REPORTING ENTITY
by X -Jointly controlled by W
Entity RE1
-Subsidiary of RE
-Joint venture of RE
-Associate of RE
3. According to IAS 24, it is a transfer of resources, services or obligations between a reporting entity and a
related party, regardless of whether a price is charged.
a. related party disclosure c. related party transaction
b. related party relationship d. intercompany transfer
6. A party is related to an entity if the party, directly or indirectly through one or more intermediaries
I. Controls, is controlled by or is under common control with the entity
II. Has an interest in the entity that gives it significant influence over the entity
III. Has joint control over the entity.
a. I only b. I and II only c. I and III only d. I, II and III
10. An entity shall disclose key management personnel compensation. Which of the following is included in
key management personnel compensation?
a. Social security contribution only
b. Postemployment benefit only
c. Both social security contribution and postemployment benefit
d. Neither social security contribution nor postemployment benefit
If an entity disposes of a group of assets, possibly with directly associated liabilities (i.e.
an entire cash-generating unit), together in a single transaction, if a non-current asset in
the group meets the measurement requirements in IFRS 5, then IFRS 5 applies to the
group as a whole. The entire group is measured at the lower of its carrying amount and
Definitions
1. Cash-generating unit – the smallest identifiable group of assets that generates cash inflows that are
largely independent of the cash inflows from other assets or groups of assets.
2. Discontinued operations – a component of an entity that either has been disposed of or is classified as
held for sale and:
a. represents a separate major line of business or geographical area of operations,
b. is part of a single coordinated plan to dispose of a separate major line of business or
geographical area of operations or
c. is a subsidiary acquired exclusively with a view to resale
3. Disposal group – a group of assets to be disposed of, by sale or otherwise, together as a group in a
single transaction, and liabilities directly associated with those assets that will be transferred in the
transaction.
4. Fair value – the price that would be received to sell an asset or paid to transfer a liability in an orderly
transaction between market participants at the measurement date.
Classification
1. An entity shall classify a non-current asset (or disposal group) as held for sale if its carrying amount will
be recovered principally through a sale transaction rather than through continuing use. The following
criteria must be met:
a. The asset (or disposal group) is available for immediate sale.
b. The terms of asset sale must be usual and customary for sales of such assets
c. The sale must be highly probable
● Management is committed to a plan to sell the asset
● An active programme to locate a buyer and complete the plan must have been initiated
● Asset must be actively marketed for a sale at a reasonable price in relation to its current fair
value
d. Sale should be completed within one year from classification date (except if delay is caused by
events or circumstances beyond the entity’s control and the entity remains committed to its plan to
sell the asset or disposal group)
2. Sale transactions include exchanges of non-current assets for other non-current assets when the
exchange has commercial substance in accordance with IAS 16 Property, Plant and Equipment.
3. When an entity acquires a non-current asset exclusively with a view to its subsequent disposal, it shall
classify the non-current asset as held for sale at the acquisition date only if the one-year requirement is
met.
Measurement
1. An entity shall measure a non-current asset (or disposal group) classified as held for sale at the lower of
its carrying amount and fair value less costs to sell.
2. An entity shall measure a non-current asset (or disposal group) classified as held for distribution to
owners at the lower of its carrying amount and fair value less costs to distribute.
3. Immediately before the initial classification of the asset (or disposal group) as held for sale, the carrying
amounts of the asset (or all the assets and liabilities in the group) shall be measured in accordance with
2. Non-current assets are presented as current items in the statement of financial position
a. only when they are expected to be sold within 12 months from the end of the reporting period
b. only if they are actually sold after the reporting period but before the date of authorization of the
financial statements for issue
c. only when they qualify as held for sale assets under IFRS 5
d. never presented as current items
4. A noncurrent asset classified as held for sale in accordance with IFRS 5 has not been sold after a year. The
asset shall continue to be presented as held for sale under IFRS 5 if
a. the delay is due to events beyond the entity’s control
b. the entity remains committed to its plan to sell the asset
c. the noncurrent asset is actually sold after the reporting period but before the financial statements
were authorized for issue
d. both a and b
5. The qualification of an asset to be classified as held for sale after the reporting period but before the
financial statements are authorized for issue
a. is a non-adjusting event after the reporting period
b. is an adjusting event after the reporting period
c. is an extraordinary item
d. either a or b
6. Which of the following statements is true regarding the accounting treatment of costs to sell under IFRS
5?
a. Costs to sell are added to the fair value when determining the measurement basis for an asset held
for sale.
b. Costs to sell are never discounted because held for sale assets should be sold within one year.
c. Costs to sell are discounted if it is expected that the sale will be made beyond one year.
d. Both a and c
7. According to IFRS 5, gains and losses on remeasurement of assets held for sale are
a. recognized in profit or loss c. recognized only for impairment losses
b. recognized in other comprehensive income d. not recognized
10. The results of discontinued operations are presented separately in the statement of profit or loss and
other comprehensive income
a. as a single amount gross of tax c. as part of the regular line items
b. as a single amount net of tax d. either a or b
12. It is a group of assets to be disposed of by sale or otherwise, together as a group in a single transaction,
and liabilities directly associated with those assets that will be transferred in the transaction.
a. Disposal group c. Noncurrent asset held for sale
b. Discontinued operation d. Cash-generating unit
13. A noncurrent asset or disposal group shall be classified as held for sale when
I. The sale is highly probable.
II. The asset is available for immediate sale in its present condition subject only to terms that are usual
and customary for sales of such asset or disposal group.
a. I only b. II only c. Both I and II d. Either I or II
14. In order for a noncurrent asset to be classified as held for sale, the sale must be highly probable. “Highly
probable” means
a. The future sale is likely to occur.
b. The future sale is more likely than not to occur.
c. The sale is certain.
d. The probability is higher than more likely than not.
15. For the sale of a noncurrent asset held for sale to be highly probable (choose the incorrect one)
a. Management must be committed to a plan to sell the asset.
b. An active program to locate a buyer and complete the plan must have been initiated.
c. The asset must be actively marketed for sale at a reasonable price in relation to its current fair value.
d. The sale should be expected to qualify for recognition as a completed sale within two years from the
date of classification of the asset as “held for sale”.
16. An entity shall classify a noncurrent asset or disposal group as “held for sale” when
a. The carrying amount of the asset or disposal group will be recovered through a sale transaction.
b. The carrying amount of the asset or disposal group will be recovered through continuing use.
c. The noncurrent asset or disposal group is to be abandoned.
d. The noncurrent asset or disposal group is idle or retired from active use.
17. A noncurrent asset that is to be abandoned should not be classified as held for sale because
a. Its carrying amount will be recovered principally through continuing use.
b. It is difficult to value.
c. It is unlikely that the noncurrent asset will be sold within 12 months.
d. It is unlikely that there will be an active market for the noncurrent asset.
18. An entity shall measure a noncurrent asset or disposal group classified as held for sale at
a. carrying amount c. lower of carrying amount and fair value less cost to sell
b. fair value less cost to sell d. higher of carrying amount and fair value less cost to sell
19. Which of the following statements in relation to noncurrent asset held for sale is true?
20. A noncurrent asset classified as “held for sale” shall be presented in the statement of financial position as
a. Current asset c. Property, plant and equipment
b. Noncurrent investment d. Intangible asset
21. Which statement is incorrect concerning presentation of noncurrent asset or disposal group classified as
held for sale?
a. An entity shall present a noncurrent asset held for sale and the assets of a disposal group classified as
held for sale under current assets separately from other assets.
b. The liabilities of a disposal group classified as held for sale shall be presented under current
liabilities separately from other liabilities.
c. The assets and liabilities a disposal group classified as held for sale shall not be offset as a single
amount.
d. An entity shall depreciate a noncurrent asset classified as held for sale or while it is part of a disposal
group classified as held for sale.
22. An entity shall recognize any subsequent increase in fair value less cost to sell of a noncurrent asset or
disposal group classified as held for sale as
a. Deferred gain as component of equity
b. Deferred gain as component of liability
c. Gain entirely to be included in profit or loss
d. Gain to be included in profit or loss but not in excess of the cumulative impairment loss previously
recognized
23. An entity classified a noncurrent asset accounted for under the cost model as held for sale at the current
year-end. Because no offers were received at an acceptable price, the entity decided at the end of the
following year not to sell the asset, but to continue to use it. The asset should be measured at the end of
the following year at
a. The lower of carrying amount and recoverable amount.
b. The higher of carrying amount and recoverable amount.
c. The lower of carrying amount on the basis that it had never been classified as held for sale and
recoverable amount.
d. The higher of carrying amount on the basis that it had never been classified as held for sale and
recoverable amount.
24. This is defined as the “operations and cash flows that can be clearly distinguished, operationally and for
financial reporting purposes, from the rest of the entity.
a. Component of an entity b. Disposal group c. Noncurrent asset d. Foreign operation
26. A discontinued operation is a component of an entity that either has been disposed of or is classified as
held for sale and
I. Represents a separate major line of business or geographical area of operations.
II. Is part of a single coordinated plan to dispose of a separate major line of business or geographical
area of operations.
III. Is a subsidiary exclusively with a view to resale.
a. I only b. I and II only c. I and III only d. I, II and III
27. Which of the following is a requirement for a component of an entity to be classified as discontinued
operation?
a. Its activities must permanently cease prior to the financial statements being authorized for issue.
30. An entity has correctly classified its manufacturing operation as a disposal group held for sale and as
discontinued operation during the current year. Which of the following statements is true?
I. The disposal group’s results for the preceding year shall be re-presented as relating to discontinued
operation in the comparative figures for the statement of comprehensive income for the current year.
II. The disposal group’s assets at the end of the preceding year shall be re-presented as held for sale in
the comparative figures for the statement of financial position at the current year-end.
a. I only b. II only c. Both I and II d. Neither I nor II