QUESTION1

Unless otherwise specified, a control zone is

​ 1.
​ the same as a control area.
​ 2.
​ controlled airspace around an aerodrome that extends vertically from the surface
to 3,000 feet AGL.
​ 3.
​ controlled airspace along airways above 2,200 feet ASL.
​ 4.
​ always Class D airspace.

QUESTION2

Would the Regulations be violated, if a pilot

voluntarily landed an aircraft in bright moonlight at an
aerodrome where the length of the landing area was
indicated by a single row of white lights?

​ 1.
​ There would be no violation, provided the lights were in the centre of the landing
area.
​ 2.
​ There would be no violation, provided the aeroplane was equipped with a
functioning landing light.
​ 3.
​ Yes, the CAR for aerodrome minimum lighting would have been violated.
​ 4.
​ There would be no violation, provided air to ground communication was
available.
QUESTION3

“Day” in Canada is defined as that period of time

between

​ 1.
​ sunrise and sunset.
​ 2.
​ one hour before sunrise and one hour after sunset.
​ 3.
​ the end of morning civil twilight and the beginning of evening civil twilight.
​ 4.
​ the beginning of morning civil twilight and the end of evening civil twilight.

QUESTION4

No person shall walk, drive or park a vehicle on any

part of an uncontrolled aerodrome used for the
movement of aircraft except in accordance with
permission given by

​ 1.
​ the aerodrome UNICOM operator.
​ 2.
​ a Federal Peace Officer.
​ 3.
​ a qualified representative of a commercial air service being operated from the
aerodrome.
​ 4.
​ the operator of the aerodrome.
QUESTION5

No person shall fly or attempt to act as a flight crew

member of an aircraft if that person

​ 1.
​ is less than 18 years of age.
​ 2.
​ is over 60 years of age.
​ 3.
​ has consumed alcohol or drugs 48 hours prior to take-off.
​ 4.
​ is suffering or is likely to suffer from fatigue.

QUESTION6

A person may conduct aerobatic manoeuvres in an

aircraft

​ 1.
​ within Class C advisory airspace when the visibility is greater than 1 NM.
​ 2.
​ within Class F advisory airspace when visibility is 3 miles or greater.
​ 3.
​ over a built-up area above 2,000 feet AGL.
​ 4.
​ only when no passengers are carried.
QUESTION7

When two aircraft are converging at approximately the

same altitude, the aircraft that has the other on its
right shall give way except that

​ 1.
​ power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft shall give way to airships, gliders and
balloons.
​ 2.
​ gliders shall give way to aeroplanes.
​ 3.
​ helicopters shall give way to aeroplanes.
​ 4.
​ aeroplanes shall give way to rotary wing aircraft.

QUESTION8

When two aircraft are approaching head-on or

approximately so and there is danger of collision,
each pilot shall

​ 1.
​ alter heading to the left.
​ 2.
​ avoid the other by changing altitude.
​ 3.
​ turn on the anti-collision lights.
​ 4.
​ alter heading to the right.
QUESTION9

Pilots are responsible for taking action as necessary

to avoid a collision

​ 1.
​ except when within visual range of the control tower.
​ 2.
​ at all times.
​ 3.
​ only when flying in VFR conditions.
​ 4.
​ unless flying in accordance with an ATC clearance.

QUESTION10

Unless conducting a take-off, approach or landing, no

person shall fly an aeroplane over a built-up area
unless the aeroplane is operated at an altitude that is
not lower than . . . . . above the highest obstacle within
a radius of . . . . . from the aircraft.

​ 1.
​ 500 ft, 500 ft
​ 2.
​ 1,000 ft, 2,000 ft
​ 3.
​ 3,000 ft, 1 mile
​ 4.
​ 2,000 ft, 1,000 ft
QUESTION11

What is the minimum fuel required on an aeroplane,

other than an ultra-light, at the commencement of a
day VFR flight? Sufficient fuel to fly to the destination

​ 1.
​ at minimum cruising speed.
​ 2.
​ and then to a specified alternate.
​ 3.
​ plus 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
​ 4.
​ plus 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.

QUESTION12

The signal to an aircraft in flight which means “give

way to other aircraft and continue circling” is

​ 1.
​ an intermittent white light.
​ 2.
​ a series of green flashes.
​ 3.
​ a steady red light.
​ 4.
​ a succession of pyrotechnics showing red and green stars on bursting.
QUESTION13

Any person holding a licence, permit or certificate

issued under the authority of the CARs shall produce
such document for inspection, upon demand by

​ 1.
​ a peace officer, or immigration officer.
​ 2.
​ a pilot holding a valid instructor rating.
​ 3.
​ any pilot holding a senior licence.
​ 4.
​ an airport owner or operator.

QUESTION14

If your Private Pilot Licence is endorsed for night

flying you may carry passengers at night provided
you have completed at least . . . . . take-offs and
landings by night in the same category and class of
aircraft during the . . . . . months immediately
preceding the flight.

​ 1. 5, 6
​ 2. 10, 12
​ 3. 3, 4
​ 4. 2, 3

\
QUESTION15

An ATC clearance authorizing SVFR

​ 1.
​ relieves the pilot of the responsibility for avoiding weather conditions beyond the
pilot’s own flying capabilities.
​ 2.
​ relieves the pilot of the responsibility of avoiding other aircraft.
​ 3.
​ relieves the pilot of the responsibility of complying with the CARs.
​ 4.
​ permits a pilot to fly in below VFR weather conditions without complying with
instrument flight rules.

QUESTION16

In Southern Domestic Airspace, the selection of a

cruising altitude above 3,000 feet AGL shall be based
on the

​ 1.
​ magnetic track.
​ 2.
​ true track.
​ 3.
​ magnetic heading.
​ 4.
​ true heading.
QUESTION17

The minimum flight visibility for VFR flight in a control

area is
​ 1.
​ 1 mile.
​ 2.
​ 5 miles.
​ 3.
​ 2 miles.
​ 4.
​ 3 miles.

QUESTION18

When in VFR flight within the altimeter setting region,

the altimeter should be set to

​ 1.
​ 29.92 in. Hg. or 1013.2 mb.
​ 2.
​ the current altimeter setting of the nearest station along the route of flight.
​ 3.
​ the station pressure of the nearest weather reporting station.
​ 4.
​ the standard altimeter setting.
QUESTION19

In Southern Domestic Airspace, runway 27 at an

aerodrome would have a bearing of approximately

​ 1.
​ 027ºM.
​ 2.
​ 027ºT.
​ 3.
​ 270ºT.
​ 4.
​ 270ºM.

QUESTION20

Unless otherwise authorized, a pilot on a VFR flight

entering Class C airspace must

​ 1.
​ request a clearance from the appropriate ATC unit immediately after entering.
​ 2.
​ establish radio contact with the appropriate ATC unit only when transiting the
associated control zone.
​ 3.
​ receive a clearance from the appropriate ATC unit prior to entering.
​ 4.
​ contact radar service only when taking off or landing at the associated airport
QUESTION21

If an aeroplane stalls while descending in a

co-ordinated left turn, it may enter

​ 1.
​ an incipient right spin.
​ 2.
​ an incipient left spin.
​ 3.
​ a steep right spiral.
​ 4.
​ a shallow left spiral.

QUESTION22

The manoeuvring speed for an aeroplane is the

maximum

​ 1.
​ speed at which the aeroplane may be flown with the flaps lowered.
​ 2.
​ speed at which full travel of the flight controls may be used without exceeding the
design load factor.
​ 3.
​ speed at which the aeroplane can be safely operated in smooth air.
​ 4.
​ safe speed at which the aeroplane should be operated.
QUESTION23

If ice has accumulated on an aerofoil in flight, the

stalling speed will

​ 1.
​ remain unchanged.
​ 2.
​ decrease in all flight conditions.
​ 3.
​ increase in level flight only
​ 4.
​ increase in all flight conditions.

QUESTION24

The indicated stalling speed of an aeroplane

​ 1.
​ is higher when flying downwind than upwind.
​ 2.
​ decreases with altitude.
​ 3.
​ increases with altitude.
​ 4.
​ does not change with change of altitude.
QUESTION25

The stalling speed of an aeroplane

​ 1.
​ is the same in a co-ordinated turn as in straight and level flight.
​ 2.
​ is less in a co-ordinated turn than in straight and level flight.
​ 3.
​ is greater in a co-ordinated turn than in straight and level flight.
​ 4.
​ increases in climbing turns, decreases in gliding turns.

QUESTION26

The use of low octane fuel in a high compression

engine may result in

​ 1.
​ too lean a mixture for best operation.
​ 2.
​ carburettor icing.
​ 3.
​ fouling of the spark plugs.
​ 4.
​ detonation.

QUESTION27

If one magneto should fail on an engine equipped with

dual ignition

​ 1.
​ the engine would stop.
​ 2.
 ​ there would be no effect on the engine.
​ 3.
​ half of the cylinders would not fire.
​ 4.
​ a slight loss of power would result.

QUESTION28

The use of carburetor heat will

​ 1.
​ decrease manifold pressure and lean out the mixture.
​ 2.
​ decrease manifold pressure and enrich the mixture.
​ 3.
​ increase manifold pressure and lean out the mixture.
​ 4.
​ increase manifold pressure and enrich the mixture.

QUESTION29

Under which conditions would the most serious

carburettor icing be expected? Outside air
temperature range of . . . . . and . . . . . humidity.

​ 1.
​ -5°C to 15°C, high
​ 2.
​ -21°C to 0°C, high
​ 3.
​ -21°C to 0°C, low
​ 4.
​ 5°C to 27°C, low
QUESTION30

It is possible for carburettor icing to occur

​ 1.
​ in clear air with high relative humidity at above freezing temperatures.
​ 2.
​ only when precipitation is present at freezing temperatures.
​ 3.
​ only in cloud with high relative humidity.
​ 4.
​ only when water droplets are in suspension in the air.

QUESTION31

Prolonged idling of an aircraft engine would most

likely cause

​ 1.
​ fouled plugs.
​ 2.
​ backfiring in the induction system.
​ 3.
​ detonation.
​ 4.
​ pre-ignition.
QUESTION32

Ground effect will enable an aeroplane to become

airborne below normal flying speed primarily due to

​ 1.
​ an increase in wing tip vortices.
​ 2.
​ a decrease in induced drag.
​ 3.
​ a decreased lift/drag ratio.
​ 4.
​ an increase in downwash.

QUESTION33

The correct height above sea level is indicated on a

pressure altimeter set to 29.92 in. Hg only when
​ 1.
​ the barometric pressure is 29.92 in. Hg.
​ 2.
​ you are in the Standard Pressure Region.
​ 3.
​ a standard lapse rate exists.
​ 4.
​ the conditions of a standard atmosphere exist.

QUESTION34

The altimeter setting is 29.70 in. Hg. If the pilot

inadvertently sets 30.70 in. Hg on the altimeter
subscale, the altimeter will read

​ 1.
​ 1,000 ft too high.
 ​ 2.
​ 1,000 ft too low.
​ 3.
​ 100 ft too high.
​ 4.
​ 100 ft too low.

QUESTION35

A major early symptom of hypoxia is

​ 1.
​ dizziness.
​ 2.
​ hyperventilation.
​ 3.
​ euphoria.
​ 4.
​ drowziness.

QUESTION36

If you are looking at a featureless sky during hazy or

dark conditions, your eyes will tend to focus at a point
approximately . . . . . ft away.

​ 1.
​ 3 to 5
​ 2.
​ 30 to 50
​ 3.
​ 300 to 500
​ 4.
​ 3,000 to 5,000
QUESTION37

The effects of one drink of alcohol at sea level will

​ 1.
​ increase with an increase in altitude
​ 2.
​ decrease with an increase in altitude.
​ 3.
​ remain constant to 6,000 feet ASL.
​ 4.
​ remain the same with an increase in altitude.

QUESTION38

During an approach to land on an upsloping runway,

the pilot may experience the illusion that the
aeroplane is . . . . . than it actually is.

​ 1.
​ lower
​ 2.
​ approaching faster
​ 3.
​ closer in
​ 4.
​ higher

QUESTION39

When turning from downwind to into-wind at low

altitude, a pilot may experience an illusion of

​ 1.
 ​ slipping and decreasing airspeed.
​ 2.
​ skidding and increasing airspeed.
​ 3.
​ skidding and decreasing airspeed.
​ 4.
​ slipping and increasing airspeed.

QUESTION40

Wheelbarrowing on landing may result from a

​ 1.
​ low approach speed.
​ 2.
​ shallow approach angle.
​ 3.
​ high approach speed.
​ 4.
​ strong cross-wind.

QUESTION41

Wake turbulence caused by a departing aeroplane is

most severe immediately

​ 1.
​ above its flight path.
​ 2.
​ following full power application.
​ 3.
​ before rotation.
​ 4.
​ following rotation.
QUESTION42

An aircraft flying an approach into a strong head wind

encounters a sudden tailwind near the ground. The
wind shear hazard to be expected is a sudden

​ 1.
​ increase in airspeed and increase in lift.
​ 2.
​ decrease in groundspeed and loss of lift.
​ 3.
​ decrease in airspeed and loss of lift.
​ 4.
​ increase in groundspeed and increase in lift.

QUESTION43

The upper limit of the white arc on an airspeed

indicator is the maximum
 ​ 1.
​ manoeuvring speed.
​ 2.
​ normal operating speed.
​ 3.
​ range speed.
​ 4.
​ flap extension speed.

QUESTION44

The turn co-ordinator indicates that the aircraft is in a

​ 1.
​ skidding right turn.
​ 2.
​ slipping left turn.
​ 3.
​ skidding left turn.
​ 4.
​ slipping right turn.
QUESTION45

Deceleration errors in the magnetic compass would

be most pronounced on headings of

​ 1.
​ west and south.
​ 2.
​ east and north.
​ 3.
​ east and west.
​ 4.
​ north and south.

QUESTION46

Aerodrome elevation is 3,600ft

Altimeter Setting is 29.52 in. Hg

Using the above information, what is the pressure

altitude?

​ 1.
​ 3,200ft
​ 2.
​ 4,000ft
​ 3.
​ 3,640 ft
​ 4.
​ 3,560ft
QUESTION47

Pressure altitude is 4,500ft

Temperature is 20 degrees Celsius.

Using the above information, what is the density

altitude?

​ 1.
​ 5,100 ft.
​ 2.
​ 4,500 ft.
​ 3.
​ 6,100 ft.
​ 4.
​ 7,300 ft.

QUESTION48
For a take-off on runway 31 with the wind from 270° at
20 kt, the aircraft would be subject to head wind and
cross-wind components respectively of

​ 1.
​ 15 and 20 kt.
​ 2.
​ 15 and 13 kt.
​ 3.
​ 20 and 15 kt.
​ 4.
​ 13 and 15 kt.

QUESTION49

Please open the Take-off Distance Chart. Clicking the

link opens a new window.

Runway is level and dry grass; Aerodrome pressure

altitude is 4,000ft; Temperature is 20 degrees; Head
wind is 9 knots; Weight is 1600lbs.

Using the above data, the total distance to clear a 50

foot obstacle is

​ 1.
​ 2,444 ft.
​ 2.
​ 2,199 ft.
​ 3.
​ 2,063 ft.
 ​ 4.
​ 1,912 ft.

QUESTION50

Please open the loading graph here. Link opens a new

window.

Using the above data the aeroplane

​ 1.
​ is within the weight limits but is not within the CG limits.
​ 2.
​ is within the weight limits for the utility category only.
​ 3.
​ is within both the weight and the CG limits.
​ 4.
​ exceeds both the weight limits and the CG limits.

QUESTION51

Relative humidity is the

​ 1.
​ amount of moisture present in the air.
​ 2.
​ weight of water present in the air.
 ​ 3.
​ amount of moisture present in the air compared to the amount the air could hold
at that temperature and pressure.
​ 4.
​ temperature to which the air must be lowered to bring about saturation.

QUESTION52

The cloud type usually associated with steady rain is

​ 1.
​ nimbostratus.
​ 2.
​ stratocumulus.
​ 3.
​ altocumulus.
​ 4.
​ altostratus.

QUESTION53

Clouds form when moist warm air overruns cold air

because the warm air

​ 1.
​ is cooled by the cold air underneath.
​ 2.
​ is cooled by the surrounding cold air aloft.
​ 3.
​ becomes unstable as a result of cooling from below.
​ 4.
​ cools as a result of expansion as it rises.

QUESTION54
Advection fog forms when

​ 1.
​ moist air moves from a warm surface to a colder surface.
​ 2.
​ the cold ground cools the air in contact with it at night.
​ 3.
​ moist air is influenced by orographic effect.
​ 4.
​ moist cool air moves from a cold surface to a warm surface.

QUESTION55

Radiation fog forms as a result of the

​ 1.
​ ground becoming cold at night and cooling the air in contact with it.
​ 2.
​ clouds becoming cold and heavy at night so that they settle to the ground.
​ 3.
​ air becoming moist as it moves over the sea.
​ 4.
​ passage of cold air over a warm surface.

QUESTION56

In the northern hemisphere, the winds blow

​ 1.
​ clockwise around high and low pressure areas.
​ 2.
​ counter-clockwise around high and low pressure areas.
​ 3.
​ clockwise around a high pressure area and counter-clockwise around a low
pressure area.
​ 4.
 ​ counter-clockwise around a high pressure area and clockwise around a low
pressure area.

QUESTION57

During a descent from 2,000 feet AGL to the surface,

you will usually find that the wind

​ 1.
​ veers and decreases.
​ 2.
​ backs and increases.
​ 3.
​ backs and decreases.
​ 4.
​ veers and increases.

QUESTION58

The diurnal change of surface wind velocity is such

that during the day the surface wind will usually

​ 1.
​ back and increase in speed.
​ 2.
​ back and decrease in speed.
​ 3.
​ veer and decrease in speed.
​ 4.
​ veer and increase in speed.
QUESTION59

In the standard atmosphere, the temperature at an

altitude of 4,000 feet will be closest to

​ 1.
​ 10ºC
​ 2.
​ 5ºC
​ 3.
​ 2ºC
​ 4.
​ 7ºC

QUESTION60

The conditions required for the formation of

thunderstorms are

​ 1.
​ stratus cloud, high humidity and a lifting force.
​ 2.
​ moist air, high temperature, and an inversion.
​ 3.
​ a mixing of two different air masses.
​ 4.
​ unstable air, high humidity and a lifting force.

QUESTION61

A condition when the air temperature aloft is higher

than that of the lower atmosphere is generally referred
to as
 ​ 1.
​ a low pressure area.
​ 2.
​ an inversion.
​ 3.
​ a reverse temperature condition.
​ 4.
​ an inverse convection condition.

QUESTION62

Air masses that are being cooled from below are

characterized by

​ 1.
​ fog, poor visibility and layer cloud.
​ 2.
​ continuous rain, freezing temperature.
​ 3.
​ uniform temperature, good visibility.
​ 4.
​ strong winds, cumulus cloud, good visibility.

QUESTION63

A front is a

​ 1.
​ narrow zone of fog between a cyclone and an anticyclone.
​ 2.
​ line of thunderstorms.
​ 3.
​ mass of layer cloud which is very thick and which covers a wide area.
​ 4.
​ narrow transition zone between two air masses.
QUESTION64

During the passage of a cold front

​ 1.
​ fog will always form from the interaction of warm and cold air.
​ 2.
​ warm air is lifted as colder air pushes under it.
​ 3.
​ temperature rises owing to increased pressure.
​ 4.
​ warm air is compressed as cold air rides over it.

QUESTION65

The following sequence of clouds is observed at an

airport: cirrus, altostratus, nimbostratus. The observer
should expect

​ 1.
​ anticyclonic weather.
​ 2.
​ the passage of a warm front.
​ 3.
​ clearing skies and a decrease in temperature.
​ 4.
​ the passage of a cold front.

QUESTION66

Cloud heights in Canadian Aerodrome Forecasts

(TAF) are given in

​ 1.
 ​ feet ASL.
​ 2.
​ metres AGL.
​ 3.
​ metres ASL.
​ 4.
​ feet AGL.

QUESTION67

Failure to adjust the altimeter when flying from an

area of low pressure to an area of higher pressure will
result in the altimeter indicating

​ 1.
​ the pressure altitude.
​ 2.
​ too low.
​ 3.
​ the true altitude.
​ 4.
​ too high.

QUESTION68

Please open the Upper Winds here.

The average wind applicable to a direct flight between

the above two points at 5,500ft at 1900z would be

​ 1.
​ 260°T at 24 kt.
​ 2.
​ 260°M at 26 kt.
 ​ 3.
​ 260°T at 26 kt.
​ 4.
​ 260°M at 24 kt.

QUESTION69

The forecast surface wind will be included in a GFA if

it has a sustained speed of at least . . . . . kt.

​ 1.
​ 20
​ 2.
​ 5
​ 3.
​ 10
​ 4.
​ 15

QUESTION70

Refer to the Appendix GFA.

The center of the low pressure system is . . . . .

between 0600Z and 01200Z.

​ 1.
​ moving north-easterly
​ 2.
​ moving westerly
​ 3.
​ moving south-easterly
​ 4.
​ stationary
QUESTION71

Refer to the Appendix GFA.

This forecast covers a period of . . . . . hours and

includes a . . . . . hour IFR outlook.

​ 1.
​ 12, 24
​ 2.
​ 12, 12
​ 3.
​ 24, 6
​ 4.
​ 24, 12

QUESTION72

Refer to the Appendix TAF

The cloud condition at Quebec (CYQB) is forecast to

​ 1.
​ remain a ceiling until 06z.
​ 2.
​ scatter, then clear until 17z.
​ 3.
​ change from broken to scattered.
​ 4.
​ remain unchanged.

QUESTION73

Refer to the Appendix TAF.

The visibility in St. John’s (CYYT) between 22z and 24z
is

​ 1.
​ greater than 6 SM.
​ 2.
​ 15SM in light snow showers.
​ 3.
​ 15NM in light snow showers.
​ 4.
​ greater than 6 NM.

QUESTION74

The Norman Wells (CYVQ) aerodrome forecast covers

a period of . . . . . hours.

​ 1.
​ 24
​ 2.
​ 12
​ 3.
​ 6
​ 4.
​ 10

QUESTION75

Refer to the Appendix TAF

The Halifax (CYHZ) 1500z wind is forecast to be

​ 1.
 ​ 330°M at 8 kt.
​ 2.
​ calm.
​ 3.
​ 330°T at 8 kt.
​ 4.
​ from the northeast at 7 kt.

QUESTION76

Refer to the Appendix METAR/TAF

The 0300z Montreal (CYUL) METAR indicates that the

​ 1.
​ winds are weaker than forecast.
​ 2.
​ ceiling is as forecast.
​ 3.
​ visibility is lower than forecast.
​ 4.
​ visibility is as forecast.

QUESTION77

Refer to the Appendix METAR

The ceiling at Quebec (CYQB) at 0300z is

​ 1.
​ 650 ft.
​ 2.
​ 450 ft.
​ 3.
​ 6,500 ft.
​ 4.
​ 4,500 ft.
QUESTION78

Refer to the Appendix METAR

The 0300z temperature/dewpoint spread at Norman

Wells (CYVQ) is

​ 1.
​ 20°C
​ 2.
​ 29°C
​ 3.
​ 4°C
​ 4.
​ 25°C

QUESTION79

Refer to the Appendix METAR

The altimeter setting at Montreal (CYUL) is

​ 1.
​ 9232 in Hg.
​ 2.
​ 30.20 in Hg.
​ 3.
​ 1232.0 mb.
​ 4.
​ 30.05 in Hg.
QUESTION80

A METAR describes the weather

​ 1.
​ expected at a station over a 12 hour period.
​ 2.
​ expected at a station at a given time.
​ 3.
​ observed at a station during the previous day.
​ 4.
​ observed at a station at the time of the report.

QUESTION81

If a heading of 250°M maintains your outbound track

of 242°M, the required heading to maintain the
reciprocal track back to your departure point would be

​ 1.
​ 062°M.
​ 2.
​ 070°M.
​ 3.
​ 078°M.
​ 4.
​ 054°M.

QUESTION82

What is the distance between the following two

geographic co-ordinates: N44º00’ W78º00’ and N45º00’
W78º00’
 ​ 1.
​ 10 SM.
​ 2.
​ 60 SM.
​ 3.
​ 10 NM.
​ 4.
​ 60 NM.

QUESTION83

Refer to the Appendix: CFS Lindsay, ON

Select the correct statements with respect to the

aerodrome information.

1. Circuits are right hand on runways 13 and 21.

2. Aircraft radio controlled aerodrome lighting is
available.
3. There are PAPI lights on runways 31 and 13.
4. Customs service is available.
5. There is an FSS at the aerodrome.
6. Jet fuel is available.
​ 1.
​ 1, 2, 3, 4
​ 2.
​ 2, 5, 6
​ 3.
​ 1, 2, 4, 6
​ 4.
​ 3, 4, 6
QUESTION84

The hypsometric tinting on the chart indicates that

between the Lindsay and Gananoque aerodromes the
flight will be conducted over ground which is between

​ 1.
​ sea level and 1,500 ft.
​ 2.
​ sea level and 1,000 ft.
​ 3.
​ sea level and 2,000 ft.
​ 4.
​ 1,000 ft and 2,000 ft.

QUESTION85

Wind 300°T at 17kt; True Air Speed 100 kt; Track 010°T

Using the above information the computed heading

and groundspeed en route Oshawa to Lindsay is
nearest to

​ 1.
​ 012°M and 93 kt.
​ 2.
​ 008°M at 95 kt.
​ 3.
​ 359°M at 97 kt.
​ 4.
​ 032°M at 100 kt.
QUESTION86

Refer to the VNC.

What is the magnetic track from Lindsay (CNF4) to

Gananoque (CNN8)?

​ 1.
​ 281°.
​ 2.
​ 077°.
​ 3.
​ 100°.
​ 4.
​ 089°.

QUESTION87

Refer to the VNC.

The estimated flight time from Lindsay to Gananoque

at 5,500 ft with a groundspeed of 100 kt is nearest to

NOTE: Add an extra 2 minutes for each 1,000 ft of

climb.

​ 1.
​ 1 hour and 15 minutes.
​ 2.
​ 1 hour and 25 minutes.
​ 3.
​ 1 hour and 05 minutes.
​ 4.
​ 1 hour and 20 minutes.
QUESTION88

Average fuel consumption is 7.5 gph; total flight time

is 1 hour and 40 minutes.

Add 2.0 gal for taxi, take-off and climb at Oshawa.

Add 2.0 gal for taxi, take-off and climb at Lindsay.

Using the above information, calculate the day VFR

fuel requirements for a flight from Oshawa to
Gananoque with a stop at Lindsay.

​ 1.
​ 23 gal.
​ 2.
​ 12.8 gal.
​ 3.
​ 16.5 gal.
​ 4.
​ 20.3 gal.

QUESTION89

Given Pressure Altitude of 4,500ft; Outside Air

Temperature of 15°C; and Indicated Airspeed of 90
knots.

Using the above information, what is the true

airspeed? Assume indicated airspeed is equal to
calibrated airspeed.
 ​ 1.
​ 106 kt.
​ 2.
​ 81 kt.
​ 3.
​ 98 kt.
​ 4.
​ 90 kt.

QUESTION90

Refer to the VNC.

The highest obstacle within 5 NM either side of your

track from Lindsay to Gananoque is

​ 1.
​ 1,857 feet ASL.
​ 2.
​ 1,306 feet ASL.
​ 3.
​ 1,246 feet AGL.
​ 4.
​ 1,475 feet ASL.

QUESTION91

Refer to the VNC.

While on track abeam Peterborough (N44º13’

W78º21’), you wish to obtain the latest weather for
Kingston (N44º13’ W76º35’) to get some indication of
what conditions will be at Gananoque. What would be
the most appropriate station and frequency to call for
this information?

​ 1.
​ London Radio 123.375 MHz.
​ 2.
​ Peterborough UNICOM 123.0 MHz.
​ 3.
​ Campbellford Radio 113.5 MHz.
​ 4.
​ Trenton Tower 128.7 MHz.

QUESTION92

Your aircraft crosses the town of Bridgenorth (N44°23’

W78°23’) at 1810Z. At 1826Z your aircraft is abeam the
town of Norwood (N44°23’ W77°59’). Your ETA at
Gananoque aerodrome will be closest to

​ 1.
​ 1924z
​ 2.
​ 1934z
​ 3.
​ 1936z
​ 4.
​ 1930z
QUESTION93

Refer to the VNC.

You are north of track over the town of Marlbank

(N44°26’ W77°05’). Using the opening and closing
angles method, you should alter heading to the right

​ 1.
​ 2°.
​ 2.
​ 5°.
​ 3.
​ 10°.
​ 4.
​ 8°.

QUESTION94

Refer to the VNC.

What class of airspace would you be flying through

when your aircraft is at 5,500 feet ASL, over Marlbank
(N44°26’ W77°05’)?

​ 1.
​ F.
​ 2.
​ E.
​ 3.
​ D.
​ 4.
​ G.
QUESTION95

Refer to the VNC.

With the VOR receiver tuned to the Coehill VOR

(N44º40’ W77º50’), when you are over the town of
Norwood (N44°23’ W77°59’) the CDI should be

​ 1.
​ centred with a “FROM” indication when the OBS is 205°.
​ 2.
​ centred with a “FROM” indication when the OBS is 123°.
​ 3.
​ deflected full right when the OBS is 025°.
​ 4.
​ centred with a “FROM” indication when the OBS is 025°.

QUESTION96

Questions relating to DF Steers have been

permanently removed from Transport Canada’s
database.

​ 1.
​ This is the correct answer.
QUESTION97

When a VFR flight itinerary has been filed and no

search and rescue time has been specified in the
flight plan, the pilot-in-command shall file an arrival
report with the appropriate ATS unit not later than

​ 1.
​ 24 hours after the last reported ETA.
​ 2.
​ 12 hours after landing.
​ 3.
​ 24 hours after landing.
​ 4.
​ 1 hour after the last reported ETA.

QUESTION98

Refer to the VNC.

What class of airspace surrounds Peterborough

airport?

​ 1.
​ C.
​ 2.
​ G.
​ 3.
​ D.
​ 4.
​ E.
QUESTION99

The reported ceiling at Peterborough is 1,000 ft

broken and visibility is 3 miles. To remain VFR in this
airspace, an aircraft must join the circuit at
Peterborough

​ 1.
​ as high as possible without entering cloud.
​ 2.
​ in accordance with SVFR.
​ 3.
​ 1,200 ft ASL.
​ 4.
​ 1,700 ft ASL.

QUESTION100

Which of the following is a radio navigational aid that

is based on signals in the low frequency range?

​ 1.
​ VOR.
​ 2.
​ NDB.
​ 3.
​ all are correct.
​ 4.
​ DME.