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Flight Control Qs

1. Pitch direct law uses a direct relationship between the sidestick and elevators through the THS using manual trim control. 2. The THS is not available after yellow and green system failure or after loss of FAC 1 and 2. 3. In normal law, the pitch normal law provides load factor limitation, high angle of attack protection, high speed protection, and pitch attitude protection.

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114 views5 pages

Flight Control Qs

1. Pitch direct law uses a direct relationship between the sidestick and elevators through the THS using manual trim control. 2. The THS is not available after yellow and green system failure or after loss of FAC 1 and 2. 3. In normal law, the pitch normal law provides load factor limitation, high angle of attack protection, high speed protection, and pitch attitude protection.

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sachin jain
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© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
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Flight controls

1. The pitch direct law is:


a. A direct side stick to elevator relationship.
b. Achieved through the THS using manual trim control.
c. An A/P mode.

2. When is the THS not available?


a. After yellow and green system failure.
b. Never lost, always available manually.
c. After loss of FAC 1 and 2.
d. After blue system failure.

3. How many degrees down do the ailerons extend (aileron droop)?


a. They don’t extend down.
b. They extend 5 degree down when selecting landing gear down.
c. They extend 5 degree down when the flaps are extended.
d. They extend as required in turbulence.

4. Which surfaces are used for lift dumping on ground?


a. All spoilers, 1 to 5.
b. Spoilers 1 to 3.
c. Spoilers 1 to 4.
d. Spoilers 2 to 5.

5. Which signals cause rudder pedal movement?


a. Yaw damping signals.
b. Rudder trim signals.
c. Turn coordination signals.
d. A/P signals.

6. If ELAC 1 and 2 have failed:


a. Pitch control is provided by the FACs.
b. Pitch control can only be achieved from the trim wheel.
c. Pitch control is manual.
d. The elevator and pitch trim are controlled by SEC 1 or 2.

7. If FAC 1 and 2 have failed:


a. The rudder can always be controlled from the pedals.
b. The rudder control is lost.
c. The rudder control is provided by SEC 3.
d. SEC 1 and 2 control rudder.
8. When both sticks are moved in the same or opposite direction:
a. The surface movement is proportional to the algebraic sum of the deflections of both sticks.
b. The surface movement is proportional to the last stick deflected.
c. The surface movement is proportional to the first stick deflected.
d. The control surfaces will not move.

9. Rudder control is electrical for yaw damping and trim:


a. Yes.
b. No.
c. Only for trim.
d. Only in flight.

10. What statement is correct?


a. Ground spoiler function: all spoilers deploy.
b. Speedbrake function: spoilers 1, 2, 3, deploy.
c. Roll function: ailerons + spoilers 4 and 5 deploy.
d. Speedbrake: all spoilers deploy.

11. How many control modes are there on the elevators servo jacks?
a. 2.
b. 3.
c. 4.
d. 1.

12. What are the limits for manoeuvre protection:


a. + 2.5 g – 1 g clean.
b. + 2 g – 0 flaps extended.
c. a and b.
d. + 1.0g - 2.5g.

13. Which ELAC normally controls the elevators and the stabilizer:
a. ELAC 1.
b. ELAC 2.
c. Both in parallel.
d. ELAC 1 with ELAC 2 in standby.

14. How many hydraulic motors drive the screw jack of the stabilizer:
a. 2.
b. 3.
c. 1.
d. 4.

15. How many electric motors can control the hydraulic motor of the stabilizer?
a. 1.
b. 2.
c. 3.
d. 4.
16. In normal law, the flight mode changes to the flare mode when passing:
a. 50 ft.
b. 100 ft.
c. 200 ft.
d. 570 ft.

17. How can a deactivated stick be reactivated?


a. By momentary action on takeover pushbutton of the active stick.
b. By momentary action on the takeover pushbutton of deactivated stick.
c. Both A and B is correct.
d. By momentary action on takeover pushbutton of both sticks.

18. At landing when passing 30 ft:


a. The attitude is memorized.
b. The attitude is progressively reduced to 2° nose down, to force the pilot to make a nose up input.
c. The attitude is progressively reduced to 2° nose up.
d. The attitude is held at that pertaining at 50'.

19. In roll normal law, the bank angle protection is active when bank angle is:
a. >45°.
b. >33°.

c. >67°.

20. The roll normal law provides combined control of the:


a. Ailerons + spoilers 2 to 5 + rudder.
b. Ailerons + spoiler 2 to 5.
c. Ailerons only.
d. Ailerons + spoilers 1 to 4 + rudder.

21. If ELAC 1 and 2 have failed:


a. Roll control is provided by ailerons only.
b. Roll control is provided by ailerons and spoilers.
c. Roll control is provided by spoilers only.
d. Roll control is provided by ailerons and rudder.

22. In flight, if a WTB (wing tip brake) is activated, can you release it?
a. Yes.
b. No.
c. Only when you have tailwind.
d. Yes. when flap lever is returned to previous position.
23. If configuration 0 is not selected after take-off, the flaps automatically retract at:
a. > 180 knots.
b. 210 knots.
c. V2.
d. 230 knots.

24. What happens when SFCC 1 fails?


a. Nothing.
b. Flaps and slats operate at half speed.
c. Flaps system lost.
d. Wing tip brakes operate for flaps only.

25. After Flap retraction, when is CONF 1+F available again?


a. At 100 kt or less.
b. If CONF 2, 3 or FULL has been selected previously.
c. Both A) and B) are correct.
d. Below 50 knots.

26. Is it possible to select an intermediate position with the flaps and slats selector?
a. Yes.
b. Only if THS is outside green band.
c. Only if green hydraulics are serviceable.
d. No.

27. If you are flying at an angle of attack more than ɑ prot, what happens when you release the stick?
a. Speed returns to VLS.
b. Speed returns to ɑ prot.
c. Speed returns to VFE.
d. Speed remains at ɑ max.

28. When roll direct law is active, the yaw damping is:
a. Degraded.
b. Lost.
c. Upgraded.
d. Automatic.

29. Sideslip target:


a. Is used to check that the aircraft flies with rudder trimmed correctly.
b. To indicate how much rudder to use to get the best climb performance in case of engine failure.
c. Is only visible when both engines are running and disappear in case of an engine failure.
d. To indicate how much rudder is required in cross winds.

30. How many hydraulic systems activate the rudder?


a. 1.
b. 2.
c. None, rudders are manual.
d. 3.
31. Slat retraction from 1 to 0 is inhibited if angle of attack exceeds 8 or speed < 148 knots:
a. True.
b. False.
c. True if A/C altitude is below 3000 ft.
d. Only on go-around.

32. In alternate law, the change to direct law occurs when:


a. Landing gear down and AP disconnected.
b. When Flaps 1 is selected.
c. Passing 50 ft.
d. When landing configuration is selected.

33. SLATS SYS 1 FAULT on the ECAM warning display means?


a. SFCC has failed.
b. The slat channel in one SFCC has failed.
c. The slats cannot operate.
d. Slat asymmetry has occurred.

34. With blue hydraulic system remaining and before landing gear extension, the flight control law is:
a. Alternate.
b. Normal.
c. Direct.
d. Mechanical backup.

35. The pitch normal law provides:


a. Only: load factor limitation + pitch attitude protection + high speed protection.
b. Load factor limitation + high angle of attack protection + high speed protection + pitch attitude
protection.
c. Only: load factor limitation + pitch attitude protection + low speed stability.
d. High speed and low speed stability + load factor limitation.

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