THEORIES OF PERSONALITY

INSTRUCTIONS: Read each question carefully and choose the best answer among the given
choices. Shade your answers on the corresponding item number on your answer sheet. Avoid
erasures.

1. The word personality comes from “persona” which is originally meant

A. Theatrical mask. C. The animal side of human nature.
B. Soul. D. That which one truly is.
2. Psychologists are most likely to agree that
A. Three personality traits can explain all human behaviour.
B. Personality refers mostly to surface appearance.
C. There is a single best definition of personality
D. None of the above.
3. A pattern of relatively permanent traits and unique characteristics that give both consistency and
individuality to human behaviour is called
A. Personality. C. A specific trait.
B. A general trait. D. A genetic predisposition.
4. Which term should be most closely associated with the word theory?
A. Speculations. C. Science.
B. Taxonomy. D. Philosophy.
5. A theory can be defined as
A. An unverified hypothesis.
B. An Educated guess.
C. A group of philosophical speculations concerning the nature of reality.
D. A set of related assumptions that generate testable hypotheses.
6. Which statement best reflects the relationship between theory and hypothesis?
A. Theories are narrower than hypotheses.
B. A single theory may generate several hypotheses.
C. Theories flow logically from specific hypothesis.
D. Theories can be proven; hypothesis cannot.
7. A hypothesis is best defined as
A. A classification system. C. An unproved theory.
B. Armchair speculation. D. An educated guess or prediction
8. Taxonomies are
A. Systems for classifying data. C. Guidelines for living a principled life.
B. Principles of learning that make up a D. Legal entities for raising revenue
theory.
9. What is the relationship among theory, hypothesis, and observation?
A. Observation are practical tools; theories and hypothesis are impractical.
B. Theories generate hypotheses that lead to observation that may be alter the original theory.
C. Hypothesis generate theories, which then result in observations.
D. Observations generate hypotheses. Which in turn generate theories.
10. The ultimate value of a theory is its
 A. Truthfulness. C. Simplicity.
B. Usefulness. D. Logic.
11. A theory should be open to disconfirmation. This refers to the theory’s ability to
A. Be proven. C. Provide guidelines for the practitioner.
B. Generate research. D. Be falsified.
12. A related of if-then assumptions would constitute a
A. Hypothesis. C. Theory
B. Philosophy. D. Scientific experiment.
13. The subdiscipline of psychology that looks at the personal traits of scientist is called
A. Psychology of science. C. Science in autobiographical study.
B. The science of psychology. D. Psychology in autobiographical study.
14. Although scientist are influenced by their personal characteristics, the usefulness of their work is
A. The clarity of their observations. C. Judged by their scientific product.
B. The reliability of their measuring D. Judged by their ability to create a
instruments. Workable taxonomy.
15. A useful theory should
A. Server as a guide to action. C. Generate research.
B. Organize observations. D. All of the above.
16. An internally consistent theory
A. Generate a single hypothesis.
B. Can be directly verified.
C. Can explain nearly all empirical observations.
D. Includes operational definitions of its terms.
17. A theory that is as simple as possible is
A. Internally consistent. C. Useless.
B. Parsimonious D. An operational theory.
18. An explanation of behaviour in terms of future goals or purposes is
A. A parsimonious theory. C. Causal.
B. Also hypothetical. D. Teleogical.
19. A test that yields consistent results is said to be
A. Standardized C. reliable.
B. A norm-referenced test. D. Valid.
20. A valid test
A. Is also reliable. C. is usually unreliable.
B. Has a pencil and paper format. D. is also standardized.

Situation: Mr. V consulted a psychologist for possible psychotherapy. He was referred to you for
evaluation. On your assessment he has problems on his sexuality, oftentimes wanting to have
intimate relationship with same sex. He experiences uneasiness when conversations lead towards
topics such as homosexuality and gender. Question 21-30 relates to this care.

21. Adopting a psychodynamic explanation, you may argue that Mr. V has problems on which of the
following?
A. Reality anxiety. C. Anal stage.
B. Oedipal complex. D. Latent stage.
 22. Freud and other psychoanalytic theorist believe that:
A. Adult personality is an important indicator of current psychopathology.
B. Characteristics of a person will result to various outcomes.
C. Childhood events will significantly affect adult life.
D. Perception about life events will affect decision making throughout life.
23. The psychologist that supervises you wanted to look into the potential outcomes of Mr. V based
on his strengths. Which of the following theorist may reflect the same kind of perspective:
A. Abraham Maslow. C. Carl Jung.
B. Sigmund Freud. D. Raymond Cattell.
24. Mr. V believes that he has his own identity that should be followed. However he also believe that
other peoples’ opinion about him may be important as well to be considered. The clash of two
opposing opinions that confuses him may be represented by which Kelly’s corollaries?
A. Individuality. C. Range.
B. Choice. D. Fragmentation.
25. The following are related with psychodynamic perspectives except:
A. Personality structures are almost complete by age 7 years old.
B. A person’s motivation stems from his own volition.
C. People are affected by family dynamics.
D. Our drive to do something stems from conflicts and repressed needs.
26. While conversing, Mr. V continuously narrates his sexual urges with his co-worker. He
fantasizes whenever he sees his co-worker in the office. His childlike wishes and inability to
control his urges is an example of:
A. Primary-process thoughts. C. Reality principle.
B. Secondary-process thoughts. D. Ego-ideal.

Primary process thinking is, according to Robert Holt, drive-laden oral, aggressive, and
libidinal content and illogical thinking related to that content. It is a developmentally early,
primitive system of thought not subject to logic and heavily affect-laden.

27. You expect that a psychologist working in a psychoanalytic framework will employ the
following assessment techniques except:
A. Free association. C. Hypnotism.
B. Dream analysis. D. MMSE
28. You identified various problem areas with Mr. V case. Which of the following case report write-
up is appropriate to describe Mr. V’s gender identity concerns?
A. His superego and id has different opinions about himself.
B. His ego cannot control his id.
C. Whenever he sees a handsome guy, he fells the urge to masturbate.
D. Mr. V has problems with Erikson’s Identity vs. Role confusion stage of development.
29. Mr. V joins various singing contents and impersonates different Hollywood actresses. He feels
relieved and accepted unlike when he shows his sexual urges publicly. Which of the following
defense mechanism is employed?
A. Denial. C. Repression.
B. Sublimation. D. Regression.
30. Based on DSM-IV-TR multiaxial diagnosis, does Mr. V have a personality disorder?
 A. Yes, his personality is fragile because of his identity issues.
B. No, because he has no Axis-II diagnosis.
C. Yes, his deviant characteristics make his personality problematic.
D. No, because sexuality does not affect personality.
31. This term best describes Allport’s approach to the study of personality.
A. Eclectic. C. Trait and factor.
B. Theoretical. D. Behaviouristic.
32. Rogers belived that all behaviour relates to one’s
A. Enhancement needs. C. Safety needs.
B. Ideal self. D. Actualizing tendency.
33. Tyler has a negative view of himself. To increase his self-concept, his parent and teachers
continually praise and compliment him. Rogers believed that such praise and compliments are
most likely to
A. Enhance Tyler’s self-esteem. C. Be easily accepted into Tyler’s
B. Reinforce Tyler’s negative behaviour. Self-concept
D. Be distorted by Tyler
34. In his theory of motivation. Maslow assumed that
A. People in different cultures have different basic needs.
B. Motivation is nearly always conscious.
C. People are motivated by one need at a time.
D. People continually motivated by one need or another.
E. All of these answers are correct.
35. Maslow’s concept of hierarchy of needs assumes that
A. Higher needs have prepotency over lower needs.
B. Lower needs have prepotency over higher needs.
C. Love needs are more basic than physiological needs.
D. Cognitive needs must be satisfied before aesthetic needs become motivators.
E. Aesthetic needs are prepotent over cognitive needs.
36. With regard to needs, which of these statements would Maslow endorse?
A. Safety needs must be satisfied more fully than physiological needs.
B. People are usually conscious of their underlying needs.
C. The order of needs may be reversed in certain cases.
D. One need must be completely satisfied before another can become a motivator.
E. If people cannot satisfy their love needs, then they can skip to the level of esteem needs.
37. Which of the following was NOT listed by Maslow as characteristics of self-actualizing people?
A. Social interest. C. Acceptance of self, others, and nature.
B. Autonomy. D. People-centered.
C. Need for privacy.
38. Personal constructs are best defined as
A. Subjective opinions held without substantiating evidence.
B. Events that are shaped by personal biases.
C. Alternative ways of looking at the world
D. Transparent templates or patterns that help people make sense out of the world.
39. Kelly’s fundamental postulate assumes that
 A. Present behaviour is guided by past experiences.
B. People guide their actions by the ways they predict the future.
C. All behaviour, without exception, is completely determined by and pertinent to one’s
phenomenal field.
D. Personal constructs are convenient for an infinite range of events.
40. Which of Kelly’s corollaries assumes that people can hold seemingly incompatible beliefs?
A. Choice. D. Dichotomy.
B. Organization. E. Individuality.
C. Fragmentation.

Situation: You are tasked to work in an HR recruitment department. You are currently assessing
the applicability of the available psychometric tools of the company. Questions 41-50 relates to this
situation.

41. You understand that self-inventories and psychometric tests seeks to:
A. Describe personality. C. Predict personality.
B. Explain personality. D. Change personality.
42. Hans Eysenck proposed a dimension model of personality. Intense guilt feelings may be grouped
under which dimension?
A. Openness to experience. D. Agreeableness.
B. Conscientiousness. E. Neuroticism.
C. Extroversion.

Eysenck (1952, 1967, 1982) proposed a theory of personality based on biological factors,
arguing that individuals inherit a type of nervous system that affects their ability to learn
and adapt to the environment.

The PEN model is a biological theory of personality developed by influential psychologist Hans
Eysenck (1916-1997). The model focusses on three broad personality factors: psychoticism,
extraversion and neuroticism (PEN).

43. An employee stated “Susundin ko ang alam kong tama kahit na may suggestion si boss.” Which
of the following may describe his behaviour?
A. Low openness. D. High neuroticism.
B. High conscientiousness. E. Low neuroticism.
C. Low agreeableness.

44. Trait theorist often derived their personality model using which of the following?
A. Statistical analyses. C. Phenomenological analyses.
B. Interviews. D. Case finding.

They have identified important dimensions of personality. The Five Factor Model is the most
widely accepted trait theory today. The five factors are openness, conscientiousness,
extroversion, agreeableness, and neuroticism.
 45. You saw that your company has MBTI and you are quite knowledgeable on its use. Since your
company is involved in marking and door-to-door sales. You will most likely to be interested in
looking into:
A. E/I scales. C. T/F scales.
B. S/N scales. D. J/P scales.

Page 1. MBTI stands for Myers Briggs Type Indicator. This is a tool which is frequently used to
help individuals understand their own communication preference and how they interact with others.
Having an awareness of what MBTI is can help you adapt your interpersonal approach to different
situations and audiences. MBTI.

The four categories are introversion/extraversion, sensing/intuition, thinking/feeling,

judging/perceiving. Each person is said to have one preferred quality from each category,
producing 16 unique types. The MBTI was constructed for normal populations and emphasizes
the value of naturally occurring differences.

N is intuition, S is sensing

46. Ms. H often wants to read novels, write news articles, and blogs about current political issues
based on BIR reports. Her co-worker Mr. G also loves to write articles about his realization as an
artist. Both of them don’t want to be a beat reporter. Which of Jung’s psychological types
contrast their characteristics:
A. Ms. H is a “introverted thinking type” while Mr. G is “introverted feeling type”
B. Ms. H is a “extraverted thinking type” while Mr. G is “extraverted feeling type”
C. Ms. H is a “introverted feeling type” while Mr. G is “introverted thinking type”
D. Ms. H is a “extraverted feeling type” while Mr. G is “extraverted thinking type”

What are the 8 Jungian Psychological Types?

The eight types are:
● Extraverted Thinking.
● Introverted Thinking.
● Extraverted Feeling.
● Introverted Feeling.
● Extraverted Sensation.
● Introverted Sensation.
● Extraverted Intuition.
● Introverted Intuition.

47. Which of the following is not true about Costa and McCrae’s Big Five Theory of Personality?
A. The five factor model describes the higher-order traits of human personality.
B. The five factor model is not culturally diverse.
C. The five factor model tends to be relatively stable over the life span.
D. Conscientious people tend to be orderly while people high in neuroticism tend to be irritable.
The acronym OCEAN is often used to recall Costa and McCrae's five factors, or the Big Five
personality traits: Openness to Experience, Conscientiousness, Extraversion,
Agreeableness, and Neuroticism (Boundless, n.d.).

48. An aspiring manager narrates his experience “todo bigay ako kapag nagbenta sa mga tao. Yung
mga apprentice ko and sales partners gusto ko susundin nila yung plan na ginawa ko. Kapag nasa
ayos, may success.” Which of the following describes his personality?
A. Low extraversion, low neuroticism.
B. High neuroticism, high extraversion.
C. High conscientiousnessm, high extraversion.
D. Low agreeableness, low conscientiousness.

49. Which of the following may be described as both high in conscientiousness and neuroticism?
A. OCPD. D. Social phobia
B. GAD. E. BPD.
C. Schizophrenia.

50. According to Eysenck, at the far end of continuum of psychoticism is?

A. Emotional stability. D. Agreeableness.
B. Impulse control. E. Emotionality.
C. Neuroticism.

51. Sullivan called needs that originate from a particular area of body
A. Zonal needs. C. Body dynamisms.
B. General needs. D. Physical personifications.

zonal needs, which arise from a particular area of the body (p. 218)

52. Sullivan saw anxiety as

A. A disruptive force in interpersonal relations.
B. An undifferentiated mode of cognition.
C. An isolating dynamism.
D. A positive force in the mother-child relationship.

Anxiety has a deleterious effect on adults too. It is the chief disruptive force blocking the development
of healthy interpersonal relations. (p.218)

53. Experience that are consensually validated and that can be symbolically communicated to others
are
A. Prototaxic. D. Disjunctive.
B. Parataxic. E. Isolating.
C. Systaxic.

Experiences that are consensually validated and that can be symbolically communicated take place on a
syntaxic level. (p. 224)
 54. Same-sex chumpships and the development of intimacy characterize this stage of development.
A. Adulthood. D. Early adolescence.
B. Juvenile era. E. Late adolescence.
C. Preadolescence.

The outstanding characteristic of preadolescence is the genesis of the capacity to love. Previously, all
interpersonal relationships were based on personal need satisfaction, but during preadolescence,
intimacy and love become the essence of friendships. (p. 229)

55. Lust marks the beginning of

A. The juvenile era. D. Late adolescence.
B. Preadolescence. E. Adulthood.
C. Early adolescence.

Early adolescence begins with puberty and ends with the need for sexual love with one person. It is
marked by the eruption of genital interest and the advent of lustful relationships. (p 230)

56. According to Erikson, which of these is the most important aspect of the ego?
A. Self-conscious ego. C. Ego identity.
B. Perceived ego. D. Realistic ego.

Ego identity is the image we have of ourselves in the variety of social roles we play. (p. 247)

57. To Erikson, the ego develops

A. Within a social structure. E. Most rapidly during adulthood.
B. Independent of historical factors. D. Only after the id stops developing.

To Erikson, the ego exists as potential at birth, but it must emerge from within a cultural environment (p.
247)

58. The epigenetic principle states that

A. Some societies believe themselves to be special.
B. The ego develops from the dying id.
C. The ego develops in a sequence, with each stage emerging from and being built on a previous
stage.
D. Central to individual development are those traits and tendencies inherited from our ancestral
past.

Erikson believed that the ego develops throughout the various stages of life according to an epigenetic
principle, a term borrowed from embryology. Epigenetic development implies a step-by-step growth of
fetal organs. The embryo does not begin as a completely formed little person, waiting to merely expand
its structure and (p. 247)

59. Erikson believed that ___ is the basic strength of infancy

A. Hope. D. Love.
B. Faith. E. Industry.
C. Will.
p. 252 - Hope: The Basic Strength of Infancy

60. Heidi is beginning to make new friends of her age. For the first time in her life, she has
developed a relationship with adults who are not in her family. Heidi is in which Erikson’s
stages?
A. Early childhood. D. Genital period.
B. Adolescence. E. School age.
C. Infancy.

Erikson’s concept of school age covers development from about age 6 to approximately age 12 or 13 and
matches the latency years of Freud’s theory. At this age, the social world of children is expanding beyond
family to include peers, teachers, and other adult models. (p 255)

Situation: You work with a family therapist regarding Mrs. F’s family problems. Recently, their
youngest son resorted to substance abuse while their eldest daughter previously had teen
pregnancy. Their middle child is still studying in college. Questions 61-70 relates to Mrs. F’s family.

61. Mrs. F wondered why contrary to popular notions it seems that her middle child is the good child
among the three siblings. You respond best by saying:
A. “It is true that middle-borns are the problem child. We just need to wait until your middle
child does risk behaviours.”
B. “It’s premature to say that your middle child is a good child. Since most of your child
resorted to risk behaviours, it must be the same with your middle child.”
C. “Their personality still depends on the interactions they have experienced and therefore may
lead to positive or negative traits.”
D. “Your eldest daughter set a good role model on which middle-born child may have
emulated.”
62. Family constellations such as this case is best demonstrated in psychological report as:
A. Genogram. C. History of present illness.
B. Histogram. D. Family medical history.

63. Adler popularizes the approach on looking on the family constellation because of the following,
except?
A. Sibships might have a role in personality development.
B. Striving for superiority and success may be gauged by looking into the other siblings’
achievement.
C. Presence of displaced oedipal/electra complex among rival siblings might develop into
pathology, as with the case of middle-born child.
D. Behaviours rooted in social interest might be exposed in sibship interactions.

64. Which of the following is least likely to explain the substance abuse of Mrs. F youngest son?
A. Normalized behaviour among peers C. High expressed emotion among family members
B. Oral fixation
D. Euphoric feeling
 65. When asked on the details about their fathers, Mrs. F suddenly reacted not to talk about it
anymore. You understand that this is an example of:
A. Reaction formation. C. Repression. E. Regression.
B. Denial. D. Suppression
.
66. The eldest daughter said “I eloped with my boyfriend that time because my father is so strict”
This may be explained as a defense mechanism called:
A. Denial. C. Displacement. E. Transference.
B. Reaction formation. D. Projection.

67. You understand that the youngest son is manifesting denial when he says:
A. “My family is now ruined and I don’t know what to do.”
B. “I don’t seem to understand why things are going down the drain now.”
C. “sometimes when things are really tough, I go with my friends to party just to make me feel
ok.”
D. “I don’t like what is happening now that’s why I confronted my father.”

68. For Adler, the person’s final goal is ultimately shaped by

A. Heredity. C. The superego.
B. Early childhood experiences. D. The creative power.

creative power, that is, people’s ability to freely shape their behavior and create their own
personality. (p. 70)

69. Adler also proposed that people strive toward superiority through one of two paths. One is the
route of social interest; the other is the road of
A. Success. C. Exaggerated personal gain.
B. Individuation. D. Submission.

superiority over others and introduced the term striving for success to describe actions of people who
are motivated by highly developed social interest (p. 70)

70. Adler believed that the goals of a pathological person

A. Are exaggerated and unrealistic. C. Both of these.
B. Are easily reached . D. Neither of these.

71. Sensation seeking is implicated in the following except?

A. Depression. C. Paraphilia.
B. Risk behaviors D. Safety issues.

Paraphilias are persistent and recurrent sexual interests, urges, fantasies, or behaviors of

marked intensity involving objects, activities, or even situations that are atypical in
nature.
72. People actively seek environment that is suitable to their liking and interest because of the
following except?
A. They can perform better on those environments.
B. It gives them mastery overtime.
C. It allows them to escape troublesome family environments.

73. Which of the following statement indicates external locus of control?

A. “My sleepless nights were rewarded now that I was promoted in the company”
B. “My husband left me because I was a constant nagger.”
C. “I was absent on a major exam which makes me fail my last semester.”
D. “My boss is perfectionist that’s why my work will never match expectations.”
74. Levenson (1974) is one of the researchers who investigated locus of control and how it affects
human behaviors. Which of the following does not explain this phenomenon?
A. Anxiety drives locus of control.
B. Personal capability explains outcomes.
C. Powerful others affect our lives.
D. Chance might explain some of the events in our lives.

75. The client told you that she was not responsible for her depression, and she will not do anything
about it. Aside from having concerns with locus of control, she also has concerns on her?
A. Abstraction. C. Judgement.
B. Self-actualization D. Insight.

76. You are assisting a psychologist in creating psychological report for your client. Which of the
following may be included in the recommendation part to develop internal locus of control?
A. Client must appreciate his strengths and acknowledge his weaknesses in order to capitalize on
them.
B. Client and his family should have open communication especially on life issues.
C. Client should learn to create realistic expectation by accepting that not everything can happen
as planned.
D. Client should adopt healthy defense mechanism such as projection to lower anxiety.

77. Learned helplessness might explain which of the following mental health concerns?
A. Borderline personality disorder. C. Bipolar disorder.
B. Dependent personality disorder. D. Suicide.

78. Studying different theoretical perspective is important because of the following except?
A. Explain and predict behaviours.
B. Recommend possible psychotherapy.
C. Have an eclectic idiographic view of a person.
D. To help in categorizing mental health disorders.

79. According to Jung, a person’s first test of courage is to

A. Realize her or his shadow. C. Recognize the hero.
 B. Actualize her animus. D. acquire self-realization.
80. In Jung’s analytical psychology, the center of consciousness is
A. The ego. C. Individuation. E. The persona
B. The self. D. The shadow.

Jung saw the ego as the center of consciousness (p. 103)

Situation: You work as a psychometrician in a private high school, and you are tasked to
preliminarily assess students being referred by teachers for conduct evaluation. Question 81-90
correspond to this case.

81. A student narrates his experience with a teacher who asks them not to seat when answer
incorrectly. You understand that:
A. The teacher is applying negative reinforcement.
B. The teacher is applying positive punishment.
C. The teacher is applying positive reinforcement.
D. The teacher is applying negative punishment.

82. Mark was referred because of argumentation and shouting with a teacher. Oftentimes mark
cannot work with teams because he always conflicts with the assigned leader. Mark may have:
A. Conduct disorder. C. ODD. E. ADHD
B. ASPD. D. ADD.

ODD – oppositional defiant disorder

ASPD – Anti social personality disorder
ADD – Attention deficit disorder
ADHD – Attention deficit Hyperactivity disorder

83. Also, Mark may have low scores in which personality trait?
A. Extraversion. D. Conscientiousness.
B. Neuroticism. E. Openness.
C. Agreeableness.
84. Current school policy is to have “closed-door policy” for those who are late. Which of the
following is not a viable explanation about this case?

A. It may serve as a punishment that will decrease behaviour of being late.

B. It may serve as a reinforcement that will increase behaviour of being late.
C. It may serve as a fixed-ration schedule to decrease behaviour.
D. It may serve as a continuous punishment to decrease behaviour.

85. According to skinner, internal mental states such as thinking, foresight and reasoning
A. Do not exist.
B. Exist, but should not be used to explain behaviour.
C. Exist and should be used to explain behaviour.
D. Do not exist, but nevertheless can be used to explain human behaviour.
E. Are solely responsible for human behaviour.
p. 467

86. Skinner favored reward over punishment largely because

A. Reward is more humane that punishment.
B. Punishment is more expensive.
C. The effects of punishment are less predictable.
D. The effects of reward are less predictable.
87. One of the teachers told you that she often gives clues whenever her students are having hard
time on a certain activity. This called?
A. Scaffolding. D. Spontaneous recover.
B. Shaping. E. Recency effect.
C. Higher order conditioning.

88. Dr. Virgilio Enriquez emphasized that in defining Filipino personality, the interior quality of
an individual is more important among other things. This interior quality is also known in
Filipino as:
a. Loob B. Bukas – loob C. Sipag D. Malasakit

89. Instead of expressing one’s anger toward her mother, Maria has kicked on their dog. This
type of defense mechanism is:
a. Denial b. Projection c. Displacement d. Compensation

90. The idea of self-concept and what it means to be a fully functioning person is from what
perspective?
a. Psychodynamic
b. Behavioral
c. Humanistic
d. Trait