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2024-JEE Advanced Full Test-1 - Paper-1 PDF

The document provides instructions for the JEE Advanced Full Test-1 exam to be held on 16 April 2023. It details that the exam will be 3 hours long with 180 total marks. It is divided into 3 subjects, with each subject containing 3 sections. Section 1 has 8 numerical value questions worth 24 marks total. Section 2 has 6 multiple correct answer questions worth 24 marks total. Section 3 has 4 matching list questions worth 12 marks total. Scoring guidelines are provided for each section.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
496 views18 pages

2024-JEE Advanced Full Test-1 - Paper-1 PDF

The document provides instructions for the JEE Advanced Full Test-1 exam to be held on 16 April 2023. It details that the exam will be 3 hours long with 180 total marks. It is divided into 3 subjects, with each subject containing 3 sections. Section 1 has 8 numerical value questions worth 24 marks total. Section 2 has 6 multiple correct answer questions worth 24 marks total. Section 3 has 4 matching list questions worth 12 marks total. Scoring guidelines are provided for each section.

Uploaded by

Sam
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
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JEE Advanced Full Test-1| Paper – 1 | JEE 2024

Date : 16/04/2023 Maximum Marks: 180

Timing: 10:00 AM to 1:00 PM Duration : 3.0 Hours

General Instructions

1. The question paper consists of 3 Subject (Subject I: Physics, Subject II: Chemistry, Subject III: Mathematics).
Each Part has three sections (Section 1, Section 2 & Section 3).

2. Section 1 contains 8 Numerical Value Type Questions. For each question, enter the correct numerical
value of the answer using the mouse and the onscreen virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to
enter the answer. If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/roundoff
the value to TWO decimal places.

Section 2 contains 6 Multiple Correct Answers Type Questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONE OR MORE THAN ONE CHOICE is correct.

Section 3 contains FOUR (04) Matching List sets. Each set has TWO lists: List I and List II.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.

3. For answering a question, an ANSWER SHEET (OMR SHEET) is provided separately. Please fill your Test Code,
Roll No. and Group properly in the space given in the ANSWER SHEET.
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MARKING SCHEME

SECTION – 1 | (Maximum Marks: 24)


 This section contains Eight (08) Numerical Value Type Questions. For each question, enter the correct
numerical value of the answer using the mouse and the onscreen virtual numeric keypad in the place
designated to enter the answer. If the numerical value has more than two decimal places,
truncate/roundoff the value to TWO decimal places.
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks: +3 ONLY if the correct numerical value is entered.
Zero Mark: 0 In all other cases.

SECTION – 2 | (Maximum Marks: 24)


 This section consists of Six (06) Questions. Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN
ONE of these four option(s) is(are) correct answer(s).
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks: +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen
Partial Marks: +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen
Partial Marks: +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and
both of which are correct
Partial Marks: +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen, and it is a
correct option
Zero Mark: 0 if none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered)
Negative Marks: –2 In all other cases.

SECTION – 3 | (Maximum Marks: 12)


 This section contains Four (04) Matching List sets. Each set has TWO lists: List I and List II.
 Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct
answer.
 For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme.
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.

Code A | JEE-2024 | Paper - 1 2 JEE Advanced Full Test-1 (Gen 1 & 2)


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SUBJECT I : PHYSICS 60 MARKS


SECTION 1
NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE
This section contains 8 Numerical Value Type Questions. For each question, enter the correct numerical value of the
answer. If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/roundoff the value to TWO decimal places.

1. A cosmic body of mass ‘m’ approaches the earth surface, from a large distance with initial speed
GM
v0  , where M and R are mass and radius of earth respectively. If the cosmic body passes off
4R
tangentially to the earth’s surface, then find the ratio d/R.

2. A mass M is in static equilibrium on a massless vertical spring of spring constant k as shown in the
figure. A ball of mass m dropped from certain height h sticks to the mass M after colliding with it. The
oscillations they perform reach to height ‘a’ above the original level of M and depth ‘b’ below it. Find
3mg
the height h (in meters). (Given that M  m; b  ; m  1kg , k  10 N/m, g  10 m/s 2 )
k

3. Two blocks of mass m and 2m connected by a weightless spring of stiffness k rest on a smooth
horizontal plane. Block of mass m is shifted to a small distance x to the left and then released. Find
average force (in Newton) exerted by wall on mass 2m between the moments of releasing mass m and
breaking off of mass 2m from wall. [ m  1 kg, k  90N/m, x   cm ]

4. A rod of mass 3M and length 2L is made by connecting two rods of mass 2M and M respectively and
length L each (system can be considered a rigid body). The setup is pivoted at one end and released
from horizontal position. Just when the rod becomes vertical, lower half potion (M, L) breaks off
spontaneously. Maximum height to which center of remaining rod rises in subsequent motion is nL,
where n is _____ .

Code A | JEE-2024 | Paper - 1 3 JEE Advanced Full Test-1 (Gen 1 & 2)


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5. A cylinder of height h  10 cm and radius r  2 cm is open at the top and it is completely filled with
a liquid. Now it is rotated about its vertical axis with angular speed  such that half the base area of
the cylinder gets exposed. Find the value of  (in rad/s).

6. A cylindrical tube with a frictionless piston ends in a small hole of area of cross-section 4  106 m 2 ,
which is very small as compared to the area of cross-section of the tube. The tube is filled with a
liquid of density 10 4 kg/m3 . The tube is fixed horizontally and the piston is pushed at a constant

speed so that liquid comes out of the hole at a constant volumetric rate Q m 3 / s. No liquid leaks

around the piston. The material of the tube can bear a maximum pressure 6 105 Pa. The maximum
possible value of Q so that the tube does not break is _________ 10 5. (Atmospheric pressure
 105 Pa)

7. A small roller of diameter 20 cm lies on a horizontal floor and a meter scale is positioned horizontally
on it with one edge of the scale on top of it as shown in figure (i). The scale is now pushed slowly
from the other end so that it moves without sliding on the roller and the roller starts rolling without
slipping on the floor. After the roller has moved 40 cm, the length l of the scale that moves to the right
of the roller as shown in figure (ii) is _______ (in cm).

8. A small ball is projected from a very high tower horizontally with speed 5m/s. Radius of curvature of
the trajectory (in m) after 0.5s is ________. [ g  10 m/s 2 ; 2  1.414 ]

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Code A | JEE-2024 | Paper - 1 4 JEE Advanced Full Test-1 (Gen 1 & 2)


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SECTION 2
MULTIPLE CORRECT ANSWERS TYPE
This Section contains 6 Multiple Correct Answers Type Questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONE OR MORE THAN ONE CHOICE is correct.

9. A uniform beam of mass 50 kg and length L is hinged to a vertical wall at one of its ends and the other
end is tied to a rope as shown in the figure. A load W is suspended at point P. The tie rope can support
a maximum load of 180 kg. Which of the following statement(s) is (are) correct? [Take g  10 ms 2 ]

(A) Maximum laod W that can be supported from the point P of the beam is nearly 212.2 kg
(B) Maximum laod W that can be supported from the point P of the beam is nearly 170.4 kg
(C) If the point of suspension of the load is moved to the mid-point of the beam, then the
maximum load that can be supported reduces
(D) If a load of 60 kg is suspended from the mid-point of the beam, the tension in the rope then is
nearly 778 N.

10. A circular frame ABCD of radius 1 m with section ABC being smooth and
CDA being rough is held vertical as shown in the Figure. A bead of mass
0.5 kg is projected from the bottommost point A with speed 10 ms 1 to
move along the frame ABC. It hits an identical bead at rest, kept at the
topmost point C inelastically. The combined mass after collision, moves
along CPD and when it reaches P, the force exerted by combined mass on
the frame is zero. Which of the following statement(s) is (are) correct?
 2 4
Take g  10ms , cos37  5 

(A) The speed of the combined mass at C is 3.87 ms 1


(B) The speed with which the combined mass reaches P is 6 ms 1
(C) The net work done on the combined mass from C to P is 19 J
(D) The work done on the combined mass by friction till it reaches P is –8.5 J

11. A hollow sphere A and a solid sphere B, both having same mass and radius are released
simultaneously from the top of a right triangular fixed wedge as shown. They roll down the wedge
without slipping. Choose the correct statements.
(A) They reach the bottom of the wedge simultaneously
(B) A reaches the bottom of wedge before B
(C) They reach the bottom of wedge with the same kinetic energy
(D) A reaches the bottom of wedge with speed more than that of B

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12. A particle of mass M is moving in a plane due to a force F whose magnitude is constant and whose
direction rotates with constant angular velocity  in that plane. Initially particle is at rest at origin
and force F is along +x axis. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct ?
(A) x coordinate of the particle is non-negative during the motion

(B) Particle comes to rest at every interval of starting from t  0

4F
(C) Average speed of the particle for time it comes to rest starting from t  0 is
m
(D) y-coordinate of the particle is linearly increasing with time

13. A closed insulated cylindrical container with an insulated piston which can freely move along the
cylinder is kept in a horizontal position. Piston is connected to right wall of the container with a spring
(negligible volume) of spring constant k. Initially equal amount of an ideal gas (   5 / 3) is present
on the both sides with pressure P0 , volume V0 and temperature T0 . When a heater slowly supplies
Q amount of heat, piston is found to shift to the right by x0 . Final pressure and temperature on the
left and right side in final position is found to be ( PL , TL ) and ( PR , TR ) respectively. Work done by
the gas on left side of piston and right side of the piston during the process are WL and WR
respectively. Which of the following option(s) is(are) correct ?

5/3
 V0 
(A) PR  P0  
 V0  Ax0 
(B) | WL || WR |
kx0
(C) PL  PR 
A
(D) Q is equal to sum of change in internal energies of the gas on two sides

14. In a stationary cart of mass 32m and length d, a small block of mass m is projected along its length with
1
velcotiy v towards front end from rear end as shown in figure. If e  and friction is absent then,
2
which of the following option(s) is(are) correct ?
v
(A) Final velocity of cart is
33
(B) After five collisions block will be at rest w.r.t ground for some time
31d
(C) Time after which the block comes to rest w.r.t ground is
v
16d
(D) Time interval between fourth and fifth collision is
v
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Code A | JEE-2024 | Paper - 1 6 JEE Advanced Full Test-1 (Gen 1 & 2)


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SECTION - 3
MATCHING LIST TYPE
This section contains 4 Matching List sets. Each set has TWO lists: List I and List II. Each question has FOUR options (A),
(B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.

15. Column-I gives some graphs for a particle moving along x-axis in positive x-direction. The variables
v, x, and t represent speed of particle, x-coordinate of particle and time respectively. Column-II gives
certain resulting interpretation. Match the graphs in Column-I with the statements in Column-II.
Column-I Column-II
(I) (A) Acceleration of particle is uniform and equal to slope of graph.

(II) (B) Acceleration of particle is uniform and equal to (slope/2) of the


graph

(III) (C) Acceleration of particle is directly proportional to ‘t’

(IV) (D) Acceleration of particle is directly proportional to ‘x’

(E) Acceleration of the particle is inversely proportional to t


(A) (I)-(A); (II)-(B); (III)-(A); (IV)-(E) (B) (I)-(D); (II)-(B); (III)-(A); (IV)-(C)
(C) (I)-(D); (II)-(E); (III)-(A); (IV)-(B) (D) (I)-(C); (II)-(B); (III)-(A); (IV)-(D)

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16. A man of mass M is standing on a platform of mass m1 and holding a string passing over a system of
ideal pulleys. Another mass m2 is hanging as shown. Which option is the correct match?

( m2  20 kg, m1  10 kg, g  10 m/s 2 ) .

Column-I Column-II
(I) Weight of man for equilibrium (A) 100 N
(II) Force exerted by man on string so that normal by platform is (B) 250 N
equal to weight of man
(III) If man let go of the string, normal force by platform on the man (C) 500 N
(IV) Normal reaction of platform on man in equilibrium (D) 600 N
(E) 2000 N
(A) (I)-(C); (II)-(E); (III)-(B); (IV)-(A) (B) (I)-(C); (II)-(D); (III)-(E); (IV)-(B)
(C) (I)-(D); (II)-(B); (III)-(C); (IV)-(A) (D) (I)-(E); (II)-(C); (III)-(D); (IV)-(B)

17. Water flows steadily from an open tank as shown in the figure. The elevation of point 1 is 10.0m, and
the elevation of points 2 and 3 is 2.00m. The cross-sectional area at point 2 is 0.0480 m2 and at point
3 it is 0.0160 m2. The area of the tank is very large compared with the cross-sectional area of the
pipe. Assuming that Bernoulli’s equation applies, match the two columns. (Take g = 10m/s2)

Column-I Column-II
(I) Velocity of fluid at point 3 (in m/s) (P) 5
(II) Gauge pressure at 2 (in 104 Pa) (Q) 12.6
4
(III) Gauge pressure at the bottom of tank (in 10 Pa) (R) 7.1
(IV) Velocity of fluid at point 2 (in m/s) (S) 4.2
Code :
(A) I-Q; II-R; III-P; IV-S (B) I-S; II-P; III-R; IV-Q
(C) I-Q; II-P; III-R; IV-S (D) I-S; II-R; III-P; IV-Q

Code A | JEE-2024 | Paper - 1 8 JEE Advanced Full Test-1 (Gen 1 & 2)


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18. In column I, certain thermodynamic process are given and in column II, the value of physical
quantities are given. Match the two columns.
Q  amount of heat exchange,
U  change in internal energy.
W  amount of pressure-volume work,
T = Temperature of the gas,
P = Pressure of the gas,
  Density of the gas.
Column-I Column-II
(I) (A) | Q | 4 RT0
1 mole of N 2

(II) (B) 3
| U | RT0
1 mole of He 2

(III) 1 mole of a gaseous mixture having adiabatic index (C) W  RT0


  1.5

(IV) 1 mole of a gas having degree of freedom f  4 (D)  Vs T graph for the process is
a straight line

(E) P Vs  graph for the process is


a parabola
(A) (I)-(A); (II)-(B, D, E); (III)-(C, E); (IV)-(A, E)
(B) (I)-(C); (II)-(B, D); (III)-(C, E); (IV)-(A, E)
(C) (I)-(C); (II)-(B, D); (III)-(C, E); (IV)-(A, B, E)
(D) (I)-(B); (II)-(B, D); (III)-(B, C, E); (IV)-(A, E)

Code A | JEE-2024 | Paper - 1 9 JEE Advanced Full Test-1 (Gen 1 & 2)


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SUBJECT II : CHEMISTRY 60 MARKS


SECTION 1
NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE
This section contains 8 Numerical Value Type Questions. For each question, enter the correct numerical
value of the answer. If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/roundoff the value
to TWO decimal places.

1. For 10 minutes each, at 0°C from two identical holes nitrogen and an unknown gas were leaked into a
common vessel of 4 litre capacity. The resulting pressure in vessel is 2.8 atm and the mixture contain
0.4 mole of nitrogen. What is the molar mass (in g mol–1) of unknown gas?
[Take R  0.0821 L - atm / molK]
2. The magnitude of heat of formation of CH4 in kJ/mole is:
If given heat : C(s)  O2 (g)   CO 2 (g) H  393.5 kJ
1
H 2 (g)  O2 (g)   H 2O() H  285.8 kJ
2
CH 4 (g)  2O 2 (g)  CO 2 (g)  2H 2O() H  890.3kJ
1 cal = 4.18 J

3. An alloy of iron and carbon is treated with H2SO4 in which only iron reacts with H2SO4 to form
H 2 and Fe2 (SO4 )3 . If a sample of alloy weighing 140 gm gave 6 gm of H2 , then what is percent by
mass of iron in the alloy? [Atomic mass: Fe = 56, C = 12, H = 1]

4. The enthalpy of neutralization of a strong base and strong acid is 57.0 kJ/eq. Find the value of heat
evolved in kJ when 0.5 mole of HNO3 are added to 1 L of 0.2M NaOH solution.

5. How many isomers including stereoisomers are possible for C7 H16 ?

6. The pKa1 , and pKa2 of carbonic acid (H2CO3 ) are 6.3 and 10.3 respectively at 25ºC. If pKw  14 ,
then the pH of 0.01 M sodium bicarbonate solution in water at 25°C is ___________.

7. The structure of a peptide is given below.

If number of sp 2 hybridized carbon atoms is Z1, sp3 hybridized carbon atoms is Z2 and number of
lone pair of electrons is Z3 respectively, then what is Z1+Z2 +Z3?

8. How many electrons in a ground-state As atom (in the gas phase) have quantum numbers n = 3 and
l = 1? [Given: Atomic Number of As = 33]

Code A | JEE-2024 | Paper - 1 10 JEE Advanced Full Test-1 (Gen 1 & 2)


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SECTION 2
MULTIPLE CORRECT ANSWERS TYPE
This Section contains 6 Multiple Correct Answers Type Questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D), out of which ONE OR MORE THAN ONE CHOICE is correct.
2
9. A solution contains 0.01 M concentration each of Zn 2  , Mg 2  and Mn ions. They are to be
precipitated as their sulphide by passing H 2S gas into the solution and the solution is saturated with
0.1 M H 2S . If pH of the solution can be regulated by using certain buffer, then select correct
18
statements: [Given: Ksp (ZnS)  10 , Ksp (MnS)  1022 ;

Ksp (MgS)  1012 , Ka (H2S)  1021]


(A) Only MnS is precipitated in pH range of 1 to 3
(B) ZnS is precipitated when the pH > 3
(C) MgS gets precipitated when the pH > 6
(D) MgS gets precipitated when pH < 3

10. Assume the Pauli’s exclusion principle can permit three electrons per orbital rather than two. The
CORRECT statement(s) is(are) :
(A) 9 electrons are needed in the outermost shell for a noble gas configuration
(B) 3 electrons would be shared in a covalent bond as per the molecular orbital theory
(C) The electron dot structure of an element X with Z = 12 can be  
X
(D) Assuming MO diagram of N2 is valid for X2 (Z = 12), the bond order of X2 is 2

11. One mol of an ideal gas is expanded isothermally as following:


reversible P
ext. 1atm
A  B   C
(10atm,300K) (5atm,300K) (1atm,300K)

Which is/are correct statements? (Given: n4  1.4, R  2 Cal mol 1K 1 )
(A) Net work done by the system is –900 Cal
1
(B) Change in entropy of the system for path AB is 1.4 Cal K
(C) Change in free energy for path AB is –420 Cal
1
(D) Change in entropy of the surrounding for path BC is –1.6 Cal K

12. Which of the following is (are) true for an ideal gas system which is been expanded from state A to
state B and then compressed back to A?
(A) Wreversible expansion  Wreversible expansion
isothermal adiabatic

(B) Wirreversible compression  Wirreversible expansion


isothermal isothermal

(C) Wreversible expansion  Wreversible compression


isothermal isothermal

(D) Wreversible expansion  Wirreversible expansion


adiabatic adiabatic

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13. Which of the following is/are correct as per molecular orbital theory of bonding ?
(A) HOMO for O 2 is *2p x or *2p y

(B) LUMO for N2 is *2p x or *2p y


(C) C2 is unstable due to lack of head on overlap, having only lateral overlap
(D) C 22 is unstable due to presence of head on overlap along with lateral overlap

14. Which of the following mixtures can form a buffer?


(A) HCl, NaOH (B) CH3COONa, HCl
(C) NH 4OH, HCl (D) NH 4 Cl, NaOH

SECTION - 3
MATCHING LIST TYPE
This section contains 4 Matching List sets. Each set has TWO lists: List I and List II. Each question has FOUR
options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.

15. MATCH THE FOLLOWING:


Column 1 Column 2

(I) Reversible cooling of an ideal gas at constant volume (P) w  0; U  0

(II) Reversible isothermal expansion of an ideal gas (Q) w  0; U  0

(III) Adiabatic expansion of ideal gas against vacuum (R) w  0; U  0

(IV) Reversible isothermal compression of an ideal gas (S) w  0; U  0

Code :
(A) I-P ; II-S ; III –R ; IV- Q (B) I-P ; II-S ; III –Q ; IV- R
(C) I-S ; II-P ; III –R ; IV- Q (D) I-P ; II-R ; III – S ; IV- Q

16. Match the Column (under identical conditions)


Column I Column II
(I) a (vander Waals constant) (P) He  CH4  SO2
(II) Root mean square velocity (Q) He  CH4  SO2
(III) Kinetic energy (per mole) as per K.T.G. (R) SO2  CH 4  He
(IV) Rate of diffusion (S) He  SO2  CH4
Code :
(A) I-R ; II-P ; III-R ; IV-P (B) I-R ; II-P ; III-R ; IV-Q
(C) I-R ; II-P ; III-Q ; IV-P (D) I-S ; II-P ; III-Q ; IV-R

Code A | JEE-2024 | Paper - 1 12 JEE Advanced Full Test-1 (Gen 1 & 2)


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17. Match the following Column I and Column II


Column I Column II
(Reaction Intermediate) (Stabilizing effects for the intermediate)

(I) (P) Inductive effect

(II) (Q) Resonance stabilization via conjugation

(III) (R) Aromaticity of the charged ring

(IV) (S) Hyperconjugation

Code :
(A) I-P,Q,R ; II-P,Q,S ; III-P,Q,R ; IV-P,Q (B) I-P,Q,R ; II-P,Q,S ; III-P,Q,R ; IV-Q,R,S
(C) I-P,Q,R ; II-P,Q ; III-P,Q,R ; IV-Q,R (D) I-P,Q,R ; II-P,Q ; III-Q,R ; IV-Q,R

18. Match conversions given in List 1 with the appropriate reagent given in List 2.
List 1 (Reactions) List 2 (Appropriate reagent)

CH3  CH2  X  CH3  CH 2  CH2  CH3


(P) 1. NH 2  NH 2 / OH 

(Q) 2. NBS. Followed by alc. KOH / 

(R) 3. Na/dry ether

(S) 4. conc.H 2SO4 / 

Codes :
P Q R S P Q R S
(A) 2 3 4 1 (B) 3 2 1 3
(C) 3 2 4 1 (D) 2 3 1 4

Code A | JEE-2024 | Paper - 1 13 JEE Advanced Full Test-1 (Gen 1 & 2)


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SUBJECT III : MATHEMATICS 60 MARKS


SECTION 1
NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE
This section contains 8 Numerical Value Type Questions. For each question, enter the correct numerical
value of the answer. If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/roundoff the value
to TWO decimal places.

1. Define polynomial f n  x  of nth degree as:

f n  cos    cos n , n : natural number

i.e f 2  x   2 x 2  1 f3  x   4 x3  3 x
10 10

If x  x 2  1   x  x2  1  is equal to afb  x  , then the value of a +b is ________.


3n 2  1
2. If S   3
then the value of S is equal to ________.
n2  n  1
2

3. Let z1  10  6i and z2  4  6i . If z is any complex number such that the argument of


( z  z1 ) / ( z  z2 ) is  / 4 , then value of z  7  9i is ________.

4. If x 2  10ax  11b  0 have roots c and d ; and x 2  10cx  11d  0 have roots a and b, then
a  b  c  d = _______.
5. Let p, q be integers and let ,  be the roots of the equation, x 2  x  1  0 where    . For

n  0,1, 2,......, let an  p n  qn .


Fact: If a and b are rational numbers and a  b 5  0 , then a  0  b.
If a4  28 , then value of p  2 q is _______.
6
6. If sin 3 x sin 3 x   Cm cosm x , where C0 , C1 , C2 , . . . . C6 are constants, then the value of
m0

C0  C2  C4  C6 is _______.
7. The number of distinct solutions of sin 5 . cos3  sin 9 . cos 7  in  0,  / 2 is _______.
2 5 2 11
8. Sum to infinite terms of the series     ...... is _______.
3 6 3 24

Code A | JEE-2024 | Paper - 1 14 JEE Advanced Full Test-1 (Gen 1 & 2)


Vidyamandir Classes: Innovating For Your Success

SECTION 2
MULTIPLE CORRECT ANSWERS TYPE
This Section contains 6 Multiple Correct Answers Type Questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D), out of which ONE OR MORE THAN ONE CHOICE is correct.

9. x  y  2 and x  y  2 are tangents on a parabola at (1, 1) and (4, 2) are respectively. Which of the
following is/are CORRECT?
(A) Equation of directrix is x  3 y  2 (B) Equation of axis is 3 x  y  5
8 6  33 13 
(C) Focus of the parabola is at  ,  (D) Vertex of the parabola is at  , 
5 5  20 20 

10. In ABC , X and Y are foot of perpendicular from A and C respectively on median BE. If
area  BYC 
 4 , then which of the following is/are CORRECT?
area  AXE 
area  ABC 
(A) 3 (B) BX  2 EY
area  AXB 
(C) 2 area  AXB   area  XEC  (D) area  AXB   2area  XEC 

11. If a, b, c are in AP and A, B, C are in GP (common ratio  1 ). Then which of the following is/are
CORRECT?
A B C
(A) , , are in HP if common ratio of GP is c/a.
a b c
a b c
(B) , , are in HP if common ratio of GP is equal to common difference of AP.
A B C
A2 B 2 C 2 c
(C) , , are in HP if common ratio of GP is .
a b c a
a b c
(D) , , are in HP if common ratio of GP is equal to square root of common difference
A2 B 2 C 2
of AP.

12. A circle touches y-axis at distance 3 units from origin and cuts off intercept of length 8 units on x-
axis. The possible equation can be:
(A) x 2  y 2  10 x  6 y  9  0 (B) x 2  y 2  10 x  6 y  9  0
(C) x 2  y 2  10 x  6 y  9  0 (D) x 2  y 2  10 x  6 y  9  0

Code A | JEE-2024 | Paper - 1 15 JEE Advanced Full Test-1 (Gen 1 & 2)


Vidyamandir Classes: Innovating For Your Success

13. Let f  x   x3  px 2  qx  r , where p, q and r are integers, f  0  and f  1 are odd integers.
Which of the following is/are CORRECT?
(A) f 1 is an even integer
(B) f 1 is an odd integer
(C) f  x   0 has three distinct integer roots
(D) f  x   0 cannot have three integer roots.

14. A parabola C whose focus is S  0, 0  and passes through P  3, 4  . Equation of tangent at P to


parabola is 3 x  4 y  25  0 . A chord through S parallel to tangent at P intersect the parabola at A
and B. Which of the following is/are CORRECT?
(A) Length of AB is 20 units.
(B) Latus rectum of parabola is 20 units
(C) Only one real normal can be drawn from the point  3, 4  .

(D) Only one real normal can be drawn from the point  6, 8  .

SECTION - 3
MATCHING LIST TYPE
This section contains 4 Matching List sets. Each set has TWO lists: List I and List II. Each question has FOUR
options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.

15. Match the inequality in column-I with their complete solution set in column-II.
Column-1 Column-1
(P) log sin x log 3 log 0.2 x  0 (i) 0
(Q) (ii)  3,5
 e x 1  2x  3  x2  x  2   0
(sin x  2) x( x  1)
(R) 2  x 1  2 (iii)  1 
 0, 
 125 
(S) (iv)
 
sin 3 x  4 x3  0 , x  I 3 
(, 1)   ,  
2 
(v) 
Codes:
P Q R S
(A) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(B) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(C) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(D) (iv) (iii) (i) (iii)

Code A | JEE-2024 | Paper - 1 16 JEE Advanced Full Test-1 (Gen 1 & 2)


Vidyamandir Classes: Innovating For Your Success

16. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(P)  2 3 9 10 (i) 11
sin sin sin .......sin sin 
21 21 21 21 21 210
(Q)  2 3 9 10 (ii) 1
sin sin sin .....sin sin 
22 22 22 22 22 210
(R)  2 3 9 10 (iii) 11
cos cos cos .....cos cos 
21 21 21 21 21 25
(S)  2 3 9 10 (iv) 21
cos cos cos .....cos cos 
22 22 22 22 22 210

Codes:
P Q R S
(A) (iii) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(B) (iv) (i) (ii) (i)
(C) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(D) (iv) (iii) (i) (iii)

17. From the point P  4, 4  tangents PA and PB are drawn to the circles x 2  y 2  6 x  2 y  5  0
(C is centre of the circle).
Column-I Column-II
(P) Length of AB (in units) = _______. (i) 5
2
(Q) Tangents of angle between PA and PC = ______. (ii) 10
(R) Area of triangle PAB (in square units) = ______. (iii) 1
(S) Absolute difference of slope of PA and PB = ______. (iv) 3
4
Codes:
P Q R S
(A) (iii) (iv) (iv) (ii)
(B) (iv) (i) (ii) (i)
(C) (ii) (iii) (i) (i)
(D) (iv) (iii) (i) (iii)

Code A | JEE-2024 | Paper - 1 17 JEE Advanced Full Test-1 (Gen 1 & 2)


Vidyamandir Classes: Innovating For Your Success

18. Match the following.


Column-I Column-II
x2 y2
(P) If 3bx  ay  2ab touches the ellipse  1 at a (i) 0
a 2 b2
part whose Eccentric angle is  then cosec  = ______.
(Q) If ek is the eccentricity of ( x  3)( y  2)  k 2 then
(ii) 1
e2  e3 = ______.
(R) If x 2  y 2  a 2 is drawn without intersecting the Curve
(iii) 2
xy  9 then integral values of ‘a’ are ______.
(S) If xy  1  sin 2  is a family of rectangular hyperbolas
(iv) 3
And ‘K’ is the area of the triangle formed by any tangent
With co-ordinate axes then K can be equal to ______.
(v) 4
Codes:
P Q R S
(A) (ii) (iii) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v) (i), (iii), (v)
(B) (i) (iii) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(C) (ii) (i) (iii), (iv), (v) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)
(D) (iii) (i) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v) (iii), (iv), (v)
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

   End of JEE Advanced Full Test-1 | PAPER-1 | JEE-2024   

Code A | JEE-2024 | Paper - 1 18 JEE Advanced Full Test-1 (Gen 1 & 2)

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