COMMON PAPER SYLLABUS

1. Laws and regulations governing the engineering profession in Malaysia

(i) The Registration of Engineers Act 1967 (Revised 2015)

(ii) The Registration of Engineers Regulations 1990 on the following items:

 The procedural and legal aspects of the Letter of Release in case of termination
of professional services,

 Professional conduct and

 Methods of dispute resolution between the Professional and his client e.g. by
litigation, arbitration, mediation/conciliation, adjudication etc.

2. Engineer’s responsibility to society and to the public

(i) An introductory knowledge on the following areas :

 Common laws as practised in Malaysia

 Awareness of legal issues such as the various categories of law, classification

of law, sources of Malaysian Law etc.

 Understanding the hierarchy of the Malaysian courts and their different

jurisdictions

 “Civil law’ and basic concepts of ‘Torts’ other than mere negligence for
misrepresentation, defamation, nuisance etc.

 Where the professional owes a duty of care, standard level of expertise and due
diligence expected under tort laws for requirements of UBBL, local authorities
and Certificate of Completion and Compliance (CCC) / Certificate of Fitness of
Occupation (CFO) / Occupation Certificate (OC) / Occupation Permit (OP) to
the public.

 Awareness of the professional design liability for his work with the following
factors:
o Risks and factors of safety and codes of practice

o Limitation Act

o Difference of liability based on “reasonable skill and care” and “fit for
purpose.

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 (ii) A reasonable understanding of professional responsibility pertaining to duty of care
and due diligence to the Client under contractual and tortuous relationship.

3. Professionalism

(i) Professionalism with respect to basic concepts of (1) public interest (2) fiduciary
interest to the client and public (3) professional conduct and (4) expert knowledge.
(ii) Code of professional conduct (The Registration of Engineers Regulations 1990)
(iii) Common professional practice issues :

 Statutory responsibilities of a Submitting Engineer under the UBBL Street &

Drainage Act / Sarawak/Sabah Building Ordinance (SBO)
 Supplanting and taking over

 Certificate of Completion and Compliance (CCC) / Certificate of Fitness of

Occupation (CFO) / Occupation Certificate (OC) / Occupation Permit (OP)
submission and the responsibilities thereof.

 Personal performance by a consulting engineer (no “subcontracting” of his

assignment)

 The duties and responsibilities arising from endorsing a design or a document

as a Professional Engineer.

4. Knowledge of laws having relevance

A basic knowledge of laws having relevance to the practice of civil, mechanical or electrical
engineering, as applicable to the discipline of the practice. Basic knowledge should only
cover the function and aim of the particular law that has relevance to a Professional
Engineer’s practice.

 Local Council Act

 Town Planning Act
 Street, Drainage & Building Act and the Uniform Building By Law (for
candidates in Sabah or Sarawak the appropriate Building Acts shall be referred
to)
 Fire Services Act – Guide to Fire Protection in Malaysia
 Environmental Quality Act
 The Electricity Supply Act
 The Gas Supply Act
 The CIDB Act
 The Construction Industry Payment and Adjudication Act (CIPAA)
 The Energy Commission Act
 OSH Act – MS1722 Occupational Safety and Health Management System

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  Factory and Machinery Act
 Water Services Industry Act 2006

5. Knowledge of Contract Laws in Malaysia with respect to the construction

industry

(i) Basic concept of common law as practiced in Malaysia.

 Introduction to Contract Law;

 Offer and Acceptance
 Considerations
 Intention to create a legal relationship
 Legal capacity
 Formalities
 Conditions when contract is void and voidable.
 Conditions when contract is unenforceable
 Privity of Contract

(ii) Various types of construction contracts:

 Direct contract
 Nominated sub contract
 Direct sub contract
 Turnkey contract for design and build
 PAM 1998 and PAM 2006 Main Contract Form
 JKR 203 Main Contract Form
 JKR Design and Build Contract
 FIDIC Contract Form

(iii) Issues relating to construction contracts

 Functions of Memorandum of Understanding, Letter of Intent, Letter of
Acceptance etc.
 Remedies for breach of contract
 Dispute resolution and arbitration

(iv) Understanding the duties and responsibilities of the different roles of a professional
engineer as:
 Consultant
 Site Agent
 Superintending Officer
 Adjudicator

(v) The consultancy agreement with the client

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6. An in‐depth knowledge of the functions of the consulting engineer
during the various stage of project implementation in accordance with
BEM Model Form of Agreement.

(i) Feasibility and preliminary stage

(ii) Design stage I
(iii) Design stage II
(iv) Tender stage
(v) Construction stage
(vi) Post construction stage

7. Management of Engineering Consultancy Practice

(i) Good governance practice in accordance with the Companies Act and Regulations.
(ii) Awareness of the implications of the penalties involved for violation of the intellectual
property.
(iii) Methods of charging professional fees and reimbursable item to the client for services
rendered in accordance with the revised BEM Scale of Fees.
(iv) Basic knowledge of local labour laws.

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 CIVIL ENGINEERING SYLLABUS
The candidates who are sitting for the Civil Engineering paper are expected to have sufficient
knowledge and understanding of the latest relevant Acts, Regulations, By-Laws, Standards, Codes
of Practices, good engineering practices in Malaysia. There will be questions set on the application
of engineering judgement and solving engineering issues in the local practice.

1. Civil Engineering practice in Malaysia

Proficiency and good working knowledge and experience of Civil engineering practice in
Malaysia:

(i) Survey Works

(ii) Requirements for engineering surveys

(iii) Requirements for standard practice for preparation of detailed drawings for
construction

(iv) Subsurface Investigations Works

(a) Planning of Subsurface Investigation Field Works and Sampling
 For Filling (embankment or platform) in Soft Ground
 For cut & fill in hill‐site development and roadworks on hilly terrain.
 For earthworks & Foundation (cut and fill} on good flat ground
 For Foundation Design (shallow and deep foundation) in Soft Ground
 For Foundation Design on hill‐site
 For Foundation Design in Limestone Area
(b) Planning of Laboratory Testing and Interpretation of Results
 Types of laboratory tests for items listed in (a) above.
 Interpretation of laboratory tests for necessary Soil Rock Design
parameters for items listed in (a) above.

(v) Earthworks
(a) General Earthworks
 Determination of materials (acceptable materials vs unsuitable materials
for filling or to excavate).
 Compaction requirements.
 Construction control of filling at site (e.g. loose thickness, testing, filling
layer by layer, no tipping etc.).
 Construction control of cutting at site (e.g. to cut from top, to turf within
certain time, etc.).

(b) Design of Earthworks for Hill‐Site

 Selection of Subsoil I Rock Parameters for analysis (e.g. shear strength,
groundwater levels, etc.)

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  Analysis and design of stability of the cut & fill (e.g. type of analysis and
factor of safety, etc.)
 Settlement analysis (e.g. immediate settlement , consolidation settlement,
secondary compression, etc.) for fill
 Slope stabilization system
 Erosion, Sediment, Control Plan (ESCP)
 Earth retaining structure
(c) Design of Filling / Embankment on Soft Ground
 Selection of Subsoil Parameters for analysis (e.g. shear strength, stiffness
and consolidation parameters)
 Analysis and design of stability of the fill/embankment
 Settlement analysis (e.g. immediate settlement, consolidation settlement,
secondary compression, etc.)
 Ground Treatment Selection
 Ground Treatment Analysis & Design (commonly used Vertical drains,
geotextile, surcharging, etc.).

(vi) Structural Design

(a) Structural Analysis
 Wind loading
 Sub‐frame analysis
 Moment Distribution Analysis
 Lateral earth pressure
(b) Reinforced Concrete Design
 Beam design ‐ flexure, shear, span/depth ratios, crack width, curtailments,
laps etc.
 Solid slab design ‐ flexure, shear, span/depth ratios, curtailments, laps, etc.
 Flat slab design (with and without column head)
 Rectangular and circular column design ‐ short and slender
 Design of walls ‐ braced and unbraced
 Design of staircase
 Design of corbels
 Precast concrete
(c) Prestressed Concrete
 Single and multispan slab and beam design for both ultimate limit state
and serviceability state.
(d) Water Retaining Structure
 Slab and wall design subjective to hydrostatic forces
(e) Structural Steel Design
 Beam section design
 Column section design
 Steel truss analysis and design
 Connection details design (welds and bolts)
(f) Composite Steel Design
 Slab and beam design
(g) Statutory requirements for Structure by UBBL
 Loading requirements
 Fire resistance requirements
(h) Timber Structural design

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(vii) Foundation Design
 Pad and strip footings
 Raft Foundation
 Pile cap ‐ Bending and truss analogy
 Design of different types of piles
 Design of earth retaining walls and basement walls
 Design of sheet pile wall and other types of wall for basement
construction

(viii) Civil Infrastructural Design

(a) Water supply design to SPAN Guidelines
 Water demand calculations
 Pipe network analysis
 Hydraulics calculations
(b) Sewerage Design
 Population equivalent calculations
 Sewer network calculations
 STP design for specialist
 Pumping station
(c) Road and highway designs
 Design to JKR Arahan Teknik
o Horizontal and vertical curves for road alignment
o Acceleration, deceleration lanes and junction design
o Superelevation design
o Areas & volumes for cuttings and embankments for earthworks
o Road pavement design
(d) Drainage design for housing and building development
 Design to Manual Baru Saliran Mesra Alam
o Hydrologic/rainfall calculations
o Storm water drainage design
o Storage pond calculations
(e) Others
o Procurement & Contract(Pre & Post) administration
o Sustainable design

(ix) Regulatory practice and submission procedure for civil engineers

(a) "Street, Drainage & Building Act" and the UBBL where it pertains to the civil
engineer as:
 submitting engineer for purely civil works; and
 submitting engineer for building design works.
(b) Earth Works By‐Laws
(c) Submission procedures from development order, building plan and CFO under
CCC submission for civil engineers in the capacity as:
 submitting engineer for purely civil works; and
 submitting engineer for building design works.
(d) Fire Services Act where it pertains to Civil engineer submission
(e) Environmental Quality Act Introduction level and only on those section of the
Act (or regulations) dealing with scheduled waste discharge and air quality.

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 MECHANICAL ENGINEERING SYLLABUS

1. Air Conditioning and Ventilation System

(i) Relevant Regulations

(a) Uniform Building By‐Laws, 1984 / Sarawak Building Ordinance, 1994
(b) Certificate of Completion and Compliance / Certificate of Fitness for Occupation
/ Occupation Certificate / Occupation Permit
(c) Environmental Quality (Refrigerant Management) Regulations

(ii) Applicable Standards

(a) ASHRAE Standards
(b) MS 1525 : Code of Practice on Energy Efficiency & Renewable Energy for Non
Residential Buildings
(c) MS 1472 : Smoke Control in Protected Escape Routes using Pressurization
(d) MS 1780 : Smoke Control using Natural (Displacement) or Powered (Extracted)
Ventilation
(e) MS 2586‐7 : Smoke duct sections
(f) MS 2449 : Performance rating of water‐chilling packages using the vapour
compression cycle
(g) MS 2578‐2 : Cooling tower

(iii) Type of Systems and Local Applications

(a) Air‐cooled Split Systems
(b) VRF Systems
(c) Package Units – Air‐cooled & Water‐cooled
(d) Centralized Chilled Water Systems
(e) District cooling systems

(iv) Design Considerations

(a) Design Parameters – Temperatures, Air movement etc.
(b) Overall Thermal Transfer Value (OTTV)
(c) Roof Thermal Transfer Value (RTTV)
(d) Energy Efficiency & Building Energy Intensity
(e) Sustainability and Green Building Index

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2. Fire Protection

(i) Relevant Regulations

(i) Uniform Building By‐Laws, 1984 / Sarawak Building Ordinance, 1994
(ii) Fire Services Act, 1988
(iii) Fire Services (Designated Premises) Order 1998
(iv) Fire Services (Fire Certificate) Regulations, 2001
(v) Certificate of Completion & Compliance / Certificate of Fitness for Occupation/
Occupation Certificate / Occupation Permit

(ii) Applicable Standards

(a) MS 1489 : Hydrant Systems, Hose Reels and Foam Inlets
(b) MS 1539 : Portable Fire Extinguishers
(c) MS 1745 : Fire Alarm and Detection Systems
(d) MS 1910 : Automatic Sprinkler Systems
(e) MS 1590 : Carbon Dioxide Extinguishing Systems
(f) Environmental Quality (Halon Management) Regulations 1999

(iii) Fire Safety Requirements

(a) Type of occupancy and purpose groups
(b) Fire safety systems for different purpose groups
(c) Limits of compartmentation in buildings
(d) Firefighting systems required for various types of buildings

(iv) Design Considerations

(a) Portable fire extinguishers
(b) Hose reel systems
(c) Dry riser systems
(d) Wet riser systems
(e) Automatic sprinkler systems
(f) Gaseous extinguishing systems
(g) Fire alarm and detection systems
(h) Voice evacuation and firemen intercom systems
(i) Emergency generating systems
(j) Emergency lighting and exit signs
(k) Fire lifts

(v) Local Practices

(a) Design submission procedures to Jabatan Bomba dan Penyelamat Malaysia.
(b) Documents required for application for inspection
(c) Application of Forms C1, C2 and C3

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3. Hydraulics

(i) Relevant Regulations

(a) Water Services Industry Act, 2006
(b) Water Services Industry (Water Reticulation and Plumbing) Rules
(c) Water Services Industry (Water Services Fees and Charges) Regulations
(d) SPAN Uniform Technical Guidelines
(e) Sabah Land Ordinance Water Supply Enactment 2003
(f) Water Service Regulations under the following Sarawak Act ‐ JKR, LAKU &
Water Boards for Sarawak
(g) Drainage, Sanitation and Sanitary Plumbing By‐Laws, 1973
(h) Certificate of Completion & Compliance / Certificate of Fitness for Occupation /
Occupation Certificate / Occupation Permit

(ii) Applicable Standards

(a) BS EN 6700 : Water Supply for Domestic Use within Buildings
(b) MS 1402 : Code of Practice for Sanitary Systems in Building

(iii) Design Considerations

(a) Cold water storage required
(b) Design pressures
(c) Water storage tanks
(d) Booster pumps
(e) Pump controls
(f) Sanitary plumbing systems
(g) Kitchen waste plumbing
(h) Hot Water Plumbing
(i) Metering

(iv) Local Practices

(a) Design submission procedures to water service licensees
(b) Design submission to local authorities for sanitary plumbing

4. Other Mechanical Systems

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5. Gas Distribution

(i) Relevant Regulations

(a) Gas Supply Regulations 1997

(ii) Applicable Standards

(a) MS 830 : Code of Practice for Storage, Handling and Transportation of LPG
(b) MS 930 : Code of Practice for the Installation of Fuel Gas Piping Systems and
Appliances

6. Lifts and Escalators

(i) Relevant Regulations

(a) Gas Supply Regulations 1997 Factory and Machinery (Electric Passenger and
Goods Lift) Regulations 1967
(b) Certificate of Completion & Compliance / Certificate of Fitness for Occupation /
Occupation Certificate / Occupation Permit

(ii) Applicable Standards

(a) BS 2655: Specification for lifts, escalators, passenger conveyors and
paternosters. General requirements for electric, hydraulic and hand powered
lifts.

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 ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING SYLLABUS

1. Regulatory Practice

(i) Street. Drainage and Building Act (Act No. 133)

(a) Assume understanding of topics covered under "Common Paper":
 Introduction and a general overview on function of the Act.
 ‘Principal Submitting Person’ and role of PSP
 UBBL as by‐law under the Act
 Ministry and Government agency responsible.
 Street lighting
(b) Role of M&E Engineer in support of PSP

(ii) Uniform Building By‐Law

(a) Understanding of the topics covered under the "Common Paper":
 UBBL as a uniform building design code for Peninsular Malaysia.
 Introduction to UBBL and general description of the various Parts of the
UBBL
 Part VII – Fire Fighting. Understanding ‘life safety’ concept as prescribed in
the UBBL (exit discharge, fire barriers/walls)
 Role of professional electrical engineers in the certification process of
Certificate of Completion and Compliance issuance.
(b) Lighting requirement
(c) Ventilation of staircases
(d) Requirements of MS 1525
(e) Lightning Protection requirement to MS IEC62305
(f) Lifts requirement
(g) Part VII ‐ Fire Fighting Requirement pertaining to purpose/hazard class for
building, fire barriers, etc.
(h) Part VIII ‐ Fire Protection System, Fire Alarm, Fire Detections, Emergency power,
Power Isolation, etc.

(iii) The Electricity Supply Act 1990 (Act 447) and Sarawak Electricity Ordinance
(Chapter 50)
(a) Ministry and Government agency responsibilities
(b) Introduction to the Acts, Ordinance, Rules and Regulations, its function;
Electrical safety, Regulator for electricity production, distribution and retail
(licensing for IPPs, approval of tariffs, license premises, notification of accidents
etc. electrical efficiency)
(c) Competent persons registered under the Act in the submission procedure
(d) Safety and 'control item' list under the Regulations.
(e) Other Regulations under the Act:

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  Efficient Management of Electrical Energy Regulations (2008);
 Electricity Regulations 1994 (Peninsular Malaysia & Sabah);
 Electricity Rules 1999 (Sarawak).
 Codes (Grid, Distribution, etc.)

(iv) The Energy Commission Act 2001 (Act 610)

(a) Ministry and Government agency responsible.
(b) Part III, Functions and Power of the Commission

(v) Factories and Machinery Act 1967

(a) Electric Passenger and Goods lift Regulations

(vi) Fire Services Act 1988 (Act 341)

(a) Ministry and Government agency responsible
(b) Function and Power of the DG of fire services
(c) General Overview of the Act
(d) Regulations under the Act
 Fire Certification Regulations 2001.

(vii) The Communications and Multimedia ACT 1998 (Act 588)

(a) Ministry and Government agency responsible
(b) Function and Power of the Chairman of Multimedia Commission
(c) General Overview of ACT pertaining to telecommunications
(d) “Technical Standards, Infrastructure Requirements” (TSIR, issued by MCMC).

(viii) Electrical requirements under Water Services Industry Act 2006 (Act 655)

2. The Electricity Supply System

(i) Generation, transmission and distribution system

(a) Electrical transmission and distribution systems in Peninsular Malaysia, Sabah
and Sarawak
 General description of the public distribution system in Peninsular
Malaysia, Sabah and Sarawak (500kV, 275kV, 132kV, 33kV, 11kV,
400/230V), generation levels
 Generation systems including Smart Grid, PV, etc.
 Design and application of power supply to private installation; EHV intake,
33kV intake, PPU for township, 33kV and 11kV switch rooms for private
installation, single‐chamber & double chamber substation. Load
estimation and substation design; selection of tariff. TNB Supply
Handbook, Contribution Charges Handbook and Sarawak Electricity Rules
 Power factor correction (tariff requirement and method of PF correction)
 Standby Power supply system; generator set, battery pack, changeover
system
 MV and HV intake design configurations (1‐feeder, 2‐feeder, H‐formation,
double‐bus, single bus system)

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  Fault level and Basic Insulation level design considerations
 Safe operation working procedures for the distribution system
 Introduction to generation and transmission

(ii) HV System
(a) Transmission System
 Basic understanding and role of the transmission system in the electricity
supply industry as listed below.
o Transmission voltages in Malaysia
o Equipment (and their key characteristics thereof) used in
transmission networks e.g. overhead lines, underground cables,
circuit breakers, disconnectors, transformers, protection relays, dc
systems etc. The terms commonly used to rate equipment e.g. rated
current, short circuit breaking capacity or in the case of transformers,
the impedance voltage, etc.
o Common configurations of high voltage switchyards and their effects
on operation and maintenance, understanding of the types of
clearances as applied to transmission technology
o Earthing as applied to high voltage substations and basic knowledge
of key concepts in IEEE Standard 80 ‐ Guide for Safety in AC
Substation Grounding

(b) Generation System

 Basic understanding and identification of main elements used in the
generation of electricity in Malaysia as listed below,

o Knowledge of the process of power generation in hydro, coal fired

and gas turbine combine cycle power plants, etc.
o Knowledge of the design and operating characteristics of the
synchronous generator, and key words used to describe the rating of
the generator e.g. MVA, short circuit ratio, types of impedances, etc.
o Commonly used excitation systems; able to explain the function from
block diagrams, etc.
o Knowledge of common electrical configurations of a power plant, the
role of the generator, generator transformer, unit and station service
transformer, circuit breakers, DC and UPS systems
o Safety and equipment isolation procedures for maintenance

(iii) MV System and Equipment

(a) MS/IEC 60076; Transformer types (cast resin, ONAN, etc.)
(b) MV switch gears; load break switch, isolator, circuit breakers, arc
breaking/suppression technology in switching (vacuum, arc chute, magnetic
suppression, SF6, etc.)
(c) MV System and Substation Design
(d) MV cabling systems
(e) Earthing system for MV substations

(iv) L.V. Distribution System

(a) MSIEC 60364 – Electrical Installation in Building (Part 1 to Part 7).
(b) MS 1979 "Electrical Installation of Buildings – Code of Practice"
(c) MS 1936 :Electrical Installation of Building – Guide to MS IEC 60364"

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 The above cover the topics such as types of earthing (TNC, TNS, TI), SPD, selection of
protection devices, wiring installation, voltage drop calculation, cable selection,
verification, etc.

(v) Power Quality (PQ) and Electromagnetic Compatibility (EMC)

(a) PQ
 MS1760 and IEC 61000‐2‐8; Definition of PQ phenomenon (surge, dip,
transient).
 MS‐IEC 61000‐4 Mitigating Measures for PQ & immunity levels
(b) EMC
 Understanding of EMC phenomena, its definition, classification which is
generally based on IEC 61000 family of standards and UK Engineering
Council recommendations ERP28 5/4 and 29. Common EMC phenomena
include voltage unbalance, step changes in voltage, fluctuations, flicker
and harmonic distortion
 Understanding of the EM Environment, emission and immunity limits, the
testing and measurement techniques as applied for EMC
 Understanding of mitigating concepts e.g. by the use of mitigating
disturbances, classification, protection zones, earthing and suitable design
of cabling systems

3. System Protection

(i) Basics Concepts

(a) Classification of protection (zone, unit protection, pilot wire)

(ii) Short Circuit & System Discrimination

(a) Understanding of short circuit, short circuit calculation, per unit calculation.
(b) Discrimination and system protection, protection setting, protection
discrimination curve

(iii) Types of Protection Relay

(a) Overcurrent and Earth Fault
(b) Motor Protection
(c) Transformer Differential Protection
(d) Transformer Restricted Earth Fault
(e) Cable Feeder Protection
(f) Overhead Line Protection (Auto‐reclosure, Distance, Line Differential)
(g) Generator Protection

(iv) Instrumentations
(a) Types and class of metering C.T.s and P.T.s; Protection Class (Class X, Class
XPXX, knee point voltage), Metering Class

(v) Unit Protection Requirements

(a) Transformer protection
(b) Generator Protection

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4. Building Systems

(i) Lighting Systems

(a) Knowledge of various lighting concepts:‐
 Luminous intensity (candela)
 Luminance (candela/sq. m)
 Illuminance (Lux)
 Colour rendering index (CRI)
(b) The different types of light sources, colour effects and selections for energy
efficiency
(c) Local authorities requirements
(d) Daylighting concept for energy efficiency (MS 1525)
 Switching and control strategies for energy savings
(e) MS ISO 8995: Lighting of Indoor Work Places

(ii) Lightning Protection

(a) MS IEC 62305‐Protection of building structures against lightning strikes.

(iii) Fire Protection For Electrical Engineers

(a) MS 1745 Fire Alarm and Detection System
(b) BS5839 Part 8 and 9 (Emergency call system)
(c) Emergency standby generating system
(d) Emergency lighting and exit signs
(e) Fire lifts

(iv) Extra Low Voltage Systems

(a) Telecommunication System
 Fixed network infrastructure and space planning
 In‐building structured and fibre cabling
 Public address
(b) SMATV Systems
 System design
 CCTV Surveillance System
 Camera and video fundamental
 Equipment selection
 Analogue versus digital
(c) Security System
 Security components
 Perimeter and interior protection
 Access control
(d) Building Automation System
 Control – type of inputs and outputs
 System infrastructure
 Integration with other systems such as Energy Management System, etc.

(v) Vertical and Horizontal transportations

(a) Drives, Control and Safety issues
(b) Harmonics mitigation

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 (vi) Hazardous Environment
(a) Hazardous area classifications (IEC 60079‐10‐1)
(b) Risks mitigation
(c) Equipment and cable selection

(vii) Energy Efficiency

(a) MS1525: Code Of Practice On Energy Efficiency And Use Of Renewable Energy
For Non‐Residential Buildings

5. Infrastructure

(i) Exterior Lighting

(a) Roads, junctions, roundabout, interchanges and housing.
(b) MS 825 Part 1; Code of Practice for the Design of Road Lighting – Part 1:
Lighting of Roads and Public Amenity Areas
 Roads, junctions, roundabout, interchanges and housing.
 Boulevards
 Open car park
(c) MS 825: Part 2: 2008 – Code of Practice for the Design of Road Lighting – Part
2: Lighting of Tunnels
 Tunnels, underpass and vehicular box culvert (VBC)
(d) MS 825: Part 4, Part 5 and Part 6
(e) Department of Civil Aviation (DCA)
 Obstruction (Obstacle) lights
(f) Wharfs, ports, jetties
(g) Façade
(h) Landscape lighting

(ii) Telecommunication Infrastructure

(a) Manholes and ducting
(b) Termination and interfacing points
(c) Avoidance of microwave communication paths

(iii) Traffic Control System

(a) Traffic Signal System
(b) CCTV monitoring

6. Common Requirements

(i) Work Acceptance

(a) Understanding Technical Standards, types of standards (basic standards,
components standards, assembly standards)
(b) Understanding certifications, basic safety certification, conformance
certification, type test certification

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 (c) Types of work certification; first party, second party and third party
certification
(d) The work acceptance procedures in the construction process.
(e) Commissioning (type of tests and commissioning procedure)

(ii) Ingress Protection (IP) Classifications for Enclosures

(iii) Switchboard forms of segregation – IEC 60439.1

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 SAMPLE QUESTIONS
Common Paper 1

Objective Questions

Q1. A Main Contractor (A) owes a sub-contractor (B) RM2 Million

for work done under a sub-contract and fails to pay B.
Subsequent to protracted negotiations, B agrees to accept
from A a payment of RM1 Million in satisfaction of the whole
debt. What is the effect of this agreement?

A. B can still claim the outstanding RM1 Million.

B. B can challenge the agreement on the basis of

economic duress.

C. The whole debt is discharged .

D. The agreement is void in law.

E. B can only claim under Common Law.

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 SAMPLE QUESTIONS
Common Paper 1

Objective Questions

Q2. Which of the following statement is/are true?

a) Only Mechanical Professional Engineers can submit

active fire protection plans.
b) Only Civil or Mechanical Professional Engineers can
submit passive fire protection plans for industrial
buildings.
c) Professional Engineers of any discipline can submit
active fire protection plans.
d) Only Electrical Professional Engineers can submit
electrical plans.

A. a) only

B. a) and b) only

C. a), b) and d) only

D. c) only

E. b), c) and d) only

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 SAMPLE QUESTIONS
Common Paper 1

Objective Questions

Q3. In the event of any change of consultant after works have

commenced, who is responsible for informing the relevant
local authority concerned of the change?

A. Original/First consultant

B. Replacement consultant

C. Employer

D. Board of Engineers Malaysia (BEM)

E. Any of the above

12
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS
Common Paper 1

Objective Questions

Q4. If the original/first consultant refuses and/or neglects to issue

a Letter of Release (LOR), to which body must a complaint
be made?

A. Association of Consulting Engineers, Malaysia

(ACEM)

B. Ministry of Works

C. Board of Engineers Malaysia (BEM)

D. The Institution of Engineers, Malaysia (IEM)

E. Any of the above

13
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS
Common Paper 1

Objective Questions

Q5. Which of the following statement is FALSE?

A. The BEM Scale of Fees is mandatory

B. A Sole Proprietorship practicing as an ECP

must be registered with BEM

C. All ECPs must be registered with BEM.

D. Professional Fees based on man months do

not contravene the BEM Scale of Fees.

E. For a private project, a consultant may exclude

provision of supervision and hence need not
charge the corresponding professional fees.

14
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS
Common Paper 2

Subjective Questions

Q1. The contractor applies for Extension of Time (EOT) before

his contract completion period expires. The Contract
Administrator does not respond and the original contract
completion date is passed. One month later, the Contract
Administrator issues a V.O. for additional works to the
Contractor. The Contractor refuses to carry out the V.O.
works. What can the Contract Administrator do in this
situation?

Q2. A Consultant has carried out substantial works on a project

and the Employer encounters financial difficulties. He
suspends the project. On resumption, he terminates the
Consultant's employment citing use of in-house consultants
to complete the works due to financial constraints. What is
the legal effect of the termination and what financial
compensation can the consultant seek?

15
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS
Civil Engineering Paper 1

Objective Questions

Q1. From the appropriate Table in BS 8110 determine the

bending moments of short span on a rectangular slab freely
supported on all four sides (corners not held down) and
subjected to a load of gk = 4 kN/m² and qk = 6 kN/m² , when
lx = 3.0 m & ly = 3.75 m.

A. 7.70 kNm

B. 12.18 kNm

C. 5.02 kNm

D. 3.22 kNm

E. 9.75 kNm

16
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS
Civil Engineering Paper 1

Objective Questions

Q2. Based on stress distribution in a semi-infinite elastic solid by

the Boussinesq solution, what is the critical depth in which
the increase in stresses is only about 10 percent of the
applied stress on a square footing? This depth is usually the
critical depth for settlement assessment of a footing.

A. 0.5 times of footing width (0.5B)

B. 2.0 times of footing width (2.0B)

C. 5.0 times of footing width (5.0B)

D. 10.0 times of footing width (10.0B)

E. 15.0 times of footing width (15.0B)

17
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS
Civil Engineering Paper 1

Objective Questions

Q3. Which of the following statements are true for circular

column?

A. Minimum no. of bars is 8, size of bar is not less

than 10 mm

B. Minimum no. of bars is 8, size of bar is not less

than 12 mm

C. Minimum no. of bars is 6, size of bar is not less

than 10 mm

D. Minimum no. of bars is 6, size of bar is not less

than 12 mm

E. None of the above

18
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS
Civil Engineering Paper 1

Objective Questions

Q4. What is the minimum residual pressure head for an external

hydrant system required by Bomba?

A. 3.0m

B. 7.5m

C. 12.5m

D. 10.0m

E. 15.0m

19
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS
Civil Engineering Paper 1

Objective Questions

Q5. What is the fire resistance requirement of a concrete

structure for an underground basement car park?

A. One hour

B. Half an hour

C. Two hours

D. Three hours

E. Four hours

20
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS
Civil Engineering Paper 2

Subjective Questions

Q1. You are the infrastructure engineer for a 500-acre housing

development scheme. What is your advice to the Developer,
Planners and Architects in terms of requirements for
drainage for the whole development?

Q2. A 3-storey basement car park is to be built with an excavation

of approximately 15.0m from the existing ground level. The
water table is 1.0m below the existing ground level. You are
required to provide a solution on the structural system for the
retaining walls of the basement.

21
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS
Electrical Engineering Paper 1

Objective Questions

Q1. Select the statement, which DO NOT describe the function

of the Minister under ‘The Electricity Supply ACT’.

A. Efficient use of energy.

B. Power to fix tariff for electricity.

C. Competency of persons in charge.

D. Licensing of electrical installation.

E. Control of electrical equipment and plant for

safety.

22
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS
Electrical Engineering Paper 1

Objective Questions

Q2. Select the CORRECT condition(s) where Standby

Generator–Alternator Set is mandatory under the Uniform
Building By-Law:

A. Standby supply for hose reel pump where

hose reel system is required under the Tenth
Schedule

B. Standby supply for sprinkler pump where

sprinkler system is required under the Tenth
Schedule

C. In a building where the top occupied floor is

over 18.5m above fire appliance access level

D. Standby supply for hydrant pump where

pressurised hydrant system is required under
the Tenth Schedule

E. All of the above

23
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS
Electrical Engineering Paper 1

Objective Questions

Q3. What is the expected minimum short circuit rating for the TNB
system at 11kV?

A. 40 kA for 3 sec

B. 20kA for 3 sec

C. 25 kA for 3 sec

D. 31.5 kA for 3 sec

E. 18 kA for 3 sec

24
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS
Electrical Engineering Paper 1

Objective Questions

Q4. Select the item NOT classified as an Electro-magnetic

Compatibility (EMC) phenomenon.

A. Electrostatic discharge

B. H.F. interference

C. L.F. interference

D. Voltage dip or surge

E. Transient

25
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS
Electrical Engineering Paper 1

Objective Questions

Q5. Which of the following is true about optical fibre?

A. A single-mode fibre carries less traffic than a

multimode fibre

B. A single mode fibre can carry data a longer

distance than a multimode fibre

C. A single mode fibre can carry data a shorter

distance than a multimode fibre

D. A single mode fibre requires only one cable for

communication whereas a multimode fibre
requires a minimum of 2 cables

E. A single mode fibre carries data only in one

direction

26
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS
Electrical Engineering Paper 2

Subjective Questions

Q1. Answer ALL parts:

a. List ALL the functions of the Minister under ‘The

Electricity Supply Act’ and describe briefly similarities
with the Sarawak Electricity Ordinance.

b. List the departments or agencies the electrical

engineer must submit for approval in a typical project.

27
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS
Electrical Engineering Paper 2

Subjective Questions

Q2. You are requested to plan the electrical installation for a

modern 8-storey commercial building given the following
information:
a. Building aircond with 1x35kW ACPU serving
basement and ground floor, 6 sets 17kW APU for
each of the other floors and 1x7kW and 1x25kW
ACPU on the 8th Floor.
b. 1x15kW lift motor at motor room at roof.
c. 1x15kW water pump at basement floor.
d. Lighting and other power loads per floor (including
basement and ground) estimated at 5kW and 4kW
respectively.
e. The landlord will be responsible for the consumption
with respect to air conditioners on all floors, lift, water
pumps, lighting in staircase and lighting and power in
basement.
f. The basement floor will house TNB substation and
consumer main switchboard whilst the rest of the
floors will be sublet for offices.
Draw a single line diagram of the installation showing the
sizes of main conductors, method of running, rating of
switches and metering arrangement on the main intake
board and individual metering by TNB for each floor

28
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS
Mechanical Engineering Paper 1

Objective Questions

Q1. In HVAC systems, Coefficient of Performance (COP), is

defined as:

A. Input electrical power in kW / Output cooling

capacity in kW

B. Output cooling capacity in W / Input electrical

power in W

C. Input electrical power in kW / Output cooling

capacity in RT

D. Output cooling capacity in Btu/hr / Input

electrical power in kW

E. None of the above

29
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS
Mechanical Engineering Paper 1

Objective Questions

Q2. “Reverse Return” is a term commonly used in;

A. Steam piping system

B. Chilled water piping system

C. Ductwork system

D. Sanitary piping system

E. Gas piping system

30
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS
Mechanical Engineering Paper 1

Objective Questions

Q3. For an 8-storey, 32m tall medium cost apartment, what are
the minimum systems to be provided?

i. Automatic Fire Alarm system

ii. Wet riser system
iii. Sprinkler system
iv. Portable Extinguishers
v. Fire lift
vi. Dry riser system
vii. Down comer system

A. i, iv, v and vii

B. i, ii, iii, iv and v

C. i, iv, v and vi

D. i, ii, iv and v

E. i, iii, iv and v

31
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS
Mechanical Engineering Paper 1

Objective Questions

Q4. Loading and Discharge units in plumbing system refers to

A. Total water weight in pipes

B. Total volumetric flows

C. Fluid viscosity in carrier pipe

D. Reynolds number

E. None of the above

32
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS
Mechanical Engineering Paper 1

Objective Questions

Q5. Fire lifts are required for buildings where the topmost
occupied floor is

A. Over 30.5m

B. Over 18.5m

C. Over 1,000m2.

D. Over 18.5m and 1,000m2

E. Over 30.5m and 1,000m2.

33
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS
Mechanical Engineering Paper 2

Subjective Questions

Q1. You are appointed to design the air conditioning and mechanical
ventilation system for the retrofit of a 20 year old, 25 storey Office
Building with a nett rentable area of 1500m2 per floor. Your client
requires for the new air conditioning system to have minimum
running costs and with flexibility to cater for after normal office
hour occupation by some of the tenants.

List the types of air conditioning systems you would consider and
recommend. Elaborate the reasons for your recommendation and
how you would ensure compliance to current local authorities
requirements. Also, list down specific areas not within your
responsibilities and capabilities where you need your client to
seek expert advice.

Q2. You are required to undertake the design and supervision of the
fire protection services for a Mixed Commercial Development.
The architectural drawings show the following layout;
 3 Basement car park floors of gross area 15,000m2 per
floor and 3.5m height.
 4 Storey Shopping Floors Podium. Each floor of gross area
12,000m2 and floor to floor height of 4.5m
 A Hypermarket of 10,000m2 on ground floor and a
Department Store of 6000m2 on 1st floor.

List the types of fire protection installations required by Bomba

and the basis of such requirements. Describe the design concept
you would propose for the following installations and their
reasons;
 Automatic Sprinkler System
 Smoke Control System

34
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS
Chemical Engineering Paper 1

Objective Questions

Q1. A polymer dose of 0.6 mg/L is required for the treatment of

an industrial effluent. If the specific gravity of the 0.5% liquid
polymer is 1.0 and the effluent flow is 100m3/hr, calculate the
polymer feed rate of the dosing pump in mL per minute

A. 1 mL/min

B. 5 mL/min

C. 200 mL/min

D. 1200 mL/min

E. 2000 mL/min

35
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS
Chemical Engineering Paper 1

Objective Questions

Q2. Referring to ASTM E 1226, explosion severity of dust

explosion hazard can be classified to the following
categories based on test using 1 m3 and 20 L vessels and
10 KJ ignition source. Which of the following statement are
true? Kst is explosion severity of dust cloud.

i. Dust explosion class, St 0 with Kst of 0 bar. m/s is

characterised as non-explosible.
ii. Dust explosion class, St 0 with Kst of 0 to 200 bar. m/s
is characterised as weak to moderate explosible
iii. Dust explosion class, St 0 with Kst of 210 to 250 bar.
m/s is characterised as strong explosible
iv. Dust explosion class, St 0 with Kst more than 500 bar.
m/s is characterised as strong explosible

A. i, iii

B. i, ii, iii

C. ii, iii, iv

D. ii, iv

E. i, ii, iii, iv

36
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS
Chemical Engineering Paper 1

Objective Questions

Q3. Which of the following statements are true for safety valves
installed in boiler?

A. All the boilers must be installed with minimum

two or more safety valves

B. Lifting pressure for safety valve has to set at 5%

above the boiler working pressure

C. If more than one safety valve is installed,

difference of pressure rating between the safety
valves should be 10%

D. During carry out testing on safety valve, all the

steam outlets must shut off

E. None of the above

37
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS
Chemical Engineering Paper 1

Objective Questions

Q4. A plate heat exchanger is required to heat oil to a minimal

required temperature after storage. The cold side of the oil
heater is edible oil whereas the hot side is steam. It is a heat
exchanger catered for a capacity of 1500 ton/day of oil. What
is the appropriate type of material for the oil line and line size
for the oil line in the equipment? Given the density of oil is
902kg/m3 and velocity of oil in 2 m/s

A. All the boilers must be installed with minimum

two or more safety valves

B. Lifting pressure for safety valve has to set at 5%

above the boiler working pressure

C. If more than one safety valve is installed,

difference of pressure rating between the safety
valves should be 10%

D. During carry out testing on safety valve, all the

steam outlets must shut off

E. None of the above

38
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS
Chemical Engineering Paper 1

Objective Questions

Q5.

Referring to the figure above, what kind of signal is

transmitted out from the temperature transmitter?

A. Data link

B. Mechanical signal

C. Pneumatic signal

D. Electrical signal

E. Compressed air

39
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS
Chemical Engineering Paper 2

Subjective Questions

Q1. The final discharge point from any wastewater treatment

plant is the point where the treated effluent is discharged
after the last unit process of the industrial effluent treatment
system (IETS). Please list down FIVE specifications of point
of discharge as stipulated in the Fifth Schedule of the
Industrial Effluent Regulations, 2009. If you notice that your
client is violating the rules, with reference to the Board of
Engineers Malaysia (BEM) Code of Professional Conduct,
suggest your actions.

40
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS
Environmental Engineering Paper 1

Objective Questions

Q1. Calculate the molarity of dissolved CO2 in a vessel pressurized

with 3.0 atm CO2. The Henry’s Law of constant for CO2
dissolved in water at same temperature is 30 atm. M-1

A. 0.1 M

B. 0.01 M

C. 10 M

D. 0.33 M

E. 1.0 M

41
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS
Environmental Engineering Paper 1

Objective Questions

Q2. When a 1.25 g limestone dissolved in acid, 0.44 g of CO2 was

generated. Calculate % of CaCO3 in limestone, if only
carbonate available in limestone is CaCO3

A. 30%

B. 40%

C. 60%

D. 80%

E. 100%

42
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS
Environmental Engineering Paper 1

Objective Questions

Q3. Select a FALSE statement from the following answer

A. Atmospheric pressure is around 101 kPa

B. Atmospheric pressure is sum of gauge and

atmospheric pressure

C. Atmospheric pressure is around 1 atm

D. Under vacuum condition, gauge pressure will

be a negative value

E. Under vacuum condition, absolute pressure will

be a negative value

43
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS
Environmental Engineering Paper 1

Objective Questions

Q4. What is the absolute pressure of a liquid in a pipe if the gauge

pressure is 50 kPa?

A. 85 kPa

B. 51 kPa

C. 151 kPa

D. 101 kPa

E. 151 MPa

44
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS
Environmental Engineering Paper 1

Objective Questions

Q5. A body at a temperature T, K radiates heat with proportional

rate of:

A. T4

B. T-4

C. T2

D. T-2

E. T

45
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS
Environmental Engineering Paper 2

Subjective Questions

Q1. You are employed by a turnkey contractor to advise them on

qualitative requirement for designing and constructing a
facility for storing hazardous waste for a car assembly plant.
Develop an exhaustive list of all possible designs and
operational criteria that can be used for this purpose so that
the storage facility will be legally and practically acceptable.

46
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS
Mining Engineering Paper 1

Objective Questions

Q1. You need the following to allow you to mine for minerals.

I. Exploration Licence
II. Prospecting Licence
III. Mining Lease
IV. Proprietary Mining Licence
V. TOL for Quarrying

A. All of the above

B. III and IV

C. III, IV and V

D. II, III and IV

E. I, II, III and IV

47
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS
Mining Engineering Paper 1

Objective Questions

Q2. Table 1 and Figure 1 are the results from sampling made on
a vein.

Table 1
Sample Width of Zone of Zinc assay
vein influence (%)
(m) (m)
1 1.05 4.0 7.1
2 1.41 3.3 5.8
3 1.38 3.6 8.2
4 1.02 4.5 6.3
Total 4.86 15.4

vein 1 2 3
4

4.0m 3.6m 4.5m

3.3m

Figure 1

48
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS
Mining Engineering Paper 1

Objective Questions

What is the weighted average assay for zinc based on Table 1 and
Figure 1?

A. 85%

B. 6.87%

C. 6.90%

D. 6.3%

E. 6.2%

49
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS
Mining Engineering Paper 1

Objective Questions

Q3. The shock tube or commonly known as nonel tube, can be

initiated by the following.

I. detonator
II. safety fuse
III. matches
IV. detonating cord
V. gun powder

A. All of the above

B. I and II

C. II and III

D. I and IV

E. I, IV and V

50
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS
Mining Engineering Paper 1

Objective Questions

Q4. What is the purpose of screening

I. To avoid uncrushed samples (oversize) from entering

into other process.
II. To avoid entrance of other fine materials into crushing
parts for upgrading its efficiency and capacity
III. To reduce size for the following stage.
IV. To prepare sized product (product sizing)

A. I and II

B. I, II and III

C. I, II and IV

D. III and IV

E. All of the above

51
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS
Mining Engineering Paper 2

Subjective Questions

Q1. A feasibility study is utmost important before decide to start a

mining operation and the most common method is using
discounted cash flow (DCF) analysis.
(a)Why is a feasibility study important.
(b)What are the inputs required to do DCF analysis.
(c) Describe what are NPV, IRR and Payback?

Q2. (a) Explain the importance of having close circuit

arrangement in comminution circuits.
(b) Explain two types of grinding machine (working principle
and breakage mechanism)

Q3. What is the dominant mineral responsible for acid mine drainage
(AMD) production? What group of minerals are most effective
in neutralising acidity? How effective are aluminosilicate
minerals in neutralising acidity?

Explain who some mine waste dumps that contain potential acid
forming (PAF) minerals and neutralising minerals do not
generate AMD immediately. Instead low pH AMD are only
generated several years after the dumps have been abandoned.

52
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS
Geotechnical Engineering Paper 1

Objective Questions

Q1. Field Vane Shear Test (FV) is a common in-situ test carried out
at site to obtain the subsoil strength. Which of the following
descriptions are correct?
I. FV causes less disturbance to the subsoil and the shear
strength is generally higher as compared to the shear
strength obtained from laboratory test.
II. FV is normally restricted to fairly uniform soft cohesive
soil.
III. The result of FV may be misleading high if it was carried
out in non-uniform soil consists of thin layers of sand or
sand lenses.
IV. The undrained shear strength of soft clay as determined
from FV is equal to the mobilized average undrained
strength of soft clay measured at failure of an
embankment.

A. I and II

B. I, II and III

C. II, III and IV

D. I, III and IV

E. All of the above

53
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS
Geotechnical Engineering Paper 1

Objective Questions

Q2. Discharge capacity of Prefabricated Vertical Drain (PVD) is an

important parameter in design. Usually the higher the
discharge capacity, the better the PVD. To assess the
discharge capacity of a drain, which of the following factors
that influence discharge capacity are to be considered:

I.Consolidation stress
II.PVD core type
III.Deformation of drain
IV.Time

A. I, II and III

B. II, III and IV

C. I, III and IV

D. All the above

E. None of the above

54
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS
Geotechnical Engineering Paper 1

Objective Questions

Q3. Ultimate settlement of footings on soft cohesive soils is best

estimated using the data from:

A. Plate bearing test

B. Consolidation test

C. Cone penetration test

D. Standard penetration test

E. Pressure meter test

55
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS
Geotechnical Engineering Paper 1

Objective Questions

Q4. At the beginning of an oedometer test, the void ratio and

thickness of the specimen was 0.988 and 20.0 mm
respectively. Find the final void ratio if the soil consolidated
by 4.62 mm.

A. 0.529

B. 0.459

C. 0.228

D. 0.760

E. 0.231

56
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS
Geotechnical Engineering Paper 1

Objective Questions

Q5. Which statement is NOT TRUE in building basement design

and construction?

A. Recharging Water Well must be provided

during construction for condition with high
ground water and sandy ground

B. The lowest basement level’s slab shall

consider up lift pressure due to water seepage
force

C. Seismic refraction survey can be adopted to

estimate rock level especially dealing with
limestone ground to avoid under estimate on
rock cutting quantity.

D. Before any excavation works, dilapidation

survey must be conducted on the surround
structures and utilities.

E. Open excavation is only allow for one level

basement construction

57
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS
Geotechnical Engineering Paper 2

Subjective Questions

Q1. Soil Investigation results show that the subsoil for a project site
consists of 3 main soil layers as shown in the following Figure.
The ground water level at site is high which is at about 0.5m
below the existing ground surface.

Ground Surface

Ground Water at 0.5m below ground surface

Medium dense silty sand
7m
(SPT-N values=11)
Unit weigth  =18 kN/m3

Very dense sand

(SPT-N values>50)
Unit weight =18 kN/m3
5m

Bedrock - Granite
It is expected that an excavation of 6m will be required for the
construction of the basement. As the site is surrounded by
other structures, open cut method is not feasible.

58
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS
Geotechnical Engineering Paper 2

Subjective Questions

a) If you are the design engineer, please review the following

available retaining wall systems. You are to study the
suitability of each wall system and to give reasons of why
the wall is suitable or not suitable for this site.
i) Soldier Piles with timber lagging (10 marks)
ii) Sheet Pile wall (10 marks)
iii) Contiguous Bored Pile wall (CBP) (10 marks)
iv) Secant Bored Pile wall (SBP) (10 marks)

b) The bottom of the excavation could be instable. You are to

assess the possibility of the following failure mechanisms
and provide the basis of your assessment. If the failure
mechanism is likely, you are to propose remedy/mitigation
measure.
i) Base heave (10 marks)
ii) Piping (10 marks)

Based on the above assessment, what is the minimum

penetration depth required of the retaining wall to ensure the
stability of the bottom of excavation? Please show your
analysis, method adopted and assumptions, if any (40 marks)

59
 SAMPLE QUESTIONS
Geotechnical Engineering Paper 2

Subjective Questions

Q2. a) In site investigation planning, explain briefly the criteria

in determining the numbers of borehole and the depth of
the borehole.
(40 marks)

b) Explain briefly, types of investigation method, field test

and laboratory test for a road construction project at the
coastal area in Klang. The lithology of the area is an
alluvium formation with thick soft marine clay. Support
the facts with reasons that are relevant to the site
conditions and designs.

(60marks)

60
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61