Rahul’ s

a blue print of success

Himachal Pradesh Mock–I

Total Questions: 150

1. ‘Mesne profits’ as defined under Section 2(12) of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
includes:
(a) Profits which person in wrongful possession of property might have received
(b) Profits due to improvements made by person in wrongful possession
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of the above
2. An issue is heard and decided by a competent court with limited pecuniary
jurisdiction. In a subsequent suit the same issue arises but the former court is not
competent to try the subsequent suit due to the high pecuniary value of the subject
matter.
(a) No res judicata will apply on the subsequent suit
(b) Res judicata will apply with respect to the decision on the issue decided in
subsquent suit
(c) The limited jurisdiction of Court in former suit will not bar the application of res
judicata on the subsequent suit with regard to the same issue in both suits
(d) Since the former court is not competent to try subsequent suit res judicata will
not apply
3. ‘A’ is a tradesman in Calcutta. ‘B’ carries on business in Delhi. ‘B’, by his agent in
Calcutta, buys goods of A and requests A to deliver them to the East Indian Railway
Company. ‘A’ delivers the goods accordingly in Calcutta. ‘A’ may sue ‘B’ for the
price of the goods in:
(a) Calcutta
(b) Delhi
(c) Either of the above
(d) Only (a)

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4. Under Section 35 CPC, the court may pass an order that a party must pay:
(a) Costs incurred before proceedings have begun
(b) Interest on costs from or until a certain date
(c) A proportion of another party’s costs
(d) All of the above
5. In which of the following case it is held that arrest while executing a decree can be
made if there is a mala fide refusal by the judgment debtor to pay the amount
decreed, mere inability to pay will not be a good ground to arrest?
(a) George Verghese vs. Bank of Cochin
(b) Kiran Singh vs. Chaman Paswan
(c) Snehlata vs. Pushpalata
(d) None of the above
6. ‘A’, a judgment debtor enters into an agreement with ‘B’, the decree holder to waive
the benefit of exemptions provided under Section 60 CPC. The agreement is:
(a) Valid
(b) Void
(c) Voidable
(d) Illegal
7. A letter of request under Section 77 CPC may be issued by Court:
(a) To examine any person residing at any place not within India
(b) To examine accused or victim residing at any place outside India
(c) To conduct examination of any person holding a constitutional post
(d) To examine any witness residing at any place not within India
8. Summary suit may be filed in which of the following classes of suits?
(a) Suits upon bills of exchange
(b) Suits in which plaintiff seeks to recover an unliquidated demand in money
payable by defendant
(c) Both of the above
(d) Only (b)
9. Which of the following is not incorrectly matched?
(a) O I R9 – Joinder of Plaintiffs
(b) O XXXIII R 4 – Rejection of Application to sue as Pauper
(c) O XLI R 22 – Cross objections in appeal
(d) All of the above
10. An application for Amendment of pleadings can be made:
(a) At any stage of the proceedings
(b) Before commencement of trial

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 (c) Up to the stage of defence evidence
(d) Any of the above
11. Which of the following are not incorrect?
(i) The Plaintiff has right to begin unless the defendant admits the facts alleged by
the plaintiff
(ii) A party to the suit may appear as a witness at any stage of the proceedings
(iii) The examination – in – chief of a witness shall be on affidavit
(iv) The court may not record remarks respecting the demeanour of any witness
while under examination.
(a) Only (i), (ii), (iii) are correct
(b) Only (ii), (iv) are correct
(c) Only (i), (iii) are correct
(d) Only (i), (ii),(iv) are correct
12. In case of disobedience or breach of injunction a person may be detained in civil
prison for :
(a) A term not exceeding two months
(b) A term of not less than one month
(c) A term not exceeding three months
(d) A term of not less than fifteen days
13. Assertion : A plaint cannot be rejected on the ground of O II R2 CPC.
Reason (R) : For dealing with an application of rejection, only the averments made in
the plaint and the documents produced along with the plaint are to be seen.
(a) A & R both are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) A & R both are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct but R is not correct.
(d) A is not correct but R is correct.
14. Assertion (A) : An order closing the proceedings can operate as res judicata upon
subsequent proceeding.
Reason (R) : Previous suit should have been decided on merits for application of the
principle of res judicata.
(a) A & R both are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) A & R both are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct but R is not correct.
(d) A is not correct but R is correct.
15. In which of the following cases can C set off the claim?
(a) A sues C on a BoE, C alleges that A has wrongfully neglected to insure C’s goods
and is liable to pay in compensation

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 (b) A sues B and C for Rs. 1000, the debt is due to C by A alone
(c) A sues C on a BoE of Rs. 500. C holds a judgement against A for recovery of
debt of Rs. 1000
(d) All of the above
16. Public nuisance within the meaning of Section 91 of CPC is:
(a) Nuisance in law
(b) Nuisance in fact
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Either (a) or (b)
17. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) O XXI R30 – execution of decree for payment of money
(b) O XXI R 31 – Execution of decree for specific movable property
(c) OXXI R 32 – Execution of a decree for injunction
(d) O XXI R 33 – Execution of decree for immovable property
18. A decree shall be prepared within how many days from the date of pronouncement
of the judgment?
(a) 10 days
(b) 15 days
(c) 20 days
(d) 30 days
19. Which of the following provision of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 is not amended by
2018 Amendment Act?
(a) Section 6
(b) Section 10
(c) Section 15
(d) None of the above
20. Recovery of specific movable property may be made in the manner provided by:
(a) Section 7 SRA
(b) Section 8 SRA
(c) Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
(d) All of the above
21. As per Section 20B SRA special court may be established to exercise jurisdiction in
respect of contracts relating to infrastructure projects by:
(a) State Govt.
(b) State govt. in consultation with the Chief Justice of High Court
(c) Central govt.
(d) None of the above

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22. It has been held in the case of Supreme General Films vs. Baijnath that:
(a) A complete stranger can also obtain a declaratory decree under S. 34 SRA
(b) The plaintiff must have a present interest or right as distinguished from a mere
chance to claim relief of declaration
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of the above
23. The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 came into force on:
(a) 1st April 1872
(b) 31st July 1872
(c) 1st September 1872
(d) 23rd November 1872
24. The relevancy of ‘last seen together’ theory may be found under:
(a) Section 6
(b) Section 7
(c) Section 8
(d) Section 9
25. ‘A’ with an intention to commit an offence with the help of his five more friends
contacts all of them by writing letters to persuade them to conspire together to
commit the offence. The writing of letters will:
(a) Be relevant under S. 10 IEA
(b) Not be relevant under S. 10 IEA
(c) Only be relevant under S. 8 IEA and not otherwise
(d) Both (a) and (c)
26. ‘A’ prosecutes B for adultery with C, A’s wife. B denies that C is A’s wife, but the
court convicts B of adultery. Afterwards, C is prosecuted for bigamy in marrying B
during A’s lifetime. C says that she never was A’s wife. The judgment against B is
(a) Irrelevant as against C
(b) Relevant as against C
(c) Subject to discretion of Court
(d) Either of the above
27. As a general rule, it is provided under S. 21 IEA that admissions may be proved
against the person who makes them. In which of the following cases admissions
may be proved?
(a) Dying declaration made by a person
(b) Statement as to the state of body of a person accompanied by conduct
(c) Statement relevant otherwise than as admission
(d) All of the above

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28. A confession is recorded by Magistrate under Section 164 of the Code of Criminal
Procedure, 1973 without giving him warning that he is not required to make it. The
confession is:
(a) Not relevant as it is incurable irregularity
(b) Does not become irrelevant as per S. 29 IEA because he was not warned that
he was not bound to make it and evidence of it might be given against him
(c) It is subject to the discretion of the Magistrate recording the confession
(d) It is subject to the discretion of the Magistrate trying the offence
29. The entries in public records made in performance of duty will be relevant as per
Section 35 IEA in:
(a) Civil proceedings
(b) Criminal proceedings
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of the above
30. Which of the following is relevant under S. 50 IEA?
(a) Grounds of expert opinion
(b) Opinion expressed by conduct
(c) Opinion based on scientific experiments
(d) All of the above
31. Which of the following provisions exclude the Hearsay Evidence?
(a) S. 59
(b) S. 60
(c) S. 64
(d) All of the above
32. It was held in the case of Nandlal Wasudev Badwaik vs. Lata Nandlal Badwaik:
(a) That the conclusive proof under S. 112 IEA can not be rebutted by scientifically
established DNA testing
(b) That the conclusive proof under S. 112 IEA can be rebutted by scientifically
established DNA testing
(c) It is subject to the facts of the case
(d) None of the above
33. Which of the following provision provides for burden of proof with respect to
Chapter–IV of IPC?
(a) S. 101
(b) S. 103
(c) S. 105
(d) S. 106

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34. Assertion (A) : eight accused persons can be convicted on testimony of a sole
witness.
Reason (R) : testimony of a sole eyewitness can be worthy of credence when there
is no vagueness in the testimony with respect to the role ascribed to each one of the
accused.
(a) A & R both are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) A & R both are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct but R is not correct.
(d) A is not correct but R is correct.
35. Assertion (A) : Circumstantial evidences can be the basis of conviction in cases.
Reason (R) : Circumstantial evidences are an exception to the rule of exclusion of
hearsay evidences.
(a) A & R both are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) A & R both are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct but R is not correct.
(d) A is not correct but R is correct.
36. The leading case on Sawal Das vs. State of Bihar deals with:
(a) Last seen theory
(b) Plea of alibi
(c) Res – gestae
(d) Criminal conspiracy
37. Which of the following cases deals with decision on the point of requirement of
certificate under S. 65 B IEA?
(a) Shafi Mohammad vs. State of Himachal Pradesh
(b) Arjun Pandit Rao vs. Kailash Kushan Rao
(c) P.V. Anwar vs. P.K. Basheer
(d) All of the above
38. Assertion (A) : An accomplice shall be a competent witness against an accused
person.
Reason (R) : The court shall be cautious while relying upon testimony of
accomplice.
(a) A & R both are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) A & R both are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct but R is not correct.
(d) A is not correct but R is correct.

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 39. Who among the following has called S. 165 IEA as ‘Evidence of Evidence’?
(a) Justice Munir
(b) Bentham
(c) Salmond
(d) None of the above
40. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Section 85A – Presumption as to electronic agreements
(b) Section 85B – Presumption as to electronic records
(c) Section 85C – Presumption as to Electronic signature certificate
(d) Section 90 A – presumption as to electronic signatures
41. The Indian Stamp Act consists of how many Schedule/s?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) None
42. At which of the following places trial can be conducted as per S. 72 of the Act?
(a) Any district or presidency town in which such instrument is found
(b) Any district or Presidency town in which offence might be tried under CrPC
(c) Both of the above
(d) Only (a)
43. Which of the following instruments are chargeable under The Indian Stamp Act?
(a) Instrument executed by or on behalf of Government
(b) Any instrument executed by, or on behalf of, or, in favor of the Developer, or
Unit, or for purposes of Special Economic Zone.
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of the above
44. Any instrument written contrary to S. 13 and S. 14 of The Indian Stamp Act is
deemed to be:
(a) Illegal
(b) Unstamped
(c) Void
(d) Valid
45. A owes B Rs. 1000. A sells property to B for a consideration of 500 Rs. And the
release of previous debt of Rs. 1000. Stamp duty is payable on:
(a) Rs. 500
(b) Rs. 1000
(c) Rs. 1500

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 (d) Any of the above
46. For the purpose of Himachal Pradesh Courts Act, ‘Government’ means:
(a) Central government
(b) Government of Himachal Pradesh
(c) Either of the above
(d) Only (b)
47. Who prepares the list of holidays as per Himachal Pradesh Courts Act?
(a) State govt.
(b) High court
(c) Governor
(d) Any of the above
48. An appeal lies from an order passed by Additional District Judge exercising original
jurisdiction to:
(a) District judge
(b) High Court
(c) Sessions Judge
(d) None of the above
49. Which of the following provision provides for Classes of Courts?
(a) S. 2
(b) S. 3
(c) S. 4
(d) S. 5
50. Additional District Judge is appointed by:
(a) State Govt.
(b) High Court
(c) State Govt. may after consultation with the High Court
(d) Governor
51. Indian Contract Act, 1872 finds its place in which of the following list of Schedule VII
of the Indian Constitution?
(a) List I
(b) List II
(c) List III
(d) None of the above
52. Indian Contract Act is:
(a) A consolidated enactment with respect to law relating to contracts
(b) It defines certain parts of law relating to contracts
(c) Both of the above

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 (d) Only (a)
53. ‘A’ proposes, by a letter sent by post, to sell his house to ‘B’. B accepts the proposal
by a letter sent by post. Which of the following is correct?
(i) A may revoke his proposal at any time before or at the moment when B posts
his letter of acceptance
(ii) A may revoke his proposal after the moment when B posts his letter of
acceptance with the consent of B in writing
(iii) B may revoke his acceptance at any time before or at the moment when the
letter communicating it reaches A
(iv) B may revoke his acceptance at any time after the letter communicating it
reaches A with the consent of A in writing
(a) Only (i), (iii) are correct
(b) Only (ii),(iv) are correct
(c) All of the above are correct
(d) None of the above are correct
54. A consent is said to be free when:
(a) Two persons agree upon the same thing in same sense
(b) It is caused by coercion, undue influence, fraud, misrepresentation or mistake
(c) It is not caused by coercion, undue influence, fraud, misrepresentation or
mistake
(d) Both (a) and (c)
55. Which of the following provision lays down limitations upon the freedom of contract?
(a) S. 10
(b) S. 23
(c) S. 31
(d) S. 45
56. A promises B to sell him one hundred bales of merchandise, to be delivered next
day, and B promises A to pay for them within a month. A does not deliver according
to his promise.
(a) B’s promise to pay need not be performed
(b) A must make compensation for non-performance
(c) Both of the above
(d) Only (b) is correct
57. A person employed by, and acting under the control of, the original agent in the
business of the agency is:
(a) Sub – agent
(b) Substituted agent

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 (c) Either of the above
(d) None of the above
58. ‘A’ gives authority to B to sell A’s land, and to pay himself, out of the proceeds, the
debts due to him from A.
(a) A cannot revoke this authority
(b) The authority may be terminated by A’s insanity or death
(c) Both of the above
(d) Only (a)
59. Which of the following case deals with ‘General Offer’?
(a) Motilal Padampat Sugar Mills vs. State of UP
(b) Carlill vs. carbolic smoke balls
(c) Tinn vs. Hoffman
(d) Both (a) and (b)
60. In which of the following case it was held that the ‘liability of guarantor is co-
extensive with that of the principal debtor’?
(a) Infrastructure leasing and Financial Services Ltd. vs. Vijay Prabhu
(b) Manita Khurana vs. Indra Khurana
(c) Bar Council of Delhi vs. Surender
(d) Purabi Dasgupta vs. Arun Kumar
61. On the basis of which of the following grounds an alternate relief of judicial
separation may be granted in divorce proceedings under Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?
(a) Conversion to another religion
(b) Renouncing the world
(c) Not heard of as being alive for last seven years
(d) None of the above
62. The proceedings under Hindu Marriage Act, 1955:
(a) Are not to be regulated by the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
(b) To be governed by the principles of natural justice
(c) Are to be governed by the Code of Civil Procedure as far as may be
(d) Both (a) and (b)
63. Under Hindu Marriage Act the in camera proceedings are:
(a) Directory
(b) Discretionary
(c) Mandatory
(d) Any of the above subject to the facts of the case

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64. Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
(a) Full blood – descended from a common ancestor by the same wife
(b) Half blood - descended from a common ancestor but by different wives
(c) Uterine blood – descended from a common ancestress but by different husbands
(d) None of the above
65. ‘A’, a Hindu male dies intestate leaving behind his son, mother and father. Who
among them will be entitled to a share from his property?
(a) Son, mother and father
(b) Son only
(c) Son and mother
(d) Mother and father
66. For the purpose of natural guardianship under the Hindu Minority and Guardianship
Act, 1956 ‘father’ and ‘mother’ does not include:
(a) Biological ‘father’ and ‘mother’
(b) Adoptive ‘father’ and ‘ mother’
(c) Step ‘father’ and ‘mother
(d) None of the above
67. ‘A’ a Hindu father appoints ‘B’ as testamentary guardian of his son. He dies before
the mother. The mother also dies after two years from the death of the father. Who
will be the testamentary guardian of the son?
(a) B
(b) No one as mother did not appoint any testamentary guardian
(c) B will not be testamentary guardian as he was appointed by father and the father
died before the mother
(d) Both (b) and (c)
68. Consider the following statements:
(i) The person to be adopted shall not be already adopted
(ii) There shall be a gap of at least twenty years if the adoptive parent and adopted
child are of opposite gender
(iii) The person adopting shall be of sound mind
(iv) The person to be adopted shall be major
(a) Only (i),(ii),(iii) are correct
(b) Only (i),(iii) are correct
(c) Only (ii) and (iv) are correct
(d) All of the above are correct

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69. Maintenance by a divorced Hindu woman may be claimed under:
(a) Section 25 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
(b) Section 18 of Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of the above
70. In which of the following case the Hon’ble Supreme Court has held that irretrievable
breakdown of marriage can be read as the ground of ‘cruelty’ under S. 13(1) (ia) of
the Hindu Marriage Act for the dissolution of marriage?
(a) Shri Rakesh Raman vs. Smt. Raveena Raman
(b) Shri Rakesh Raman vs. Smt. Kavita
(c) Smt. Harsha Raman vs. Shri Rakesh Raman
(d) None of the above
71. Which of the following transfers are governed by the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?
(a) Partition of joint Hindu family property
(b) Charge
(c) Devolution of share through intestate succession
(d) All of the above
72. Mrs. A is facing some financial troubles and to solve that she wants to sell some of
his properties. Which of the following properties may be sold by her as per TPA?
(a) Her right to future maintenance
(b) Her salary as a public officer which has become payable
(c) A plot of land
(d) All of the above
73. ‘A’ creates life interest of his house in favor of ‘B’ and further creates life interest in
favor of B’s unborn son and then absolutely transfers it to C’s unborn daughter.
(a) The transfer in favor of B takes effect
(b) The transfer in favor of B’s unborn son and C’s unborn daughter takes effect
(c) The transfer in favor of B and B’s unborn son takes effect
(d) All of the above are correct
74. The question of election as per S. 35 TPA arises when:
(a) When transferee takes a benefit directly under a transaction.
(b) When transferee derives any benefit indirectly under a transaction
(c) Either (a) or (b)
(d) Both (a) and (b)
75. Which of the following is an exception to the maxim nemo dat quod non habeat?
(a) S. 41 TPA
(b) S. 43 TPA
(c) Both of the above
(d) TPA does not recognize any exception to this rule

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76. The doctrine of part performance was inserted in TPA:
(a) When the Act was enacted
(b) By 1929 Amendment
(c) By 2002 Amendment
(d) By the decision in Medison vs. Alderson
77. Which of the following are exempted from the application of Chapter VIII TPA?
(a) Stocks or mercantile document of title to goods
(b) Shares or debentures
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of the above
78. Which of the following is an effect of the Doctrine of merger under TPA?
(a) Gift becomes void
(b) Determination of lease
(c) Mortgage becomes sale
(d) Any of the above
79. Which of the following is not incorrect with respect to the mesne mortgagee?
(a) He has same rights against mortgagees before himself as he has against the
mortgagor
(b) He has same rights against mortgagees before himself as he has against the
mortgagee posterior to himself
(c) He does not have same rights against mortgagees before himself as he has
against the mortgagor posterior to him
(d) He has same rights against mortgagees posterior to himself as he has against
the mortgagor
80. Which of the following rights are available to mortgagor in case of usufructuary
mortgage?
(a) Right of foreclosure
(b) Right to cause the mortgage property to be sold
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of the above
81. S. 3 of the Himachal Pradesh Rent Act exempts which of the following building from
the application of the Act?
(a) Building or rented land owned by State Govt.
(b) Any building exempted by Central Govt.
(c) Educational and charitable institutions
(d) All of the above

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82. Any agreement to pay sum beyond Standard Rent shall be:
(a) Enforceable
(b) Illegal
(c) Void
(d) Unlawful
83. A tenant makes a frivolous application against landlord for cutting essential supplies
without reasonable cause. The controller may order payment of:
(a) Fine not exceeding 1000 Rs.
(b) Compensation not exceeding 1000Rs.
(c) Fine not less than Rs. 1000
(d) Compensation of not less than 1000 Rs.
84. In order to let a building under S. 19 of the Rent Act the building shall be vacant for:
(a) 6 months
(b) 8 months
(c) 9 months
(d) 12 months
85. If the landlord does not accept the rent duly tendered by the tenant within the time
fixed, the remedy available to tenant is:
(a) The tenant need not pay rent for that month
(b) The tenant may deposit rent before Controller
(c) Either of the above
(d) The tenant has to file a civil suit
86. Which of the following is not incorrect?
(a) Limited period tenancy – S. 17
(b) Appeal – S. 24
(c) Eviction of tenant – S. 14
(d) All of the above
87. An appeal under S. 24 may be filed within how many days from the date of the order
of Controller?
(a) 10 days
(b) 15 days
(c) 30 days
(d) 45 days
88. Which of the following case is related to same-sex marriages in India?
(a) Supriyo vs. UOI
(b) UOI vs. Association for Democratic Reforms and Another
(c) PUCL vs. UOI
(d) All of the above

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89. Assertion (A) : Original proposal ceases on making a counter proposal.
Reason (R) : Acceptance to a proposal shall be unconditional.
(a) A & R both are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) A & R both are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct but R is not correct.
(d) A is not correct but R is correct
90. A agrees to pay B Rs. 1000 if two straight lines should enclose a space.
(a) The contract is void under S. 32 ICA
(b) The agreement is void under S. 36 ICA
(c) The contract is void under S. 56 part II of ICA
(d) The agreement is void on the ground of supervening impossibility
91. Hadley vs. Baxendale is a case related to:
(a) Non – payment of damages
(b) Remoteness of damages
(c) Exemplary damages
(d) Any of the above
92. Hindu law is:
(a) Lex loci
(b) Lex fori
(c) Either of the above
(d) None of the above
93. Mr. A and his younger brother died in an accident on highway rendering it
impossible to determine who died first. For the purpose of intestate succession:
(a) The younger brother shall be presumed to be died first
(b) Mr. A shall be presumed to be died before his younger brother
(c) It is subject to the discretion of the family members
(d) It is subject to the facts of the case
94. A person shall not be entitled to act as guardian of a minor person if:
(a) He has ceased to be a Hindu
(b) He is not an ascetic
(c) He has not completely and finally renounced the world
(d) None of the above
95. A Bill of exchange under the Limitation Act includes:
(a) A hundi
(b) A cheque
(c) Both of the above
(d) Only (b)

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96. The limitation period to file a suit for compensation for false imprisonment is:
(a) One year from the time when the imprisonment ends
(b) Two years from the time when a person is sentenced to imprisonment
(c) One year from the time when person is sent to jail
(d) Two years from the time when person discovers cause for imprisonment being
false
97. As an effect of acknowledgement in writing u/s. 18 of the Limitation Act:
(a) The prescribed period extends for three years
(b) The fresh period of limitation shall be computed from the time when
acknowledgement was so signed
(c) The fresh period of limitation shall be computed from the time when
acknowledgement was so signed as the cause of action is renewed
(d) The period of limitation extends again for the same time as much as has passed
till the date of acknowledgement
98. The period of limitation for instituting suits by a mortgagor to redeem or recover
possession of immovable property mortgaged:
(a) Thirty years
(b) Twenty years
(c) Twelve years
(d) Three years
99. Which of the following shall be referred for the computation of limitation period in the
Limitation Act?
(a) Hindi Calender
(b) Gregorian Calender
(c) As agreed upon between the parties
(d) As directed by the State Govt.
100. As per S. 3 of the Limitation Act, the bar of limitation is:
(a) Mandatory
(b) Directory
(c) Discretionary
(d) None of the above
101. ‘Victim’ means and includes:
(a) Person suffered loss caused by act for which accused person has been charged
(b) His or her guardian
(c) His or her legal heir
(d) All of the above

17
102. Who among the following are appointed by the State Govt.?
(a) Assistant Public Prosecutors
(b) Public Prosecutors
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of the above
103. ‘A’ has a living wife ‘B’ and he solemnizes second marriage with another woman ‘C’.
(a) B shall prosecute both A and C for the offence of bigamy
(b) B may lodge FIR against A and C for the offence of bigamy
(c) B may make a complaint against A for the offence of bigamy
(d) Any of the above
104. ‘A’ is charged with commission of bailable offence. He is produced before
Magistrate for custody beyond 24 hours for some crucial interrogation regarding the
investigation.
(a) Magistrate may allow custody as per S. 167 CrPC
(b) Magistrate may allow custody as per S. 309 CrPC
(c) Since it is a bailable offence A shall be released on bail if he furnishes bail
(d) Any of the above
105. Which of the following provision deals with conditional order for removal of
nuisance?
(a) S. 129
(b) S. 133
(c) S. 145
(d) S. 147
106. On which of the following ground/s Supreme Court may transfer a case or appeal
under S. 406 CrPC?
(a) It is expedient for the ends of justice
(b) Some question of law of unusual difficulty is likely to arise
(c) Fair and impartial inquiry cannot be had in any Criminal Court subordinate
thereto
(d) All of the above
107. An appellant prefers an appeal against conviction. The appellant dies during the
pendency of appeal.
(a) The appeal shall abate in all cases
(b) Any of the near relatives of appellant may apply for leave to continue appeal
(c) Both of the above
(d) It is subject to the discretion of the court

18
108. Mr. P has been convicted of an offence by the Court of Sessions and has been
sentenced to imprisonment for two months.
(a) Mr. P may file appeal under S. 373
(b) Mr. P may file appeal under S. 374
(c) Mr. P may file appeal before High Court under S. 378
(d) No appeal shall lie
109. Which of the following is/are exception to S. 193 CrPC?
(a) S. 199
(b) S. 319
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of the above
110. Which of the following is correctly matched?
(a) S. 106 – security for not exceeding one year
(b) S. 107 – security for not exceeding three years
(c) S. 108 – security for not exceeding two years
(d) S. 109 – security for not exceeding one year
111. Assertion (A) : Day of remand should be included for considering default bail claim.
`Reason (R) : The interpretation of law which advances personal liberty should be
adopted.
(a) A & R both are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) A & R both are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct but R is not correct.
(d) A is not correct but R is correct.
112. Assertion (A) : High Court cannot quash criminal proceedings while exercising
power under S. 482 CrPC by saying that charges are not proved.
Reasoning (R) : it is a rule of criminal jurisprudence that High Courts cannot conduct
‘mini trial’ while exercising power under S. 482 CrPC.
(a) A & R both are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) A & R both are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct but R is not correct.
(d) A is not correct but R is correct.
113. In which of the following cases Hon’ble Supreme Court opined that the view that
there cannot be police custody beyond 15 days from the date of arrest should be
considered?
(a) CBI vs. Anupam J. Kulkarni
(b) CBI vs. Vikas Mishra
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of the above

19
114. What is held by the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Sushila Aggarwal vs.
State (NCT of Delhi)?
(a) Once the order of anticipatory bail is granted; it ordinarily subsists till the next
date of hearing
(b) Once the order of anticipatory bail is granted; it mandatorily subsists during the
entire duration of the trial
(c) Once the order of anticipatory bail is granted; it ordinarily subsists during the
entire duration of the trial
(d) None of the above
115. Under S. 53 CrPC examination of accused by medical practitioner is at the request
of Police Officer of:
(a) Not below the rank of Inspector
(b) Not below the rank of sub – inspector
(c) Not below the rank of DSP
(d) Not below the rank of SP
116. For a person to be a public servant under S. 21 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860,
he/she:
(a) May be appointed by government
(b) May not be appointed by government
(c) Either of the above
(d) Only (a)
117. Consider the following statements:
(i) S. 34 IPC recognizes principle of vicarious liability in criminal jurisprudence.
(ii) For the purpose of S. 34 IPC prior meeting of mind cannot develop at the spot
in any case.
(iii) In order to convict persons with the aid of S. 34 IPC it is not necessary to
establish overt act of each of the person involved.
(iv) S. 34 IPC is mandatorily required to be mentioned in the judgment if the
ingredients of the section are present and satisfied.
(a) Only (i), (iv) are correct
(b) Only (ii), (iv) are correct
(c) Only (i), (iii) are correct
(d) Only (ii), (iii) are correct
118. The maximum period for which solitary confinement may be ordered are:
(a) One month
(b) Two months
(c) Three months
(d) Four months

20
119. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) S. 87 IPC – volenti non fit injuria
(b) S. 94 IPC – actus ne invite factus est nisi actus
(c) S. 95 IPC – de minimis non curat lex
(d) None of the above
120. Which of the following provision provides for constructive liability?
(a) S. 34 IPC
(b) S. 114 IPC
(c) S. 460 IPC
(d) All of the above
121. A instigates B to murder D. B in pursuance of the instigation stabs D. D recovers
from the wound.
(a) A is not guilty of any offence
(b) Only B is guilty of offence of murder
(c) A is guilty of the offence of abetment of murder
(d) Both (b) and (c)
122. A, B, C, D, E are guilty of the offence of rioting. They will be punishable:
(a) Under S. 146 for imprisonment which may extend up to two years or with fine or
with both
(b) Under S. 147 for imprisonment which may extend up to two years or with fine or
with both
(c) Under S. 146 for imprisonment which may extend up to two years and with fine
(d) Under S. 147 for imprisonment which may extend up to three years and with fine
123. A, a landholder, knowing of the commission of a murder within the limits of his
estate willfully misinforms the Magistrate of the district that the death has occurred
by accident in consequence of the bite of a snake. A is:
(a) Guilty of offence under S. 191 IPC
(b) Guilty of offence under S. 182 IPC
(c) Guilty of offence under S. 177 IPC
(d) Not guilty of any offence
124. What is the mens rea for the offence of kidnapping under IPC?
(a) Dishonestly
(b) Voluntarily
(c) Fraudulently
(d) No mens rea
125. Consider the following statements:
(i) The offence of causing grievous hurt is punishable under IPC.
(ii) Eight kinds of hurt are listed to be grievous hurt under S. 320 IPC.
(iii) The list under S. 320 IPC is exhaustive.
(a) Only (i),(ii) are correct
(b) Only (ii),(iii) are correct
(c) Only (i),(iii) are correct
(d) All of the above are correct

21
126. In which of the following case the Hon’ble Supreme Court banned the two finger
test?
(a) State of Jharkhand vs. Shailendra Kumar
(b) State of UP vs. Shailendra Kumar
(c) State of Rajasthan vs. Shailendra Kumar
(d) State of Gujarat vs. Shailendra Kumar
127. The case of S.G. Vombatkere vs. UOI deals with:
(a) Common intention
(b) Sedition
(c) Hate speech
(d) Dowry death
128. Assertion (A) : There is either Theft or Extortion in the offence of Robbery.
Reasoning (R) : Theft and Extortion precede robbery.
(a) A & R both are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) A & R both are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct but R is not correct.
(d) A is not correct but R is correct.
129. Which of the following case/s does not deal with the defence of unsoundness under
S. 84 IPC?
(a) Dayabhai Thakkar vs. State of Gujarat
(b) Prakash Sen vs. State of Goa
(c) Bapu @ Gajraj Singh vs. State of Rajasthan
(d) None of the above
130. Criminal breach of trust on an offence signifies:
(a) Entrustment
(b) Demand
(c) Refusal
(d) All of the above
131. A notification to constitute Reserved forest under the Indian Forest Act shall be
issued:
(a) By Central govt. under S. 3 of the Act
(b) By State govt. under S. 4 of the Act
(c) Either of the above
(d) Only (b) is correct
132. ‘A’ trespasses and pastures cattle in the reserved forest. Which of the following
order/s may be passed against him?
(a) Imprisonment or fine or both or order to pay compensation
(b) Imprisonment or fine or both
(c) Imprisonment and fine
(d) Imprisonment or fine or both and order to pay compensation

22
133. Which of the following section provides for formation of village forests?
(a) S. 26
(b) S. 28
(c) S. 29
(d) S. 31
134. Who among the following has power to levy duty on timber and other forest
produce?
(a) Central govt.
(b) State govt.
(c) Other local authorities
(d) Any of the above
135. What is the term of imprisonment prescribed under S. 63 of the Indian Forest Act,
1927 for counterfeiting or defacing marks on trees and for altering boundary marks?
(a) Six months
(b) One year
(c) Two years
(d) Three years
136. A mobile establishment where animals are kept for performing tricks is called:
(a) Zoo
(b) Circus
(c) Either of the above
(d) ‘only (a)
137. Uprooting of specified plants may not be permitted by the Chief Wild Life Warden for
which of the following purposes?
(a) Education
(b) Scientific research
(c) Display in herbarium of scientific institution
(d) All of the above
138. Who among the following are exempted from the prohibition under S. 27 of the Wild
Life Protection Act?
(a) Public servant on duty,
(b) Person permitted by the Chief Wild Life Warden to reside
(c) Person passing through the sanctuary along a public highway
(d) All of the above
139. What is the term of office of the members appointed under the Central Zoo
Authority?
(a) Not exceeding one year
(b) Not exceeding two years
(c) Not exceeding three years
(d) Not exceeding five years

23
 140. The term ‘livestock’ under the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 does not include:
(a) Poultry
(b) Yaks
(c) Wild animals
(d) Mules
141. Who has power to order closure of liquor vend in case of occurrence of any riot?
(a) Excise Commissioner
(b) District Magistrate
(c) State Govt.
(d) Any of the above
142. In which of the following cases Excise or Countervailing duty shall be levied?
(a) Alcoholic liquor imported, exported or transported as per S. 21 of the Act
(b) Alcoholic liquor imported into India for human consumption which was liable to
Customs Act
(c) Medicinal and toiletry preparations containing alcohol on which excise duty is
levied under the Medicinal and Toilet Preparations (Excise Duty) Act, 1955
(d) All of the above
143. Which of the following provision provides for surrender of license ?
(a) S. 33
(b) S. 34
(c) S. 35
(d) S. 36
144. What is the period of limitation for taking cognizance for an offence punishable with
fine only under the H.P. Excise Act?
(a) 6 months
(b) 9 months
(c) 1 year
(d) 2 years
145. Assertion (A): The general superintendence and administration of all matters
relating to excise are vested in the Financial Commissioner under the H.P. Excise
Act.
Reason (R) : The Financial Commissioner has the power to establish or licensing of
distilleries, breweries or warehouse etc. in the State.
(a) A & R both are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) A & R both are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct but R is not correct.
(d) A is not correct but R is correct.

24
146. ‘Sexual harassment’ as defined in the case of Vishaka vs. State of Rajasthan shall
not include:
(a) Welcome physical contact and advances
(b) Showing pornography with consent
(c) A demand for professional favor
(d) All of the above
147. The burden to prove that the accused had no such mental state as required to
commit an offence under the POCSO Act shall be:
(a) Beyond reasonable doubt
(b) Only to the extent of preponderance of probability
(c) It is subject to facts of the case
(d) It is subject to the discretion of the Court
148. Which of the following value/s are recognized under the Bangalore Code of Judicial
Conduct?
(a) Independence
(b) Propriety
(c) Competence
(d) All of the above
149. The Bangkok General Guidance for Judges in Applying a Gender Perspective was
adopted in which year?
(a) 2001
(b) 2005
(c) 2016
(d) 2021
150. The bench which delivered the landmark judgment in Vishaka vs. State of Rajasthan
was presided over by:
(a) Hon’ble Justice J.S. Verma
(b) Hon’ble Justice Sujata V. Manohar
(c) Hon’ble Justice B.N. Kirpal
(d) None of the above

25
S. No. Answer Explanation
1. A
2 C Explanation VII of Section 11
3 C Section 20 CPC
4 D
5 A
6 B Section 60 (1A) CPC
7 D
8 A Suits in which plaintiff seeks to recover a liquidated demand in money
payable by defendant may be filed as summary suit.

9 C (a) O I R9 – mis- joinder or non- joinder of parties

10 A O VI R 17
11 C (i) A party to the suit himself wishes to appear as a witness, he shall
appear as a witness before any other witness on his behalf has
been examined unless court for reasons to be recorded in writing
permits to appear at later stage of the proceedings. (O XVIII R
3A)
(ii) The court may record remarks respecting the demeanour of any
witness while under examination. (O XVIII R 120

12 C O XXXIX R 2A CPC
13 A
14 D
15 C
16 B
17 D O XXI R 35 – Execution of decree for immovable property
18 B O XX R 6A
19 D
20 C S. 7 SRA
21 B

26
22 B
23 C
24 B
25 A
26 A S. 43 IEA
27 D
28 A
29 C Ravinder Singh vs. State of UP
30 B
31 B
32 B
33 C
34 A Ravasaheb vs. State of Karnataka

35 C
36 C
37 D
38 B
39 B
40 D
41 B
42 C
43 D
44 B
45 C
46 B
47 B
48 B
49 B
50 C
51 C
52 B Entry 7 List III

27
53 A S. 5 ICA
54 C
55 B
56 C S. 54 ICA
57 A S. 191 ICA
58 D S. 201 ICA
The authority cannot be terminated by A’s insanity or death.
59 B
60 A
61 D S. 13A HMA
62 C S. 21 HMA
63 C S. 22 HMA
64 D
65 C Father is Class II heir and thus the other Class I heir will exclude him.
66 C S. 6 HMGA Explanation
67 A S. 9 HMGA
If mother dies without appointing testamentary guardian then the
appointment made by father revives.
68 B (i) There shall be a gap of at least twenty one years if the adoptive
parent and adopted child are of opposite gender
(ii) The person to be adopted shall not have completed 15 years of
age subject to custom governing the parties

69 A
70 B
71 B S. 5 TPA
72 C S. 6 TPA
73 A There shall be vesting of absolute interest in favour of unborn person.
S. 13 and S. 16 TPA
74 A Valliammai vs. Nagappa
75 C
76 B
77 C

28
78 B S. 111 (d) TPA
79 D S. 94 TPA
80 D
81 A
82 C S. 7
83 B S. 11
84 D S. 19
85 B
86 D
87 B
88 A
89 A
90 B
91 B
92 D
93 B S. 21 HSA
94 A S. 6 HMGA
95 C S. 2 (c) of the Limitation Act
96 A
97 B
98 A
99 B S. 24 of the Limitation Act
100 A
101 D
102 A
103 C S. 198 CrPC
104 C
105 B
106 A
107 B S. 394 CrPC (Abatement of appeal)
108 D S. 376 CrPC
109 C

29
110 D
111 A Enforcement Directorate vs. Kapil Wadhwan (March 2023 SC)

112 A CBI vs. Aryan Singh (2023 SC)

113 C
114 C
115 B
116 C Explanation I to S. 21 IPC
117 C (i) For the purpose of S. 34 IPC prior meeting of mind may develop
at the spot.
(ii) S. 34 IPC is not required to be mentioned in the judgment if the
ingredients of the section are present and satisfied

118 C S. 73 IPC
119 D
120 D
121 C
122 B
123 C
124 D
125 B The offence of voluntarily causing grievous hurt is punishable under IPC
(S. 322 IPC)

126 A
127 B
128 A
129 D
130 D
131 B
132 D
133 B
134 A

30
135 C
136 B
137 D It is a 'may' provision, thus the permission may be denied as well.
138 D
139 C
140 C
141 B
142 A
143 C
144 A
145 A
146 D
147 A S. 30 POCSO Act
148 D
149 C
150 A

31