Chapter – 20 DPP

Locomotion and Movement

Introduction and Type of Muscle
Movement
4. Which of the following statements is false?
1. Streaming of cytoplasm/cyclosis is seen in - (A) Locomotion and many other movements
(a) Amoeba (B) Macrophages required coordinated muscular activities

(C) Leukocytes (D) All (B) Muscle is a specialised tissues of

endodermal in origin
2. Which of the following statements is
(C) There are about 639 muscles which
correct?
contribute about 40 - 50 % of adult body
(A) Cytoplasmic streaming helps in
wall
pseudopodia formation or amoeboid
(D) Muscles show contractibility, excitability
movement
and conductivity
(B) Cytoplasmic streaming is caused by
5. Which of the following statements about the
contracting microfilament
skeletal muscles is correct?
(C) Both a and b
(A) They are striated muscles
(D) Locomotion is not a voluntary movement
(B) They are voluntary muscles
3. I. Paramecium employs cilia for pushing (C) They are primarily involved in locomotory
food in cytopharynx and in locomotion actions
II. Hydra takes help of tentacles for both (D) All
food capturing and locomotion
6. Which of the following statements about
III. All locomotions are movements and vice-
visceral muscles is correct?
versa
(A) They are non-striated muscles (smooth
IV. Methods of locomotion vary with habitats
muscles)
and the demands of situation
(B) They are involuntary muscles
V. Ciliated epithelium is found in respiratory
(C) They have various functions
tract, renal tubules and reproductive
(D) All
tracts
Which of the above statements is false? 7. Cardiac/heart muscles are -
(A) I and III (B) III (A) Striated and involuntary
(B) Not fatigued
(C) III and V (D) IV and V
(C) Branched
(D) All
 Chapter – 20 DPP

8. Which of the following statements is false? 13. Select the true statement(s) -
(A) Smooth muscles are found in urinary (A) A-band is present in the middle of
bladder, alimentary canal and genital tract sarcomere
(B) A striated muscle is syncytium (B) H-zone is present in the middle of A-band
(multinucleate) (C) M-line is present in the middle of H-zone
(C) The cytoplasm of striated muscle is called (D) All of the above
endoplasm
14. Which is the smallest one?
(D) The plasma membrane and ER of striated
(A) Muscle fibre (B) Myofibril
muscles are called sarcolemma and
sarcoplasmic reticulum respectively (C) Actin (D) Sarcomere

9. The source of Ca+2 for the muscle is - 15. Match Column I with Column II –
(A) T-tubule
Column I Column II
(B) Sarcosome
(C) Sarcolemma A. Structural I. H-zone
(D) Sarcoplasmic reticulum and
functional
10. The fascia surrounding a muscle is made
unit of a
up of -
myofibril
(A) Cartilage
(B) Collagenous connective tissues B. Protein of II. Myosin
(C)Adipose tissue thin filament
(D) Blood vessels
C. Protein of III. Sarcomere
11. Contractile fibrils of muscles are called - thick
(A) Neurofibrils filament

(B) Collagen fibres D. The central IV. Actin

(C) Myofibrils part of thick

filament not
(D) Yellow fibres
overlapped
12. Myofibrils show alternate dark and light by thin
bands in - filament
(A) Cardiac muscles
(A)A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(B) Smooth muscles (B) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(C) A- I, B - IV, C - III, D - II
(C) Striped muscles
(D) A- III, B - IV, C - II, D – I
(D) a and c
 Chapter – 20 DPP

16. Z-line divides the myofibrils into - IV. A sarcomere comprises one full A-bands
(A) Sarcomere and 2 half I-bands
(A) All (B) IV
(B) Sarcolemma
(C) I and II (D) None
(C) Sarcosome
21. The region between the ends of the A-
(D) Microtubules
bands of 2-adjoining sarcomeres is called -
17. Sarcomere is the area between - (A) The Z-band (B) The H-zone
(A) 2 H-zones
(C) The T-tubule (D) The I-band
(B) 2 Z-lines
22. Choose the letter from the figure that most
(C) 2 M-lines
appropriately corresponds to the structure –
(D) 2A-bands

18. Light bands (thin filaments) contain actin

and are called -
(A) A-bands or Isotropic band
(B) A-bands or Anisotropic bands
(C) I-bands or Isotropic bands

(D) I-bands or Anisotropic bands

I. A-band

19. Dark bands (thick filaments) contain II. I-band

myosin and are called - III. Sarcomere

(A) A-bands or Isotropic band IV. H-zone

(B) A-bands or Anisotropic bands V. Myosin

(C) I-bands or Isotropic bands VI. Actin, Troponin, Tropomyosin

(D) I-bands or Anisotropic bands VII. Z- line

(A) I - E, II - D, III - F, IV - G, V - B, VI - C,
20. Which of the following statements about VII -A
the striated muscles is false? (B) I - E, II - D, III - C, IV - G, V - B, VI -A,
I. In the centre of each I-band is an elastic VII - F,
fibre (Z-line) which bisects it (C) I - E, II - D, III - F, IV - G, V - C, VI -A,
II. Thin filaments are firmly attached to the Z- VII - B
line (D) I - E, II - D, III - F, IV -A, V - B, VI - C,
III. M-line is a fibrous membrane in the middle VII – G
of A-bands
 Chapter – 20 DPP

23. An individual sarcomere consist of- (C) Troponin (D) Myelin

(A) A stack of actin fibres
27. The functions of tropomyosin in skeletal
(B) A stack of myosin units
muscle include -
(C) Overlapping actin and myosin
(A) Sliding on actin to produce shortening.
(D) Overlapping myosin arid membrane
(B) Release Ca+2 after initiation of contraction

Structure of Contractile Proteins (C) Acting as "relaxing protein" at rest by \

covering up the sites where myosin binds
24. Which of the following statements about to actin
the molecular arrangement of actin and (D) Generates ATP
myosin in myofibrils is false?
28. Tropomyosin is moved by which of
I. Each actin (thin filament) is made of 2F
following proteins -
(filamentous) actins.
(A) Calmodulin (B) Actin
II. F-actin is the polymer of G (globular) actin.
III. 2F- actins are twisted into a helix (C) Troponin (D)Acetylcholine
IV. Two strands of tropomyosin (protein) lie in
the grooves of F-actin 29. Ca+2 bind _________ in the skeletal muscles

V Troponin molecules (complex proteins) are and leads to exposure of the binding site for
distributed at regular intervals on the _______ on the filament ___________.

tropomyosin (A) Troponin, myosin, actin

VI. Troponin forms the head of the myosin (B) Troponin, actin, relaxin
molecule (C) Actin, myosin, troponin

VII. The myosin is a polymerised protein (D) Tropomyosin, myosin, actin

(a) I, III, VII (B) Only VII 30. Following is the figure of actin (thin)

(C) Only VI (D) Only III filaments. Identify A, Band C.

25. One myosin filament in the myofibril of

skeletal muscle fibres is surrounded by how
many actin filaments -
(A) 8 (B) 2
(A) A- Tropomyosin, B - Troponin, C - F-actin
(C) 6 (D) 4
(B) A- Troponin, B - Tropomyosin, C - Myosin
(C) A- Troponin, B - Myosin, C - Tropomyosin
26. The cross bridges of the sarcomere in
(D) A- Troponin, B - Tropomyosin, C - F-actin
skeletal muscle are made up of -
(A) Actin (B) Myosin
 Chapter – 20 DPP

31. (C) Synapse

(D) Motor end plates

34. ATP provides energy for muscle

contraction by allowing for-
(A) An action potential formation in the muscle
cell
(B) Cross-bridge detachment of myosin from
The above figure is related with myosin actin
monomer (meromyosin). Identify A to C - (C) Cross-bridge attachment of myosin to actin
(A) A- head, B - cross arm, C - GTP binding (D) Release of ca+2 from sarcoplasmic
sites reticulum
(B) A- head, B - cross arm, C - Ca+2 binding
35. A motor unit is best described as -
sites
(A) All the nerve fibres and muscle fibres in a
(C) A- head, B - cross arm, C -ATP binding
single muscle bundle
sites
(B) One muscle fibre and its single nerve fibre
(D) A- cross arm, B - head, C -ATP binding (C) A single motor neuron and all the muscle
fibres that it innervates
sites
(D) It is the neuron which carries the message
32. Which of the following statements is false? from muscle to CNS
(A) Each myosin is a polymerised protein
36. Motor end plate is a -
(B) Many meromyosin constitute one thick
(A) Neuromuscular junction
filament (myosin)
(B) Dendron of motor neuron
(C) Each meromyosin's tail is called heavy
(C) Plate of motor neuron
meromyosin (HMM) and head is called light
(D) Gradient of proton motive force
meromyosin (LMM)
37. Electrical excitation in a muscle fibre most
(D) The globular head is an active ATPase
directly causes -
enzyme and has binding sites for ATP and
(A) Movement of tropomyosin
active sites for actin
(B) Attachment of the cross bridges to actin
Mechanism of Muscle Contraction (C) Release of Ca+2 from sarcoplasmic
reticulum
33. The action potential that triggers a muscle
(D) Splitting of ATP
contraction travels deep within the muscle cell
by means of _________.
(A) Sarcoplasmic reticulum
(B) Transverse tubules
 Chapter – 20 DPP

38. The energy for muscle contraction is most

directly obtained from -
(A) Phosphocreatine
(B) ATP
(C) Anaerobic respiration
(D) Aerobic respiration

39. According to the sliding filament theory - Now identify A to E.

(A) Actin (thin filament) moves past myosin (A) A- Cross bridge, B - Cross bridge
(thick filament) formation, C - Breaking of cross bridge, D –
(B) Myosin moves past actin Sliding (rotation), E -ATP
(C) Both myosin and actin move past each (B) A- Cross bridge, B - Cross bridge
other formation, C – Sliding/rotation, D –
(D) None of these is correct Breaking of cross bridge, E -ATP
(C) A- Cross bridge, B - Breaking of Cross
40. Put the following phrases in proper order
bridge, C – Sliding/rotation, D - Cross
to describe what occurs at the neuromuscular
bridge formation, E -AMP
junction to trigger muscle contraction.
(D) A- Cross bridge, B - Cross bridge
I. Receptor sites on sarcolemma.
formation, C – Sliding/rotation, D -ADP,
II. Nerve impulse. E - Breaking of cross bridge
III. Release of Ca+2 from sarcoplasmic 42. How does the troponin-tropomyosin
reticulum complex affect cross-bridge cycling?
(A) When [Ca2+] is low, the troponin-
IV. The neurotransmitter acetylcholine is
tropomyosin complex blocks actin's
released
binding site for myosin. When [Ca2+] is
V. Sarcomere shorten high, the complex rolls out of the way,
VI. Synaptic cleft allowing myosin to bind to actin and
initiate the cross-bridge cycle.
VII. Spread of impulses over sarcolemma on T-
(B) The troponin-tropomyosin complex
tubules
regenerates ATP for the myosin ATPase.
(A) II, IV, I, VI, VII, III, V
(C) The troponin-tropomyosin complex
(B) II, IV, VI, I, VII, III, V
regulates calcium release from the terminal
(C) I, II, III, IV, V, VI, VII
cisternae.
(D) VII, VI, V, IV, III, II, I
(D) The troponin-tropomyosin complex binds
41. Go through the following diagram to the myosin head, facilitating contact
describing muscle contraction. with the actin filaments
 Chapter – 20 DPP

43. Relaxation of muscle is due to - (C) H

(A) Pumping of Ca+2 into sarcoplasmic (D) Z line
cisternae
47. Which of the following statements is
(B) Presence of ATP
correct?
(C) Conformational change in troponin and
(A) During muscle contraction chemical energy
masking of actin filaments
changes into mechanical energy
(D) A and C
(B) Muscle fatigue is due to lactic acid
formation due to anaerobic respiration
44.
(C) The reaction time of the fibres can vary in
different muscles
(D) All

48. The compound or pigment acting as an

The diagrams given above show 3 different oxygen store in skeletal muscles is -

condition of sarcomeres. Identify these (A) Myoglobin

conditions - (B) Haemoglobin

(A) A- contracting, B - relaxed, C - maximally (C) Myokinase or ATP

contracted (D) Cytochrome

(B) A - relaxed, B - contracting, C - maximally 49. I. Number of mitochondria less.

contracted II. Number of mitochondria more
(C) A- maximally contracted, B - contracting, III. Sarcoplasmic reticulum is abundant
C - relaxed IV. Myoglobin content high
(D) A- relaxed, B - maximally contracted, C – V. Sarcoplasmic reticulum moderate
contracting VI. Aerobic muscles

45. When a skeletal muscle shortens during VII. Depend on anaerobic respiration for

contraction which of these statements is false? energy

(A) The I-band shortens VIII. Less myoglobin content

(B) The A-band shortens A. Red muscles

(C) The H-zone becomes narrow B. White muscles

(D) The sarcomeres shorten Identify above (I to VIII) traits as characteristic

46. The muscle band that remains unchanged of A and B types of muscles-

during muscle contraction and relaxation of (A) A- I, III, VII, VIII; B -II, IV, V, VI

the skeletal muscle is – (B)A-II, IV, V, VI; B-I, III, VII, VIII

(A) I (C) A-I, III, IV, VII; B – II, V, VI, VIII

(B)A (D) A- II, V, VI, VIII; B - I, III, IV, VII

 Chapter – 20 DPP

Skeletal System 55. Match Column I with Column II –

Column I Column II
50. Skeletal system consists of -
(Number of
(A) Only bones
bones)
(B) Only cartilage
(C)A framework of bones and a few cartilage A. Cranium/Brainb I. 29
(D) A framework of cartilage. and a few bones ox

51. Bone has a very hard matrix due to B. Skull (Cranial II. 8
presence of- and facial bones)
(A) NaCl
C. Face III. 14
(B) Ca-salts
(C) K-salts D. Hind limb IV. 12 pairs
(D) Fe-salts
E. Ribs V. 30
52. Cartilage has slightly pliable matrix due
to -
(A) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-V, E-IV
(A) Chondroitin salts
(B) A- II, B - I, C - III, D - V, E - IV
(B) Osteoblast
(C) A - I, B - II, C- III, D - IV, E - V
(C) Chondroclasts
(D) A- V, B - IV, C - III, D - II, A- I
(D) Osteoclast
56. Hyoid/Tongue bone is -
53. How many bones make up the human
(A) T-shaped
skeleton?
(B) J-shaped
(A) 948
(C) U-shaped
(B) 96
(D) L-shaped
(C) 796
(D) 206 57. A normal human being has how many ear
ossicle?
54. Number of bones in human axial skeleton
(A) 3
is -
(B) 6
(A) 80
(C) 9
(B) 106
(D) None
(C) 206
(D) None
 Chapter – 20 DPP

58. Which one of the following is not included 63. Which of the following vertebra in adult
under ear ossicles - human are fused ones?
(A) Malleus (A) Thoracic and lumber
(B) Ileum (B) Thoracic and cervical
(C) Incus (C) Sacral and coccygeal
(D) Stapes (D) Cervical and coccygeal

59. Human Cranium has small 64. Which of the following is not the function
protuberance(s) at the posterior end called of vertebral column?
__________ and ____ in number. (A) Protects spinal cord and supports the head
that articulates with first vertebra (atlas (B) Serves as the point of attachment for ribs
vertebra)- and musculature of the back
(A) occipital condyle, 6 (C) Both
(B) occipital condyle, 2 (D) Supports Tarsals and Metacarpals
(C) occipital condyle, 4
65. Which of the following is not correct about
(D) occipital condyle, 3
sternum?
60. Human skull is - (A) It is commonly called breast bone
(A) Dicondylic (B) It is flat bone
(B) Monocondylic (C) It is 2 in number
(C) Procoelous (D) It is located on the ventral mid line of
(D) Hetercoelous
thorax
61. Which of the following statements about
66. Each typical rib is a thin flat bone
human vertebral column is false?
connected ____ to the vertebral column and
(A) Vertebral column consists of 26 vertebrae
___________ to the sternum-
(B) It is ventrally placed
(A) Dorsally, ventrally
(C) It extends from the base of skull and
(B) Ventrally, dorsally
constitutes the main framework of the
(C) Dorsally, dorsally
trunk
(D) Ventrally, Ventrally
(D) Neural canal in vertebra is the passage for
67. Typical ribs are -
spinal cord
(A) Monocephalic (B) Dicephalic
62. Human adult vertebral formula is-
(C) Tricephalic (D) Tetracephalic
(A) C4 T8 L4 S8 C8
(B) C7 T8 L5 S6 C7
(C) C7 T12 L2 S1 C2
(D) C7 T12 L5 S1 C1
 Chapter – 20 DPP

68. Match Column I with Column II – (A) a-I, b-II, c-III

(B) a-I, b-III, c-II
Column I Column II (C) a-II, b-I, c-III
(D) a-III, b -II, c-I
A. True ribs I. 3 pairs
71. Which of the following ribs are called
B. False ribs II. 2 pairs
vertebrochondral ribs?
C. Floating III. 7 pairs (A) True ribs (B) False ribs
ribs (C) GorIIIa ribs (D) Floating ribs
72. Rib cage is formed by all except -
(A) Thoracic vertebrae
(A) A-I, B-II, C-III
(B) Lumbar vertebrae
(B) A-III, B-I, C-II
(C) Ribs
(C) A- III, B - II, C - I
(D) Sternum
(D) A-ll, B-l, C-III
73. Each limb (upper or lower) consists of how
69. Match Column I with Column II –
many bones –
Column I Column II
(A) 30 (B) 60
A. False ribs I. 1st to 7th pair (C) 101 (D) 8

B. True ribs II. 11th and 12th pair

74.
C. Floating ribs III. 8th to 10th pair

D. Sternum IV. One

(A) A-I, B-II, C-III, D- IV

(B) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D- I
(C) A- I, B - III, C - II, D- IV
(D) A-III, B-I, C-II, D- IV

70. Identify the ribs -

a. Ribs are attached to the sternum
ventrally and to the vertebrae dorsally. The accompanied figure is rib cage. Identify A,
b. Ribs are attached to sternum through Band C respectively-
costal cartilage (hyaline) of 7th rib (A) Coccyx, ribs, vertebral column
c. Ribs are not attached to sternum (B) Sternum, ribs, vertebral column
I. True ribs (C) Scapula, ribs, vertebral column
II. False ribs (D) Tarsal, ribs, vertebral column
III. Floating ribs
 Chapter – 20 DPP

75. Number of bones in human appendicular (B) A- Scapula, B - Clavicle, C - Humerus,

skeleton is - D – Radius, E - Ulna, F - Carpals,
(A) 80 (B) 120 G - Metacarpal
(C) 126 (D) 206 (C) A- Ilium, B - Scapula, C - Humerus,
D - Radius, E - Ulna, F - Carpals, G –
76. Number of bone in each upper limb is -
Metacarpals
(A) 1, 1, 1 (B) 8, 5, 14
(D) A- Clavicle, B - Scapula, C - Humerus,
(C) 2, 2, 2, 16, 10, 28 (D) 1, 1, 1, 8, 5, 14
D - Radius, E - Ulna, F - Carpals, G –
77. Phalangeal/digital formula for human
Metacarpals
hand/foot is-
80. An acromion process is characteristically
(A) 0, 2, 2, 3 (B) 0, 2, 3, 3 ,3
found in -
(C) 2, 2, 3, 3, 3 (D) 2, 3, 3, 3, 3
(A) Pelvic girdle of mammals
78. The hand contains ____ carpals (wrist
(B) Pectoral girdle of mammals
bones), ____ metacarpals (palm bones), and
(C) Skull bone
___ phalanges.
(D) Vertebrae of mammals
(A) 14, 5, 8
81. The shoulder blade is large triangular
(B) 5, 8, 14
bone situated in the dorsal part of the thorax
(C) 8, 5, 14
between the 2nd and the 7th ribs.
(D) 1, 5, 5
It is called -
79.
(A) Clavicle (B) Ilium
(C) Scapula (D) Carpals

82. For articulation of head of humerus a

depression found in scapula is called -
(A)Acetabulum (B) Manubrium
(C) Occipital condyle (D) Glenoid cavity

83. Which of the following statement is

correct?
(A) Pectoral and pelvic girdle bones help in the

The accompanied diagram shows right articulation of the upper and lower limbs

pectoral girdle and upper arm (frontal view). respectively with the axial skeleton

Identify A to G (B) Each girdle is formed of 2 halves

(A) A- 1st Vertebra, B - Scapula, C - Humerus, (C) Each half of pectoral girdle consists of a

D - Radius, E - Ulna, F - Carpals, clavicle (collar bone) and Scapula

G - Metacarpals (D) All

 Chapter – 20 DPP

84. Which of the following statements is false?

(A) Scapula has the spine which projects as (A) A- Pubis, B - ilium, C - Ischium, D - Patella
acromion process (B) A- Ischium, B - Pubis, C - ileum, D–Patella
(B) Below acromion process is a glenoid cavity (C) A- ileum, B - Pubis, C - Ischium, D–Patella
(C) Each clavicle (collar bone) articulates with (D) A- ilium, B - Pubis, C - Ischium, D–Patella
acromion
89. Acetabulum occurs in -
(D) Clavicle is long S-shaped bone with 4
(A) Cranium (B) Pectoral girdle
curvatures
(C) Pelvic girdle (D) Vertebrae
85. Which one of the following is the longest
90. Pelvic girdle (hip girdle) is composed ____
bone in human?
coxal (hip) bones-
(A) Radius
(A) 3 (B) 2
(B) Tibia
(C) 4 (D) 5
(C) Femur (Thigh bone)
(D) Clavicle (Collar bone) 91. Pelvic girdle consists of-
(A) Ileum, ischium and pubis
86. Human foot consists of 26 bones. What
(B) Ilium, ischium and pubis
are the number of tarsals (ankle bones),
(C) Ilium, ischium and clavicle
metatarsals and phalanges?
(D) Coracoid, ischium and pubis
(A) 7, 5, 14 (B) 5, 7, 14
(C) 1, 1, 5 (D) 5, 5, 5 92. Two halves of pelvic girdle articulate
ventrally at a fibrocartilaginous joint called -
87. A cup shaped bone covering knee ventrally
(A) Pubic symphysis
is called -
(B) Synchodroses
(A) Cuneiform (B) Tarsal
(C) Gomphoses
(C) Patella (D) Carpal
(D) Sutures
88. Study the accompanying figure. Identify A,
93. Each coxal bone is formed by the fusion of
B, C and D –
3 bones named as -
(A) Ileum, ischium and pubis
(B) Ilium, ischium and pubis
(C) Ilium, ischium and clavicle
(D) Coracoid, ischium and pubis
 Chapter – 20 DPP

Joints 96. Which of the following statements is

correct?
94. Which of the following statements about
(A) Synovial joints are characterised by
the joints is false?
synovial cavity with fluid between the
(A) Joints are essential for all types of
articulating surface of two· bones
movements involving bony parts
(B) Synovial joints are freely movable
(B) Joints are contact between bones or
(C) Ball and socket, hinge joint, gliding joints,
between bones and cartilages
pivot joints and saddle joints are the types
(C) Fibrous joints are immovable
of synovial joints
(D) Cartilaginous joint permit great movement
(D) All
95. Match Column I with Column II –
97. Joint between bones in the form of sutures
of human skull is -
Column I Column II
(A) Hinge joint
A. Hinge joint I. Between (B) Synovial joint
humerus and (C) Cartilaginous joint
pectoral girdle (D) Fibrous joint

B. Pivot joint II. Between 98. Which of the following statements is

carpals and correct?

Metacarpals (A) Movable skull bone is mandible

of thumb (B) We move our hands while walking for

balancing
C. Gliding III. Between the
(C) Cartilaginous joints have little mobility due
joint carpals
to fibrocartilage disc between its articular
D. Saddle IV. Between atlas ends e.g. intervertebral disc between centre
joint and axis of vertebrae
(D) All
E. Saddle V. Knee joint
joint Disorders of Muscular and
Skeletal System
(A) A- V, B - IV, C - III, D - II, E - I 99. A disease associated with joint is -
(B) A- I, B - II, C - II, D - V, E - IV (A) Glaucoma (B)Arthritis
(C) A- I, B - III, C - II, D - V, E - IV (C) Paget's disease (D) Homer's syndrome
(D)A-V, B-III, C-II, D-I, E-II
 Chapter – 20 DPP

100. Gout is the inflammation of joints due to (A) Inflammation of muscles

accumulation of - (B) Inflammation of bone
(A) Urea crystal (B) NH3 (C) Inflammation of joints
(C) Uric acid crystal (D) CaCO3 crystals (D) Inflammation of tongue
101. I. Age-related disorder characterised by
decreased bone mass and increased
chances of fracture
II. Causative factor deficiency of estrogen
is common.
The above characters are associated with –
(A) Gout
(B) Osteoporosis
(C) Arthritis
(D) Polio

102. Myasthenia is an ____ disorder affecting

neuromuscular junction leading to fatigue,
weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscles -
(A)Arthritis
(B) Autoimmune
(C) Agnosic
(D)Amnesic

103. Tetany is the rapid spasm in muscles

due to –
(A) High Ca+2 in body fluid
(B) Low Ca+2 in body fluid
(C) High uric acid in body fluid
(D) High urea in blood

104. Progressive degeneration of skeletal

muscles due to genetic disorder is called -
(A) Myasthenia gravis
(B) Tetany
(C) Muscular dystrophy
(D) Myopia

105. Arthritis is -
 Chapter – 20 DPP

Answer Key

Q 01 02 03 04 05 06 07 08 09 10

Ans D C B B D D D C D B

Q 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

Ans C D D C D A B C B D

Q 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

Ans D A C C C B C C A D

Q 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

Ans C C B B C A C B A B

Q 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50

Ans B A D B B B D A B C

Q 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60

Ans B A D A B C B B B A

Q 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70

Ans B D C D C A B B D A

Q 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80

Ans B B A B C D D C D B

Q 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90

Ans C D D D C A C D C B

Q 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100

Ans B A B D A D D D B C

Q 101 102 103 104 105

Ans B B B C B