PHYSICS

1. What is the standard unit of mass?

A. Kilogram

B. Pound

C. Gram

D. Newton

2. What is defined as the distance the light travels in a vacuum in

1/299,792,458 second?

A. Yard

B. Feet

C. Meter

D. Inch

3. What is the SI unit of work?

A. Newton

B. Watt

C. Newton-Second

D. Joule

4. What is the SI unit of power?

A. Newton

B. Watt

C. Newton-Second

D. Joule
5. What is the SI unit of temperature?

A. Fahrenheit

B. Kelvin

C. Celsius

D. Rankine

6. What is the SI unit of luminous intensity?

A. Candela

B. Lumens

C. Lux

D. Candlepower

7. What is the unit of relative intensity?

A. Pa

B. N-m

C. C.N-m/s

D. Unitless

8. What is the SI unit of pressure?

A. Pa

B. N-m

C. N/m

D. N-m/s

9. Which one is equivalent of the unit “Pascal’?

A. N/nm2
B. N/m2
C. N/m

D. D.N/nm

10. The pressure of 1 bar is equivalent to how many pascals?

A. 1,000,000

B. 100,000

C. 10,000

D. 1000

11. What is the SI unit of intensity?

A. Joule/m2
B. kg/m2
C. N/m2
D. watt/m2
12. What is the unit of potential difference?

A. Watt

B. Coulomb

C. Volt

D. Weber

13. Which of the following is equivalent to a volt?

A. watt/coulomb

B. joule/coulomb

C. joule/watt

D. watt/joule

14. One election volt is equivalent to _______ joules.

A. 1.6 x 10^-17

B. 1.6 x 10^-18

C. 1.6 x 10 ^-19

D. 1.6 x 10^-20

15. What is the unit of capacitance?

A. Farad

B. Weber

C. Coulomb

D. Gauss

16. Which of the following is equivalent to the unit “farad”?

A. coulomb/volt

B. joule/volt

C. joule/coulomb

D. coulomb/joule

17. What is the unit of electric current?

A. Volt

B. Watt

C. Ampere

D. Coulomb

18. Which of the following is equivalent to the unit “ampere”?

A. joule/second

B. volt/second
C. coulomb/second

D. watt/second

19. What is the unit of resistance?

A. Ohm

B. Watt

C. Volt

D. Ampere

20. Ohm is equivalent to which of the following?

A. coulomb/ampere

B. watt/ampere

C. volt/ampere

D. joule/ampere

21. What is the unit of luminous intensity?

A. Footcandle

B. Lumen

C. Candela

D. Lux

22. What is the unit of luminous flux?

A. Candela

B. Lumen

C. Lux

D. Footcandle
23. Which of the following is equivalent to the unit “candela”?

A. lumen/m2
B. footcandle/steradian

C. lux/steradian

D. lumen/steradian

24. What is the unit of luminous efficiency?

A. lumen/watt

B. lumen/volt

C. lumen/ampere

D. lumen/coulomb

25. What is the unit of illumination?

A. Lux

B. Lumen

C. Candela

D. Lumen/watt

26. Lux is equivalent to which combination of units?

A. lumen/cm2
B. lumen/ft2
C. lumen/m2
D. lumen/in2
27. Footcandle is equivalent to which combination of units?

A. lumen/cm2
B. lumen/ft2
C. lumen/m2
D. lumen/in2
View Answer:
28. How many dynes are there in one newton?
A. 10,000

B. 100,000

C. 1,000,000

D. 1000

29. What is an elemental unit of energy?

A. Quartz

B. Quark

C. Photon

D. Quantum

30. What refers to the mass which is accelerated at the rate of one foot per
second when acted on by a force of one pound?

A. Slug

B. Erg

C. Dyne

D. BTU

31. The size of some bacteria and living cells is in the order of _______.

A. centimetre

B. millimetre

C. nanometer

D. micrometer

View Answer:
32. The size of the largest atom is in the order of ________.

A. centimeter
B. millimeter

C. nanometer

D. micrometer

33. The mass of a grain of salt is in the order of _______.

A. milligram

B. gram

C. microgram

D. nanogram

34. Which one is equivalent to the unit ‘joule’?

A. Newton-second

B. Newton-meter

C. Newton-meter per second

D. Newton-meter per second squared

35. Which one is equivalent to the unit “watt”?

A. Newton-second

B. Newton-meter

C. Newton-meter per second

D. Newton-meter per second squared

36. One horsepower is equivalent to how many watts?

A. 550

B. 746

C. 33,000
D. 250

37. The “kilowatt-hour” is a unit of _______.

A. work

B. energy

C. power

D. work or energy

38. The “kilowatt-hour” is a unit of _______.

A. work

B. energy

C. power

D. work or energy

39. The English unit “slug” is a unit of _______.

A. mass

B. weight

C. force

D. energy

40. How is sound intensity measured?

A. In beats

B. In decibels

C. In phons

D. In sones
41. An electron volt is the energy required by an electron that has been
accelerated by a potential difference of how many volts?

A. 1 volt

B. 0.1 volts

C. 10 volts

D. 0.01 volts

42. What is a vector with a magnitude of one and with no unit?

A. Single vector

B. Unit vector

C. Dot vector

D. Scalar vector

43. What is the purpose of a unit vector?

A. To describe the direction in space

B. To indicate a magnitude without reference to direction

C. To serve as comparison with other vectors

D. To set a standard among vectors

44. What is another term for a scalar product of two vectors?

A. Cross product

B. Vector product

C. Dot product

D. Plus product

45. What is another term for vector product of two vectors?

A. Cross product

B. Vector product

C. Dot product

D. Plus product

46. The scalar product of two perpendicular vectors is always _______.

A. equal to 1

B. greater than 1

C. less than 1

D. equal to 0

47. The vector product of two parallel or antiparallel vectors is always

______.

A. equal 1

B. greater than 1

C. less than 1

D. equal to 0

48. The vector product of any vector with itself is ______.

A. equal to 1

B. greater than 1

C. less than 1

D. equal to 0

49. What refers to physical quantities that are completely specified by just a
number and a unit or physical quantities that have magnitudes only?

A. Scalar quantities
B. Vector product

C. Dot product

D. Vector quantities

50. What refers to physical quantities that have a magnitude and a

direction?

A. Scalar quantities

B. Vector quantities

C. Dot product

D. Vector quantities

51. Which is NOT a vector quantity?

A. Displacement

B. Velocity

C. Acceleration

D. Time

52. Which is NOT a fundamental physical quantity of mechanics?

A. Length

B. Mass

C. Volume

D. Time

53. What is an arrowed line whose length is proportional to the magnitude of

some vector quantity and whose direction is that of the quantity?

A. Vector diagram

B. Vector
C. Component

D. Resultant

54. What is scaled drawing of the various forces, velocities or other vector
quantities involved in the motion of a body?

A. Vector diagram

B. Vector

C. Component

D. Resultant

55. The _______ of a moving object is the distance it covers in a time

interval divided by the time interval.

A. acceleration

B. instantaneous speed

C. average speed

D. instantaneous velocity

56. The rate at which velocity changes with time is known as ________.

A. acceleration

B. instantaneous speed

C. average speed

D. instantaneous velocity

57. “The work done by the net force on a particle equals the change in the
particle’s kinetic energy.” This statement is known as _________.

A. Law of conservation of energy

B. Work-energy theorem
C. Law of conservation of work

D. Total work theorem

58. The ________ of a particle is equal to the total work that particle can do
in the process of being brought to rest.

A. kinetic energy

B. potential energy

C. total energy

D. mechanical energy

59. Work is defined as the product of:

A. Force and displacement

B. Force and time

C. Displacement and time

D. Power and time

60. What is defined as the time rate at which work is done?

A. impulse

B. Momentum

C. Power

D. Energy

61. What is defined as any influence that can change the velocity of an
object?

A. Impulse

B. Force

C. Energy
D. Work

62. What is a measure of the inertia of an object?

A. Density

B. Weight

C. Mass

D. Force

63. What is the property of matter which is the reluctance to change its
state of rest or of uniform motion?

A. Impulse

B. Momentum

C. Inertia

D. Equilibrium

64. “If no net force acts on it, an object at rest will remain at rest and an
object in motion will remain in motion at constant velocity”. This statement
is the _______.

A. first law of motion

B. second law of motion

C. third law of motion

D. d’ Alembert’s principle

65. “The net force acting on an object equals the product of the mass and
the acceleration of the object. The direction of the force is the same as that
of the acceleration”. This statement is the _______.

A. first law of motion

B. second law of motion

C. third law of motion

D. d’ Alembert’s principle

66. “When an object exerts a force on another object, the second object
exerts on the first a force of the same magnitude but in the opposite
direction”. This statement is the _____.

A. first law of motion

B. second law of motion

C. third law of motion

D. d’ Alembert’s principle

67. What refers to the force with which the earth attracts an object?

A. Gravitational pull

B. Mass

C. Weight

D. All of these

68. How many kilograms are there in 1 slug?

A. 11.9

B. 12.5

C. 13.2

D. 14.6

69. What refers to an actual force that arises to oppose relative motion
between contracting surfaces?

A. Action force

B. Reaction force
C. Friction

D. Drag

70. What refers to the force between two stationary surfaces in contact that
prevents motion between them?

A. kinetic friction

B. sliding friction

C. starting friction

D. static friction

71. What is the maximum value of the static friction?

A. Starting friction

B. Sliding friction

C. Kinetic friction

D. Dynamic friction

72. What is TRUE between kinetic friction and static friction?

A. Kinetic friction is always to static friction

B. Kinetic friction is always less than static friction

C. Kinetic friction is always greater than static friction

D. Kinetic friction is equal to or greater than static friction

73. What is another term for kinetic friction?

A. Dynamic friction

B. Starting friction

C. Sliding friction
D. All of these

74. For the same materials in contact, what is TRUE between coefficient of
static friction and coefficient of kinetic friction?

A. Coefficient of static friction is always less than the coefficient of kinetic

friction

B. Coefficient of static friction is always equal to the coefficient of kinetic

friction

C. Coefficient of static friction is always greater than the coefficient of kinetic

friction.

D. Coefficient of static friction may be greater than or less than the

coefficient of kinetic friction.

75. Efficiency of a machine is the ratio of:

A. power output to power input

B. power input to power output

C. total work done to total energy

D. total energy to total power

76. What is the energy something possesses by virtue of its motion?

A. Kinetic energy

B. Potential energy

C. Rest energy

D. Mechanical energy

77. What is the energy something possesses by virtue of its mass?

A. Kinetic energy

B. Potential energy
C. Rest energy

D. Mechanical energy

78. What is the energy something possesses by virtue of its position?

A. Kinetic energy

B. Potential energy

C. Rest energy

D. Mechanical energy

79. When the vector sum of the external forces acting on the system of
particles equals zero, the total linear momentum of the system __________.

A. becomes zero

B. maximizes

C. changes abruptly

D. remains constant

80. What is conserved in an elastic collision?

A. Kinetic energy

B. Potential energy

C. Rest energy

D. Mechanical energy

81. In elastic collision, kinetic energy is conserved. This statement is:

A. true

B. false

C. is either true or false, depending upon the colliding bodies

D. is either true or false, depending on the impact of two colliding bodies

82. When can we say that a collision is a completely inelastic collision?

A. When the kinetic energy lost is minimum.

B. When the kinetic energy is conserved.

C. When the two colliding objects stick together after impact.

D. When the two colliding objects will separate after impact.

83. What will happen to the kinetic energy if it is a completely inelastic

collision?

A. It is conserved.

B. It is lost to maximum value.

C. It is gained from the loss of potential energy.

D. It is lost to minimum value.

84. Coefficient of restitution is the ratio of:

A. relative speed after collision to relative speed before collision

B. relative speed before collision to relative speed after collision

C. relative speed to absolute speed

D. absolute speed to relative speed

85. What is the coefficient of restitution for a perfectly elastic collision?

A. 0

B. 1

C. Less than 1

D. Greater than 1
86. What is the coefficient of restitution for a perfectly inelastic collision?

A. 0

B. 1

C. Less than 1

D. Greater than 1

87. The coefficient of restitution always applies _______.

A. to only one of the colliding objects

B. to neither of the colliding objects

C. jointly to the colliding objects

D. to the bigger colliding object

88. “When the vector sum of the external forces acting on a system of
particles equals zero, the total linear momentum of the system remaining
constant.” This statement is known as:

A. Law of universal gravitation

B. Law of conservation of impulse

C. Law of conservation of momentum

D. Law of conservation of energy

89. What refers to the product of the force and the time during which a force
acts?

A. Impulse

B. Momentum

C. Power

D. Energy
90. Momentum is the product of:

A. mass and time

B. velocity and mass

C. force and time

D. force and mass

91. The coefficient of restitution always applies _________.

A. to only one of the colliding objects

B. to neither of the colliding

C. jointly to the colliding objects

D. to the bigger colliding object

92. What refers to the force perpendicular to the velocity of an object

moving along a curve path?

A. Centrifugal force

B. Centripetal force

C. Reverse-effective force

D. Gravitational force

93. The centripetal force is:

A. directed away from the center of the curvature of the path

B. directed toward the center of curvature of the path

C. tangent to the curvature of the path

D. either directed away or toward the center of curvature of the path

View Answer:
94. What refers to the time needed by an object in uniform circular motion
to complete an orbit?

A. path time

B. orbit time

C. revolution

D. period

95. The centripetal acceleration of a particle in uniform motion is _______ to

the radius of its path.

A. directly proportional

B. inversely proportional

C. equal

D. not related in any way

96. Gravitation occurs between all objects in the universe by virtue of their
________.

A. mass

B. density

C. weight

D. volume

97. “Every object in the universe attracts every other object with a force
directly proportional to the product of their masses and inversely
proportional to the square of the distance separating them”. This statement
is known as:

A. Law of conservation of energy

B. Law of universal gravitation

C. Law of conservation of momentum

D. Law of conservation of impulse

98. The gravitational force of the earth on an object varies of the ______
the distance of the object from the center of the earth.

A. inversely as

B. inversely as the square of

C. directly as

D. directly as the square of

99. A rotating body has kinetic energy. This statement is ________.

A. sometimes true

B. sometimes false

C. always true

D. always false

100. What type of energy is usually transmitted by rotary motion?

A. Kinetic energy

B. Potential energy

C. Mechanical energy

D. Rest energy

101. Angular momentum is the product of ________.

A. moment of inertia and linear speed

B. moment of area and angular speed

C. moment of inertia and angular speed

D. moment of area and angular speed

102. “When the sum of the external torques acting on a system of particles
is zero, the total angular momentum of the system remains constant “. This
statement is known as:

A. Conservation of energy

B. Conservation of impulse

C. Conservation of linear momentum

D. Conservation of angular momentum

103. What particles will experience tangential acceleration?

A. Those particles whose angular speed changes

B. Those particles whose angular speed remains constant

C. All particles

D. Those particles whose angular speed is zero.

104. The _________ of a body about a given axis is the rotational analog of
mass of the body is distributed about the axis.

A. moment of mass

B. moment of area

C. moment of inertia

D. torque

105. The _______ of a force about a particular axis is the product of the
magnitude of the force and the perpendicular distance from the line of action
of the force to the axis.

A. inertia

B. mass moment
C. torque

D. moment

106. When the forces that act on an object have a vector sum of zero, the
object is said to be in _______.

A. unstable equilibrium

B. stable equilibrium

C. rotational equilibrium

D. translational equilibrium

107. Which of the following is an example of a neutral equilibrium?

A. A cone balanced on its apex.

B. A cone balanced on its base.

C. A cone on its side.

D. A cone balanced on the circumference of its base.

108. Which of the following is an example of a stable equilibrium?

A. A cone balanced on its apex.

B. A cone balanced on its base.

C. A cone on its side.

D. A cone balanced on the circumference of its base.

109. A device that transmits force or torque is called _______.

A. mechanical tool

B. machine

C. axle
D. wedge

110. If a cone is balanced on its apex, it illustrates what type of equilibrium?

A. stable equilibrium

B. neutral equilibrium

C. unstable equilibrium

D. translational equilibrium

111. When the net torque acting on an object is zero, the object is in
_______.

A. unstable equilibrium

B. stable equilibrium

C. rotational equilibrium

D. translational equilibrium

112. Which of the following is NOT a basic machine?

A. lever

B. incline plane

C. hydraulic press

D. wedge

113. Where is the center of gravity of an object located?

A. It is always inside the object.

B. It is always outside the object.

C. It is always at its geometric center.

D. It may sometimes be inside the object and sometimes outside the object.
114. What is defined as the mass per unit volume?

A. Density

B. Weight density

C. Relative density

D. Specific density

115. What is defined as the weight per unit volume?

A. Density

B. Weight density

C. Relative density

D. Specific density

116. All are values of the density of water except one. Which one?

A. 1000 kg/m3
B. 62.4 lb/ft3
C. 10 g/cm3
D. 9.81 kN/m3
117. The __________ of a substance is its density relative to that of water?

A. density

B. weight density

C. viscosity

D. specific gravity

118. What is another term for specific gravity?

A. Density

B. Weight density

C. Relative density
D. Viscosity

119. What is the average pressure of the earth’s atmosphere at sea level?

A. 1.042 bar

B. 1.021 bar

C. 1.013 bar

D. 1.037 bar

120. “An external pressure exerted on a fluid is transmitted uniformly

throughout the volume of the fluid”. This statement is known as ________.

A. Bernoulli’s energy theorem

B. Pascal’s principle

C. Archimedes principle

D. Torricelli’s theorem

121. The hydraulic press is an instrument which uses one of the following
theorems. Which one?

A. Bernoulli’s energy theorem

B. Pascal’s principle

C. Archimedes principle

D. Reynold’s principle

122. The hydrometer is an instrument which uses one of the following

theorems. Which one?

A. Bernoulli’s energy theorem

B. Pascal’s principle

C. Archimedes principle
D. Reynold’s principle

123. The hydrometer is an instrument used to measure __________.

A. pressure of a liquid

B. density of a liquid

C. Reynold’s number

D. viscosity of liquid

124. The maximum displacement of an object undergoing harmonic motion

on either side of its equilibrium position is called the _________ of the
motion.

A. frequency

B. oscillation

C. period

D. amplitude

125. What quantity is often used in describing harmonic motion?

A. Amplitude

B. Frequency

C. Period

D. Oscillation

126. The period of the simple harmonic motion is _______ its amplitude.

A. directly proportional to

B. inversely proportional to

C. equal to

D. independent of
127. What refers to an oscillatory motion that occurs whenever a restoring
force acts on a body in the opposite direction to its displacement from its
equilibrium position, with the magnitude of the restoring force proportional
to the magnitude of the displacement?

A. Damped harmonic motion

B. Pendulum

C. Simple harmonic motion

D. Damped harmonic oscillation

128. In a damped harmonic oscillator, what reduces the amplitude of the

vibrations?

A. Force

B. Period

C. Frequency

D. Friction

129. The _________ of a pivotal object is that point at which it can be

struck without producing a reaction force on its pivot.

A. center of gravity

B. center of oscillation

C. axis of oscillation

D. center of mass

130. What is a longitudinal wave phenomenon that results in periodic

pressure variations?

A. Sound

B. Resonance

C. Wave
D. Beat

131. What occurs when periodic impulses are applied to a system and
frequency equal to one of its natural frequencies of oscillation?

A. Beat

B. Resonance

C. Doppler effect

D. Shock wave

132. What refers to a shell of high pressure produced by the motion of an

object whose speed exceeds that of sound?

A. Shock wave

B. Mach wave

C. Beat wave

D. Sonic wave

133. What refers to the change in frequency of a wave when there is relative
motion between its source and an observer?

A. Superposition principle

B. Shock effect

C. Doppler effect

D. Wave motion

134. What occur when the individual particles of a medium vibrate back and
forth in the direction in which the waves travel?

A. Longitudinal waves

B. Transverse waves

C. Wave motions
D. Shock waves

135. Infrasound refers to sounds whose frequencies are below _________.

A. 20 Hz

B. 30 Hz

C. 40 Hz

D. 50 Hz

136. Ultrasound refers to sounds whose frequencies are above __________.

A. 10,000 Hz

B. 20,000 Hz

C. 30,000 Hz

D. 40,000 Hz

137. What occur when the individual particles of a medium vibrate from side
to side perpendicular to the direction in which the waves travel?

A. Longitudinal waves

B. Transverse waves

C. Wave motions

D. Shock waves

138. “When two or more waves of the same mature travel just a given point
at the same time, the amplitude at the point is the sum of the amplitude of
the individual waves”. This statement is known as ________.

A. Mach principle

B. Doppler principle

C. Principle of superposition
D. Wave motion principle

139. What occurs when the resulting composite wave has amplitude greater
than that of either of the original waves?

A. Local interference

B. Ordinary interference

C. Constructive interference

D. Destructive interference

140. What occurs when the resulting composite wave has amplitude less
than that of either of the original waves?

A. Local interference

B. Ordinary interference

C. Constructive interference

D. Destructive interference

141. The rate at which a wave of any kind carries energy per unit cross-
sectional area is called ________.

A. beats

B. frequency

C. gain

D. intensity

142. At what intensity will sound wave starts to damage the ear of humans.

A. 10 W/m2
B. 0.1 W/m2
C. 1 W/m2
D. 0.01 W/m2
143. For a 1kHz sound wave to be audible, it must have a minimum intensity
of ______ W/m2?
A. 10^-10

B. 10^-11

C. 10^-12

D. 10^-13

144. How many decibels should a sound to be barely audible?

A. 0

B. 1

C. 0.1

D. 1.5

145. The ratio of a speed of an object and the speed of sound is called the
_________.

A. Wave factor

B. Supersonic number

C. Sonic number

D. Mach number

146. “The net electric charge in an isolated system remains constant”. This
statement is known as ________.

A. Principle of conservation of attraction

B. Principle of conservation of charge

C. Coulomb’s law

D. Principle of superconductivity

147. “The force one charge exerts on another is directly proportional to the
magnitudes of the charges and inversely proportional to the square of the
distance between them”. This statement is known as ________.
A. Coulomb’s law

B. Kirchhoff’s law

C. Lenz’s law

D. Faraday’s law

148. What refers to a region of space at every point of which an appropriate

test object would experience a force?

A. Energy field

B. Electric field

C. magnetic field

D. Force field

149. The _________ of an electric field is the electric potential energy per
unit volume associated with it.

A. capacitance

B. polar energy

C. energy density

D. dielectric distance

150. What is the ratio between the charge on either plates of a capacitor and
the potential difference between the plates?

A. Resistance

B. Inductance

C. Capacitance

D. Potential difference

151. What refers to the measure of how effective a material is in reducing an

electric field set up across a sample of it?
A. Electronegativity

B. Potential difference

C. Dielectric constant

D. Energy density

152. The potential difference across a battery, a generator or other source of

electric energy when it is not connected to any external circuit is called its
________.

A. electromechanical force

B. electrostatic force

C. electromotive force

D. internal resistance

153. What is defined as the luminous flux per unit area?

A. Luminous intensity

B. Luminous efficiency

C. Illumination

D. Lumen

154. What refers to the brightness of a light source?

A. Luminous intensity

B. Illumination

C. Luminous flux

D. Luminous efficiency

155. What is the approximate luminous intensity of a candle?

A. 1 candela
B. 1 flux

C. 1 lumen

D. All of these

156. What unit is defined in terms of the light emitted by a small pool of
platinum at its melting point?

A. Footcandle

B. Candela

C. Lux

D. Lumen

157. What refers to the total amount of visible light given off by a light
source?

A. Luminous intensity

B. Luminous flux

C. Luminous efficiency

D. Illumination

158. Lumen is defined as the luminous flux that falls on each square meter
of a sphere 1 meter in radius at whose center is a ________ light source
that radiates equally well in all directions.

A. 0.1 candela

B. 1.0 candela

C. 10 candela

D. 100 candela

159. What is the total luminous flux radiated by a 1 candela source?

A. 2π lm
B. 4π lm

C. 8π lm

D. π lm

160. What refers to the luminous flux emitted by a light source per watt of
power input?

A. Luminous factor

B. Luminous efficiency

C. Luminous intensity

D. Illumination

161. What coating material is used in the inside of the fluorescent lamp
which emits visible light when it is excited by an ultraviolet radiation?

A. Mercury

B. Inert gas

C. Phosphor

D. Argon

162. What refers to the ratio between the speed of light in free space and its
speed in a particular medium?

A. Index of refection

B. Total internal reflection

C. Index of dispersion

D. Index of refraction

163. “The ratio of the sines of the angles of incidence and refraction is equal
to the ratio of the speeds of light in the two media”. This statement is known
as ________.
A. Huygen’s principle

B. Snell’s law

C. Maxwell’s hypothesis

D. Doppler’s effect

164. Light ray that passes at an angle from one medium to another is
deflected at the surface between the two media. What is this phenomenon
called?

A. Dispersion

B. Reflection

C. Refraction

D. Incidence

165. “Every point on the wavefront can be considered as a source of

secondary wavelets that spread out in all directions with the wave speed of
the medium. The wavefront at any time is the envelope of these wavelets”.
This statement is known as ________.

A. Huygen’s principle

B. Snell’s law

C. Maxwell’s hypothesis

D. Doppler’s effect

166. What is an imaginary surface the joins points where all the waves from
a source are in the same phase of oscillation?

A. Gamma ray

B. Wavefront

C. Electromagnetic wave

D. Microwave
167. What refers to the effect when a beam containing more than one
frequency is split into a corresponding number of different beams when it is
refracted?

A. Flux

B. Refraction

C. Reflection

D. Dispersion

168. What refers to the band of colors that emerges from the prism?

A. Spectrum

B. Luminance

C. Facet

D. Reflection

169. What is the index of refraction of air?

A. 1.3

B. 1.03

C. 1.003

D. 1.0003

170. What is the index of refraction of water?

A. 1.33

B. 1.63

C. 1.43

D. 1.53
171. What type of lens deviates parallel light outward as though it originated
at a single virtual focal point?

A. Magnifying lens

B. Convergent lens

C. Divergent lens

D. Microscopic lens

172. What type of lens bring parallel light to a single real focal point?

A. Magnifying lens

B. Convergent lens

C. Divergent lens

D. Microscopic lens

173. Which one best describes the meniscus lens?

A. It has only concave surfaces.

B. It has only convex surfaces.

C. it has no concave surface and no convex surface.

D. It has one concave surface and one convex surface

174. What is the distance from a lens to its focal point called?

A. Focal index

B. Focal factor

C. Focal length

D. All of these
175. In optical system, what refers to the ratio of the image height to the
object height?

A. Linear magnification

B. Object magnification

C. Image magnification

D. Height magnification

176. If the linear magnification of an optical system is less than one, it

means that:

A. the image and the object are of the same size

B. the image is larger than the object

C. the image is smaller than the object

D. the image may be larger or smaller than the object

177. A camera usually uses what type of lens to form an image on a light-
sensitive photographic film?

A. Magnifying lens

B. Convergent lens

C. Divergent lens

D. Microscopic lens

178. One of the common defects of vision is _______ commonly known as

nearsightedness.

A. hyporopia

B. hyperopia

C. myopia

D. minorpia
179. One of the common defects of vision is ______ commonly known as
farsightedness.

A. hyporopia

B. hyperopia

C. myopia

D. minorpia

180. What lens is commonly used to correct nearsightedness?

A. Magnifying lens

B. Convergent lens

C. Divergent lens

D. Microscopic lens

181. What lens is commonly used to correct farsightedness?

A. Magnifying lens

B. Convergent lens

C. Divergent lens

D. Microscopic lens

182. What is a defect of vision caused by the cornea having different

curvatures in different planes?

A. Astigmatism

B. Myopia

C. Hyperopia

D. Presbyopia
183. In telescopes, what refers to the ratio between the angles subtended at
the eye by the image and the angle subtended at the eye by the object seen
directly?

A. Magnifying power

B. Linear magnification

C. Angular magnification

D. Object magnification

184. What type of mirror that curves inward its center and converges
parallel light to a single real focal point?

A. Convex mirror

B. Concave mirror

C. Spherical mirror

D. Chromatic mirror

185. What type of mirror that curves outward toward its center and diverges
parallel light as though the reflected light came from a single virtual focal
point behind the mirror?

A. Convex mirror

B. Concave mirror

C. Spherical mirror

D. Chromatic mirror

186. What refers to an artificially made polarizing material that transmits

light with only a single plane of polarization?

A. Quartz

B. Fiber optic

C. Polaroid
D. Tounnaline

187. In optical system, what refers to its ability to produce separate images
of nearby objects?

A. Coherent power

B. Brewster’s power

C. Polarization power

D. Resolving power

188. The resolving power of an equal system is _________ the objective

lens of the optical system?

A. directly proportional

B. inversely proportional

C. equal

D. not related to

189. What refers to the ability of waves to bend around the edges of
obstacles in their paths?

A. Coherence

B. Reflection

C. Refraction

D. Diffraction

190. What refers to a series of parallel slits that produces a spectrum

through the interference of light that is diffracted?

A. Diffraction grating

B. Polarization

C. Coherent waves
D. Reflection

191. The emission of electrons from a metal surface when light shines on it
is called _______.

A. Absorption effect

B. Spectrum emission

C. Quantum effect

D. Photoelectric effect

192. What are high-frequency electromagnetic waves emitted when fast

electrons impinge on matter?

A. Beta rays

B. Alpha rays

C. X-rays

D. De Broglie waves

193. What refers to the increase in the measured mass of an object when it
is moving relative to an observer?

A. Exclusion principle

B. Quantum theory of mass

C. State of mass

D. Relativity of mass

194. What device is used for producing a narrow, monochromatic, coherent

beam of light?

A. Spectral device

B. Prism

C. Fiber optic
D. Laser

195. What consists of various wavelengths of light emitted by an excited

substance?

A. Excited spectrum

B. Light spectrum

C. Absorption spectrum

D. Emission spectrum

196. What consists of various wavelengths of light absorbed by a substance

when white light is passed through it?

A. Excited spectrum

B. Light spectrum

C. Absorption spectrum

D. Emission spectrum

197. Every electron has a certain amount of angular momentum called its
_________.

A. spin

B. shell

C. state

D. quantum number

198. What is the distance from a lens to its focal point called?

A. Focal index

B. Focal factor

C. Focal length
D. All of these

199. What does LASER stands for?

A. Light amplification by spectral emission of radiation

B. Light amplification by state emission of radiation

C. Light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation

D. Light amplification by saturated emission of radiation

200. A free falling object is acted upon by which of the following?

A. Weight of the body

B. Air resistance and gravitational pull

C. Gravitational pull

D. Air resistance

201. If the forces acting on a falling body balance one another, the body
continues to fall at a constant velocity. What is thus constant velocity called?

A. Instantaneous velocity

B. Free-falling body

C. Gravitational velocity

D. Terminal velocity

202. The first law of motion is also known as ___________.

A. Law of acceleration

B. Law of inertia

C. Law of interaction

D. Law of momentum
203. The second law of motion is also known as _________.

A. Law of acceleration

B. Law of inertia

C. Law of interaction

D. Law of momentum

204. The third law of motion is also known as __________.

A. Law of acceleration

B. Law of inertia

C. Law of interaction

D. Law of momentum

205. Air exerts force that is opposite to the car’s motion. What is this force
called?

A. Reverse effective force

B. Terminal force

C. Drag force

D. Aerodynamic force

206. What instrument is used to measure blood pressure of human beings?

A. Stropomanometer

B. Pumpmanometer

C. Electromanometer

D. Sphygmomanometer

207. What do light, radiowaves, microwaves and X-rays have in common?

A. These waves were predicted by only one person, James Maxwell.

B. These do not need a medium to travel in.

C. These waves are all mechanical waves.

D. These waves are all serendipitous discoveries.

208. Who predicted the existence of electromagnetic waves in 1865?

A. Roentgen

B. Maxwell

C. Tesla

D. Doppler

209. What is the velocity of light in meters per second?

A. 3 x 10^6

B. 3 x 10^9

C. 3 x 10^7

D. 3 x 10^8

210. What is the sound level of the threshold of pain?

A. 100 dB

B. 110 dB

C. 120 dB

D. 130 dB

211. What is the intensity in W/m2 of the threshold of pain?

A. 1

B. 10
C. 0.1

D. 0.01

212. What is the intensity of the threshold of hearing in W/m 2?

A. 10^-12

B. 10^-10

C. 10^-8

D. 10^-6

213. What refers to a measure of the energy of sound?

A. Intensity

B. Loudness

C. Pitch

D. Sone

214. What refers to the sensation in the ear which depends on the energy in
the sound wave?

A. Pitch

B. Intensity

C. Loudness

D. Timbre

215. How can loudness of sound be increased?

A. By increasing the energy of sound

B. By preventing sound waves to spread in different directions.

C. By collecting and focusing sound waves at the receiving end.

D. All of the choices.

216. Which of the following is dependent upon the frequency of sound
vibrations?

A. Timbre

B. Loudness

C. Intensity

D. Pitch

217. The “Doppler effect” is named after which scientist?

A. Christopher Jacques Doppler

B. Christian Jacques Doppler

C. Christopher Jason Doppler

D. Christian Johann Doppler

218. When a person tells you that the pitch of your voice is high, he is
referring to _________.

A. the intensity of your voice

B. the number of sound waves you are sending out per second

C. the loudness of your voice

D. the equality of your voice

219. At what intensity level will a noise be considered pollutant in the

environment?

A. Above 50 dB

B. Above 100 dB

C. Above 120 dB

D. Above 150 dB
220. The velocity of sound in air increases by how many m/s for every 1ºC
increase in temperature?

A. 0.2

B. 0.4

C. 0.6

D. 0.8

221. Why is sound wave travel faster in water than in air?

A. Because water has greater density than air.

B. Because water has greater bulk modulus than air.

C. Because water has more in terms of number of molecules than air.

D. Because water has more in volume than air.

222. What will happen to the wavelength if the velocity and frequency of a
wave are both reduced to one-half?

A. It will double.

B. It will reduce in half.

C. It will quadruple.

D. It will remain the same.

223. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A. A high-frequency sound has high pitch.

B. A high-frequency sound has low pitch.

C. A high-frequency sound has low energy.

D. A high-frequency sound has low pitch and low energy.

224. What part of the human ear where sound energy is converted into
electrical energy?

A. Ear drum

B. Cochlea

C. Tympanum

D. Ear canal

225. In which medium do sound waves travel the faster?

A. Liquids

B. Solids

C. Gases

D. Vacuum

226. Who provide evidence that light and electromagnetic waves have the
same nature and that they travel at the same speed and exhibit the same
properties such as refraction, reflection and interference?

A. Townes

B. Maxwell

C. Hertz

D. Huygens

227. Which of the following has the smallest wavelength band?

A. Blue

B. Indigo

C. Green

D. Yellow
228. What color has the longest wavelength?

A. Orange

B. Red

C. Yellow

D. Green

229. What color has the shortest wavelength?

A. Indigo

B. Violet

C. Blue

D. Green

230. What is the wavelength band of orange?

A. 550 nm – 600 nm

B. 600 nm – 650 nm

C. 650 nm – 700 nm

D. 500 nm – 550 nm

231. What is the wavelength band in nanometer of visible light?

A. 350 – 700

B. 350 – 800

C. 300 – 700

D. 300 – 800

232. What terms is used to describe the angular opening of a sphere that
encloses the mirror?
A. Angle of curvature

B. Focal point

C. Aperture

D. Vertex

233. What makes the sun visible even before it is in the line with the
horizon?

A. Diffraction

B. Reflection

C. Refraction

D. Diffusion

234. When the white light is passed through a prism, the different lights are
bent to varying degrees and are dispersed into different colors. Which of
these colors bends the most?

A. Violet

B. Red

C. Orange

D. Green

235. When the white light is passed through a prism, the different lights are
bent to varying degrees and are dispersed into different colors. Which of
these colors bends the least?

A. Violet

B. Red

C. Orange

D. Green
236. The formation of rainbow in the sky is due to _______.

A. diffraction

B. reflection

C. refraction

D. diffusion

237. What refers to the defect in lenses which causes unequal refraction of
the different colors?

A. Chromatic diffraction

B. Chromatic polarization

C. Chromatic aberration

D. Chromatic dispersion

238. What property of a light wave is determined by its wavelength?

A. Color

B. Shape

C. Size

D. Density

239. What is diffraction?

A. It is the scattering of white light behind an obstruction.

B. It is the separation of white light into its component colors.

C. It is the merging of component colors into white light.

D. It is the absorption of white light in the atmosphere.

240. What is dispersion?

A. It is the scattering of white light behind an obstruction.

B. It is the separation of white light into its component colors.

C. It is the merging of component colors into white light.

D. It is the absorption of white light in the atmosphere

241. What are primary colors?

A. Blue, Red and White

B. Light colors

C. Colors which when combined produce white light

D. Blue, Red and Green

242. What device used to measure atmospheric pressure and is consists of a

glass tube sealed at one end filled with mercury and a slide with a Vernier
scale?

A. Bourdon gage

B. Aneroid barometer

C. Mercury barometer

D. Manometer

243. A wave that needs a material medium through which it can travel as it
transfers energy?

A. Electromagnetic wave

B. Radio wave

C. Microwave

D. Mechanical wave

244. What refers to the band of colors produced when sunlight passes
through a prism?
A. Light spectrum

B. Solar spectrum

C. White spectrum

D. Visible spectrum

245. What refers to the property of some media to transmit light wave in a
diffused matter to make objects behind them undistinguishable?

A. Lucidity

B. Limpidity

C. Transparent

D. Translucent

246. What refers to the invisible electromagnetic waves shorter than the
visible violet wave but longer than the Roentgen ray?

A. Beta ray

B. Ultraviolet light

C. Alpha ray

D. X-ray

247. What refers to the part of the shadow from which all light is excluded?

A. Footprint

B. Lumbra

C. Umbra

D. Sunspot

248. The range of the projectile is:

A. directly proportional to the gravitational acceleration

B. directly proportional to the square of the velocity

C. directly proportional to the velocity

D. inversely proportional to the velocity

249. What instrument is used to measure humidity of air?

A. Hydrometer

B. Hygrometer

C. Lactometer

D. Radiometer

250. It explains combustion as a result of loss of a substance.

a. Phlogiston

b. Roasting

c. Reduction

d. Fission

251. The volume of a definite quantity of dry gas is inversely proportional to

the pressure provided the temperature remains constant.

a. Charles’ Law

b. Boyle’s Law

c. Gay-Lussac’s Law

d. Dalton’s Law

252. It refers to matter that do not have definite form or structure.

a. Amorphous
b. Morphous

c. Transient

d. Extrinsic

253. Three grams of Sulphur dissolved in 200 g of naphthalene C10H8, was

found decreasing the freezing point of the solvent to 0.72 ⁰C. Find the
molecular weight of the solute. (Kf C10H8 = 6.9 °C/molar)
a. 351.16 g/mole

b. 115.32 g/mole

c. 135.61 g/mole

d. 151.23 g/mole

254. Substance having a pH level less than 7

a. acid

b. base

c. salt

d. hydrate

255. It is the enthalpy change associated with the condensation of gaseous

positive and negative ion into a crystal.

a Raoult’s Law

b. Lattice Energy

c. Enthalpy Of Solution

d. Partition Coefficient

256. It is a product of the weathering of complex silicates, particularly of

feldspars which are abundant minerals.

a. clay
b. chalk

c. pyrite

d. diamond

257. Electrons occupy all the orbitals of a given subshell singly before
pairing begins. These unpaired electrons have parallel spins. This is known
as:

a. Building Up Principle

b. Aufbau Principle

c. Hund’s rule

d. David’s rule

258. This law states that at constant temperature the volume of a sample of
gas varies inversely with the pressure.

a. Avogadro’s Law

b. Boyle’s Law

c. Charle’s Law

d. Gay-Lussac’s Law

259. It is the scattering of light by colloidal particles

a. Mott Scattering

b. Tyndall Effect

c. Rayleigh Scattering

d. Wolf Effect

260. Consider H3AsO3, Arsenic acid (H=1.01,As=74.9,O=16.0).How many

mole is 1kg of H3AsO3?
a. 7.94 moles
b. 6.94 moles

c. 5.94 moles

d. 8.94 moles

261. It is customary to indicate accuracy by using a certain numbers of

figures or digits.

a. atomic mass unit

b. International system

c. significant figures

d. supplementary units

262. It is required for organic compounds.

a. hydrogen

b. oxygen

c. boron

d. carbon

263. At what temperature reading do the Celsius scale and the Fahrenheit
scale have the same temperature?

A. -40

B. -30

C. -20

D. -25

264. The _______ of the source is the luminous flux per unit area of the
source.

A. luminous emittance
B. luminous efficiency

C. luminous intensity

D. illumination

265. Brightness is the same as __________.

A. luminous emittance

B. luminous efficiency

C. luminous intensity

D. illumination

266. What is a monochromatic light?

A. Light with only one color

B. Light with only one wavelength

C. Light with only one color and one wavelength

D. Light with many colors

267. What is a three-dimensional image of an object illuminated by a broad

band of coherent light?

A. Hologram

B. Polygram

C. Opaque image

D. Translucent image

268. In opaque material,

A. light is able to pass through

B. the reflected energy is absorbed within a very thin layer and converted to
heat
C. light is partially absorbed

D. the refracted energy is absorbed within a thick layer and converted to

heat

269. In translucent material,

A. light is able to pass through

B. the refracted energy is absorbed within a very thin layer and converted to
heat

C. light is partially absorbed

D. the reflected energy is absorbed within a thick layer and converted to

heat

270. In transparent material,

A. light is able to pass through

B. the refracted energy is absorbed within a very thin layer and converted to
heat

C. light is partially absorbed

D. the refracted energy is absorbed within a thick layer and converted to

heat

271. The ratio of the speeds of light in two different media is known as
________.

A. index of refraction

B. index of diffraction

C. relative index of refraction

D. index of diffusion

272. What occurs when two waves combine so that one subtracts from the
other?
A. Interference

B. Superposition

C. Reinforcement

D. Polarization

273. What type of waves is produced in the stem when tuning fork?

A. Transverse wave

B. Longitudinal wave

C. Neither transverse wave nor longitudinal wave

D. Both transverse wave and longitudinal wave

274. The moment of inertia of an object is dependent on which of the

following?

A. The object’s size and shape

B. The object’s mass

C. The location of the axis of rotation

D. All of these

275. Which of the following statements about center of gravity is TRUE?

A. It may be outside the object

B. It is always at its geometrical center

C. It is always in the interior of the object

D. It is sometimes arbitrary

276. A diatomic scale is a musical scale build up of how many major chords?

A. 2
B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

277. A chromatic scale is a diatomic scale with how many added half tones?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

278. What refers to two colors which combine to form white light?

A. Complementary colors

B. Secondary colors

C. Primary colors

D. Elementary colors

279. A spectrum consisting of a wide range of unseparated wavelength is

called ________.

A. visible spectrum

B. continuous spectrum

C. emission spectrum

D. discontinuous spectrum

280. What refers to the emission of electrons from a heated metal in a

vacuum?

A. Geiger effect
B. Edison effect
C. Eddy current

D. Fraunhofer effect

281. The six colors of which sunlight is composed are called __________.

A. secondary colors

B. primary colors

C. complementary colors

D. elementary colors

282. A spectrum formed by the dispersion of light from an incandescent

solid, liquid and gas is called ________.

A. visible spectrum

B. continuous spectrum

C. emission spectrum

D. discontinuous spectrum

283. What is the type of force which binds the protons and neutrons
together in the nucleus of an atom?

A. Drag force

B. Bind force

C. Exchange force

D. Intact force

284. The “f” number of the lens is the ration of the:

A. focal length of the lens to the effective aperture

B. effective aperture to the focal length of the lens

C. magnifying power of lens to effective aperture

D. effective aperture to magnifying power of the lens

285. What refers to the length of time during which half of a given number
of radioactive nuclei will disintegrate?

A. active life

B. half cycle

C. half life

D. half period

286. What refers to the lowest pitch produced by a musical tone source?

A. Treble

B. Bass

C. Octave

D. Fundamental

287. What is an electromagnetic radiation of very short wavelength emitted

from the nucleus of a radioactive atom?

A. Beta ray

B. Alpha ray

C. Gamma ray

D. X-ray

288. What is an instrumental used to detect and measure radioactivity?

A. Edison counter

B. Radioactive counter

C. Fraunhofer counter

D. Geiger effect
289. What refers to the fundamentals and the tones whose frequencies are
whole number multiples of the fundamentals?

A. Harmony

B. Beats

C. Treble and bass

D. Harmonics

290. A spectrum consisting of monochromatic slit images having

wavelengths characteristic of the atoms parent is called __________.

A. line spectrum

B. continuous spectrum

C. slit spectrum

D. image spectrum

291. What is an instrument used to determine the mass of atomic particles?

A. Mass indicator

B. Mass spectrograph

C. Mass counter

D. Mass technograph

292. What is a nucleon?

A. A proton in the nucleus of an atom.

B. An electron in the nucleus of an atom.

C. A neutron in the nucleus of an atom.

D. A proton or a neutron of an atom.

293. What is a glass bottle used to determine the specific gravity of liquids?
A. Beaker

B. Flask

C. Pyonometer

D. Graduated cylinder

294. What is an instrument used to determine the angle of rotation of the

plane of polarized light?

A. Polariscope

B. Polarimeter

C. Polargraph

D. Polagraph

295. What refers to the property of sound waves which depends on the
number of harmonics present and on their prominence?

A. Pitch

B. Quality

C. Harmonic

D. Fundamental

296. What refers to the failure of one set of color receptors in the eye to be
stimulated?

A. Retinal failure

B. Retinal fatigue

C. Pupil imperfection

D. Astigmatism
297. The theory that the retina of the eye is provided with three sets of
receptors, each of which is sensitive to one of the three primary colors is
known as ___________.

A. True color vision theory

B. Young – Helmholtz color vision theory

C. Primary vision theory

D. Young – Huygen primary vision theory

298. What is a probable explanation for observe phenomena which is

supported by abundant data?

A. Theory

B. Hypothesis

C. Axiom

D. Conclusion

299. A tempered scale is a musical scale with _______ equal frequency ratio
intervals between the successive notes of an octave.

A. 9

B. 10

C. 11

D. 1

300. What is unifying theory applicable to the divergent phenomena of light

which assumes that the transfer of energy between light and matter occurs
only in discrete quantities proportional to the frequency of the energy
transferred?

A. Quantum theory

B. Radioactive theory
C. Nuclear energy

D. Quark energy

301. The wavelength of a source wave in a certain material as measured is

18 cm. The frequency of the wave is 1900 Hz. Compute the speed of sound
wave?

A. 342 m/s

B. 400 m/s

C. 542 m/s

D. 300 m/s

302. A horizontal cord 5 m long has a mass of 2.5 grams. What must be the
tension in the cord if the wavelength of a 120 Hz wave on it is to be 50 cm?

A. 1.50 N

B. 1.80 N

C. 2.50 N

D. 4.30 N

303. A 3-m string is driven by a 240 Hz vibrator at its end. Determine the
speed of transverse waves on the string if it resonates four segments?

A. 340 m/s

B. 360 m/s

C. 430 m/s

D. 420 m/s

304. A guitar string 30 cm long resonates in its fundamental to a frequency

of 250 Hz. What is the tension in the string if 80 cm of the string “weighs”
0.80 grams?
A. 20 N

B. 30 N

C. 10 N

D. 40 N

305. A piano string with a length of 1.17 m and a mass of 21.0 g in under
tension of 6.4 x 103 N, what is the fundamental frequency?
A. 225 Hz

B. 187 Hz

C. 255 Hz

D. 290 Hz

306. A rope 4 ft. long weighs 0.7 lb. A blow on the rope produces a
transverse wave. Determine the velocity of the wave considering that the
tension is 40 lb.

A. 75.8 ft/s

B. 95.7 ft/s

C. 78.5 ft/s

D. 85.8 ft/s

307. What is the relative intensity level of sound in decibels it its intensity is
3 x 10-7 W/cm2?
A. 94.8

B. 78.7

C. 80.5

D. 75.4

308. A wave has pressure amplitude of 5 dynes/cm2 and a velocity of 35.7

m/s, what is the absolute intensity considering that 0.001293 gm/cm?
A. 1.27 x 10^-8 W/cm2
B. 1.47 x 10^-8 W/cm2
C. 3.27 x 10^-8 W/cm2
D. 2.71 x 10^-8 W/cm2
309. A train blowing its whistle at 750 Hz approaches a station at the rate of
35 mph. What frequency is heard by a man standing at the station
considering the velocity of sound in air 1100 ft/s?

A. 739.7 Hz

B. 857.4 Hz

C. 716.4 Hz

D. 786.7 Hz

310. Two cars A and B are traveling toward each other at speeds of 45
km/hr and 70 km/hr respectively. If A blowing its horn, what is the relative
pitch heard by a passenger in B, considering that the velocity of sound is
344 m/s

A. 1.043

B. 1.021

C. 1.096

D. 1.078

311. An explosion occurs at a distance of 5 km from the observer. How long

after the explosion does a person hear if the temperature is 18°C? Note: the
speed of sound at STP (standard temperature and pressure) is 332 m/s and
changes by 0.6 m/s for every 1 °C change in temperature.

A. 14.58 s

B. 12.45 s

C. 11.87 s

D. 17.54 s
312. What is the speed of sound in neon gas at temperature of 25°C
considering that the molecular mass if this gas is 20.18 kg/mol? Neon is
monoatomic. Use k = 1.67

A. 543.7 m/s

B. 478.6 m/s

C. 321.7 m/s

D. 447.5 m/s

313. What is the wavelength of yellow light whose frequency is 5 x 10 14 Hz?

A. 800 mm

B. 200 mm

C. 600 mm

D. 700 mm

314. What is the angle of refraction of light as a beam of parallel light enters
a block of ice at angle of incidence of 30°? The index of refraction of ice is
1.31 and that of air is 1.0.

A. 45°

B. 30°

C. 22°

D. 26°

315. A light ray is incident at an angle of 45° on one side of a glass plate of
index of refraction 1.6. Find the angle at which the ray emerges from the
other side of the plate.

A. 26°

B. 20°

C. 22°
D. 28°

316. It was found out that the speed of light in water is 75% of its speed in
vacuum. What is the index of refraction of water?

A. 1.46

B. 1.33

C. 1.26

D. 1.67

317. A glass plate is 0.6 cm thick and has a refractive index of 1.55.
Compute how long will it take for a pulse of light to pass through the plate?

A. 4.41 x 10-12 s
B. 3.11 x 10-11 s
C. 1.34 x 10-12 s
D. 2.34 x 10-11 s
318. A light passes from glass to water. If the index of refraction for glass is
1.54 and for water is 1.33, compute the critical angle for this light to pass
the glass.

A. 59.7°

B. 45.8°

C. 67.4°

D. 50.9°

319. A light source emits a total luminous flux of 1000 lumens and
distributed uniformly over 25% of a sphere. What is the luminous intensity
at 2.5-meter distance?

A. 413 cd

B. 243 cd

C. 134 cd

D. 318 cd
320. A light bulb emits a total luminous flux of 1700 lumens, distributed
uniformly over a hemisphere. What is the illuminance at a distance of 2
meters?

A. 67.65 lm/m2
B. 35.70 lm/m2
C. 59.87 lm/m2
D. 23.56 lm/m2
321. A light bulb is used to light a bunker 10 ft. below. A chair sits on the
floor of the bunker 3 feet from a spot directly below the bulb. What is the
illumination on the floor around the chair if the luminous intensity is 150
candles?

A. 2.38 footcandles

B. 2.43 footcandles

C. 3.87 footcandles

D. 1.38 footcandles

322. A light ray passing through air and strikes a glass surface at an angle of
55° from the normal surface. What is the angle between the reflected light
and the surface?

A. 55°

B. 25°

C. 35°

D. 45°

323. A converging lens of focal length 20 cm is placed 37 cm in front of a

screen. At what distance that the object be placed so that its image appears
on the screen?

A. 43.5 cm

B. 35.7 cm

C. 27.6 cm
D. 50.7 cm

324. In what positions will a converging lens of focal length 10 cm from an

image of luminous object on a screen located 50 cm from the object?

A. 11.52 cm and 38.48 cm from the object

B. 10 cm and 40 cm from the object

C. 13.82 cm and 36.18 cm from the object

D. 12.56 cm and 37.44 cm from the object

325. A lens has a convex surface of radius 17 cm and a concave surface of

radius 38 cm and is made of glass of refractive index 1.55. Calculate the
focal length of the lens and classify the type of lens whether diverging or
converging?

A. 55.93 cm converging lens

B. 57.45 cm diverging lens

C. 55.93 cm diverging lens

D. 57.45 cm converging lens

326. A double convex lens has faces of radii 16 and 18 cm. When an object
is 20 cm from the lens, a real image is formed 30 cm from the lens. What is
the focal length of the lens?

A. 11 cm

B. 10 cm

C. 12 cm

D. 14 cm

327. A double convex lens has faces of radii 22 and 24 cm. When an object
is 30 cm from the lens, a real image is formed 45 cm from the lens.
Compute the refractive index of the lens material

A. 1.64
B. 1.32

C. 1.21

D. 1.76

328. A 50 watt incandescent lamp has a mean spherical luminous intensity

of 66.5 candelas. Compute the total luminous flux radiated by the lamp?

A. 842 lm

B. 457 lm

C. 786 lm

D. 987 lm

329. A 250 W light source has a mean spherical luminous intensity of 87.5
candelas. Compute the luminous intensity of the lamp?

A. 4.7 lm/s

B. 4.4 lm/s

C. 2.0 lm/s

D. 1.7 lm/s

330. Compute the illumination on a surface 5 ft distance from a 100-cd

source if the surface makes an angle of 18° with the rays?

A. 1.67 lm/ft2
B. 1.50 lm/ft2
C. 1.24 lm/ft2
D. 2.13 lm/ft2
331. Estimate the distance for which a 30-cd lamp provide the same
illumination as a standard lamp of 80-cd placed 17 ft from the screen?

A. 9.76 ft

B. 8.5 ft

C. 12.7 ft
D. 10.41 ft

332. A Plano-convex lens has a focal length of 35 cm and an index of

refraction 1.53. Find the radius of the convex surface.

A. 18.55 cm

B. 15.78 cm

C. 20.78 cm

D. 17.55 cm

333. If a beam of polarized light has one-twelfth of its initial intensity after
passing through an analyzer, what is the angle between the axis of the
analyzer and the initial amplitude of the beam?

A. 65.73°

B. 76.27°

C. 73.22°

D. 67.54°

334. An observer sees a spaceship, measured 100 m long when at rest. He

passed by in uniform motion with the speed of 0.5 c. While the observer is
watching the spaceship, a time of 2 s elapses on a clock on board the ship,
what is the length of the moving spaceship?

A. 82 m

B. 85 m

C. 83 m

D. 87 m

335. The captain of a spacecraft send a pulse of light towards earth and then
exactly 1 min. later (as measured by the clock on the spacecraft), sends a
second pulse. An observer on earth sees the second pulse arrive 4 minutes
after the first. What is the velocity of the spacecraft relative to the earth?
A. 0.987c

B. 0.968c

C. 0.954c

D. 0.953c

336. What is the rest energy of electron equivalent to its rest mass? 1Mev =
1.60 x 10^-13 J and mass of electron is 9.11 x 10^-31 kg.

A. 0.512 MeV

B. 0.987 MeV

C. 0.345 MeV

D. 0.675 MeV

337. What is the frequency of photon having energy of 2 eV?

A. 560 THz

B. 300 THz

C. 250 THz

D. 480 THz

338. A red light passes an empty space. What is the momentum of a single
photon of red light whose frequency is 400 x 10 12 HZ?
A. 8.8 x 10-28 kg m/s
B. 7.6 x 10-28 kg m/s
C. 5.4 x 10-28 kg m/s
D. 6.5 x 10-28 kg m/s
339. The eye can detect as little as 1 x 10^-18 J of electromagnetic energy.
How many photons of orange light whose wavelength is 600 nm present in
the energy?

A. 5

B. 4
C. 3

D. 1

340. What is the speed of sound through compressed water (100 kPa) if its
volume decreased by 0.005% of its original volume?

A. 1414 m/s

B. 1250 m/s

C. 1130 m/s

D. 1200 m/s

341. What is the bulk modulus of steel if the sound waves traveled at
approximately 5900 m/s? Note: the density of steel is 7900 kg/m 3
A. 2.75 x 1011 Pa
B. 1.25 x 1011 Pa
C. 1.15 x 1011 Pa
D. 2.45 x 1011 Pa
342. A certain loud speaker has a circular opening with a diameter of 15 cm.
Assume that the sound it emits is uniform and outward through this entire
opening. How much power is being radiated by the loudspeaker if the sound
intensity at opening is 150 µW/m2?
A. 1.77 µW

B. 1.87 µW

C. 2.65 µW

D. 3.41 µW

343. Sound intensity that reaches 1.2 W/m2 is painful to human ear. How
many decibels is 1.2 W/m2?
A. 240.5 dB

B. 170.4 dB

C. 120.8 dB

D. 134.5 dB
344. Compute the ratio of the intensities of sounds if one is 12 times louder
than the other?

A. 13.47 dB

B. 15.85 dB

C. 18.76 dB

D. 14.54 dB

345. An automobile moving at 30 m/s is approaching a building whistle with

a frequency of 500 Hz. If the speed of sound in air is 340 m/s what is the
apparent frequency of the whistle heard by the driver?

A. 459 Hz

B. 458 Hz

C. 457 Hz

D. 456 Hz

346. What is the mass of electron traveling at half the speed of light?

A. 1.05 x 10-30 kg
B. 2.31 x 10-30 kg
C. 1.56 x 10-31 kg
D. 1.61 x 10-31 kg
347. A medium unshaded lamp hangs 8 m directly above the table. To what
distance should it be lowered to increase the illumination to 4.45 times its
former value?

A. 4.02 m

B. 3.86 m

C. 3.79 m

D. 4.21 m
348. A floodlight emitting 25,000 candelas in the center of its beam is aimed
at 50° to a point on the ground 20 meters away. The illumination of the
point in flux is:

A. 54.12

B. 62.5

C. 31.25

D. 625

349. Compute the speed of sound in neon gas at 27°C of molecular mass
20.18 kg/kmol and k of 1.67.

A. 454 m/s

B. 564 m/s

C. 356 m/s

D. 434 m/s

350. A magnifying glass has a lens with an index of refraction 5.4 and radii
of curvature of 2.95 feet and 4.27 feet for the two faces. What is the
magnification of the lens when it is held 2.36 inches from an object being
viewed?

A. 1.6

B. 2.78

C. 2.16

D. 1.98

351. “At any point along a streamline in an ideal fluid in steady flow, the
sum of the pressure, the potential energy per unit volume and the kinetic
energy per unit volume have the same value.” The concept is known as

A. Bernoulli’s Energy Principles

B. Fluid theorem
C. Pascal’s theorem

D. Hydraulic theorem

352. The work done by all forces except the gravitational force is always
equal to the one of the system.

A. Total mechanical energy

B. Total potential energy

C. Total kinetic energy

D. Total momentum

353. When the two waves of the same frequency, speed and amplitude
traveling in opposite directions are superimposed,

A. the phase difference is always zero

B. distractive waves are produced

C. standing waves are produced

D. constructive interference always results to zero

354. According to this law, “The force between two charges varies directly as
the magnitude of each charge and inversely as the square of the distance
between them.”

A. Law of Universal Gravitation

B. Newton’s Law

C. Inverse Square Law

D. Coulomb’s Law

355. It describes the luminous flux incidence per unit area and is expressed
in lumens per square meter.

A. Illuminance
B. Luminance

C. Luminous Intensity

D. Radiance

356. The fluid pressure is the same in all directions. This is known as

A. Pascal’s Principle

B. Bernoulli’s Theorem

C. Ideal Fluid Principle

D. Archimedes Principle

357. The amount of heat needed to change solid to liquid is

A. condensation

B. cold fusion

C. latent heat of fusion

D. solid fusion

358. At the boiling point of liquid, the vapor pressure

A. is equal to external pressure on the surface of the liquid

B. is greater than the atmospheric pressure

C. is less than the atmospheric pressure

D. can have any value

359. Which of the following thermometers is best suited for measuring a

temperature of nearly 1500°C?

A. Gas thermometer

B. Platinum resistance thermometer

C. Thermocouple thermometer

D. Mercury thermometer

360. The energy stored in a starched elastic material such as spring is

A. Mechanical energy

B. Elastic potential energy

C. Internal energy

D. Kinetic energy

361. In physics, if LF and LV are the latent heat of fusion and vaporization,
respectively, which of the following equations apply in determining the
amount of energy needed to freeze a liquid?

A. Q = -mif

B. Q = -miv

C. Q = mif

D. Q = miv

362. Which of the following is true? The density of water

A. Is maximum at 4°C

B. Decreases as the temperature is increased

C. Is minimum at 4°C

D. Increases with temperature

363. When the pitch of a note is raised then, its

A. frequency decreases

B. wavelength is increased

C. frequency increases
D. None of the above is true

364. Cohesion is the attraction between like

A. atom

B. element

C. compound

D. molecule

365. The quality known as specific heat is based on:

A. the increase in temperature due to induction

B. the heat needed for one pound of water to boil

C. the heat needed to increase the temperature to one gram of a substance

one degree Celsius

D. the amount of heat required to melt one kg of lead

366. On decreasing the pressure, the boiling point of water will

A. increase

B. remain unaffected

C. decrease

D. may increase/decrease depending on the pressure

367. When sugar is added to water, its boiling point

A. increases

B. remains unaffected

C. decreases

D. Any of the above is possible

368. Which one of the following processes of heat transfer requires the
presence of a fluid?

A. conduction

B. convection

C. radiation

D. none of these

369. When salt is added to water, its boiling point

A. increases

B. decreases

C. remains unaffected

D. may increase/decrease depending on the pressure

370. Which one of the following propagates with the same speed as speed of
light?

A. The sound waves

B. The heat waves

C. The shock waves

D. The Beta rays

371. Which of the following is not true about sound waves?

A. They transmit the energy

B. They are propagated as a series of compressions and the rare fractions

C. They travel faster in air than in solids

D. They produce interference

372. Sound waves in air are

A. longitudinal

B. neither longitudinal nor transverse

C. transverse

D. stationary

373. Normal range of the frequency of sound, which the human beings can
hear, is

A. Less than 20 Hz

B. More than 25,000 Hz

C. 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz

D. All of these

374. The loudness of sound depends upon its

A. Wavelength

B. Frequency

C. Amplitude

D. All of these

375. Sound above the frequency of 20,000 Hz is called

A. Supersonic sound

B. Intrasonic sound

C. Hypersonic sound

D. Ultrasonic sound

376. The surface of the thermos flask is silvered for minimizing heat transfer
by what process?

A. conduction
B. radiation

C. convection

D. vaporization

377. Water starts boiling when

A. Its temperature reaches 100°C

B. Its vapor pressure equals 76 cm of mercury

C. Its saturated vapor pressure equals the external pressure on its surface

D. Its saturated vapor pressure is less than the atmospheric pressure

378. 500 gm of water at 4°C occupies a certain volume V. Which of the

following statements is correct?

A. It will weigh less than one pound of water at 0°C

B. It will weigh more than 500 gm of water at 0°C

C. Its volume will decrease when its temperature is lowered

D. Its volume will increase when its temperature is lowered or raised

379. Heat will flow from one body to another in thermal contact with it,
when they differ in

A. mass

B. specific mass

C. density

D. temperature

380. The amount of heat which is absorbed during the change of state of a
substance without rise in its temperature is called its

A. Specific heat
B. Latent heat

C. Thermal conductivity

D. Water equivalent

381. The scientist who systematically demonstrated the equivalence of

mechanical energy and heat was

A. Joule

B. Boltzmann

C. Faraday

D. Kelvin

382. On a sunny day at the beach, the sand gets so hot and the water stays
relatively cool is due to the difference in of water and sand.

A. density

B. specific heat

C. depth

D. thermal conductivity

383. The instrument, which measures temperature by radiation, is called

A. thermopile

B. thermometer

C. pyrometer

D. hydrometer

384. When the temperature of an ideal gas is increased at constant

pressure,

A. the potential energy of molecules increases

B. the potential energy of molecules decreases

C. the kinetic energy of molecules increases

D. the kinetic energy of molecules decreases

385. The root mean square speed of the molecules of a gas is

A. independent of its pressure P

B. directly proportional to square root of P

C. directly proportional to the square of its temperature T

D. proportional to T

386. At what temperature do both the centigrade and Fahrenheit

thermometers show the same reading?

A. -38°C

B. -40°C

C. -42°C

D. -50°C

387. A mercury thermometer is constructed at

A. room temperature

B. a temperature higher than the maximum range of the thermometer

C. a temperature lower than the minimum range of the thermometer

D. atmospheric pressure

388. The boiling point of water on plains is 100°C. At hills it will be

A. 100oC

B. Less than 100°C

C. More than 100°C

D. May be any of these

389. It is hotter over the top of a fire than at the same distance on the sides
because of:

A. convection of heat

B. conduction of heat

C. radiation of heat

D. convection, conduction and radiation of heat

390. The density of water is

A. same at all temperature

B. maximum at 4°C

C. minimum at 4°C

D. maximum at 0°C

391. When a substance is heated, its

A. molecules move more slowly

B. molecules move more rapidly

C. there is no change in the speed of its molecules

D. its temperature always increases

392. When common salt is sprinkled on ice the temperature of ice

A. increases

B. decreases

C. remains unchanged
D. none of these

393. The minimum temperature which can be measured with a mercury

thermometer is

A. 0°C

B. -273°C

C. -39°C

D. -143°C

394. A wave in which the particles of the material move up and down as the
waves goes from left is called a

A. Longitudinal wave

B. Transverse wave

C. Standing wave

D. None of these

395. When waves go from one place to another they transport

A. Energy and matter

B. Wavelength and matter

C. Frequency only

D. Energy only

396. The phenomenon of damping results in decrease in

A. frequency

B. velocity

C. wavelength

D. amplitude
397. Echo is formed as a result of

A. refraction of sound

B. diffraction of sound

C. interference of sound

D. reflection of sound

398. The characteristic of sound which enables us to distinguish two musical

notes having the same frequency and loudness is called

A. pitch

B. intensity

C. timber

D. decibel

399. Which of the following could be a longitudinal wave?

A. electromagnetic waves

B. a sound wave in air

C. a water wave

D. waves on vibrating string

400. A Decibel is a

A. musical instrument

B. highest frequency emitted by a tuning fork

C. a measure of intensity level

D. a measure of clarity of sound

401. A ball is thrown vertically upward with an initial velocity of 3 m/s from a
window of a tall bldg. The ball strikes the ground level 4 seconds later.
Determine the height of window above the ground.

a) 66.331 m.

b) 66.450 m.

c) 67.239 m.

d) 67.492 m.

402. A stone was dropped freely from a balloon at a height of 190 m. above
the ground. The balloon is moving upward at a speed of 30 m/s. Determine
the velocity of the stone as it hits the ground.

a) 69.03 m/s

b) 68.03 m/s

c) 67.30 m/s

d) 69.23 m/s

403. A ball is thrown vertically at a speed of 20 m/s from a bldg. 100 m.

above the ground. Find the velocity and position of the stone above the
ground after 5 seconds.

a) 4.67 m, 48.30 m/s

b) 4.54 m, 47.68 m/s

c) 5, 43 m, 47.69 m/s

d) 5.68 m, 48.20 m/s

404. A ball is thrown vertically at a speed of 30 m/s from the top of a tower
200 m. Determine the velocity of the stone and the time that it strikes the
ground.

a) 1 1.50 sec, 65.80 m/s

b) 1 1.45 sec, 66.59 m/s

c) 10.30 sec, 67.21 m/s

d) 10.14 sec, 69.45 m/s

405. A ball is thrown vertically with a velocity of 20 m/s. from the top of a
bldg. 100 m. high. Find the velocity of the stone at a height of 40 m. above
the ground.

a) 39.71 m/s

b) 40.23 m/s

c) 39.88 m/s

d) 39.68 m/s

406. A projectile is fired from the top of a cliff 92 m. high with a velocity of
430 m/s directed 45° to the horizontal. Find the range on the horizontal
plane through the base of the cliff.

a) 18.959 km.

b) 23.408 km.

c) 15.273 km.

d) 20.365 km.

407. A stone is thrown outward, at an angle of 30° with the horizontal as

shown in the drawing, into the river from a cliff that is 120 meters above the
water level at a velocity of 36 kilometers per hour . At what height above the
water level will the stone start to fall?

a) 121.27 m.

b) 189.29 m.

c) 1 1 1.38 m.

d) 152.22 m.

408. A stone was thrown upward at an angle of 60° with the horizontal and
a resultant vertical speed of 100.0 meters per second. If gravity decelerates
the speed at 9.8 meters/sec², what is the actual speed of the stone, in
meters per second, 10.0 seconds later, in the direction it was thrown?

a) 57.77 m/s

b) 64.22 m/s

c) 60.35 m/s

d) 67.23 m/s

409. A projectile is launched at 45° to the horizontal on a level ground at a

speed of 60 m/s. Neglecting air resistance, what is the range of the
projectile?

a) 366.86 m.

b) 355.29 m.

c) 663.24 m.

d) 386.66 m.

410. A ball thrown at an angle of 30° with the horizontal from a point60 m.
from the edge of a vertical cliff 48 m. high. The ball just misses the edge of
the cliff. Determine the initial velocity of the ball and the distance beyond
the cliff where the ball strikes the ground.

a) 28.4 m/sec; 32.6 m.

b) 26.1 m/sec; 46.9 m.

c) 27.5 m/sec; 56.5 m

d) 31.1 m/sec; 43.2 m

411. A block passes a point 4 m from the edge of a table with a velocity of 5
m/sec. It slides off the edge of the table which is 5 m. high and strikes the
floor 3 m from the edge of the table. What was the coefficient of friction
between the block and the table?

a) 0.65
b) 1.04.

c) 0.21.

d) 0.1 1

412. A ball is shot at a ground level at an angle of 60 degrees with the

horizontal with an initial velocity of 10 m/sec. Which of the following most
nearly gives the maximum height (h) attained by the ball?

a) 2.47 m

b) 3.29 m

c) 4.61 m

d) 3.82 m

413. A stone is thrown upward at an angle of 30° with the horizontal. It

lands 60 m. measured horizontally and 2 m. below measured vertically from
its point of release. Determine the initial velocity of the stone in m/s.

a) 27.35

b) 28.35

c) 25.35

d) 26.35

414. A projectile is fired with a muzzle velocity of 300 m/s from a gun aimed
upward at an angle of 20° with the horizontal, from the top of a building
30m. high above a level ground. With what velocity will it hit the ground in
m/s?

a) 300.98

b) 310.96

c) 320.96

d) 330.96
415. A projectile leaves a velocity of 50 m/s at an angle of 30 with the
horizontal. Find the maximum height that it could reach?

a) 31.86

b) 41.26

c) 28.46

d) 51.26

416. A ball is shot at a ground level at angle of 60 degrees with the

horizontal with an initial velocity of 100 m/s. Determine the height of the
ball after 2 sec.

a) 162.46 m.

b) 153.59 m.

c) 175.48 m.

d) 186.42 m.

417. A ball is shot at an average speed of 200 m/sat an angle of 20°

with the horizontal. What would be the velocity of the ball after 8
sec.?********

a) 188.21m/s

b) 154.34m/s

c) 215.53 m/s

d) 198.37 m/s

418. A projectile has a velocity of 200m/s acting at an angle of 20° with the
horizontal. How long will it take for the projectile to hit the ground surface?

a) 13.95 sec.

b) 15.75 sec.

c) 10.1 1 sec
d) 24.23sec.

419. A stone is thrown upward at an angle of 20° with the horizontal from
the top of a tower 30 m. high and hits the ground at a distance of 5976.4 m.
horizontally from the base of the tower. Find the time of flight of the stone
until it hits the ground.

a) 21.20 sec.

b) 22.20 sec

c) 19.39 sec.

d) 24.15 sec.

420. A projectile is fired upward at an angle of 20° with the horizontal from
the top of a tower 30 m. high above a level ground. Find the range on the
horizontal plane will the ball hit the ground after 20.20 seconds.

a) 5386.30 m.

b) 5642.22 m.

c) 5415.37 m.

d) 6329.33 m.

421. A projectile leaves a velocity of 50 m/s at an angle of 30° with the

horizontal. Find the time it would take for the projectile to reach the
maximum height.

a) 2.55 sec.

b) 2.60 sec.

c) 3.10 sec.

422. A baseball is thrown from a horizontal plane following a parabolic path

with an initial velocity of 100 m/s at an angle of 30° above the horizontal.
How far from the throwing point will the ball attain its original level?
a) 890 m.

b) 884 m.

c) 883 m.

d) 875 m.

423. A shot is fired at an angle of 45° with the horizontal and a velocity of
300 fps. Calculate, to the nearest, the range of the projectile.

a) 3500 ft.

b) 1200 ft.

c) 4000 ft.

d) 934 yds.

424. Three crates with masses A = 45.2 kg, B = 22.8 kg and C = 34.3 kg
and are placed with B along a horizontal frictionless surface. Find the force
exerted by B and C by pushing the crates to the right with an acceleration of
1.32 m/sec².

a) 45.3 kN

b) 54.2 KN

c) 43.2 kN

d) 38.7 kN

425. Three blocks A, Band Care placed on a horizontal frictionless surface

and are connected by chords between A, Band C. determine the tension
between block B and C when a horizontal tensile force is applied at C equal
to 6.5 N. Masses of the blocks are A = 1.2 kg, B = 2.4 kg and C = 3.1 kg.

a) 3.50 N

b) 4.21 N

c) 3.89 N
d) 4.65 N

426. A constant force P = 750 N acts on the body shown during only the first
6 m. of its motion starting from rest. If u = 0.20, find the velocity of the
body after it has moved a total distance of 9m.

a) 3.93 m/sec²

b) 4.73 m/sec²

c) 2.32 m/sec²

d) 3.1 1 m/sec²

427. A weight of 9 kN is initially suspended on a 150 m. long cable. The

cable weighs 0.002 kN/m. If the weight is then raised 100 m. How much
work is done in Joules?

a) 915000

b) 938700

c) 951000

d) 905100

428. What is the kinetic energy of a 4000 lb. automobile which is moving at
44 fps.

a.) 1.21 x 105 ft-lb.

b.) 2.1 x 105 ft-lb.
c) 1.8 x 105 ft-lb
d) 1.12 x 105 ft-lb.
429. A box slides from rest from point Adown a plane inclined 30°, to the
horizontal. After reaching the bottom of the plane, the box moves on
horizontal floor at a distance 2 m before coming to rest. If the coefficient of
friction between the box and plane and between the box and floor is k =
0.40, what is the distance of point “A” from the intersection of plane and the
floor?

a) 7.24 m

b) 5.21 m
c) 4.75 m

d) 9.52 m

430. A 400 N block slides on a horizontal plane by applying a horizontal

force of 200 N and reaches a velocity of 20 m/s in a distance of 30 m. from
rest. Compute the coefficient of friction between the floor and the block.

a) 0.18

b) 0.24

c) 0.31

d) 0.40

431. A car weighing 40 tons is switched to a 2 percent upgrade with a

velocity of 30 mph. If the train resistance is 10 lb/ton, how far up the grade
will it go?

a) 1124 ft. on slope

b) 2014 ft. on slope

c) 1203 ft. on slope

d) 1402 ft on slope

432. A car weighing 10 KN is towed along a horizontal road surface

at a uniform velocity of 80 kph. The towing cable is parallel with the
road surface. The road is straight and smooth. When the car is at the
foot of an incline as shown having an elevation of 30 m, the towing
cable was suddenly cut. At what elevation in the inclined road will
the car stop in its upward motion?***************

a) 55.16 m

b) 60.24 m

c) 51.43 m

d) 49.62 m
433. A wooden block starting from rest, slides 6 m down a 45° slope, then 3
m along a level surface and then up a 30° incline until it comes to rest
again. If the coefficient of friction is 0.15 for all surfaces of contact, compute
the total distance traveled.

a) 20m

b) 1 1m

c) 14 m

d) 18m

434. A 1000 N block on a leveled surface is attached to 250 N block hanging

on the pulley. The pulley is 3 m away from the first block. If the first block
started at rest and moves towards the right. What is the velocity of block B
as it touches the ground? How far will the block A travel along the horizontal
surface if the coefficient of friction between block A and the surface is .20?
Assume pulley to be frictionless.

a) 1.44 m

b) 2.55 m

c) 5.22 m

d) 3.25 m

435. A 500 N block on a n incline plane with an angle of 30° has move 3 m
up the incline plane due to 600 N force applied. Find the velocity of the block
when it returns to its initial position.

a) 8.6 m/s

b) 5.6 m/s

c) 6.4 m/s

d) 7.1 m/s

436. A 10 Kg block is raised vertically 3 meters. What is the change in

potential energy? Answer in SI units closest to:
a) 350 kg-m2/sec
b) 320 J

c) 350 N-m

d) 294 J

437. A car weighing 40 tons is switched to a 2% upgrade with a velocity of

30 mph. if the car is then allowed to run back, what velocity will it have at
the foot of the grade?

a) 37 fps

b) 31 fps

c) 43 fps

d) 34 fps

438. A 200 ton train is accelerated from rest to a velocity of 30 mph on a

level track. How much useful work was done?

a) 12024845 ft-lbs

b) 13827217 ft-lbs

c) 11038738 ft-lbs

d) 10287846 ft-lbs

439. A drop hammer weighing 40 KN is dropped freely and drives a

concrete pile 150 mm into the ground. The velocity of the drop
hammer at impact is6m/sec. what is the average resistance of the
soil in KN? ************

a) 542.4

b) 489.3

c) 384.6

d) 248.7
440. A force of 200 lbf acts on a block at an angle of 28° with respect to the
horizontal. The block is pushed 2 feet horizontally. What is the work done by
this force?

a) 320 J

b) 480 J

c) 540 J

d) 215 J

441. A 50 Kg object strikes the unscratched spring attached to a vertical wall

having a spring constant of 20 KN/m. Find the maximum deflection of the
spring. The velocity of the object before it strikes the spring is 40 m/s.

a) 1 m

b) 2 m

c) 3 m

d) 4 m

442. To push a 25 Kg crate up a 27° incline plane, a worker exerts a force of

120 N, parallel to the incline. As the crates slides 3.6 m, how much is the
work done on the crate by the worker and by the force of gravity.

a) 400 J

b) 420 J

c) 380 J

d) 350 J

443. A train weighing 12,000 KN is accelerated at a constant rate up a 2%

grade with a velocity increasing from 30 kph to 50 kph in a distance of 500
meters. Determine the horse power developed by the train.

a) 5.394 kW

b) 5.120 kW
c) 4.486 kW

d) 4.591 kW

444. An elevator has an empty weight of 5160 N. It is design to carry a

maximum load of 20 passengers from the ground floor to the 25th floor of
the building in a time of 18 seconds. Assuming the average weight of a
passenger to be 710 N and the distance between floors to be 3.5 m, what is
the minimum constant power needed for the elevator motor?

a) 94.3 kW

b) 85.5 kW

c) 97.4 kW

d) 77.6 kW

445. A piano string is 80 cm long and weighs 5 N. if the string is stretched

by a force of 500 N. what is the speed of the wave set up when the hammer
strikes the string?

a) 26m/s

b) 27m/s

c) 28 m/s

d) 30m/s

446. A 16-16 wire cable 100 ft. long is stretched between two poles under
tension of 500 lb. If the cable is struck at one end, how long will it take for
the wave to travel to the far end and return?

a) 0.63 s

b) 0.64 s

c) 0.65 s

d) 0.66 s
447. Assume that young modulus for silver is 77.5 G N/m 2. If it has density
10.5 x 103 kg/m3, how fast does sound travel through the silver?
a) 2600m/s

b) 2700m/s

c) 1600 m/s

d) 1700m/s

:
448. The speed of a compressional wave in silver, specific gravity 10.5, is
2610 m/s. compute y for silver.

a) 71.6 GN/m2
b) 76 GN/m2
c) 7.16 GN/m2
d) 716 GN/m2
449. Two waves whose frequencies are 500 and 511 per second travel out
from a common point. Find their difference in phase after 1.40 s.

a) 143°

b) 144°

c) 145°

d) 146°

450. A copper has a density of 9 g/cm3 and a bulk modulus of 120 G N/m2.

What is the speed of a wave through it?
a) 3600 m/s

b) 6300 m/s

c) 6030 m/s

d) 1460 m/s

451. The time rate of change of velocity. Since velocity is a directed or

vector quantity involving both magnitude and direction, a velocity may
change by a change of magnitude (speed) or by a change of direction or
both.

a. Gravitation

b. invariant mass

c. Acceleration

d. none of these

452. The closeness of an indication or reading of a measurement device to

the actual value of the quantity being measured. Usually expressed as ±
percent of full scale output or reading.

a. Accuracy

b. Compression

c. Chemical Equilibrium

d. Distance

453. The rate of change of angular velocity with respect to time.

a. Angular Velocity

b. Acceleration

c. Angular Acceleration

d. none of these

454. What is a physical quantity expressing the size of a part of a surface?

a. Lever

b. Area

c. Measurement

d. Bend
455. The rate of change of angular displacement with respect to time.

a. Angular Velocity

b. Load

c. Instantaneous

d. Brittle

456. A rigid, usually horizontal, structural element

a. Beam Bridge

b. Force

c. Core

d. Beam

457. A simple type of bridge, composed of horizontal beams supported by

vertical posts

a. Beam

b. Brace

c. Beam Bridge

d. Buckle

458. To curve; bending occurs when a straight material becomes

curved; one side squeezes together in compression, and the other
side stretches apart in tension.

a. Tension

b. Brace

c. Buckle

d. none of these (BEND IS THE ANSWER)

459. Is mechanics applied to biology (Fung). This includes research and
analysis of the mechanics of living organisms and the application of
engineering principles to and from biological systems.

a. Biomechanics

b. engineering mechanics

c. mechanics

d. none of these

460. A structural support;

a. Brittle

b. Cable

c. Brace

d. Cantilever

461. Characteristic of a material that fails without warning; brittle materials

do not stretch or shorten before failing.

a. Beam

b. Brace

c. Beam Bridge

d. Brittle

462. To bend under compression.

a. Brittle

b. compression

c. bend

d. Buckle
463. A structural element formed from steel wire bound in strands; the
suspending element in abridge; the supporting element in some dome roofs.

a. Beam

b. Cable

c. Brace

d. Compression

464. A projecting structure supported only at one end, like a shelf bracket or
a diving board.

a. Cantilever

b. Equilibrium

c. Cable

d. Irreversible

465. A condition in which a chemical reaction is occurring at equal rates in

its forward and reverse directions, so that the concentrations of the reacting
substances do not change with time.

a. Chemical Equilibrium

b. Equilibrium

c. force

d. Pile

466. A pressing force that squeezes a material together.

a. force

b. Compression

c. steel

d. modulus
467. Central region of a skyscraper; usually houses elevator and stairwell.

a. Core

b. physical constant

c. gravitational attraction

d. dimension

468. To change shape

a. dimension

b. deform

c. deformation

d. instantaneous

469. Is a numerical description of how far apart objects are at any given
moment in time. In physics or everyday discussion, distance may refer to a
physical length, a period of time, or estimation based on other criteria. In
mathematics, distance must meet more rigorous criteria.

a. Force

b. Distance

c. mass

d. deformation

470. Is the mathematical description of an object or substance’s tendency to

be deformed elastically (i.e. non-permanently) when a force is applied to it.

a. modulus of elasticity

b. fluid power

c. Hydraulics

d. Gravitation
471. A profession in which acknowledge of math and natural science is
applied to develop ways to utilize the materials and forces of nature for the
benefit of all human beings.

a. Mechanics

b. Engineering Mechanics

c. Engineering

d. None of these

472. A condition in which all acting influences are canceled by others,

resulting in a stable, balanced, or unchanging system.

a. Chemical Equilibrium

b. Equilibrium

c. invariant mass

d. Gravitation

473. The capacity to do work or cause physical change; energy, strength, or

active power: the force of an explosion.

a. Inertia

b. Quantity

c. Lever

d. Force

474. Is a natural phenomenon by which all objects with mass attract each
other? In everyday life, gravitation is most commonly thought of as the
agency that gives objects weight.

a. gravitational attraction

b. universal gravitation

c. Gravitation
d. mass

475. Is a physical constant involved in the calculation of the gravitational

attraction between objects with mass? It appears in Newton’s law of
universal gravitation and in Einstein’s theory of general relativity.

a. gravitational attraction

b. universal gravitation

c. Gravitation

d. gravitational constant

476. Is the measurement of vertical distance, but has two meanings in

common use. It can either indicate how “tall” something is, or how “high up”
it is.

a. magnitude

b. Height

c. distance

d. none of these

477. Is a topic of science and engineering dealing with the mechanical

properties of liquids. Hydraulics is part of the more general discipline of fluid
power.

a. Hydraulics

b. physical body

c. fluid power

d. momentum

478. The tendency of a body to resist acceleration; the tendency of a body

at rest to remain at rest or of a body in straight line motion to stay in motion
in a straight line unless acted on by an outside force.

a. Inertia
b. energy

c. force

d. none of these

479. Occurring or completed without perceptible delay

a. volume

b. Shear

c. Instantaneous

d. none of these

480. Is the same for all frames of reference? A mass for a particle is m in the
equation
a. mass

b. invariant mass

c. force

d. all of these

481. That cannot be revoked or undone.

a. measurement

b. Irreversible

c. base unit

d. none of these

482. A device connecting two or more adjacent parts of a structure; a roller

joint allows adjacent parts to move controllably past one another; a rigid
joint prevents adjacent parts from moving or rotating past one another.

a. energy

b. velocity
c. force-field

d. joint

483. Is the base unit of mass in the International System of Units (known
also by its French-language initials “SI”).

a. mass

b. measurement

c. weight

d. kilogram

484. Is the long dimension of any object? The length of a thing is the
distance between its ends, its linear extent as measured from end to end.

a. distance

b. rigid

c. free body

d. length

485. A simple machine consisting of a rigid bar pivoted on a fixed point and
used to transmit force, as in raising or moving a weight at one end by
pushing down on the other.

a. Inertia

b. Quantity

c. Lever

d. Force

486. Weight distribution throughout a structure; loads caused by wind,

earthquakes, and gravity, for example, affect how weight is distributed
throughout a structure.

a. Angular Velocity
b. Load

c. Instantaneous

d. Brittle

487. A property by which it can be large or smaller than other objects of the
same kind; in technical terms, an ordering of the class of objects.

a. magnitude

b. Height

c. distance

d. none of these

488. Is a fundamental concept in physics, roughly corresponding to the

intuitive idea of “how much matter there is in an object”. Mass is a central
concept of classical mechanics and related subjects, and there are several
definitions of mass within the framework of relativistic kinematics.

a. mass

b. measurement

c. weight

d. kilogram

489. Is commonly defined as the substance of which physical objects are

composed, not counting the contribution of various energy or force-fields,
which are not usually considered to be matter per se.

a. mass

b. magnitude

c. matter

d. none of these
490. Science of the action of forces on material bodies. It forms a central
part of all physical science and engineering.

a. engineering mechanics

b. mechanics

c. mechanism

d. none of these

491. Is the estimation of the magnitude of some attribute of an object, such

as its length or weight, relative to a unit of measurement?

a. mass

b. measurement

c. weight

d. kilogram

492. Is the product of the mass and velocity of an object? Motion – The act
or process of changing position or place.

a. Hydraulics

b. physical body

c. fluid power

d. momentum

493. The three laws proposed by Sir Isaac Newton to define the concept of a
force and describe motion, used as the basis of classical mechanics.

a. law of inertia

b. Newton’s Law of Motion

c. Newton’s Law

d. none of these
494. A long, round pole of wood, concrete, or steel driven into the soil by
pile drivers

a. Chemical Equilibrium

b. Equilibrium

c. force

d. Pile

495. Is a collection of masses, taken to be one. For example, a cricket ball

can be considered an object but the ball also consists of many particles.

a. Hydraulics

b. physical body

c. fluid power

d. momentum

496. Is a kind of property which exists as magnitude or multitude?

a. magnitude

b. fluid power

c. quantity

d. none of these

497. Ability to resist deformation when subjected to a load; the measure of a

structure’s ability not to change shape when subjected to a load.

a. distance

b. rigid

c. free body

d. length
498. Is the effort to understand, or to understand better, how nature works,
with observable physical evidence as the basis of that understanding.

a. physics

b. science

c. physical evidence

d. load

499. A force that causes parts of a material to slide past one another in
opposite directions.

a. force

b. stress

c. shear

d. momentum

500. Is a stress state where the stress is parallel or tangential to a face of

the material, as opposed to normal stress when the stress is perpendicular
to the face.

a. shear stress

b. tensile stress

c. shear

d. none of these