SECTION 1

LISTENING COMPREHENSION
Time—approximately 35 minutes
(including the reading of the directions for each part)

In this section of the test, you will have an opportunity to demonstrate your ability to understand
conversations and talks in English. There are three parts to this section, with special directions
for each part. Answer all the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers
in this test. When you take the actual TOEFL test, you will not be allowed to take notes or write
in your test book. Try to work on Practice Test B in the same way.

Part A

Directions: In Part A you will hear short conversations between two people. After each
conversation, you will hear a question about the conversation. The conversations and questions
will not be repeated. After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your test book
and choose the best answer. Then on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and
fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

Here is an example.
On the recording, you hear:

In your test book, you read:

(A) He doesn’t like the painting either.

(B) He doesn’t know how to paint
(C) He doesn’t have any paintings.
(D) He doesn’t know what to do.

You learn from the conversation that neither the man nor the woman likes the painting. The best
answer to the question “What does the man mean?” is (A), “He doesn’t like the painting either.”
Therefore, the correct choice is (A).

1.

A. He wants to know which scarf the woman chose.

B. He wants to know what color the jacket is.
C. He thinks he selected a nice scarf.
D. He thinks any color would go well with the jacket.

2.
A. Bob has been married for a long time.
B. The woman should go to California.
C. He plans to go to the wedding.
D. He hasn’t been to California for a long time.

3.
 A. He wants a glass of water.
B. He won’t do as the woman asks.
C. He can’t wait any longer.
D. He’s looking for the waiter.

4.
A. It’s just past ten o’clock.
B. There’s no time to talk.
C. She needs a little more time.
D. She has more than ten cents.

5.
A. She appreciates the man’s help.
B. Her presentation was somewhat long.
C. She needed more time to prepare.
D. She worked hard on her presentation.

6.
A. She wants to exercise before she runs.
B. It’s too hot to go running.
C. Her jogging suit isn’t warm enough.
D. She already went jogging.

7.
A. To tell him they are busy.
B. To cancel an appointment.
C. To invite him to go to a film.
D. To ask him a question about homework.

8.
A. Keep looking for his wallet.
B. Report the theft of the wallet right away.
C. Put his wallet in his jacket pocket.
D. Be more careful with his wallet.

9.
A. She is on a special diet.
 B. She doesn’t like to walk to the cafeteria.
C. She thinks the cafeteria is too expensive.
D. She doesn’t eat lunch anymore.

10.
A. The man should look into buying a new car.
B. The car looks better than it used to.
C. The man should fly to Florida.
D. The man should get his car checked.

11.
A. Tickets are available for future performances.
B. The performance has been canceled.
C. She wants to see the show tomorrow.
D. The performance has already started.

12.
A. What is causing the problem.
B. When the faucet started leaking.
C. How old the faucet is.
D. How to deal with the problem.

13.
A. In a locker room.
B. In a department store.
C. In a shoe-repair shop.
D. At a track.

14.
A. It fell out of the camera.
B. Mary developed it in photography class.
C. Susan took it to be developed.
D. The man gave it to Susan.

15.
A. He got out of the shower to answer the phone.
B. He didn’t hear the phone ringing.
 C. There’s something wrong with the shower.
D. He took a shower earlier than usual.

16.
A. His vacation has been postponed.
B. He needs to take his medicine with him on vacation.
C. He is going to change his allergy medicine.
D. His allergies no longer bother him.

17.
A. She might be late for her chemistry class.
B. She’ll borrow a bike after class.
C. She might be delayed in lab.
D. She might ride her bike to the lab.

18.
A. Laurie doesn’t have much musical talent.
B. Laurie taught herself to play the guitar.
C. Laurie wants to play music with other people.
D. Laurie has a summer job playing guitar.

19.
A. Get a job on campus.
B. Take an electronics course.
C. Visit the electronics company.
D. Apply for a job with the electronics company.

20.
A. He no longer watches much television.
B. He prefers the comedies from the sixties.
C. Television comedies haven’t improved since the sixties.
D. He hasn't seen many of the old shows.

21.
A. The woman is satisfied that the book has been returned.
B. The woman doesn’t lend books to people.
C. The man is too embarrassed to borrow a book from the woman.
 D. The man can’t find the book he borrowed from the woman.

22.
A. He’s never been to a debate.
B. He thinks the team was eliminated.
C. He can’t go to the state competition.
D. He doesn’t know if the team was successful.

23.
A. Ask the professor if the course will be given again.
B. Postpone taking the course.
C. Request permission to take the courses together.
D. Take the course from a different professor.

24.
A. She also needs a new tennis racket.
B. She wants to borrow some money, too.
C. She doesn’t think Brian will repay the loan.
D. She couldn’t get Brian to play tennis.
25.

A. His violin is out of tune now.

B. He probably lost some of his skill on the violin.
C. He has worked as a violinist for a long time.
D. He's too old to begin studying the violin.

26.
A. He doesn’t expect to enjoy the theater.
B. He’s sorry he can’t go with the woman.
C. He thinks the theater will be too crowded.
D. He rarely goes to plays.

27.
A. He’ll see the exhibit after June.
B. He visited the new student several times.
C. He wants to exhibit his work at the Student Center.
D. He can see the exhibit before it closes.
28.
A. She is going to miss her first class.
B. She prefers going to the dentist later in the day.
C. The man will be finished before his first class.
D. The man might sleep late and miss his appointment.

29.
A. Put some money in her wallet.
B. Buy a band-concert ticket.
C. Make a donation.
D. Lend the man some money.

30.
A. Their friends would take them to the beach.
B. They wouldn’t mind taking the bus.
C. Someone would drive them home.
D. They wouldn’t be able to find a phone.

Part B

Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear longer conversations. After each conversation,
you will hear several questions. The conversations and questions will not be repeated.
•
After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your book and choose the best
answer. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that
corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
Remember, you should not take notes or write in your test pages.

31.
A. Relaxing at the seashore.
B. Visiting her parents.
C. Sailing on a boat.
D. Preparing for a race.

32.
A. She was invited only for the weekend.
B. The weather was too hot.
C. She had an appointment.
 D. She had schoolwork to do.

33.
A. She had to go home.
B. She was too tired to continue.
C. She had to finish her schoolwork.
D. She was thirsty.

34.
A. She doesn’t know how to swim.
B. The water was too deep.
C. The water was too cold.
D. She didn’t have enough time.

35.
A. A vacation trip to Yellowstone Park.
B. A lecture by a visiting professor.
C. Her biology thesis.
D. A research project.

36.
A. More buffalo are surviving the winter.
B. Fewer buffalo are dying of disease.
C. More buffalo are being born.
D. Fewer buffalo are being killed by hunters.

37.
A. She is from Wyoming.
B. She needs the money.
C. She has been studying animal diseases.
D. Her thesis adviser is heading the project.

38.
A. Collecting information about the bacteria.
B. Working on a cattle ranch.
C. Writing a paper about extinct animals.
D. Analyzing buffalo behavior.
Part C

Directions:In this part of the test, you will hear several short talks. After each talk, you will hear
some questions. The talks and the questions will not be repeated.

After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your book and choose the best
answer. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that
corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

Here is an example.

On the recording, you hear:

Now listen to a sample question.

In your book, you read:

(A) To demonstrate the latest use of computer graphics.

(B) To discuss the possibility of an economic depression.
(C) To explain the workings of the brain.
(D) To dramatize a famous mystery story.

The best answer to the question “What is the main purpose of the program?” is (C), ‘To explain
the workings of the brain.” Therefore, the correct choice is (C).

Now listen to another sample question.

In your book, you read:

(A) It is required of all science majors.

(B) It will never be shown again.
(C) It can help viewers improve their memory skills.
(D) It will help with course work.

The best answer to the question “Why does the speaker recommend watching the program?” is
(D), “It will help with course work.” Therefore, the correct choice is (D).

Remember, you should not take notes or write on your test pages

39.
A. To inform visitors of the park’s history.
B. To provide an overview of the park’s main attractions.
C. To show visitors remote places in the park.
D. To teach visitors how best to photograph wildlife.

40.
 A. It’s easy to get lost.
B. It requires enormous strength.
C. It’s a good group activity.
D. People shouldn’t do it in the winter.

41.
A. There are fewer tourists.
B. The entrance fees are lower.
C. The animals are more active.
D. There are fewer insects.

42.
A. To show a videotape on survival in outer space.
B. To gain support for the space program.
C. To describe her experience on space missions.
D. To inform the audience about the space suit.

43.
A. The lack of air pressure.
B. The extremely hot or cold temperatures.
C. Exposure to radiation.
D. An inadequately ventilated space suit.

44.
A. On the exterior of the space shuttle.
B. In the torso of the space suit.
C. In the helmet.
D. In the control center at NASA.

45.
A. A videotape.
B. A book.
C. A picture.
D. An oxygen tank.

46.
A. Another speaker will describe the helmet.
 B. The woman will talk about the space shuttle.
C. Someone from the audience will try on the helmet.
D. The woman will put on a space suit.

47.
A. To describe Twyla Tharp’s career.
B. To introduce a well-known dancer.
C. To provide background for a video presentation.
D. To encourage the audience to study dance.

48.
A. The dancers in the video had more experience with Tharp’s choreography.
B. Twyla Tharp was the lead dancer in the video.
C. The filming techniques made the dance easier to understand.
D. The new musical score was more appropriate for the topic.

49.
A. Jazz.
B. Folk.
C. Classical.
D. Rock.

50.
A. What the pineapple symbolizes.
B. Twyla Tharp’s career in dance.
C. How the video was filmed.
D. The quality of the music in the video.

This is the end of Section 1.

Section 2
Structure and Written Expression
Time: 25 minutes (including the reading of the directions)
Now set your clock for 25 minutes.

This section is designed to measure your ability to recognize language that is appropriate for
standard written English. There are two types of questions in this section, with special directions
for each type.

Structure

Directions: Questions 1-15 are incomplete sentences. Beneath each sentence you will see four
words or phrases, marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Choose the one word or phrase that best
completes the sentence. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in
the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

Example I

Geysers have often been compared to volcanoes ______ they both emit hot liquids from below
the Earth’s surface.
(A) due to .
(B) because
(C) in spite of
(D) regardless of

The sentence should read, “Geysers have often been compared to volcanoes because they
both emit hot liquids from below the Earth s surface. Therefore, you should choose (B).

Example II

During the early period of ocean navigation, ______ any need for sophisticated instruments and
techniques.
(A) that hardly
(B) when there hardly was
(C) hardly was
(D) there was hardly

The sentence should read, “During the early period of ocean navigation, there was hardly any
need for sophisticated instruments and techniques.” Therefore, you should choose (D).

Now begin work on the questions.

1. The ponderosa pine is ______ of most of the timber used by forest- product firms in the Black
Hills of South Dakota.

A. the source
B. as source
C. the source which
D. because the source
2. Computers that once took up entire rooms are now ______ to put on desktops and into
wristwatches.
A. small enough
B. smaller than
C. so small
D. as small as

3. According to some educators, the goal of teaching is to help students learn what ______ to
know to live a well-adjusted and successful life.
A. do they need
B. they need
C. they are needed
D. as they may need

4. The sapphire’s transparency to ultraviolet and infrared radiation makes ______ in optical
instruments.
A. it is of use
B. it uses
C. it a useful
D. it useful

5. ______ initial recognition while still quite young.

A. Most famous scientists achieved
B. That most famous scientists achieved
C. Most famous scientists who achieved
D. For most famous scientists to achieve

6. Mango trees, ______ densely covered with glossy leaves arid bear small fragrant flowers,
grow rapidly and can attain heights of up to 90 feet.
A. whose
B. which are
C. are when
D. which

7.______, the Canadian composer Barbara Pentland wrote four symphonies, three concertos,
and an opera, among other works.
A. An artist who, prolific
B. Is a prolific artist
 C. Prolific an artist
D. A prolific artist

8. The Chisos Mountains in Big Bend National Park in Texas were created by volcanic eruptions
that occurred______ .
A. the area in which dinosaurs roamed
B. when dinosaurs roamed the area
C. did dinosaurs roam the area
D. dinosaurs roaming the area

9. In bas-relief sculpture, a design projects very slightly from its background, ______ some
coins.
A. as on
B. because
C. the way that
D. similarly

10. Alaska found the first years of its statehood costly because it had to take over the expense
of services ______ previously by the federal government.
A. to provide
B. be provided
C. providing
D. provided

11. With age, the mineral content of human bones decreases, ______ them more fragile.
A. make
B. and to make
C. thereby making
D. which it makes

12. Not until Kentucky’s Mammoth Cave had been completely explored in 1972 ______ .
A. when was its full extent realized
B. that its full extent was realized
C. was its full extent realized
D. the realization of its full extent

13. The first explorer ______ California by land was Jedediah Strong Smith, a trapper who
crossed the southwestern deserts of the United States in 1826.
 A. that he reached
B. reached
C. to reach
D. reaching it

14. Written to be performed on a ______ , Thornton Wilder’s play Our Town depicts life in a
small New England community.
A. stage scenery of bare
B. bare of stage scenery
C. scenery bare of stage
D. stage bare of scenery

15. ______ many copper mines in the state of Arizona, a fact which contributes significantly to
the state’s economy.
A. They are
B. There are
C. Of the
D. The

Written Expression

Directions: In questions 16-40 each sentence has four underlined words or phrases, Identify
the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence to be correct.
Then on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill m the space that
corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

Example I
Guppies are sometimes call rainbow fish because of the males’ bright colors.
A. call
B. fish
C. because of
D. bright

The sentence should read, “Guppies are sometimes called rainbow fish because of the males
bright colors. Therefore, you should choose (A).
.
Example II
Serving several term in Congress, Shirley Chisholm became an important United
States politician.
A. Serving
B. term
C. important
D. politician
The sentence should read, “Serving several term in Congress, Shirley Chisholm became an
important United States politician.” Therefore, you should choose (B).

Now begin work on the questions.

16. Margaret Mead studied many different cultures, and she was one of the first
anthropologists to photograph hers subjects.
studied
different
of the first anthropologists
hers

17. Talc, a soft mineral with a variety of uses, sold is in slabs or in powdered form.
a
variety
sold is
form

18. During the 1870’s iron workers in Alabama proved they could produce iron by burning iron
ore with coke, instead than with charcoal..
During
could
burning
instead

19. Geologists at the Hawaiian Volcano Observatory rely on a number of instruments to

studying the volcanoes in Hawaii.
Geologists
rely
a number
to studying

20. Underlying aerodynamics and all other branches of theoretical mechanics are the laws of
motion who were developed in the seventeenth century.
all
branches
are
who
21. Was opened in 1918, the Phillips Collection in Washington, D.C., was the first museum in
the United States devoted to modem art.
Was opened
in
devoted to
art

22. A mortgage enables a person to buy property without paying for it outright; thus more people
are able to enjoy to own a house.
enables
to buy
without
to own
.
23. Alike ethnographers, ethnohistorians make systematic observations, but they also gather
data from documentary and oral sources.
Alike
make
also
sources

24. Basal body temperature refers to the most lowest temperature of

a healthy individual during waking hours.
refers
most lowest
healthy
during

25. Research in the United States on acupuncture has focused on it use in pain relief and
anesthesia.
Research
has focused
it
pain relief

26. The Moon’s gravitational field cannot keep atmospheric gases from escape into space.
gravitational
cannot
 from escape
space

27. Although the pecan tree is chiefly value for its fruit, its wood is used extensively for flooring,
furniture, boxes, and crates.
Although
value
is used
for

28. Born in Texas in 1890, Katherine Anne Porter produced three collection of
short stories before publishing her well-known novel Ship of Fools in 1962.
Born
collection
stories
publishing

29. Insulation from cold, protect against dust and sand, and camouflage are among
the functions of hair for animals.
protect
sand
are
functions

30. The notion that students are not sufficiently involved in their education is one reason for
the recently surge of support for undergraduate research.
The notion
involved
recently
support of

31. As secretary of transportation from 1975 to 1977, William Coleman worked to help the
bankrupt railroads in the northeastern United States solved their financial problems.
As
to help
solved
financial
32. Faults in the Earth’s crust are most evidently in
sedimentary formations, where they interrupt previously continuous layers.
evidently
formations
where
inturrupt

33. Many flowering plants benefit of pollination by adult butterflies and moths.
flowering
of
adult
and

34. A number of the American Indian languages spoken at the time of the European arrival in
the New World in the late fifteen century have become extinct.
of
spoken
time
fifteen

35. George Gershwin was an American composer whose concert works joined the sounds of
jazz with them of traditional orchestration.
whose
works joined
with
them

36. One of the problems of United States agriculture that has persisted during the 1920’s until
the present day is the tendency of farm income to lag behind the costs of production.
One of the problems
during the
behind
production

37. Volcanism occurs on Earth in several geological setting, most of which are associated with
the boundaries of the enormous, rigid plates that make up the lithosphere.
occurs
setting
 enermous
make up

38. Early European settlers in North America used medicines they made from plants native to
treat colds, pneumonia, and ague, an illness similar to malaria.
used
they
plants native
an

39. Some insects bear a remarkable resemblance to dead twigs, being long, slenderness,
wingless, and brownish in color.
Some insects
being
slenderness
color

40. A food additive is any chemical that food manufacturers intentional add to their products.
additive
any chemical
intentional
products

This is the end of Section 2

Section 3
Reading Comprehension
Time: 55 minutes (including the reading of the directions)
Now set your clock for 55 minutes.

Directions: In this section you will read several passages. Each one is followed by several
questions about it. For questions 1-50, you are to choose the one best answer, ( A), (B), (C), or
(D), to each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the
space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that
passage.

Read the following passage:

The railroad was not the first institution to impose regularity on society, or to draw attention to
the importance of precise timekeeping. For as long as merchants have set out their wares at
daybreak and communal festivities have been celebrated. Line people have been in rough
agreement with their neighbors as to the time of day. The (5) value of this tradition is today more
apparent than ever. Were it not for public acceptance of a single yardstick of time, social life
would be unbearably chaotic: the massive daily transfers of goods, services, and information
would proceed in fits and starts; the very fabric of modem society would begin to unravel.

Example I

What is the main idea of the passage?

(A) In modem society we must make more time for our neighbors.
(B) The traditions of society are timeless.
(C) An accepted way of measuring time is essential for the smooth functioning of society.
(D) Society judges people by the times at which they conduct certain activities.

The main idea of the passage is that societies need to agree about how time is to be measured
in order to function smoothly. Therefore, you should choose (C).

Example II

In line 5, the phrase “this tradition” refers to

(A) the practice of starting the business day at dawn
(B) friendly relations between neighbors
(C) the railroad’s reliance on time schedules
(D) people’s agreement on the measurement of time

The phrase “this tradition” refers to the preceding clause, “people have been in rough
agreement with their neighbors as to the time of day.” Therefore, you should choose (D).

Now begin work on the questions.

Questions l-8

With Robert Laurent and William Zorach, direct carving enters into the story of modem
sculpture in the United States. Direct carving — in which the sculptors themselves carve stone
or wood with mallet and chisel — must be recognized as something more than just a technique.
Implicit in it is an aesthetic principle as well: that the medium has certain qualities of beauty and
expressiveness with which sculptors must bring their own aesthetic sensibilities into harmony.
For example, sometimes the shape or veining in a piece of stone or wood suggests, perhaps
even dictates, not only the ultimate form, but even the subject matter.
The technique of direct carving was a break with the nineteenth-century tradition in which
the making of a clay model was considered the creative act and the work was then turned over
to studio assistants to be cast in plaster or bronze or carved in marble. Neoclassical sculptors
seldom held a mallet or chisel in their own hands, readily conceding that the assistants they
employed were far better than they were at carving the finished marble.
With the tum-of-the-century Crafts movement and the discovery of non-traditional sources of
inspiration, such as wooden African figures and masks, there arose a new urge for hands-on,
personal execution of art and an interaction with the medium. Even as early as the 1880’s and
1890’s, nonconformist European artists were attempting direct carving. By the second decade of
the twentieth century, Americans — Laurent and Zorach most notably — had adopted it as their
primary means of working.
Born in France, Robert Laurent (1890-1970) was a prodigy who received his education in
the United States. In 1905 he was sent to Paris as an apprentice to an art dealer, and in the
years that followed he witnessed the birth of Cubism, discovered primitive art, and learned the
techniques of woodcarving from a frame maker.
Back in New York City by 1910, Laurent began carving pieces such as The Priestess,
which reveals his fascination with African, pre-Columbian, and South Pacific art. Taking a
walnut plank the sculptor carved the expressive, stylized design.
It is one of the earliest examples of direct carving in American sculpture. The plank’s form
dictated the rigidly frontal view and the low relief. Even its irregular shape must have appealed
to Laurent as a break with a long-standing tradition that required a sculptor to work within a
perfect rectangle or square.

1. The word “medium” in passage could be used to refer to

A. stone or wood
B. mallet and chisel
C. technique
D. principle

2. What is one of the fundamental principles of direct carving?

A. A sculptor must work with talented assistants.
B. The subject of a sculpture should be derived from classical stories.
C. The material is an important element in a sculpture.
D. Designing a sculpture is a more creative activity than carving it.

3.The word “dictates” in passage is closest in meaning to

A. reads aloud
B. determines
C. includes
 D. records

4. How does direct carving differ from the nineteenth-century tradition of sculpture?
A. Sculptors are personally involved in the carving of a piece.
B. Sculptors find their inspiration in neoclassical sources.
C. Sculptors have replaced the mallet and chisel with other tools.
D. Sculptors receive more formal training.

5. The word “witnessed” in passage is closest in meaning to

A. influenced
B. studied
C. validated
D. observed

6. Where did Robert Laurent learn to carve?

A. New York
B. Africa
C. The South Pacific
D. Paris

7. The phrase “a break with” in passage is closest in meaning to

A. a destruction of
B. a departure from
C. a collapse of
D. a solution to

8. The piece titled The Priestess has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT
A. The design is stylized.
B. It is made of marble.
C. The carving is not deep.
D. It depicts the front of a person.

Questions 9-19

Birds that feed in flocks commonly retire together into roosts. The reasons for roosting
communally are not always obvious, but there are some likely benefits. In winter especially, it is
important for birds to keep warm at night and conserve precious food reserves. One way to do
this is to find a sheltered roost. Solitary roosters shelter in dense vegetation or enter a cavity —
horned larks dig holes in the ground and ptarmigan burrow into snow banks — but the effect of
sheltering is magnified by several birds huddling together in the roosts, as wrens, swifts, brown
creepers, bluebirds, and anis do. Body contact reduces the surface area exposed to the cold air,
so the birds keep each other warm. Two kinglets huddling together were found to reduce their
heat losses by a quarter and three together saved a third of their heat.
The second possible benefit of communal roosts is that they act as “information centers.”
During the day, parties of birds will have spread out to forage over a very large area. When they
return in the evening some will have fed well, but others may have found little to eat. Some
investigators have observed that when the birds set out again next morning, those birds that did
not feed well on the previous day appear to follow those that did. The behavior of common and
lesser kestrels may illustrate different feeding behaviors of similar birds with different roosting
habits. The common kestrel hunts vertebrate animals in a small, familiar hunting ground,
whereas the very similar lesser kestrel feeds on insects over a large area. The common kestrel
roosts and hunts alone, but the lesser kestrel roosts and hunts in flocks, possibly so one bird
can learn from others where to find insect swarms.
Finally, there is safety in numbers at communal roosts since there will always be a few birds
awake at any given moment to give the alarm. But this increased protection is
partially counteracted by the fact that mass roosts attract predators and are especially
vulnerable if they are on the ground. Even those in trees can be attacked by birds of prey. The
birds on the edge are at greatest risk since predators find it easier to catch small birds perching
at the margins of the roost.

9. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. How birds find and store food
B. How birds maintain body heat in the winter
C. Why birds need to establish territory
D. Why some species of birds nest together

10. The word “conserve” in the passage is closest in meaning to

A. retain
B. watch
C. locate
D. share

11. Ptarmigan keep warm in the winter by

A. huddling together on the ground with other birds
B. building nests in trees
C. burrowing into dense patches of vegetation
D. digging tunnels into the snow

12. The word “magnified” in the passage is closest in meaning to

A. caused
B. modified
 C. intensified
D. combined

13. The author mentions kinglets in the passage as an example of birds that
A. protect themselves by nesting in holes
B. nest with other species of birds
C. nest together for warmth
D. usually feed and nest in pairs

14. The word “forage” in the passage is closest in meaning to

A. fly
B. assemble
C. feed
D. rest

15. Which of the following statements about lesser and common kestrels is true?
A. The lesser kestrel and the common kestrel have similar diets.
B. The lesser kestrel feeds sociably but the common kestrel does not.
C. The common kestrel nests in larger flocks than does the lesser kestrel.
D. The common kestrel nests in trees: the lesser kestrel nests on the ground.

16. The word “counteracted” in the passage is closest in meaning to

A. suggested
B. negated
C. measured
D. shielded

17. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as an advantage derived by birds
that huddle together while sleeping?
A. Some members of the flock warn others of impending dangers.
B. Staying together provides a greater amount of heat for the whole flock.
C. Some birds in the flock function as information centers for others who are looking for
food.
D. Several members of the flock care for the young.

18. Which of the following is a disadvantage of communal roosts that is mentioned in the
passage?
A. Diseases easily spread among the birds.
 B. Groups are more attractive to predators than individual birds are.
C. Food supplies are quickly depleted.
D. Some birds in the group will attack the others.

19. The word “they” in the last paragraph refers to

A. a few birds
B. mass roosts
C. predators
D. trees

Questions 20-30

Before the mid-nineteenth century, people in the United States ate most foods only in
season. Drying, smoking, and salting could preserve meat for a short time, but the availability of
fresh meat, like that of fresh milk, was very limited; there was no way to prevent spoilage. But in
1810 a French inventor named Nicolas Appert developed the cooking-and-sealing process of
canning. And in the 1850’s an American named Gail Borden developed a means of condensing
and preserving milk. Canned goods and condensed milk became more common during the
1860’s, but supplies remained low because cans had to be made by hand. By 1880, however,
inventors had fashioned stamping and soldering machines that mass-produced cans from
tinplate. Suddenly all kinds of food could be preserved and bought at all times of the year.
Other trends and inventions had also helped make it possible for Americans to vary their
daily diets. Growing urban populations created demand that encouraged fruit and vegetable
farmers to raise more produce. Railroad refrigerator cars enabled growers and meat packers to
ship perishables great distances and to preserve them for longer periods. Thus, by the 1890’s,
northern city dwellers could enjoy southern and western strawberries, grapes, and tomatoes,
previously available for a month at most, for up to six months of the year. In addition, increased
use of iceboxes enabled families to store perishables. An easy means of producing ice
commercially had been invented in the 1870’s, and by 1900 the nation had more than two
thousand commercial ice plants, most of which made home deliveries. The icebox became
a fixture in most homes and remained so until the mechanized refrigetator replaced it in the
1920’s and 1930’s.
Almost everyone now had a more diversified diet. Some people continued to eat mainly
foods that were heavy in starches or carbohydrates, and not everyone could afford
meat. Nevertheless, many families could take advantage of previously unavailable fruits,
vegetables, and dairy products to achieve more varied fare.

20. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. Causes of food spoilage
B. Commercial production of ice
C. Inventions that led to changes in the American diet
D. Population movements in the nineteenth century

21. The phrase “in season" in the passage refers to

 A. a kind of weather
B. a particular time of year
C. an official schedule
D. a method of flavoring food

22. The word “prevent” in the passage is closest in meaning to

A. estimate
B. avoid
C. correct
D. confine

23. During the 1860’s, canned food products were

A. unavailable in rural areas
B. shipped in refrigerator cars
C. available in limited quantities
D. a staple part of the American diet

24. It can be inferred that railroad refrigerator cars came into use
A. before 1860
B. before 1890
C. after 1900
D. after 1920

25. The word “them” in the second paragraph refers to

A. refrigerator cars
B. perishables
C. growers
D. distances

26. The word “fixture” in the passage is closest in meaning to

A. luxury item
B. substance
C. commonplace object
D. mechanical device

27. The author implies that in the 1920’s and 1930’s home deliveries of ice
A. decreased in number
 B. were on an irregular schedule
C. increased in cost
D. occurred only in the summer

28. The word “Nevertheless" in the passage is closest in meaning to

A. therefore
B. because
C. occasionally
D. however

29. Which of the following types of food preservation was NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Drying
B. Canning
C. Cold storage
D. Chemical additives

30. Which of the following statements is supported by the passage?

A. Tin cans and iceboxes helped to make many foods more widely available.
B. Commercial ice factories were developed by railroad owners.
C. Most farmers in the United States raised only fruits and vegetables.
D. People who lived in cities demanded home delivery of foods.

Questions 31-38

The ability of falling cats to right themselves in midair and land on their feet has been a
source of wonder for ages. Biologists long regarded it as an example of adaptation by natural
selection, but for physicists it bordered on the miraculous. Newton’s laws of motion assume that
the total amount of spin of a body cannot change unless an external torque speeds it up or
slows it down. If a cat has no spin when it is released and experiences no external torque, it
ought not to be able to twist around as it falls.
In the speed of its execution, the righting of a tumbling cat resembles a magician’s trick.
The gyrations of the cat in midair are too fast for the human eye to follow, so the process is
obscured. Either the eye must be speeded up, or the cat’s fall slowed down for the phenomenon
to be observed, A century ago the former was accomplished by means of high-speed
photography using equipment now available in any pharmacy. But in the nineteenth century the
capture on film of a falling cat constituted a scientific experiment.
The experiment was described in a paper presented to the Paris Academy in 1894. Two
sequences of twenty photographs each, one from the side and one from behind, show a white
cat in the act of righting itself. Grainy and quaint though they are, the photos show that the cat
was dropped upside down, with no initial spin, and still landed on its feet. Careful analysis of the
photos reveals the secret: As the cat rotates the front of its body clockwise, the rear and tail
twist counterclockwise, so that the total spin remains zero, in perfect accord with Newton’s laws.
Halfway down, the cat pulls in its legs before reversing its twist and then extends them again,
with the desired end result. The explanation was that while no body can acquire spin without
torque, a flexible one can readily change its orientation, or phase. Cats know this instinctively,
but scientists could not be sure how it happened until they increased the speed of their
perceptions a thousandfold.

31. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. The explanation of an interesting phenomenon
B. Miracles in modem science
C. Procedures in scientific investigation
D. The differences between biology and physics

32. The word “process” in the passage refers to

A. the righting of a tumbling cat
B. the cat’s fall slowed down
C. high-speed photography
D. a scientific experiment

33. Why are the photographs mentioned in line 2 paragraph 3 referred to as an “experiment”?
A. The photographs were not very clear.
B. The purpose of the photographs was to explain the process.
C. The photographer used inferior equipment
D. The photographer thought the cat might be injured.

34. Which of the following can be inferred about high-speed photography in the late 1800’s?
A. It was a relatively new technology.
B. The necessary equipment was easy to obtain.
C. The resulting photographs are difficult to interpret.
D. It was not fast enough to provide new information.

35. The word “rotates” in the passage is closest in meaning to

A. drops
B. turns
C. controls
D. touches

36. According to the passage, a cat is able to right itself in midair because it is
A. frightened
B. small
 C. intelligent
D. flexible

37. The word “readily” in line 24 is closest in meaning to

A. only
B. easily
C. slowly
D. certainly

38. How did scientists increase “the speed of their perceptions a thousandfold” (last line)?
A. By analyzing photographs
B. By observing a white cat in a dark room
C. By dropping a cat from a greater height
D. By studying Newton’s laws of motion

Questions 39-50

The changing profile of a city in the United States is apparent in the shifting definitions used
by the United States Bureau of the Census. In 1870 the census officially distinguished the
nation’s “urban” from its “rural” population for the first time. “Urban population” was defined as
persons living in towns of 8,000 inhabitants or more. But after 1900 it meant persons living in
incorporated places having 2,500 or more inhabitants. .
Then, in 1950 the Census Bureau radically changed its definition of “urban” to take account
of the new vagueness of city boundaries. In addition to persons living in incorporated units of
2,500 or more, the census now included those who lived in unincorporated units of that size,
and also all persons living in the densely settled urban fringe, including both incorporated and
unincorporated areas located around cities of 50,000 inhabitants or more. Each such unit,
conceived as an integrated economic and social unit with a large population nucleus, was
named a Standard Metropolitan
Statistical Area (SMSA).
Each SMSA would contain at least (a) one central city with 50,000 inhabitants or more or
(b) two cities having shared boundaries and constituting, for general economic and social
purposes, a single community with a combined population of at least 50,000, the smaller of
which must have a population of at least 15,000. Such an area would include the county
in which the central city was located, and adjacent counties that were found to be metropolitan
in character and economically and socially integrated with the county of the central city. By
1970, about two-thirds of the population of the United States was living in these urbanized
areas, and of that figure more than half were living outside the central cities.
While the Census Bureau and the United States government used the term SMSA (by 1969
there were 233 of them), social scientists were also using new terms to describe the elusive,
vaguely defined areas reaching out from what used to be simple “towns” and “cities.” A host of
terms came into use: “metropolitan regions,” “polynucleated population groups,” “conurbations,”
“metropolitan clusters,”
“megalopolises,” and so on.
39.What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. How cities in the United States began and developed
B. Solutions to overcrowding in cities
C. The changing definition of an urban area
D. How the United States Census Bureau conducts a census

40. According to the passage, the population of the United States was first classified as rural or
urban in
A. 1870
B. 1900
C. 1950
D. 1970

41. The word “distinguished” in the passage is closest in meaning to

A. differentiated
B. removed
C. honored
D. protected

42. Prior to 1900, how many inhabitants would a town have to have before being defined as
urban?
A. 2,500
B. 8,000
C. 15,000
D. 50,000

43. According to the passage, why did the Census Bureau revise the definition of urban in
1950?
A. City borders had become less distinct.
B. Cities had undergone radical social change.
C. Elected officials could not agree on an acceptable definition.
D. New businesses had relocated to larger cities.

44. The word “those” in the passage refers to

A. boundaries
B. persons
C. units
 D. areas

45. The word “constituting” in the passage is closest in meaning to

A. located near
B. determined by
C. calling for
D. making up

46. The word “which” in the passage refers to a smaller

A. population
B. city
C. character
D. figure

47. Which of the following is NOT true of an SMSA?

A. It has a population of at least 50,000.
B. It can include a city’s outlying regions.
C. It can include unincorporated regions.
D. It consists of at least two cities.

48. By 1970, what proportion of the population in the United States did NOT live in an SMSA?
A. 3/4
B. 2/3
C. 1/2
D. 1/3

49. The Census Bureau first used the term “.SMSA” in

A. 1900
B. 1950
C. 1969
D. 1970

50. Where in the passage does the author mention names used by social scientists for an urban
area?
A. First sentence paragraph 1
B. First sentence paragraph 2
C. Last sentence paragraph 3
D. Last sentence paragraph 4