Subject Code: 20MCA1CC3

JAMAL MOHAMED COLLEGE (Autonomous)

TIRUCHIRAPPALLI – 620 020
Objective Type Questions
Department of Computer Science
Semester: I UG / PG: PG-MCA
Title of the Paper: Core – III: DATABASE SYSTEMS
UNIT I
1. Duplicate data in multiple data files is called_____
(a) data manipulation (b) data redundancy (c) data inconsistency (d) metadata

2. Which of the three schemas used to represents how users view the database?
(a) internal (b) external (c) implementation (d) conceptual

3. If employee is the entity type then Michael, Smith is the entity_______

(a) characteristics (b) field (c) identifier (d) instance

4. Transaction of various DML statements into the lower-level file system commands is done
by_____

(a)query processor (b)storage manager (c)query manager (d) storage processor

5. Which of the following is correct?

(a) Room_no is a candidate key

(b) Phone is a candidate key

(c) (Cabin_no, Phone) and (Cabin_no, Room_no) are the candidate keys.

(d) (Room_no, Phone) and (Room_no, Cabin_no) are the candidate keys.

6. Which key is used to make relations between two tables?

(a) Foreign (b) Primary (c) Candidate (d) Composite

7. Which one of the following uniquely identifies the elements in the relation?
(a) secondary key (b) primary key (c) composite key (d) foreign key
8. Find the ID, name, dept name, salary for instructors whose salary is greater than $80,000?
Based on the above question, which of the following query is correct?
(a)Э t ∈ r (Q(t))
(b){t | Э s ε instructor (t[ID] = s[ID]∧ s[salary] > 80000)}
(c) {t | Э s ε instructor (s[ID]∧ s[salary] > 80000)}
(d) {t | t ε instructor ∧ t[salary] > 80000}
9. Which of the following symbol is used in the place of except?

(a) ^ (b) V (c) ¬ (d) ~

10. “Find all students who have taken all courses offered in the Biology department.” The
expressions that matches this sentence is ________.

(a) Э t ε r (Q(t)) (b) ¬ t ε r (Q(t)) (c) ~ t ε r (Q(t)) (d) ∀ t ε r (Q(t))

11. In domain relational calculus “there exist” can be expressed as______.

(a) (P1(x)) (b) (P1(x)) Э x (c) V x (P1(x)) (d) Э x (P1(x))

12. When we write ∃n in the domain calculus, n refers to a ____________

(a) domain value (b) tuple value (c) domain attributes (d) domain r

13. In relational algebra, the ______ operation is denoted by ρ

(a) select (b) projection (c) rename (d) except
14. The ___________ operation, denoted by -, allows us to find tuples that are in one relation but
are not in another.
(a) Union (b)Set-difference (c) Difference (d) Intersection
15. x θ y, x and y are domain variables and θ is a ___________
(a) logical operator (b) arithmetic operator
(c) unary operator (d) comparison operator
16. Cartesian product in relational algebra is a
(a) unary operator (b) binary operator (c) ternary operator (d) boolean operator
17. In tuple relational calculus, the value of tuple on attribute denoted by ________
(a) t[τ] (b) t[ϵA] (c) t[A] (d) A
18. Which of the following levels of abstraction involves the views of data?
(a) external level (b) conceptual level (c) physical level (d) internal level
19. The ability to modify the internal schema without causing any change to the external schema
is called____.
(a) Physical data independence (b) Logical Data independence
(c) External Data independence (d) conceptual independence
20. The person who is having central control over data and programs accessing that data is
called_____.
(a) DBA (b) Database Designer (c) Developer d) Naïve user

21. Clerical staff in any bank is a ______.

(a) specialized user (b) naïve user (c) programmers (d) sophisticate user

22. The information about data in a database is called _____.

(a) Meta data (b) Tera data (c) Hyper data (d) view data

23. Domain constraints, functional dependency and referential integrity are special form
_________
(a) Foreign key (b) Primary key (c) Assertion (d) Referential constraint

24. The language used in application programs to request data from the DBMS is referred to as
the ________.

(a) DCL (b) DDL (c) QBE (d) DML

25. Which of the following is NOT a good primary key _____?

(a) Social security number (b) Order number (c) Zip code (d) Student ID number

26. The actual content in the database at a particular point is called ____
(a) Schema (b) Attribute (c) Parameter (d) Instance

27. DBMS is a set of __________ to access the data.

(a) Codes (b) Programs (c) Information (d) Metadata
28. A level that describes data stored in a database and the relationships among the data.
(a) physical (b) logical (c) user (d) view

29. _________manages the allocation of space on disk storage and the data structures used to
represent information stored on disk.
(a) File manager (b) Buffer manger (c) Transaction manager` (d) Integrity manager
30. A tuple is also known as a(n) __________
(a) table (b) relation (c) row (d) field
UNIT II
31. What is the use of the symbol '*' in select statement?
(a) display all attributes in a relation (b) display all row in a relation
(c) display based on condition (d) display specific column

32. In SQL, to save typing effort by _______

(a) Subqueries (b) variable (c) like operator (d) tuple variable

33. Choose the correct SQL query

(a) select avg(salary) form emp; (b) select ename from avg(balance)
(c) select avg(balance) from emp; (d) select avg(balance)from emp

34. ______ matches any values that start with “J" and ends with “y"

(a) J%Y (b) %JY% (c) %_J_Y (d) %JY

35. Which of the following join is also called as an inner join?

(a) self join (b) cross join (c) equi join (d) natural join

36. The FROM clause is used to ____

(a) Specify what tablewe are selecting (b) Specify the column to be selected
(c) specify range for search condition (d) specific values

37. ______ operation does not eliminate duplicate values.

(a) union (b) union all (c) intersect (d) except all

38. To list all cities whose humidity is 89, Which one of the following query is correct?

(a) SELECT city WHERE humidity = 89;

(b) SELECT city FROM weather WHERE humidity = 89;
(c) SELECT* FROM weather WHERE humidity='89'
(d) SELECT humidity = 89 FROM weather;
39. The______condition allows a general predicate over the relations being joined.
(a) having (b) set (c) case (d) on
40. Which of the following is not true about the ALTER TABLE statement?
(a) Add constraints (b) It can modify existing columns
(c) It can add a new column (d) It can add a new row
41. Which one of the following aggregate function returns number of rows?
(a) sum (b) count (c) min (d) max
42. Which of the following is an example of one to many relationships?
(a) Student-roll number (b) author-book (c) Mother-Daughter (d) daughter-mother

43. Which of the following is an example of one to one relationship?

(a) employee-id (b) Person-automobile
(c) Mother-Daughter (d) Person-phone number

44. A relationship between countries and capitals is an example of ________ relationship.

(a) One to one (b) One to many (c) Many to many (d) Many to one

45. An entity related to itself in an ERD model refers to

(a) Recursive relationship (b) One to many relationship
(c) Many to many relationship (d) One to one relationship

46. In an ER diagram a rectangle represents

(a) Weak entity (b) Relationship (c) Attribute (d) Entity set

47. Which is not an example of a strong entity type?

(a)Course (b) Department (c) Student_Id (d) Student

48. An entity type whose existence depends on another entity type is called _________ entity
(a) Strong (b) Weak (c) Dependent (d) Variant

49. A person name, birthday and social security number are all examples of ______.
(a) Entities (b) Attributes (c) Relationships (d) Descriptors

50. An example of a multi-valued attribute might be ______.

(a) Student_Address (b) College Degree (c) Student_GPA (d) ID_Number

51. A weak entity is one which _____

(a) Does not have a unique identifier (b) Is not in a relationship with any other entities
(c) Cannot exist in the database by itself (d) Is a subtype

52. A _____ attribute need not be physically stored within the database
(a)Single valued (b) Derived (c) Multi valued (d) Composite

53. If an entity can exist apart from one or more related entities it is said to be_____independent.
(a) Existence (b) Relationship (c) Business (d) Weak

54. A Relationship is an association between_____

(a) Fields (b) Objects (c) Entities (d) Databases
55. Drop table cannot be used to drop a table referenced by a _____ constraint.
(a) Primary key (b) Local key (c) Composite key (d) Foreign key

56. Attributes which have a single element are called:

(a) Simple attributes (b) Group attributes
(c) Semantic object attributes (d) Paired attributes

57. Which of the following is NOT a good primary key _____

(a) Social security number (b) Order number (c) Zip code (d) Student ID number

58. How many primary keys can a table have _____

(a) One (b) At least one, but not more than two (c) Between 1 and 5 (d)No limit

59. Date is the type of attribute:

(a) Simple (b) Composite (c) Single values (d) Multi valued
60. Which of the following statements is correct?
(i) an entity is an object to the real world
(ii) entity is described using attributes
(iii) attributes are described using entity
(iv) each attribute must identify a domain
(v) we can have more than 1 candidate key

(a) i,iii,v ( b) ii,iv (c) i,iii,iv (d) i,ii,iv,v

61. A candidate key is _____.

(a) Primary key (b) The primary key selected to be the key of a relation
(c) An attribute or group of attributes that can be the primary key (d) All

UNIT III

62. In 3NF, which form of dependency is removed _____.

(a) Functional (b) Non-functional (c) Associative (d) Transitive

63. The attribute on the left-hand side of the arrow In a functional dependency is _____.
(a) Candidate key (b) Determinant (c) Foreign key (d) Primary key

64. A relation is in 2NF if it is in 1NF and all its non-key attributes are _____.
(a) Dependent on part of the primary key (b) Dependent on the entire primary key
(c) Independent of the primary key (d) Independent of any other relation

65. In 2NF which forms of dependency are removed?

(a) Functional (b) Partial (c) Associative (d) Transitive
66. When the determinant contains two attributes?
(a) The first attribute determines the dependent attribute
(b) The second attribute determines the dependent attribute
(c) Both attributes determine the dependent attribute
(d) Either the first or second attribute determines the dependent attribute

67. Which of the following is true?

(a) A relation in BCNF is always in 3NF (b) A relation in 3NF is always in BCNF
(c) BCNF and 3NF are same (d) A relation in BCNF is not in 3NF

68. The FD A→ B, DB→ C implies

(a) DA→ C (b) A→ C (c) B→ A (d) DB→A
69. A relation is in ____________ if an attribute of a composite key is dependent on an attribute
of other composite key.
(a) 2NF (b) 3NF (c) BCNF (d) 1NF
70. A table is in the __________. if only candidate keys are the determinants.
(a) functional dependency (b) transitive dependency (c) 4 NF (d) BCNF
71. Reflexivity property says that X → Y is true if Y is ____________
(a) Subset of X (b) Null set of X (c) Superset of Y (d) Subset of Y
72. The normal form which satisfies multi-valued dependencies and which is in BCNF is
(a) 4 NF (b) 3 NF (c) 2 NF (d) All of the mentioned

73. Fifth Normal form is concerned with _________

(a) Functional dependency (b) Multi-valued dependency
(c) Join dependency (d) Domain-key

74. Which of the following is not Armstrong’s Axiom?

(a) Reflexivity rule (b) Transitivity rule (c) Pseudo-transitivity rule (d) Augmentation rule

75. Tables in second normal form (2NF):

(a) Eliminate all hidden dependencies
(b) Eliminate the possibility of insertion anomalies
(c) Have a composite key
(d) Have all non-key fields depend on the whole primary key
76. For a relation R with schema R (A, B, C, D), let us assume that A is the primary key. And, R
consists of the set of functional dependencies F = {A → B, A → C, AB → C, C → D}.
Which of the following would violate the 3NF rule?
(a) AB → C (b) C → D (c) A → BCD (d) None of the above
77. If α→β holds then so does _______
(a) γα → γβ (b) α →→ γβ (c) both (a) and (b) (d) γα → rβ
78. If A → B and C → D then AC → BD
(a) Decomposition (b) Augmentation (c) Transitivity (d) Composition
79. The left and right hand sides of an FD are sometimes called the _______
(a) Dependent (b) interdependent (c) determinant (d) partially determinant
80. Considering functional dependency, one in which removal of some attributes does not affect
dependency is called
(a) full functional dependency (b) partial dependency
(c) prime functional dependency (d) transitive dependency
81. An FD is __________ if and only if the right hand side is a subset of left-hand side.
(a) trivial (b) non-trivial (c) singleton set (d) dependency prevention
82. ________ is used to indicate the property of a relation scheme that can be decomposed loss-
less into three or more simpler relation.
(a) DKNF (b) join dependency (c) trivial dependency (d) non-transitive
83. If attributes A and B determine attribute C, then it is also true that____________
(a) A → C (b) B → C (c) (A, B) is a composite determinant (d) C is a determinant. 84. If
attribute A determines both attributes B and C, then it is also true that _________
(a) A → B (b) B → A (c) C → A (d) (B, C) → A
85. If both the functional dependencies: X→Y and Y→X hold for two attributes X and Y then
the relationship between X and Y is
(a) M:N (b) M:1 (c) 1:1 (d) 1:M
86. Functional Dependencies are the types of constraints that are based on______
(a) Key (b) Key revisited (c) Superset key (d) constraints
87. Rule which states that addition of same attributes to right side and left side will results in
other valid dependency is classified as___________
(a) referential rule (b) inferential rule (c) augmentation rule (d) reflexive rule
88. Dependency preservation is not guaranteed in
(a) BCNF (b) 3NF (c) PJNF (d) DKNF
89. Which of the following is not a consequence of non-normalized database?
(a) Update Anomaly (b) Insertion Anomaly (c) Redundancy (d) Lost update problem
90. Anomalies are avoided by splitting the offending relation into multiple relations, is also
known as____________
(a)dependency prevention (b) Decomposition (c) composition (d) redundancy

91. A___________ is an indirect functional dependency, one in which X→Z only by virtue of
X→Y and Y→Z.
(a) multi-valued dependencies (b) join dependency
(c) trivial functional dependency (d) transitive dependencies
UNIT IV
92. Which RAID type doesn’t use parity for data protection?
(a) RAID 1 (b) RAID 4 (c) RAID 6 (d) RAID 5

93. Which one of these is characteristic of RAID 5?

(a) Distributed parity (b) No Parity
(c) All parity in a single disk (d) Double Parity

94. What is the unique characteristic of RAID 6 (Choose one)?

(a) Distributed Parity (b) Striping
(c) Two independent distributed parity (d) Mirroring

95. Which of the following combinations can support RAID 05?

(a) 2 sets with 3 disks each (b) 3 sets with 2 disks each
(c) 2 sets with 4 disks each (d) 4 sets with 1 disk each

96. Which of the following raid levels provides maximum usable disk space?
(a) RAID 1 (b) RAID 0 (c) RAID 5 (d) RAID 6

97. What is the minimum number of disks required for RAID1?

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 5

98. When one disk fails in a RAID 5 array with a hot spare, which one of the following
statements is true?
(a) No I/O can continue
(b) Reads continue from hot spare, but writes fail
(c) Both reads and writes can continue
(d) Array must be shut down immediately for replacing the failed disk
99. Primary, indexes, secondary indexes and cluster indexes are all types of
(a) ordered indexes (b) unordered indexes (c) linear indexes (d) relative search indexes

100. The physical location of a record is determined by a mathematical formula that transformsa
file key into a record location is:
(a) B-tree file (b) hashed file (c) indexed file (d) sequence file

101. The hashing technique which allocates fixed number of buckets is classified as
(a) dynamic hashing (b) static hashing (c) external hashing (d) internal hashing

102. The kind of hashing technique in which a directory of having addresses 2d is maintained is
called___
(a) dynamic hashing (b)extendible hashing
(c) non extendible hashing (d) static hashing

103. The index which has an entry for every key value is classified as
(a) linear index (b) dense index (c) sparse index (d) cluster index

104. The special node in the tree structure which has many child nodes and one parent node is
called___
(a) descendant nodes (b) root node (c) leaf node (d) search node

105. The tree structure diagram in which the pointers of data are stored at the leaf nodes of
diagram is classified as
(a) B tree (b) B+ tree (c) B2 tree (d) B*tree

106. In tree structure, the node which is free of child nodes is called
(a) descendant nodes (b) root node (c) leaf node (d) search node

107. The time it takes to find a particular data item is called as ___________
(a) Insertion time (b) Deletion time (c) Time overhead (d) Access time

108. If an index entry appears for only some of the search key values in the file, it is called as
________
(a) linear index (b) dense index (c) sparse index (d) cluster index

109. Non-leaf nodes are also called as __________

(a) internal node (b) external node (c) middle node (d) primary node
110. Some buckets are assigned more records than the others which causes bucket overflow, this
condition is called as ________
(a) bucket sufficiency(b) bucket insufficiency (c) bucket skew (d) bucket normalcy

111.The space overhead in dynamic hashing is ________ that of static hashing

(a) more than (b) less than (c) equal (d) greater than or equal

112. A hash function h defined h(key) = key mod 7, with linear probing, is used to insert the
keys 44, 45, 79, 55, 91, 18, 63 into a table indexed from 0 to 6. What will be the location of
key18?
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6
113. A B-tree of order m has maximum of _____________ children
(a) m (b) m+1 (c) m-1 (d) m/2
114. The deleted records thus form a linked list, which is often referred to as a ______
(a) end of record (b) ordered list (c) unordered list (d) free list
115. Which is the best file organization when data is frequently added or deleted from a file?
(a) Sequential (b) Direct (c) Index sequential (d) inverted
116. At the beginning of the file, we allocate a certain number of bytes as a______
(a) reserved space (b) list representation (c) file header (d) pointers
117. In byte string representation. A special end of record symbol is ______

(a) (b)τ (c) ⱻ (d) ᴦ

118. Indices whose search key specifies an order different from the sequential order of the file
are called __________
(a) index record (b) cluster indices (c) primary indices (d) secondary indices
119. The non-leaf nodes of the B+ tree form a _________index on the leaf node.
(a) dense (b) sparse (c) skew (d) direct
120. A tree in which every distance from root of the tree to a leaf of the tree is of the same length
is called_______
(a) unbalanced tree (b) balanced tree (c) structured tree (d) binary tree
121. In a B tree, if a node containing K keys always also contain ______ pointers
(a) K-1 (b) K (c) K+1 (d) 2K
122. If a bucket is full, to use the next bucket that has space such a policy is called_______
(a) skew (b) hash index (c) dynamic hashing (d) linear probing
UNIT V
123.A transaction that has not been completed successfully is called as _______
(a) Compensating transaction (b) Aborted transaction
(c) Active transaction (d) Partially committed transaction
124. The execution sequences in concurrency control are termed as ________
(a) Serials (b) Schedules (c) Organizations (d) Time tables
125. The scheme that controls the interaction between executing transactions is called as _____
(a) Concurrency control scheme (b) Multiprogramming scheme
(c) Serialization scheme (d) Schedule scheme
126. If a schedule S can be transformed into a schedule S’ by a series of swaps of non-conflicting
instructions, then S and S’ are
(a) Non conflict equivalent (b) Equal(c) Conflict equivalent (d) Isolation equivalent
127. If a transaction may obtain locks but may not release any locks then it is in _______ phase
(a) Growing phase (b) Shrinking phase (c) Deadlock phase (d) Starved phase

128. W-timestamp(Q) denotes?

(a) The largest timestamp of any transaction that can execute write(Q) successfully
(b) The largest timestamp of any transaction that can execute read(Q) successfully
(c) The smallest timestamp of any transaction that can execute write(Q) successfully
(d) The smallest timestamp of any transaction that can execute read(Q) successfully

129. The default timestamp ordering protocol generates schedules that are
(a) Recoverable (b) Non-recoverable (c) Starving (d) cascading

130. In timestamp ordering protocol, suppose that the transaction Ti issues read(Q) and
TS(Ti)<W-timestamp(Q), then
(a) Read operation is executed (b) Read operation is rejected
(c) Write operation is executed (d) Write operation is rejected

131. Read-only operations omit the _______ phase

(a) Read (b) Validation (c) Write (d) update

132. The unique identifier of the transaction that performed the write operation is called as
(a) Transaction identifier (b) Data-item identifier (c) Old value (d) New value
133. Which of the following is not a recovery technique?
(a) deferred update (b) immediate update
(c) two-phase commit (d)shadow paging
134. Cascading rollback is avoided in all protocol except _________
(a) strict two-phase locking protocol (b) tree locking protocol
(c) two-phase locking protocol (d) validation based protocol
135. Assume transaction A holds a shared lock R. If transaction B also requests for a sharedlock
on R
(a) it will result in a deadlock situation. (b) it will immediately be rejected.
(c) it will immediately be granted. (d) it will be granted as soon as it is released
136. Immediate database modification technique uses ______
(a) both undo and redo (b) undo but no redo.
(c)redo but no undo. (d) neither undo nor redo.
137. Which of the following has “all-or-none” property?
(a) Atomicity (b) Durability (c) Isolation (d) All of the mentioned
138. Each modification done in database transaction are first recorded into the ________
(a) Hard-drive (b) Log (c) Disk (d) Datamart

139. _______ means that data used during the execution of a transaction cannot be used by a
second transaction until the first one is completed.
(a) Serializability (b) Atomicity (c) Isolation (d) Time stamping

140. For correct behavior during recovery, undo and redo operation must be
(a) Commutative (b) Associative (c) Idempotent (d) Distributive
141. In a two-phase locking protocol, a transaction release locks in_____ phase.
(a) shrinking phase (b) growing phase (c) running phase (d)initial phase
142. If a transaction acquires exclusive lock, then it can perform ________ operation.
(a) read (b) write (c)read and write (d) update
143. ______ helps solve concurrency problem.
(a) locking (b) transaction monitor (c) transaction serializability (d) two-phase commit
144. In log-based recovery, the log is a sequence of………….
(a) filter (b) records (c) blocks (d) numbers
145. If a transaction obtains an exclusive lock on a row, it means that the transaction wants to
_____that row.
(a) select (b) update (c) view (d) read
146. In which state, the transaction will wait for the final statement has been executed?
(a) Active (b) Failed (c) Aborted (d) partially committed
147. The phenomenon in which one failure leads to a series of transaction rollbacks is called as
________
(a) Cascading rollback (b) Cascade less rollback (c) Cascade cause (d) rollback

148. If the transaction can no longer continue with its normal execution because of some internal
condition, it is called as a _________
(a) Logical error (b) System error (c) System crash (d) runtime error
149. A logical counter is _________ after a new timestamp has been assigned
(a) Incremented (b) Decremented (c) Doubled (d) Remains the same

150. R-timestamp(Q) denotes?

(a) The largest timestamp of any transaction that can execute write(Q) successfully
(b) The largest timestamp of any transaction that can execute read(Q) successfully
(c) The smallest timestamp of any transaction that can execute write(Q) successfully
(d) The smallest timestamp of any transaction that can execute read(Q) successfully
151. Read-only operations omit the _______ phase
(a) Read phase (b) Validation phase (c) Write phase (d) execute phase

152. Which of the following timestamps is used to record the time when a database has
completed its write operation?
(a) Start(i) (b) Validation(i) (c) Finish(i) (d) Write(i)
ANSWER WITH EXPANSION

1. (b) data redundancy

2 (b) external

3. (d) instance

4. (b)storage manger

5. (c) (Cabin_no, Phone) and (Cabin_no, Room_no) are the candidate keys.

6. (a) Foreign

7. (b) primary key

8. (d) {t | t ε instructor ∧ t[salary] > 80000}

9. (c) ¬

10 (d) ∀ t ε r (Q(t))

11. (d) Э x (P1(x))

12. (a) domain value

13. (c) rename

14. (b)Set-difference

15. (d) comparison operator

16, (b) binary operator

17. (c) t[A]

18. (a) external level

19. (a) Physical data independence

20. (a) DBA

21. (b) naïve user

22. (a) Meta data

23. (c) Assertion

24. (d) DML

25. (c) Zip code

26. (d) Instance

27. (b) Programs

28. (b) logical

29. (a) File manager

30. (c) row

31. (a) display all attributes in a relation

32. (d) tuple variable

33. (c) select avg(balance) from emp;

34. (a) J%Y

35. (c) equi join

36. (a) Specify what tablewe are selecting

37. (b) union all

38. (b) SELECT city FROM weather WHERE humidity = 89;

39. (d) on

40. (d) It can add a new row

41, (b) count

42. (c) Mother-Daughter

43. (a) employee-id

44. (a) One to one

45. (a) Recursive relationship

46. (d) Entity set

47. (c) Student_Id

48 (b) Weak

49. (b) Attributes

50. (b) College_Degree

51. (c) Cannot exist in the database by itself

52. (b) Derived

53. (a) Existence

54. (c) Entities

55. (d) Foreign key

56. (a) Simple attributes

57. (c) Zip code

58. (a) One

59. (b) Composite

60. (d) i,ii,iv,v

61. (c) An attribute or group of attributes that can be the primary key

62. (d) Transitive

63. (b) Determinant

64. (b) Dependent on the entire primary key

65. (b) Partial

66. (c) Both attributes determine the dependent attribute

67. (a) A relation in BCNF is always in 3NF

68. (a) DA→ C

69. (b) 3NF

70. (d) BCNF

71. (a) Subset of X

72. (a) 4 NF

73. (c) Join dependency

74. (c) Pseudo-transitivity rule

75. (a) Eliminate all hidden dependencies

76. (b) C → D

77. (a) γα → γβ

78. (d) Composition

79. (c) determinant

80. (b) partial dependency

81. (a) trivial

82. (b) join dependency

83. (c) (A, B) is a composite determinant

84. (a) A → B

85. (c) 1:1

86. (a) Key

87. (c) augmentation rule

88. (a) BCNF

89. (d) Lost update problem

90 (b) Decomposition

91. (c) trivial functional dependency

92. (a) RAID 1

93. (a) Distributed parity

94. (c) Two independent distributed parity

95. (b) 3 sets with 2 disks each

96. (b) RAID 0

97. (b) 2

98. (c) Both reads and writes can continue

99. (a) ordered indexes

100. (b) hashed file

101. (c) external hashing

102. (b)extendible hashing

103. (b) dense index

104. (b) root node

105. (b) B+ tree

106. (c) leaf node

107. (d) Access time

108. (c) sparse index

109. (a) internal node

110. (c) bucket skew

111. (b) less than

112. (c) 5

113. (a) m

114. (d) free list

115. (b) Direct

116. (c) file header

117. (a)

118. (d) secondary indices

119. (b) sparse

120. (b) balanced tree

121. (c) K+1

122. (d) linear probing

123. (b) Aborted transaction

124. (b) Schedules

125. (a) Concurrency control scheme

126. (c) Conflict equivalent

127. (a) Growing phase

128. (a) The largest timestamp of any transaction that can execute write(Q) successfully

129. (b) Non-recoverable

130. (b) Read operation is rejected

131. (c) Write

132. (a) Transaction identifier

133. (c) two-phase commit

134. (d) validation based protocol

135. (c) it will immediately be granted

136. (a) both undo and redo

137. (a) Atomicity

138. (b) Log

139. (c) Isolation

140. (c) Idempotent

141. (a) shrinking phase

142. (a) read

143. (a) locking

144. (b) records

145. (b) update

146. (d) partially committed

147. (a) Cascading rollback

148. (a) Incremented

149. (a) Incremented

150. (b) The largest timestamp of any transaction that can execute read(Q) successfully

151. (c) Write phase

152. (c) Finish(i)