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TS JLM Exam Model Paper

1. This document contains a model paper with 24 questions for a junior lineman exam. The questions cover topics such as semiconductors, transducers, magnetic materials, transmission lines, digital circuits, coding systems, and microprocessors. 2. The questions are multiple choice with 4 options for each answer. They test knowledge of concepts like hysteresis loops, propagation constants, skin effect, analog to digital conversion, delay lines, and bus architecture. 3. This appears to be a practice exam for technical topics relevant to the role of a junior lineman, assessing understanding of electrical, electronic, and digital principles.
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
2K views11 pages

TS JLM Exam Model Paper

1. This document contains a model paper with 24 questions for a junior lineman exam. The questions cover topics such as semiconductors, transducers, magnetic materials, transmission lines, digital circuits, coding systems, and microprocessors. 2. The questions are multiple choice with 4 options for each answer. They test knowledge of concepts like hysteresis loops, propagation constants, skin effect, analog to digital conversion, delay lines, and bus architecture. 3. This appears to be a practice exam for technical topics relevant to the role of a junior lineman, assessing understanding of electrical, electronic, and digital principles.
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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TS Southern Junior Lineman Exam

Model Paper 7

1. Which of the following semiconducting 4. 1 and 3


compounds is used in photoconductive
devices? 4. Consider the following statements regarding
1. Caesium antimonide hysteresis loops of hard and soft magnetic
2. Barium oxide materials:
3. Lead sulphide 1.Hysteresis loss of hard magnetic material will be
4. Zinc oxide less than that of soft material
2.Coercivity of hard materials will be greater than

2. Consider the following transducers: that of soft material


3.Retentivity of the two materials will always be
1.LVDT
equal
2.Piezoelectric Which of these statements are correct?

3.Thermocouple 1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 2 only
4.Photovoltaic cell
3. 3 only
Which of the above are active transducers? 4. 1 and 3 only
1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4 5. Loss-tangent in plane waves in lossy
dielectrics will be
3. 2 and 3 only
1. Proportional to the Y component of the magnetic
4. 2, 3 and 4 field intensity (HY)
2. Inversely proportional to the Y component of the
magnetic field intensity (HY)
3. Consider the following statements regarding 3. Inversely proportional to the X component of the
magnetic materials: magnetic field intensity (HX)
1.A diamagnetic material has no permanent dipole 4. proportional to the X component of the magnetic
field intensity (HX)
2.Paramagnetic material has anti-parallel orientation
of equal moments with neighboring dipoles

3.Ferrimagnetic material has anti parallel orientation 6. Orientational polarization is


of unequal moments between neighboring dipoles 1. Inversely proportional to temperature
and proportional to the square of the
4.Anti-ferromagnetic material has negligible permanent dipole moment
interaction between neighboring dipoles 2. proportional to temperature as well as to
the square of the permanent dipole moment
Which of these statements are correct?
1. 1 and 2 3. proportional to temperature and inversely
proportional to the square of the permanent
2. 3 and 4 dipole moment
3. 2 and 4 4. Inversely proportional to temperature as well

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TS Southern Junior Lineman Exam
Model Paper 7

as to the square of the permanent dipole 2.


moment
3.

7. In time domain specification, decay ratio is the 4.


ratio of the
1. Amplitude of the first peak and the steady-state value
2. Amplitudes of the first two successive peaks
11. The skin effect in a transmission line is
3. Peak value to the steady-state value affected by
4. None of the above 1. The resistivity of the transmission line
2. The current magnitude in the transmission line
8. A lossless transmission line has a 3. The cross-sectional area of the transmission line
characteristic impedance of Z0 and capacitance
4. The voltage applied across the transmission line
per unit length of C. The velocity of propagation
of the travelling wave on the line is
1. Z0C
12. There are no transient in pure resistance
2. 1 circuit because they
Z0C 1. Offer high resistance
3. Z0 2. Obey Ohm’s law
C
3. Have no stored energy
4. C
Z0 4. Are linear circuits

13. A DVM uses 10 MHz clock and has a voltage


9. A pair of high-frequency parallel transmission controlled generator which provides a width of 5
lines has distributed capacitance and inductance s/volt of unit signal. 10V input signal would
of 0.8 F and 9.8 mH respectively. What is the correspond to a pulse count of
characteristic impedance of the line? 1. 500
2. 750
1. 98.26 Ω
3. 250
2. 110.68 Ω
4. 1000
3. 125 Ω
4. 128.2 Ω
14. A resistance strain gauge with a gauge factor
is 2.0 is fastened to a steel member subjected to
a stress of 100N/mm2. The modulus of elasticity
10. The propagation constant of a transmission of steel is approximately 2 × 105 N/mm2. The
line is 0.15 × 10-3 + j1.5 × 10-3The wavelength of percentage of change in resistance is
the travelling wave is 1. 1.50
1. 2. 1.00
3. 0.15

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TS Southern Junior Lineman Exam
Model Paper 7

4. 0.10 2. T-FF
3. D-FF
4. JK-FF
15.The resistance of 125 Ω strain gauge changes
by 1 Ω for 4000 micro-strain. The gauge factor
for strain gauge is 20. Which one of the following is the correct
1. 1.5 answer when 110112 is subtracted from
110112 by using the 1’s complement method?
2. 2.0
1. 01001
3. 2.5
2. 10001
4. 3.0
3. 00011
4. 00010
16. Delay line is essential in a CRO, to ensure
that
1. Vertical signal starts after the retrace period of sweep signal 21. An Excess-3 code arithmetic operation is
used to perform the
2. The sweep reaches the horizontal plates before the desired signal under consideration
1. Binary addition
3. Initial part of signal to be observed is not lost
2. Binary subtraction
4. All of the above
3. BCD addition
4. BCD subtraction
17. Which of the following ADC has highest
accuracy? 22. Convert the decimal 41.6875 into octal.
1. Successive approximation type 1. 51.54
2. Flash or parallel type 2. 51.13
3. Single slope integration type 3. 54.13
4. Dual slope integration type 4. 51.51

23. Ready pin of a microprocessor is used


18. Volt-box is basically a device used for 1. To indicate that microprocessor is ready to
1. Measuring the voltage receive inputs
2. Extending the range of voltmeter 2. To indicate that microprocessor is ready to
3. Extending the voltage range of the potentiometer receive outputs

4. Measuring power 3. To introduce wait state


4. To provide direct memory access

19. D input of a clocked D-flip flop receives an


input A⊕ Qn where A is an external logic input 24. A bus connected between the CPU and the
and Qn is the output of the nth D-FF before the main memory that permits transfer of
clock appears. The circuit works as information between main memory and the CPU
1. Ex OR gate is known as
1. DMA bus

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TS Southern Junior Lineman Exam
Model Paper 7

2. Memory bus 29. An electric field is applied to a


semiconductor. Let the number of charge
3. Address bus carriers be n and the average drift speed by v. If
4. Control bus the temperature is increased then
1. Both n and v will increase
2. n will increase but v will decrease
25. While measuring the voltage developed by a
thermocouple, it is found that there is always an 3. v will increase but n will decrease
offset voltage. This is due to 4. Both n and v will decrease
1. A voltage across thermocouple even at
very low temper
2. Some photoelectric voltage across the junction 30. A heavily doped semiconductor has
due to ambient light 1. A resistivity which decreases exponentially with
temperature
3. A barrier potential across the junction
2. A resistivity which rises almost linearly with
4. An additional thermocouple is formed due to
temperature
the connecting wires and one of the metals.
3. A negative temperature coefficient of resistance
26. For an antenna, radiation intensity is defined 4. A positive temperature coefficient of resistance
as
1. The time-averaged radiated power per unit solid angle
2. The peak radiated power per unit solid angle 31. Consider the following expressions:
1.Y = f(A, B, C, D) = ∑(1, 2, 4, 7, 8, 11, 13, 14)
3. The peak radiated power per unit area 2.Y = f(A, B, C, D) = ∑(3, 5, 7, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14)
4. The time-averaged radiated power per unit area 3.Y = f(A, B, C, D) = ∏(0, 3, 5, 6, 9, 10, 12, 15)
4.Y = f(A, B, C, D) = ∏ (0, 1, 2, 4, 6, 8, 9, 15)Which
of these expressions are equivalents of the
expression
27. A source of (power/energy) feeds the input Y = A ⊕ B ⊕ C ⊕ D?
port of an amplifier and the output port is
connected to a ‘load’. The input impedance of 1. 1 and 2
the ideal amplifier should ideally be 2. 1 and 4
1. Zero
3. 2 and 3
2. ∞
4. 1 and 3
3. Low
4. high
32. In a 5 × 7 dot matrix format
1. 64 bits are required to store 64 alphanumeric
28. Medium doping in Silicon and Germanium characters
corresponds to impurity of the order of 2. 560 bits are required to store 64 alphanumeric
1. 1 part in 106 characters
2. 1 part in 105 3. 1120 bits are required to store 64 alphanumeric
characters
3. 1 part in 104
4. 2240 bits are required to store 64 alphanumeric
4. 1 part in 108 characters

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TS Southern Junior Lineman Exam
Model Paper 7

33. Consider the following statements: 2. High rate of rise of current

1.SRAM is made up of flip-flops 3. High temperature rise


2.SRAM stores bit as voltage 4. High rate of rise of voltage
3.DRAM has high speed and low density
37. The property of Fourier transforms which
4.DRAM is cheaper than SRAM
states that the compression in time domain is
Which of the above statements are correct? equivalent to expansion in the frequency domain
is
1. 1, 2 and 3
1. Duality
2. 1, 3 and 4
2. Scaling
3. 2, 3 and 4
3. Time scaling
4. 1, 2 and 4
4. Frequency shifting

34. Consider the following statements: SCR can


38. The Fourier transform of a rectangular pulse
be turned on by
is
1.Applying anode voltage at a sufficiently fast rate 1. Another rectangular pulse
2. Triangular pulse
2.Applying sufficiently large anode voltage
3. Sinc function
3.Increasing the temperature of SCR to sufficiently 4. Impulse function
large value

4.Applying sufficiently large gate current


39. If F(s) and G(s) are the Laplace transforms
Which of the above statements are correct? of f(t) and g(t), then their product F(s).G(s) =
H(s), where H(s) is the Laplace transform
1. 1, 2 and 3 of h(t), is defined as
2. 1, 3 and 4 1. (f.g)(t)
3. 1, 2 and 4 2.
4. 2, 3 and 4
3. Both (a) and (b) are correct
4. f(t). g(t)
35. Which of the following is the fastest
switching device?
40. With the following equations, the time-
1. JFET invariant systems are
2. BJT
3. MOSFET
4. Triode

36. Which of the following does not cause


damage of an SCR?
1. High current 1. 1 and 2

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TS Southern Junior Lineman Exam
Model Paper 7

2. 1 and 4 2. 12
3. 2 and 3 3. 10
4. 3 and 4 4. 08
41. H (ejω) is the frequency response of a 45. Consiter the following statements regarding
discrete time LTI system and H1 (ejω) is the advantages of closed loop negative feedback
frequency response of its inverse function. Then control systems over open loop system
1.
1. The overall reliability of the closed loop system is
2. more than that of open loop system.

3. 2.The transient response in a closed loop system


decays more quickly than in open loop system.
4.
3.In an open loop system, closing of the loop
increases the overall gain of the system.
42. The impulse response of a discrete time
system is given by 4.In the closed loop system, the effect of variation of
𝟏 component parameters on its performance is
H(n)=𝟐{𝜹[𝒏] + 𝜹[𝒏 − 𝟐]} reduced.

The magnitude of the response can be Which of these statements are correct?
expresses as 1. 1 and 2
1. |cos |
2. 1 and 3
2. cos 3. 2 and 4
3. |sin | 4. 3 and 4
4. sin
43. A unity feedback second order control
46. A forcing function (t2-2t) u (t-1) is applied to
system is characterized by the open loop
𝒌 a linear system. The L - of the forcing function
transfer function(s) = is
𝒔(𝒋𝒔+𝑩)
J =moment of inertia, B = damping constant and 1.
K = system gain The transient response
specification which is not affected by system
gain variation is 2.
1. Peak overshoot
2. Rise time 3.
3. Settling time
4.
4. Time to peak overshoot

44. The number of 2 μF, 300 V capacitors needed


to obtain a capacitance value of 2 μF rated for 47. In control systems, excessive bandwidth
1200 V is is not employed because
1. 16 1. Noise is proportional to bandwidth

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TS Southern Junior Lineman Exam
Model Paper 7

2. It leads to low relative stability 3. Synchronous motor torque


3. It leads to slower time response 4. DC motor torque
4. Noise is proportional to the square of the
bandwidth
𝟏
48. The transfer function of a system is . 52. In a split phase motor, the running winding
𝟏+𝒔𝑻 should have
The input to this system is the ramp
1. High resistance and low inductance
function, tu(t). the output would track this
system with an error given by 2. High resistance as well as low inductance
3. Low resistance and high inductance
1. Zero
4. Low resistance as well as low inductance
2. T
2
3. T 53. A 3-phase induction motor draws 50 kW from
a 220V, 50 Hz mains. The rotor emf makes 100
4. T2 oscillations/minute. If the stator losses are 2 kW
2 the rotor copper loss would be
1. 0.16 kW
49. The synchronous reactance of a 500 V, 50
kVA alternator having an effective resistance of 2. 0.32 kW
0.2 Ω, if an excitation current of 10 A produces 3. 1.6 kW
200 A armature current on short circuit and an
emf of 450 volts on open circuit is 4. 3.2 kW
1. 2.6 Ω
2. 5.2 Ω
3. 2.24 Ω 54. Starting torque can be obtained in the case of
a single phase induction motor with identical
4. 4.5 Ω main and auxiliary windings by connecting
1. A capacitor across the mains

50. The main advantage of distributing the 2. A capacitor in series with the machine
winding in slots is to 3. A capacitor in series with the auxiliary winding
1. Reduce the size of the machine
4. The main and the auxiliary winding in series
2. Add mechanical strength to the winding
3. Reduce the amount of copper required
4. Reduce the harmonics in the generated emf 55. In the load-frequency control system with
free governor action, the increase in load
demand under steady condition is met
51. When the rotor speed, in a synchronous 1. Only by increased generation due to opening
machine, becomes more than the synchronous of steam valve
speed during hunting, the damper bars develop
2. Only by decrease of load demand due to drop
1. Induction motor torque in system frequency
2. Induction generator torque 3. Partly by increased generation and party by
decrease of load demand

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TS Southern Junior Lineman Exam
Model Paper 7

4. Partly by increased generation and party


by increased generator excitation
60. The rate of rise of re-striking voltage (RRRV)
is dependent upon
1. Resistance of the system only
2. Inductance of the system only
3. Capacitance of the system only
56. Fault calculations using computer program
are usually done by 4. Inductance and Capacitance of system

1. Ybus method
61. A voltage source inverter is used when
2. Zbus method source and load inductances are respectively
3. Both of the above 1. Small and large
4. None of the above 2. Large and small
3. Large and large
57. The per unit of a 4Ω resistor at 100 MVA base 4. Small and small
and 10 kV base voltage is
1. 2 pu
62. Consider the following statements: Phase
2. 4 pu controlled converters at small values of output
3. 0.4 pu voltage have
4. 40 pu 1.Large harmonics in utility system

2.Poor power factor


58. An unloaded generator with a pre-fault
voltage 1 pu has the following sequence 3.High efficiency
impedances: Z0 = j 0.15 pu, Z1 = Z2 = j 0.25 pu
The neutral is grounded with a reactance of 0.05 4.Notches in line voltage waveform
pu. The fault current in pu for a single-line to
ground fault is Which of the above statements are correct?
1. 3.75 pu 1. 1 and 2 only
2. 4.28 pu 2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 6 pu 3. 2, 3 and 4
4. 7.25 pu 4. 1 and 4 only

63. A piezoelectric crystal has a coupling


59. For a fault in a power system, the term coefficient K of 0.32. How much electrical energy
critical clearing time is related to must be applied to produce output energy of
1. Reactive power limit 7.06 × 10–3 J?
2. Transient stability limit 1. 25.38 mJ

3. Short circuit current limit 2. 22.19 mJ


4. Steady state stability limit 3. 4.80 mJ

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TS Southern Junior Lineman Exam
Model Paper 7

4. 2.26 mJ
67. Which one among the following was not a
possible reason for the success of Nadir Shah’s
64. A wattmeter reads 10 kW, when its current
military campaign in Delhi
coil is connected in R phase and the potential
coil is connected across R and neutral of a 1. weak Mughal Emperor
balanced 400 V (RYB sequence) supply. The line 2. Lack of strong defence in the North West Fronter
current is 54 A. If the potential coil reconnected
across B-Y phases with the current coil in R 3. Late prepration for the defence of Delhi
phase, the new reading of the wattmeter will be 4. use of superior military technology by the invading army
nearly
1. 10 kW
2. 13 kW 68. What is the correct sequence of
the following events occurred during the war
3. 16 kW of American Independence?
4. 19 kW 1. Boston Tea Party
2. Battle of Bunker Hill
3. Declaration of American Independence
65. For a type-I system, the intersection of the
4. George Washington named chief of the continental
initial slope of the Bode plot with 0dB axis gives
forces
1. steady-state error
2. error constant 1. 1, 2, 3, 4
3. phase margin 2. 2, 1, 4, 3
4. cross-over frequency 3. 3, 1, 4, 2
4. 4, 2, 3, 1

69. The Karakoram Highway connects which of


General knowledge the following pairs of countries?
1. India-Nepal
66. Which of the following was /were reason for 2. India-China
the success of European trading companies in
South India during the 17th century 3. India-Pakistan
1. the presence of the Mughals in the South was not 4. China-Pakistan
as much as in the North
2. The Vijay Nagar kingdom had been overthrown in
the late 16th century
70. Which one of the following is not a correct
3. The South had many small and weak states
example of tropical cyclone?
Select the correct answer using the code given 1. Tornadoes
below 2. typhoons
3. Hurricanes
1. 1,2, and 3
4. nor westers
2. 1 and 2
3. 2 and 3
71. National income is the
4. 1 only

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TS Southern Junior Lineman Exam
Model Paper 7

1. net national product at market price


2. net national product at factor cost 75. The other popular name of Komaravelli
Veerabhadra Swamy is
3. net domestic product at market price
1. Ellanna
4. net domestic product at factor cost
2. Mallanna
3. Rajanna
4. Beeranna
72. Consider the following statements
76. Adding detergents to water helps in
removing dirty greasy stains. This is because
1. The Constitution of India has 40 parts.
1. It increases greasy stains. This is because
2. There are 390 Articles in the Constitution of India
2. It decreases the oil-water surface tension
in all.
3. It increases the viscosity of the solution
3. Ninth, Tenth, Eleventh and Twelfth
Schedules were added to the Constitution of India
4. Dirt is held suspended surrounded by
by the Constitution
detergent molecules
Which of the statements(s) given above is/are
correct? 1. 2 and 4
2. 1 only
1. 1 and 2
3. 3 and 4
2. Only 2
4. 4 only
3. Only 3
4. 1, 2 and 3 77. A compound of ‘A’ and ‘B’ crystallises in a
cubic lattice in which ‘A’ atoms occupy the
lattice points at the corners of the cube. The ‘B’
73. Tank irrigation area predominantly found in atoms occupy the centre of each face of the
cube. The probable empirical formula of the
the district of
compound is
1. Khammam
2. Karimnagar 1. AB2
3. Nizamabad 2. A2B
4. Warangal 3. AB
4. AB3
74. 'Gusadi' Dance is popular in which district of
Telangana ?
78. What is/are true about heart wood?
1. Nizamabad (A) It does not help in water conduction.
2. Khammam (B) It is also called laburnum.
(C) It is dark in colour but very soft.
3. Warangal (D) It has tracheary elements which are filled with
4. Adilabad tannin, resin, etc.

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TS Southern Junior Lineman Exam
Model Paper 7

2. Shooting
3. Wushu
1. B,C and D
4. Table Tennis
2. A and D
3. B and D
4. A, B and C 80. Who has been appointed as the Non-
Executive Non-independent Director of CASHe in
March 2022 ?
1. Subhash Kumar
79. Sadia Tariq is associated with which sports 2. Alka Mittal
who won Gold medal recently in a world
championship ? 3. Naresh Karia
1. Archerv 4. Shashi Shanker

MODEL PAPER 7 KEY


Electrical Engineering
1.3, 2.4, 3.4, 4.2, 5.2, 6.1, 7.4, 8.2, 9.2, 10.2, 11.3, 12.3, 13.1, 14.4,15.2, 16.4, 17.4, 18.3, 19.2, 20.4,
21.3, 22.1, 23.3, 24.2, 25.4, 26.1, 27.2,28.1, 29.2, 30.4, 31.4, 32.4, 33.4, 34.3, 35.3, 36.4, 37.3, 38.3,
39.2, 40.3, 41.1, 42.1, 43.3, 44.1, 45.3, 46.4, 47.1, 48.3, 49.3, 50.4, 51.2, 52.3, 53.3, 54.3, 55.1, 56.1,
57.2, 58.1, 59.2, 60.4, 61.4, 62.2, 63.2, 64.2, 65.2
General knowledge
66.3, 67.4, 68.3, 69.4, 70.4, 71.2, 72.3, 73.4, 74.4, 75.2, 76.1, 77.2, 78.2,79.3, 80.3

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