Basics Of Biotech (MCQs)

Which of the following best describes transcription?

A) DNA -> DNA B) DNA -> RNA C) DNA -> Protein D) RNA -> DNA E) RNA -> Protein
The enzyme that accomplishes transcription is termed
A) DNA polymerase. B) RNA polymerase. C) DNA ligase. D) RNA ligase. E) RNA replicase.
B) RNA polymerase.
The transcription enzyme first attaches to the ________ of the gene.
A) coding region B) promoter C) operator D) regulator E) initiator
B) promoter
The terminator of a gene is located upstream of the coding region.
A) True B) False
Initial attachment of the transcription enzyme to the gene, results in a structure termed the closed complex.
A) True B) False
In generalized transduction...
a. a piece of DNA is injected into a bacterium, and it then forms a plasmid.
b. a piece if injected DNA remains separate from the host DNA.
c. a segment of DNA is carried from one bacterial cell to another by a bacteriophage.
d. a segment of RNA is carried from one bacterial cell to another by a bacteriophage.
When bacterial DNA is introduced into a new host cell by a bacteriophage...
a. it can be integrated into the bacterial chromosome.
b. it forms a plasmid in the host cell.
c. it remains separate from the host DNA.
d. it immediately forms new phages to be released from the cell.
Which of the following is not an aspect of generalized transduction?
a. DNA is injected into a host cell by a bacteriophage.
b. phage enzymes break down the hosts DNA.
c. phage DNA forms a plasmid.
d. phage DNA replicates.
When a bacterial cell containing bacteriophage DNA divides, the bacteriophage DNA remains in the original host cell.
a. True
b. False
During the formation of the mature phage particles, a few phage heads may surround and incorporate fragments of
bacterial DNA.
a. True
b. False
What sequence is a palindrome?
a. 5' ACGGATTCGC 3'
b. 5' ATG 3'
c. 5' CCATT 3'
d. 5' AGGCCT 3'
The enzyme reverse transcriptase enables scientists to produce what product?
a. Restriction endonucleases
b. cDNA molecules
c. Restriction fragment length polymorphisms
d. Blunt end restriction fragments
The rate of migration of DNA within an agarose gel in the gel electrophoresis technique is primarily based on what
factor?
a. The size of the DNA fragments
b. The number of DNA fragments
c. The size of the wells of the gel
d. The negative charge of the DNA
Oligonucleotide gene probes are defined as?
a. Enzymes that recognize and subsequently degrade foreign DNA
b. The pieces of DNA produced by restriction endonucleases
c. An enzyme important in splicing genes into plasmids and chromosomes
d. A short stretch of DNA of a known sequence that will base-pair with a complementary sequence
The technique that utilizes probes to detect specific DNA sequences is known as what?
a. Southern blot
b. Northern blot
c. Western blot
d. Eastern blot
In the Sanger method of DNA sequencing, what causes the termination of chain elongation?
a. The incorporation of a regular DNA nucleotide
b. The incorporation of a dideoxy nucleotide
c. Denaturation of the double-stranded test fragments
d. When the DNA polymerase encounters a stop codon
Which of the following statements regarding the polymerase chain reaction is untrue?
a. It can increase the amount of DNA in a sample
b. It has the potential of diagnosing an infection from a single copy of a gene
c. It utilizes DNA polymerases from psychrophilic organisms
d. It can amplify DNA of only a few base pairs up to a whole genome
What is Gel Electrophoresis used for?: To separate the fragments of DNA by size
Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR): a method of producing multiple copies of a single gene
restriction enzymes: cut DNA at specific sequences
Plasmids: a small, circular, double stranded DNA molecule that carries accessory genes separate from those of a
bacterial chromosome
Conjugation: transfer of genes from one prokaryotic cell to another by a mechanism involving cell to cell contact
Transformation: -
(1) The conversion of a normal animal cell to a cancerous cell.
(2) A change in genotype and phenotype due to the assimilation of external DNA by a cell.
Transduction: Transfer of bacterial genes by a phage
Why are DNA polymerases from thermophilic organisms used in the polymerase chain reaction?
a. Because they are required to keep the two strands separated
b. Because they cannot add new nucleotides at low temperatures
c. Because the priming and extension steps must be carried out at high temperatures to prevent the single strands
from reannealing
c. Because the priming and extension steps must be carried out at high temperatures to prevent the single strands from
reannealing
In recombinant DNA technology, a selected gene is removed from an animal, plant, or microorganism, and is inserted
into what?
a. A primer
b. An oligonucleotide
c. A palindrome
d. A vector
Genomic libraries are useful for obtaining what product?
a. Periodicals on genomics research
b. Collections of isolated genes
c. Instructional information on how to locate the
exact site of the gene of interest
d. Information relating to primers and PCR
Good cloning vectors must possess all but which of the following qualities?
a. They should possess their own origin of replication
b. They should be readily accepted by the cloning host
c. They should be capable of carrying a significant piece of donor DNA
d. They should be resistant to restriction endonucleases
A scientist has a processed mRNA transcript for a gene he/she wants to clone into a bacterial vector. What must
he/she do as a first step in this process?
a. Use reverse transcriptase to create a cDNA molecule
b. Generate primers to the processed mRNA
c. Sequence the mRNA transcript
d. Digest the mRNA and cloning vector with the same restriction endonuclease
The insertion of a cloning vector into a cloning host typically involves what process?
a. Transduction
b. Polymerase chain reaction
c. Transformation
d. Hybridization
Following insertion of a cloning vector into a cloning host, ? are the host cells plated on selective medium, which
usually contains an antibiotic?
a. all the host cells are naturally resistant to the antibiotic
b. all the host cells are naturally sensitive to the antibiotic
c. only those host cells that have been transformed by the vector will grow in the presence of the antibiotic
Which is untrue about restriction enzymes?
a. They are all produced naturally by plant cells.
b. They cut DNA at unique sequences.
c. Hundreds of restriction enzymes have been
discovered.
d. Sometimes they generate "sticky ends" in the
DNA.
Which is the primary benefit of using mammalian cells as cloning and expression hosts?
a. They may prevent allergic reactions to animal products.
b. They allow large scale production of enzymes, hormones, and antibodies.
c. Scientists know how to manupulate mammalian cells better than bacterial cells.
d. Mammalian cells carry out protein modification, which prokaryotic cells cannot do.
Transgenic microorganisms have been used to improve or benefit all but which of the following?
a. Meat yield
b. Drug therapy
c. Crop improvement
d. Pest reduction
Which of the following is incorrect about DNA fingerprinting?
a. It is only used on new specimens.
b. It is routine to use it as trial evidence.
c. It was used to identify victims of the World Trade Center attacks.
d. The FBI has a national database of DNA fingerprints.
In which method are probes applied to intact cells and observed microscopically for the presence and location of
specific marker sequences on genes?
a. Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)
b. Gene sequencing
c. Southern Blot
d. Fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH)
Which of the following is incorrect about the pharmaceutical industry using recombinant DNA technology?
a. Human insulin can be produced on a large scale to treat diabetes.
b. Human growth hormone can be used to treat Creutzfeld-Jakob disease.
c. vaccines can be made using recombinant technology.
d. Factor VIII can be made to treat hemophilia A
Which of the following statements regarding the findings of the Human Genome Project is incorrect?
a. Humans share approximately 80% of their DNA sequences with mice.
b. Genetic screening of families for inheritable diseases may become possible.
c. The human genome varies only about 5% among individuals.
c. The human genome varies only about 5% among individuals.
The creation of a DNA fingerprint involves all but which of the following techniques?
a. Southern blotting
b. Western blotting
c. Polymerase chain reaction
d. The use of restriction endonucleases
e. Gel electrophoresis
b. Western blotting
All methods of DNA fingerprinting depend on some variation of what strategy?
a. Restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP)
b. GMOs
c. Gene therapy
d. Microarray analysis
e. Nucleic acid hybridization
a. Restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP)
Microarray analysis has allowed scientists to view what phenomenon?
a. The genome sequence in a cell
b. The cDNA of a cell
c. The RFLPs of a cell
d. The expression of specific genes in a cell
e. The number of genes in a cell
d. The expression of specific genes in a cell
For scientists involved in genetic technology, the most effective method of gaining support for their work is to use
what technique?
a. Advertising
b. Polls
c. Publicizing exaggerated claims and frightening scenarios
d. Education of the public
f. Focus groups
c. Publicizing exaggerated claims and frightening scenarios
What is the best description of genetically modified foods?
a. Foods that have had their DNA removed from their cells.
b. Foods that have been irradiated causing mutations.
c. Foods that have had genes from other species placed into them.
d. Foods that have been exposed to carcinogens.
c. Foods that have had genes from other species placed into them.
Why were Brazil nut genes placed into the soybeans?
a. To enhance their flavor
b. To increase their protein content
c. To help the soybeans be more tolerant to high temperatures
d. To enable the soybeans to require less water for growth.
b. To increase their protein content
What was the potential danger in the genetically modified soybeans?
a. Allergy to Brazil nuts was potentially acquirable through the soybeans
b. The soybeans did not grow as rapidly
c. Many of the soybeans did not germinate.
d. There was low yield of protein from the soybeans.
c. Many of the soybeans did not germinate.
What did the National Academy of Science conclude to be the greatest gaps in the study of genetically modified
foods?
a. There have been no genetically modified foods successfully grown yet.
b. The genetically modified foods take much longer to study.
c. We still don’t know enough about the normal composition of traditional foods to keep their potential risks in
consideration.
c. We still don’t know enough about the normal composition of traditional foods to keep their potential risks in
consideration.
The best venue to document research data on the composition of traditional foods is to:
a. Place the data into publicly accessible data bases
b. Publish the findings in an annual report
c. Fund independent research to make these determinations for themselves.
d. Create a 5-year study and publish the results.
a. Place the data into publicly accessible data bases
In traditional DNA fingerprinting, the DNA that has been collected is cut into smaller pieces by.
a. probe molecules.
b. restriction enzymes.
c. gel electrophoresis.
d. denaturation.
e. hybridization.
b. restriction enzymes.
The resulting thousands of different sized DNA fragments are then separated by size using...
a. probe molecules.
b. restriction enzymes.
c. gel electrophoresis.
d. denaturation.
e. hybridization.
c. gel electrophoresis.
The addition of radiolabeled probe molecules to the DNA fragments results in...
a. hybridization.
b. denaturation.
c. filtration.
d. a gel blot.
e. exposure to x-ray film.
a. hybridization.
DNA fingerprinting is a method of identification based on a family's DNA traits.
a. True
b. False
b. False
The main difference between traditional DNA fingerprinting and the method that has superceded it is that the newer
method does not contain variable number of tandem repeat sequences - or VNTRs.
a. True
b.: False
a. True
The experiment involved the transfer and expression of ________ DNA into bacterial cells.
a. human
b. frog
c. cow
d. viral
e. dinosaur
b. frog
Which of the following were required to produce the recombinant plasmid?
a. restriction endonuclease
b. DNA ligase
c. DNA polymerase
d. A and B
e. A, B and C
d. A and B
Which of the following Escherichia coli cells did NOT produce colonies on the growth medium containing tetracycline?
a. cells that picked up a recombinant plasmid containing the ribosomal DNA gene
b. cells that picked up a recombinant plasmid containing another gene
c. cells that picked up a plasmid without any foreign genes
d. cells that did not pick up a plasmid
d. cells that did not pick up a plasmid
The pSC101 plasmid had two restriction sites for the enzyme EcoRI.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer conducted their experiment in the 1990s.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Which of the following statements best describes plasmid excision?
a. breakdown of the plasmid
b. joining of the plasmid to the bacterial chromosome
c. removal of the plasmid from the bacterial chromosome
d. entry of the plasmid into the bacterial cell
e. exit of the plasmid from the bacterial cell
c. removal of the plasmid from the bacterial chromosome
Which of the following chromosomal regions can form the largest single transient loop? (Each letters represents a
nucleotide sequence)
a. A B C D
b. B C A D D’ C’ B’
c. B C D B’ C’ D’
d. B C D A B’ C’ D’
e. B A B’ C D D’ C’
d. B C D A B’ C’ D’
In this animation plasmid excision occurs by ________ recombination.
a. homologous
b. non-homologous
c. heterologous
d. constitutive
e. integrative
a. homologous
Plasmid integration into the bacterial genome typically occurs via a single cross-over between the two molecules.
a. True
b. False
a. True
Excision of a plasmid from a bacterial genome occurs by only one mechanism.
a. True
b. False
b. False
A microarray is
a. a ray of a small wavelength
b. a type of ultraviolet ray
c. an RNA probe used to identify viruses
d. an arrangement of oligonucleotide probes,
closely arranged on a small solid support surface
d. an arrangement of oigonucleotide probes, closely arranged on a small solid support surface
A microarray commonly contains _______ nucleotides.
a. 1–5
b. 5–15
c. 15–25
d. 25–100
e. 100–500
c. 15–25
When interpreting the results of microarrays, the degree of hybridization between a given probe and an organism to
be identified is measured by
a. turbidity read in a spectrophotometer
b. color intensity of an image produced by scanning with a laser beam
c. length of the probe formed
d. degree of agglutination
e. microscopy
b. color intensity of an image produced by scanning with a laser beam
When building a microarray, we know the sequence of the oligonucleotides, but not their position.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Nucleotides are made to attach to the glass by a light activation reaction.
a. True
b. False
a. True
PCR requires all of the following EXCEPT
a. primers.
b. DNA ligase.
c. DNA polymerase.
d. DNA of interest.
e. deoxyribonucleotides.
b. DNA ligase.
During PCR, which primer anneals to DNA with its 3’ end towards the center of the sequence to be amplified?
a. forward primer only
b. reverse primer only
c. both the forward and reverse primers
d. either the forward or reverse primer, but not both
e. neither the forward nor reverse primer
c. both the forward and reverse primers
Arrange the following in the proper sequence in which they occur during a single PCR cycle.
1. Addition of DNA nucleotides by Taq polymerase
2. Complementary base pairing between primers and target DNA
3. Heat separation of strands of target DNA
a. 1, 2, 3
b. 2, 1, 3
c. 2, 3, 1
d. 3, 2, 1
e. 3, 1, 2
d. 3, 2, 1
All double-stranded DNA molecules generated by PCR are identical.
a. True
b. False
b. False
PCR is carried out in machines termed thermocyclers.
a. True
b. False
a. True
PCR requires all of the following EXCEPT
a. primers.
b. DNA ligase.
c. DNA polymerase.
d. DNA of interest.
e. deoxyrobinucleotides.
b. DNA ligase.
If you start with one double-stranded DNA molecule and you perform SIX cycles of PCR, how many double-stranded
copies of the DNA will you have?
a. 6
b. 8
c. 16
d. 32
e. 64
e. 64
The most likely source of the Taq polymerase used in PCR is a bacterium that lives in
a. soil.
b. arctic ice.
c. hot vents.
d. humans.
e. plants.
c. hot vents.
PCR can be used to amplify DNA from any source.
a. True
b. False
a. True
During the PCR, the hydrogen bonds of the double-stranded DNA molecules are broken by the enzyme helicase.
a. True
b. False
b. False
The enzyme reverse transcriptase enables scientists to produce what product?
A) Restriction endonucleases
B) cDNA molecules
C) Restriction fragment length polymorphisms
D) Blunt end restriction fragments
E) mRNA transcripts
B) cDNA molecules
The rate of migration of DNA within an agarose gel in the gel electrophoresis technique is primarily based on what
factor?
A) The size of the DNA fragments
B) The number of DNA fragments
C) The size of the wells of the gel
D) The negative charge of the DNA
E) The volume of the DNA sample loaded
A) The size of the DNA fragments
Oligonucleotide gene probes are defined as what?
A) Enzymes that recognize and subsequently degrade foreign DNA
B) The pieces of DNA produced by restriction endonucleases
C) An enzyme important in splicing genes into plasmids and chromosomes
D) A short stretch of DNA of a known sequence that will base-pair with a complementary sequence
E) A piece of DNA to which new nucleotides are added during DNA sequencing
D) A short stretch of DNA of a known sequence that will base-pair with a complementary sequence
The technique that utilizes probes to detect specific DNA sequences is known as what?
A) Southern blot
B) Northern blot
C) Western blot
D) Eastern blot
E) Northwestern blot
A) Southern blot
Definition
In the Sanger method of DNA sequencing, what causes the termination of chain elongation?
A) The incorporation of a regular DNA nucleotide
B) The incorporation of a dideoxy nucleotide
C) Denaturation of the double-stranded test fragments D) When the DNA polymerase encounters a stop codon
E) When denaturation causes the primers to
disassociate from the strands
B) The incorporation of a dideoxy nucleotide
Which of the following statements regarding the polymerase chain reaction is untrue?
A) It can increase the amount of DNA in a sample
B) It has the potential of diagnosing an infection from a single copy of a gene
C) It utilizes DNA polymerases from psychrophilic organisms
D) It can amplify DNA of only a few base pairs up to a whole genome
E) It essentially mimics DNA replication as it occurs naturally
C) It utilizes DNA polymerases from psychrophilic norganisms
Why are DNA polymerases from thermophilic organisms used in the polymerase chain reaction?
A) Because they are required to keep the two strands separated
B) Because they cannot add new nucleotides at low temperatures
E) Because the priming and extension steps must be carried out at high temperatures to prevent the single strands
from reannealing
E) Because the priming and extension steps must be carried out at high temperatures to prevent the single strands from
reannealing
In recombinant DNA technology, a selected gene is removed from an animal, plant, or microorganism, and is inserted
into what?
A) A primer
B) An oligonucleotide
C) A palindrome
D) A vector
E) A cloning host
D) A vector
Genomic libraries are useful for obtaining what product?
A) Periodicals on genomics research
B) Collections of isolated genes
C) Instructional information on how to locate the exact site of the gene of interest
D) Information relating to primers and PCR
E) The structure and function of an isolated protein
B) Collections of isolated genes
Good cloning vectors must possess all but which of the following qualities?
A) They should possess their own origin of replication
B) They should be readily accepted by the cloning host
C) They should be easily manipulated
E) They should be resistant to restriction endonucleases
E) They should be resistant to restriction endonucleases
A scientist has a processed mRNA transcript for a gene he/she wants to clone into a bacterial vector. What must
he/she do as a first step in this process? A) Use reverse transcriptase to create a cDNA molecule
B) Generate primers to the processed mRNA
C) Sequence the mRNA transcript
D) Digest the mRNA and cloning vector with the same restriction endonuclease
A) Use reverse transcriptase to create a cDNA molecule
The insertion of a cloning vector into a cloning host typically involves what process?
A) Transduction
B) Polymerase chain reaction
C) Transformation
D) Hybridization
E) Conjugation
C) Transformation
Following insertion of a cloning vector into a cloning host, why are the host cells plated on selective medium, which
usually contains an antibiotic?
A) Because all the host cells are naturally resistant to the antibiotic
B) Because all the host cells are naturally sensitive to the antibiotic
D) Because only those host cells that have been transformed by the vector will grow in the presence of the antibiotic
D) Because only those host cells that have been transformed by the vector will grow in the presence of the antibiotic
Which is untrue about restriction enzymes?
A) They are all produced naturally by plant cells.
B) They cut DNA at unique sequences.
C) Hundreds of restriction enzymes have been discovered.
D) Sometimes they generate "sticky ends" in the DNA.
E) Sometimes they generate "blunt ends" in the DNA.
A) They are all produced naturally by plant cells
Which is the primary benefit of using mammalian cells as cloning and expression hosts?
A) They may prevent allergic reactions to animal products.
B) They allow large scale production of enzymes, hormones, and antibodies.
C) Scientists know how to manipulate mammalian cells better than bacterial cells.
D) Mammalian cells carry out protein modification, which prokaryotic cells cannot do.
D) Mammalian cells carry out protein modification, which prokaryotic cells cannot do.
Transgenic microorganisms have been used to improve or benefit all but which of the following?
A) Meat yield
B) Drug therapy
C) Crop improvement
D) Pest reduction
E) Bioremediation
A) Meat yield
Which of the following is incorrect about DNA fingerprinting?
A) It is only used on new specimens.
B) It is routine to use it as trial evidence.
C) It was used to identify victims of the World Trade Center attacks.
D) The FBI has a national database of DNA fingerprints.
E) It can be used to determine genetic relationship between microbes.
A) It is only used on new specimens
In which method are probes applied to intact cells and observed microscopically for the presence and location of
specific marker sequences on genes?
A) Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)
B) Gene sequencing
C) Southern Blot
D) Gel Electrophoresis
E) Fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH)
E) Fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH)
Which of the following is incorrect about the pharmaceutical industry using recombinant DNA technology?
A) Human insulin can be produced on a large scale to treat diabetes.
B) Human growth hormone can be used to treat Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease.
C) vaccines can be made using recombinant technology.
D) Factor VIII can be made to treat hemophilia A.
E) The hormone erythropoietin (EPO) can be used to treat anemias.
B) Human growth hormone can be used to treat Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease.
The creation of a DNA fingerprint involves all but which of the following techniques?
A) Southern blotting
B) Western blotting
C) Polymerase chain reaction
D) The use of restriction endonucleases
E) Gel electrophoresis
B) Western blotting
All methods of DNA fingerprinting depend on some variation of what strategy?
A) Restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP)
B) GMOs
C) Gene therapy
D) Microarray analysis
E) Nucleic acid hybridization
A) Restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP)
Microarray analysis has allowed scientists to view what phenomenon?
A) The genome sequence in a cell
B) The cDNA of a cell
C) The RFLPs of a cell
D) The expression of specific genes in a cell
E) The number of genes in a cell
D) The expression of specific genes in a cell
For scientists involved in genetic technology, the most effective method of gaining support for their work is to use
what technique?
A) Advertising
B) Polls
C) Publicizing exaggerated claims and frightening scenarios
D) Education of the public
E) Focus groups
C) Publicizing exaggerated claims and frightening scenarios
Which gene is incorporated into plasmids to detect recombinant cells?
a. restriction endonuclease
b. Taq polymerase
c. antibiotic resistance
d. reverse transcript
c. antibiotic resistance
Which of the following is not essential to carry out the polymerase chain reaction?
a. primer
b. DNA polymerase
c. gel electrophoresis
d. high temperature
c. gel electrophoresis
Which of the following is not part of the Sanger method to sequence DNA?
a. dideoxy nucleotides
b. DNA polymerase
c. electrophoresis
d. reverse transcriptase
d. reverse transcriptase
The function of ligase is to?
a. rejoin segments of DNA
b. make longitudinal cuts in DNA
c. synthesize cDNA
d. break down ligaments
a. rejoin segments of DNA
The pathogen of plant roots that is used as a cloning host is?
a. Pseudomonas
b. Agrobacterium
c. Escherichia coli
d. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
b. Agrobacterium
Which of the following sequences, when combined with its complement, would be clipped by a restriction
endonuclease?
a. ATCGATCGTAGCTA
b. AAGCTTCGAA
c. GAATTC
d. ACCATTGGA
c. GAATTC
Which DNA fragment will be closet to the top (negative pole) of an electrophoretic gel?
a. 450 bp
b. 3560bp
c. 5 kb
d. 1500bp
c. 5 kb
Which fo the following is primary participant in cloning an islated gene?
a. restriction endonuclease
b. vector
c. host organism
d. all of these
d. all of these
For which of the following would a nucleic acid probe not be used?
a. locating a gene on a chromosome
b. developing a Southern blot
c. identifying a microorganism
c. constructing a recombiant plasmid
b. developing a Southern blot
A nucleic acid probe is?
a. enzyme that snips DNA molecules
b. oligonucleotide used in hybridization
c. thermostable enzyme
b. oligonucleotide used in hybridization
A non-template strand is?
a. complementary strand
b. the non-translated stand of DNA or RNA
c. strand of nucleic acid that is translated
b. the non-translated stand of DNA or RNA
A template strand is?
a. strand of nucleic acid that is transcribed or translated
b. thermostable enzyme for synthesizing DNA
c. oligonucleotide that initiates the PCR
a. strand of nucleic acid that is transcribed or translated
Reverse transcriptase is?
a. enzyme that transcribes RNA and DNA
b. enzyme that snips DNA at palindromes
c. oligonucleotide used in hybridization
a. enzyme that transcribes RNA and DNA
Taq polymerase is?
a. strand of nucleic acid that is transcribed
b. thermostable enzyme for synthesizing DNA
c. oligonucleotide used in hybridization
b. thermostable enzyme for synthesizing DNA
A primer is?
a. oligonucleotide used in hybridization
b. enzyme that snips DNA at plaindromes
c. strand of nucleic acid that is transcribed
d. oligonucleotide that initates the PCR
d. oligonucleotide that initates the PCR
An antisense DNA is?
a. complementary strand that blocks mRNA expression
b. strand of nucleotides
c. the non-translated strand of DNA or RNA
a. complementary strand that blocks mRNA expression
Restriction endonuclease is?
a. an enzyme that snips DNA at palindromes
b. enzyme that transcribes RNA and DNA
c. complementary strand that blocks mRNA expression
a. an enzyme that snips DNA at palindromes
What is the main reason that short tandem repeat method of analyzing DNA could not identify all victims?
a. It is too nonspecific
b. It does not work in degraded DNA
c. the amount of DNA in the specimen was too small
d. it is too slow to work on large numbers of samples
b. It does not work in degraded DNA
What was a feasible and important part of accurately identifying the terrorist?
a. A sample of their mitochondria DNA
b. A sample of their blood
c. A known sample of DNA from their families
d. Identification papers discovered at ground zero
c. A known sample of DNA from their families
Genetic treatments- Introducing DNA into the body Gene therapy-cells are altered inside within the body is?
a. In vivo
b. Ex vivo
a. In vivo
Genetic treatments- Introducing DNA into the body Gene therapy - cells are taken outside the body is?
a. In vivo
b. Ex vivo
b. Ex vivo
Definition
In order to clone eukaryotic DNA into prokaryotic cells
a. DNA with both exons and introns must be used
b. DNA without introns must be added
c. RNA with both exons and introns must be used
d. exons must be removed from eukaryotic DNA
e. introns must be added back to eukaryotic DNA
b. DNA without introns must be added
The exons of DNA must be used without any introns.
In the process of cloning eukaryotic DNA into prokaryotic cells, the role of reverse transcriptase is to make
a. double-stranded eukaryotic cDNA from mature mRNA
b. mature mRNA from precursor mRNA
c. bacterial DNA from eukaryotic DNA
c. double-stranded DNA with introns added back mRNA from DNA
a. double-stranded eukaryotic cDNA from mature mRNA
Reverse transcriptase makes DNA from RNA.
cDNA is
a. DNA with both introns and exons that can be cloned into prokaryotes
b. DNA with only introns that can be cloned into prokaryotes
c. eukaryotic DNA with only exons that can be cloned into prokaryotes
d. used to make precursor mRNA
c. eukaryotic DNA with only exons that can be cloned into prokaryotes
(...cDNA has only exons and can thus be cloned into prokaryotes.)
Prokaryotic DNA contains both exons and introns.
a. True
b. False
b. False
1. Prokaryotic DNA contains only exons; no introns are present. 2. RNA polymerase removes exons from precursor
RNA.
a. True
b. False
b. False
RNA polymerase transcribes the whole gene, including both introns and exons. Introns are later removed. In
traditional DNA fingerprinting, the DNA that has been collected is cut into smaller pieces by...
a. probe molecules.
b. restriction enzymes.
c. gel electrophoresis.
d. denaturation.
e. hybridization.
b restriction enzymes.
The resulting thousands of different sized DNA fragments are then separated by size using...
a. probe molecules.
b. restriction enzymes.
c. gel electrophoresis.
d. denaturation.
c. hybridization.
c. gel electrophoresis.
The addition of radiolabeled probe molecules to the DNA fragments results in...
a. hybridization.
b. denaturation.
c. filtration.
d. a gel blot.
e. exposure to x-ray film.
a. hybridization.
DNA fingerprinting is a method of identification based on a family's DNA traits.
a. True
b. False
b. False
The main difference between traditional DNA fingerprinting and the method that has superceded it is that the newer
method does not contain variable number of tandem repeat sequences - or VNTRs.
a. True
b. False
b. False
In traditional DNA fingerprinting, the DNA that has been collected is cut into smaller pieces by...
a. probe molecules.
b. restriction enzymes.
c. gel electrophoresis.
d. denaturation.
e. hybridization.
b. restriction enzymes.
The resulting thousands of different sized DNA fragments are then separated by size using...
a. probe molecules.
b. restriction enzymes.
c. gel electrophoresis.
d. denaturation.
e. hybridization.
c. gel electrophoresis.
The addition of radiolabeled probe molecules to the DNA fragments results in...
a. hybridization.
b. denaturation.
c. filtration.
d. a gel blot.
e. exposure to x-ray film.
a. hybridization.
DNA fingerprinting is a method of identification based on a family's DNA traits.
a. True
b. False
b. False
The main difference between traditional DNA fingerprinting and the method that has superceded it is that the newer
method does not contain variable number of tandem repeat sequences - or VNTRs.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Which of the following hybridize with the ends of the gene to be amplified?
a. Taq polymerase
b. deoxyribonucleotides
c. ribonucleotides
d. DNA molecules
e. DNA primers
e. DNA Primers
After heating and cooling the mixture, which of the following synthesizes the complementary strands of DNA?
a. Taq polymerase
b. deoxyribonucleotides
c. ribonucleotides
d. DNA molecules
e. DNA primers
a. Taq polymerase
This new complementary strand of DNA is constructed of which of the following?
a. Taq polymerase
b. deoxyribonucleotides
c. ribonucleotides
d. DNA molecules
e. DNA primers
b. deoxyribonucleotides
The polymerase chain reaction is a method for making copies of small amounts of several segments of DNA.
a. True
b. False
b. False
By running the polymerase chain reaction overnight for twenty-one cycles, a single segment of DNA can be amplified
to around a thousand copies.
a. True
b. False
b. False
The purpose of PCR is to
a. make more copies of DNA primers
b. to increase protein synthesis
c. make many copies of an organism’s DNA sequence so a small number of organisms will become large
enough to be identified
d. makes more RNA so large units of protein can be synthesized
e. recycles DNA using thermocyclers
c. makes any copies of an organism’s DNA sequence so a small number of organisms will become large enough to be
identified
PCR is used to amplify the amount of organism DNA present so it can be detected.
For DNA amplification to occur, which of the following are needed?
a. loose ribonucleotides
b. RNA primers
c. thermostable DNA polymerase
d. b and c
e. all of the above
c. thermostable DNA polymerase
RNA primers are not needed.
Taq polymerase starts copying at
a. the end of free single-stranded RNA
b. any open point
c. RNA primers attached to the end of the desired gene Correct answer:
d. DNA primers attached to the end of the desired gene
d. DNA primers attached to the end of the desired gene
Taq polymerase makes complementary DNA using DNA primer attached to the desired gene as the starting point
Using PCR, over 1 million copies of DNA can be made from a single strand of DNA overnight.
a. True
b. False
Correct: Over 1 million copies of DNA can be made in about 21 cycles run overnight.
When DNA is heated, primers anneal to DNA strands.
a. True
b. False
Correct: Primers anneal when DNA is cooled, not when heated.
Which of the following could NOT be the recognition site of a restriction endonculease?
a. GAATTC and CTTAAG
b. ATCGAT and TAGCTA
c. CTGCAG and GACGTC
d. GCTTGC and CGAACG
e. GGATCC and CCTAGG
d. GCTTGC and CGAACG
The single-stranded ends of DNA molecules can be joined together by
a. restriction endonucleases.
b. DNA ligase.
c. DNA polymerase.
d. primase.
e. helicase.
b. DNA ligase
Human DNA cut with restriction enzyme A can be joined to
a. human DNA cut with restriction enzyme B.
b. human DNA that is uncut.
c. bacterial DNA cut with restriction enzyme A.
d. bacterial DNA that is uncut.
e. none of the above
c. bacterial DNA cut with restriction enzyme A.
The joining of sticky ends involves the formation of phosphodiester bonds.
a. True
b. False
a. True
Restriction enzymes cut only at specific sites and therefore are not useful for genetic engineering.
a. True
b. False
b. False
The population is said to be ________ for restriction enzyme fragment patterns.
a. polygenic
b. polymorphic
c. polyphyletic
d. pericentric
e. pleotropic
b. polymorphic
RFLPs result because individuals in a population have
a. DNA sequence differences in the pattern of restriction sites.
b. DNA sequence differences that create different proteins.
c. DNA sequence differences that make DNA more susceptible to denaturation.
d. different mutations that alter the length of their mRNA.
e. mutations that make their mRNA more susceptible to degradation.
a. DNA sequence differences in the pattern of restriction sites.
RFLPs are separated by the
a. polymerase chain reaction.
b. northern blotting.
c. gel electrophoresis.
d. western blotting.
e. dideoxynucleotide sequencing.
c. gel electrophoresis.
RFLPs may arise through mutations.
a. True
b. False
a. True
RFLPs may be used as markers to identify people at risk of certain genetic disorders.
a. True
b. False
a. True
The primer used in Sanger sequencing
a. can have any nucleotide sequence
b. must have a sequence beginning and ending with the same nucleotide
c. has a nucleotide sequence complementary to the 3' end of the region to be copied
d. has a nucleotide sequence complementary to the 5' end of the region to be copied
c. has a nucleotide sequence complementary to the 3' end of the region to be copied
The primer has a nucleotide sequence that is complementary to the 3' end of the region to be copied so that DNA
polymerase can begin replication.
To carry out Sanger sequencing a mixture is needed containing
a. single-stranded DNA
b. DNA polymerase
c. four deoxyribonucleotides A, T, C, G
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
a. single-stranded DNA
b. DNA polymerase
c. four deoxyribonucleotides A, T, C, G
All of these components are needed.
When a dideoxy ribonucleotide is added to the tube
a. replication of the strand continues
b. replication of the strand stops
c. replication of the strand is not affected
d. replication of the strand is speeded up
b. replication of the strand stops
When a dideoxy ribonucleotide is added to the tube, replication of the strand stops.
To sequence DNA by this method, the DNA must first be made in single stranded form.
a. True
b. False
a. True
The DNA must be obtained in single stranded form to act as a template.
Examining the electrophoresis gel and reading from bottom to top, one base at a time, gives the sequence of DNA.
a. True
b. False
a. True
The oligonucleotides migrate by size. Reading the gel from from bottom to top, one base at a time, gives the sequence
of DNA.
The smaller the DNA fragment
a. the closer to the origin it will appear
b. the brighter color it produces with ethidium bromide
c. the faster it migrates during separation by electrophoresis
d. the slower it migrates during separation by electrophoresis
c. the faster it migrates during separation by electrophoresis
Smaller DNA fragments migrate faster and are able to go farther away from the origin. The purpose of the Southern
Blot test is
a. to look for a specific nucleotide sequence in the DNA being tested
b. to determine how closely two organisms are related
c. to identify the size of the fragment that contains the sequence
d. a and c
The steps involved in the Southern Blot test should be performed in the following order
1 = x-ray film
2 = electrophoresis
3 = digestion with restriction enzyme
4 = ethidium bromide
5 = radioactive probe
a. 3, 2, 4, 5, 1
b. 3, 4, 2, 5, 1
c. 3, 2, 5, 4, 1
d. 2, 4, 3, 5, 1
a. 3, 2, 4, 5, 1
The DNA probe will bind to identical nucleotide sequences on the test sample.
a. True
b. False
b. False
The DNA probe will bind to complementary nucleotide sequences on the test sample.
The position of the bound radioactive probe is made visible on x-ray film.
a. True
b. False
a. True
The position of the bound probe can be seen on the x-ray film.
In hybridization
a. two DNAs from the same source combine
b. DNA from two separate sources combine
c. DNA combines with complementary RNA
d. DNA is split into two separate pieces
b. DNA from two separate sources combine
DNA from two separate sources combine to make a hybrid.
DNA probes are used to
a. locate complementary RNA sequences in a test sample
b. make homologous DNA
c. make homologous RNA
d. locate a specific DNA nucleotide sequence in a test sample
d. locate a specific DNA nucleotide sequence in a test sample
For DNA probes to hybridize
a. DNA strands must be homologous, having regions with similar or identical nucleotide sequences
b. DNA strands must be non-homologous
c. DNA must be complementary to RNA
d. DNA must be fragmented by reverse transcriptase
a. DNA strands must be homologous, having regions with similar or identical nucleotide sequences
Correct: DNA strands must have regions with similar or identical nucleotide sequences in order for them to hybridize
Non-homologous DNA will attach to a DNA probe.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Only homologous DNA will attach. Non-homologous DNA will be washed away.
At high temperature, two complementary DNA strands will anneal.
a. True
b. False
b. False
At high temperatures, strands separate. When temperature is lowered, strands anneal.
Arrange the following events in the proper sequence for gene cloning.
1 = Incorporate gene into bacterial plasmid
2 = Isolate DNA from organism containing desired gene
3 = Incorporate cloned gene into bacterial cells
4 = Fragment DNA with restriction enzyme
a. 1, 2, 3, 4
b. 2, 1, 4, 3
c. 2, 3, 4, 1
d. 2, 4, 1, 3
e. 2, 4, 3, 1
d. 2, 4, 1, 3
The function of the enzyme ligase is to
a. add new DNA to the plasmid.
b. remove DNA from the plasmid.
c. form covalent bonds between cloned gene and plasmid.
d. repair damaged DNA.
e. purify the plasmid DNA.
c. form covalent bonds between cloned gene and plasmid
"Sticky ends" are
a. Correct answer: single-stranded DNA sequences
that are generated by staggered cuts.
b. double-stranded DNA sequences that are generated
by staggered cuts.
c. single-stranded DNA sequences that are generated
by blunt cuts.
d. double-stranded DNA sequences that are generated
by blunt cuts.
e. different from cohesive ends.
a. Correct answer: single-stranded DNA sequences that are generated by staggered cuts.
The plasmid used for cloning has a single restriction site.
a. True
b. False
a. True
Restriction enzymes cut DNA at random sites.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Restriction enzymes do all of the following except..
a. fragment DNA.
b. produce staggered cuts in specific DNA sequences.
c. generate fragments with cohesive ends.
d. isolate and purify DNA.
e. cleave plasmids.
d. isolate and purify DNA.
Plasmids containing DNA fragment are incorporated into bacterial hosts by...
a. conjugation.
b. transduction.
c. transformation.
d. transposons.
e. vectors.
c. transformation
Each of the different bacteria that contain the DNA fragments...
a. contain identical DNA fragments.
b. contain different DNA fragments.
c. contain the entire DNA library.
d. contain the desired cloned gene.
The cells containing the are then plated on an agar medium.
a. True
b. False