INTERNATIONAL INDIAN SCHOOL, DAMMAM

TALENT SEARCH EXAMINATION (TSE 2022-23)

UPPER PRIMARY SECTIONS
CLASS IV
STUDY MATERIAL

Note :1. Use the given study material as a reference for preparation of TSE .

2. Be updated with the current affairs from the month of Nov 22 to Jan 23.

TSE 2022-23 CLASS: IV SUB: MATHEMATICS

1. The thousands period has _____ places.
a) 3 b) 1 c) 2 d) 4

2. Write in figures: five lakh fifty thousand, two hundred forty six _____.
a) 5,55,246 b) 5,40,446 c) 5,44,256 d) 5, 50,246

3. The successor of 40,389 is ______.

a) 40,387 b) 40,390 c) 40,388 d) 40,489

4. Compare the following numbers: 30,003 ______ 30,030

a) < b) = c) > d) +

5. Round 749 to the nearest 10:

a) 700 b) 800 c) 750 d) 740

6. Build the smallest 5-digit number using 6, 4, 7, 8, 0.

a) 47,680 b) 4,678 c) 46,078 d) 40,678

7. Find the standard form of 10,000 + 200 + 60 + 3

a) 1,263 b) 10,263 c) 10,623 d) 10,026

8. Find the face value of 7 in 7,43, 816.

a) 70,000 b) 7, 00,000 c) 7 d) 7,000

9. The greatest 5-digit number is:

a) 9999 b) 10,000 c) 99,999 d) 10,009

10. Find the place value of underlined digit in 2,43,612.

a) 20,000 b) 2,00,000 c) 2 d) 200

11. 3 x 16 = 48, where 48 is the ______

a) Factor b) multiple c) sum d) product

12. 4,184 x 24 x 0 x 64 =___________

a) 4,184 b) 24 c) 0 d) 64

13. 925 x ______ = 400 x 925

a) 925 b) 400 c) 1 d) 0

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14. Find the product of 3942 x 4.
a) 15,768 b) 15,708 c) 15,807 d) 15,678

15. The product of 13 x 40 is ____________.

a) 52 b) 5200 c) 3200 d) 520

16. The product of two numbers is 15,000. One number is 5, and the other number is
a) 300 b) 75,000 c) 3,000 d) 1,500

17. 763 x _______ = 76,300

a) 1000 b) 10 c) 100 d)10,000

18. Multiply 173 x 214.

a) 35,022 b) 37,022 c) 36,922 d) 35,002

19. The product of 15 by itself is ___________.

a) 15 b) 1 c) 525 d) 225

20. Find the product of a baker’s dozen and a dozen.

a) 144 b) 156 c) 169 d) 72

21. If a number is divisible by 10, then its last digit is

a) 1 b) 5 c) 0 d) 2

22. Which is the greatest common factor of 4 and 16?

a) 2 b) 9 c) 10 d) 4

23. The factors of a number are _______________.

a) Unlimited b) limited c) zero d) none of the above

24. Which is the smallest factor of every number?

a) 1 b) 0 c) 9 d) 5

25. There are _____ prime numbers between 1 and 100

a) 28 b) 27 c) 26 d) 25

26. ______ numbers have more than two factors.

a) Prime b) even c) composite d) odd

27. Which is the smallest even composite number?

a) 9 b) 4 c) 3 d) 2

28. 1 and 5 are the common factors of _____

a) 6 and 12 b) 14 and 21 c) 6 and 9 d) 15 and 25

29. _______ is the method of finding all prime numbers which multiply to make the original
number.
a) Prime factorization b) Integration c) Number line d) Menus ration

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30. The odd prime numbers between 60 and 70 are ___________
a) 60 and 61 b) 61 and 63 c) 65 and 67 d) 61 and 67

31. How many tens make a thousand?

a) 10 b) 100 c) 1 d) 1000

32. Find the difference between largest 5-digit number and smallest 4-digit number?
a) 10,000 b) 9,998 c) 98,999 d) 99,988

33. 100 millions = ______ crores.

a) 10 b) 1 c) 1000 d) 100

34. Find the sum of the place and face value of the underlined digit in the number: 7,84,362
a) 4000 b) 4004 c) 4400 d) 4444

35. The predecessor of the greatest 5-digit number is ____________

a) 99999 +2 b) 99999 +1 c) 99999-2 d) 99999-1

36. What will the product be, if we multiply the triple of 6 by the triple of 100?
a) 600 b) 5400 c) 1800 d) 1800

37. What is 6 less than the product of 18 and 10 ?

a) 180 b) 8 c) 174 d) 6

38. 18 fives plus ten = _________ times 20.

a) 6 b) 5 c) 10 d) 8

39. Which number multiplied by itself gives 169?

a) 19 b) 16 c) 15 d) 13

40. What is 12 more than the product of 22 and 5 ?

a) 110 b) 27 c) 122 d) 60

41. Find the sum of half a dozen and one third of a dozen.
a) 24 b) 20 c) 10 d) 36

42. 1/3 of 30 - 1/10 of 30 = _________

a) 7 b) 17 c) 70 d) 27

43. If 1/4 of a number is 20, then what is the number?

a) 40 b) 20 c) 80 d) 10

44. What is half of 500 ml?

a) 100 ml b) 200 ml c) 250 ml d) 10 ml

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45. What will you get when you double 1/3 of a lunar month?
a) 9 b) 12 c) 24 d) 18

46. _______ one-thirds make a whole.

a) 2 b) 1 c) 4 d) 3

47. The total number of equal parts in a whole is referred as _______.

a) Denominator b) Numerator c) factor d) fraction

48. 3/8 can be read as _________.

a) Three eight b) third-eight c) three-eighths d) eight – thirds

49. Write the fraction of the unshaded portion.

a) 5/12 b) 6/12 c) 7/12 d) 12/12

50. 5/6 of 2 dozen is _________.

a) 10 b) 12 c) 20 d) 24

51. Choose the improper fraction

a) 1/7 b) 13/7 c) 4/7 d) 7/13

52. The proper fractions with 1 as the numerator are called _______ fractions
a) Mixed b) improper c) unit d) like

53. Convert 1 into an improper fraction.

a) 12/4 b) 13/4 c)4/4 d)7/4

54. Convert 8/5 into a mixed number.

a) 3 b) 1 c) 5 d) 1

55. 4/15 + 2/15 + 6/15 =______________

a) 5/12 b) 6/15 c) 12/15 d) 8/15

56. Which is the largest 1-digit prime number?

a) 9 b) 5 c) 7 d) 1

57. A prime number is a number which is divisible by ______ and itself.

a) 0 b) 1 c) 5 d) 3

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58. There are _____ composite numbers between 11 and 30.
a) 14 b) 5 c) 15 d) 13

59. The Greek mathematician who gave a method for finding out prime numbers by
removing numbers that are not prime.
a) Aristotle b) Eratosthenes c) Archimedes d) Pythagoras

60. Which of the following numbers is divisible by 9?

a) 37026 b) 541248 c) 542314 d) 36443

61. We use ___________ when we put together two or more numbers.

a) division b) multiplication c) addition d) subtraction

62. The numbers that are added are called ________________.

a) subtrahend b) addends c) minuend d) none of these

63. The sum of any number and ______________ is the same number.
a) zero b) 1 c) 2 d) 100

64. 1,336 + 2,984 + 1 ______ 0 + 2,984 +1,336

a) = b) > c) < d) none of these

65. The sum of the largest 4-digit number and the smallest 5-digit number is ___
a) 1,999 b) 9,999 c) 10,999 d) 19,999

66. The operation in which one number is taken away from the other is called as
a) division b) multiplication c) addition d) subtraction

67. The number from which we subtract the other number is called___________.
a) subtrahend b) minuend c) difference d) none of these

68. ______+ 900 = 1100.

a) 100 b) 1,000 c) 0 d) 200

69. 9,065 – 0 = _______________

a) 0 b) 965 c) 9,065 d) 9,066

70. Find the number that is 12 less than 180.

a) 178 b) 188 c) 168 d) 160

71. What will be the difference if the sum of 190 and 61 is subtracted from 251.
a) 251 b) 250 c) 0 d) 190

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72. Sana buys 3kg of red apples, 4 kg of green apples, 8 kg of white apples and 2 kg of
yellow apples. She makes12 liters of juice using only yellow and white apples. How many
kilograms does she use in all?
a) 10kg b) 16kg c) 4kg d) 7kg

73. 3,627 + ___________ = 0 + 1,927 + 3,627

a) 0 b) 1,927 c) 3,627 d) none of these

74. Sum of smallest 4-digit number and the smallest 2-digit number.
a) 1,010 b) 2,010 c) 1,001 d) 110

75. Find the number that is 17 more than 29.

a) 42 b) 47 c) 46 d) 49

76.Any number divided by itself gives ____ as the quotient.

a) 0 b) 1 c) number itself d) none of these

77. 21÷ 1 = ________

a) 0 b) 1 c) 21 d) none of these

78.If 400 ÷ 100, then Q = __________.

a) 0 b) 10 c) 4 d) 400

79. If 242 ÷ 10, then Q = ________, R = 2

a) 2 b) 42 c) 24 d) 200

80. How many 6s are there in 69?

a) 6 b) 9 c) 10 d) 11

81. 700 ÷ ____ = 7

a) 10 b) 20 c) 7 d) 100

82. ______ ÷ 10 = Q = 75
a) 75 b) 10 c) 750 d) 700

83. There are _________ hundreds in 4,500.

a) 45 b) 450 c) 500 d) 50

84. 160 ÷ 4 ____ 5 x 8

a) > b) < c) = d) none of these

85. What is the cost of one coconut if 100 coconuts cost 2,000?
a) 200 b) 20 c) 50 d) none of these

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86. 200 wheels for how many bicycles?
a) 50 b) 100 c)75 d) none of these

87. Leena and three of her friends bought a water game for Rs 392. What was each share?
a) 98 b) 90 c) 39 d) 92

88. Divide 65 children into a team of 5. Then there will be ____ number of teams.
a) 13 b) 12 c) 11 d) 10

89. Share 64 chocolates between 4 children. Then each child will get ____chocolates.
a) 24 b) 14 c) 16 d) 20

90. Sima has 32 socks which she puts into pairs. How many pairs of socks can she make?
a) 24 b) 14 c) 16 d) 20

91. There is no end to the __________, we can get of a particular number.

a) factors b) multiples c) factors and multiples d) none of these

92. Every ____________ of a number is greater than or equal to the number itself.
a) factor b) multiple c) factor and multiple d) none of these

93. 6 x 8 = 48, here 48 is a _______________.

a) factor b) multiple c) sum d) difference

94. _______ is a multiple of 5.

a) 46 b) 47 c) 45 d) 48

95. 30 is a common multiple of __________.

a) 5 and 7 b) 5 and 4 c) 5 and 6 d) none of these

96. 2 x 3 x 4 = 24, so 24 is a ____________ of 2, 3 and 4

a) factor b) multiple c) sum d) difference

97. 4, 8, 12, 16, 20 are ____________ of 4.

a) factors b) multiples c) factors and multiples d) none of these

98. 6, 12, 18 are multiples of ___________.

a) 2 and 4 b) 3 and 4 c) 3 and 9 d) 3 and 6

99. 11, 22, 33, 44 and 56 are all multiples of ________.

a) 11 b) 12 c) 10 d) 1

100. A __________ is the product of two given numbers.

a) factor b) difference c) sum d) multiple

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101. Double a number is 48. What is half the number?
a) 27 b) 24 c) 23 d) 25

102. 72 is a multiple of ___________.

a) 10 b) 5 c) 3 d) none of these

103. 6, 18, 24 are not multiples of _____.

a) 2 and 6 b) 3 and 6 c) 3 and 5 d) 2 and 3

104.100, 200, 300,400 are multiples of ___.

a) 10 and 5 b) 2 and 3 c) 5 and 6 d) none of these

105. 15, 30, 45, 60 are multiples of _______.

a) 3 and 10 b) 3 and 15 c) 3 and 4 d) none of these

106. The digit to the right side of the point conveys that it is _________ one whole.
a) equal to b) less than c) greater than d) none of these

107. 0.9 + 0.1 = a) 1.1 b) 10 c) 1.0 d) 9.0

108. Write the decimal which comes after 10.99 _______.

a) 11.00 b) 10.100 c) 1.100 d) none of these

109. = _______ a) 72.1 b) 100.72 c) 0.72 d) 71

110. 72 and 28 hundredths = _____

a) 72.28 b) 100.72 c) 0.72 d) 71

111. 1.6 is read as________.

a) 1 and 6 tenths b) 1 and 6 tens c) 1 and 6 d) none of these

112. Choose the correct pattern:

a) 0.8, 0.9, 0.10 b) 0.8, 0.9,1.0 c)0.8, 0.9, 0.01 d) 0.8, 0.9, 0.001

113. The ___________in the denominator tells us about the number of decimal places.
a) ones b) tens c) zeros d) hundreds

114. Complete the pattern 4.6, 4.7, 4.8, ____, _______, _____.
a) 4.9, 5.0, 5.1 b) 4.9, 4.10, 4.11 c) 4.9, 4.010, 4.011 d) none of these

115. 1 tenth = _____ hundredths.

a) 100 b) 1 c) 10 d) 101

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 116. Write the decimal for
a) 9.3 b) 93.0 c) 0.93 d) 90.3

117. Write the fraction for 1.31

a) b) c) d)

118. Choose the decimal in words for 2.1.

a) two and one tenth b) two and one tens c) twenty one hundredths d) none of these

119. Seventeen hundredths can be written as _______.

a) b) c) d)

120. 12.02 is equal to ___

a) b) c) d)

ANSWER KEY
TSE 2022-23 CLASS: IV SUB: MATHEMATICS
1. c- 2 2. d- 5,50,246 3. b- 40,390
4. a-30,003 < 30,030 5.c-750 6. d-40,678
7. b-10,263 8. c-7 9. c-99,999
10.b-2,00,000 11. d-product 12. c-0
13. b-400 14. a-15,768 15. d-520
16. c-3000 17. c-100 18. b-37,022
19. d-225 20. b-156 21. c-0
22. d-4 23. b-limited 24. a-1
25. d-25 26. c-composite 27. b-4
28. d-15 and 25 29. a-prime factorization 30. d-61 & 67
31. b -100 32. c – 98999 33. a – 10 crore
34. b – 4004 35.d-99999 – 1 36. b – 5400
37. c – 174 38. b – 5 39. d – 13
40. c – 122 41. c – 10 42. a – 7
43. c – 80 44. c – 250 ml 45. d – 18

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46. d – 3 47. a – denominator 48. c – three eighths
49. a – 5/12 50. c – 20 51. b – 13/7

52. c – unit 53. d – 7/4 54. b - 1

55. c – 12/15 56. c – 7 57. b – 1

58. d – 13 59. b – Eratosthenes 60. a – 37026
61. c) addition 62. b) addends 63. a) zero
64. b) > 65. d) 19,999 66. d) subtraction
67. b) minuend 68. d) 200 69. c) 9,065
70. c) 168 71. c) 0 72. a) 10kg
73. b) 1,927 74. a)1,010 75. c) 46
76. b) 1 77. c) 21 78. c) 4
79. c) 24 80. d) 11 81. d) 100
82. c) 750 83. a) 45 84. c) =
85. b) 20 86.b) 100 87.a) 98
88. a) 13 89. c) 16 90. c) 16
91. b) multiples 92. b) multiple 93. b) multiple
94.c) 45 95. c) 5 and 6 96. b) multiple
97. b) multiples 98. d) 3 and 6 99. d) 1
100. d) multiple 101. b) 24 102. c) 3
103. c) 3 and 5 104.a) 10 and 5 105. b) 3 and 15
106. b) less than 107. c) 1.0 108. a) 11.00
109. c) 0.72 110. a) 72.28 111. a) 1 and 6 tenths
112. b) 0.8, 0.9,1.0 113. c) zeros 114. a) 4.9, 5.0, 5.1
115. c) 10 116. a) 9.3 117.d) 131/100
118. a) two and one tenth 119. c) 17/100 120. c) 1202/100

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 QUESTIONS
TSE 2022 – 2023 CLASS : IV SUBJECT : EVS
1) _____________ is not only soft and comfortable to wear but also good for the environment.
a) Nylon b) Polyester c) Rayon d) Organic cotton
2) A Gram Panchayat is elected for a period of ___________ years.
a) one b) six c) five d) three
3) __________________are the glimpse of our past.
a) Rivers b) Roads c) Streets d) Monuments
4) Trees keep the atmosphere cool as they release __________________ in the air.
a) water vapour b) carbon dioxide c) helium d) ozone
5) _____are the main source of revenue for carrying out development work by the government.
a) Taxes b) Loans c) Donations d) None of these
6) Identify the plant product.
a) wool b) medicine c) honey d) silk
7) Which of the following is not needed in photosynthesis?
a) carbon dioxide b) water c) food d) sunlight
8) ____________________ are used to protect silk and woollen clothes.
a) Perfumes b) Detergents c) Soaps d) Naphthalene balls
9) Phiran – salwar are the traditional clothes worn by the people of ___________________.
a) Rajasthan b) Jammu and Kashmir c) Gujarat d) West Bengal
10) The broad flat part of the leaf is called ______________.
a) lamina b) vein c) mid rib d) apex
11) Factories and vehicles give out ___________________.
a) oxygen b) nitrogen c) carbon dioxide d) sulphur
12) Gandhiji used Charkha for a process called _______________.
a) knitting b) spinning c) stitching d) printing
13) The head of a Municipal Corporation is called ________________.
a) Mayor b) Sarpanch c) Pradhan d) Gram Sevak

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14) Special clothes worn by people in certain professions are known as __________

a) raincoats b) uniforms c) party wear d) all of these

15) The destruction of Public Property causes great losses to the ________________.

a) offices b) schools c) privates d) government

16) Which of the processes is done to make a sweater ?

a) weaving b) stitching c) spinning d) knitting

17) Biodegradable matter breaks down naturally with exposure to _______________.

a) heat b) micro organisms c) air d) wind

18) Kesar is obtained from ____________ flower.

a) sunflower b) rose c) orchid d) crocus

19) _______________ is a stem that we eat.

a) Carrot b) Sugarcane c) Turnip d) Radish

20) Which of the following is not one of the 3R’s of waste management?

a) reduce b) reuse c) reproduce d) recycle

21) Noise pollution results in ____________.

a) skin allergy b) asthma c) hearing impairment d) bronchitis

22) Which part of a plant is called its food factory?

a) stem b) leaf c) root d) branches

23) _____________ are dried flower buds.

a) Pepper b) Cloves c) Cinnamon d) Cardamom

24) Converting used items into raw materials and then making new products from it is called
___________. a) replacing b) reducing c) recycling d) reusing

25) Which of the following is a greatest threat for our environment?

a) polybags b) fruit peels c) paper wastes d) cow dung

26) We eat the leaves of the following plants except ____________.

a) spinach b) coriander c) lotus d) mint

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27) Cutting down of more and more trees is called _______________.

a) afforestation b) deforestation c) plantation d) farming

28) Carpool must be encouraged to avoid _______________.

a) water pollution b) soil pollution c) air pollution d) both a and b

29) Which among these is a non flowering plant?

a) Moss b) Iris c) Cosmos d) Daffodil

30) Which among these is not a public property?

a) street light b) library c) bicycle d) postbox

31) Plants get ____________ from the sun for preparing food.

a) heat energy b) wind energy c) light energy d) water energy

32) _________is the managing body of a village which provides services to the village people.

a) Municipal Corporation b) Club c) Gram Panchayat d) Municipal Committee

33) An activity that helps in bringing a change.

a) campaign b) recreation c) exhibition d) none of these

34) _________________ should be kept away from historical monuments.

a) Rivers b) Parks c) Museums d) Factories

35) Which of the following is an artificial fibre?

a) nylon b) silk c) wool d) cotton

36) The edible part of broccoli is its ______________.

a) leaf b) flower c) fruit d) stem

37) Air pollution is caused by the release of ______________ in air.

a) oxygen b) water vapour c) toxic gases d) both a and b

38) All living and non-living things make up the ____________.

a) exosphere b) atmosphere c) environment d) surroundings

39) ______________ are tiny pores through which gaseous exchange occurs in plant.

a) Apex b) Stomata c) Lamina d) Stalk

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40) The process by which seeds get proper air, water and warmth and they grow into new
plants is known as ______________.

a) photosynthesis b) transpiration c) germination d) precipitation

41) Petunia blooms during the ___________ season.

a) summer b) winter c) spring d) throughout the year
42) People who sell ___________ are called Florists.
a) flowers b) flours c) fruits d) plants
43) Technology has created a new type of waste called ____________.
a) biodegradable waste b) solid waste c) e - waste d) chemical waste
44) A ___________is an area of land used for growing crops and rearing animals.
a) forests b) hills c) desert d) farm
45) _____________ is called the ‘ Land of coconuts ‘.
a) Tamil Nadu b) Sri Lanka c) Kerala d) Karnataka
46) Linen is obtained from _______ plant.
a) flax b) jute c) cotton d) rami
47) Kimono is a traditional dress of the people of __________.
a) China b) Korea c) Africa d) Japan
48) CNG and LPG do not cause _____ pollution. a) water b) air c) noise d) soil
49) Rain coats and umbrellas are made of ___________ materials.
a) cotton b) woolen c) silk d) water proof
50) The method of burning medical wastes in big furnaces is called ___________.
a) decomposition b) incineration c) sanitation d) conservation
51) Rita has asthma because of ______________________.
a) too much smoke b) no clean drinking water
c) too much noise d) littering on road side
52) Which of the following plants has chlorophyll in its stem?
a) fir b) cactus c) amla d) eucalyptus
53) __________ is a cooking gas formed by the decay of cow dung and other organic wastes.
a) LPG b) CNG c) LNG d) Gobar gas

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54) ______________ is an insectivorous plants.
a) Spruce b) Duck weed c) Pond weed d) Sundew
55) Which of the following is a free floating water plant?
a) water hyacinth b) tape grass c) lotus d) water lily
56) Mangrove trees grow in ______________.

a) cold areas b) hilly areas c) desert areas d) marshy areas

57) Taj Mahal has become yellow in colour due to _____________.

a) acid rain b) greenhouse effect c) global warming d) algae and fungi

58) Food prepared in plants is stored in the form of __________.

a) proteins b) minerals c) starch d) fats

59) Increase of ______________ in our environment causes global warming.

a) oxygen b) nitrogen c) hydrogen d) carbon dioxide

60) _____________ contains a baby plant and food for the new plant.

a) Flower b) Fruits c) Seeds d) Roots

61) Where is stomach located?

a) lower abdomen, above the ribs b) lower abdomen, under the ribs
c) upper abdomen, under the ribs d) upper abdomen, above the ribs

62. A strong rush of emotions accelerates our ____________________________.

a) blood clotting b) heartbeat c) digestion d) inhalation

63. The absorption of water from the undigested food takes place in the __________.

a) large intestine b) stomach c) kidneys d) small intestine

64. ____________ from our sense organs send and receive signals from the brain.

a) Nerves b) Proteins c) Blood d) Chemicals

65. ____________ provides the body with oxygen and nutrients.

a) Lungs b) Blood c) Liver d) Stomach

66. Brain is a part of the ____________system.

a) circulatory b) nervous c) digestive d) excretory

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67. Iron and calcium are ____________.

a) minerals b) vitamins c) fats d) proteins

68. Something which can die or decay quickly

a) fermentation b) roughage c) sprouting d) perishable

69. Choose the correct one:

a) farmers → mandi → retailers → home

b) farmers → retailers → mandi → home

c) retailers → farmers → mandi → home

d) mandi → farmers → retailers → home

70. When the dough is left overnight, it will ____________.

a) sprout b) dry c) ferment d) freeze

71. ____________ preserves the food for a short period of time.

a) Canning b) Drying c) Sweetening d) Boiling

72. ____________ repair the damaged parts of our body.

a) Carbohydrates b) Fats c) Proteins d) Vitamins

73. Our food has ____________ important nutrients.

a) 4 b) 3 c) 5 d) 6

74. Working without wire connection to the main supply is called ____________.

a) broadcast b) cordless c) GPS d) internet

75. Which among the means of communication was introduced first?

a) television b) computer c) telephone d) telex

76. The cheapest mode of communication is ____________.

a) mobile phone b) email c) letter d) SMS

77. Live programs on television and weather forecast are brought through

a) computer b) mobile phone c) cable wire d) satellites

78. ____________ is used for both personal and mass communication.

a) radio b) social media c) FAX d) postcard

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79. Recycling of old tyres is known as ____________.

a) pyrolysis b) pyrosis c) pyrogenesis d) pyrolis

80. ____________transport is very useful during natural calamities.

a) Water b) Land c) Air d) Rail

81. ____________ is the longest highway in India.

a) NH 27 b) NH 7 c) NH 47 d) NH 17

82. ____________ is used to generate electricity.

a) Persian wheel b) Waterwheel c) Potter’s wheel d) Ferris wheel

83. The most important use of wheel is its use in the ____________.

a) irrigation b) means of transportation c) windmills d) machines.

84. Full form of NHAI.

a) National Highway Association of India b) National Human Association of India

c) National Human Authority of India d) National Highway Authority of India

85. Heating up and cooling down of land is

a) faster than water b) less than water

c) same as that of water d) less than air.

86. Which among the sports activities is not using wind?

a) sailing b) surfing c) wrestling d) paragliding

87. ____________ is needed for burning.

a) Carbohydrates b) Hydrogen c) Nitrogen d) Oxygen

88. Which is not the property of air?

a) Air cannot be seen b) Air has no weight

c) Air moves d) Air occupies space

89. Sea breeze and land breeze occur in ____________.

a) coastal regions b) hilly areas c) polar regions d) forests

90. The major cause of air pollution is ____________.

a) dust b) smoke c) water vapour d) all the above

TSE CLASS IV P a g e | 17
91. The amount of nitrogen present in air.

a) 21% b) 1% c) 78% d) 57%

92. Humidity is the amount of ____________ present in the air.

a) water b) water vapour c) smoke d) helium

93. Fog reduces the human vision to less than ____________.

a) 1 km b) 2 kms c) 3 kms d) 4 kms

94. The process of fall of water, ice or snow deposited on the surface of the earth.

a) evaporation b) condensation c) precipitation d) humidity

95. We experience ____________ weather during monsoon.

a) hot b) humid c) warm d) cold

96. When raindrops pass through very cold air in the atmosphere, it causes the formation of

a) hail b) fog c) dew d) frost

97. The atmospheric condition of a place at a particular time

a) season b) weather c) climate d) none of these

98. Change in seasons is caused due to ____________.

a) heat of sun b) revolution c) rotation d) change in weather

99. The rate of evaporation is faster.

a) on sunny days b) on windy days c) When surface area is large d) all of these

100. Which among the following is not true?

a) Dry air increases the rate of evaporation. b) Sun’s rays fall straight at noon.

c) Half of the earth’s surface is covered with water.

d) Change in weather takes place due to the Sun.

101. ____________ has no nutritive value and cannot be digested by the body.

a) Carbohydrates b) roughage c) minerals d) fats

102. Which vitamin helps the blood to clot?

a) Vitamin A b) Vitamin D c) Vitamin E d) Vitamin K

103. If you keep a lid above the boiling water, you will observe water droplets under the
lid. This occurs due to ____________.

a) evaporation b) condensation c) precipitation d) reaction

TSE CLASS IV P a g e | 18
104. If you send a photograph through an email from Saudi Arabia to a friend in India, how
long will it take to reach?

a) within a few seconds b) from a few minutes to an hour

c) from a few days to a week d) within a month

105. Full form of CNG.

a) Condensed Nitrogen Gas b) Compressed Natural Gas

c) Compressed Nitrogen Gas d) Condensed Natural Gas

106. FM and AM are the terms used with regard to ____________.

a) television b) time c) radio d) movies

107. Sound cannot travel in space because ____________.

a) there is no air b) there is no energy c) there is no light d) there is no gravity

108. ____________ is used in fire extinguishers.

a) Carbon dioxide b) Oxygen c) Argon d) Krypton

109.How long does the earth take to complete one rotation?

a) 15 hours b) 48 hours c) 24 hours d) 96 hours

110. How long does the earth take to complete one revolution?

a) 365 days b) 365 days and 2 hours

c) 365 days and 9hours d) 365 days and 6 hours

111. Which among the following is the longest?

a) large intestine b) small intestine c) food pipe d) stomach

112. I have a crown, I am not a king. I have a neck, I am not an animal.

I have a root, I am not a plant. Who am I?

a) Eye b) Tooth c) Tongue d) Nail

113. Largest organ in the human body.

a) Liver b) Brain c) Skin d) Leg

114. Hot air balloon rises up in the air because

a) hot air is heavier than cold air b) hot air is lighter than cold air

c) of the humidity of the air d) of large surface area

115. Alice is suffering from protein deficiency. Which of the following should she have in
her diet?

a) rice b) bean c) carrot d) lettuce

TSE CLASS IV P a g e | 19
116. If you were exposed to air pollution, what kind of illness would you probably get?

a) heart attack b) asthma c) pneumonia d) malaria

117. In which season the nights are much longer than the days.

a) spring b) summer c) winter d) autumn

118. What is glass made from?

a) clay b) mud c) metal d) sand

119. Which device is used to measure temperature?

a) thermometer b) barometer c) hydrometer d) stethoscope

120. The study of weather and climate.

a) astronomy b) astrology c) geology d) meteorology

ANSWERS
ISTS 2022-23 CLASS – IV SUBJECT – EVS
1) d) Organic cotton 2) c) five 3) d) Monuments

4) a) water vapour 5) a) Taxes 6) b) medicine

7) c) food 8) d) Naphthalene balls 9) b) Jammu and Kashmir

10) a) lamina 11) c) carbon dioxide 12) b) spinning

13) a) Mayor 14) b) uniforms 15) d) government

16) d) knitting 17) b) micro organisms 18) d) crocus

19) b) Sugarcane 20) c) reproduce 21) c) hearing impairment

22) b) leaf 23) b) Cloves 24) c) recycling

25) a) polybags 26) c) lotus 27) b) deforestation

28) c) air pollution 29) a) Moss 30) c) bicycle

31) c) light energy 32) c) Gram Panchayat 33) a) campaign

34) d) Factories 35) a) nylon 36) b) flower

37) c) toxic gases 38) c) environment 39) b) Stomata

40) c) germination 41) b) winter 42) a) flowers

43) c) e - waste 44) d) farm 45) c) Kerala

TSE CLASS IV P a g e | 20
46) a) flax 47) d) Japan 48) b) air pollution

49) d) water proof 50) b) incineration 51) a) too much smoke

52) b) cactus 53) d) Gobar gas 54) d) Sundew

55) a) water hyacinth 56) d) marshy areas 57) a) acid rain

58) c) starch 59) d) carbon dioxide 60) c) Seeds

61)c) upper abdomen, under the ribs 62) b) heartbeat

63) a) large Intestine 64) a) Nerves 65) b) Blood

66) b) nervous 67) a) minerals 68) d) perishable

69) a) farmers → mandi → retailers → home 70) c) ferment

71) d) Boiling 72) c) Proteins 73) c) 5

74) b) cordless 75) d) telex 76) c) letter

77) d) satellites 78) b) social media 79) a) pyrolysis

80) c) Air 81) b) NH 7 82) b) Waterwheel

83) b) means of transportation 84) d) National Highway Authority of India

85) a) faster than water 86) c) wrestling 87) d) Oxygen

88) b) Air has no weight 89) a) coastal regions 90) b) smoke

91) c) 78% 92) b) water vapour 93) a) 1 km

94) c) precipitation 95) b) humid 96) a) hail

97) b) weather 98) b) revolution 99) d) all of these

100) c) Half of the earth’s surface is covered with water. 101) b) roughage

102) d) Vitamin K 103) b) condensation 104) a) within a few seconds

105) b) Compressed Natural Gas 106) c) radio 107) a) there is no air

108) a) Carbon dioxide 109) c) 24 hours 110) d) 365 days and 6 hours

111) b) small intestine 112) b) Tooth 113) c) Skin

114) b) hot air is lighter than cold air 115) b) bean

116) b) asthma 117) c) winter 118) d) sand

119) a) thermometer 120) d) meteorology

TSE CLASS IV P a g e | 21
 QUESTIONS
TSE 2022 – 2023 CLASS : IV SUBJECT : ENGLISH
1. A _____________________ of ducks.
a) crowd b) paddling c) heap d) panel
2. My favourite book is Great Expectations. (Identify proper noun)
a) Favourite b) Great Expectations c) book d) my
3. A __________________________ noun always begins with a capital letter.
a) proper b) common c) collective d) abstract
4. The opposite of the abstract noun friendship is _________________.
a) cruelty b) sorrow c) enmity d) cowardice
5. Bravery is an example of ___________________ noun.
a) common b) proper c) abstract d) collective
6. A crowd has gathered outside the stadium. Identify the common noun.
a) crowd b) stadium c) gathered d) outside
7. A noun that refers to a collection or group of people, animals or things is
a) common noun b) proper noun c) collective noun d) abstract noun
8. Aladdin was a poor boy who lived in a village. Aladdin is a/an __________ noun.
a) proper b) common c) collective d) abstract
9. Action, kindness, bouquet, patience. Choose the odd one.
a) action b) kindness c) bouquet d) patience
10. As hard is related to stone so soft is related to __________.
a) mountain b) glass c) fur d) water
11. These are all examples for masculine gender except _____________.
a) bull b) gander c) actor d) witch
12. Which among the following is of the feminine gender?
a) duchess b) god c) duke d) stage
13. What is the opposite gender of fox?
a) doe b) jenny c) vixen d) mare

TSE CLASS IV P a g e | 22
14. All of these are genders applicable for a person or a living thing except __________.
a) feminine b) masculine c) neuter d) common
15. A colt is a masculine name for ________.
a) sheep b) filly c) peacock d) rabbit
16. Which of the following belong to the common gender of noun?
a) actor b) engineer c) master d) baron
17. All of these are of the feminine gender except _____________.
a) lady b) nephew c) nun d) ewe
18. Which gender do ‘doctors’ belong to?
a) common b) neuter c) masculine d) feminine
19. As bull is opposite to cow so earl is opposite to
a) countess b) hind c) stag d) mare
20. How many genders of the noun are there?
a) two b) three c) four d) five
21. Have you heard that a friend of _____________ went to Vietnam?
a) my b) mine c) her d) their
22. That is the girl __________ brother came to see________.
a) that/ we b) whom/its c) what /us d) whose/us
23. Why is __________________sitting in the dark?
a) we b) you c) I d) she
24. Leave the children alone. (replace with suitable pronoun)
a) they b) them c) its d) us
25. ____________ are pencils and _____________is a pen.
a) These/that b) That/this c) Those/these d) Those/them
26._____________is the food _________________eats.
a) This/you b) That/I c) This/it d) none of these
27. After school, you and ______________ must discuss a few things.
a) I b) his c) his d) hers

TSE CLASS IV P a g e | 23
28. Where shall ________________ go from here?
a) you b) us c) we d) them
29._______________ need to follow me closely.
a) You b) He c) She d) It
30.Sarah wanted Lisa to follow ___________________.
a) she b) they c) I d) her
31.___________________ verbs are helping verbs.
a) Action words b) Main verbs c) Auxiliary verbs d) none of the above
32. When ____________ you buy this camera?
a) did b) does c) buy d) none of these
33. Has, have, had are ______________________ helping verbs.
a) action b) being c) ownership d) none of these
34. The train ______________ late but arrived on time. Choose the opposite verb.
a) reached b) departed c) stopped d) none of the above
35. My brother knows how to fly an airplane. He ___________ a pilot.
a) is b) are c) am d) were
36. That movie__________ funny. In fact, it’s quite boring.
a) is b) isn’t c) aren’t d) are
37. The baby slept soundly in the crib. (Identify the verb)
a) baby b) slept c) soundly d) crib
38. Mr. Obama ____________ given many speeches.
a) gave b) have c) has d) none of the above
39.The family has _______________________ for Sunday dinner.
a) gathered b) sang c) enjoyed d) none
40. The sun _________________in the East.
a) raises b) rises c) sets d) revolves
41. It ____________ tomorrow.
a) will snow b) snows c) snow d) is snowing

TSE CLASS IV P a g e | 24
42. You ____________ (meet) lots of interesting people.
a) will meet b) will meets c) will met d) met
43. Which of the following sentences correctly uses the simple future tense?
a) Today is a beautiful day. b) She not will work tomorrow.
c) We will travel tomorrow? d) He will not stay here.
44. I ________________ visit my cousin in Sweden next month.
a) is going to b) will visits c) are going to d) shall
45. We _______________ (take) pictures in a few minutes.
a) shall take b) will took c) took d) will taken
46. Jim _________________ (buy) some flowers on the way home.
a) will bought b) will buy c) has brought d) bring
47. My mom _____________ (make) some cookies for us later.
a) might make b) will made c) will make d) made
48. _______________ we __________ for this song?
a) Practice, shall b) Shall, practice c) Practice, will d) none
49. Identify the correct interrogative sentence
a) Will my father win the tennis tournament?
b) My father will win the tennis tournament?
c) Will win my father the tennis tournament?
d) none of the above
50. The words will/shall are used to tell action that will be done in the _____________.
a) future b) past c) present d) none
51. The news said that __________ going to rain tomorrow.
a) its b) it’s c) it d) its’
52. I went to ___________________ house.
a) James b) Jame’s c) James’ss d) James’

TSE CLASS IV P a g e | 25
53. What sentence uses an apostrophe properly?
a) John’s’ car is cool. b) John’s car is cool.
c) Johns car is cool. d) Johns’s car is cool.
54. The chair is missing one of ___________ legs.
a) its b) it’s c) its’ d) none
55. We add ’s or ’ after a noun to show -
a) naming word b) male\ female c) belongs to d) describing word
56.________________ phone was stolen.
a) Mr. Sahu’s b) Mr. Sahus’ c) Mr. Sahus d) Mr. Sahus’s
57. What are your ___________ names?
a) children b) childrens’ c) childrens’s d) children’s
58.____________________ stamp collections are different and very valuable.
a) Tim’s and Ria b) Tim and Ria’s c) Tim’s and Ria’s d) both options a and b
59. My ________________ boat is very large.
a) brother –in – law b) brothers –in –law c) brother ‘s –in – law d) brother- in – law’s
60. He ______________ enjoy watching action movies.
a) does’ nt b) doesn’t c) does nt’ d) doe’s nt
61.Which of the following is adverb of manner?
a) melodiously b) immediately c) frequently d) daily
62.Choose the adverb which do not change its form.
a) true b) quiet c) soft d) well
63. Susan eats her lunch very often here. (Type of adverb)
a) Adverb of manner b) Adverb of time
c) Adverb of Frequency d) Adverb of degree
64. Faiza reads quite clearly. In this sentence which of the following is an adverb of degree.
a) reads b) quite c) clearly d) Faiza

TSE CLASS IV P a g e | 26
65. The rabbit ate the carrot greedily. Here the word greedily is:
a) Adverb of time b) Adverb of place
c) Adverb of frequency d) Adverb of manner
66. My cousin visited us yesterday. Point out adverb of time.
a) My b) cousin c) visited d) yesterday
67. Our school volley ball team played ______________.
a) clearly b) heavily c) nicely d) formerly
68. I searched my bag but could not find it ______________
a) nowhere b) anywhere c) everywhere d) somewhere
69. Rani ran to her room______________.
a) quick b) quickly c) quicker d) quicks

70. The teacher asked us to answer in a few words. (Give one word for the underlined
group of words)
a) briefly b) detail c) suddenly d) annually
71. Which of the following is an adjective?
a) rarely b) lovely c) logically d) slowly
72. The comparative degree is always followed by the word.
a) than b) the c) is d) slowly
73. Find out the adjective from the options given below:
a) beauty b) beautiful c) beautician d) beautify
74. An adjective that points out a person, place or thing is called a _______________.
a) Adjective of number b) Adjective of quantity
c) Demonstrative adjective d) Adjective of quality
75. Suman was the ______________ child to cross the finishing line.
a) third b) four c) five d) six
76. You can borrow _______________ book but not that.
a) that b) those c) this d) these

TSE CLASS IV P a g e | 27
77. ________________ of our success depends on our own efforts.
a) Few b) Many c) Less d) Much
78. The positive degree of the word -‘Worst’ is :
a) worse b) bad c) good d) best
79. ‘Least’ is the superlative degree of the word ________________.
a) lesser b) less c) little d) small
80. The comparative degree of an adjective denotes a higher degree than the _____ .
a) positive b) comparative c) superlative d) none
81. Which noun below is a countable noun?
a) rice b) air c) juice d) book
82. Which noun below is an uncountable noun?
a) table b) salt c) chair d) none of the above
83. Choose the noun that does not change its form in plural.
a) furniture b) knife c) baby d) tooth
84. Choose the noun that changes its form in plural.
a) advice b) money c) fox d) homework
85. Choose the incorrect one.
a) story – stories b) photo – photos c) bus-buses d) police – policies
86. Choose the irregular plural
a) wives b) mice c) shelves d) books
87. Choose the correct plural of the noun ‘leaf’
a) leaves b) lives c) leafs d) leave
88. Plural of ‘goose’ is:
a) geese b) gese c) gooses d) gessee
89. Choose the plural form of the given word – ‘Hero’
a) heroies b) Heroes c) Herose d) Heroine
90. Which one of the following words can be made plural by adding a suffix ‘en’?
a) box b) tax c) max d) ox

TSE CLASS IV P a g e | 28
91. As soon as he ___________________ home, he sits and talks to his children asking
them about their day.
a) is coming b) came c) comes d) has come
92. Past tense of flow is _______________
a) flew b) flowed c) floated d) float
93. How many main types of tenses are there in English grammar?
a) one b) two c) three d) four
94. Squirrels eat nuts. The sentence is in
a) Simple Present Tense b) Simple Past Tense
c) Present Continuous Tense d) Past Continuous Tense
95. They really ________________ travelling, so they _____________ to go abroad as
often as possible.
a) enjoys/tries b) enjoy/tries c) enjoy/try d) don’t enjoy/try
96. I ____________ in a small apartment near school.
a) live b) lives c) are live d) living
97. My brother ___________ his favourite TV program every evening.
a) watches b) watch c) watching d) watchs
98. She ______________ three languages.
a) speak b) speaking c) speaks d) are speaking
99. Pamela ____________ her finger with a knife.
a) cutted b) cuted c) cutt d) cut
100. My friend _______________ for Australia last week.
a) left b) leaved c) leaving d) none of them
101. A _______________ shows the relation between a noun or a pronoun and other words
in a sentence.
a) Preposition b) Pronoun c) Conjunction d) Adverb
102. She poured the milk _________ the jug.
a) in b) into c) on d) none of them
103. Which preposition shows that something is enclosed or surrounded ?
a) by b) on c) at d) in

TSE CLASS IV P a g e | 29
104. Below is the opposite of.
a) above b) up c) beside d) onto
105. My brother lives _____________ Paris.
a) at b) in c) into d) onto
106. The bird flew _____________ my head.
a) across b) over c) beside d) behind
107. Her brother is missing ____________ yesterday.
a) with b) since c) on d) under
108. The cat jumped into the well. Underlined word is:
a) Preposition of time b) Preposition of movement
c) Preposition of place d) none of the above
109. Which preposition is used for more than two people?
a) between b) from c) among d) across
110. I got your parcel __________ Tuesday.
a) since b) for c) to d) on
111. People should show kind _________________ towards each other. (Add suffix)
a) – ness b) – ly c) – ment d)- fullness
112. The school conducted annual sports day success _________. (Add suffix)
a) – ful b)-ive c)- ion d) –fully
113. Which among the following suffixes is not suitable for the word ‘prevent’ ?
a) able b) ing c) ive d) ious
114. Which of the following words can be made a plural by adding the suffix ‘es’?
a) mango b) photo c) piano d) proof
115. Which prefix can be added to the word ‘agree’ to make the opposite?
a) un b) de c) mis d) dis
116. The trip to the water park was enjoy ________. (Add suffix)
a) ness b) less c) able d) ible
117. Choose the appropriate suffix to form a new word. Trust
a) – ive b) – worthy c) –ly d) – less
118. Which of the following is the prefix of ‘polite’
a) Im b) Dis c) In d) De

TSE CLASS IV P a g e | 30
119. In the words ‘unhappy’ and ‘unkind’, the ‘un’ represents____________.
a) most b) very c) not d) less
120. There was some _______________agreement over the topic.
a) dis b) mis c) un d) anti

ANSWERS
ISTS 2022-23 CLASS – IV SUBJECT – ENGLISH

1) b) paddling 2) b) Great Expectations 3) a) proper

4) c) enmity 5) c) abstract 6) b) stadium

7) c) collective noun 8) a) proper 9) c) bouquet

10) c) fur 11) d) witch 12) a) duchess

13) c) vixen 14) c) neuter 15) b)filly

16) b) engineer 17) b) nephew 18) a) common

19) a) countess 20) c) four 21) b) mine

22) d)whose\us 23) d) she 24) b) them

25) a)These\that 26) c ) This\it 27) a) I

28) c) we 29) a) You 30) d) her

31) c) Auxiliary verbs 32) a) did 33) c) ownership

34) b) departed 35) a) is 36) b) isn’t

37) b) slept 38) c)has 39) a) gathered

40) b) rises 41) a) will snow 42) a) will meet

43) d) He will not stay here.44) d) shall 45) a) shall take

46) b) will buy 47) c) will make 48) b) Shall, practice

49) a) Will my father win the tennis tournament? 50) a) future

51) b) it’s 52) d) James’ 53) b) John’s car is cool.

TSE CLASS IV P a g e | 31
54) a) its 55) c) belongs to 56) a) Mr. Sahu’s

57) d) children’s 58) c) Tim’s and Ria’s 59) d)brother- in – law’s

60) b) doesn’t 61.a) melodiously 62.d) well

63.d) Adverb of degree 64.b) quite 65.d) Adverb of manner

66.d) yesterday 67.c) nicely 68.b) anywhere

69.b) quickly 70.a) briefly 71.b) lovely

72.a) than 73.b) beautiful 74.c) demonstrative adjective

75.a) third 76.c) this 77.d) much

78.b) bad 79.c) little 80.a) positive

81.d) book 82.b) salt 83.a) furniture

84.c) fox 85.d) police – policies 86.b) mice

87.a) leaves 88.a) geese 89.b) heroes

90.d) ox 91.c) comes 92.b) flowed

93.c) three 94.a) Simple Present Tense 95.c) enjoy/try

96.a) live 97.a) watches 98.c) speaks

99.d) cut 100.a) Left 101.a) Preposition

102.b) into 103.d) in 104.a) above

105.b) in 106.b) over 107.b) since

108.b) Preposition of movement 109.c) among

110.d) on 111.a) – ness 112.d) –fully

113.d) ious 114.a) mango 115.d) dis

116.c) able 117.b) – worthy 118.a) Im

119.c) not 120.a) dis

TSE CLASS IV P a g e | 32
 QUESTIONS
TSE 2022 – 2023 CLASS : IV SUBJECT : GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
1.Name the fish that can kill a person when it stings.
a. Kingfish b. Jellyfish c. Goldfish d. Eel
2.A _______ can blow itself up into a spiny ball.
a. Porcupinefish b. Starfish c. Jelly fish d. none of these
3.A ______ does not flap its fins while flying.
a. Flying fish b.Catfish c. eel d. salmon
4. If one of the arms of ________ breaks off, it can turn into a whole new fish.
a. Tuna b. Rockfish c. Clownfish d. Starfish

5. _______________ can climb trees in search of insects and take in oxygen through their
mouth.
a. Clownfish b. Mudskipper fish c. Ocean sunfish d. Bluefish
6. ____________ is the biggest of all bony fishes.
a. Ocean sunfish b. shark c. Sailfish d. Bluefin tuna fish

7. The world’s biggest cactus that grows about 20 meters high and 1 meter thick is
____________.
a. saguaro b. raffia palm c. rose d. hemlock
8. The largest and the softest wood is obtained from the plants of ______________.
a. Gulmohar b. Balsa c. Banyan d. Neem
9. _____________ is the world’s most poisonous plant.
a. Spider plant b. Palm plant c. Hemlock plant d. Rubber plant

10. According to the Guinness Book of World Records , the ___________ tree is the world’s
most dangerous tree.
a. coconut b. manchineel c. balsam d. Hyperion
11. The most useful tree in the world is the ____________ tree.
a. eucalyptus b. pine c. apple d. chestnut
12. The world’s fastest growing sea weed which can grow up to 61 metres a day is ______.
a. giant kelp b. kombu c. wakame d. nori

TSE CLASS IV P a g e | 33
13. A water plant with hairy structures, that act like traps or bladders. As soon as an insect
touches a part of hair, it falls into its trap.
a. Cobra plant b. Pitcher plant c. Bladder wort d. Money plant
14. Which of the following is the nearest star to the Earth?
a. Moon b. Jupiter c. Sun d. Mercury
15. How many days does Mercury take to orbit around the Sun?
a. 22 b. 44 c. 88 d. 99
16. The windiest planet in our solar system is ___________.
a. Uranus b. Saturn c. Mercury d. Neptune
17. Who discovered that the Earth revolves around the Sun?
a. Galileo Galilei b. Isaac Newton c. Albert Einstein d. Kepler
18. Which of the following statements are true about Sun?

a. It is made up of gases. b. It has its own light and heat.

c. Sun is a star. d. All of these
19. Which of the following planets is considered as Earth’s twin?
a. Mars b. Mercury c. Venus d. Saturn
20.The planets that have rings around them are ___________________.

a. Saturn and Uranus b. Mercury and Venus

c. Earth and Mars d. All the eight planets
21. _______________ is the closest planet to the Moon.
a. Venus b. Mars c. Uranus d. Jupiter
22. A ________________ is often used by astronomers to see distant objects clearly.
a. microscope b. stethoscope c. telescope d. gyroscope
23. What are the rings of Saturn made of?
a. gases and clouds b. pieces of ice and rock
c. wind and storm d. satellites
24. The solar system is approximately ________________ years old.
a. 5 million b. 50 million c. 500 d. 5 billion

TSE CLASS IV P a g e | 34
25. ________________ is the largest country in the Arabian Peninsula.
a. Kuwait b. Qatar c. Oman d. Saudi Arabia
26. Saudi Arabia is to the ___________ of the equator.
a. north b. south c .east d. west
27. To the north Saudi Arabia shares its border with ______, _______ and ________.

a. Oman, Muscat, Qatar b. Kuwait, Bahrain, UAE

c. Iraq, Jordan, Kuwait d. Egypt, Sudan, Iran
28. Saudi Arabia is bordered by _____________ sea in the east.
a. Red b. Arabian c. Mediterranean d. Black
29. The major trading port that lies on the Red sea coast is ______________.
a. Al- Khobar b. Riyadh c. Ras Tanura d. Jeddah
30. The capital of Netherlands is _____________.
a. Canberra b. Ottawa c. Amsterdam. d. Tehran
31. The currency used in Denmark is ___________.
a. Danish krone b. dollar c. pound d. Euro
32. Ottawa is the capital of which country?
a. Canberra b. Canada c. Indonesia d. Brazil
33. Real is the currency of which country?
a. Brazil b. Saudi Arabia c. Australia d. Malaysia
34. Manila is the capital of ____________.
a. Indonesia b. Egypt c. Iran d. Philippines
35. The capital of UAE is ____________.
a. Abu Dhabi b. Dubai c. Sharjah d. Saudi Arabia
36. Rugby is the national game of _______________.
a. Mexico b. Canada c. New Zealand d. England
37. Name the country which has two national games.
a. USA b. Canada c. Greece d. Sri Lanka
38. The national game of Afghanistan is _____________.
a. baseball b. basketball c. cricket d. buzkashi

TSE CLASS IV P a g e | 35
39. Traditional sport of Saudi Arabia is ______________.
a. horse racing b. bull fight c. camel racing d. wrestling
40. The National sport of Scotland .

a. Bandy b. Ice hockey c. Golf d. Hockey

41. What is the term used for Sumo Wrestlers of Japan?
a. rikishi b. rishiki c. referee d. none of these
42. Dhyan Chand Trophy is associated to which game?
a. football b. hockey c. cricket d. tennis
43. Name the country which has adopted kabaddi as its national game.
a.China b. Brazil c. Sri Lanka d. Bangladesh
44. Identify the sport in the picture.

a. Basketball b. Volleyball c. Baseball d. Football

45.Name the national game of Bhutan.
a. Tennis b. Chess c. Volleyball d. Archery

46. This plant has a hollow, tube-like leaves which make a sweet smelling nectar which
attracts insects into the tube.

a.Venus flytrap b. Sundew c. Cobra plant d. Pitcher plant

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47. Flesh eating plants are known as _________________.

a. herbivorous plants b. carnivorous plants

c. herbal plants d. ornamental plants
48. Identify and name this fish.

a .Flying fish b. Star fish c. Snake fish d. Climbing fish

49. The national bird of Saudi Arabia is ___________
a. Eagle b. Vulture c. Falcon d. Hawk
50. _________________ is the number one most traded currency globally.
a. Saudi Riyals b. Pounds c. U.S Dollar d. Australian Dollar
51.Britain’s first Indian origin prime minister who scripted history in UK as youngest British

prime minister.
a.Rishi Sunak b. Ashneer Grover c. Dilip Sanghvi d. Narayana Murthy
52. An Indian American, who was awarded the Padma Bhushan 2022 in the trade and
industry category is ______________________.
a. Kamala Harris b. Kiran Desai c. Sundar Pichai d. Amartya Sen
53. Chinese president, _____________ won record third term win in power for ruling China.
a. Xi Jin Ping b. Jet Li c. Deng Xiaoping d. Sun Yat-Sen

54. Name the famous football player who signed a 200 million Euro contracts with Saudi Club
Al Nassr.
a. Cristiano Ronaldo b. Harry Kame c. Lionel Messi d. Robert Lewandowski
55. Arab League Summit 2022 was hosted by which country?
a. Saudi Arabia b. Qatar c. Dubai d. Algeria
56. World Environment Day 2022 was hosted by which country?
a. USA b. Sweden c. India d. Australia

TSE CLASS IV P a g e | 37
57. The Theme for Children’s Day 2022 was ____________________.
a. Inclusion, for every child b. A better future for every child
c. Children of today are the keepers of tomorrow d. Stop violence against children
58. The Nobel Peace Prize was awarded to _______________ in 2022 .
a. Denis Mukwege b. Malala Yousafzai c. Ales Bialiatski d. Abiy Ahmed
59. Who has been appointed as the new chairman of Indian Space Research Organization
( ISRO )?
a. S.Somnath b. Ritu Karidhal c. Narendra Modi d. Bhupender Yadav
60. Tokyo Olympics Gold Medalist, who was awarded Padmashri by President Ram Nath
Kovind is_________________.
a. Sonu Nigam b. Victor Banerjee c. Neeraj Chopra d. Mirabai Chanu
61. The only mammal that flies is _________________.
a) Bat b) Dolphin c) Hedgehog d) Whale
62. A mammal that lives only in the Sahara Desert is __________________.
a)Dolphin b) Addax c) Chimpanzee d) Aardvark
63. ________________ is a sea mammal having a beaked snout and a streamlined body
which helps them to slip easily through water.
a)Hedgehog b) Aardvark c) Dolphin d) Bat
64. A strong mammal with a long snout and large ears which makes its home deep under
the ground.
a)Chimpanzee b) Aardvark c) Hedgehog d) Addax
65. Which one of the following mammals is a member of the Ape family and has no tail?
a)Dog b) Chimpanzee c) Monkey d) Aardvark
66. ________ is a small green or black fruit with a strong taste and its oil is used in cooking.
a)Olive b) Kiwi c) Avocado d) Fig
67. _______________ is a vegetable which looks like cabbage and has several dark green
or purple flower heads.
a)Asparagus b) Artichoke c) Broccoli d) Onion

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68. A native fruit of China which has thin brown skin and soft green flesh is _____
a)Avocado b) Kiwi c) Dragon fruit d) Orange
69. ______________ is a plant whose young stems are cooked and eaten as a vegetable.
a)Broccoli b) Artichoke c) Olive d) Asparagus
70. A round vegetable with a lot of thick green leaves is called ________________.
a)Artichoke b) Asparagus c) Broccoli d) Potato
71. The study of heredity of individuals is called ______________.
a)Biology b) Geology c) Astronomy d) Genetics
72. The scientific study of weather and climate is called _____________.
a)Ornithology b) Meteorology c) Seismology d) Geology
73. ___________________ is the scientific study of birds.
a)Genetics b) Biology c) Ornithology d) Optics
74. Which one of the following is the scientific study of earthquakes?
a)Seismology b) Ornithology c) Biology d) Genetics
75. ______________ is the scientific study of living things.
a) Geology b) Biology c) Seismology d) Astronomy
76. The highest point on the Arabian Peninsula is in the mountains of ____________.
a) Iran b) Iraq c) Egypt d) Yemen
77. Which is the largest country in Asia?
a) Oman b) India c) China d) Afghanistan
78. Which is the only island country in the middle east?
a) Iraq b) Bahrain c) Syria d) Iran

79. _____________ is the modern underground means of fast trains and runs on
electricity.
a) Metro b) Monorail c) Submarine d) Yacht
80. ______________ is often used for travel in hilly areas and in emergencies.
a) Yacht b) Helicopter c) Monorail d) Metro

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81. A luxury ship which is often owned privately for leisure is ______________.
a) Submarine b) Metro c) Yacht d) Monorail

82. A single rail carrier plies on small platforms, just like other means of transport on the
road.
a) Monorail b) Helicopter c) Metro d) Bus

83. _______________ is an underwater vehicle which is usually used for defense and
research purposes.
a) Yacht b) Aeroplane c) Monorail d) Submarine
84. An explorer who first saw the Victoria falls and explored most of South Africa is ____ .
a) David Livingstone b) Roald Amundsen c) Abel Tasman d) Ericson
85. The Portuguese sailor who first discovered the sea route to India is _____________.
a) Christopher Columbus b) Vasco da Gama c) Roald Amundsen d) Ericson
86. Who discovered the frontier regions of India, China and Tibet?
a) Ferdinand Magellan b) Francis Younghusband c) Abel Tasman d) Livingstone
87. __________________ is the Norwegian who discovered the South Pole in 1912.
a) Vasco da Gama b) Roald Amundsen c) Ericson d) Columbus

88. The Italian explorer who sailed across the Atlantic in 1492, hoping to find a route to
India but discovered America instead is __________________.
a) Francis Younghusband b) Christopher Columbus
c) Roald Amundsen d) Vasco da Gama
89. A place for keeping aeroplanes is called a _________________.
a) Dock b) Hangar c) Pier d) Depot
90. A place for boarding trains is called a ________________.
a) Railway Station b) Dock c) Railway Yard d) Pier
91. _______________ is a place where ships are repaired or built.
a) Railway Yard b) Hangar c) Dock d) Depot
92. Which one of the following is a place where coaches of trains are kept?
a) Railway Yard b) Depot c) Railway Station d) Hangar

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93. A place where buses are kept is called a ________________.
a) Hangar b) Dock c) Pier d) Depot
94. Which country’s flag is triangle in shape?
a) Bhutan b) Nepal c) China d) India
95. What tools are printed on the USSR flag?
a) Hammer and sickle b) Hammer and nail c) Hammer and axe d) Hammer and chisel
96. Which of the ancient seven wonders of the world still stands?

a) Colosseum b) Pyramid of Giza

c) Hanging gardens of Babylon d) Lighthouse of Alexandria
97. The Statue of Liberty was gifted to the U.S.A by _______________.
a) France b) Italy c) Germany d) Japan
98. The Australian mammal that lays eggs is ________________.
a) Bat b) Duck-billed platypus c) Whale d) Hedgehog
99. Who was the first Indian scientist to get the Nobel Prize?
a) J.C. Bose b) C.V. Raman c) S. Ramanujan d) A. P. J. Abdul Kalam
100. Which is the device used to predict the precise timing of sunrise and sunset?
a) Clock b) Wind chime c) Astrolabe d) Pendulum
101. The fastest animal on land is the _______________.
a) Tiger b) Puma c) Cheetah d) Lion
102. The telephone was invented by _______________.

a)Thomas Alva Edison b) John Logie Baird

c) Alexander Graham Bell d) Hans Lipperhey
103. The _____________was invented by Wright brothers.
a) Aeroplane b) Radio c) Television d) Telescope
104. __________________ invented the telescope.

a)Alexander Graham Bell b) Thomas Alva Edison

c) Hans Lipperhey d) Oliver Evans
105. The ____________ was invented by Guglielmo Marconi.
a) Telephone b) Television c) Telescope d) Radio

TSE CLASS IV P a g e | 41
106. _____________ is the longest key on the keyboard.
a) Shift key b) Space bar c) Delete key d) Escape key
107. ______________ key is used to abort or terminate the program or function.
a) Escape b) Enter c) Arrow d) Shift

108. A key which is used to send the commands and instructions you have typed inside the
CPU for processing.
a) Space bar b) Enter key c) Delete key d) Shift key
109. Which one of the following is the longest river in the world?
a) Brahmaputra b) Amazon c) Mississippi d) Nile
110. The _______________ is the biggest ocean in the world.
a)Atlantic Ocean b) Pacific Ocean c) Indian Ocean d) Arctic Ocean

111. Who represented India in the Meeting of Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO)
Council of Heads of Government?
a) Narendra Modi b) Dr S Jaishankar c) Amit Shah d) Rajnath Singh
112. Mauna Loa Volcano, which was seen in the news recently, is located in which place?
a) Indonesia b) Hawaii c) Philippines d) Japan
113. Which Indian state is set to host the ‘Track Asia Cup 2022 Cycling Tournament’?
a) Karnataka b) Uttarakhand c) Kerala d) Sikkim

114. Who is the head of the panel set up to strengthen the assessment and accreditation of
higher educational institutions?
a) K Radhakrishnan b) Kasturi Rangan c) Amitabh Kant d) V K Paul

115. Which state government along with USAID announced the launch of ‘Trees Outside
Forests in India (TOFI)’ program?
a) West Bengal b) Uttarakhand c) Haryana d) Karnataka

116. The Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) has collaborated with which country
to explore the Venus and the dark side of the moon?
a)USA b) Japan c) Australia d) Russia
117. Which country launched a new rocket named ‘Ghaem 100’?
a) Israel b) Russia c) Iran d) UAE

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118. Which Asian country is named as the host of 2023 IBA Women’s World Boxing
Championship?
a) Sri Lanka b) Pakistan c) India d) Nepal

119. Which Indian sportsperson has been appointed as the ‘Friendship Ambassador’ by the
Switzerland Tourism?
a) P V Sindhu b) Neeraj Chopra c) Mary Kom d) Virat Kohli
120. What is the theme of ‘World Pneumonia Day 2022’?
a) Championing the fight to stop pneumonia b) Prevention of pneumonia
c) Early Diagnosis d) Raising Awareness

ANSWERS
TSE 2022 – 2023 CLASS : IV SUBJECT : GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

1. b) jelly 2. a) porcupine fish 3.a) flying fish

4. d) star 5. b) Mudskipper fish 6. a) Ocean Sunfish
7.a) Saguaro 8.b) Balsa 9.c) Hemlock
10. b) Man chineel 11.d) Chestnut 12.a) Giant Kelp
13.b) Bladder Wort 14.c) Sun 15.c) 88
16.d) Neptune 17.a) Galileo Galilei 18.d) All of these
19.c) Venus 20. a) Saturn and Uranus 21.d.) Jupiter
22. c) Telescope 23.b) Pieces of rock and ice 24.d) 5 billion
25.d) Saudi Arabia 6.a) North 27.c) Iraq , Jordan , Kuwait
28.a) Red 29.d) Jeddah 30.c) Amsterdam
31.a) Danish Krone 32.b) Canada 33.a) Brazil
34.d) Philippines 35.a) Abu Dhabi 36.c) New Zealand
37.b) Canada 38.d) Buzkashi 39.c) Camel Racing
40.c) Golf 41.a) Rikishi 42.b) Hockey
43.d) Bangladesh 44.b) Volley Ball 45.d) Archery

TSE CLASS IV P a g e | 43
46.d) Pitcher Plant 47.b) Carnivorous plants 48.a) Flying fish
49.c) Falcon 50.c) US Dollar 51. a) Rishi Sunak
52. c) Sundar Pichai 53. a) Xi Jinping 54. a) Cristiano Ronaldo

55. d) Algeria 56. b) Sweden 57. a) Inclusion, for every

child
58. c) Ales Bialiatski 59. a) S.Somnath 60. c) Neeraj Chopra
61.a) bat 62.b) Addax 63.c) Dolphin
64.b) Aardvark 65.b) Chimpanzee 66.a) Olive
67.c) Broccoli 68.b) Kiwi 69.d) Asparagus
70.a) Artichoke 71.d) Genetics 72.b) Meteorology
73.c) Ornithology 74.a) Seismology 75.b) Biology
76.d) Yemen 77.c) China 78.b) Bahrain
79.a) Metro 80.b) Helicopter 81.c) Yacht
82.a) Monorail 83.d) Submarine 84.a) David Livingstone
85.b) Vasco da Gama 86.b) Francis Younghusband 87.b) Ronald Amundsen
88.b) Christopher Columbus 89.b) Hanger 90.a) Railway station
91.c) Dock 92.a) Railway Yard 93.d) Depot
94.b) Nepal 95.a) Hammer and Sickle 96.b) Pyramids
97.a) France 98.b) Duck-billed platypus 99.b) C.V.Raman

100.c) Astrolabe 101.c) Cheetah 102.c) Alexander Graham

Bell
103.a) Aeroplane 104.c) Hans Lippershey 105.d) Radio
106.b) Space bar 107.a) Escape 108.b) Enter key
109.d) Nile 110.b) Pacific Ocean 111.b) Dr.S.Jaishankar
112.b) Hawaii 113.c) Kerala 114.a) K.Radhakrishnan
115.c) Haryana 116.b) Japan 117.c) Iran
118.c) India 119.b) Neeraj Chopra 120.d) Raising Awareness

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