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GRE Practice Test

GRE Verbal Test Help

GRE Verbal Practice Questions

Section One – Verbal

76 questions

Questions 1-7: Each of the questions below contains a sentence that has one or two blanks.
The blanks stand for a part of the sentence that has not been included. Following each
sentence are five answer choices. Choose the answer choice that best completes the
sentence.

1. disposing of an old refrigerator is often difficult. Some people abandon

them at the landfill entrance.
A. Responsibly…prohibitively
B. Reasonably…curiously
C. Diffidently…eminently
D. Satisfactorily…completely
E. Efficiently…impossibly

2. Women’s baseball leagues became during World War II, when many
professional baseball players were in the military.
A. erratic…interested
B. possible…enamored
C. prevalent…engaged
D. compatible…involved
E. sporadic…integral

3. writing, such as that found in The New Yorker magazine, tends to appeal to a
particular group of readers.

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A. Interesting…refined
B. Gauche…stylish
C. Urbane…complicated
D. Flowery…educated
E. Exceptional…erudite

4. Mary Pickford was once one of the most actors in Hollywood, so it is almost an
oxymoron that she died a at her estate.
A. wealthy…mogul
B. talented…extrovert
C. busy…retiree
D. eminent…recluse
E. famous…magnate

5. The book Silent Spring was published in 1962, and first exposed the of using
toxic chemicals to crop-eating insects.
A. benefits…decimate
B. hazards…exterminate
C. convenience…massacre
D. trepidation…eliminate
E. vulnerability…eradicate

6. When Shirley Chisholm ran for the Democratic Party’s nomination for president in 1972
her was for both African Americans and women.
A. attempt…unprecedented
B. bid…idiosyncratic
C. enthusiasm…exceptional
D. trepidation…singular
E. struggle…unparalleled

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7. It is doubtful that an untrained adult would be able to master the of playing the
harp in our orchestra without coaching from Anna Delgardo.
A. intricacies…intensive
B. minutiae…exhaustive
C. workings…remedial
D. information…demanding
E. particulars…corrective

Questions 8-16: Listed beside each number below is a pair of words. Choose the pair of
words that are the most similar to the example.

8. SKULK: STRIDE::
A. bristle: fur
B. cogitate: mull
C. wheedle: coax
D. whisper: talk
E. precursor: antecedent

9. PROSELYTIZE: INDUCE::
A. imbibe: remove
B. flummox: explain
C. displace: reposition
D. repose: agitate
E. dubious: decided

10. RETICULATE: HIGHWAY::

A. funereal: sad
B. canton: region
C. itinerary: schedule
D. ballot: election
E. circuit: course

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11. REDOUBTABLE: MOTHER::

A. capricious: puppy
B. narcissistic: teenager
C. cherished: spouse
D. stately: house
E. congenial: child

12. JADED: IDEAS::

A. invigorated: nap
B. befuddled: puzzle
C. bored: speech
D. optimistic: inauguration
E. anticipate: gift

13. IAMBIC: POETRY::

A. syllables: word
B. chapters: book
C. words: speech
D. rhythms: song
E. dialects: language

14. HACKNEYED: REMARKS::

A. novel: conjecture
B. ludicrous: jokes
C. bromidic: speech
D. tacky: guise
E. unique: perspective

15. CONTRIVE: ALIBI::

A. excuse: behavior

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B. dispel: naysayer
C. initiate: legislation
D. plagiarize: create
E. create: explanation

16. BEATIFIC: BRIDE::

A. plaintive: infant
B. petulant: puppy
C. dastardly: lion
D. despondent: clergy
E. delirious: fan

Questions 17-23 refer to the following passage. After reading the passage, read and respond
to the questions that follow by selecting the best choice for each one.
Statins are a class of drugs that work to decrease the level of cholesterol
in the blood. They are able to perform this function by effectively blocking the
cholesterol-producing enzyme in the liver. In recent years, statins have
increased in utility and popularity.
Although a certain amount of cholesterol is imperative for the human
body to function, an elevated level can cause a precarious situation in the body.
Cholesterol affixes itself to arteries, lining them and inhibiting blood flow. Since
less blood can travel through those encumbered arteries, the blood flow to the
heart is adversely affected. Scientists have found that the walls of arteries in the
body can become inflamed from this plaque buildup. In many instances, the end
result of this decreased blood supply and inflammation is a heart attack –
sometimes a fatal one. In other cases the blood supply to the brain is
compromised by the plaque buildup, often causing a stroke. Decreased blood
flow to the legs can cause leg pains or cramps. In short, arterial plaque buildup
is never a healthy situation.
Statins diminish the amount of cholesterol generated by the body.
Although the drugs are not always able to reduce the amount of plaque that may

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already be clogging arteries, they can slow the production of new plaque. The
drugs are also able to stabilize the plaques that are already present and make
them less likely to cause problems in the body.
Lowered cholesterol does not guarantee that a heart attack won’t occur,
but statin use will lower the risk for most patients. Not everyone who has a
heart attack has high cholesterol levels, but most do have plaque formations on
their arteries. It should be noted that the plaque is not always formed by high
levels of cholesterol in the blood.
Statins are generally prescribed by doctors for people with elevated
cholesterol levels. As the mean weight of the American population has risen, so
has the number of individuals with high cholesterol. Millions of men and women
in this country are prescribed statins in an effort to decrease the amount of
cholesterol in their blood. Remarkably, these effects can be seen in as little as
two weeks after beginning a statin regime.

17. The author’s main point is that:

A. Cholesterol can cause heart attacks.
B. Statins can diminish the amount of cholesterol in the blood.
C. Most people have plaque buildup in their arteries.
D. Statins are not able to decrease the amount of plaque lining the arteries.
E. Heart attacks are not the only danger of high cholesterol.

18. Which of the following does the author imply about statins?
I. They can be lifesaving drugs.
II. They are overprescribed by doctors.
III. They are expensive drugs to produce.
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II only
E. II and III only

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19. Which of the following is suggested about the American population?

A. Their life expectancy has decreased in the past few decades.
B. They don’t get enough exercise.
C. Their diet may be affecting their cholesterol levels.
D. They want an easy fix for a difficult problem.
E. There are a record number of heart disease deaths in the United States.

20. According to the article, which of the following is true of statins?

I. They can help rid the arteries of dangerous plaque.
II. They are able to affect the body relatively quickly.
III. They are an inexpensive drug.
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II only
E. II and III only

21. According to the article, which is true of cholesterol?

I. A certain amount of cholesterol is needed by the body.
II. Cholesterol may be dangerous to the body.
III. A low cholesterol level means a person likely won’t have a heart attack.
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II only
E. II and III only

22. The author concedes that statins’ job is primarily to:

A. slow the production of cholesterol in the body.
B. eliminate the possibility of a heart attack.

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C. increase the amount of blood flowing to the heart.

D. attack the cholesterol in the human body.
E. improve the condition of a person’s arteries.

23. The author organizes the passage by:

A. enumerating reasons why statins are useful drugs.
B. debating the importance of statins.
C. criticizing the American public’s diet and health.
D. outlining ways to reduce cholesterol in the blood.
E. discussing ways doctors treat high cholesterol.

Questions 24-27 refer to the following passage.

One way to deliver news is with a photograph. Well-placed images can
enhance and further explain details of news stories while impacting the viewer
emotionally. Indeed, the main goal of a news photograph is not necessarily to be
aesthetically pleasing, but to objectively deliver the news by way of a graphic
image.
Interpreting the news through photographs is not an effortless task, even
for the experienced photojournalist. What separates a good news photograph
from a typical photo is that a good one will not just be a picture. It will be a
complete sentence, with a subject, a verb, and a verb object. It won’t just say
“the dog” or “the boy,” but it will say, “The dog saved the boy and seemed to
know what it was doing.” Good photographs won’t be posed or set up, but will
be a slice of the news story as it happens.
Most professional photojournalists know that the best photographs they
can take are those that are able to provoke emotion. A snapshot is not simply
taken of a plane that has been involved in a runway crash. A good
photojournalist will try to find a way to show a part of the story: a distraught
person, an ice-plagued runway, or even a spent firefighter. This can mean time
invested waiting around for the right moment and the right photograph.

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Professional photojournalists know and expect this, and know that it is time
well spent when they get the shot that shows the story.

24. The author’s main point is that:

A. it’s not easy to take a good photograph.
B. photojournalists are professionals.
C. photographs are an important part of the news.
D. news photographs are not just pictures.
E. it’s wrong to pose a news photograph.

25. Which of the following does the author imply about photojournalism?
I. It’s not as easy as it looks to take a news photograph.
II. Most photojournalists have strong relationships with those they photograph.
III. Most people can be taught to take a good photograph.
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II only
E. II and III only

26. Which statement is true about an objectively delivered news photograph?

I. It shows the photographer’s feelings about the subject.
II. It may show the photographer’s personal bias.
III. It will be devoid of the photographer’s feelings.
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II only
E. II and III only

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27. As implied by the passage, which part of speech does a good photograph mainly
capture?
A. adverb
B. noun
C. adjective
D. verb
E. preposition

Questions 28-38: Each question below begins with one word written in capital letters.
Read the five answer choices that follow and choose the one that most nearly means the
opposite of the original word.

28. PRIORY:
A. residence
B. depot
C. rectory
D. convent
E. monastery

29. RECREANT:
A. turncoat
B. loyalist
C. apostate
D. craven
E. renegade

30. OBLITERATE:
A. reinstate
B. obscure
C. efface

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D. extirpate
E. excise

31. DOGMA:
A. ism
B. tenet
C. doctrine
D. philosophy
E. fact

32. SUPERCILIOUS:
A. disdainful
B. diffident
C. haughty
D. prideful
E. stuffy

33. EFFULGENT:
A. leaden
B. beaming
C. radiant
D. brilliant
E. refulgent

34. ABSCOND:
A. escape
B. evade
C. capitulate
D. bolt
E. decamp

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35. ATTENTUATE:
A. fortify
B. dissipate
C. subvert
D. devitalize
E. diminish

36. DISCORDANT:
A. unresolved
B. dissonant
C. inharmonic
D. disparate
E. symmetrical

37. EXACERBATE:
A. deteriorate
B. acerbate
C. aggravate
D. exasperate
E. mollify

38. GARRULOUS:
A. loquacious
B. diffident
C. prolix
D. blabby
E. forthcoming

Questions 39-45: Each of the questions below contains a sentence that has one or two
blanks. The blanks stand for a part of the sentence that has not been included. Following

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each sentence are five answer choices. Choose the answer choice that best completes the
sentence.

39. After an interview with the suspect, most of the detectives agreed that her explanation
for possessing the contraband was .
A. supercilious
B. appropriated
C. arresting
D. insipid
E. fabricated

40. The insurance adjuster asked us to the value of our damaged equipment.
A. extrapolate
B. embroider
C. equivocate
D. acerbate
E. hyperbolize

41. The producer thought the young, frail girl would be and unfit for the lead role,
but she turned out to be a performer.
A. reticent…gregarious
B. demonstrative…candid
C. aloof…restrained
D. frank…detached
E. unconstrained…taciturn

42. The family didn’t realize that the abused dog they adopted would be so . They
had to give him up.
A. jocund
B. truculent
C. blithe

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D. convivial
E. pretentious

43. Because he was ________________ Jay sat in the back of the lecture hall and kept his eyes
trained on his notebook as the professor asked for volunteers.
A. sanguine
B. impudent
C. brazen
D. diffident
E. presumptuous

44. It is very difficult to ________________ all of the facts without first figuring out some kind of
________________ system to remember them.
A. surmise…arduous
B. evade…rudimentary
C. imbibe…mnemonic
D. conjecture…facile
E. challenge…abstruse

45. It was looking increasingly likely that one person was responsible for spreading the
________________ strain of the flu that overtook the university campus.
A. tedious
B. benign
C. clement
D. virulent
E. repugnant

Questions 46-54: Listed beside each number below is a pair of words. Choose the pair of
words from the answer choices that are the most similar to the example.

46. ELOCUTION: ANNOUNCER::

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A. slatternly: model
B. diligence: surgeon
C. belligerent: boxer
D. nimbleness: sloth
E. dissonance: singer

47. SENTINEL: MASTERPIECE::

A. recidivist: penitentiary
B. chaperone: minor
C. sculptor: chisel
D. apostate: patriot
E. perfunctory: signal

48. PRAGMATISM: APPROACH::

A. malleable: transformable
B. insolence: contempt
C. negotiate: settle
D. innocuous: harmless
E. ignominy: disgrace

49. TEMPORAL: POSSESSIONS::

A. cadaver: corpse
B. conceive: formulate
C. foresee: anticipate
D. immortal: soul
E. astral: stellar

50. BANAL: SERMON::

A. mundane: lecture
B. insolent: personality
C. amenity: minion

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D. enthrall: storyteller
E. regale: movie

51. LOQUACIOUS: GOSSIP::

A. prickish: toddler
B. clandestine: operative
C. penitent: criminal
D. taciturn: orator
E. demonstrative: barker

52. LEXICON: EDITOR::

A. vitality: physician
B. repertoire: actor
C. notes: singer
D. pen: architect
E. aqueduct: sailor

53. PERVIOUS: FOOTPATH::

A. sentry: prison
B. besiege: city
C. way: thoroughfare
D. insuperable: difficulties
E. effulgent: sunshine

54. EQUITABLE: HALVES::

A. unique: experience
B. unwieldy: package
C. aberration: sculpture
D. anomaly: routine
E. compatible: uniform

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Questions 55-57 refer to the following passage. After reading the passage, read and respond
to each question selecting the best answer choice for each one.
A humanist is often described as a person with a clear ability to regulate
his or her own behavior. The goal of humanists is to cherish life as they search
for their individual place and objective, then to embrace that purpose.
Humanists direct their own lives, and employ free choice in their thoughts,
actions, and interactions with others. They tend to believe that a person’s main
ambition should be to cherish and seek purpose in life. Humanists believe other
people should make their own decisions and trust themselves to set their own
direction. Most humanists believe that this type of free-thinking approach
culminates in true personal growth since each person will move at a pace most
attuned to individual comfort levels.
Humanists are likely to have a positive view of themselves and true
confidence in their abilities. They base their life decisions on what they may
have already experienced, what they know of history, and how they apply
reason. They are convinced that they are always moving in a positive direction
and, for this reason, they generally don’t fear death. Although they don’t believe
in an afterlife, they know that if they follow their beliefs, by the end of their life
they will have had a complete journey.

55. According to the passage, which is a true statement about humanists?

I. Humanists are generally stagnant in maturity.
II. Humanists depend on others to help them make sound decisions.
III. Humanists work toward fulfilling their seity.
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II only
E. II and III only

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56. Which of the following best describes the type of personality characteristic a person
described as a humanist would most likely possess?
A. introversive
B. apprehensive
C. daunted
D. sanguine
E. haughty

57. The passage suggests that a humanist believes that after his life is over:
A. he will be rewarded in the hereafter.
B. he will no longer be relevant.
C. he will have culminated his journey.
D. his ideas will be important to others.
E. his journey has just commenced.

Questions 58-65 refer to the following passage.

Chlorine is a mainstay in most swimming pools in the United States, and
is used to eradicate bacteria. A bacteria-free pool will usually ensure that
swimmers won’t contract a serious illness if they spend time in, and possibly
ingest, the water.
When chlorine is added to pool water, a chemical reaction occurs
whereby the chlorine breaks down into a legion of chemicals that combine to
kill bacteria that may be in the water. These chemicals, specifically
hypochlorous acid and hypochlorite ion, eliminate bacteria by annihilating and
then oxidizing the abhorrent cells. When this chemical reaction occurs, the
bacteria are rendered essentially harmless. This chemical reaction doesn’t occur
immediately – individual components within chlorine take varying amounts of
time to interact with the bacteria, creating an almost time-release-type of kill in
the pool water.
Chlorine must be regularly replenished. As they react, the hypochlorous
acid and hypochlorite ion combine to create a particular acceptable pH level in

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the pool water. A pH is a measure of the alkalinity and acidity present; a pH

value of 7 represents a neutral value, and 7.4 is the pH value of the human tear.
The pH ratio must be regularly monitored to ensure a consistent optimum rate
– one usually kept within the spectrum of 7 to 8 as measured by a reliable pH
measuring kit.
As the chemicals in chlorine complete their reactions, they break down
and are no longer effective in keeping the pool water neutralized. Additional
chlorine must be added to water at specific times. Outdoor pools that are in
direct sunlight need to have water added more often because the chemical
reaction time for chlorine is increased and its effectiveness is reduced in these
conditions.
Since the hypochlorite ion is an especially potent chemical capable of
fading fabrics and paint, most people are meticulous about rinsing chlorine
from potentially affected areas. Although chlorine is inexpensive and widely
available, some people find the bleach smell to be repugnant and the distinct
aroma present at many swimming pools to be overwhelming. These people may
not be able to enjoy aquatic pursuits in those pools that employ chlorine as a
cleansing agent. Other people may find that inhaling chlorine at the high levels
present around some pools may be difficult to tolerate. Still others may
experience skin irritation after swimming in a pool containing chlorine.
Although there are other chemicals and compounds available to clean
swimming pools, they may be prohibitively expensive or incapable of killing all
types of bacteria present in the water.

58. All of the following statements are true about chlorine EXCEPT:
A. Chlorine’s efficacy is affected by sunlight.
B. Chlorine is made up of two chemicals: hypochlorous acid and hypochlorine ion.
C. Chlorine is usually said to be malodorous.
D. Chlorine levels must be routinely assessed in pool water.
E. Chlorine affects the pH level of water. All of all of the following

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59. According to the passage, a stable pH value in pool water is dependent upon which of
the following:
A. Ensuring that there is only a minimum amount of bacteria in the water
B. Monitoring and adding chlorine when warranted
C. Paying close attention to the reactions of chemicals in the pool water
D. Ensuring that water is protected from direct sunlight
E. Having a bacteria-free pool

60. The author’s primary purpose is to:

A. offer an unbiased opinion of chlorine’s efficacy.
B. provide an argument for using chlorine.
C. discuss the chemical reaction taking place within a pool.
D. show how chlorine can keep pool water safe.
E. suggest alternatives to keeping a pool clean.

61. In paragraph 5, line 3, repugnant most nearly means

A. bearable
B. offensive
C. extrinsic
D. pleasant
E. congenial

62. Based on the passage, which statement is probably NOT true of chlorine?
A. It can be harmful if swallowed.
B. Occasional high levels in pool water are probably not harmful.
C. It can kill most common types of pool water bacteria.
D. A pool’s size will dictate the amount needed.
E. It won’t affect the color of the pool water.

63. The author includes the information about the pH of human tears mainly to:
A. give the reader a base of reference.

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B. provide a visual image for the reader.

C. personalize the passage to enhance interest.
D. answer the reader’s anticipated question.
E. summarize how pH is calculated.

64. Based on the information in the passage, which of the following statements is true
about keeping pool water neutralized?
I. Bacteria are kept at a tolerable level.
II. Chlorine is being added at regular intervals.
III. The pH level is being constantly monitored.
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II only
E. II and III only

65. As used in paragraph 1, line 1, eradicate most nearly means:

A. exterminate
B. adulterate
C. vitiate
D. exacerbate
E. enervate

Questions 66-76: Each question below begins with one word written in capital letters.
Read the five answer choices that follow and choose the one that most nearly means the
opposite of the original word.

66. BURGEON:
A. abate
B. blossom
C. compound

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D. augment
E. manifold

67. VOLATILE:
A. variable
B. elastic
C. flighty
D. flippant
E. uniform

68. OBLOQUY:
A. disgrace
B. laud
C. mishandle
D. exploit
E. decry

69. CACOPHONY:
A. dissonant
B. raucous
C. consonant
D. inharmonious
E. rude

70. INSIDIOUS:
A. treacherous
B. wily
C. toxic
D. candid
E. perfidious

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71. INEXORABLE:
A. resolute
B. steadfast
C. stubborn
D. compliant
E. immobile

72. IMPEDE:
A. hinder
B. forestall
C. overslaugh
D. bar
E. cooperate

73. PLAINTIVE:
A. lamenting
B. exalting
C. melancholy
D. deploring
E. piteous

74. REPROOF:
A. eulogize
B. reproach
C. chide
D. admonish
E. rebuke

75. ANOMALOUS:
A. singular
B. exceptional

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C. foreign
D. prodigious
E. customary

76. VERITY:
A. accuracy
B. veracity
C. authenticity
D. misrepresentation
E. frankness

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Section Two – Quantitative

60 questions
GRE Quantitative Test

GRE Quantitative Practice Questions

Questions 1-15: Each question shows a quantity in Column A and a quantity in Column B.
Compare the two quantities and indicate whether:
A. The quantity in Column A is greater.
B. The quantity in Column B is greater.
C. The two quantities are equal.
D. The quantities cannot be compared from the information provided.

1. Ann’s class has x students this semester. Paul’s class has one less than three times the
number of students in Ann’s class.
Column A Column B
x2 2x

A. The quantity in Column A is greater.

B. The quantity in Column B is greater.
C. The two quantities are equal.
D. The quantities cannot be compared from the information provided.

2. 17
8

b
Column A Column B
b2 289
A. The quantity in Column A is greater.
B. The quantity in Column B is greater.

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C. The two quantities are equal.

D. The quantities cannot be compared from the information provided.

3. Isosceles triangle DEF has a perimeter of 24 and side DE has a length of 12.
Column A Column B
Side EF Side DF
A. The quantity in Column A is greater.
B. The quantity in Column B is greater.
C. The two quantities are equal.
D. The quantities cannot be compared from the information provided.

Questions 4 and 5 both refer to the figure below.

.B
C .G .D l1

.E .H .F l2

A .

4.
Column A Column B
<CGB <DGH
A. The quantity in Column A is greater.
B. The quantity in Column B is greater.
C. The two quantities are equal.
D. The quantities cannot be compared from the information provided.

5.
Column A Column B
<CGB + <CGH <BGD + <DGH
A. The quantity in Column A is greater.

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B. The quantity in Column B is greater.

C. The two quantities are equal.
D. The quantities cannot be compared from the information provided.

6. Recorded attendance at weekly seminars in the first quarter of the year has been:
117, 103, 109, 100, 125, 115, 120, 126, 130, 106, 109, 125
Column A Column B
the median the average
A. The quantity in Column A is greater.
B. The quantity in Column B is greater.
C. The two quantities are equal.
D. The quantities cannot be compared from the information provided.

7.

Column A Column B
x 1
A. The quantity in Column A is greater.
B. The quantity in Column B is greater.
C. The two quantities are equal.
D. The quantities cannot be compared from the information provided.

8.
Column A Column B
1/2 times the perimeter of a The perimeter of a square with a side
triangle of 3 cm; 8 cm; 14 cm.; 3.2 cm.
A. The quantity in Column A is greater.
B. The quantity in Column B is greater.
C. The two quantities are equal.
D. The quantities cannot be compared from the information provided.

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9.
Column A Column B
The number of new three digit 6
numbers that can be formed by
using the digits 413 once
A. The quantity in Column A is greater.
B. The quantity in Column B is greater.
C. The two quantities are equal.
D. The quantities cannot be compared from the information provided.

10.
Column A Column B
The probability of throwing an even number on
a fair, six-sided die
A. The quantity in Column A is greater.
B. The quantity in Column B is greater.
C. The two quantities are equal.
D. The quantities cannot be compared from the information provided.

11.
Column A Column B
The least common multiple of 267 The least common
and 1782 multiple of 252 and 1330
A. The quantity in Column A is greater.
B. The quantity in Column B is greater.
C. The two quantities are equal.
D. The quantities cannot be compared from the information provided.

12. Consider these two expressions:

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Column A Column B
The value of x + y 9
A. The quantity in Column A is greater.
B.The quantity in Column B is greater.
C. The two quantities are equal.
D. The quantities cannot be compared from the information provided.

13.
Column A Column B
The length of a rectangle with a The perimeter of a square
perimeter of 40.8 cm with a side of 3.5 cm
A. The quantity in Column A is greater.
B. The quantity in Column B is greater.
C. The two quantities are equal.
D. The quantities cannot be compared from the information provided.

14.
B

A is the center of the circle; BD = 17 cm.

C
A

Column A Column B
AD BC
A. The quantity in Column A is greater.
B. The quantity in Column B is greater.

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C. The two quantities are equal.

D. The quantities cannot be compared from the information provided.

15.
Column A Column B

3 2
A. The quantity in Column A is greater.
B. The quantity in Column B is greater.
C. The two quantities are equal.
D. The quantities cannot be compared from the information provided.

Questions 16-30: Choose the letter that best answers the question.

16. What is the sum of the integers from 13 to 75, inclusive?

A.2184
B.2279
C.2332
D.2376
E.2385

17. The ratio of empty to full parking spaces is 3 to 5. If there are 940 full parking spaces in
the lot, how many spaces are empty?
A.156
B.376
C.470
D.564
E.602

18. Charles is able to husk 216 ears of corn in 2 ½ hours. What was his rate per minute?
A.1.44

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B.5.4
C.14.4
D.54
E.144

19.
21 cm

A B

C D

The perimeter of triangle ABC is 84

The perimeter of isosceles triangle BCD is 110
What is the length of CD?

A.30
B.35
C.40
D.42
E. It can’t be determined from the information provided.

20. Which two of the following fractions are equal?

I.

II.

III.

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IV.

A.I and II
B.II and III
C.I and III
D.II and IV
E.I and IV

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Questions 21-25 refer to the charts below:

3 2000
2002
2
2004

0
Find Part-Time Find Full-Time Unsure Transfer to
Employment Employment Four-Year
Program

Future Plans for Graduating Liberal Arts Majors at Kirkland Community College,
2000-2004 (in hundreds)

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21. With respect to what students plan to do after receiving their liberal arts degree, what
area has experienced the greatest growth from 2000 to 2004?
A. Finding part-time employment
B. Finding full-time employment
C. Unsure
D. Transferring to a four-year program
E. It can’t be determined from the information provided.

22. Which statement is true about comparing the enrollment of students in the liberal arts
major from 2000 and 2004?
A. The enrollment rose by about 300 students.
B. The enrollment declined by about 300 students.
C. The enrollment rose by about 30 students.
D. The enrollment declined by about 30 students.
E. None of the above statements are true.

23. What percentage of students were unsure of their future plans in 2004?
A.10%
B.20%
C.25%
D.40%
E.45%

24. Of the total number of students enrolled in the science, technology, engineering, and
math (STEM) majors, how many are not enrolled in a math major?
A. 267
B. 304
C.1513
D.1765
E. It can’t be determined from the information provided.

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25. Twenty-five new students enrolled in the school due to a recruiting effort by the
engineering department. How is the percentage of engineering students enrolled in STEM
majors affected?
A. It is now about 21%.
B. It is now about 25%.
C. It is now about 30%.
D. The percentage is the same.
E. It can’t be determined from the information provided.

26. After declining 6%, the student body at a particular university totals 22,278 students.
What was the size of the student body before the decline?
A. 22,936
B. 23,212
C. 23,700
D. 24,643
E. 37,121

27. What is the slope of a line that contains the points (3,7) and (8, -2)?
A.

B.

C.

D.

E.

28. A person invests $18,000 at 4% simple annual interest. How much interest has been
earned after four months?
A. $60
B. $180
C. $240

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D. $360
E. $720

29. After taking five tests, one student’s average grade is 65. If the student scores 83 on his
next test, what will his new average be?
A.65
B.68
C.74
D.78.8
E.81.6

30. Group A’s average weight is 162 pounds. Group B’s average weight is 156 pounds.
There are twice as many people in Group B as in Group A. What is the overall average
weight?
A.158
B.159
C.160
D.162
E.163

Questions 31-45 show a quantity in Column A and a quantity in Column B. Compare the two
quantities and indicate whether:
A. The quantity in Column A is greater.
B. The quantity in Column B is greater.
C. The two quantities are equal.
D. The quantities cannot be compared from the information provided.

31.
Column A Column B
The number of pebbles in a box The number of pebbles in a bag

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weighing 5 kilograms weighing 7 kilograms

A. The quantity in Column A is greater.
B. The quantity in Column B is greater.
C. The two quantities are equal.
D. The quantities cannot be compared from the information provided.

32. Test scores for one student this semester are:

76, 87, 100, 93, 65, 58
Column A Column B
The range The average
A. The quantity in Column A is greater.
B. The quantity in Column B is greater.
C. The two quantities are equal.
D. The quantities cannot be compared from the information provided.

33. After decreasing 17% over the past decade, the population of deer in a rural area is 498.
Column A Column B
The original population of deer 600
A. The quantity in Column A is greater.
B. The quantity in Column B is greater.
C. The two quantities are equal.
D. The quantities cannot be compared from the information provided.

34. When x is divided by 9, the remainder is 4.

Column A Column B
4 The remainder when 3x is
divided by 9
A. The quantity in Column A is greater.
B. The quantity in Column B is greater.
C. The two quantities are equal.

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D. The quantities cannot be compared from the information provided.

35. The first 200 pages of a biography mention John Doe by name an average of four times
per page. The remaining 125 pages mention his name six times per page.
Column A Column B
5 The average number of
times John Doe’s name is
mentioned in 325 pages
A. The quantity in Column A is greater.
B. The quantity in Column B is greater.
C. The two quantities are equal.
D. The quantities cannot be compared from the information provided.

36. After a flood, the ratio of dogs to horses in an emergency animal shelter is 5:2. The ratio
of horses to cats is 3:7. There are 30 dogs at the shelter.
Column A Column B
25 The number of cats at the
shelter.
A. The quantity in Column A is greater.
B. The quantity in Column B is greater.
C. The two quantities are equal.
D. The quantities cannot be compared from the information provided.

37. Six pounds of grapes cost $1.69 a pound. Four pounds of strawberries cost $2.19 a
pound. A mixture of these grapes and strawberries is available for sale at a lunch buffet.
Column A Column B
Cost per pound of the mixture $2
A. The quantity in Column A is greater.
B. The quantity in Column B is greater.
C. The two quantities are equal.

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D. The quantities cannot be compared from the information provided.

38.Of 150 people at a resort, 105 have previously visited Mexico, 34 have previously visited
Jamaica, and 40 people have previously visited neither place.
Column A Column B
The number of people who 25
have visited both Mexico and
Jamaica
A. The quantity in Column A is greater.
B. The quantity in Column B is greater.
C. The two quantities are equal.
D. The quantities cannot be compared from the information provided.

39. Snowfall in inches for the four weeks of January

Week 1 Week 2 Week 3 Week 4
City x 15 16 7 2
City y 8 9 17 6
Column A Column B
The standard deviation of snowfall The standard deviation of snowfall
for city x for city y
A. The quantity in Column A is greater.
B. The quantity in Column B is greater.
C. The two quantities are equal.
D. The quantities cannot be compared from the information provided.

40.
Column A Column B

A. The quantity in Column A is greater.

B. The quantity in Column B is greater.

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C. The two quantities are equal.

D. The quantities cannot be compared from the information provided.

41.
Column A Column B
0 1

A. The quantity in Column A is greater.

B. The quantity in Column B is greater.
C. The two quantities are equal.
D. The quantities cannot be compared from the information provided.

42.

Column A Column B
x 5
A. The quantity in Column A is greater.
B. The quantity in Column B is greater.
C. The two quantities are equal.
D. The quantities cannot be compared from the information provided.

43.
Column A Column B
The positive difference between the sixth and fifth 90
numbers in the sequence 3, 7, 8 whose nth term is
n2(n)

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44.

Sphere A
r = 3 cm.
Column A Column B
Volume of sphere A 113.04
cubic
centimeters

45. Cylinder B
radius = 6’
height = 3’

Column A Column B
Volume of cylinder B 350 cubic feet

Choose the letter that best answers the question.

46. In a math class, all except four students scored below 65 on a math test. If 14 students
scored below 60 on the test, how many students are in the math class?
A. 22
B. 28
C. 30
D. 32
E. It can’t be determined from the information given.

47. What is the average of all the integers from 16 to 68?

A. 41

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B. 41.5
C. 42
D. 42.5
E. 43

48. The ratio of riders to commuter buses is 36 to 4. If there are 8,100 riders, how many
buses are there?
A. 56.25
B. 90
C. 225.2
D. 900
E. 990

49. George walked 23,760 steps in 33 hours. What was his rate per minute?
A. 12
B. 20.5
C. 39.6
D. 45
E. 90

50. Rewrite in its simplest form.

A.

B.
C.

D.
E.

51. If what is the range of possible values for y?

A.

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B.
C.

D.
E.

52. Find the area of a circle with a circumference of 10π.

A. 5 π
B. 10 π
C. 15 π
D. 20 π
E. 25 π

53. What is the slope of the line that contains the points (1,3) and (4,-3)?
A. -2
B. -0.5
C. 1
D. 2
E. 3

54. The price of corn rose 20% two years ago and 15% last year. What is the combined
percent increase in price?
A. 5%
B. 17.5%
C. 25%
D. 35%
E. 38%

55. Solve: 161/2 + x1/3

A.
B.

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C.
D.

E.

56. Find

A. 8
B. 10
C. 12
D. 24
E. 36

57. What is the minimum value of the function

A. 1
B. -2
C. 2
D. -3
E. 3

58. E

9
150°

D F

What is the length of DF given the information above?

A.3
B.9
C.12

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D.15
E.18

59. D

8 3

B C

The perimeter of triangle BCD is 14. What is its area?

A.8
B.10
C.12
D.20
E.24

60. A copy machine can create 18 copies in 30 seconds. How many copies will it create in
215 seconds?
A.126
B.129
C.134
D.139
E.146

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Section Three – Analytical Writing

GRE Analytical Writing Test

Essay 1 – Issue

Directions: There are 45 minutes allotted for this part of the section. In that time, you will
plan and write an essay that explains your point of view on an assigned topic. Choose one
of the two topics below. You are not allowed to write about any other topics.

The topic is a short quotation about an issue. You will write an essay about the issue –
agreeing with it, disagreeing with it, or qualifying the quote. Support your opinion with
what you know from your studies, your own observations, readings, or other sources.

Ensure that you have fully developed your ideas and that your essay is well-organized. You
will want to make sure you have time to review and revise your work, so plan accordingly.

1. A preoccupation with the future not only prevents us from seeing the present as it is but
often prompts us to rearrange the past. (Eric Hoffer, The Passionate State of Mind,
1954)
2. Never let the future disturb you. You will meet it, if you have to, with the same weapons of
reason which today arm you against the present. (Marcus Aurelius Antonius,
Mediations, 200 A.D.)

Essay 2: Argument

Directions: There are 30 minutes allotted for this part of the section. Here, you will explain
how logical you believe the argument below seems. As you consider your argument, take
care to analyze what the speaker is saying, the rationale, and use of evidence. Think about
and explain how to make the argument more valid or how its conclusion could be better
stated.

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This opinion was argued at a recent economic policy meeting:

People should be able to will their social security fund earnings to their
survivors. Social Security is run like a giant Ponzi-type scheme. (Years ago, Charles
Ponzi conducted an investment swindle whereby early investors were paid returns
with money provided by later investors.) All workers, some involuntarily,
contribute money to the social security system at regular intervals during their
entire working life. Retired people, disabled children and adults, and minors who
have lost a head of household are all given a monthly check, the amount of which
is largely based on what they have paid into the fund. The only reason these people
are able to be paid is that money continues to be pumped into the system.
This system may work well, but some people are never able to draw from
their contributions to social security. They may work for ten years and die, or they
may work their entire life and die just at the time they have retired. This is unfair.
People should be able to will their social security fund earnings to their survivors.

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