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Fiitjee Aits 2013 Papers

1) The document provides information about FIITJEE's performance in JEE Advanced 2012, with several ranks in the top 10, 20, 100, 200 and 500. 2) It outlines the instructions for the JEE Advanced 2013 exam, including the time allotted, materials allowed/not allowed, and how to fill out the answer sheet correctly. 3) The marking scheme for the three parts (Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics) is described, including the number of questions in each section and the points awarded for correct/incorrect answers.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)

573 views189 pages

Fiitjee Aits 2013 Papers

Uploaded by

Saksham Jain

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Available Formats

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TG ~ @bohring_bot < 3

FIITJEE JEE (Advanced), 2013

From Long Term Classroom Programs and Medium / Short Classroom Program 4 in Top 10, 10 in Top 20, 43 in Top 100, FULL TEST – I

Paper 1
75 in Top 200, 159 in Top 500 Ranks & 3542 t o t a l s e l e c t i o n s i n I I T - J E E 2 0 1 2

Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 240

P l e a s e r e a d t h e i n s t r u c t i o n s c a r e f u l l y. Y o u a r e a l l o t t e d 5 m i n u t e s
specifically for this purpose.
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES

Y o u a r e n o t a l l o we d t o l e a v e t h e E x a m i n a t i o n H a l l b e f o r e t h e e n d o f
the test.

INSTRUCTIONS
A. General Instructions

1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Parts.
3. Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
4. Each part is further divided into two sections: Section-A & Section-B.
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.

B. Filling of OMR Sheet

1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers
on OMR sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with black pen for each character of your
Enrolment No. and write your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.

C. Marking Scheme For All Three Parts.

1. Section – A (01 – 08) contains 8 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer.
Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and – 1 mark for wrong answer.

Section – A (09 – 12) contains 4 multiple choice questions which have more than one correct
answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and – 1 mark for wrong answer.

Section – A (13 – 18) contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions
have to be answered. Each question has only one correct answer and carries +4 marks for
correct answer and – 1 marks for wrong answer.
2. Section – B (01 – 02) contains 2 Matrix Match Type questions containing statements given in 2
columns. Statements in the first column have to be matched with statements in the second
column. Each question carries +8 marks for all correct answer. For each correct row +2 mark will
be awarded. There may be one or more than one correct choice. No marks will be given for any
wrong match in any question. There is no negative marking.

Name of the Candidate

Enrolment No.

FIITJEE Ltd., FIITJEE House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -110016, Ph 46106000, 26569493, Fax 26513942
website: www.fiitjee.com
TG ~ @bohring_bot < 3
AITS-FT-I(Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/13
2

Useful Data

PHYSICS
Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s2

Planck constant h = 6.6 ×10−34 J-s

Charge of electron e = 1.6 × 10−19 C

Mass of electron me = 9.1 × 10−31 kg

Permittivity of free space ε0 = 8.85 × 10−12 C2/N-m2

Density of water ρwater = 103 kg/m3

Atmospheric pressure Pa = 105 N/m2

Gas constant R = 8.314 J K−1 mol−1

CHEMISTRY

Gas Constant R = 8.314 J K−1 mol−1

= 0.0821 Lit atm K−1 mol−1
= 1.987 ≈ 2 Cal K−1 mol−1
Avogadro's Number Na = 6.023 × 1023
Planck’s constant h = 6.625 × 10−34 J⋅s
= 6.625 × 10–27 erg⋅s
1 Faraday = 96500 coulomb
1 calorie = 4.2 joule
1 amu = 1.66 × 10–27 kg
1 eV = 1.6 × 10–19 J

Atomic No: H=1, He = 2, Li=3, Be=4, B=5, C=6, N=7, O=8,

N=9, Na=11, Mg=12, Si=14, Al=13, P=15, S=16,
Cl=17, Ar=18, K =19, Ca=20, Cr=24, Mn=25,
Fe=26, Co=27, Ni=28, Cu = 29, Zn=30, As=33,
Br=35, Ag=47, Sn=50, I=53, Xe=54, Ba=56,
Pb=82, U=92.
Atomic masses: H=1, He=4, Li=7, Be=9, B=11, C=12, N=14, O=16,
F=19, Na=23, Mg=24, Al = 27, Si=28, P=31, S=32,
Cl=35.5, K=39, Ca=40, Cr=52, Mn=55, Fe=56, Co=59,
Ni=58.7, Cu=63.5, Zn=65.4, As=75, Br=80, Ag=108,
Sn=118.7, I=127, Xe=131, Ba=137, Pb=207, U=238.

FIITJEE Ltd., FIITJEE House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -110016, Ph 46106000, 26569493, Fax 26513942
website: www.fiitjee.com
TG ~ @bohring_bot < 3 3 AITS-FT-I(Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/13

Physics PART – I

SECTION – A
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. In the circuit shown below, what will be the reading of the A

L C R = 100Ω

voltmeter and ammeter?

(A) 800 V, 2A (B) 300 V, 2A A V V V
300V 300V V
(C) 220 V, 2.2A (D) 100 V, 2A
220V, 50 Hz

2. A ball of mass m is projected from a point P on the ground as shown in the

figure. It hits a fixed vertical wall at a distance l from P. Choose the most
appropriate option : u
(A) the ball will return to the point P if l = half of the horizontal range. P θ
(B) the ball will return to the point P if l ≤ half of the horizontal range.
(C) the ball can not return to the initial point if l > half of the horizontal range. l
(D) the ball will return to the initial point, if the collision elastic and l < half of the range.

3 What is the equivalent capacitance across the battery?

79 59 E
(A) C (B) C
30 30 C
41 21
(C) C (D) C C
30 30 2C C
C
C
C
C C

4. Initial charge on conducting sphere of radius r is Q0. If S is closed at + +

t = 0 then charge on the sphere at any time t is

−t
+

r
− t/rR 4 πε0 R
+

(A) Q0 e (B) Q0 e R
+
+
t
−
4 πε0 Rr
(C) Q0 e (D) none of these S

Rough work

10 Ω
5. Two resistances of 10 Ω and 20 Ω and an ideal inductor of inductance
5H are connected to a 20V battery through a key K, as shown in
figure. The key is closed at t = 0. What is the final value of current in
the 10Ω resistor?
5H
(A) (2/3) A (B) (1/3) A
(C) (1/6) A (D) zero
20Ω

( )
20V K

6. A tank is filled upto a height 2H with a liquid and is placed

on a platform of height H from the ground. The distance x
from the ground where a small hole is punched to get the
maximum range R is 2H
(A) H (B) 1.25 H
(C) 1.5 H (D) 2 H
x
H

7. The measure of radius of a sphere is (4.22 + 2%) cm. The volume of the sphere is
(A) ( 315 ± 6% ) cm3 (B) ( 315 ± 2% ) cm3
(C) ( 315 ± 4% ) cm3 (D) ( 315 ± 8% ) cm3

8. A planet moves around Sun in an elliptical orbit of eccentricity e. The ratio

Va
of the velocity at perigee Vp and at apogee Va is given by Sun
V 1+ e V 1− e
(A) P = (B) P = VP
Va 1 − e Va 1 + e
VP 1+ e VP 1− e
(C) = (D) =
Va 1− e Va 1+ e

Rough work

FIITJEE Ltd., FIITJEE House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -110016, Ph 46106000, 26569493, Fax 26513942
website: www.fiitjee.com
TG ~ @bohring_bot < 3 5 AITS-FT-I(Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/13

Multiple Correct Answer(s) Type

This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONE or MORE are correct.

9. The string shown in the figure is passing over small smooth pulley

=4m
hh=4cm
rigidly attached to trolley A. If speed of trolley is constant and
equal to VA. Speed and magnitude of acceleration of block B at
A
the instant shown in figure is
(A) vB = vA, aB = 0 (B) aB = 0
3 16v 2A hx=3cm
=3m
(C) vB = v A (D) aB = B
5 125

10. In the figure, a man of true mass M is standing on a weighing machine m

placed in a cabin. The cabin is joined by a string with a body of mass m.
Assuming no friction, and negligible mass of cabin and weighing
machine, the measured mass of man is (normal force between the man
and the machine is proportional to the mass)

Mm mg
(A) measured mass of man is (B) acceleration of man is
(M + m) (M + m)
Mg
(C) acceleration of man is (D) measured mass of man is M.
(M + m)

G
11. A charged particle of mass 2 kg and charge 2 C moves with a velocity v = 8iˆ + 6ˆj m/s in a
G
magnetic field B = 2kˆ T. Then
(A) The path of particle may be x2 + y2 = 25. (B) The path of particle may be x2 + z2 = 25.
(C) The time period of particle will be 3.14 s. (D) None of these.

12. Choose the correct statement(s)

(A) The density of nuclear matter is independent of the size of the nucleus.
(B) The binding energy per nucleon, for nuclei of middle mass numbers, is about 8 MeV.
(C) A free neutron is unstable.
(D) A free proton is stable.

Rough work

Comprehension Type

Paragraph for Question Nos. 13 to 15

A small particle of mass m is given an initial velocity v0 tangent to the horizontal v0

A
rim of a smooth cone at a radius r0 from the vertical centerline as shown at r0
point A. As the particle slides to point B, a vertical distance h below A and a
distance r from the vertical centerline, its velocity v makes an angle θ with the r B
horizontal tangent to the cone through B. θ
v
α α

13. The value of θ is

v 0r0 v 0r0
(A) cos−1 (B) cos−1
v 02 + 2gh(r0 − h tan α ) v 02 + 2gh(r0 + h tan α )
v 0r0 v 0r0
(C) cos−1 (D) cos−1
v 02 − 2gh(r0 − h tan α ) r0 v 02 + 2gh

14. The speed of particle at point B

(A) v 02 + 2gh (B) v 02 − 2gh

(C) v 02 + gh (D) 2v 02 + 2gh

15. The minimum value of v0 for which particle will be moving in a horizontal circle of radius r0.
2gr0 gr0
(A) (B)
tan α 2 tanα
gr0 4gr0
(C) (D)
tan α tan α

Rough work

FIITJEE Ltd., FIITJEE House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -110016, Ph 46106000, 26569493, Fax 26513942
website: www.fiitjee.com
TG ~ @bohring_bot < 3 7 AITS-FT-I(Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/13

Paragraph for Question Nos. 16 to 18

The world is focusing its attention on renewable sources of energy 10m

like solar energy, wind energy, tidal energy and wave energy. These 2m
sources are non-polluting, do not cause the emission of greenhouse
gases, or cause any large scale damage to the ecology or
environment.
Waves on the surface of the ocean are a good source of power. To
illustrate this, we calculate the mechanical energy carried by an
average wave of crest 1m, wavelength 20 m and a period of 5 s. The
wave profile is taken as approximately step-like, instead of a
sinusoidal function.
A simple minded calculation gives us a contribution of 200 kW from the release of potential energy by
such a wave over a 1 m wavefront.

16. The speed of the wave is

(A) 100 ms–1 (B) 4 ms–1
(C) 0.25 ms–1 (D) none of these

17. Wave energy provides an inexpensive source of power. In the paragraph above, only the
potential energy carried by the wave was calculated. The contribution to power due to kinetic
energy, assuming that all the water in the crest is moving forward at the speed of the wave gives
us, over a 1 m wavefront approximately, of the order of
(A) 10 W (B) 100 W
(C) 103 W (D) 104 W

18. The momentum carried by the crest of the wave, per metre of the wavefront, is of the order of,
(A) 105 kg ms–1 (B) 102 kg ms–1
–1
(C) 10 kg ms (D) 108 kg ms–1

Rough work

SECTION - B
Matrix – Match Type

This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given p q r s t

in two columns, which have to be matched. The statements in Column I are
A p q r s t
labelled A, B, C and D, while the statements in Column II are labelled p, q, r,
s and t. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with B p q r s t
ONE OR MORE statement(s) in Column II. The appropriate bubbles
corresponding to the answers to these questions have to be darkened as C p q r s t
illustrated in the following example:
If the correct matches are A – p, s and t; B – q and r; C – p and q; and D – s D p q r s t
and t; then the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following:

1. For the following statements, except gravity and contact force between the contact surfaces, no
other force is acting on the body.
Column A Column B
(A) When a sphere is in pure–rolling on a fixed (p) Upward direction
horizontal surface.
(B) When a cylinder is in pure rolling on a fixed inclined (q) vcm > R ω
plane in upward direction then friction force acts in
(C) When a cylinder is in pure rolling down a fixed (r) vcm < Rω
incline plane, friction force acts is
(D) When a sphere of radius R is rolling with slipping on (s) No frictional force acts.
a fixed horizontal surface, the relation between vcm
and ω is

2. Match the column I with column II

In simple harmonic motion: x = 1.0 sin [12πt] and mass of particle executing SHM,
m = 1/4 kg
Column A Column B
(A) Frequency with which kinetic energy oscillates = … (p) 1
12
(B) Speed of particle is maximum at time = …. (q) 18π2
(C) Maximum potential energy = … (r) 12
(D) Force constant k = … (s) 36π2

Rough work

FIITJEE Ltd., FIITJEE House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -110016, Ph 46106000, 26569493, Fax 26513942
website: www.fiitjee.com
TG ~ @bohring_bot < 3 9 AITS-FT-I(Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/13

Chemistry PART – II

SECTION – A

Straight Objective Type

This section contains 8 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 8. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

( 2 ) Ag2 O/NH4 OH → A, Product ( A ) is :

(1) O3
Et 
( 3 ) NaBH4
( 4 ) H+

(A) O (B) O

O O

Et
(C) O (D) O

Et
Et

2. O
C
−
PCl5 LiAlH4
O  → A → B  → C  →D
PCC OH
∆

C
O
Product (D) is:

(A) CH2OH (B) CH2O

COO COOH
(C) CH2OH (D)
O
COO

O
Rough Work

3. The two forms of D-glucopyranose obtain from the solution of D-glucose are called
(A) Isomer (B) Anomer
(C) Epimer (D) Enantiomer

4. The vapour pressure of pure benzene and toluene are 160 and 60 torr respectively. The mole
fraction of toluene in vapour phase in contact with equimolar solution of benzene and toluene is:
(A) 0.50 (B) 0.6
(C) 0.27 (D) 0.73

5. Consider the modes of transformations of a gas from state ‘A’ to state ‘B’ as shown in the
following P – V diagram. Which one of the following is true?

(A) ∆H = q along A → C A
(B) ∆S is same along both A → B and
A →C→B P
(C) W is same along both A → B and
C B
A →C→B
(D) W > O along both A → B and A → C
V

6. Select the group of species in which all show trigonal bipyramidal geometry:
(A) PF5, IF5, XeF4 (B) ClO−4 ,IF7 ,CO32−
(C) I3− , XeF2 ,SF4 (D) XeF6 ,PF6− ,ICl2+

7. Crystal field stabilization energy for high spin d4 octahedral complex is:
(A) - 1.8 ∆o (B) - 1. 6 ∆o + P
(C) - 1.2 ∆o (D) - 0.6 ∆o

8. Solubility product of silver bromide is 5 × 10-13. The quantity of potassium bromide (molar mass
taken as 120 g mol-1) to be added to 1 litre of 0.05 M solution of silver nitrate just to start the
precipitation of AgBr is:
(A) 5 × 10-8 g (B) 1.2 × 10-10 g
(C) 1.2 × 10-9 g (D) 6.2 × 10-5 g

Rough Work

FIITJEE Ltd., FIITJEE House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -110016, Ph 46106000, 26569493, Fax 26513942
website: www.fiitjee.com
TG ~ @bohring_bot < 3 11 AITS-FT-I(Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/13

Multiple Correct Choice Type

This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.

9. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

(A) The coordination number of each type of ion in CsCl crystal is 8
(B) A metal that crystallizes in bcc structure has a coordination number of 12
(C) A unit cell of an ionic crystal shares some of its ions with other unit cells
(D) The length of the unit cell in NaCl is 552 pm
(rNa+ = 95 pm, rCl− = 181 pm )
10. Which of the following statements are correct for cis-1,2-dibromocyclopentane?
(A) It contains two chiral centres, but is optically inactive
(B) It can exist in two enatiomeric forms but cannot be optically active
(C) It is a meso compound
(D) It is with two chiral centres and is optically active

11. Which of the following pairs can be distinguished by using Lucas Test?
(A) PhCH2OH, CH3CH2OH (B) PhCH2OH, PhOH
(C) (CH3)2CHOH,CH3CH2CH2OH (D) CH3CH2CH2OH, CH3CH2OH

12. Which reagent does not give oxygen as one of the products during oxidation with ozone?
(A) SO2 (B) SnCl2 + HCl
(C) H2S (D) PbS
Rough Work

Comprehension Type

This section contains 2 groups of questions. Each group has 3 multiple choice question based on a
paragraph. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is
correct.
Paragraph for Question Nos. 13 to 15
For an electrode reaction written as
Mn + + ne−  →M
RT 1
Ered = Ered
o
− ln (Nernst equation)
nF Mn + 
0.0591 1
= Ered
o
− log n + at 298 K
n M 
ZZZ
X
For the cell reaction, aA + bB YZZ
Z xX + yY
RT [ X ] [ Y ]
x y

Ecell = E o
− ln
nF [ A ]a [B ]b
cell

0.0591 [ X ] [ Y ]
x y

= Eocell − log at 298 K

[ A ] [B]
a b
n
For pure solids, liquids or gases at 1 atm, molar concentration = 1
Standard free energy change ∆Go = −nEocellF where n is the number of electrons transferred in the redox
reaction of the cell, Eocell is the standard emf of the cell. F stands for 1 Faraday, i.e. 96500 C mol-1
(approx.).
−2.303RT
Standard free energy change ∆Go = logK eq . Where K eq is the equilibrium constant at TK. K eq
nF
0.0591
can be calculated from Eocell by using the relation, Eocell = logK eq
n
13. The e.m.f. of the cell
Zn | Zn+2 ( 0.01 M) || Fe +2 ( 0.001 M) | Fe
at 298 K is 0.2905 V. The value of the equilibrium constant for cell reaction is:
0.32 0.32
(A) e 0.0295 (B) 10 0.0295
0.26 0.32
(C) 10 0.0295 (D) 10 0.0591
14. On the basis of information available from the reaction
4 2
→ Al2O3 , ∆G = −827 kJ mol−1
Al + O2 
3 3
The minimum emf required to carry out an electrolysis of Al2O3 is (F = 96500 mol-1)
(A) 2.14 V (B) 4.28 V
(C) 6.42 V (D) 8.56 V
15. Eo for the cell, Zn | Zn(+eq
2 +2 o
) || Cueq | Cu; is 1.1 V at 25 C. The equilibrium constant for the cell

reaction Zn + Cu(+aq
2
ZZZ
X
) YZZ
+2
Z Cu + Zn( eq) is of the order of
(A) 10-37 (B) 1037
(C) 10-17 (D) 1017
Rough Work

FIITJEE Ltd., FIITJEE House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -110016, Ph 46106000, 26569493, Fax 26513942
website: www.fiitjee.com
TG ~ @bohring_bot < 3 13 AITS-FT-I(Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/13

Paragraph for Question Nos. 16 to 18

In oxoacids of phosphorus, P is tetrahedrally surrounded by other atoms. All these acids contain one P =
O and P – OH bond. The oxoacids in which phosphorus has lower oxidation state (less than +5) contain,
in addition to P = O and P – OH bonds, either P – P (e.g., in H4P2O6) or P – H (e.g., in H3PO2) bonds but
not both. These acids in +3 oxidation state of phosphorus tend to disproportionate to higher and lower
oxidation states. For example, orthophosphorous acid (or phosphorus acid) on heating disproportionate to
give orthophosphoric acid (or phosphoric acid) and phosphine.
4H3PO3  → 3H3PO4 + PH3

16. → ( X ) , a red ppt.

H3PO2 + CuSO4 
X is:
(A) Cu (B) Cu2O
(C) CuO (D) Cu2H2

17. P4 ( white ) + J ( an alkaline solution ) 

→ K ( reducing gas ) + L
L + dil. H2SO4 → N (ppt.) + M (oxyacids P)
N gives apple green colour in the flame.
Thus J, K, L, M and N respectively are:
(A) Ba(OH)2, PH3, Ba(H2PO2)2, H3PO2, BaSO4
(B) Ca(OH)2, P2H4, Ba(H2PO2)3, H3PO2, CaSO4
(C) Ba(OH)2, PH3, Ba(H2PO2)3, H3PO3, BaSO4
(D) Ba(OH)2, P2H4, Ba(H2PO2)2, H3PO2, BaSO4

18. Which of the following represents the isopolyacid of phosphorus?

(A) O O (B) O O

H P O P O H H P P O H

O H OH OH
O H

H P O P H HO P O P OH

OH H OH OH

Rough Work

SECTION-B
(Matrix Type)

This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given p q r s t

in two columns, which have to be matched. The statements in Column I are
A p q r s t
labelled A, B, C and D, while the statements in Column II are labelled p, q, r,
s and t. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with B p q r s t
ONE OR MORE statement(s) in Column II. The appropriate bubbles
corresponding to the answers to these questions have to be darkened as C p q r s t
illustrated in the following example:
D p q r s t
If the correct matches are A – p, s and t; B – q and r; C – p and q; and D – s
and t; then the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following:

1. Acids given in Column – I are treated with OH– and then with H+, if required. The results are given
in Column – II. Match correctly:
Column – I Column – II
(A) 2-bormopropanoic acid (p) Product is optically active
(B) 3-bromobutanoic acid (q) Product shows geometrical
isomerism
(C) 4-bromobutanoic acid (r) Involves SN2 attack
(D) 5-boromobutanoic acid (s) Product contains a ring
(t) Product contains – OH group

2. Match the reactions given in Column-I with the facts given in Column-II:
Column – I Column – II
(A) CH3 (p) Develops a racemic mixture
+ CH3
N D2 O
H HC  →
CH3
H2C
CH3
(B) D (q) An alkene is obtained
NH2 
→ NaNO2
H3C HCl

C2H5
( One enantiomer )
(C) D (r) Configuration is retained
H3 O+
H3C CN →
C2 H5
( One enantiomer )
(D) H3C CH3 (s) Product may contain deuterium
+
N ( CH3 )3 OH−
∆
 →

H
D
( One isomer )
(t) No stereogenic centre in the
product
Rough Work

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Mathematics PART – III

SECTION – A

Straight Objective Type

This section contains 8 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 8. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. If a function y = f(x) is such that f′(x) < 0, then the number of integral values of ‘a’ for which the
major axis of ellipse f(a + 11)x2 + f(a2 + 2a + 5)y2 = f(a + 11)f(a2 + 2a + 5) becomes x–axis is
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4

2. In a ∆ABC, A, B, C are in AP and a, b, c are in GP then value of a3 + b3 + c3 – a2b – b2c – c2a is

(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 3 (D) 4

3. The four points A, B, C, D in space are such that angle ABC, BCD, CDA and DAB are all right
angles, then
(A) A, B, C, D cannot be coplanar (B) A, B, C, D are necessarily coplanar
(C) A, B, C, D may or may not be coplanar (D) no such points A, B, C, D exist

4. b and c are arithmetic means between a and d (a > d > 0) and h and k are the geometric mean
between a and d then
(A) bc is always greater than hk (B) bc is always less than hk
(C) bc may be equal to hk (D) none of these

π
5. If P be a point on ellipse 4x2 + y2 = 8 with eccentric angle . Tangent and normal at P intersects
4
the axes at A, B, A′ and B′ respectively. Then the ratio of area of ∆APA′ and area of ∆BPB′ is
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4

Rough work

6. If sin x + sin y ≥ cos α cos x ∀ x ∈ R then sin y + cos α is equal to

1
(A) (B) 1
2
(C) 2 (D) –1

1 1
sin x cos x
7. Let I = ∫
0
x
dx and J = ∫
0
x
dx . Then which one of the following is true?

2 2
(A) I > and J > 2 (B) I < and J < 2
3 3
2 2
(C) I < and J > 2 (D) I > and J < 2
3 3

8. Tangent to hyperbola xy = c2 at point P intersects the x–axis at T and the y–axis at T′. Normal to
hyperbola at P intersects the x–axis at N and the y–axis at N′. If the area of the triangles PNT and
1 1
PN′T′ are ∆ and ∆′ respectively then + , is equal to
∆ ∆'
2
(A) c2 (B) 2
c
1 c2
(C) (D)
c2 2

Multiple Correct Choice Type

This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.

π  π
9. If 2 sin2  cos2 x  = 1 − cos ( π sin 2x ) , x ≠ ( 2n + 1) , n ∈ I, then
2  2
3 1
(A) cos 2x is (B) cos 2x is
5 2
1 1
(C) tan x is (D) tan x is
2 3

Rough work

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10. A circle having centre at C is made to pass through the point P(1, 2), touching the straight lines
7x – y = 5 and x + y + 13 = 0 at A and B respectively, then
(A) area of quadrilateral ACBP is 100 sq. units (B) radius of smaller circle is 50
(C) area of quadrilateral ACBP is 200 sq. units (D) radius of smaller circle is 10

11. If ax2 + bx + c = 0 has no real root and a + b + c < 0 then

(A) 4a – 2b + c > 0 (B) 4a – 2b + c < 0
(C) 13a + 5b + 2c < 0 (D) 5b – 25a – c > 0

12. Let f(x) = (x + |x|) |x|, then for all x

(A) f is continuous (B) f′ is differentiable ∀ x ∈ R
(C) f′ is continuous (D) f″ is continuous

Comprehension Type

Paragraph for Question Nos. 13 to 15

Read the following write up carefully and answer the following questions:
At times the methods of coordinates becomes effective in solving problems of properties of triangles, we
may choose one vertex of the triangle and one side passing through this vertex as x–axis. Thus, without
loss of generality, we can assume that every triangle ABC has a vertex B situated at B(0, 0), vertex C at
(a, 0) and A as (h, k).

13. If in ∆ABC, AC = 3, BC = 4 medians AD and BE are perpendicular, then area of triangle ABC
must be equal to
(A) 7 (B) 11
(C) 2 2 (D) 13

Rough work

14. Suppose the bisector AD of the interior angle A of ∆ABC divides sides BC into segments BD = 4,
DC = 2. Then we must have
(A) b > c and c < 4 (B) b ∈ (2, 6) and c < 1
(C) b ∈ (2, 6) and c ∈ (4, 12) (D) none of these

BE 3
15. If altitude, CD = 7, AE = 6 and E divides BC given that = then c must be
EC 4
(A) 2 3 (B) 5 3
(C) 5 (D) 4 3

Paragraph for Question Nos. 16 to 18

Read the following write up carefully and answer the following questions:
1 1

∫ yf(y) dy + 20∫ xy f(y) dy + 4x

2 2
Let f(x) = 12x
0 0

16. The maximum value of f(x) is

1
(A) 8 (B)
8
1
(C) 16 (D)
16

17. The number of solutions of the equation f ( x ) = e x

(A) 0 (B) 2
(C) 4 (D) 3

18. The range of f ( −2 x ) is

(A) (–∞, 0) (B) (0, ∞)
 1 1 
(C)  −∞,  (D)  , ∞ 
 8 8 

Rough work

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SECTION – B

(Matrix Type)

This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given p q r s t

[x] ; x ∈ [ −2, 0) π
1. Let f(x) =  ; where [.] represent G.I.F. and g(x) = sec x, x ∈ R – (2n + 1) .
 x ; x ∈ [0, 2] 2
 3 π 3π 
Match the following statements in column–I with their values in column–II in interval  − , .
 2 2 
Column – I Column – II
(A) Limit of fog exist at (p) –1
(B) Limit of gof does not exist at (q) π
(C) Points of discontinuity of fog is/are 5π
(r)
6
(D) Points of differentiability of fog is/are (s) –π
π
(t)
3

2. Match the following column–I with column–II.

Column – I Column – II
(A) One ball is drawn from a bag containing 4 balls and is found to (p) 9
be white. The events that the bag contains 1 white, 2 white, 3
white and 4 white balls are equally likely. If the probability that all
p
the balls are white is then the value of p is
15
(B) From a set of 12 persons if the number of different selection of a (q) 3
committee, its chairperson and its secretary (possibly same as
chairperson) is 13 ⋅ 210 m then m is
(C) If x, y, z > 0 and x + y + z = 1, then the least value of (r) 8
5x 5y 5z
+ + is
2−x 2−y 2−z
12 (s) 6
(D) If ∑
K =1
12K ⋅ 12
CK ⋅ 11
CK −1 is equal to

12 × 21× 19 × 17 × ..... × 3 12
× 2 × p the p is
11!
(t) 12

Rough work

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From Long Term Classroom Programs and Medium / Short Classroom Program 4 in Top 10, 10 in Top 20, 43 in Top
FIITJEE JEE(Advanced)-2013
ANSWERS, HINTS & SOLUTIONS
100, 75 in Top 200, 159 in Top 500 Ranks & 3542 t o t a l s e l e c t i o n s i n I I T - J E E 2 0 1 2

FULL TEST –I
(Paper-1)

Q. No. PHYSICS CHEMISTRY MATHEMATICS

1. C A D
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES

2. C A A
3. A B B
4. C C A
5. D B D
6. C C B
7. A D B
8. A C B
9. C, D A, C, D A, C
10. A, C A, C A, B
11. A, C A, B, C B, C, D
12. A, B, C, D A, B A, C
13. A B B
14. A A C
15. C B D
16. B D B
17. D A B
18. A D A
(A) → (s) (A) → (p, r, t) (A) → (p, q, r, s)
(B) → (p) (B) → (q) (B) → (p)
1. (C) → (r, s)
(C) → (p) (C) → (q, s)
(D) → (q, r) (D) → (r, s) (D)→ (p, r)
(A) → (r) (A) → (p, q, s) (A) → (s)
(B) → (q) (B) → (p, s) (B) → (t)
2. (C) → (r, s)
(C) → (q) (C) → (q)
(D) → (s) (D) → (q, t) (D)→ (s)

Physics PART – I

SECTION – A

1. E2 = VR2 + (VL − VC )2 = VR2 + 0

As, E = VR
∴ VR = V = 220 V
E 220
I= = = 2.2 amp
R 100

3. Equivalent circuit can be drawn as C C 2/3C C

79 2C
Equivalent capacitance = C. C C
2C
⇒
30 C
C C

C C C C

2C 2C
⇒ 8/3C C ⇒
C C 19C/11

4. This is simply discharging of a capacitor.

∴ q = Q 0e − t / CR where C = 4πε0r

5. When the circuit will reach to steady state the inductor will given zero resistance. Hence the entire
current will only pass through it.
H + 2H 3H
6. X= =
2 2

8. Here V ∝ 1/r
r → distance between Sun and Planet.

9. (y − h) + x 2 + h2 = A
=4m
hh=4cm

dy dx x A
+ =0 y
dt x + h dt2 2
hx=3cm
=3m
dy x dx B
=−
dt 2
x +h 2 dt

dy 3
= − vA
dt 5
3
| uB |= v A …(i)
5
d2 y h2
= v 2A
(x 2 + h2 ) 3
2
dt
2
16
aB = v 2A
(5)3

16 2
aB = vA …(ii)
125

10. Mg – T = Ma …(i)
T = ma …(ii)
Solving (i) and (ii)
Mg
a=
(M + m)
FBD of man N
Mg – N = Ma
Mmg a
N=
(M + m)
Mg
2πm
11. T= = 3.14 s.
qB

Chemistry PART – II

SECTION – A

1. O O O

(1) O3
H OH O
Et  → ( ) 2
2 Ag O/NH OH
Et 
( 2 ) NaBH4 →
4 +

Et →
H

O OH Et

2. O O
C C
PCl5 Cl
O  → LiAlH 4

Cl
C C
O O
CHO CH2OH
CH2OH
←
OH

−
←
 PCC

CHO CH2OH
COO

3.
1
HO C H
1
H C OH 2
H C OH
2 O Cyclic forms of diastereomers that differ
H C OH 3
3 O and HO C H only in the configuration of C1, are known
HO C H
H 4C OH as anomers.
4
H C OH 5
H C
5
H C 6CH OH
2
6CH OH
2
The configuration differ only at carbon no. 1.

4. For equimolar solutions, n1 = n2

∴ x1 = 0.5 and 0.5
PB = xB × PBo = 0.5 × 160 = 80 mm
PT = x T × PTo = 0.5 × 60 = 30 mm
PTotal = 80 + 30 = 110 mm
PT 30
Mole fraction of toluene in vapour phase = = = 0.27
PTotal 110

5. Entropy is a state function, i.e. the change entropy depends upon the initial and final states of the
system and not on how that change is brought about.

0.6∆ o

d − orbitals in symmetrical
−0.4∆ o
field of ligands

high spin d4 configuration

in an octahedral field
CFSE = 3(- 0.4) ∆o + 0.6 ∆o = - 1.2 ∆o + 0.6 ∆o = -0.6 ∆o

8. Given (K sp ) = 5 × 10−13
AgBr

KBr + AgNO3 
→ AgBr + KNO3
Given, [AgNO3] = 0.05 M
⇒  Ag+  = NO3−  = 0.05M
 Ag+  Br −  = (K sp ) AgBr ⇒ 0.05 × Br −  = 5 × 10 −13
5 × 10 −13
⇒ Br −  = = 1× 10 −11M
0.05
∴ Br −  = [KBr ] = 1× 10 −11M
wt. of KBr = 1× 10−11 × 120 = 1.20 × 10−9 gm / litre
10.

H H

Br Br

Plane of symmetry

11. (A) Ph − CH2 − OH 

anh.ZnCl2
conc.HCl
→ Ph − CH2 − Cl + Zn ( OH) Cl ( immediate )
( white turbidity )
CH3 − CH2 − OH → CH3 − CH2 − Cl + Zn ( OH) Cl
Lucas reagent
( slow )
(B) Ph − CH2 − OH 
Lucas
reagent
→ PhCH2 Cl + Zn ( OH) Cl (immediate )
( White turbidity )
Ph − OH 
→ No reaction under normal condition
Lucas
reagent

(C) ( CH3 )2 CH − OH 

Lucas
reagent
→ ( CH3 )2 CH − Cl + Zn ( OH) Cl (Moderate rate )
( White turbidity )
CH3 − CH2 − CH2 − CH2 − OH 
Lucas
reagent
→ CH3 − CH2 − CH2 − CH2 − Cl + Zn ( OH) Cl ( Slow )
( White turbidity )

12. H2S + O3 
→H2O + S + O2
PbS + 4O3 
→PbSO4 + 4O2
3SO2 + O3 → 3SO3
3SnCl2 + 6HCl + O3 
→ 3SnCl4 + 3H2O

13. Zn + Fe+2 
→ Fe + Zn+2
0.0591
E = Eo − logK eq
n
Given, E = 0.2905
0.0591 0.01
⇒ 0.2905 = Eo − log
2 0.001
⇒ 0.02905 + 0.0295 log10
= 0.2905 + 0.0295
= 0.32
0.0591
∴ Eo = logK eq
2
0.0591
⇒ 0.32 = logK eq
2
0.32
⇒ K eq = 10 0.0295

14. For 1 mole of O2

 2 
O 2 → 2O2 −  i.e. × 3O2 − 
 3 
4
Or mol of Al to change into Al+3 ions.
3
n=4
Thus, ∆G = −nEF
∆G +827000
⇒E= − = = 2.14 volt
nF 4 × 96500

0.059 1.1× 2
15. Eocell = logK eq ⇒ = 37.2881 = logK eq
2 0.059
⇒ K eq = 1.9 × 10 37

16. Copper sulphate when reacts with hypophosphorus acid, gets reduced to cuprous hydride.
4CuSO 4 + 3H3PO 2 + 6H2 O → 2Cu2H2 + 3H3PO 4 + 4H2 SO 4

3Ba ( OH)2 + 2P4 + 6H2O 

→ 3Ba (H2PO2 )2 + 2PH3
17.
( J) (L ) (K )
Ba (H2PO2 )2 + H2 SO4 
→ BaSO4 + 2H3PO2
(L ) ( N) ( M)
gives apple
green colour in
the flame

18. H4P2O7 (pyrophosphoric acid) is a tetrabasic acid, i.e. 4-hydroxyl groups are present. It is
prepared by removing one water molecule from two molecules of orthophosphoric acid. Each
phosphorus atom lies in same tetrahedral environment, so called isopolyacid.
O O O O

HO P OH + HO P OH 
−H2 O
→ HO P O P OH

OH OH OH OH

SECTION-B

1. (A) H3C CH (1) OH

COOH 
−
→ H3C CH COOH
( 2 ) H+
Br OH
(B) H3C CH CH2 COOH (1) OH−
 → H3C CH CH COOH
( 2 ) H+
Br
(C) O
C
OH−
O
H 2C CH2 CH2 C OH 
→ H2 C CH2 CH2 C O

Br O Br O

(D) O
C
− O
OH  →
OH
H2C CH2 CH2 CH2 C
Br O
Reactions A, C, and D show SN2 reactions.

2. In case of (A), compound given in (A) exchanges – H with – D and becomes racemic.
In case (B), compound in (B) reacts through a carbocation and gives racemic mixture.
In case of (C), no bond attached to the stereocentre breaks in reaction of (C), so retention.
In case of (D), compound in (D) gives Hoffmann elimination and it is an example of anti-
elimination. Product does not have any stereogenic centre.
D
Reaction (B ) gives H3C OH ( d, A − form )
C2 H 5
D
Reaction ( C ) gives H3C COOH
C2H5
H3C CH3

Re action (D ) gives
(No stereocentre )

Mathematics PART – III

SECTION – A

1. We must have f(a2 + 2a + 5) > f(a + 11)

⇒ a2 + 2a + 5 < a + 11
⇒ a ∈ (–3, 2)
∴ a can take values –2, –1, 0, 1

2. ∆ABC is equilateral
⇒a=b=c

3. AC2 = AB2 + BC2 ….. (1)

BD2 = BC2 + CD2 ….. (2)
CA2 = CD2 + DA2 ….. (3)
DB2 = DA2 + AB2 ….. (4)
Equation (1) + (3) and (2) + (4) gives AC = BD
So, equation (1) and (2) give AB = CD and equation (2) and (3) give BC = AD
So ∆′s CBD and ADB are congruent ⇒ ∠CBD = ∠ ADB = 90º – ∠ABD
⇒ ∠CBD + ∠ABD = ∠CBA ⇒ DB lies in the plane of ∆ABC, so the points are coplanar

4. Let a – d = 3t; then bc = (d + zt)(d + t) = d2 + 3td + 2t2

a 3t  3t 
Also = 1 + , so hk = d2 1 +  = d2 t + 3td < bc
d d  d
⇒ bc > hk

5. Clearly P ≡ (1, 2) B
Equation of tangent at P is 4x(1) + y(2) = 8 P
⇒ A ≡ (2, 0) and B ≡ (0, 4) A
Similarly normal at P is 2x – 4y = 6
A′
 3
⇒ A '( −3, 0) and B '  0, 
 2 B′
0 4 1
1 5
∴ Area BPB' = 1 2 1 = and Area APA ' = 5
2 4
3
0 1
2
∴ Ratio = 4

6. As sin x + sin y ≥ cos α cos x ∀ x ∈ R

π
Let x = − ⇒ sin y ≥ 1 ⇒ sin y = 1
2
⇒ 1 + sin x ≥ cos α cos x
⇒ cos α cos x – sin x ≤ 1
⇒ cos2 α + 1 = 1 ⇒ cos α = 0 ⇒ sin y + cos α = 1 + 0 = 1

1 1
sin x x 2
7. I= ∫
0
x
dx < ∫
0
x
dx =
3
1 1
2 cos x
⇒ I<
3
and J = ∫
0
x ∫
< x −1/ 2 dx = 2
0
⇒J<2

 2c 
8. Equation of tangent x + t 2 y = 2ct ⇒ T ≡ (2ct, 0) and T′ ≡  0, 
 t 
  1   1 
Equation of normal t 3 x − ty = c ( t 4 − 1) ; N ≡ c  t − 3  , 0  ; N ≡ 0, c  − t 3  
  t     t 
c c
⇒ NT = 3 + ct; N' T ' = ct 3 +
t t
1 c c 1 2t 4 1 c
⇒ ∆= + ct ⇒ = and ∆ ' = ct 3 + ct
2 t 3 t ∆ c (1 + t )
2 4 2 t
1 2 1 1 2
⇒ = ⇒ + =
∆ ' c 2 (1 + t 4 ) ∆ ∆ ' c2

π  π 
9. We have 2 sin2  cos2 x  = 2 sin2  sin 2x 
2  2 
2
⇒ cos x = sin 2x ⇒ cos x(cos x – 2 sin x) = 0
⇒ 1 – 2 tan x = 0 as cos x ≠ 0
1 3
⇒ tan x = and cos 2x =
2 5

10. Clearly, the point lies on 7x – y = 5 A

Also, centre of the circle must lie on the bisectors of the x + y + 13 = 0
lines
P(–1, –12)
x + y + 13 = 0 and 7x – y – 5 = 0 given by C(h, k)
x + y + 13 7x − y − 5 7x – y – 5 = 0
=± ⇒ x – 3y = 35 and 3x + y + 15 = 0 B
2 50
Let (h, k) be the centre of the circle, then h – 3k = 35 …..
(1)
and 3h + k = 15 ….. (2)
k−2
Clearly CB is perpendicular BP ⇒ × 7 = −1 ⇒ h + 7k – 15 = 0 ….. (3)
h −1
On solving, we get centres as C1 ≡ (29 – 2) and C2 ≡ (–6, 3)
⇒ r12 = 800 and r12 = 50 ⇒ smaller circle has radius = 50
1 
Therefore area of quadrilateral ACBP = 2  × 50 × 200  sq. units
2 

11. Let f(x) = ax 2 + bx + c and f(1) = a + b + c < 0 ⇒ f(x) < 0 for all x ∈ R ⇒ f(–2) < 0 ⇒ 4a – 2b + c <
0
Again f(3) + f(2) < 0 ⇒ 13a + 5b + 2c < 0
Also f(–5) < 0 ⇒ 25a – 5b + c < 0 ⇒ 5b – 25a – c > 0

(x − x) ( − x ) = 0 ; x < 0
12. f(x) = 
( x + x ) x = 2x
2
; x≥0
⇒ f is continuous and differentiable
0 ; x < 0
Again f '(x) = 
 4x ; x ≥ 0
⇒ f′(x) is continuous but not differentiable at x = 0

13. Taking B as origin, BC as x–axis and A as (h, k) and y

C(4, 0) A(h, k)
h+ 4 k 
We have D ≡ (2, 0) and E ≡  ,  E
 2 2
⇒ K2 + (h + 4)(h – 2) = 0 ….. (1)
Also AC = 3 ⇒ (h – 4)2 + k2 = 9 ….. (2) x
B (0, 0) D C(4, 0)
1
And area = × 4 × K = 2K
2
3 11
Solving (1) and (2), we get h = and K =
2 2
∴ ∆ABC = 11

AB BD
14. Let AD be angle bisector ⇒ = ⇒ c = 2b
AC DC
Now b + c > a ⇒ b + c > 6 ⇒ b + 2b > 6 ⇒ b > 2
b2 + 4b2 − 6
Again < 1 ⇒ b < 6 ⇒ b ∈ (2, 6) and consequently c ∈ (4, 12)
4b2

BE 3 y
15. = , take BE = 3K and EC = 4K A(3K, 6)
EC 4
⇒ A must be (3K, 6) E
6
Now equation of line BA is y = x
3K x′ x
B E C(7K, 0)
⇒ Ky – 2x = 0
Since perpendicular from c on AB = 7 y′
0 − 14K 4
⇒ = 7 ⇒ K2 =
2
K +4 3
2 2
Now c 2 = ( 6 − 0 ) + ( 3K − 0 ) = 36 + 9K2 = 36 + 12
⇒ c = 48 = 4 3
1 1

∫ ∫ ( y f(y)) dy + 4 = b
2
16–18. Let 12 yf(y)dy = a and 20
0 0
2
⇒ f(x) = ax + bx ⇒ f(y) = ay2 + by
1 1
a b a b 
⇒ f(x) = 12x 2 y ( ay 2 + by ) dy + 20x y 2 ( ay 2 + by ) dy + 4x = 12x 2  +  + 20x  +  + 4x
∫ ∫ 4 3 5 4 
0 0
⇒ a = 3a + 4b ⇒ a = –2b ….. (1)
and 4a + 5b + 4 = b ⇒ a + b = –1 ….. (2)
⇒ a = –2, b = 1
∴ f(x) = −2x 2 + x

SECTION – B

−2 ; x ∈ [ −2, 1)
 π
1. Clearly we have f(x) =  −1 ; x ∈ [ − 1, 0) and g(x) = sec x; x ∈ R – (2x + 1)
 x ; x ∈ [0, 2] 2

 −2 ; sec x ∈ [ −2, − 1)

We have fog ( x ) =  −1 ; sec x ∈ [ −1, 0)
secx ; secx ∈ [0, 2]

  4π 2π   2π 4π 
 −2 ; x ∈  − 3 , − 3  ∪  3 , 3  − {−π, π}
    
∴ fog ( x ) =  −1 ; x = −π, π

secx ;  π π
x ∈ − , 
  3 3
Limit of fog exist at x = –π, π, –1, points of discontinuity of fog are –π, π and points of
5π
differentiability of fog are −1,
6

sec( −2) ; x ∈ [ −2, − 1) − −

π
2 { }
Again g(f(x)) =  sec( −1) ; x ∈ [ −1, 0)

{}
 π
 secx ; x ∈ [0, 2] −
 2
Limit of g(f(x)) does not exist at x = –1

2. (A) Let Ei ; i = 1, 2, 3, 4 represents the events that the bag contains I white balls: Clearly
1
P (Ei ) = . Let W be the event that the ball drawn is white then,
4
 W  1 1 2 3 4 5
P(W ) = ∑
P (Ei ) ⋅ P   =  + + +  =
 Ei  4  4 4 4 4  8
 E  P (E 4 ) P ( W / E 4 ) 1/ 4 2 p
Now P  4  = = = = ⇒p=6
W P(W ) 5 / 8 5 15
(B) Required number of ways
= 12 C1 + 12 C2 ( 2 C1 + 2 ⋅ 2 C2 ) + 12 C3 ( 3 C1 + 2 ⋅ 3 C2 ) + ..... + 12
C12 ( 12 C1 + 2 ⋅ 12
C2 )
=
( 12
C1 + 2 ⋅ 12
C2 + 3 ⋅ 12
C3 + ..... + 12 ⋅ 12
C2 ) + 2 ( 12 C2 ⋅ 2 C2 + 12
C3 ⋅ 3 C2 + ..... + 12
C2 ⋅ 12
C2 )
12 12
= ∑r ⋅
r =1
12
Cr + 12 ∑
r =2
10
Cr − 2 = 12 × 211 + 12 × 11× 210

= 13 × 210 × 12 = 13 × 210 × m ⇒ m = 12
5x 5y 5z  x y z 
(C) + + = 5 + +
2−x 2−y 2−z  2 − x 2 − y 2 − z 
 x − 2 + 2 y − 2 + 2 z − 2 + 2   1 1 1 
= 5 + +  = 5  −3 + 2  + + 
 2−x 2−y 2−z    2 − x 2 − y 2 − z 
Now apply A.M ≥ H.M on 2 – x, 2– y and 2 – z

2−x+2−y+2−z 3 1 1 1 9
⇒ ≥ ⇒ + + ≥
3 1 1 1 2−x 2−y 2−z 5
+ +
2−x 2−y 2−z
5x 5y 5z  9
Hence + + ≥ 5  −3 + 2 ⋅  = 3
2−x 2−y 2−z  5
∴ Least value = 3
n 12

∑( CK −1 ) = 122 ⋅
22!
∑12 ⋅ K
2
12 11
(D) CK ⋅ CK −1 = 122 11

K =1 K =1
11! 11!
21⋅ 19 ⋅ 17.....3
= 12 ⋅ − 212 ⋅ 6 ⇒ p = 6
11!

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FIITJEE JEE (Advanced), 2013
From Long Term Classroom Programs and Medium / Short Classroom Program 4 in Top 10, 10 in Top 20, 43 in Top 100, FULL TEST – I

Paper 2
75 in Top 200, 159 in Top 500 Ranks & 3542 t o t a l s e l e c t i o n s i n I I T - J E E 2 0 1 2

Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 240

P l e a s e r e a d t h e i n s t r u c t i o n s c a r e f u l l y. Y o u a r e a l l o t t e d 5 m i n u t e s
specifically for this purpose.
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES

Y o u a r e n o t a l l o we d t o l e a v e t h e E x a m i n a t i o n H a l l b e f o r e t h e e n d o f
the test.

INSTRUCTIONS
A. General Instructions

1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Parts.
3. Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
4. Each part is further divided into three sections: Section-A, Section-B & Section-C
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.

B. Filling of OMR Sheet

C. Marking Scheme For All Three Parts.

1. Section – A (01 – 04) contains 4 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer.
Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and – 1 mark for wrong answer.
Section – A (05 – 09) contains 5 multiple choice questions which have more than one correct
answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and – 1 mark for wrong answer.

2. Section – B (01 – 02) contains 2 Matrix Match Type questions containing statements given in 2
columns. Statements in the first column have to be matched with statements in the second
column. Each question carries +8 marks for all correct answer. For each correct row +2 mark will
be awarded. There may be one or more than one correct choice. No marks will be given for any
wrong match in any question. There is no negative marking.
3. Section – C (01 – 08) contains 8 Numerical based questions with answers as numerical value
and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and – 1 mark for wrong answer.

Name of the Candidate

Enrolment No.

Useful Data

PHYSICS
Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s2

Planck constant h = 6.6 ×10−34 J-s

Charge of electron e = 1.6 × 10−19 C

Mass of electron me = 9.1 × 10−31 kg

Permittivity of free space ε0 = 8.85 × 10−12 C2/N-m2

Density of water ρwater = 103 kg/m3

Atmospheric pressure Pa = 105 N/m2

Gas constant R = 8.314 J K−1 mol−1

CHEMISTRY

Gas Constant R = 8.314 J K−1 mol−1

Atomic No: H=1, He = 2, Li=3, Be=4, B=5, C=6, N=7, O=8,

Physics PART – I

SECTION – A
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. In the given figure an impulse J is given to the block of mass m in the

downward direction. As a result of the impulse
J
(A) both the blocks start moving with in opposite directions J
3m
J m
(B) both the blocks start moving with in opposite direction 2m
m
(C) the centre of mass of the system is moving downwards
(D) the centre of mass of the system is not moving

2. In the given electrical circuit electric Potential of point B is 6V 1Ω

B
(A) 6 VOLT (B) 5 VOLT
(C) 4 VOLT (D) 3 VOLT 3Ω
2Ω

3. Choose the incorrect statement about the coefficient of restitution

(A) it is defined as the ratio of relative velocity of separation to the relative velocity of approach
(B) it is defined only for two colliding bodies
(C) it is defined for colliding parts of the smooth body along the normal to the striking surface
(D) while calculating the velocity of approach and separation we take the velocities of centre of
mass of the bodies

4. A bar magnet M is allowed to fall towards a fixed conducting

M
ring C. If g is the acceleration due to gravity, v is the velocity
of the magnet at t = 2s and s is the distance traveled by it in
the same time then
(A) v > 2g (B) v < 4g 3g
(C) s > 2g (D) s < 2g

Rough work

Multiple Correct Answer(s) Type

This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONE or MORE are correct.

5. Which of the following are true for a satellite in an orbit.

(A) it is a freely falling body
(B) its velocity is constant
(C) it suffers no acceleration
(D) it does not require energy for its motion in the orbit

6. The molar heat capacity for an ideal gas

(A) is zero for an adiabatic process
(B) is infinite for an isothermal process
(C) depends only on the nature of the gas for a process in which either volume or pressure is
constant
(D) is equal to the product of the molecular weight and specific heat capacity for any process

7. A particle is projected at an angle θ = 30º with the horizontal, with a velocity of 10 m/s then
(A) after 2 s the velocity of particle makes an angle of 60º with initial velocity vector
(B) after 1 s the velocity of particle makes an angle of 60º with initial velocity vector
(C) the magnitude of velocity of particle after 1 s is 10 m/s
(D) the magnitude of velocity of particle after 1 s is 5 m/s

8. The figure shows a block of mass m placed on a smooth

m
wedge of mass M. Calculate the value of M′ and tension in the
string, so that the block of mass m will move vertically Μ
downward with acceleration 10 m/s2. (Take g = 10 m/s2)
θ

Mcot θ Smooth
(A) the value of M′ is Μ′
1 − cot θ

Mtan θ
(B) the value of M′
1 − tan θ
Mg
(C) the value of tension in the string is
tan θ
Mg
(D) the value of tension is
cot θ

Rough work

9. In the figure, there is a uniform conducting structure in which i

each small square has side a. The structure is kept in uniform G D
magnetic field B. A
(A) The magnetic force on the structure is 2 2 iBa .
(B) The potential of point B = potential of point D. E F
O
(C) Potential of point O = potential of point B. a
(D) The magnetic force on the structure is 2 iBa . B
H C i
a

SECTION - B
Matrix – Match Type

This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given p q r s t

1. A real object is being seen by optical component listing in column A and nature of image of this
object is listing in column B :
Column A Column B
Nature of image
(A) Convex lens. (p) Real.
(B) Convex mirror. (q) Virtual.
(C) Concave lens. (r) Erect.
(D) Concave mirror. (s) Inverted.

2. Column A lists type of decay and the column B lists reason of decay (reason for instability of
nucleus)
Column A Column B
(A) γ–decay. (p) Nucleus is too large.
(B) α–decay. (q) Nucleus has too many neutrons relative to
number of protons.
(C) β minus decay. (r) Nucleus has excess energy.
(D) β plus decay. (s) Nucleus has too many protons relative to
number of neutrons.

Rough work

SECTION – C

Integer Answer Type

X Y Z W

0 0 0 0

This section contains 8 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit 1 1 1 1
integer, ranging from 0 to 9. The appropriate bubbles below the respective question 2 2 2 2
numbers in the ORS have to be darkened. For example, if the correct answers to question 3 3 3 3
numbers X, Y, Z and W (say) are 6, 0, 9 and 2, respectively, then the correct darkening of
4 4 4 4
bubbles will look like the as shown.
5 5 5 5

6 6 6 6

7 7 7 7

8 8 8 8

9 9 9 9

1. A body of mass m = 4 kg starts moving with velocity v0 in a straight line is such a way that on the
body work is being done at the rate which is proportional to the square of velocity as given by P =
0.693
βv2 where β = . Find the time elapsed in seconds before velocity of body is doubled.
2

2. A sound source of frequency f0 = 130 Hz is dropped from a height slightly greater than 250 m
above the ground. At the same time a detector is thrown upwards with velocity u = 50 ms–1 along
the same line. If the speed of sound is v = 300 ms–1, if the frequency (in Hz) detected by the
detector after t = 5 s is 39 × n, find the value of n (Take g = 10 ms–2)

3. There is an isolated planet having mass 2M and radius 2R, where M and R are the mass and
radius of the earth. A simple pendulum having mass m and length 2R is made to small
oscillations on the planet. The time period of SHM of pendulum is (0.7 K + 0.5) seconds. Find the
value of K. (take π = 3.00, g = 10 m/s2, 2 = 1.41 )

4. In the arrangement shown the rod is freely pivoted at

point O and is in contact with the equilateral triangular
block which can moves on the horizontal frictionless v
ground. As the block is given a speed v forward, the
rod rotates about point O. Find the angular velocity of
rod in rad/s at the instant when θ = 30º. [Take v = 20 θ
m/s, a = 1 m] O
2a 3

5. Radiation from hydrogen gas excited to first excited state is used for illuminating certain
photoelectric plate. When the radiation from some unknown hydrogen like gas excited to the
same level is used to expose the same plate, it is found that the de–Broglie wavelength of the
fastest photoelectron has decreased 2.3 times. It is given that the energy corresponding to the
longest wavelength of the Lyman series of the unknown gas is 3 times the ionization energy of
hydrogen gas (13.6 eV). Find the work function of photoelectric plate in eV. (Take (2.3)2 = 5.25.

Rough work

6. Water is filled in a uniform container of area of cross section A. A

A
hole of cross section area a (<< A) is made in the container at a
height of 20 m above the base. Water streams out and hits a
small block placed at some distance from container. With what a

200m
speed (in ms-1) the block should be moved such that water
a 1
streams always hits the block. (Given = ). (Take g = 10
A 20
ms–2)

R R
7. A spherical hole of radius is drilled from a planet of mass M as shown 2
2
in the figure. If the gravitational acceleration at a point on the surface of
the planet just above the hole is N × 1.1 m/s2, find the value of N.
[Given : G = 6.6 × 10–11 N.m2/kg2, R = 6 × 106 m, M = 6 × 1024 kg] R

8. A non–conducting ring of radius R having uniformly distributed

charge Q starts rotating about x–x′ axis passing through
diameter with an angular acceleration α as shown in the x’ x
figure. Another small conducting ring having radius a (a << R) R
is kept fixed at the centre of bigger ring is such a way that axis
xx′ is passing through its centre and perpendicular to its plane.
If the resistance of small ring is r = 1Ω, find the induced
current in it in ampere.
16 × 102
(Given q = C, R = 1 m, a = 0.1 m, α = 8 rad/s2)
µ0

Rough work

Chemistry PART – II

SECTION – A

Straight Objective Type

This section contains 4 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 4. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

w
1. A 75 gm 4%   aqueous NaOH solution is distilled for some time. The water collected has a
w
mass of 25 gms. To this distilled solution X gms of KOH(s) is added, so that molality of OH– ion in
the resulting solution becomes 5. Find X?
(A) 7 (B) 9
(C) 7.4 (D) 8.2

2. Br
H Alc. KOH
Product(s)
H
CH3
The above reaction follows bimolecular paths. Find the major product of the following :
(A) Saytzeff alkene (B) Hoffmann alkene
(C) alcohol (secondary) (D) alcohol (tertiary)

3. A 1.025 gm sample containing a weak acid HX (mol. wt = 82) is dissolved in 60 ml H2O and
titrated with 0.25 M NaOH solution. When half of the acid is neutralized the pH was found to be
5.0 and the pH at equivalence point is 9.0. Calculate the percentage of HX in the original sample.
(Assume law of conservation of volume is obeyed)
(A) 40% (B) 80%
(C) 65% (D) 78%

4. The half life of a radioactive substance is 20 minutes. The approximate time interval (t2 – t1)
between the time t2 when 2/3 of it has decayed and t1 when 1/3 of it has decayed is :
(A) 14 min (B) 20 min
(C) 28 min (D) 17 min

Rough Work

Multiple Correct Choice Type

This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.

5. Find out which of the following statements are true :

(A) Bothe pH and POH decreases with rise in temperature for pure H2O.
(B) pH decreases while POH increases with rise in temperature for pure H2O.
(C) The pH scale shortens with increase in temperature.
(D) Kw increases with rise in temperature as dissociation of water is exothermic.

6. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) wrong ?

(A) Hg2Cl2 in soluble in cold H2O. (B) Hg2Cl2 dissolves in hot H2O.
(C) Hg2Cl2 gives a white ppt with NH4OH. (D) Hg2Cl2 is used as a purgative.

7. Among the following, the heteropolymer is/are :

O O O O
(A) – HN – CH2 – C – NH – (CH2)5 – C –n (B) – HN – (CH2)6 – NH – C– (CH2)4 – C –n

H
– CH2 – CH = CH – CH2 – CH2 – C — O O
n
(C) (D) – O – CH – CH2 – C – O – CH – CH2 – C —
CH3 CH2CH3

8. The observed rate of a chemical reaction is substantially lower than the collision frequency. One
or more of the following statements is/are true to account for this fact.
(A) the reactants do not have the required energy.
(B) the partners do not collide in the proper orientation.
(C) collision complex exists for a very short time.
(D) collision frequency overestimates the number of effective collisions.

9. 5 ml of 0.5 M K2SO4 is added to 10 ml of 1 M BaCl2 solution. What will happen?

(A) Freezing point will increase (B) Boiling point will increase
(C) Freezing point will decrease (D) Boiling point will decrease
Rough Work

SECTION-B
(Matrix Type)

This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given p q r s t

in two columns, which have to be matched. The statements in Column I are
A p q r s t
labelled A, B, C and D, while the statements in Column II are labelled p, q, r,
s and t. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with B p q r s t
ONE OR MORE statement(s) in Column II. The appropriate bubbles
corresponding to the answers to these questions have to be darkened as C p q r s t
illustrated in the following example:
D p q r s t
If the correct matches are A – p, s and t; B – q and r; C – p and q; and D – s
and t; then the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following:

1. Match the following and write the correct pairs.

Column – I (Polymer) Column – II
(A) Terylene (p) Poly amide
(B) Nylon-6,6 (q) Addition polymer
(C) Starch (r) Condensation polymer
(D) Teflon (s) Polyester
(t) Natural polymer
2. Match the following and write the correct pairs.
Column – I Column – II
(A) H3PO3 (p) Mono basic
(B) H3PO4 (q) Dibasic
(C) H4P2O7 (r) Disproportionation
(D) H3PO2 (s) Oxidation state of P is +5
(t) sp3 hybridization

Rough Work

SECTION – C

Integer Answer Type

X Y Z W

0 0 0 0

6 6 6 6

7 7 7 7

8 8 8 8

9 9 9 9

1. OH
+
HCN+HCl H3 O

anhydrous AlCl3
→ P  →Q

Find the degree of unsaturation in P.

2. In the reaction [CoCl2 (NH3 )4 ]+ + Cl− → [CoCl3 (NH3 )3 ] + NH3 . How many isomers of the
(CiS)

product (co-complex) is obtained.

3. One mole of Borax is dissolved in H2O and the solution volume is made up to 2L. Calculate the
minimum number of moles of NaOH required to neutralize the solution.

4. A compound AB has a rock salt structure with A : B = 1 : 1. The formula weight of AB is 6.023 Y
amu. And the closest distance between A and B is Y1/3 nm. The observed density of the lattice in
kg/m³ is :

Rough Work

5. CH3 NO2 COOH

H C C C C C H

Cl CN Ph
Calculate the number of stereoisomer possible for the above compound.

6. A vessel fitted with a weightless, frictionless piston of 0.025 m², contains excess conc. Of HCl.
The piston moved 1 m outward when 0.075 kg iron fillings were added at 300 K. The solution left
behind was found to contain Fe(II). The approximate purity of the iron sample is x × 10. Find x ?

Number of B – O bonds in diborate ion (B2O5 )

2−
7. is

8. Benzaldehyde, on reaction with aniline forms Schiff’s base. The number of π bonds in Schiff’s
base is
Rough Work

Mathematics PART – III

SECTION – A

Straight Objective Type

This section contains 4 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 4. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. Consider a point P(at2, 2at) on the parabola y2 = 4ax, A focal chord PS (S focus) is drawn to meet
parabola again at Q. From Q, a normal is drawn to meet parabola again at R. From R, a tangent
is drawn to the parabola to meet focal chord PSQ (extended) at T. The area of ∆QRT is
3 4
 1  1
(A) 8a2  t 2 + 2  (B) a2  t + 
 t   t
3 4
8a2  1  1
(C)  t + t  (D) 4a2  t + 
3  t

x −1 y − 2 z − 3
2. Equation of plane which passes through the point of intersection of lines = = and
3 1 2
x − 3 y −1 z − 2
= = and at greatest distance from the point (0, 0, 0) is
1 2 3
(A) 4x + 3y + 5z = 25 (B) 4x + 3y + 5z = 50
(C) 3x + 4y + 5z = 49 (D) x + 7y – 5z = 2

3. If a > b > c and the system of equations ax + by + cz = 0, bx + cy + az = 0 and cx + ay + bz = 0

has a non–trivial solution, then the quadratic equation ax2 + bx + c = 0 has
(A) at least one positive root (B) positive roots
(C) roots of opposite sight (D) image roots

 dy  2  dy 
4. Solution of the differential equation  x + y  = e xy −ln x  x − y
 dx   dx 
y x
(A) − e− xy = c (B) + e− xy = c
x y
y x
(C) + e− xy = c (D) − + e − xy = c
x y

Rough work

Multiple Correct Choice Type

This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.

5. All the three roots of az3 + bz2 + cz + d = 0 have negative real parts (a, b, c, ∈ R, a ≠ 0) then
(A) ab > 0 (B) bc > 0
(C) ad > 0 (D) a > 0

6. If α and β2 are the roots of 8x2 – 10x + 3 = 0 then the equation whose roots are (α + iβ)100 and
(α – iβ)100 can be
(A) x2 + x + 1 = 0 (B) x2 – x + 1 = 0
3
(C) x – 1 = 0 (D) 2x2 + x + 1 = 0

x−2 ; x ≥1

7. If function f(x) =  x 2 4x 8
 − + ; x <1
5 5 5
(A) continuous at x = 1 (B) differentiable at x = 1
(C) not differentiable at x = 1 (D) differentiable at x = 2
G G G G G G G G G G
8. Let a, b, c be three coplanar unit vectors such that a + b + c = 0 . If three vectors p, q, r parallel
G G G
to a, b, c respectively and having integral but different magnitudes, then among the following
G G G
options p + q + r can take a value equal to
(A) 1 (B) 0
(C) 3 (D) 2

9. Let ‘z’ be a complex number and ‘a’ be a real parameter such that z2 + az + a2 = 0, then
(A) locus of z is a pair of straight lines (B) locus of z is a circle
2π
(C) arg(z) = ± (D) |z| =|a|
3
Rough work

SECTION – B

(Matrix Type)

This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given p q r s t

1. Given pair of lines 2x2 + 5xy + 2y2 + 4x + 5y + a = 0 and line L ≡ bx + y + 5 = 0

Column – I Column – II
(A) If there exist 4 circles which touch pair of lines and the line L 1
simultaneously then the value of b can be (p)
2
(B) If there exist 2 circles which touch pair of lines and the line L (q) 2
simultaneously then the value of b can be
(C) If there exist no circle which touches pair of lines and the line L (r) 5
simultaneously then the value of b can be
(D) If there exist infinite circles which touch pair of lines and the line (s) 4
L simultaneously then the value of b can not be
(t) 1

2. Match the following column–I with column–II.

Column – I Column – II
(A) Number of integral values of K such that all solutions (x, y) to the (p) 0
system of equation x + 4y = 2K2 and x + y = K are such that x, y
> 0 is
(B) Number of integers in the domain of function g(x) = ln ( cos−1 x ) is (q) 1
(C) If x > 0; then the value of expression (r) 2
(1 + sin −1
x)
(1 + cos x ) (1 + tan x )
2010 −1 2011 −1 2012

is
(1 + cosec −1x ) (1 + sec −1 x )2011 (1 + cot −1 x )2012
2010

x+a (s) 3
(D) If the function f : R – {–b} → R – {1} defined by f(x) = , (a ≠
x+b
b) is self inverse, then a + b can be
(t) 4

Rough work

SECTION – C

Integer Answer Type

X Y Z W

0 0 0 0

6 6 6 6

7 7 7 7

8 8 8 8

9 9 9 9

Kabc 2 2 K
1. If largest constant such that ≤ ( a + b ) + ( a + b + 4c ) ∀ a, b, c > 0 is k then is equal
a+b+c 25
to __________.

2. If y = f(x) satisfies f(x + 1) + f(z – 1) = f(x + z) ∀ x, z ∈ R and f(0) = 0 and f′(0) = 4 then f(2) is
equal to __________.

π π  π π
3. If − < α1 < α 2 < α 3 < , then number of values of θ ∈  − ,  satisfying
2 2  2 2
(tan θ – tan α1) (tan θ – tan α2) (tan θ – tan α3) – ( ∑ ( tan θ − tan α )) is __________.
i

4. A quadratic equation with integral coefficients has two prime numbers as its roots. If the sum of
the coefficients of the equation is prime, then the sum of the roots is __________.
1 1
ex x2 I1
5. Let I1 = ∫
0
1+ x
dx and I2 = ∫e
0
x 3
( 2 − x3 )
dx . The
I2 e
is equal to __________.

6. In a right angled triangle ABC with C as a right angle, a perpendicular CD is drawn to AB. The
radii of the circles inscribed into the triangles ACD and BCD are equal to 3 and 4 respectively.
Then the radius of the circle inscribed into the ∆ABC is __________.

 1
7. If f(x) + f  1 −  = 1 + x ∀ x ∈ R – {0, 1}. The value of 4f(2) is equal to __________.
 x

8. Given A = cos2 θ ( cos2 θ + 1) + 2 sin2 θ . Then for all θ, [A] can assume values whose sum is
__________ (Where [.] denotes the greatest integer function).

Rough work

FULL TEST –I
(Paper-2)

Q. No. PHYSICS CHEMISTRY MATHEMATICS

1. A B C
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES

2. B B B
3. D B A
4. D B C
A, D A, C A, C
5.
A, B, C, D A, B, C A, C
6.
7. B, C A, B, D A, C
8. A, C A, B, D C, D
9. A, B, C B, C A, C, D
(A) → (p, q, r, s ) (A) → (r, s) (A) → (s, t)
(B) → (q, r) (B) → (p, r) (B) → (p, q)
1. (C) → (r, t)
(C) → (q, r) (C) → (r)
(D) → (p, q, r, s) (D) → (q) (D)→ (p, q, r, s, t)
(A) → (r) (A) → (q, r, t) (A) → (q)
(B) → (p) (B) → (s, t) (B) → (r)
2. (C) → (q) (C) → (s, t) (C) → (q)
(D) → (s) (D) → (p, r, t) (D)→ (p, q, r, s, t)

1. 8 5 4
2. 4 2 8
3. 9 2 3
4. 5 5 5
5. 3 8 3
6. 1 8 5
7. 5 6 3
8. 8 7 3

Physics PART – I
SECTION – A

1. By conservation of momentum
J = mV + 2 mV
V= J/3m.

2. 0 + 2 × 1 + 3 × 1 = VB
∴ VB = 5 volt

1 2
4. S< gt
2
⇒ S < 2g. (due to Lenz’s Law).

6. The molar heat capacity has the general definition

1 ∆Q
C= ⋅
n ∆T
where n = number of moles, ∆Q = heat absorbed by the gas and ∆T = rise in temperature of gas.
It is possible to obtain almost any set of values for ∆Q and ∆T by proper selection of a process.

1
2 × 10 × 30º
2usin θ 2 = 1 sec.
7. T= = 30º
g 10

30º 30º

8. M' g − T = M'a …(i) R

T = Ma …(ii)
M' g = a(M + M') T M
M' g
a=
(M + M')
Mg
ma sin θ = mgcos θ
a = gcot θ
M' g
gcot θ =
(M + M')
cot θ M + cot θM' = M' masinθ
Mcot θ
M' =
(1 − cot θ) ma
T=Ma
θ
= M. g cot θ
mgcosθ
Mg mgsinθ
T= .
tan θ + macosθ

9. FR = 2 2 iBa . 2iBa

2iBa

SECTION –C

1. P = β v2
mdv
.v = β v 2
dt
2v 0
dv β t
∫ v
= ∫ dt
m0
v0

β
ln2 = .t
m
mln2
t=
β
4×2
t= × 0.693
0.693
t = 8 seconds.

2. After 5 s, speed of detector = 50 – 10 × 5 = 0

and that of source = 0 + 10 × 5 = 50 m/s S
1 50 m/s
and the source has fallen a distance = × 10 × (5)2 = 125 m
2
and the detector has rises a distance
1 v=0
= 50 × 5 − × 10(5)2 = 125 m O
2
 300 − 0  Ground
So, f ' = 130   = 156 Hz.
 300 − 50 

GM
3. g=
R2 2R θ mgsinα
G.2m
g' =
4R 2
2R θ α
g mg’
g' = mgcosα
2
F = −mg' sin ∝
mg
F=− .sin 2θ
2
As θ is much small
mg
ma = − .2θ
2
a = −g.θ
x
a = −g.
2R

g
∴ ω= f
2R
2R
T = 2π
g
2 × 6400 × 103
T = 2 × 3.14
10
= 2 × 3 × 800 × 1.41
T = 6768 s.

4. AB = v dt sin θ …(i)
(along the circular arc) A
AN
OA =
sin θ dθ B
ds = r dθ θ
O N
given vdt sin θ = OA dθ
2a 3
AN
vdt sin θ = .dθ
sin θ
a
vdt sin θ = dθ
sin θ
dθ v
= sin2 θ
dt a
dθ
= 5 rad/s.
dt

5. We have,
10.2 = W + Kmax, 1 …(i)
and 10.2 Z2 = W + Kmax, 2 …(ii)
h h
Also λ de −Broglie = =
ρ 2mK
λ1 K2
∴ = = 2.3 ⇒ K 2 = 5.25 K1 …(iii)
λ2 K1
Also 10.2 Z2 = energy corresponding to longest wavelength of the Lyman series = 3 × 13.6
⇒ Z = 2.
∴ From equations (i), (ii) and (iii)
W = 3 eV.

6. Velocity of efflux v = 2gy A

2h y
Range x = 2gy × a
g V
h
 dx  x
The velocity of the block must be   .
 dt 
dx 2h 1 dy
∴ Vb = = × 2g ×
dt g 2 y dt
h dy
Vb = . …(i)
y dt

Using equation of continuity

Ady
= a 2gy …(ii)
dt
equation (i) and (ii)
h a
Vb = × 2gy
y A
a
Vb = 2gh ×
A
1 –1
= 20 × = 1 ms .
20
7. If there were no hole
GM
g0 = 2
R
decrease in g due to hole (absent mass)
GM / 8 GM
g1 = =
( )
2
R 2R2
2
effective g = g0 – g1
GM
=
2R2
= 5.5 m/s2.

q q Rdθ
8. dq = .Rdθ = .dθ dθ
2πR 2π
dq qdθω θ
di = =
T 2π 2π
qω
di = .dθ
4π2
µ0 di(R sin θ)2
dB =
2R3
π
µ0 sin2 θ  qω 
∫ dB = ∫ 2R  4π2  dθ
0
µ qω
B= 0
16πR
φ = Bπa2
µ qω
φ = πa2 . 0
16πR
µ0 qωa2
φ=
16R
dφ
| ε |=
dt
µ0 qa2
| ε |= α.
16R
= 8 volt
8
i = = 8 A.
1

Chemistry PART – II

SECTION – A
1. Wsolute = 3 gms, Wsolvent = 50 gm = 75 – 25

WOH− =
3
+
x
. m=5=
( 3 40 + x 56 ) × 1000
40 56 47
X=9

2. Major product is formed via E2.

H anti to halogen will be eliminated.

3. nHx = nNaOH = 0.25 × VNaOH, pH = pKa = 5 (acid buffer)

1 1
pH = 7 + pK a + logC = 9 ⇒ logC = −1 ⇒ C = 10−1
2 2
0.25V
C= ⇒ VNaOH = 40 ml
60 + VNaOH
nHx = 10 mm = 0.82 gm
0.82
%= × 100 = 80%
1.025

4. Time required for equifractional change in a first order reaction is constant.

SECTION – C

1. O
N H C
C
H
H

Q
P
2. Cl Cl Cl

H3 N Cl H3 N Cl H3 N Cl

–
Cl
Co Co + Co

H3 N NH3 NH3 Cl H3 N NH3

NH3 NH3 Cl
(Fac) (Mer)

3. Na2B 4 O7 + H2O → 2Na B ( OH)4  + 2H3BO3

1 mol 2 mol
NaOH + H5BO3 → NaB ( OH)4 
2 mol 2 mol

4. A = 2y1/3 nm. M = 6.023 × y × 4 amu

6.023 × 4 × 1.66 × 10−27
Density = m/a3 = kg / m³
8y × 10 −27
40
= = 5 kg / m³
8

5. Two double bonds capable exhibiting geometrical and one chiral carbon molecule
asymmetric.
23 = 8

Pvm
6. w= = 58.33 gm
RT
58.33
%= × 100 = 77%
75

7. O O
B–O–B
O O

Mathematics PART – III

SECTION – A

 1  a 2a 
1. PQ is a focal chord Q  −  =  2 , − 
 t  t t 
 −2 
Normal drawn at P(t) meets the curve at Q  − t,
 t 
 1  1
∴ Normal drawn at Q  −  meets the parabola again at R  2t + 
  t  t
  1
2
 1
R a  2t +  , 2a  2t +  
  t  t 
2
 1  1
Equation of tangent at R is y  2t +  = x + a  2t +  ….. (1)
 t  t
Equation of focal chord PQ is ( t − 1) y = 2t ( x − a )
2
….. (2)
T is the point of intersection of line (1) and (2)
a  1  2a  1
⇒ T   4t 2 − 2  ,  4t +  
3  t  3  t 
3
8a2  1
∴ Area of ∆ TQR =  t + t 
3

2. Let a point (3λ + 1, λ + 2, 2λ + 3) of the first line also lies on the second line. Then
3λ + 1 − 3 λ + 2 − 1 2λ + 3 − 2
= = ⇒λ=1
1 2 3
Hence the point of intersection P of the two lines is (4, 3, 5). Equation of plane perpendicular to
OP where OP is (0, 0, 0) and passing through P is 4x + 3y + 5z = 50

a b c
3. For non triangle solution ∆ = b c a = 0
c a b
⇒ a + b + c = 0 ⇒ ‘1’ is a root of ax2 + bx + c = 0

4. Clearly we have
xdy + ydx xdy − ydx
=
e xy x2
y y
∫ ∫
⇒ d(xy)e − xy = d   ⇒ + e− xy = c
x x

5. Let the roots of az3 + bz2 + cz + d = 0, z1 = x1, z2, z3 = x2 ± iy2

b
⇒ z 1 + z 2 + z3 = −
a
⇒ ab > 0
Also z1 z2 z3 = x1 ( x 22 + y 22 ) = −
d
a
⇒ ad > 0

1 3 3
6. On solving we have α = and β2 = ⇒ β = ±
2 4 2
∴ New roots are ω and ω2 which are roots of x3 – 1 = 0 or x2 + x + 1 = 0

 x 2 4x 8
 − + ; x <1
5 5 5
7. Redefining the function, we get f(x) = 
 2−x ; x ∈ [1, 2)
 x−2 ; x≥2
We have R.H.L at x = 1 is = lim 2 − (1 + h) = 1
h →0
2
(1 − h ) 4 (1 − h ) 8
L.H.L at x = 1 is = lim − + =1
h →0 5 5 5
∴ f(x) is continuous at x = 1
 2x 4
 5 − 5 ; x <1
Now f '(x) = 
 −1 ; 1≤ x < 2
 1 ; x≥2
R.H.D at x = 1 ⇒ –1
2
L.H.D at x = 1 ⇒ −
5
∴ Not differentiable at x = 1
⇒ Not differentiable at x = 2
G G G
8. Let a , b ,c lie in the xy plane
G G 1 3ˆ G 1 3ˆ
b = − î +
Let a = î , j and c = − î − j
2 2 2 2
G G G G G G  1 3 ˆ  1 3 ˆ
∴ p + q + r = λa + µb + νc = λ î + µ  − î + j  + ν  − î − j
 2 2   2 2 
2
 µ ν 3
 λ − −  + ( µ − ν ) = λ + µ + ν − λµ − λν − µν
2 2 2 2
=
 2 2 4
1 1
= ( λ − µ )2 + ( µ − ν )2 + ( ν − λ )2 ≥ 1+ 1+ 4 = 3
2 2
G G G
∴ p + q + r can take a value equal to 3 and 2.

9. z2 + az + a2 = 0
⇒ z = aω, aω2 (where ‘ω’ is non real root of unity)
⇒ locus of z is a pair of straight lines and arg (z) = arg(a) + arg(ω) or arg(a) + arg(ω2)
2π
⇒ arg(z) = ± also, |z| = |a||ω| or |a| |ω2| ⇒ |z| = |a|.
3

SECTION – B

1. Clearly lines are 2x + y + 2 = 0 and x + 2y + 1 = 0 and third line is bx + y + 5 = 0

For four circles three lines must not be concurrent ⇒ b ≠ 5
1
For two circles exactly two lines should be parallel ⇒ b = and 2
2
For no circle three lines must be concurrent ⇒ b = 5
For infinite circles two lines must be identical ⇒ b ∈ φ

2K 2 − K 4K − 2K 2 1 
2. (A) Solving y = > 0 and x = > 0 ⇒ K ∈  , 2
3 3 2 
(B) Given g(x) = ln ( cos−1 x ) ; As 0 ≤ cos−1 x ≤ π ∀ x [−1, 1]
So domain of g(x) = [–1, 1]. Hence number of integers are two (i.e. –1 and 0)
(C) Clearly, domain of expression = {–1, 1}. As x > 0 given
So x = 1
Hence value of expression (1 + sin−1 x )
2010
=1
x+a
(D) Here f(x) = ….. (1)
x+b
a − bx
and f −1(x) = ….. (2)
x −1
x + a a − bx
Given f(x) = f −1(x) ⇒ =
x+b x −1
⇒ (1 + b ) x + ( b − 1) x − x (1 + b ) = 0 ∀ x ∈ Df
2 2

Hence b = –1 and a ∈ R

SECTION – C

1. Using AM – GM inequality
(a + b)2 + (a + b + 4c)2 = (a + b)2 + (a + 2c + b + 2c)2 ≥ ( 2 ab ) + ( 2 2ac + 2 2bc )
2 2

= 4ab + 8ac + 8bc + 16c ab

( a + b )2 + ( a + b + 4c )2
∴ ( a + b + c ) ≥ 4ab + 8ac + 8bc + 16c ab ⋅ ( a + b + c )
abc abc
 4 8 8 16  ( a a b b   1  a2b2 c 
=  + + +  a + b + c )  + + + + c  ≥ 8 × 5 5 2 2   5 5  = 100
c b a ab  2 2 2 2   2a b c   24 

2. Putting X = x + 1 and Z = z + 1
∴ f(X) + f(Z) = f(X + Z)
f(X + h) − f(X) f(X) + f(h) − f(X) f(h) − f(0)
∴ f ' ( X ) = lim = lim = lim
h→0 h h →∞ h h → 0 h
= f′(0) = 4 ⇒ f′(X) = 4 ⇒ f(X) = 4X + c
∴ f(x) = 4x ⇒ f(2) = 8

3. Let f(θ) = ∏(tan θ – tan αi) – ( ∑ ( tan θ − tan α ))

We have f ( θ )θ→−π / 2 → −∞
Again f ( α1 ) > 0 , f ( α3 ) < 0 and f ( θ )θ→π / 2 → ∞
⇒ There will be 3 such values of ‘θ’

4. Let the equation be K(x – α)(x – β) = 0

∴ Sum of coefficient = K(α – 1)(β – 1) is prime
⇒ K is 1 and α – 1 is 1
⇒ One root is 2 and β – 1 is 2
Hence roots are 2 and 3.

5. Let t = x3 in I2
1 1
1 1 1 1
We have I2 = ∫
3 e t (2 − t)
0
dt = ∫
3 e1− t (1 + t)
0
dt

1
1 et 1 I
⇒ I2 = ∫
3e (1 + t)
0
dt =
3e
I1 ⇒ 1 = 3
eI2

6. Let 3, 4 and r be radii of the circles inscribed into the ∆’s ACD, BCD and ∆ABC respectively, we
r AB c 3c
get = = ⇒ b=
3 AC b r
r c 4c
Similarly ∆ABC and ∆BCD are similar, we get = ⇒ a =
4 a r
Now as c 2 = a2 + b2
9c 2 16c 2
⇒ c2 = + ⇒r=5
r2 r2

1
7. Putting x = 2, and – 1 successively
2
 1
f(2) + f   = 3 ….. (1)
2
 1 ( ) 3
f   + f −1 = ….. (2)
2 2
and f(–1) + f(2) = 0 ..... (3)
3
Solving, we get f(2) =
4

2
 1 7 7 
8. On solving we have A = cos4 θ + 1 − cos2 θ + 1 =  cos2 θ −  + ⇒ A ∈  , 2
 2 4 4 

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FIITJEE JEE (Advanced), 2013
FULL TEST – II

Paper 1
75 in Top 200, 159 in Top 500 Ranks & 3542 t o t a l s e l e c t i o n s i n I I T - J E E 2 0 1 2

Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 252

ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
d d th R k i IIT JEE 2012

P l e a s e r e a d t h e i n s t r u c t i o n s c a r e f u l l y. Y o u a r e a l l o t t e d 5 m i n u t e s
specifically for this purpose.
Y o u a r e n o t a l l o we d t o l e a v e t h e E x a m i n a t i o n H a l l b e f o r e t h e e n d o f
the test.

INSTRUCTIONS
A. General Instructions

1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Parts.
3. Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
4. Each part is further divided into two section: Section-A & Section-C.
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.

B. Filling of OMR Sheet

Enrolment No. and write your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.

C. Marking Scheme For All Three Parts.

(i) Section-A (01 – 08) contains 8 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer.
Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and – 1 mark for wrong answer.

Section-A (09 – 13) contains 5 multiple choice questions which have more than one correct
answer. Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.

Section-A (14 – 18) contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon paragraph, 2 and 3 multiple choice
questions have to be answered. Each question has only one correct answer and carries
+3 marks for correct answer and – 1 mark for wrong answer.

(ii) Section-C (01 – 10) contains 10 Numerical based questions with answers as numerical value and
each question carries +3 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.

Name of the Candidate

Enrolment No.

Useful Data

PHYSICS
Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s2

Planck constant h = 6.6 ×10−34 J-s

Charge of electron e = 1.6 × 10−19 C

Mass of electron me = 9.1 × 10−31 kg

Permittivity of free space ε0 = 8.85 × 10−12 C2/N-m2

Density of water ρwater = 103 kg/m3

Atmospheric pressure Pa = 105 N/m2

Gas constant R = 8.314 J K−1 mol−1

CHEMISTRY

Gas Constant R = 8.314 J K−1 mol−1

Atomic No: H=1, He = 2, Li=3, Be=4, B=5, C=6, N=7, O=8,

Physics PART – I

SECTION – A
Single Correct Choice Type

This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. A circuit has a self inductance of 1 henry and carries a current of 2A. To prevent sparking when
the circuit is broken, a capacitor which can withstand 400 volts is used. The least capacitance of
the capacitor connected across the switch must be equal to
(A) 12.5 µF (B) 25 µF
(C) 50 µ F (D) 100 µF

2. A spherical conductor has a radius of R and charge Q. A spherical shell of thickness R and
uniform charge Q, is kept so as to be concentric to the conductor and touching the conductor.
The electric field at a distance of 1.5 R from the center of the sphere is
83Q 75Q
(A) 2
(B)
504πε0R 504πε0R2
83Q 53Q
(C) 2
(D)
252πε0R 252πε0R2

3. Figure shows a series LCR circuit connected to a variable frequency L

C
200V source. L = 5H, C = 80 µF and R = 40 Ω. What is the source
frequency which drives the circuit at resonance?
(A) 25 Hz (B) 25/π Hz
(C) 50 Hz (D) 50/π Hz R

( )

Rough work

4. A particle of mass m moves towards a smooth vertical wall with a speed u (relative to the
ground) and collides elastically with the wall; the wall moving towards the particle with a speed 2u
(also relative to the ground). Assuming that the wall is extremely massive, the impulse delivered
to the particle equals
(A) 5 mu (B) 6 mu
(C) 4 mu (D) none of these.

5. An air bubble of radius r rises steadily through a liquid of density ρ at

the rate of v. Neglecting density of air, the coefficient of viscosity of
ρ
liquid is
2 r 2ρg 1 r 2ρg
(A) (B) v
9 v 3 v
1 r 2 ρg
(C) (D) None of these
9 v

6. A perfectly conducting straight rigid rod of mass m and

length L is suspended symmetrically from two identical
perfectly conducting springs as shown in the figure. The R
ε
springs stretch a distance of x0 due to the weight of the
K K
wire. The circuit has a total resistance of RΩ. When the
magnetic field perpendicular to the plane of the paper is
switched on, springs are observed to extend further by the
same distance. The magnetic field strength is
L

mgR
(A) ; directed outward from the plane of the paper
εL
mgR
(B) ; directed outward from the plane of the paper
2εx0
mgR
(C) ; directed into the plane of the paper
εL
mgR
(D) ; directed into the plane of the paper
εx 0

Rough work

7. The dimension of ε0E2 ( ε o : permittivity of free space, E : electric field, J : dimension of energy)
(Choose the most appropriate option)
(A) J L–3 (B) J L–1 T–2
–1 –2
(C) ML T (D) (A) & (C)

8. The variation of gravitational intensity g for a uniform solid sphere of mass M and radius R is
given by
(A) g (B) g

r r
O r=R O r=R
(C) g (D) g

r r
O r=R O r=R

Multiple Correct Answer(s) Type

This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONE or MORE are correct.

x t3
9. A particle moves along positive branch of the curve y = where x = , x and y are measured in
2 3
metres and t in seconds, then
1
(A) the velocity of particle at t = 1 s is ˆi + ˆj
2
1ˆ ˆ
(B) the velocity of particle at t = 1 s is i + j
2
(C) the acceleration of particle at t = 1 s is 2iˆ + ˆj
(D) the acceleration of particle at t = 2 s is ˆi + 2ˆj

Rough work

10. In the figure small block is kept on m then

m µ=0
F µ=0
(A) the acceleration of m w.r.t. ground is F
m M
(B) the acceleration of m w.r.t. ground is zero B
A A
2Am
(C) the time taken by m to separate from M is
F
2AM
(D) the time taken by m to separate from M is
F

11. When a current–carrying coil is placed in a uniform magnetic field with its magnetic moment anti–
parallel to the field.
(A) Torque on it is maximum (B) Torque on it is zero
(C) Potential energy is maximum (D) Dipole is in unstable equilibrium.

12. A nucleus A decays into B with half life T1 and B decays into C with half life T2. Graph is drawn
between number of atoms/activity versus time. Select the correct graph(s)
(A) When T1 >> T2 When T1 >> T2
N0
Parent Parent

No. of atoms
Activity

(B)
Daughter . Daughter

Time Time .
(C) When T1 < T2 When T1 < T2
N0
Parent Parent
No. of atoms
Activity

(D) .
Daughter . Daughter

Time Time

13. A lens of focal length ‘f’ is placed in between an object and screen at a distance ‘D’. The lens
forms two real images of object on the screen for two of its different positions, a distance ‘x’ apart.
The two real images have magnifications m1 and m2 respectively (m1 > m2). Then
x
(A) f = (B) m1m2 = 1
m1 − m2
D2 − x 2
(C) f = (D) D ≥ 4f.
4D

Rough work

PARAGRAPH TYPE

This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon the first paragraph 2 multiple choice questions and
based upon the second paragraph 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each of these
questions has four choices A), B), C) and D) out of WHICH ONLY ONE IS CORRECT.

Paragraph for Question Nos. 14 to 15

A coil having a resistance of 50.0Ω and an inductance of 0.5 H is connected to an AC source of 110 V, 50
Hz.

14. The impedance of the coil is (approximately)

(A) 165Ω (B) 55Ω
(C) 330Ω (D) none of these

15. The rms current in the circuit is

(A) 1.5 A (B) 0.67 A
(C) 1 A (D) 3 A

Rough work

Paragraph for Question Nos. 16 to 18

According to the principle of conservation of linear momentum if 3A string

strut A strut
the external force acting on the system is zero, the linear
momentum of the system will remain conserved. It means if the M
centre of mass of a system is initially at rest, it will remain at rest
in the absence of external force, that is the displacement of centre
of mass will be zero.
A plank of mass M is placed on a smooth horizontal surface. Two light identical springs each of stiffness
K are rigidly connected to struts at the end of the plank as shown in the figure. When the springs are in
their unextended position the distance between their free ends is 3A . A block of mass m is placed on the
plank and pressed against one of the springs so that it is compressed to A. To keep the block at rest it is
connected to the strut by means of a light string. Initially the system is at rest. Now the string is burnt.

16. The maximum displacement of plank is

5mA 5mA
(A) (B)
M M+m
3mA 4mA
(C) (D)
M+m M+m

17. Maximum velocity of plank is

Km m
(A) A (B) A
(M + m) (M + m)
Km Km
(C) A (D) A
M(M + m) (M + m)

18. Maximum kinetic energy of block m is

Km2 Km2
(A) (B)
2M(M + m) M(M + m)
KMA2
(C) (D) none of these
2(M + m)

Rough work

SECTION – C
Integer Answer Type
X Y Z W

0 0 0 0

This section contains 10 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit 1 1 1 1
integer, ranging from 0 to 9. The appropriate bubbles below the respective question 2 2 2 2
numbers in the ORS have to be darkened. For example, if the correct answers to question 3 3 3 3
numbers X, Y, Z and W (say) are 6, 0, 9 and 2, respectively, then the correct darkening of
4 4 4 4
bubbles will look like the as shown.
5 5 5 5

6 6 6 6

7 7 7 7

8 8 8 8

9 9 9 9

1. A source of sound with natural frequency F0 moves uniformly VS O

along a line separated from a stationary listener by a distance
Sound
A = 42 5 m. The velocity of source is equal to n = 0.5 fraction
source A
of velocity of sound. If the distance between source and listener
at the moment when the listener receives actual frequency of
the source is (21 × n) meter, find the value of n.
Listener
2. In the figure shown, mass of the plank is m and that of
the solid cylinder is 8m. Springs are light. The plank is
slightly displaced from equilibrium and then released.
Find the period of small oscillations (in seconds) of the
plank. There is no slipping at any contact point. The ratio
of the mass of the plank and stiffness of the spring i.e.
m 2
= .
K π2

3. Two uniform spheres shown in figure rotate separately on ω

parallel axis. The upper sphere has angular speed ω0 and
lower sphere is at rest. Now the two spheres are moved
together so that their surfaces touch. After a short time the a
two spheres now in contact are rotating without slipping. R=a
Find the final rate of rotation of upper sphere in rad/s.
[given moment of inertia of upper sphere I1 = 4 kg m2,
moment of inertia of lower sphere I2 = 2 kg m2, a = 2 m, b =
1 m, ω0 = 12 rad/s]. b
R=b

Rough work

4 For an equilateral prism, it is observed that when a ray strikes grazingly at one face it emerges
grazingly at the other. Find the refractive index of the prism

5. Consider a hydrogen like atom whose energy in nth excited state is given by
13.6
En = − 2 Z2
n
when this excited atom makes a transition from an excited state to ground state. The most
energetic photons have energy Emax = 52.224 eV and the least energetic photons have energy
Emin = 1.224 eV. Find the atomic number of atom.

6. A small current carrying loop having current i is placed in the plane of paper as
shown. Another semicircular loop having current i0 is placed concentrically in the R
same plane as that of small loop, the radius of semicircular loop is R (R >> a).
Find the force applied by the smaller ring on bigger ring in newton. a i i0
40
(Given R = 1 m, i = i0 = A , a = 0.1 m)
µ0

7. In figure if µ = 0.1 is the coefficient of friction between the wedge m

and the horizontal surface then for what maximum value of m in smooth
kg, the wedge remains at rest [take M = 18 kg and θ = 45º].
M µ
θ

Rough work

8. Two containers A and B are connected by a conducting solid A B

242
cylindrical rod of length cm and radius 8.3 cm. Thermal O2 He
7
conductivity of the rod is 693 watt/mole–K. The container A contains
two mole of oxygen gas and the container B contains four mole of
helium gas. At time t = 0 temperature difference of the containers is
50ºC, after what time (in seconds) temperature difference between
them will be 25ºC. Transfer of heat takes place through the rod only.
22
Neglect radiation loss. Take R = 8.3 J/mole–K and π = .
7

9. The figure shows part of a bigger circuit. The capacity of the capacitor – +
is 6µF and decreasing at the constant rate 0.5 µF s–1. The potential
2H 6µF
difference across the capacitor is changing as under 4Ω
dV d2 V 1
= 2Vs−1, 2
= V s−2 . 3A
dt dt 2
The current in the 4Ω resistor is decreasing at the rate of 1 µA s–1. What is the potential difference
(in micro volts) across the inductor at this moment ?

M
10. In the shown figure, a particle of mass strikes the block of mass M
10
with velocity v0 and gets attached to it. For what velocity v0 (in ms-1), M
the block B just able to leave the ground ? 10 A
(Given M = 100 gm, K = 880 N/m) K
M

B
2M

Rough work

Chemistry PART – II

SECTION – A

Straight Objective Type

This section contains 8 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 8. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. Ag | Ag+ (1 M) || Ag+ ( 2 M) | Ag
(1 lit ) (1 lit )
0.5 F of electricity in anode and 1 F in the cathode is first passed making them independent
electrolytic cell at 298 K. EMF of the cell after electrolysis will be:
(A) increased (B) decreased
(C) no change (D) time is also required to find it

2. For two gases A and B with molecular weights MA and MB. It is observed that at a certain
temperature T, the average speed of A is equal to root mean square speed of B. Thus the
average speed of A can be made equal to the average speed of B
State I : By keeping A at higher temperature than B.
State II : By keeping B at higher temperature.
8
State III : By keeping A at times temperature of B.
3π
Correct statement is/are:
(A) both State I and State II (B) both State II and State III
(C) both State I and State III (D) only State I

3. Consider the equilibrium:

2CO ( g ) + O2 YZZ
Z 2CO2 ( g) + heat
ZZZ
X
If O2 is added and volume of the reaction vessel is increased, the equilibrium will
(A) shift in forward direction (B) shift in backward direction
(C) remain unchanged (D) be unpredictable
Rough Work

4. OH
→
CH2N2
(1 eq.) A, A is :

HO
NO2 OH

(A) OCH3 (B) OCH3

HO HO CH3
NO2 OH NO2 OH
(C) OH (D) OCH3

H3CO HO
NO2 OH NO2 O CH3

5. O
H 2C C NH2 (IV)

O
HC C 6H 4 NH C CH3
(III)

H 2C NH CH CH2 NH2 (I)

(II)
CH3
Arrange the above mentioned nitrogen atoms of the compound in decreasing order of basic
nature?
(A) I > II > IV > III (B) II > I > IV > III
(C) II > I > III > IV (D) I > IV > III > II

6. Which of the following compounds can form silicones on hydrolysis?

(A) (CH3)2SiCl2 (B) (SiH3)3N
(C) SiCl4 (D) All
Rough Work

7. (4)
Br
CH2Br (3)

CH2Br (2)

Br
(5)

Br (1)
Arrange the above mentioned bromide atoms in decreasing order of their reactivity towards
hydrolysis through SN1 path
(A) 2 > 1 > 5 > 4 > 3 (B) 5 > 2 > 1 > 3 > 4
(C) 2 > 5 > 4 > 3 > 1 (D) 5 > 4 > 2 > 1 > 3

8. Gold number gives

(A) amount of gold in colloid
(B) weight in mg of colloid required to break gold sol.
(C) weight in mg of colloid to protect gold sol.
(D) amount of NaCl required to coagulate gold sol.
Rough Work

Multiple Correct Choice Type

This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.

9. Which of the following compounds will disproportionate on treating with conc. NaOH?
(A) H5C 6 C H (B) O
O
H5C 6 C CHO
(C) O (D) O
Cl
H H
Cl
Cl

10. If electrolysis of 1 M NiSO4 is carried with inert electrodes at pH = 7 at 25oC (the pressure of
gases are taken 1 bar).
ENio
2+
/Ni
= −0.25 V EHo 2 O/H2 = −0.83 V
The product of electrolysis at cathode and at anode (initially) are:
(A) Ni at cathode (B) H2 at cathode
(C) O2 at anodes (D) S2 O82 − at anode

11. Which of the following is/are correct

(A) [CrCl2(CN)2 (NH3)2] and [CrCl3(NH3)3], both have d2sp3 hybridisation
(B) Magnetic moment of [PdCl4]2− is zero
(C) [Cu(NH3)4]2+, [Pt(NH3)4]2+ and [Ni(CN)4]2−, all have dsp2 hybridization of central metal
(D) It is difficult to substitute chelating ligands compared to similar monodentate ligands
12. Which of the following is/are correct?
(A) On strong heating FeCl3 gives FeCl2 and Cl2
(B) Dilute CuCl2 is blue due to formation of [CuCl4 ]
2−

(C) PH3 can be obtained by heating red P with NaOH

(D) PH3, H3PO3 and H3PO2, all are reducing agents

13. 2X ( g) + Y ( g) + 3Z ( g) 
→ Products
The rate equation of the above reaction is given by:
Rate = K[X][Y]o[Z]2
Choose correct statements:
(A) the rate of reaction becomes doubled by doubling the conc. of (X)
(B) rate of reaction decreases by reducing the conc. of (Y) to half of the original value
(C) the half life of (Z) increases by increasing its conc.
(D) if 75% of (X) undergoes reaction in 20 sec, 50% of (X) will react in 10 sec

Rough Work

PARAGRAPH TYPE

Paragraph for Question Nos. 14 to 15

There are 4 glass bottles containing water solutions. These bottles are not labeled. Bottles 1,2,3
Contained colourless solutions, while bottle 4 contained a blue solution. Each bottle is having any one
solution among the following (Each bottle is having different solution).
Copper (III) sulphate
Sodium carbonates
Lead nitrate
Hydrochloric acid
By mixing samples of the contents of the bottles, in pairs, following observations are made:
(1) Bottle 1 + Bottle 2 White ppt.
(2) Bottle 1 + Bottle 3 White ppt.
(3) Bottle 1 + Bottle 2 White ppt.
(4) Bottle 2 + Bottle 3 Colourless gas evolved
(5) Bottle 2 + Bottle 4 No visible reaction
(6) Bottle 3 + Bottle 4 Blue ppt.

14. Colourless solution present in Bottle 1 is :

(A) CuSO4 (B) Pb(NO3)2
(C) HCl (D) Na2CO3

15. Nature of gas evolved in observation (4) is:

(A) Acidic (B) Neutral
(C) Basic (D) Amphoteric

Rough Work

Paragraph for Question Nos. 16 to 18

∆
 → Li + F ↑

N2 + O2
Lithium ∆
→A +B

C ←
H2 O
 
H2 O
→C + D ↑

Answer, the following questions:

16. Which of the following is compound (A)?

(A) Li3N (B) Li2O
(C) Li2O2 (D) LiO2

17. The anion present in compound (C) is:

(A) O2 − (B) N3 −
(C) OH− (D) NO3−

18. Which of the following is a property of gas F↑?

(A) It is paramagnetic in nature
(B) It’s bond order is 3
(C) It does not contain lone pairs
(D) It contains two sigma and one pi bond per molecule

Rough Work

SECTION – C

Integer Answer Type

X Y Z W

0 0 0 0

This section contains 10 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit 1 1 1 1

integer, ranging from 0 to 9. The appropriate bubbles below the respective question 2 2 2 2

numbers in the ORS have to be darkened. For example, if the correct answers to question 3 3 3 3

numbers X, Y, Z and W (say) are 6, 0, 9 and 2, respectively, then the correct darkening of 4 4 4 4
bubbles will look like the as shown. 5 5 5 5

6 6 6 6

7 7 7 7

8 8 8 8

9 9 9 9

1. A compound (A) having molecular formula C7H11Br is optically active. A reacts with HBr in the
absence of peroxide to give isomeric products (B) and (C). Treating (A) with potassium-t-butoxide
gives (D). (D) on reductive ozonolysis gives two moles of formaldehyde and one mole of 1, 3
cyclopentane dione. (A) in the presence of peroxide reacts with HBr to give (E). The total number
of chiral carbon in one molecule of (E) is:

2. How many maximum number of e − of an atom will have the following set of quantum numbers
1
n = 4, A = 0,1,2 m = +2, −2, S=±
2

3. S O

H O S S S S O O H

O O
How many sp3 hybridized atoms are present in one molecule of the above hypothetical
compound?

4. A complex of potassium, iron and cyanide ions Kx[Fe(CN)y] is 100% ionized at 1 molal. If its
elevation in boiling points is 2.08oC, find out the value of ‘x’ in the complex: (Given Kb = 0.52oC
mol-1)

5. Phosphorus sulphide P4S3, a well known chemical used in match industry has how may P – S
bonds?
Rough Work

( excess ) → ( x ) 
( excess ) → ( y )unstable → z.
∆
NBS KOH/H2 O

The sp2-hybridised carbon atoms present in one molecule of the end product z is:

7. Find 10 × log10K for the reaction at 298 K.

2H+ ( aq) + D2 ( g) YZZ
Z H2 ( g) + 2D ( aq)
ZZZ
X +

Given EDo + /D = −2.955 mv

 RT2.303 
Take 
F  = 0.0591
 
4
8. Wavelength of the second line of Balmer series of a hydrogen like species is , what is the
3R
atomic number of the hydrogen like species? [R = Rydberg’s constant)

9. What is the number of moles of CH4 formed in the given reaction,

O NH2
C CH
CH3MgBr

excess
→ Number of moles of CH4
SH

C OH

10. No. of geometrical isomers for [M(gly)Cl2Br2]+ is:

Rough Work

Mathematics PART – III

SECTION – A

Straight Objective Type

This section contains 8 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 8. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. If k be a positive integer, then the number of values of k satisfying

π/2
  1  
∫ k
2
 cos3x + cos x  + sin x − 2k cos x  dx ≤ 1 , is
 2  
0
(A) 10 (B) 11
(C) 12 (D) none of these

101 101
dx dx I1
2. If I1 =
−100
∫ ( 5 + 2x − 2x )(1 + e
2 2 − 4x )
and I2 = ∫
−100
5 + 2x − 2x 2
, then
I2
is

1
(A) (B) 2
2
(C) 0 (D) none of these

2x 2 − 12xf(x) + f(x)
If x f(x) = 3 ( f(x) ) + 2 then ∫ ( 6f(x) − x ) ( x
2
3. dx is equal to
− ( f ( x )))
2 2

1 1
(A) +c (B) +c
( 6f ( x ) − x ) 2 2
x − f(x)
1
(C) 2
+c (D) none of these
x + xf(x)

 ( sin ( x + h ) )ln(x +h) − (sin x)ln x  π

4. Let f(x) = lim   then f   is
h →0  h  2
(A) 0 (B) 1
π
(C) ln   (D) none of these
2

Rough work

FIITJEE Ltd., FIITJEE House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -110016, Ph 46106000, 26569493, Fax 26513942
website: www.fiitjee.com
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5. Number of 4 digit number of the form N = x1 x2 x3 x4 such that 2000 ≤ N ≤ 5000, 4 ≤ x2 < x3 ≤ 8
and N is multiple of 5 is/are
(A) 80 (B) 60
(C) 40 (D) 30

6. A biased coin is tossed repeatedly until a tail appears for the 1st time. The head is 2 times likely
to appear as tail. The probability that the number of tosses required will be more than 6 given that
in 1st three toss no tail has occured is/are
16 32
(A) (B)
81 243
64
(C) (D) none of these
729

7. The product of all the even divisor of N = 9000 is

(A) 721 × 105 (B) 726 × 106
6
(C) 729 × 10 (D) none of these

 3 −2 
8. Let the matrices A =   and P be any orthogonal matrix such that Q = PAP′ and let
0 1
8
R = rij  = P'Q P then
2×2

(A) r11 = 81 (B) r11 = 81 3

Multiple Correct Choice Type

This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.

9. The radii of the escribed circle of ∆ABC are r1, r2 and r3 respectively (opposite to vertices A, B and
C). If r1 + r2 = 3R and r2 + r3 = 2R then
(A) ∠A = 90º (B) ∠B = 45º
(C) ∠C = 60º (D) right angle isoscelles triangle

Rough work

10. Let AB : y = x be a chord to the parabola y2 + 4x = 4 and P be any variable point on the ellipse
x2 + 9(y – 4)2 – 9 = 0. If ∆1 and ∆2 be the minimum and maximum area of triangle ABP
respectively then
(A) ∆ 2 = 2 2 ( 4 + 10 ) (B) ∆ 2 − ∆1 = 8 5
∆ 2 13 + 4 10
(C) = (D) none of these
∆1 3

11. The all possible order pairs (a, b) that satisfy the relation
2
( 4 − 3i ) a2 + ( 3 + 2i ) ab = 4b2 − a + ( 3ab − 2b2 ) i is/are
2
(A) (4, –3) (B) (6, 9)
(C) (10, 15) (D) none of these

 x + 1 , 0 ≤ x ≤1
12. Let f(x) =  2
2x − 6x + 6 , 1 ≤ x ≤ 2
t
And g(t) = ∫ f(x)dx , t ∈ [1, 2]. Which of the following is true statement
t −1
(A) f(x) is continuous and differentiable ∀ x ∈ [0, 2]
3
(B) g(t) is maximum at t =
2
(C) g(t) is minimum at t = 2
(D) all the above

13. A sq. matrix A of order 2 consisting element 0, 1, 2 and 4 then possible value of det(A) is/are
(A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 8 (D) none of these

Rough work

FIITJEE Ltd., FIITJEE House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -110016, Ph 46106000, 26569493, Fax 26513942
website: www.fiitjee.com
TG ~ @bohring_bot < 3 23 AITS-FT-II-(Paper-1)PCM-JEE(Advanced)/13

PARAGRAPH TYPE

Paragraph for Question Nos. 14 to 15

Read the following write up carefully and answer the following questions:
1 1
Let Bn denotes the event that n fair dice are rolled once with P (Bn ) = n , n ∈ N . e.g. P (B1 ) = ,
2 2
1 1 1
P (B2 ) = 2 , P (B3 ) = 3 , ….. and P (Bn ) = n . Hence B1, B2, B3, ….. Bn are pairwise mutually exclusive
2 2 2
and exhaustive events as n → ∞. The event A occurs with atleast one of the event B1, B2, ….., Bn and
denotes that the sum of the numbers appearing on the dice is S.

14. If even number of dice has been rolled, the probability that S = 4, is
1 1
(A) very closed to (B) very closed to
2 4
1 1
(C) very closed to (D) very closed to
8 16

15. Probability that greatest number on the dice is 4 if three dice are known to have been rolled, is
37 64
(A) (B)
216 216
27 31
(C) (D)
216 216

Rough work

Paragraph for Question Nos. 16 to 18

Read the following write up carefully and answer the following questions:
Tangents are drawn to the parabola y2 = 4x from the point P(6, 5) to touch the parabola at Q and R. C1 is
a circle which touches the parabola at Q and C2 is a circle which touches the parabola at R. Both the
circles C1 and C2 pass through the focus of the parabola.

16. Area of the ∆PQR equals

(A) 1/2 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 1/4

17. Radius of the circle C2 is

(A) 5 5 (B) 5 10
(C) 10 2 (D) 210

18. The common chord of the circles C1 and C2 passes through the
(A) incentre (B) circumcentre
(C) centroid (D) orthocentre of the ∆PQR

SECTION – C
Integer Answer Type
X Y Z W

0 0 0 0

6 6 6 6

7 7 7 7

8 8 8 8

9 9 9 9

1
1. If 3n be the sum of all possible integer values of ‘p’ for which x + − 3 = p − 3 has exactly two
x
distinct solutions then the value of n is __________.

Rough work

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2. For positive t, let α, β be the root of the quadratic equation x2 + t2x – 2t = 0. If minimum value of
2
 1  1 1 
∫   x + α
−1
2 

x+ 2 +
β
 dx is p + q where p is a rational number and q ∈ N, then the value
αβ  
of [p] + q is (where [.] denotes G.I.F)

3. A species has an initial population 410. At the end of the 1st day, the population increases by 50%.
At the end of the 2nd day it decreases by the same percentage. If the process continues in the
same pattern, and let 5x be the number of days required for population to be 310, then x is/are
__________

4. The equation 2x3 – 3x2 + p = 0 has 3 distinct real roots then [p] is __________. (Where [.]
denotes the greatest integer function).
G G
5. A plane P passes through the intersection of r ⋅ ( ˆi + ˆj + kˆ ) + 3 = 0 and r ⋅ ( ˆi − ˆj + kˆ ) = 2 . If p divide
the line segment joining (3, 0, 2) and (0, 3, –1) in the ratio 2 : 1 internally and the equation of
G
plane is given by r ⋅ ( aiˆ − ˆj + bkˆ ) = c when a, b, c ∈ N than a + b + c is/are __________.

1 
6. If the distance from (k, 0), k > 0 to the tangent to the parabola y2 = 4x at  , 1 is 2 5 then the
4 
value of [k] is __________. (Where [.] denotes the greatest integer function)

7. Consider a polynomial P(x) of the least degree that has a maximum equal to 6 at x = 1, and a
n 
minimum equal to 2 at x = 3. Let P(2) + P'(0) is equal to n then   is __________.
2

8. Let y = g(x) be the image of f(x) = x + sin x about the line x + y = 0. If the area bounded by y =
g(x),
A
x-axis, x = 0 and x = 2π is A, then 2 is __________.
π

∞
101 I10
∫e ( sin x )n dx (n > 1), then the value of
−x
9. If In = is equal to __________.
10 I8
0

G G G G G2 G G2 G G2
10. If a = 2, b = 3, and c = 4 and maximum of a − b + b − c + c − a = 10 p + q where
p, q ∈ {0, 1, 2, 3, ….. 9} then |p – q| is ________

Rough work

FULL TEST – II
(PAPER-1)

ANSWERS KEY
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES

PHYSICS CHEMISTRY MATHEMATICS

Q. No. ANSWER ANSWER ANSWER
1. B C C
2. B B A
3. B D B
4. B C A
5. A B B
6. A A D
7. D C D
8. C C A
9. A, B A, B A, C
10. B, D A, C A, B, C
11. B, C, D A, B, C, D B, C
12. A, D A, D B, C
13. A, B, C, D A, D A, B, C
14. A B D
15. B A A
16. B B A
17. C C B
18. C B C
1. 5 2 7
2. 4 4 4
3. 4 7 4
4. 2 3 0
5. 2 6 7
6. 8 8 4
7. 4 1 6
8. 3 2 2
9. 4 4 9
10. 1 4 1

Physics PART – I

SECTION – A
di
1. ε=L
dt
2
400 = 1 ×
dt
⇒ dt = 5 × 10−3 sec.
Q = idt = 2 × 5 × 10-3
∴ Q = 10-2
But Q = CV
10-2 = C × 400
∴ C = 25µF.

2. Total flux through this area is

= E.4π (1.5R)2
qnet
=
1

Q+
{
Q (1.5R)2 − R3 }  R 1.5
R

ε0 ε0 
 {
(2R)3 − R3 } 

2R

Q  19  75Q
= 1+ =
ε0  56  56ε0
Gauss law E .4 π (1.5R)2 = Q (75/56ε0)
75Q
E=
504πε0R2

1 1
3. w0 = =
LC 2 × 10−2
op, 2π f = 50
25
op, f = Hz .
π
4. Use the definition of an elastic collision.

4 2
5. Buoyant force = Weight of liquid displaced = πr ρg
3
Viscous force = Stoke’s drag force = 6 πηrv
4
∴ 6πηrv = πr 2ρg
3

6. 2(k2x0) = mg + iBL
mg = 2kx0
ε
i=
R
mgR
∴ B= .
εL

8. For a internal point

gr
g' =
R

⇒ g′ ∝ r
F as a external point
GM 1
g' = 2 = g' ∝ 2
r r

dx
9. = t2 …(i)
dt
1 t3
y=
23
dy t 2
= …(ii)
dt 2
1
t = 1, vx = 1, vy =
2
G 1
v = ˆi + ˆj
2
d2 x
= 2t …(iii)
dt 2
d2 y
=t …(iv)
dt 2
at t = 1 s ax = 2 and ay = 1
G
∴ a = 2iˆ + ˆj

F
10. Acceleration of M, a =  
M
1F 2
A= .t
2M
2MA
t= .
F

G G G G G
11. τ = M × B and U = −M.B
G G
here M and B are anti–parallel
G G
∴ τ = O and U = +MB (maximum)

13. v+u=D
and v – u = X
D+ X D−X
⇒ v= ,u =
2 2
D2 − X 2
and f =
4D
D+ X D−X
m1 = , m2 =
D−X D+ X

14. - 15. The impedance is

z = R2 + ω2L2 and the rms
V
current is irms = rms .
z

16. Since the center of mass will remain at rest.

m(5A − x) = M.x
5mA
x= .
(M + m)

17. MvM − mv m = 0 …(i)

1 2 1 1
KA = MvM2 + mv m 2
…(ii)
2 2 2
Solving (i) and (ii)
Km
vM = A.
M(M + m)

M Km
18. vm = A
m M(M + m)
KM
= A
m(M + m)
1 2
KE = mv m
2
SECTION – C

1. Let, V0 → velocity of sound

when source is O at the velocity component of source towards listener is VS cos 90 = 0
 V0 
∴ F' = F0   = FS
 V0 − VS cos90 
A
time taken by sound to reach listener = .
V0
Distance moved by source in this time
 A 
=  VS
 V0 
∴ Distance between source and listener
= A 2 + n2 A 2 = A 1 + n2
= 105 m. 2. If the plank is displaced slightly by x towards left, then
a2
Kx Kx
m2
f1
2 Kx – f1 = m a2 …(i)
f1 − f2 = 8 m a1 …(ii)
τcm = Icm α
(8m)R2 f1
or ( f1 + f2 ) R = α α
2 a1
(8m)a1
(f1 + f2 ) = …(iii)
2
f2
From (ii) and (iii),
3a (Assumed)
2f1 = (8m) × 1
2
3a1
or f1 = (8m) ×
4

and f2 = 2 ma1.
Hence, f2 will be in forward direction.
Also, for no slipping, at the point of contact between plank and cylinder.
2a1 = a2 …(iv)
 3a 
f1 = (8m) ×  2  = (3m)a2 …(v)
 8 
from (i) and (v),
2Kx – (3m) a2 = m a2
2K
a2 = x
4m
 −d2 x   2K 
or  2  =  x
 dt   4m 
d2 x  2 π2 
or = −  ×  x
dt 2 4 2 
π2
or ω2 =
4
π
or ω =
2
2π π
or =
T 2
or T = 4 seconds.

3. When the two disc come in contact, they exert equal and opposite forces.
∫ Fadt = I1(ω0 − ω1 ) …(i)

∫ Fbdt = I2 ω2 …(ii)
finally ω1a = ω2b
a2
I1(ω0 − ω1 ) = I2 .ω1
b2
I1ω0
ω1 = = 4 rad / s .
a2
I1 + I2
b2

sin 900
4 µ= =2
sin 300 900
300

5. Maxn energy is liberated for transition

En → E1
and minimum energy for En → En–1
Hence,
E1 E1
− = 52.224 eV
n2 12
E1 E1
and 2
− = 1.224 eV
n (n − 1)2

Solving we get,
E1 = – 54.4 eV
and n=5
hence,
13.6Z2
E1 = − = −54.4
12
Z = 2.

µ0 M
6. Magnetic field due to small ring at distance R from the centre B = θ
4 π R3 dθ
2
where M = i π a
µ iπa2 µ ia2 dF
∴ B= 0 3 = 0 3
4π R 4R
2
µ ia
dF = i0Rdθ 0 3
4R
dFx = dFsinθ
µ i.i a2 sin θdθ
= 0 0
4R2
µ i i a2 π
Fx = 0 02 ∫ sin θ dθ
4R 0
µ0i i0 a2
Fx = ×2
4R2
µ0i i0 a2
Fx =
2R2
Fy = 0
µ0i i0 a2
∴ Fnet = Fx =
2R2
= 8 Newton.

7. F.B.D of m N
N = mg cos θ ….(i)
mg sin θ = ma a
a = g sin θ
F.B.D. of M mgsinθ mgcosθ
R = N cos θ + Mg
µ R = N sin θ
µ. (N cos θ + Mg) = N sin θ
µ Mg = N [sin θ - µ cos θ]
µ Mg = mg cos θ [sin θ - µ cos θ] R
µM
m= Nsinθ
cos θ[sin θ − µ cos θ] Ncosθ
m = 4 kg. µR
Mg

8. Thermal resistance of the rod,

A
R=
kA

When heat is transferred from first vessel to second, temperature of first vessel decreases while
that of second vessel increases. Due to both there reasons, difference between temperature of
vessels decreases.
Let at an instant t, the temperature difference between two vessels be θ.
θ KAθ
H= =
R A
KAθ
dQ = Hdt = dt …(i)
A
Since gases are contained in two vessels, therefore, processes on gases in two vessels are
isochoric.
Hence, decrease in temperature of gas in first vessel,
dQ dQ dQ
∆θ1 = = =
nC V 5R 5R
2×
2
Increase in temperature of gas in second vessel is
dQ dQ
∆θ2 = =
3R 6R
4×
2
∴ Decrease in temperature difference (–dθ) = ∆θ1 + ∆θ2
dQ 11
− dθ = ×
R 30
KAθ × 11
or, −dθ = dt
30RA
25
dθ KA × 11 t
−∫
30AR 0∫
or = dt
50
θ
KA × 11
or, An2 = t
30AR
.693 × 30 × 242 × 10 −2 × 8.3 × 7
or t= = 3 seconds.
693 × 7 × 22 × 8.3 × 10 −4 × 11

 di d2 q  d  d2 V 2dC dV 
9. VL =  R − 2  = L iR −  C 2 +  = 4 µV.
 dt dt  dt  dt dt dt 
  

10. From C.L.M.

M 11 v
v0 = Mv ⇒ v = 0 …(i)
10 10 11 M
For block B to leave ground 10 A
Mg K
K(x0 + x) = 2 Mg (where x0 = ) M
K
Mg B
∴ x= …(ii) 2M
K
From COE
11 1 1  1 11 2
Mgx −  K(x0 + x)2 − Kx02  = 0 − Mv
10  2 2  2 10
88M
solving v 0 = g
K
putting the value
v0 = 1 ms–1.

Chemistry PART – II

SECTION – A
0.0591 1
1. Ecell = 0 − log
1 2
0.0591 (1 − 0.5 )
After electrolysis Ecell = 0 − log
1 ( 2 − 1)
No change.

8RT 3RT 8 3
2. = ⇒ =
πMA MB πMA MB

1
10. H+ + e −  → H2 Eo = 0.0V
2
0.059 1
E = EH+ /H = − log +
2
1 H 
= - 0.059 × 7 = - 0.413
So, EH+ /H < ENi2+ /Ni
2

Ni will deposit at cathode

At anode cell reaction
4OH−  → 2H2O + O2 + 4e

11. Both complexes have Cr+3(d3), and coordination number is 6. Hence d2sp3
Pd+2(d8) complexes with coordination number → 4 are square plannar and magnetic moment is
zero.

∆
12. FeCl3  → FeCl2 + Cl2
2+
Dilute CuCl2 is blue due to Cu (H2 O )4  . PH3 is obtained be heating white P with NaOH.
All are reducing because of weak P – H bond.

15. Bottles 1,2,3,4 have Pb(NO3)2, HCl, Na2CO3 and CuSO4

When mixing
Bottle 1 + Bottle 2 → PbSO4
Bottle 1 + Bottle 3 → PbCO3
Bottle 1 + Bottle 4 → PbSO4
Bottle 2 + Bottle 3 → CO2
Bottle 2 + Bottle 4 → No visible reaction
Bottle 3 + Bottle 4 → CuCO3

18. ∆
 → Li + N2 ↑

N2 + O2
Lithium ∆
→ Li2 O + Li3N

H2 O
LiOH←  
H2 O
→ LiOH + NH3 ↑

SECTION – C

CH3
CH3
1. A= B= Br Br
H2C
Br
Inactive
Br CH3

C= D=
Br Inactive
CH3
H2CBr CH3

E=
Br
H

4. ∆Tb = K b × m × i
2.08 = 0.52 × 1 × i
i=4
K 3 FeIII ( CN)6 

6. O
Cl HO OH
Cl


→ ∆
 →

Cl Cl HO OH
O
(x) (y) (z)

7. logK = 0.1

10. Glycinate is asymmetric bidentate ligand. AB type, so for M(AB)C2D2:

C C
C D
B C B D
B D B c

M M
M M
A D A C
A D A c
C D
C D

Mathematics PART – III

SECTION – A

π/2
 2  sin3x 1  
1. k  3 + 2 sin x  − cos x − 2k sin x  ≤1
   0
 2  −1 1  
k  +  − 0 − 2k  − {−1} ≤ 1
  3 2  
k2
− 2k + 1 ≤ 1
6
k (k − 12) ≤ 0
0 ≤ k ≤ 12
k = 1, 2, 3, 4, …, 12.

101 101
dx dx
2. I1 = ∫
−100
( 5 + 2x − 2x 2 )(1 + e2− 4x )
=
−100
∫ (5 + 2 (1 − x ) − 2 (1 − x ) ) (1 + e 2 2 − 4(1− x ) )
101
dx
= 2I1 = ∫
−100
5 + 2x − 2x 2
= I2

I1 1
⇒ = .
I2 2

2x ( x − 6f ( x ) ) + f(x)
3. I= ∫ ( 6f ( x ) − x ) ( x 2
− f ( x ))
2
dx

2x f ( x)  f ' ( x ) − 2x  1
I=− ∫ (x 2
− f ( x ))
2
dx + ∫ ( 6f(x) − x ) ( x 2
− f ( x ))
2
dx = ∫  ( x
2
 dx = 2
− f ( x ) ) 
2
x − f(x)
+c


ln x
 ( sin ( x + h ) )ln(x +h) − (sin x)ln x 
4. (
Let g(x) = sin x ) ⇒ g'(x) = lim  
h→0  h 
 ln ( sin x )  π π
⇒ f(x) = g'(x) = g(x)  + cot x ln x  ⇒ f   = g'   = 0
 x  2 2

5. n(x1) = 3, x1 = 2, 3, 4.
4 ≤ x2 < x3 ≤ 8 ⇒ from 4, 5, 6, 7, 8
Selecting any 2 ⇒ n(x2, x3) = 5C2 = 10 and n(x4) = 2
x4 = 0, 5
⇒ Number of such 4 digit numbers 3 × 10 × 2 = 60

6. Let X denotes the number of toss required.

3
2 1
3   ⋅
4 5
2 1 2 1 2 1 3 3 = 8
P(X ≥ 4) =   ⋅ +   ⋅ +   ⋅ + ...... ∞ =
3 3 3 3 3 3 2 27
1−
3

  2 6 1 
6 7   ⋅  6
2 1 2 1
P(X ≥ 7) =   ⋅ +   ⋅ + ..... ∞ =   
3 3  = 2
  
3 3 3 3 2  3
 1− 
 3 
6
2
  8
Required probability =  3 3 =
2 27
 
3

8. R = P'Q8P = A 8
 3 −2  3 −2   3 − 2 3 − 2
A2 =   = 
0 1  0 1  0 1 
−2   3 − 2 3 − 2   ( 3)

3
 3 −2 ( 3 ) − 2 3 − 2 
A3 =   =
0 1  0 1   0 1 

= Ak then λ11 = ( 3 ) ⇒ r11 = ( 3 ) = 81

k 8
⇒ If λij 
2×2

 ∆   ∆   abc 
9. r1 + r2 = 3R ⇒  +  = 3 
s−a s−b  4∆ 
∆2 3ab
⇒ = ⇒ 4s(s – c) = 3ab
( s − a )( s − b ) 4
1
⇒ cos c = ⇒ ∠c = 60º
2
Also r2 + r3 = 2R
 ∆   ∆  2abc
⇒  + =
s−b s−c 4∆
π π
⇒ 2s(s – a) = bc ⇒ ∠A = and ∠B =
2 6

10. ⇒ ∆1 = 2 2 ( 4 − 10 ) x2
+ ( y − 4) = 1
2

and ∆ 2 = 2 2 ( 4 + 10 ) P2 9
P1

∆2 ∆1
A

11. (3a + 4b)(3a – 2b) = 0 and (3a – 2b)(a + b) = 0

⇒ 3a = 2b

12. f(x) is non differential at x = 1 (Point A in figure) y = f(x)

But f(x) is cont. ∀ x ∈ [0, 2]
A
⇒ g′(t) = f(t) – f(t – 1), t ∈ [1, 2] 2
= ( 2t 2 − 6t + 6 ) − ( ( t − 1) + 1)
= 2t 2 − 7t + 6 = ( 2t − 3 )( t − 2 ) 1 y=x+1

3 2 1 2
3
2 2
3
⇒ Maximum when t = and minimum when t = 2.
2

 A  P ( A ∩ BE )
14. P = P B , where A = sum is 4.
 BE  ( E)
1
1 1 1 1 4 1
And P (BE ) = P (B2 ) + P (B4 ) + ..... = + + + .....∞ = 4 = ⋅ =
4 16 64 1 4 3 3
1−
4
 A   A 
P ( A ∩ BE ) = P ( A ∩ B2 ) + P ( A ∩ B 4 ) = P (B2 ) P   + P (B 4 ) P  
 B2   B4 
1  3  1  1  ( 4 ⋅ 3 ⋅ 62 + 1) 433
=  +  4  = =
4  36  16  6  16.6 4
16.64
 A  433 433 1
Hence P   = ⋅3 = ≅
 BE  16.6
4 32 ⋅ 216 16

15. n(S) = 6 ⋅ 6 ⋅ 6 = 63 = 216

Now greatest number is 4, so atleast one of the dice shows up 4.
∴ n(A) = 43 – 33 = 37
37
Hence P(A) =
216

16-18. Equation of tangent of slope m to y2 = 4x is

1
y = mx + ….. (1)
m

1
16. As (1) passes through P(6, 5), so 5 = 6m +
m
1 1
⇒ 6m2 − 5m + 1 = 0 ⇒ m = or m =
2 3
 1 2   1 2 
Points of contact are  2 ,  and  2 , 
 m1 m1   m2 m2 
Hence R(4, 4) and Q(9, 6)
6 5 1
1 1
Area of ∆PQR = 4 4 1 =
2 2
9 6 1

1
17. y= x + 2 ⇒ x – 2y + 4 = 0 ….. (2)
2
1
and y = x + 3 ⇒ x – 3y + 9 = 0
3
Now equation of circle C2 touching x – 3y + 9 = 0 at (9, 6), is
( x − 9 )2 + ( y − 6 )2 + λ ( x − 3y + 9 ) = 0
As above circle passes through (1, 0), so
64 + 36 + 10λ = 0 ⇒ λ = –10
Circle C2 is x2 + y2 – 28x + 18y + 27 = 0 ….. (3)
2
Radius of C2 is r2 = 196 + 81 − 27 = 277 − 27 − 250 ⇒ r2 = 5 10

SECTION – C

1. ⇒ p – 3 = 0, 2, 3, 4 y y = |x + 1/x – 3|
5
⇒ Σp = 5 + 6 + 7 + 3 = 21
4
⇒n=7 3
2
1
0 y=3
3

 1  1  1 2  α 2 + β2  1 1 2  t 4 + 4t  1 1
2.  x + 2  x + 2  + αβ = x +   x + + = x +  2 
x+ 2 −

 ( αβ ) ( αβ )
 α  β 
2 2 αβ  4t  4t 2t

2
3  t2 1  1 1
Let I = ∫
−1
x 2 dx +  +  + 3 2 − 
2 4 t   4t 2t 
dI 3  t 1 1 1  1/ 4
⇒ =  − 2 − 3 + 2  = 0 ⇒ t 4 = 2 ⇒ t = ± ( 2)
dt 2  2 t t t 
3 2 1 1 1  3 2 9
⇒ Min I(t) = 3 +  + 1/ 4 + − 1/ 4  = 3 + ⋅ =3+
2 4 2 2 2 2  2 2 8
9
⇒   + 3 = 1+ 3 = 4
8

 3 1   3 1 
3. The population after 2n days = P   ⋅  ⋅  ⋅  ⋅ ..........n times  = 310
 2 2   2 2  
n 10
3 3
  =  ⇒ n = 10 ⇒ Total number of days = 20 days
4 4

4. Let f(x) = 2x3 – 3x2 + p

⇒ f ' ( x ) = 6x 2 − 6x = 0 at x = 0, 1
⇒ f(0) > 0 ⇒ p > 0
f(1) < 0 ⇒ 2 – 3 + p < 0
⇒p<1
⇒ p ∈ (0, 1)
⇒ [p] = 0

5. Required plane is p1 + λp2 = 0 and passes through (1, 2, 0)

G
⇒ p = r ⋅ ( 3iˆ − ˆj + 3k)
ˆ = 1) ⇒ a + b + c = 7

1  1
6. tangent at  , 1 is y = 2x +
4  2
19
⇒k=
4

7. The polynomial is an everywhere differentiable function. Therefore, the points of extremum can
only be roots of the derivative. Furthermore, the derivative of a polynomial is a polynomial. The
polynomial of the least degree with roots x1 = 1 and x2 = 3 has the from
a(x – 1) (x – 3).
Hence P'(x) = a(x – 1) (x – 3) = a(x2 – 4x + 3) since at the point x = 1, there must be P(1) = 6, we
have
x x
 x3 4
1
∫ 1
∫
P(x) = P'(x)dx + 6 = a (x 2 − 4x + 3)dx + 6 = a 
 3

− 2x 2 + 3x −  + 6
3 
The coefficient 'a' is determined from the condition P(3) = 2, whence a = 3.
Hence P(x) = x3 – 6x2 + 9x + 2
Now P(2) = 8 – 24 + 18 + 2 = 28 – 24 = 4
Also P'(x) = 3(x2 – 4x + 3) ⇒ P'(0) = 9
⇒ P(2) + P'(0) = 4 + 9 = 13

8. f(x) is an odd function

⇒ g(x) is f–1(x)
2π 2π  2π
2π 
∫ f −1 ( y ) dy = ∫ ∫
f ′ ( x ) dx =  x ( f ( x ) ) 0 − ( x + sin x ) dx  = 2π .
2
⇒ Area =
1 0
 0



∞∞
 e − x ( sin x )n 
∫
n −1
9. In =   + n ( sin x ) cos xe − x dx
 −1 0
0
∞ ∞
n−1
 ( sin x ) cos xe− x 
∫
 + n ( sin x ) ( − sin x ) + ( cos x ) ( n − 1) cos x ( sin x ) cos x  e− x dx
n−1 n− 2
= 0 + n
 −1 0
0
∞
n ( n − 1)
∫ ( − ( sin x ) + (n − 1) (1 − sin x ) ( sin x ) ) e dx
n 2 n−2 −x
=n = In−2
0
n2 + 1
I10 10 × 9
101 = 101× 2 = 90 .
I8 10 + 1

G G2 G G2 G G2 G G G G G G
10. a − b + b − c + c − a = 2 ( a2 + b2 + c 2 ) − 2 ( a ⋅ b + b ⋅ c + c ⋅ a )
G G G G G G G G G G G G
= 2(4 + 9 + 16) – 2 ( a ⋅ b + b ⋅ c + c ⋅ a ) = 58 – 2 ( a ⋅ b + b ⋅ c + c ⋅ a ) .
G G G 2
Now ( a + b + c ) ≥ 0
G G G G G G
⇒ a2 + b2 + c2 ≥ – 2 ( a ⋅ b + b ⋅ c + c ⋅ a )
G G G G G G
⇒ – 2 ( a ⋅ b + b ⋅ c + c ⋅ a ) ≤ 29
G G2 G G2 G G2
⇒ a − b + b − c + c − a ≤ 87.

Paper 2
75 in Top 200, 159 in Top 500 Ranks & 3542 t o t a l s e l e c t i o n s i n I I T - J E E 2 0 1 2

Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 237

ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
d d th R k i IIT JEE 2012

INSTRUCTIONS
A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Parts.
3. Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
4. Each part is further divided into three sections: Section-A, Section-B & Section-C
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.
B. Filling of OMR Sheet
1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers
b

on OMR sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with black pen for each character of your
Enrolment No. and write your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places.
FIITJEE St d t h

3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.

C. Marking Scheme For All Three Parts.

(i) Section-A (01 – 06) contains 6 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer.
Each question carries +5 marks for correct answer and – 2 marks for wrong answer.
Section-A (07 – 12) contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions
have to be answered. Each question has only one correct answer and carries +3 marks for
correct answer and – 1 mark for wrong answer.
(ii) Section-B (01 – 02) contains 2 Matrix Match Type questions containing statements given in 2
columns. Statements in the first column have to be matched with statements in the second
column. Each question carries +8 marks for all correct answer. For each correct row +2 marks
will be awarded. There may be one or more than one correct choice. No marks will be given for
any wrong match in any question. There is no negative marking.
(iii) Section-C (01 – 05) contains 5 Numerical based questions with single digit integer as answer,
ranging from 0 to 9 and each question carries +3 marks for correct answer. There is no negative
marking.

Name of the Candidate

Enrolment No.

Useful Data

PHYSICS
Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s2

Planck constant h = 6.6 ×10−34 J-s

Charge of electron e = 1.6 × 10−19 C

Mass of electron me = 9.1 × 10−31 kg

Permittivity of free space ε0 = 8.85 × 10−12 C2/N-m2

Density of water ρwater = 103 kg/m3

Atmospheric pressure Pa = 105 N/m2

Gas constant R = 8.314 J K−1 mol−1

CHEMISTRY

Gas Constant R = 8.314 J K−1 mol−1

Atomic No: H=1, He = 2, Li=3, Be=4, B=5, C=6, N=7, O=8,

Physics PART – I

SECTION – A
Single Correct Choice Type

This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. In a series LCR circuit, if V is the root mean square (rms) value of the applied voltage. Across
resistor (R) inductor (L) and capacitor (C) the rms values of the potential difference are VR, VL and
VC, respectively.
(A) V = VR + VL + VC (B) V 2 = VR2 + VL2 + VC2
(C) V 2 = VR2 + (VL − VC )2 (D) V 2 = VL2 + (VR − VC )2

2. Lower surface of a plank is rough and lies over a rough horizontal

surface. Upper surface of the plank is smooth and has a smooth
hemisphere placed over it through a light string as shown. After the
string is burnt trajectory of C.M. of sphere is
(A) circle (B) ellipse
(C) straight line (D) none of these C

3. If switch S closed at t = 0 then work done by battery C

upto time t is equal to
CV 2 
2t 
−
(A)  1 − e CR 
2  
 
R C
 −
t 
(B) CV 2  1 − e 2CR 
 
 
 −
t 
V
(C) CV 2  1 − e CR 
 
 
(D) None

Rough work

4. Circular scale of a screw guage moves through 4 divisions of main scale in one rotation. If the
number of divisions on the circular scale is 200 and each division of the main scale is 1 mm., the
least count of the screw guage is
(A) 0.01 mm (B) 0.02 mm
(C) 0.03 mm (D) 0.04 mm

5. A sphere of mass M and radius b has a concentric cavity of radius a

as shown in figure. The graph showing variation of gravitational
potential V with distance r from the center of sphere is
a
b

(A) V (B) V

b a b
r r

6. Let Fpp, Fpn and Fnn denote the magnitudes of the net force by a proton on a proton, by a proton
on a neutron and by a neutron on a neutron respectively. Neglect gravitational force. When the
separation is 1 fm,
(A) Fpp > Fpn = Fnn (B) Fpp = Fpn = Fnn
(C) Fpp > Fpn > Fnn (D) Fpp < Fpn = Fnn

Rough work

Comprehension Type

Paragraph for Question Nos. 7 to 9

In the figure shown a plank of mass m is lying at rest on a smooth horizontal m,r
surface. A disc of same mass m and radius r is rotated to an angular speed ω0 ω0
and then gently placed on the plank. If we consider the plank and the disc as a
system then frictional force between them is an internal force. Momentum of m
the system changes due to external force only. It is found that finally slipping
cease. Assume that plank is long enough. µ is coefficient of friction between
disc and plank.

7. Final velocity of the plank is

rω0 rω0
(A) (B)
4 10
rω0 rω0
(C) (D)
2 2 10

8. Time when slipping ceases

rω0 rω0
(A) (B)
2µg 10µg
rω0 rω0
(C) (D)
4µg 2 10µg

9. Magnitude of the change in angular momentum of the disc about center of mass of the disc
3 2 1 2
(A) mr ω0 (B) mr ω0
4 4
1 2
(C) zero (D) mr ω0
2

Rough work

Paragraph for Question Nos. 10 to 12

G G
As a charged particle q moving with a velocity v enters a uniform magnetic field B , it experiences a force
G G G G G
f = q(v × B) . For θ = 0º or 180º, θ being the angle between v and B , force experienced is zero and the
particle passes undeflected. For θ = 90º, the particle moves along a circular arc and the magnetic force
 mv 2 
(qvB) provides the necessary centripetal force  . For other values of θ (θ ≠ 0º, 180º, 90º), the
 r 
 
charged particle moves along a helical path which is the resultant motion of simultaneous circular and
translational motions.
Suppose a particle, that carries a charge of magnitude q and has a mass 4 × 10–15 kg, is moving in a
G
region containing a uniform magnetic field B = −0.4kT ˆ . At a certain instant, velocity of the particle is
G
v = (8iˆ − 6ˆj + 4k)
ˆ × 10 m/s and force acting on it has a magnitude 1.6 N.
6

Answer the following:

10. Which of the three components of acceleration have non–zero values ?

(A) x and y (B) y and z
(C) z and x (D) x, y and z

11. Which of the following is correct?

(A) Motion of the particle is non–periodic but y and z – position co–ordinates vary in a periodic
manner
(B) Motion of the particle is non–periodic but x and y – position co–ordinates vary in a periodic
manner
(C) Motion of the particle is non–periodic but x and z – position co–ordinates vary in a periodic
manner
(D) Motion of the particle is periodic and all the position co–ordinates vary in a periodic manner

12. If the co–ordinates of the particle at t = 0 are (2m, 1m, 0), co–ordinates at a time t = 3T, where T
is the time period of circular component of motion, will be
(A) (2m, 1m, 400m) (B) (0.142m, 120m, 0)
(C) (2m, 1m, 1.884m) (D) (142m, 130m, 628m)

Rough work

SECTION - B
Matrix – Match Type
This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given p q r s t
in two columns, which have to be matched. The statements in Column I are
A p q r s t
labelled A, B, C and D, while the statements in Column II are labelled p, q, r,
s and t. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with B p q r s t
ONE OR MORE statement(s) in Column II. The appropriate bubbles
corresponding to the answers to these questions have to be darkened as C p q r s t
illustrated in the following example:
If the correct matches are A – p, s and t; B – q and r; C – p and q; and D – s D p q r s t
and t; then the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following:

1. Match the following.

Column A Column B
(A) If the work done by force in cyclic path is (p) Non conservative
zero, the force is
(B) If the work done by a force in cyclic path is (q) Negative
not zero, the force is
(C) Work done by friction force can be (r) Conservative
(D) Work done by spring force can be (s) Positive

2. Match the following.

Column A Column B
(A) Amplitude of constituent wave (p) 0.06
(B) Position of node at x = … m (q) 0.5
(C) Position of antinode at x = … m (r) 0.25
(D) 3 (s) 0.03
Amplitude at x =   m
4

Rough work

SECTION – C
Integer Answer Type
X Y Z W

0 0 0 0

This section contains 5 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit 1 1 1 1
integer, ranging from 0 to 9. The appropriate bubbles below the respective question 2 2 2 2
numbers in the ORS have to be darkened. For example, if the correct answers to question 3 3 3 3
numbers X, Y, Z and W (say) are 6, 0, 9 and 2, respectively, then the correct darkening of
4 4 4 4
bubbles will look like the as shown.
5 5 5 5

6 6 6 6

7 7 7 7

8 8 8 8

9 9 9 9

1. A conducting rod Pq is sliding on two parallel conducting rods with 3Ω

constant velocity in a uniform magnetic field of induction B = 2 3Ω 6Ω 1Ω
Wb/m2 as shown in the figure. The rods are connected with a
circuit. What should be velocity of rod Pq (in m/s) if current in 2Ω
resistor is 0.1 A ? i=0.1 2Ω
A B
C D

V
p q
A=10cm

2. Two parallel conducting rails are connected to a source of emf E

and internal resistance r. Another conducting rod of length A r B
having negligible resistance lies at rest and can slide without F A
friction over the rails. A uniform magnetic field B is applied E
perpendicular to the plane of the rails. At t = 0, the rod is pulled
along the rails by applying a force F. The velocity of the rod is Rod
observed to be v = v0 cos (ωt) then find the power (in watt) spent
by the force over 1 cycle.
(Given B = 2 Tesla, r = 2 × 10–4Ω, v0 = 2 ms–1, A = 1cm)

Rough work

3. Oil enters the bend of a pipe in the horizontal plane v2

with velocity 4 ms–1 and pressure 280 × 103 Nm–2 as A1
shown in the figure. The pressure of oil at the point Q Q A2 =
4
is 86λ. Find the value of λ. (KNm–2).
(Take specific gravity of oil as 0.9 and sin 37º = 0.6) 37º
2
A1=0.2m

–1
v1=4ms P

4. One mole of ideal monoatomic gas is taken along a cyclic

process as shown in the figure. Process 1 → 2 shown is 1/4th 2P0 2
part of a circle as shown by dotted line process 2 → 3 is
isochoric while 3 → 1 is isobaric. If efficiency of the cycle is n% P0 3
where n is an integer. Find n. 1

V0 2V0

5. A spring of force constant k = 300 N/m connects two blocks having masses 2 kg and 3 kg, lying
on a smooth horizontal plane. If the spring block system is released from a stretched position, the
number of complete oscillations in 1 minute is 6n. Find the value of n. Take π = 10 .

Rough work

Chemistry PART – II

SECTION – A

Straight Objective Type

This section contains 6 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 6. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. Which test can distinguish 1,1 dichloroethane and 1,2 dichloroethane.

(A) (i) aq KOH, (ii) 2,4 - DNP (B) NaHSO3
(C) Na2CO3 (D) FeCl3 solution

2. Calculate the potential of an indicator electrode versus the standard hydrogen electrode, which
−
originally contained 0.1 M MnO4 and 0.1 M H+ and which was treated with Fe+2 necessary to
reduce 90% of KMnO4 to Mn+2. EMnO
0
− = 1.51 v
4
Mn+2

(A) 1.3 (B) 1.43

3.
N
*

Let the starred carbon in the given amine has ‘S’ configuration. What is the isomeric relationship
between the two forms of this compound that are inter converted by amine inversion.
(A) Diastereomers (B) Enantiomers
(C) Identical (D) Functional isomers

Rough Work

4. (2)
OH

CH3

OH ( 1 )

HO Cl
(3)
Cl
O 2N
Acidity of H is in the order
(A) 2>1>3 (B) 3>1>2
(C) 1>2>3 (D) 2>3>1

5. O

+
H
A 
− → B → O
OH

Possible structure for compound A is

O
O
(A) (B)
OH O

(C) CH3 (D) None of these

CHO

NH3 HCl H2
(g) (g) (g)

500 torr 600 torr 100 torr

0.3 L 0.2 L 1L
What is the total pressure after all the stopcocks are opened at room temperature? (considering
the volume of connecting tubes negligible
(A) 246.66 torr (B) 86.66 torr
(C) 100 torr (D) 1200 torr
Rough Work

PARAGRAPH TYPE

Paragraph for Question Nos. 7 to 9

Bond length is an important criterion in deciding the reactivity of organic entities. Bond length is affected
by a number of factors like atomic size electronegativity, bond order and resonance.

7. O H
(g)
(e)
H (a) (d) C (f) O
C C
(a) (b)
H (c) Br

For the given resonating structure of the molecule find the correct trend of bond length.
(A) e < b < g < a < f < d < c (B) a < g < b < e < d < f < c
(C) g < a < e < b < f < d < c (D) b < e < d < f < g < a < c

8. 2 4

1 3 5

6
Taking into account all the resonating structures of the above molecule, find which bond has
highest bond order :
(A) C1 – C2 (B) C2 – C3
(C) C3 – C6 (D) (a) and (c) are having same bond order.

9. How many different Mn-O bond length(s) is/are there in KMnO4 molecule.
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4

Rough Work

Paragraph for Question Nos. 10 to 12

The solubility of an ionic compound depends upon lattice energy and hydration energy of that
compound. Lattice energy involves the fact that how tightly are ions held together in ionic lattice
whereas hydration energy involves the attraction of ions towards water molecule to get themselves
hydrated. The dissolution occurs when hydrator energy predominates over lattice energy. The solubility
also depends upon this difference. More is ( ∆Hh − ∆Hi ) more is solubility.

10. Select the correct choice :

(A) KHCO3 is less soluble in water than NaHCO3.
(B) CaC2O4 is soluble in water and alkalies.
(C) Ca(HCO3)2 an obtained in solid state.
(D) BeF2 is water soluble but CaF2 is water insoluble.

11. Select the incorrect choice :

(A) solubility of alkaline earth metal’s carbonates, sulphates and chromates decreases from
Be to Ba.
(B) solubility of alkaline earth metal’s hydroxides is less than alkali metal hydroxides.
(C) solubility of alkaline earth metal’s oxides increases from Be to Ba.
(D) SO2 on passing in lime water turns is milky.

12. Report the correct order for lattice energy :

(A) BeO > MgO > CaO (B) BeF2 < MgF2 < CaF2
(C) AgF < AgCl < AgBr (D) Fe2O3 < FeO

Rough Work

SECTION-B
(Matrix Type)

This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given p q r s t

in two columns, which have to be matched. The statements in Column I are
A p q r s t
labelled A, B, C and D, while the statements in Column II are labelled p, q, r,
s and t. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with B p q r s t
ONE OR MORE statement(s) in Column II. The appropriate bubbles
corresponding to the answers to these questions have to be darkened as C p q r s t
illustrated in the following example:
D p q r s t
If the correct matches are A – p, s and t; B – q and r; C – p and q; and D – s
and t; then the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following:

1. Match the following

Column – I Column – II
(A) Be(OH)2 < Mg(OH)2 < Ca(OH)2 < Sr(OH)2 < Ba(OH)2 (p) Solubility in water
(B) BeCO3 > MgCO3 > CaCO3 > SrCO3 > BaCO3 (q) Thermal stability
(C) Li(OH) < NaOH < KOH < RbOH < CsOH (r) Hydration energy
(D) Li2CO3 < Na2CO3 < K2CO3 < Rb2CO3 < Cs2CO3 (s) Lattice Energy
Basic strength in aqueous
(t)
solution

2. Match the following

Column – I (Using Pt electrode) Column – II
(A) Aqueous solution of HCl (p) O2 evolved at anode
(B) Aqueous solution of NaCl (q) H2 evolved at cathode
(C) Molten NaCl (r) Cl2 evolved at anode
(D) Aqueous solution of AgNO3 (s) Na deposited at cathode
(t) Ag deposited at cathode
Rough Work

SECTION – C

Integer Answer Type

X Y Z W

0 0 0 0

6 6 6 6

7 7 7 7

8 8 8 8

9 9 9 9

1. When CH3CHO is treated with drops of concentration H2SO4 a pleasant smelting liquid
paraldehyde results. The number of aldehyde molecules needed to from one molecule of
paraldehyde is

2. If number of planes of symmetry in hexagonal unit cell is ‘n’ then the value of ‘n’ is:

3. If aqueous solution of NaCl is electrolyzed completely at 25°C, the total number of gases evolved
is

4. 500 ml of 0.1 M CaBr2(density of CaBr2 solution = 1.02 gm/ml) is mixed with 500 ml of 0.2 M
AgNO3 (density of AgNO3 solution = 1.034 gm/ml) solution. The mass of water in the mixture is ‘x’
gm. Then x is
200

5. How many optically active alkanes are possible with molecular formula C7H16?

Rough Work

Mathematics PART – III

SECTION – A

Straight Objective Type

This section contains 6 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 6. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

3 2 1
1. Let g(x) = fn(x), where f2(x) = f(f(x)), f3(x) = f(f(f(x))) ..... and f(x) = x 3 − x +x+ then
2 4
3/4

∫ g(x) dx is
1/ 4
n
(A) +2 (B) 2n + 1
2
1 3
(C) (D)
4 4

2. The area of the region bounded between the curves y = e x ln x , x 2 + y 2 − 2 ( x + y ) + 1 ≥ 0 and

x-axis where |x| ≤ 1, if α is the x-coordinate of the point of intersection of curves in 1st quadrant, is
α  α α 
∫( ) ∫( )
1

∫
(A) 4  ex ln x dx + 1 − 1 − (x − 1)2 dx 
 0 α
  0 ∫
(B) 4  ex ln x dx − 1 − 1 − (x − 1)2 dx 
1

 α  α 
∫( ) ∫( )
1 1

∫
(C) 2  − ex ln x + 1 − 1 − (x − 1)2 dx 
 0 α
  0 α
∫
(D) 2  ex ln x + 1 − 1 − (x − 1)2 dx 


n  r −1 1 n 
3. The value of lim
n→∞
∑∑ 

r =1  t =o 5
n
⋅ Cr ⋅ r Ct ⋅ 3t  is equal to


(A) 4 (B) 3
(C) 1 (D) none of these

4. 8 spheres of radius 1 unit is kept on a table with their centres at the vertices of a regular octagon
and each sphere touching its two neighbours. If a sphere is placed in the centre on the table
touching all of the 8 sphers, then its radius is
1 1
(A) (B) 1 −
2 2
1
(C) 2 (D) 1 +
2

Rough work

4 d ( )
5.
25
If f(x) = ( 2x − 3π ) + x + cos x and g(x) is the inverse of f(x), then find ( g x ) at x = 2π
3 dx
7 3
(A) (B)
3 7
30π25 + 4
(C) (D) none of these
3

6. Three friends whose ages form a G.P. divide a certain sum of money in proportion to their ages. If
they do that three years later, when the youngest is half the age of the oldest, then he will receive
Rs. 150/– more than he gets now, and the middle friend will get Rs. 15 more than now, then the
age of the youngest friend is
(A) 27 (B) 18
(C) 14 (D) 12

Comprehension Type

Paragraph for Question Nos. 7 to 9

Read the following write up carefully and answer the following questions:
Let <an> and <bn> be the arithmetic sequences each with common difference 2 such that a1 < b1 and let
n n
cn = ∑
k =1
ak , dn = ∑b
k =1
k . Suppose that the points An(an, cn), Bn(bn, dn) are all lies on the parabola

C : y = px2 + qx + r where p, q, r are the constants.

7. The value of p equals

1 1
(A) (B)
4 3
1
(C) (D) 2
2

8. The value of q equals

1 1
(A) (B)
4 3
1
(C) (D) 2
2

Rough work

9. If r = 0 then the value of a1 and b1 are

1 3
(A) and 1 (B) 1 and
2 2
1
(C) 0 and 2 (D) and 2
2

Paragraph for Question Nos. 10 to 12

Read the following write up carefully and answer the following questions:
Let y = f(x) be a curve such that x = 1 – 3t2, y = t – 3t3, where t is a parameter and f(x) is not constantly
zero ∀ t ∈ R. The tangent drawn at P(t) to the curve makes an angle θ with positive direction of x-axis.

10. If the tangent at A ≡ (–2, 2) meet the curve again at B then coordinates of point B is
 9  1 2
(A)  −3, −  (B)  − , − 
 2  3 9 
 1 2 1 2
(C)  − ,  (D)  , − 
 3 9 3 9

11. The acute angle between the tangents at x = 0 to the curve y = f(x) is
π
(A) 0 (B)
6
π π
(C) (D)
4 3

b
12. Let h(x) = |f(x)| + f(x) and g(x) = |f(x)| – f(x), then ∫ h ( x ) dx is equal to
a
a b
(A) ∫
b
g ( x ) dx (B) ∫ g ( x ) dx
a
a
(C) ∫ g ( x ) dx only if a, b ∈ [0, 1]
b
(D) none of these

Rough work

SECTION – B
(Matrix Type)
This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given p q r s t
in two columns, which have to be matched. The statements in Column I are
A p q r s t
labelled A, B, C and D, while the statements in Column II are labelled p, q, r,
s and t. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with p q r s t
B
ONE statement in Column II. The appropriate bubbles corresponding to the
answers to these questions have to be darkened as illustrated in the following C p q r s t
example:
If the correct matches are A – p; B – q; C – p; and D – s; then the correct D p q r s t
darkening of bubbles will look like the following:

1. Match the following column–I with column–II.

Column – I Column – II
(A) The equation of the right bisector plane of the 13
segment joining (2, 3, 4) and (6, 7, 8) is (p)
21
(B) The equation of the plane through the point (1, 2, – 7
3) which is parallel to the plane 3x – 5y + 2z = 11 is (q)
21
given by
(C) The distance of the point (2, 1, –1) from the plane 20
x – 2y + 4z = 9 is (r)
21
x −4 y −2 z−k (s) x + y + z – 15 = 0
(D) The line = = lies completely on
1 1 2
k
the plane 2x – 4y + z = 7, then the value of is
21
(t) 3x – 5y + 2z + 13 = 0

2. Match the following column–I with column–II.

Column – I Column – II
1 (p) 0
(A) The number of integers in the domain of f(x) = , is
lncos−1 x
(B) If the angle between the plane x – 3y + 2z = 1 and the line (q) 1
x −1 y −1 z −1
= = is θ, then the value of cosec θ is
2 1 −3
−4 (r) 2
( 3 − x 2 ) tan ( 3 − x 2 ) dx
(C) Let J = ∫
−5
and

−1

∫ ( 6 − 6x + x ) tan ( 6x − x 2 − 6 ) dx , then (J + K) equals

2
K=
−2

x2 y2 (s) 4
(D) The value of a for the ellipse 2
+ 2
= 1 (a > b), if the extremities
a b
of the latus–rectum of the ellipse having positive ordinate lies on
the parabola x 2 = −2 ( y − 2 ) , is
(t) 6

Rough work

SECTION – C

Integer Answer Type

X Y Z W

0 0 0 0

6 6 6 6

7 7 7 7

8 8 8 8

9 9 9 9

x −1 y+2 z−4
1. If the line = = intersect the xy, yz and zx planes at A, B and C respectively, and
2 3 6
if volume of the tetrahedron OABD is V, where ‘O’ is origin and D is the image of C in the x–axis,
then the value of [V] is __________. (Where [.] denote greatest integer function).

10
2. Let 1 + ∑ (3 ·
r =1
r 10
Cr + r · 10 Cr ) = 210 (α · 45 + β) where α, β ∈ N and f (x) = x2 – 2x – k2 + 1.If α, β

lies between the roots of f (x) = 0, then find the smallest positive integral value of k.

3. Let x be the 7th term from the beginning and y be the 7th term from the end in the expression of
 1/ 3 1  x 1
 3 + 1/3  . If = then the value of n is __________.
 4  y 12

2 2
4. Let z1, z2, z3 be complex numbers of unit modulus such that z1 − z2 + z1 − z3 = 4 then
z2 + z3 is equal to __________.

5. A student is allowed to select at most ‘n’ books from a collection of 2n + 1 books. If the total
number of ways in which a student selects atleast one book is 63 then the value of n is
__________.

Rough work

FULL TEST – II
(Paper – 2)
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES

ANSWERS KEY
PHYSICS CHEMISTRY MATHEMATICS
Q. No. ANSWER ANSWER ANSWER
1. C A C
2. C D C
3. B A C
4. B B D
5. B B B
6. D B B
7. A C A
8. C A C
9. B A C
10. A D B
11. B C D
12. C A B
(A) → (r) (A) → (p, q, t) (A) → (s)
(B) → (p) (B) → (p, r, s) (B) → (t)
1.
(C) → (q), (s) (C) → (p, q, t) (C) → (p)
(D) → (q), (s) (D) → (q, t) (D)→ (q)
(A) → (s) (A) → (q, r) (A) → (r)
(B) → (q) (B) → (q, r) (B) → (r)
2.
(C) → (r) (C) → (r, s) (C) → (p)
(D) → (q) (D) → (p, t) (D)→ (r)
1. 5 3 3
2. 4 7 5
3. 2 3 9
4. 4 5 0
5. 4 4 3

Physics PART – I

SECTION – A

 −
t   −
t 
3. q = 2CV  1 − e 2CR  ; Wb = 2CV 2  1 − e 2CR 
   
   

4. LC = 4/200 = 0.02

5. Gravitational potential inside a shell = constant

6. In nuclear, nuclear force play major role. They are charge independent forces.

SECTION – C

1. Current is 2Ω = 0.1 A
current in circuit = 0.2 A
equivalent resistance about AB = 5Ω
e = I R = 1 volts
and also
e=B A V
e 1
∴ V= = = 5m / s .
BA 2 × 0.1

2. Force on the rod

F – Fm = ma
BA
F− (BAV − E) = ma
r
BAE B2 A2 V mdV
F+ − =
r r dt
solving
B2 A 2 BAE
F = −mV0 ω sin(ωt) + V0 cos ωt −
r r
Power expended by force is
B2 A 2 2 BAE
FV = −mV02 ω sin(ωt)cos(ωt) + V0 cos2 ωt − V0 cos ωt
r r
Its average over the cycle is
B2 A 2 V02
.
2r

3. Let A1 and A2 be the cross–sectional area of the pipe at points P and Q respectively.
Let v1 and v2 be the velocities of oil at the points P and Q respectively.
By conservation of mass,
Q = A1v1 = A2v2
A 
⇒ v 2 =  1  (v1 ) = 4v1
 A2 
Applying Bernoullis’s equation between points P and Q, we have

1 2 1
P1 + ρv1 = P2 + ρv 22
2 2
1
P2 = P1 + ρ(v1 − v 22 )
2
2
1
= P1 + × 0.9[16 − 256] × 103
2
= 280 × 103 + ( −108) × 103
P2 = 172 × 103 Nm–2
P2 = 172 (KN m–2).

πP0 v 0
4. Wnet = ( 2P0 v 0 ) − (P0 v 0 ) −
4
πP0 v 0 Pv
Wnet = P0 v 0 − = ( 4 − π ) 0 0 ; Put π = 3.14
4 4
0.86
Wnet = P0 v 0 = ( 0.22 ) (P0 v 0 )
4
Now,
Pv  3R
T1 = 0 0 
R
∆U1→2 = 1× [T2 − T1 ]
 2

4P0 v 0  3R
T2 =  Thus, ∆U2→3 = 1× [T3 − T2 ]
R  2


2P v 3R
T3 = 0 0  ∆U3→1 = 1× [T1 − T3 ]
R  2
∆Q1→2 = ( 4.5 )(P0 v 0 ) + (1.22)(P0 v 0 ) = ( 5.72)(P0 v 0 )
∆Q2→3 = −3P0 v 0 + 0 = −3 (P0 v 0 )
∆Q3→1 = −1.5 (P0 v 0 ) − (P0 v 0 ) = −2.5 (P0 v 0 )
Wnet
Thus efficiency η =
+ veheat
0.22 (P0 v 0 )
η= = 0.04
( 5.72 ) (P0 v 0 )
Thus efficiency is 4%

5. The total momentum of the system in the horizontal kx kx

direction is conserved. We draw the F.B.D., assuming the m1 m2
displacement of the block to be x1 and x2 in opposite
directions, and the total extension x is given by, x1 x2
x = x1 + x2
and m1x1 = m2x2
d2 x
∴ m1 21 = −k(x1 + x 2 )
dt
d2 x 2
and m2 = −k(x1 + x 2 )
dt 2
after suitably manipulating the equations,
we get,

d2 x 2 −k(m1 + m2 )
2
=− .x
dt m1m2
1 k(m1 + m2 )
i.e. the frequency =
2π m1m2
1 300(2 + 3)
=
2π 2×3
2.5Hz .
60
∴ number of complete oscillations in 1 minute = = 24 .
2.5

Chemistry PART – II

SECTION – A

1. Gem-dihalides on substitution by OH produces carbonyl compound, which will reacts with

2,4-DNP but 1,2-dichloroethane will give vic-diol.

2. MnO 4− + Fe+2 +8H⊕ 

→ Mn+2 + Fe +3
0.1 M
0.01M 0.09 M
E0  MnO −2 
>E 0
R.P. H 
+
R.P. 4
 
 Mn+2   H2 

So permanganate electrode behave as cathode.

Ecell = 1.51 – 0 = 1.51.
Using Nernst’s equation :- (n = 5)
8
0.059 MnO −4  H+ 
EMnO− = 1.51 + log 
4
Mn+2
5 Mn+2 
= 1.51 + 0.11 = 1.4 V

3. Amine inversion will change the configuration of N only and not that of carbon.

5. Compound (A) will first undergo Cannizzaro reaction and the product B then will undergo esterification.

6. 3 → NH4 Cl ( s ) at room temperature.

NH + HCl 
500×0.3 600×0.2
0 Moles
760×RT 760×RT

150 120
760RT 760RT
30 120
0
760RT 760RT
30 100 × 1
Now total moles = +
760RT 760RT
Total P = 130 × RT (Total volume = 1. 5 Litre)
760RT × 1.5
130
P in torr = = 86.66 torr
1.5

SECTION – C

5. (S)-2,3-dimethylpentane, (R)-2,3-dimethylpentane, (S)-3-methylhexane and (R)-3-methylhexane.

Mathematics PART – III

SECTION – A

3
 1 1 1 1
1. f(x) =  x −  +  x −  +
 2 4 2 2
3/4 1/ 4
1  1
I=
1/ 4
∫ g(x) dx let x = t +
2
⇒ I= ∫
−1/ 4
g  t +  dt
 2
3
 1 1 1   1   1  1 1  1
f  t +  = t3 + t + ⇒ f  f  t +   =  t3 + t  +  t3 + t  +
 2 4 2   2   4  4 4  2
 1 1
⇒ g  t +  = p(t) + where p(–t) + p(t) = 0
 2 2
1/ 4
1 1
⇒ I=
−1/ 4
∫ 2
dt =
4

2. Required area is
α α 
∫ ∫(
2  ex ln x + 1 − 1 − (x − 1)2 dx 
 0 1

)
1

−1 −1

n
1  r −1 r  n
1 n ( r
3. lim
n→∞
r =1
∑5n
⋅ n
C r 

 t =o
C∑ t ⋅ 3 t



=
n
∑
lim
→∞
r =1 5n
⋅ Cr 4 − 3r )

1  n n  1
= lim n 
n→∞ 5 
 r =1
n
∑
Cr 4r −
r =1
∑ n
Cr 3r  = lim n ( 5n − 4n ) = 1 .
 n→∞ 5


4. In triangle OA1A2 A8 O A3
2 R π/4 R
 π  2R − 4 1
cos   = =
4 2R 2
2
2
⇒ R = 4+2 2 A1 A2
Also Vertex of octagen
2 2
⇒ ( r + 1) − ( r − 1) = 4 + 2 2
⇒ 4r = 4 + 2 2 O1
r 1 A2
 1  (r–1)
⇒ r = 1 + 
 2 1O R 1

 3π 
5. f  = 2π
 2 

 3π 
⇒ f '   ⋅ g' ( 2π ) = 1
 2 
24 4
⇒ f ' ( x ) = 25(2) ( 2x − 3π ) + − sin x
3
 3π  7 3
⇒ f '   = ⇒ g' ( 2π ) =
 2  3 7

6. Let the age of friends be a, ar, ar2, r > 1 and money distributed is x, xr, xr2 respectively.
⇒ (1 + r + r2)x = (a(1 + r + r2) + a)t
Also after 3 years ar2 + 3 = 2(a + 3)
⇒ a(r2 – 2) = 3
x + 105 = (a + 3)t and xr + 15 = (ar + 3)t (given)
⇒ (1 + r)x + 120 = (a(1 + r) + 6)t ⇒ 2(a + 3)t = r2x – 120 = 2x + 210
⇒ (r2 – 2)x = 330
Using (r2 – 2)x = 330, a(r2 – 2) = 3 ⇒ x = 110a
⇒ 110a + 105 = (a + 3)t ⇒ 5(22a + 21) = (a + 3)t
and 110ar + 15 = (ar + 3)t ⇒ 5(22ar + 3) = (ar + 3)t
22a + 21 a + 3
⇒ = ⇒ 5ar = 7a + 6
22ar + 3 ar + 3
Where 5ar = 7a + 2(a(r2 – 2)) {Using a(r2 – 2) = 3}
3
⇒ 2r2 – 5r + 3 = 0 ⇒ r = . Hence a = 12 years
2

7. Given cn = a1 + a2 + a3 + ….. + an
where a1, a2, ….., an are in A.P. with d = 2
and dn = b1 + b2 + b3 + …… + bn
where b1, b2, b3, ….., bn are in A.P. with d = 2
Also (an, cn) lies on y = px2 + qx + r
Now cn = pan2 + qan + r ….. (1)
cn – 1 = pan2−1 + qan−1 + r ….. (2)
∴ From (1) and (2), we get
cn – cn – 1 = p ( an2 − an2−1 ) + q ( an − an−1 )
⇒ an = p ( an + an−1 )( an − an−1 ) + q ( an − an−1 )
an = ( an − an−1 ) p ( an + an−1 ) + q ….. (3)
( an − an−1 = d)

y
10. y = t(1 – 3t2) ⇒ t = ⇒ at A, t = – 1
x
1 − 9t 2 4
Slope of tangent at A, m = =− .
−6t 3
⇒ Equation of tangent at A ⇒ 3y + 4x + 2 = 0
Since tangent passes through the point B(t1) hence
3(t1 – 3t13) + 4(1 – 3t12) + 2 = 0
2
⇒ (t1 + 1)2(3t1 – 2) = 0 ⇒ t1 =
3
 1 2
⇒ B ≡ − , −  .
 3 9

1 1
11. Slope of tangents at x = 0 and m1 = and m2 = –
3 3
π
⇒ tan φ = .
3

SECTION – B

1
2. (A) We have f(x) =
lncos−1 x
For domain of f(x), ln ( cos −1 x ) > 0 ⇒ cos−1 x > 1 and cos−1 x ≤ π
⇒ cos π ≤ x ≤ cos 1 ⇒ –1 ≤ x < cos 1
Hence number of integers in the domain of f(x) are 2 i.e., –1 and 0
G G
(B) Vector normal to the plane is n = ˆi − 3ˆj + 2kˆ and vector along the line is V = 2iˆ + ˆj − 3kˆ
G G
x⋅v 2−3−6 7
Now sin θ = G G = =
x v 14 14 14
Hence cosec θ = 2
−4

∫ (3 − x ) tan ( 3 − x 2 ) dx . Put (x + 5) = t, we get

2
(C) We have J =
−5
1 1
J = ∫ ( 3 − ( t − 5 ) ) tan ( 3 − ( t − 5 ) ) dt ∫ ( −22 + 10t − t ) tan ( −22 + 10t − t 2 ) dt
2 2 2
=
0 0
−1

∫ ( 6 − 6x + x ) tan ( 6x − x 2 − 6 ) dx . Put (x + 2) = z, we get

2
Now K =
−2
1

∫ ( 6 − 6 ( z − 2) + ( z − 2) ) tan ( 6 ( z − 2) − ( z − 2) − 6 ) dz
2 2
K=
0
1

∫ ( 22 − 10z + z ) tan ( −22 + 10z − z2 ) dz

0
Hence (J + K) = 0

SECTION – C

 1   7  7 
1. A  − , − 4, 0  , B  0, − , 1 and C  , 0, 8  .
 3   2  3 
56
Hence V =
18

10
2. 1+ ∑ (3 ·
r =1
r 10
Cr + r · 10 Cr ) =4 10
+ 10 × 29

⇒ α = 1 and β = 5
⇒k>4

n−6
3. x= n
C6 ( 31/ 3 ) ( 4−1/ 3 )6
( 4−1/ 3 )x −6 x 1
Cn− 6 ( 31/ 3 )
6 n −12 / 3 −1
y= n
and = ⇒ (12 ) = (12 ) ⇒ n = 9
y 12

4. z2 + z 3 = 0

n 2n+1
5. Let y = ∑
r =0
2n+1
Cr = ∑
r =n +1
2n+1
Cr

⇒ 2y = 22n+1 ⇒ y = 22n
⇒n=3

Paper 1
75 in Top 200, 159 in Top 500 Ranks & 3542 t o t a l s e l e c t i o n s i n I I T - J E E 2 0 1 2

Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 210

P l e a s e r e a d t h e i n s t r u c t i o n s c a r e f u l l y. Y o u a r e a l l o t t e d 5 m i n u t e s
specifically for this purpose.
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES

Y o u a r e n o t a l l o we d t o l e a v e t h e E xa m i n a t i o n H a l l b e f o r e t h e e n d o f
the test.

INSTRUCTIONS
A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Parts.
3. Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
4. Each part is further divided into two sections: Section-A & Section-C
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.

B. Filling of OMR Sheet

C. Marking Scheme For All Three Parts.

(i) Section-A (01 to 10) contains 10 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer.
Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and – 1 mark for wrong answer.

Section-A (11 to 15) contains 5 multiple choice questions which have more than one correct
answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.

(ii) Section-C (01 to 05) contains 5 Numerical based questions with answers as numerical value
and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.

Name of the Candidate

Enrolment No.

Useful Data

PHYSICS
Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s2

Planck constant h = 6.6 ×10−34 J-s

Charge of electron e = 1.6 × 10−19 C

Mass of electron me = 9.1 × 10−31 kg

Permittivity of free space ε0 = 8.85 × 10−12 C2/N-m2

Density of water ρwater = 103 kg/m3

Atmospheric pressure Pa = 105 N/m2

Gas constant R = 8.314 J K−1 mol−1

CHEMISTRY

Gas Constant R = 8.314 J K−1 mol−1

Atomic No: H=1, He = 2, Li=3, Be=4, B=5, C=6, N=7, O=8,

Physics PART – I

SECTION – A
Single Correct Choice Type

This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. Two large holes are cut in a metal sheet as shown. If this is heated,
which distance will decrease :
(A) BC (B) AB
(C) AC (D) None of these

2. 2 gms steam at 100° is mixed with 5 gm ice at – 40°C in an ideal calorimeter. The final
temperature of the system will be (Given Lv = 500 cal/gm; Sice = 0.5 cal/gm°C, Sw = 1 cal/gm °C;
Lf = 80 cal/gm) :
(A) 0°C (B) 100°C
(C) 80°C (D) 50°C

3. Consider the cyclic process ABCDA, as shown in figure, performed

on a sample of n moles of an ideal gas. Net heat supplied to the
gas during the process is 4nRT0. Then the work done during the
process AB will be :
(A) 3nRT0
(B) nRT0 (4 + An3)
(C) nRT0 (3 + An3)
(D) nRT0 (2 + An3)

Rough work

4. A ball is hung vertically by a thread of length '' from a point 'P' of an

inclined wall that makes an angle 'α' with the vertical. The thread with
the ball is then deviated through a small angle 'β' ( α > β ) and set free.
Assuming the wall to be perfectly elastic, the period of such pendulum
is :
A  −1  α  
(A) 2 sin  −  
g   β 
A π −1  α  
(B) 2  + sin   
g 2  β 
A
(C) π
g
A
(D) 2π
g

5. For a static fluid in a long horizontal pipe, the level in the vertical tubes is best represented by :
(A) (B)

6. The collector plate in an experiment on photoelectric effect is kept

vertically above the emitter plate. Light source is put on and a
saturation photocurrent is recorded. A magnetic field is switched
on which is in horizontal rightward direction :

(A) The photocurrent will increase (B) The photocurrent may decrease
(C) The photocurrent will always remain same (D) None of these

Rough work

7. An uncharged capacitor of capacitance C is connected with an ideal cell. The emf of the cell is
slowly increased from 0 to V (by some mechanism) . The total energy taken from the cell in the
process of charging of the capacitor is (assume the resistance of the circuit is very small):
1
(A) CV2 (B) 2CV2
2
1
(C) CV2 (D) CV2
4

8. Two hollow-core solenoids, A and B, are connected by a wire

and separated by a large distance, as shown in the diagram.
Two bar magnets, 1 and 2, are suspended just above the
solenoids. If the magnet 1 is dropped through solenoid A as
shown, then the magnet 2 will simultaneously be
(A) Attracted by a magnetic force towards solenoid B
(B) Repelled by a magnetic force away from solenoid B
(C) Repelled by an electric force away from solenoid B
(D) Unaffected by solenoid B.

9. In the given circuit find the ratio of i1 to i2. Where i1 is the

initial (at t = 0) current, and i2 is steady state (at t = ∞) current
through the battery :
(A) 1.0 (B) 0.8
(C) 0.94 (D) 1.06

10. Two parallel vertical metallic rails AB and CD are separated by 1 m.

They are connected at the two ends by resistance R1 and R2 as shown
in the figure. A horizontal metallic bar L of mass 0.2 kg slides without
friction, vertically down the rails under the action of gravity. There is a
uniform horizontal magnetic field of 0.6T perpendicular to the plane of
the rails. It is observed that when the terminal velocity of 4 m/s is
attained, power dissipated in R1 is 2 W. Then the power dissipated in
R2 at this moment will be :
(A) 2 W (B) 4 W
(C) 8 W (D) 6 W

Rough work

Multiple Correct Answer(s) Type

This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONE or MORE are correct.

11. In each of the following diagrams, the magnetic field in the circular region is inside the plane of
the paper and is increasing with time. Four different shaped metallic conductors 'PQR' are placed
as shown. The end P will be more positively charged compared to R in: (Q is the centre in options
AB).
(A) (B)
⊗B ⊗B
R
P Q P Q R

12. Assume that the nuclear binding energy per nucleon (B/A)
versus mass number (A) is as shown in the figure. Consider a
nucleus of A = 110. Fission of this nucleus results into 2
fragments. Which of the following could possibly be the mass
number of the resulting nuclei?

(A) 55 and 55 (B) 70 and 40

Rough work

13. Three identical bodies are at temperature T1, T2 and T3

having e1, e2 and e3 as their respective emissivities. The
thermal spectrum obtained for them is as shown in the
diagram. Choose the correct order of temperatures and
emissivities:
(A) T1 > T2 > T3
(B) T1 < T2 < T3
(C) e1 < e2 < e3
(D) e1 > e2 > e3

14. When photons of energy 4.25 eV strike the surface of a metal A, the ejected photoelectrons have
maximum kinetic energy, TA expressed in eV and de Broglie wavelength λA. The maximum kinetic
energy of photoelectrons liberated from another metal B by photons of energy 4.70 eV is
TB = (TA – 1.50 eV). If the de Broglie wavelength of these photoelectrons is λB = 2λA, then :
(A) the work function of A is 2.25 eV (B) the work function of B is 4.20 eV
(C) TA = 2.00 eV (D) TB = 2.75 eV

15. An ideal monoatomic gas undergoes a process in which P = 3V3. Choose the correct statements.
(A) If volume increases then temperature will also increase
(B) If temperature of the gas decreases, then pressure must also decrease.
(C) For expansion, heat will have to be supplied to the gas.
(D) If temperature increases then work done by gas is positive.

Rough work

SECTION – C

Integer Answer Type

X Y Z W

0 0 0 0

6 6 6 6

7 7 7 7

8 8 8 8

9 9 9 9

1. A string of length 2L, obeying Hooke’s Law, is stretched so that its extension is L. The speed of
the tranverse wave travelling on the string is v. If the string is further stretched so that the
extension in the string becomes 4L. The speed of transverse wave travelling on the string will be
x 2 v . Calculate the value of x.

2. A train moves towards a stationary observer with a speed of 34 ms–1. The train sounds a whistle
and its frequency registered by the observer is f1. If the train’s speed is reduced to 17 ms–1, the
f 10 + x
frequency registered is f2. If the speed of sound is 340 ms–1, then the ratio 1 is .
f2 18
Calculate the value of x.

3. A tuning fork A of frequency as given by the manufacturer is 512 Hz is being tested using an
accurate oscillator. It is found that they produce 2 beats per second when the oscillator reads 514
Hz and 6 beats per second when it reads 510 Hz. The actual frequency of the fork in Hz is (510 +
x). Calculate the value of x.

4. A person runs with a speed u towards a bicycle moving away from him with speed v. The person
approaches his image in the mirror fixed at the rear bicycle with a speed of x(u – v). Calculate the
value of x.

5. Two transparent slabs have the same thickness as shown. One is made of material A of
refractive index 1.5. The other is made of two materials B and C with thickness in the ratio 1 : 2.
The refractive index of C is 1.6. If a monochromatic parallel beam passing through the slabs has
10 + x
the same number of wavelengths inside both, the refractive index of B is . Then x is:
10

Rough work

Chemistry PART – II

SECTION – A

Straight Objective Type

This section contains 10 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 10. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. A compound (X) has the molecular formula C3H7NO gives Y on reaction with KOH and Br2.
Compound Y responds to mustard oil reaction. Y upon treatment with HNO2 evolves N2 and gives
an alcohol Z which gives iodoform test. The compound X can be
(A) C2H5CONH2 (B) CH3CONH2
(C) CH3COONH4 (D) C2H5NO

2. For the reaction sequence

PhSO ClNaF / DMSO


2

→ A  →B

NO2
The compound B will be
(A) OH (B) F
F

NO2 NO 2
(C) OH (D) F

F F
NO2 NO2

3. In an experiment 11 g PCl3 is made to react with 1.34 g of O2 to yield POCl3. If 11.2 g of POCl3
were isolated. What is the percentage yield.
(A) 60 (B) 70
(C) 80 (D) 90
4. What is the molar mass of the gas if the density of a gas sample is 0.714 g/L at STP?
(A) 24 (B) 16
(C) 36 (D) 42
Rough Work

5. What is the root mean square speed of Argon atoms at 27°C.

(A) 200 m/s (B) 341 m/s
(C) 433 m/s (D) 510 m/s

6. Find the wavelength of light emitted by an electron during a transition from n = 3 to n = 1 level in
the C+5 ion. Given Rh = 1.097 × 107 m–1.
(A) 2.85 nm (B) 8.76 nm
(C) 6.40 nm (D) 12.0 nm

7. What is the shape of ClNO

(A) V- shaped (B) T – shaped
(C) Triangle (D) Linear

8. NCl3 is hydrolysed by water to produce

(A) NH2NH2 and HCl (B) NH2Cl + HOCl
(C) NH4OH + HOCl (D) NH2OH + HCl

9. Select the incorrect choice :

10. The reduction potential of Cu+ | Cu half cell if SRP of Cu+ | Cu and SRP of Cu2+| Cu+ are 0.34 and
0.16 V respectively, will be
(A) 0.36 V (B) 0.43 V
(C) 0.68 V (D) 0.52 V
Rough Work

Multiple Correct Choice Type

This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.

11. On the basis of the following graph (P-V) graph, choose the correct statements.
P

A B
1 atm

0.5 atm C

V
202 402
(A) The entropy change for the over all process is zero
(B) For the over all process ∆ H > ∆ E
(C) Total work done, W = q
(D) Total work = – 620.77 J

M
12. 150 ml Ba (MnO4)2 in acidic medium can oxidise completely.
10
(A) 150 ml of 1 M Fe+2 (B) 50 ml of 1 M FeCrO4
(C) 25 ml of 1 M K2Cr2O7 (D) 100 ml of 2 M C2O4−2 ions

13. Which of the following is/are produced during heating of Gypsum?

(A) CaO (B) Ca(OH)2
(C) CaSO4 (D) Plaster of Paris

14. Which of the following solution will be acidic

(A) 0.1 M CH3COONa (B) 0.1 M FeSO4
(C) 0.1 M K2SO4Al2(SO4)3.24H2O (D) 0.1 M (NH4)2SO4

15. If temperature of a gas is raised, which of the following would be true?

(A) Fraction of the molecules possessing most probable velocity will increase
(B) Fraction of the molecules possessing most probable velocity will decrease
(C) Fraction of possessing very low velocity will decrease
(D) Fraction possessing very high velocity will increase
Rough Work

SECTION – C

Integer Answer Type

X Y Z W

0 0 0 0

6 6 6 6

7 7 7 7

8 8 8 8

9 9 9 9

1. An organic compound (A) (m.f. C10H20) on reductive ozonolysis gives 2-methyl butanal. Then total
no. of steroisomers possible for A is

2. If the half life of a radioactive sample is 2n years. Then the fraction of a sample which will remain
1
decayed after n years is . Then the value of x will be
x
3. A mixture containing x millimoles of NaOH and y milli moles of Na2CO3 requires.
(A) 4 ml of 1 N HCl using phenolphthalien indicator
(B) 5 ml of 1 N HCl using methyl orange indicator
The value of x/y will be

Rough Work

4. A graph between log t1/2 and log a (abscissa), a being the initial concentration of A in the reaction.
A → Product is depicted in figure.

log t1/2
Slope = – 2

log a
d[ A ]
= k [A]
n
The rate law is −
dt
The value of n will be
5. For the reaction B + + H2 O YZZ
ZZZ X + –6
Z BOH + H , kb for BOH is 1 × 10 . If the value of hydrogen
constant is 1 × 10–x. Then value of x is
Rough Work

Mathematics PART – III

SECTION – A

Straight Objective Type

This section contains 10 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 10. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. If x = 2 is a real root of cubic equation f ( x ) = 3x3 + bx 2 + bx + 3 = 0 then the value of

e ( ) −1
f x
lim =
1 2x − 1
x→
2
27 −27
(A) (B)
4 4
−27 27
(C) (D)
8 8

2. If x ∈ [−20°, −5°] such that f ( x ) = tan ( 50° + x ) + cos ( 50° + x ) + cot ( 50° + x ) then global maximum
value of f ( x ) is
121 123
(A) (B)
12 13
121 119
(C) (D)
4 12

5
3. The number of solution of equation |z| + |z – 1| + |z – 2| + |z – 3| = 4 and zz − z − z = where z
4
is complex number is
(A) zero (B) one
(C) two (D) infinite

Rough work

4. Let us consider a real values bijective function g(x) such that

( )
g′ ( x ) = sin2 ( x + π / 4 ) + 2cos ( x − π / 4 ) and g ( π / 4 ) = 3 then value of g−1 ′ (3) is
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) none of these

( x − 1)( x − 2)...... ( x − 100 ) 

102 1 1 1 
5. ∫0  x − 1
+
x − 2
+ .....
x − 100 
dx = p − q then p + q is equal to

(A) 203 (B) 201

6. Let ellipse 4x2 + 16y2 = 64 and circle x2 + y2 = r2 have common tangent touching at A and B
respectively. Maximum length of AB can be
(A) 4 (B) 3
(C) 2 (D) 5

7. f(x) is defined for x > −1 and has a continuous derivate. If f satisfies f(0) = 1, f′(0) = 0;
(1 + f(x)) f′′(x) = 1 + x. If x is positive then f′(x) is
(A) always positive (B) always negative
(C) always non-negative (D) none of these

8. Let f ( x ) = x 4 − x3 − 16x 2 + 4x + 48 then the value of P so that equation f ( x + p ) = 0, have 8 real

and distinct zeros
(A) P > –3 (B) P > 3
(C) P < –3 (D) – 3 < P < 3

9. a, b, c denote respectively the sides BC, CA, AB of a triangle ABC. Given that the quadratic
equations ax2 + bx + c = 0 and 15x2 + 8x + 17 = 0 have the same set of roots, the value of
r1 + r2 + r3 − r
where R denotes the circumradius, r denotes the radius of the incircle and r1, r2, r3
R
denote the radii of the ex–circles of triangle ABC is
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 5 (D) 4

Rough work

10. T1 and T2 are the tangents to the hyperbola x2 − 2y2 = 16 that are perpendicular to the line
x – y + 10 = 0. Find the perpendicular distance between T1 and T2
(A) 1 (B) 4
(C) 6 (D) none of these

Multiple Correct Answer(s) Type

This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONE or MORE are correct.

 x +3 
ln 
11. Consider the graph of the function y = e  x +1  then which of the following is correct
(A) Range of the function is (1,∞ ) (B) f ( x ) has no zeroes
(C) Graph lies completely above the x-axis (D) Domain of f is ( −∞, −3 ) ∪ ( −1, ∞ )

12. P ( x ) is a fourth degree polynomial such that

(1) P ( − x ) = P ( x ) ∀ x ∈ R ,
(2) P ( x ) > 0 ∀ x ∈ R ,
(3) P ( 0 ) = 1 ,
(4) P( x ) has exactly two local minima at x1 and x2 such that | x1 − x 2 | = 2.
The line y = 1 touches the curve at a certain point Q and the enclosed area between the line and
8 2 P ( x ) − g ( x ) − g ( −x )
the curve is . Let g(x) = Ax2 + Bx + C (A ≠ 0) such that lim is finite and
15 x →0 x2
is equal to the slope of the tangent of g(x) at x = −1. Also, P(x) and g(x) have common tangent at
Q parallel to x-axis.
1 1
(A) the value of A is − (B) the value of B + C is −
2 2
(C) the value of A + C is 1 (D) the value of A + B + C is –1

Rough work

13. Let S represents a circle of minimum radius in Argand plane which passes through z1 and z2 ,
then
(A) Equation of S is ( z − z1 )( z − z2 ) + ( z − z2 )( z − z1 ) = 0
(B) Centre of S is represented by ( z1 + 2z2 )
z1 − z2
(C) Radius of S is
2
( z2 − z ) ( z − z1 )
(D) Let z be any complex number lying on circle S then =± i
z2 − z z − z1

14. Let S1 = x 2 − 10x + y 2 + 16 = 0, and S2 be the image of S1 w.r.t. the line x – y = 0 and S3 be the
image of S2 w.r.t. y = 0. Let S′ is the circle which cut all three circles orthogonally and S′′ is the
circle of minimum radius which contain all three circles then
(A) equation of circle S′ is x2 + y2 = 16 (B) equation of circle S′′ is x2 + y2 = 64
(C) the radius of S′ is 4 (D) the radius of S′′ is 8

15. A set of lines x + y – 2 + λ1 (2x + y – 3) = 0 represents incident rays on an ellipse S = 0 and

2x + 3y – 23 + λ2 (2x – y – 3) = 0 represents the set of reflective rays from the ellipse where
λ1, λ2 ∈ R. If P(3, 7) is a point on the ellipse normal at which meets the major axis at N.
5
(A) Eccentricity of ellipse is
2 2 +1
(B) N divides line segment joining two foci in the ratio 2 2 : 1
(C) Area of triangle formed by point P and two foci 5
5
(D) Eccentricity of ellipse is
2 2 −1

Rough work

SECTION – C

Integer Answer Type

X Y Z W

0 0 0 0

6 6 6 6

7 7 7 7

8 8 8 8

9 9 9 9

1. If circum radius of ∆ABC is 3 cm and its area is 6 cm2 and DEF is triangle formed by foot of
perpendicular drawn from A, B, C on sides BC, CA, AB respectively then perimeter of ∆ DEF in
cm is __________.

2. Let A and B are two sets such that

A = {x : f(x) = [x2], ([] denotes GIF) is discontinuous in [0, 2] }
B = {x : f(x) = [tan2x] [cot2x] ([.] denotes GIF) is non differentiable in ( 0, π)}
If m be the total number of onto function from A to B then total number of divisors of m is
__________.

3. If two lines x + y = |a| and ax = y + 1 intersect at a point which lies in fourth quadrant then
minimum length of focal chord of the parabola y2 = 4a2x + 4 |a −1| x + 5 is __________.

9
4. ∑ 20
c 2r 20
c 2r + 2 =
a
a +1
( 39
c 21 − 19
c10 )
r =0
and xy = 4a then total number of ordered pair solution (x, y) where x, y ∈ I+ is __________.

5. Let n be the number of triangles formed by the line segment of lengths 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7. If x and y
are two positive integers whose LCM is (n + 2)
then total no of ordered pair solution (x, y) will be __________.

Rough work

FULL TEST –IV

(Paper-1)
Q. No. PHYSICS CHEMISTRY MATHEMATICS
1. D A C
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES

2. B B A
3. C D A
4. D B D
5. C C B
6. B A C
7. A A A
8. A C C
9. C C D
10. D D B
11. B, D D B, C, D
12. A, B A, B, C A, B, D
13. A, C A, C, D A, C, D
14. A, B, C B, C, D A, B, C, D
15. A, B, C, D B, C, D A, B, C
1. 2 6 4
2. 9 2 9
3. 6 3 3
4. 2 3 8
5. 3 8 9

Physics PART – I
SECTION – A

1. On heating a metal sheet, distance between any two points increases.

2. Heat taken by ice to convert to water at 100°C fully :

5 ×(40) × (0.5) + 5 × 80 + 5 × (100) × (1) = 1000 cal.
Heat given by steam to condense fully :
2 × 500 = 1000 cal. Hence everything will be water at 100°C.

3. WAB + WBC + WCD + WDA = ∆Q {∵ ∆U = 0 in cyclic process}

 V 
⇒ WAB + 0 + nRT0 ln  0  + nR (2T0 – T0) = 4nRT0 {∵ DA is isobaric process}
 3V0 
get WAB = nRT0 ln3 + 3nRT0

4. As α > β , no collision will occur with the wall and the ball is doing SHM
with amplitude β only.

T = 2π .
g

5. As the fluid is at rest; pressure at the same horizontal level in a connected fluid is same if it is at
equilibrium.

6. The magnetic field will make electrons revolve around the direction of B. It may cause some
electrons not to reach the collector plate. If it is very strong; it will not let electrons reach the
collector. As the magnitude is not given, hence photo current may decrease.
V
1
7. The work done by cell =
∫ V dq = ∫ CV dV = 2 CV .
0
2

8. As the magnet-1 falls into solenoid A, the magnetic

flux associated with solenoid A increases. From
Lenz's law, induced current in solenoid A will oppose
this increase in magnetic flux. Hence direction of
induced current in solenoids is as shown.
The nature of magnetic field produced by solenoid B is
as shown. Therefore magnet 2 will be attracted by
magnetic field due to solenoid B.

9. at t = 0
(4 + 2) × 6
⇒ Req. = + 7 = 3 + 7 = 10 Ω
6+6

10
⇒ i1 = = 1 A.
10
at t = ∞
4×6
⇒ 7 + = 9.4
6+4

10 i1 1
⇒ i2 = so = = 0.94
9.4 i2 (10 / 9.4)

10. Power delivered by mg is converted to the heat dissipated in R1 and R2

⇒ mgv = PR1 + PR2

solving, we get PR2 = 6W

11. The changing magnetic field inside the plane produces electric lines of
forces in anticlockwise direction.
There is no direct connection in the shown conductors, so electrons,
experiencing electric force, try to accumulate as shown.
All electrons accumulate at Q symmetrically
VP = VR

All electrons accumulate at R

VP > VR

electrons accumulate
at P VP < VR

electrons accumulate at R
VP > VR

12. Fission of a nucleus is feasible only if the binding energy of daughter nuclei is more than the
parent nucleus.
A = 55 will have more BE than 110.
A = 70 will have same BE as 110 but A = 40 will have more B.E.
A = 100 will have same BE as 110 but A = 10 will have lesser B.E.
A = 90 will have same BE as 110 but A = 20 will have lesser B.E.

1
13. λ∝ ⇒ T1 > T2 > T3 as λ1 < λ2 < λ3 (Wien's law)
T
Now as the area under the curve Eλ and λ gives the intensity; so

σ Ae3T34 > σ Ae2T24 {Areas of the bodies are same, given}

Now as T3 < T2 ⇒ e3 > e2.
14. hv = K.E. (T) + work function (W)
⇒ hv = T + W
⇒ 4.25 eV = TA + WA (for Metal A)
⇒ 4.70 eV = TB + WB (for Metal B)
Since TB = (TA – 1.5) eV
Also λ = h/p
h  p2 
⇒ λ= ∵ = T = K.E.
2mT  2m 
λA TB
⇒ =
λB TA
1
Since λA =λB
2
⇒ TA = 4TB
⇒ TB = TA – 1.50 gives
TB = 4TB – 1.5
⇒ TB = 0.5 eV
⇒ TA = 2 eV
⇒ WA = 2.25 eV
⇒ WB = 4.20 Ev

15. P = V3 , for ideal gas

PV = nRT
(A) relation between V and T
V × (3V3) = nRT
 nR 
⇒ V4 =  4
T ⇒ V ∝ T
 3 
(B) Relation between P and T
1/ 3
P
PV = nRT ⇒ P   = nRT
3
⇒ P4/3 ∝ T

(C) For expansion

V → increases
work-done : positive
internal energy : increases
Hence, heat will have to supplied to the gas.
(D) As T ∝ V4
with increase in temperature, volume increases
Hence work done is positive.
SECTION –C

T
1. v=
µ
T can be calculated by using Hooke’s Law and on stretching µ also changes.

 340  10
2. f1 =  f = f
 340 − 34  9

 340  20
and f2 =  f = f
 340 − 17  19
10
f1 19
and = 9 =
f2 20 18
19

3. For 1st reading of oscillator

fA = (514 ± 2)Hz
⇒ fA = 516 Hz or 512 Hz
For 2nd reading of oscillator
fA = (510 ± 6) Hz
⇒ fA = 516 Hz or 504 Hz
⇒ A has a frequency of 516 Hz

4. Velocity of approach of man towards the bicycle = (u – v)

Hence velocity of approach of image towards bicycle is 2(u – v).

5. For A :
(1.5) t
Total number of waves = ....(1)
λ
 Totalnumber   optical path length 
∵  = 
 of waves   wavelength 
For B and C :
 1  2t 
nB   (1.6)  
Total number of waves = 3 + 3 ....(2)
λ λ
Equating (1) and (2)
⇒ nB = 1.3

Chemistry PART – II

SECTION – A

1. Reaction of X with Br2 + KOH suggests that X is an amide. Evolution of N2 and formation of
alcohol suggests that Y is a 1° aliphatic amine. Iodoform test of Z suggests that it is an alcohol
containing H C CH group.
3

OH
Br2 +KOH
HNO2
C2H5CONH2 
→ C2H5NH2  → N2 + CH3 CH2OH
(Y)
I2 + NaOH
CS2
C2H5N C S
HCOONa + CHI3

2. SO 2Ph
OH O F

PhSO Cl NaF / DMSO


2

→  →

NO2 NO2 NO2

(A) (B)
F– is very reactive unsolvated which can displace PhSO3− which being a good leaving group in
presence of strong withdrawing group —NO2.

3. 1
PCl3 + O2 → POCl3
2
11 1.34
137.3 32
= 0.0801 = 0.0419 0.0801
Limiting reagent
Moles of POCl3 formed = 0.0801
Mass of POCl3 = 0.0801 × 153.3
= 12.3 g
11.2
Percentage yield = × 100 = 91%
12.3

4. d = 0.714 g/L at STP

⇒ m = 0.714 g T = 273 K
P = 1 atm V=1L
PV 1× 1
n= = = 4.46 × 10 −2
RT 0.0821× 273
mass of this one litre sample is known from density
0.714
molar mass of the gas, M = = 16g / mole
4.46 × 10−2

3RT 3 × 8.314 × 300

5. Urms = = = 432.78 ≈ 433
M 0.03995
As molar mass of Ar = 39.95 g/mol
= 0.03995 kg/mol
1 1 1
6. = Z2Rh  2 − 2 
λ  n1 n2 
1 1
= 62 × 1.097 × 107  2 − 2 
1 3 
8 
= 36 × 1.097 × 107   m−1
9 
λ = 2.85 nm
7.
N

Cl O
Central N-atom is bonded to two other atoms and has one l.p., the electron pair arrangement is
trigonal planar. The C − N − O bond angle is about 120° (we expect it to be slightly less than 120
because of greater lp-bp-repulsions) and the molecule is V-shaped.

8. NCl3 + 4H2O → NH4 OH + 3HOCl

Cu+2 + 2e− → Cu, ∆G1 = −2F × 0.34

10. Cu+ → Cu+2 + e− ∆G2 = F × 0.16

Cu+ + e− → Cu
∆G3 = ∆G1 + ∆G2 = −0.52 F
⇒ Ecu+ / Cu = 0.52 V

11. A B

C
Thus it is a cyclic process.
Hence, ∆E = 0, ∆H = 0, ∆S = 0
and ∆E = q + w (1st law)
∴0=q+w
or q = – w
Total work done = WA →B + WB → C + WC → A
V
∴ w = –P (VB – VA) + 0 + 2.303 nRT log C
VA
VC
= – (40 – 20) + 0 + 2.303 × 1 × 0.082 × log
VA
= – 6.13 litre-atmosphere
= – 620.77 J

12. Milli equivalent of Ba(MnO4)2 = Meq of Fe+2

= Meq of FeCrO4
= Meq of K2Cr2O7
2 [CaSO4 .2H2 O] 
0
120 C ∆ heated
13. −3H O
→ 2CaSO4 .H2 O →
−H O
2CaSO 4 
strongly
→ 2CaO + 2SO2 + O2
2 2
Plaster of Paris

14. In case of B, C and D, the salt are of weak base and strong acid which undergo hydrolysis to give
acidic solutions CH3COONa however, on hydrolysis gives basic solution.

15. On increasing temperature, the Maxwell curve of distribution of molecular velocity is flattened and
maximum is shifted to higher velocity.

T2
T2 > T1
dN
N

↑
Fraction

V→
Velocity

SECTION – C

1. CH3
O3
C10H20 
reductive
→ H3C CH2 CH CHO (C5H10O)

CH3 CH3

⇒ Structure of A H3C CH2 CH CH CH CH CH2 CH3

No. of stereoisomers of A = 6

3. x×1+y×1=4×1 Eq. (1)

x × 1 + 2y = 5 + 1 Eq. (2)
From Eq. (1) and Eq. (2) we get
y=1
x=3
⇒x/y=3
1
4. t1/2 ∝ 1−n
a
⇒ t1/2 = K a1–n
K–1 rate constant
Log t1/2 = log K + (1 – n) log a
Y = C + mx
Slope = (1– n) = –2
⇒n=3
K 10−14
5. Kh = w = −6
= 10−8
Kb 10

Mathematics PART – III

SECTION – A

1
1. 3x3 + bx2 + bx + 3 = 0 ⇒ 3 (x3 + 1) + bx (x + 1) = 0 has roots −1, 2, .
2
 1
3 ( x + 1)( x − 2 )  x − 
e ( ) −1
f x 2 2
3x + bx + bx + 3  2 3 3 −3 −27
So, lim = lim = lim = × × =
x→
1 2x − 1 x → 1 2x − 1 x→
1  1  2 2 2 8
2 2 2 2 x − 
 2 

1+ x
7. f′′(x) = . Also f′′(x) > 0 ⇒ f′(x) is increasing ⇒ f′(x) > f′(0) = 0 ∀ x > 0
1 + f(x)

8. When P < –3, F(x+p) will have 4 positive roots

a b c
9. We have = = ⇒ a = 15λ, b = 8λ, c = 17λ (λ being a positive constant)
15 8 17
2 2 2
Note that a + b = c
Triangle ABC is right angled
1
R = (17λ ) , ∆ = area of ∆ABC = 60λ2
2
s = 20λ, s − a = 5λ, s − b = 12λ, s − c = 3λ
∆ ∆ ∆ ∆
r1 + r 2 + r 3 − r = + + − = 12λ + 5λ + 20λ − 3λ = 34λ
s−a s−b s−c s
r1 + r 2 + r3 − r 34λ
⇒ = ×2 = 4
R 17λ

10. Any line perpendicular to x – y +10 = 0 is of the form x + y = k

If this line is a tangent to the hyperbola x2 – 2y2 = 16, k2 = 16 (−1)2 − 8 = 8 (using c2 = a2m2 – b2)
∴ k = ± 2√2
∴ T1 and T2 are x + y + 2√2 = 0 and x + y − 2√2 = 0
4 2
∴ Distance between them = =4
2

x+3
11. y= > 0 ⇒ x < −3 or x > −1
x +1
x → −3 x→∞
or
y→0 y →1
( 0,1) ∪ (1, ∞ )

12. P ( x ) is an even function.

∴ (
P ( x ) = ax 4 + bx 2 + 1 and P′ ( x ) = 4ax 3 + 2bx = 2x 2ax 2 + b )
It has two minima. Hence, a > and b < 0.
−b
So, at x = ± , P ( x ) has minima.
2a

−b
2 = 2 ⇒ b = −2a
2a
∴ Maximum at (0, 1).
−b
a

∫ (1 − (ax ))
8 2 4 1
Also, =2 + bx 2 + 1 dx ⇒ b = −1 a =
15 2
0

P ( x ) − ( g ( x ) + g ( −x ))
Now, lim is finite.
x →0 x2
1
⇒ C= ,B = −1
2
1
Also, y = 1 is tangent to Ax 2 − x + = f (x)
2
1
⇒ Ax 2 − x + = 1 has equal roots
2
1
⇒ A=−
2

13. z1 and z2 are end points of diameter.

14. S′ is radical circle of S1, S2 and S. S′′ is circle of centre = radical centre and radius = 8 and r1 = 4,
r=8

5
15. 2ae = 5, 2a = (2√2 + 1) √5, e ⇒
2 2 +1
S1N PS1 40
Foci are S1(1, 1) and S2(4, 5) = = =2 2
S2N PS2 5

SECTION – C

1. Perimeter of ∆ DEF = a cos A + b cos B + c cos C

= R [sin 2A + sin 2B + sin 2C]
= R [4 sin A + sin B + sin C]
abc abc 2∆
= 4R = = = 4cm.
8R3 2R2 R

2. {  π π 3π 
A = A = 1, 2, 3,2 , B =  , , 
4 2 4 
} m = 34 − ( 3
)
c1 24 − 3 c 2 = 36 = 22 32 hence number of

divisors of m is 9

(1 + x )20 + (1 − x )20 20 20
4. = c0 + c2 x2 + 20
c4 x4 + − − − − − 20
c 20 x 20
2
20
= c0 x 20 + 20
c 2 x18 + 20
c 4 x16 + − − − − − 20
c 20
9 (1 + x )2n + (1 − x )2n 
 
So, ∑
r =0
20
c 2r 20
c 2r + 2 = coeff of x 22
in 
4
⇒ a = 10 ⇒ xy = 40 has total order pair (x, y) solution = 4 × 2 = 8

Paper 2
75 in Top 200, 159 in Top 500 Ranks & 3542 t o t a l s e l e c t i o n s i n I I T - J E E 2 0 1 2

Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 198

P l e a s e r e a d t h e i n s t r u c t i o n s c a r e f u l l y. Y o u a r e a l l o t t e d 5 m i n u t e s
specifically for this purpose.
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES

Y o u a r e n o t a l l o we d t o l e a v e t h e E xa m i n a t i o n H a l l b e f o r e t h e e n d o f
the test.

INSTRUCTIONS
A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Parts.
3. Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
4. Each part has only one section: Section-A.
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.

B. Filling of OMR Sheet

C. Marking Scheme For All Three Parts.

(i) Section-A (01 to 08) contains 8 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer.
Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and – 1 mark for wrong answer.

Section-A (09 to 14) contains 3 paragraphs with each having 2 questions. Each question carries
+3 marks for correct answer and – 1 mark for wrong answer.

Section-A (15 to 20) contains 6 multiple choice questions which have more than one correct
answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.

Name of the Candidate

Enrolment No.

Useful Data

PHYSICS
Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s2

Planck constant h = 6.6 ×10−34 J-s

Charge of electron e = 1.6 × 10−19 C

Mass of electron me = 9.1 × 10−31 kg

Permittivity of free space ε0 = 8.85 × 10−12 C2/N-m2

Density of water ρwater = 103 kg/m3

Atmospheric pressure Pa = 105 N/m2

Gas constant R = 8.314 J K−1 mol−1

CHEMISTRY

Gas Constant R = 8.314 J K−1 mol−1

Atomic No: H=1, He = 2, Li=3, Be=4, B=5, C=6, N=7, O=8,

Physics PART – I

SECTION – A
Single Correct Answer Type
This section contain 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. A conducting disc of radius R is rolling without sliding on a horizontal

surface with a constant velocity of centre of mass, V0. A uniform
magnetic field of strength B is applied normal to the plane of the disc.
Then the EMF induced between points B and C will be : (Take AB =
2R, D as centre and length AC = 3 R ).
3BV0R 5BV0R
(A) (B)
2 2
BV0R
(C) (D) 2BV0R
2

2. A cylindrical conducting piston of mass M slides smoothly

inside a long cylinder closed at one end, enclosing a certain
mass of a gas. The cylinder is kept with its axis horizontal. If
the piston is disturbed from its equilibrium position, it
oscillates simple harmonically. The period of oscillation will
be (process is isothermal)
Mh MA
(A) T = 2π (B) T = 2π
PA Ph
M
(C) T = 2π (D) T = 2π MPhA
PAh

Rough work

3. A rod of mass m and length L is hinged at its one end and

carries a block of same mass m at its lower end. Two springs
of same force constant k are installed at distances a = L/2
and b = L/4 respectively as shown in the figure. If the whole
arrangement lies in the vertical plane, the frequency of small
vibration is :

3mgL 5kL2 5kL2

+ 3mgL +
1 2 4 1 4
(A) (B)
2π 4mL 2 2π 4mL2
3
mgL 5kL2 3mgL 5kL2
+ +
1 2 16 1 2 16
(C) (D)
2π mL2 2π 4mL2
3 3

4. In radioactive chain reaction shown, initially at t = 0; only N0

molecules of A are present. At some time t = t, number of
molecules of A, B, C, D and E are N1, N2, N3, N4 and N5
respectively. Then the activity of B at this time t is :
(A) λ1 N 1 + λ4 N 4 – λ5 N 2 – λ3 N 2
(B) (λ3 + λ5 ) N 2
(C) λ1 N 1 + λ4 N 4 – λ5 N 5 – λ3 N 3
(D) (λ1 + λ4 – λ3 – λ5 )N 2

5. In the given arrangement, the loop is moved with constant

velocity v in a uniform magnetic field B in a restricted region of
width a. The time for which the emf is induced in the circuit is:
2b 2a
(A) (B)
ν ν
(a + b) 2(a − b)
(C) (D)
ν ν

Rough work

6. The wires A and B shown in the figure, are made of the same material and have
unequal radii of cross-section rA and rB. When a constant force F is applied as
shown, one of the wires breaks.
(A) A will break before B if rA > rB
(B) B will break before A if rA < rB
(C) Either A or B could break if rA = rB
(D) The lengths of A and B must be known to decide which wire will break

7. Two moving lumps of clay collide head on and stick together, the composite lump moving with a
kinetic energy which is 80% less than the initial kinetic energy of the two initial lumps. If the final
velocity of the lumps is 0.5 m/s, the relative velocity of the lumps before collision is
(A) at least 2 m/s (B) at most 2 m/s
(C) at least 1 m/s (D) at most 1 m/s
→
8. A uniform magnetic field B = B0 ˆj exists in space. A particle of mass m and charge q is projected
in the negative x-direction with speed v from a point (d, 0, 0). The maximum value of v for which
the particle does not hit the yz-plane is
Bqd 2Bqd
(A) (B)
m m
Bqd Bqd
(C) (D)
2m 3m

Rough work

Comprehension Type

This section contains 3 groups of questions. Each group has 2 multiple choice question based on a
paragraph. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is
correct.

Paragraph for Questions 9 and 10

In the shown figure, both the plates are moving. The

fluid between the plates moves such that fluid particles
in contact of the plates move with same velocity as the
plates. The fluid particles in the gap moves in a linear
velocity distribution function. As per Newton law of
viscosity, the tangential force F is given by
u − u0
F = ηA y
Where η = coefficient of viscosity = 10–2 kg -sec/m3,
A = Area of the plate = 1 m2, y = distance
between both the plates = 2 cm. The velocity
du
gradient is given by .
dy
9. If the tangential force F = 1 Newton and
u0 = 1 m/s, then the velocity profile for
the given figure is
(A) u = 100 y
(B) u = 200 y
(C) u = 200 y + 1
(D) u = 100 y + 1

10. In the previous question, the constant velocity of the upper plate would be :
(A) 1 m/s (B) 2 m/s
(C) 3 m/s (D) 4 m/s

Rough work

Paragraph for Questions 11 and 12

Consider a star and two planet system. The star has mass M. The
planet A and B have the same mass m, radius a and they revolve
around the star in circular orbits of radius r and 4r respectively (M > >
m, r >> a). Planet A has intelligent life, and the people of this planet
have achieved a very high degree of technological advance. They
wish to shift a geostationary satellite of their own planet to a
geostationary orbit of planet B. They achieve this through a series of
high precision maneuvers in which the satellite never has to apply
brakes and not a single joule of energy is wasted. S1 is a
geostationary satellite of planet A and S2 is a geostationary satellite
of planet B. Neglect interaction between A and B, S1 and S2, S1 and
B & S2 and A.

11. The ratio of time of revolution of planet A and planet B about star is :
T 1 T
(A) A = (B) A = 8
TB 8 TB
TA TA 1
(C) =4 (D) =
TB TB 4

1/ 3
m
12. If the radius of the geostationary orbit in planet A is given by rG = r   , then the time in which
M
the geostationary satellite will complete 1 revolution is
I. 1 planet year = time in which planet revolves around the star
II. 1 planet day = time in which planet revolves about its axis.
(A) I (B) II
(C) both I and II (D) neither I nor II.

Rough work

Paragraph for Questions 13 and 14

m
A horizontal spring block system executes SHM with amplitude
k
A = 10 cm initial phase φ = 0 and angular frequency ω. The mass of block M
is M = 13 kg and there is no friction between the block and the horizontal
surface. The spring constant being 2500 N/m.
Mean position

At t = t1 sec [for which ωt1 = φ1 = 30°]. A mass m = 12 kg is gently put on the block. [Assume that collision
between the block and the mass is perfectly inelastic and mass m remains stationary w.r.t. the block M
always]

Read above passage carefully and answer the following questions.

13. The new angular frequency of the system will be
(A) 10 rad/sec (B) 15 rad/sec
(C) 20 rad/sec (D) none

14. The total energy of system after collision at any moment of time is
(A) 4 joule (B) 8 joule
(C) 12 joule (D) none of these

Rough work

Multiple Correct Answer(s) Type

The section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONE or MORE are correct.

15. A thin paper of thickness 0.02 mm having refractive index 1.45 is pasted across one of the slits in
a Young’s double slit experiment. The paper transmits 4/9 of light falling on it.
(λlight = 600 nm).
(A) Amplitude of light wave transmitted through the paper will be 2/3 times that of incident wave.
(B) The ratio of maximum and minimum intensity in the fringe pattern will be 25.
(C) The total number of fringe crossing the centre if an identical paper is pasted on the other slit
is 15.
(D) The ratio of maximum and minimum intensity in the pattern will be 5.

16. In the figure, there is a conducting ring having resistance R A

placed in the plane of the paper in a uniform magnetic field B0.
The ring is rotating (in the plane of paper) about an axis passing r
through point O with constant angular speed ω in clockwise
direction. C B
(A) Point A will be at higher potential than O.
(B) The potential of point B and C will be same.
(C) The current in ring will be zero. ω
O
2B0 ω.r 2
(D) The current in the ring will be .
R

17. Which of the following will have a different time period (compared to the earth), if taken to the
moon?
(A) A simple pendulum.
(B) A spring mass system oscillating vertically in the gravitational field.
(C) A torsion pendulum.
(D) An hourglass clock, which is essentially a vessel filled with a liquid, emptying through a hole
in the bottom.

Rough work

18. Hydrogen atoms absorbs radiation of wavelength λ0 and consequently emit radiations of 6
different wavelengths of which three wavelengths are shorter than λ0.
(A) The final excited state of the atoms is n = 4
(B) The initial state of the atoms may be n = 2
(C) The initial state of the atoms may be n = 3
(D) There are three transitions belonging to Lyman series.

19. A particle is dropped from a height equal to the radius of the earth
above the tunnel dug through the earth as shown in the figure.
R
R : Radius of earth.
M : Mass of earth.
(A) Particle will oscillate through the earth to a height R on both sides
(B) Particle will execute simple harmonic motion
(C) Motion of the particle is periodic
C
2GM
(D) Particle passes the centre of earth with a speed =
R

20. In the L–R circuit shown in the figure, the key K is closed at time t = 0. L
(A) the current through R1 decreases with time, t
(B) the drop across L increases with t
R1 R2
1 E2 E
(C) the magnetic energy stored, in the steady state, equals L 2
2 R2 K

E E
(D) the total current through the battery is, in the steady state, +
R1 R2

Rough work

Chemistry PART – II

SECTION – A

Straight Objective Type

This section contains 8 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 8. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. In an amino acid the carboxylic acid group has Ka=10−4 and amino group has Kb= 10−5. The
isoelectric point of that amino acid is
(A) 4 (B) 5
(C) 6.5 (D) 4.5

2. Why do mercury batteries and lead acid batteries maintain approximate constant voltage?
(A) They never run down
(B) No aqueous species appear in the equation for the overall cell reaction
(C) Their E° values are very high
(D) The concentration of reagents in the half cell reactions remain approximately constant

3. CH3

OH
+
H
→ P.
The product P is

CH3
CH3
(A) (B)
OH

(C) CH2 (D)

O CH3

4. Which of the following quantities is proportional to the electron density at a point?

(A) the wave function (B) the de-Broglie wavelength
(C) the square of wave function (D) the reciprocal of the de Broglie wavelength
Rough Work

5. Which of the following will give maximum number of isomers?

2+
(A) Co (NH3 )4 Cl2  (B) Ni ( en )(NH3 )4 
2+
(C) Ni ( C2 O 4 )( en )2  (D) Cr ( SCN)2 (NH3 )4 
CH3 O
O CH2 CH3
6. A compound Hagemann’s Ester can be prepared by treating a mixture
O

of formaldehyde and ethylacetoacetate. Following steps are used

1. Itnramolecular aldol condensation.
2. Acid hydrolysis followed by decarboxylation
3. Michael addition
4. Aldol like condensation
What is the correct sequence of reactions:
(A) 1 → 2 → 3 → 4 (B) 4 → 3 → 1 → 2
(C) 4 → 3 → 2 → 1 (D) 2 → 3 → 4 → 1

7. Which of the following compounds on decomposition, releases two gases containing the same
elements?
(A) FeSO4 (B) FeCO3
(C) Fe(NO3)2 (D) Fe(ClO3)2

8. If the energy of H-atom in the ground state is – E, the velocity of photo-electron emitted when a
photon having energy Ep striked a stationary Li2+ ion in ground state, is given by:
2 ( Ep − E ) 2 (Ep + 9E )
(A) V = (B) V =
m m
2 (Ep − 9E ) 2 (Ep − 3E )
(C) V = (D) V =
m m

Rough Work

Comprehension Type

Paragraph for Question Nos. 9 to 10

Read the paragraph carefully and answer the following questions:

Osmosis is a process of movement of solvent particles from a region of
lower to higher concentration through semi permeable membrane. The
pressure exerted by the liquids on semi permeable membrane at the
time of equilibrium is called osmotic pressure. If the pressure more than
osmotic pressure is applied at the more concentration side, reverse
osmosis takes place, which is used for the purification of water
1.0 M NaCl H2O

9. Select the correct statement for the above diagram

(A) If semi permeable membrane is permeable to only H2O, level of liquid in the left arm will
decrease
(B) If membrane is permeable to H2O, Cl− and Na+ all, the level of liquid in two arms is different
(C) In the reverse osmosis process water will move from NaCl side to H2O side
(D) all of these

10. A water desalination plant is set up near a salt marsh containing water that is 0.1 NaCl. The
minimum pressure (P) that must be applied at 27°C to purify the water by reverse osmosis is
(A) P ≥ 4.926 atm (B) P ≥ 2.46 atm
(C) P ≤ 2.46 atm (D) P ≤ 4.926 atm
Rough Work

Paragraph for Question Nos. 11 to 12

Read the paragraph carefully and answer the following questions:

EDTA is used as a complexing agent in chemical analysis. Solution of EDTA usually containing the
disodium salt Na2H2 EDTA are also used to treat heavy metal poisoning. EDTA is a hexadentate ligand
having the following structure.
OOC CH2 CH2 COO
N CH2 CH2 N
OOC CH2 CH2 COO
Answer the following questions

11. A solution having equal moles of both reactant show the following equilibrium (Keq=10−3)
Pb2+(aq) + H2 EDTA2−(aq) Pb EDTA2−(aq) + 2H+(aq)
If concentration of complex at equilibrium is 10−3 M find the concentration of Pb2+ at equilibrium
maintained at pH = 3
(A) 10−9 (B) 10−6
−3
(C) 10 (D) None of these

12. EDTA forms stable complexes with many metal ions due to
(A) High negative charge density (B) Chelation
(C) Low negative charge density (D) Because it is very weak field ligand
Rough Work

Paragraph for Question Nos. 13 to 14

The aliphatic aldehyde ‘P’ and ‘Q’ react in the presence of aqueous K2CO3 to give compound ‘R’, which
upon treatment with HCN provides compound ‘S’. On acidification and heating, ‘S’ gives the product
shown below:
H3C
OH

H3C
O
O

13. The compounds P and Q respectively are

(A) O (B) O
H H
& &
H H H
O O
(C) O (D) O
H H
& &
H H H
O O

14. The compound S is

(A) O (B) O

H H

CN CN
(C) CN (D) CN

OH OH

Rough Work

Multiple Correct Choice Type

This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.

15.
Cl KCN(1 eq.) H /Pt
 →(A) →
2
B
Cl
Correct statement for product B is
(A) It is gives positive carbyl amine test
(B) It gives coupting reaction with diazonum salt
(C) It gives alcohol on treatment with nitrous acid
(D) It forms dibromo derivative with bromine water

CF CO H H O+ HIO
16. Trans-2-butene 
3 3
→ A →
3
B 
4
→C
The incorrect statement is
(A) The product B is optically active
(B) Product C gives the iodoform test
(C) Product C does not gives iodoform test
(D) Product A is an alcohol

17. For which of the following species it is possible to solve equation analytically and obtain an
equation for its electronic energy level
(A) He (B) Li2+
(C) H2 (D) H
Rough Work

18. LiF and NaBr are ionic salts that both form a face centred cubic lattice. The ionic radii of Li+, F−,
Na+ and Br− are 0.76, 1.33, 1.02 and 1.96 A0 respectively, which of the following statement is /
are true
(A) The atomic radius of Na is smaller than 1.0 A0
(B) The atomic radius of F is smaller than 1.33 A0
(C) Each Li+ ion in LiF has 8F− ions as nearest neighbors
(D) The lattice energy of LiF is greater in magnitude than the lattice energy of NaBr

19. Which of the following reaction (s) can generate a five membered ring as the major product?
(A) O
H2C
OH  
→
1. I2
CH 2. aq. NaHCO3

(B) O
H3C
+
ONa 
Br2
CH2 Cl2
→
(C) CH2 COOH
H2C P2 O5
 →
∆

CH2 COOH
(D) H 2C CH2 COOH
P2 O5
∆
→
H 2C CH2 COOH

20. Consider the following solid:

= A4+
= B2-

(distarted cubic structure)

Identify the correct statements regarding the above crystalline solid:
(A) The coordination number of A4+ is 8 (B) The coordination number of B2- is 3
(C) The formula of the solid is AB2 (D) Effective number of A2+ ions per unit cell is 2
Rough Work

Mathematics PART – III

SECTION – A

Single Correct Choice Type

This section contains 8 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 8. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. Consider P: y 2 = 4ax and RH: x 2 − y 2 = a2 . Let S = {m∈R/m is the slope of the normal to P that
touches the RH}. Then |S| is
(A) 0 (B) 2
(C) 4 (D) 6

2. Let x, y, z∈R. The number of integral values that x can take if x + y +z = 5 and x2 + y2 + z2 = 9, is
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) infinitely many

3. The number of solutions of the equations 2 sin2 x + sin2 2x = 2, sin 2x + cos 2x = tan x in [0, 4π]
satisfying the condition 2 cos2 x + sin x ≤ 2 is
(A) 4 (B) 6
(C) 8 (D) 2

1
4. If |z| = 1 and z ≠ 0, then the points z + lie on a
z
(A) straight line not through the origin (B) circle
(C) line segment lying on the x-axis (D) line segment lying on the y-axis

5. ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) (
The vectors x 2 − 1 i + 2 x 2 − 1 j − 3 x 2 − 1 k, 2x 2 − 1 i + 2x 2 + 1 j + x 2 k, and )
(3x 2
+ 2) i + ( x 2
+ 4) j + ( x 2
)
+ 1 k are non-coplanar. The number of real values that x cannot take
is
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 4

Rough work

f° f° f° ......° f ( x )
( ) dx
1/ n
6. Let f ( x ) = a − xn and g ( x ) = . Then ∫ equals
2m times
(g ( x ))
n
(1 + (g ( x )) ) n 1/ n

n −1
n −1
(A)
n 

n − 1
1 
1+ n 
x 
n
+C (B)
1
1− n
(
1 + x −n ) n +C
n +1 n
−1
(C)
1
1+ n
(
1 + xn ) n +C (D)
n
(
1 − xn ) n +1 +C

d2 y
7. If y = f ( x ) and z = g ( x ) , then equals
dz2
g′f ′′ − f ′g′′ g′f ′′ − f ′g′′
(A) (B)
( g′ ) 2
( g′ )3
g′f ′ − f ′′g′′ g′f ′′ + f ′g′′
(C) (D)
( g′ ) 3
( g′)3

 a | x2 − x − 6 |
 2
,x < 3
 6+x−x
  x 



 x tdt 
  ∫
8. The function f(x) =  b lim  3  ,x = 3
x →3  x − 3 

  
 
  

 x − [x]
,x > 3
 x−3
is continuous at x = 3. If f (3) ≠ 0, then {a, b} is (where [ ] denotes the greatest integer function)

1 
(A) {3, 1} (B)  ,1
3 
 1  1
(C) 1,  (D) 1, 
 3  9

Rough work

Comprehension Type

This section contains 3 paragraphs. Based upon paragraph 2 multiple choice questions have to be
answered. Each of these questions has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is
correct.

Paragraph for Question Nos. 9 to 10

Read the following write up carefully and answer the following questions:
1
Let Sr, r ∈ N, denote the sum of an infinite GP whose first term is 2r − 1 and common ratio . Let
2r.
n n
1
Vn = ∑S
r =1
r and Qn = ∑S S
r =1 r r +1
.

Vn
9. lim equals
n→∞n2
(A) 0 (B) −1
(C) 1 (D) 2

10. Consider the following statements:

I : Q1 > Q2 > Q3 > …….
II: V1 < V2 < V3 < ……..
Then
(A) Only I is true (B) Only II is true
(C) Both I and II are true (D) Neither I nor II is true

Paragraph for Question Nos. 11 to 12

Read the following write up carefully and answer the following questions:
Consider the function f : R → R defined by f ( x ) = a− x + a|x| , a > 1

11. The interval in which f(x) is monotonic decreasing, is

(A) (0, a) (B) (− ∞, 0)
(C) (0, ∞) (D) (2, 2a)

Rough work

12. Area bounded by the given curve and the lines x = −1, x = 1 and y = 0, is
2a2 + 3a + 1 3a2 − 2a − 1
(A) (B)
loge a aloge a
3a − 1 ( 3a − 1)( 2a − 1)
(C) (D)
aloge a loge a

Paragraph for Question Nos. 13 to 14

Read the following write up carefully and answer the following questions:

Let S = set of triplets (A, B, C) where A, B, C are subsets of {1, 2, 3, ..... n}. E1 = event that a selected
triplet at random from set S will satisfy A∩B∩C = φ, A ∩B ≠ φ, B ∩ C ≠ φ. E2 = events that a selected
triplet at random from set S will satisfy A∩B∩C = φ, A∩B ≠ φ B∩C ≠φ, A∩C ≠ φ. P (E) represents
probability of an event E than

13. P(E1) is equal to

7n − 6n + 5n 7n − 2 × 6n + 5n
(A) (B)
8n 8n
7n − 2 × 6n 7n − 2 × 6n + 5n
(C) (D)
8n 8n

14. P(E2) is equal to

7n − 3 × 6n + 5n 7n − 3 × 6n + 3 × 5n − 4n
(A) (B)
8n 8n
7n − 2 × 6n + 2 × 5n − 4n 7n − 6n + 5n − 4n
(C) n
(D)
8 8n

Rough work

Multiple Correct Answer(s) Type

This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONE or MORE are correct.

15. The straight line b1/ 3 y + a1/ 3 x + a2 / 3 b2 / 3 = 0

(A) touches the parabola y2 = 4ax
(B) touches the parabola x2 = 4by
(C) intersects both the parabolas y2 = 4ax and x2 = 4by in real points
(D) touches y2 = 4ax and intersects x2 = 4by

x y
16. If x, y, a, b are real numbers such that (x + iy)1/5 = a + ib and p = − , then
a b
(A) a – b is a factor of p (B) a + b is a factor of p
(C) a + ib is a factor of p (D) a − ib is a factor of p

π
17. Let 0 < θ < . Then,
4
∞ ∞
(A) ∑ sin
k =0
2k
θ = sec 2 θ (B) ∑ cos
k =0
2k
θ = cosec 2 θ

∞ ∞ ∞
cos2 θ
(C) ∑
k =0
tan2k θ =
cos 2θ
(D) ∑
k =0
tan2k θ + ∑ cot
k =0
2k
θ =1

18. A number is chosen at random from the set of integers {1, 2, 3, 4,……., n}. Let A denote the
event that the number chosen is divisible by 4, B denote the event that the number chosen is
divisible by 5 and C denote the event that the number chosen is divisible by 7. Then,
(A) A, B, C are always mutually independent
(B) A and B are always independent
(C) B and C are independent if n is of the form 35k (k positive integer)
(D) A and C are independent if n is of the form 28 λ (λ positive integer)

Rough work

19. Let A be the set of real values of x, and B be the set of real values of y, satisfying the equation
3 x + 3 y = 9. Let a = [x], x ∈ A, and b = [y], y ∈ B. Then
(A) The roots of the equation x3 + 2x2 – x – 2 = 0 are x1, x2, x3 such that x1, x2, x3 ∈ A.
(B) The roots of the equation x3 – 2x2 – x + 2 = 0 are x1, x2, x3 such that x1, x2, x3 ∈ B.
(C) amax + bmax = 2
(D) 17amax – 12bmax = − 5

20. Let T be the ∆ with vertices (0, 0), (0, c2) and (c, c2) and let R be the region between y = cx and
y = x2 where c > 0 then
c3 c2
(A) Area of (R ) = (B) Area of R =
6 3
Area ( T ) Area ( T ) 3
(C) lim+ =3 (D) lim+ =
c →0 Area ( R ) c →0 Area (R ) 2

Rough work

FULL TEST –IV

(Paper-2)

Q. No. PHYSICS CHEMISTRY MATHEMATICS

1. C C A
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES

2. A B C
3. D B A
4. B C C
5. A D C
6. C C B
7. A A B
8. A C D
9. D C C
10. C A B
11. A C B
12. C B B
13. A B D
14. B D B
15. A, B, C A,C A, B
16. A, B, C A,C A, B, C, D
17. A, D B,D A, B, C
18. A, B, D B,D C, D
19. A, C, D A, B, D A, C
20. C, D B, C, D A, C

Physics PART – I
SECTION – A

1. A is at rest instantaneously (for no slipping at A)

1 V 
V B – V A = B  0  (2R) 2
2 R 
1 V 
VC – VA = B  0( 3 R) 2
2 R 
1 V  2 BV0R
⇒ VB – VC = B  0  [R ] =
2 R  2

2. force = (P – P0) A = Ma
by P1V1 = P2V2
P0hA = P(h – x) A
P0h
⇒P=
h–x
 Ph  A
So force =  0 – P0  =a
 h – x  M
P0 Ax P Ax
a= ⇒ 0 ; (for small x)
M(h – x) Mh
Mh
T = 2π
P0 A

L
3. τrestoring = (mg sinθ L + (mg sin θ
2
 L  L  KL L
+  K sin θ  +  sin θ 
 4 4  2 2
 3mg 5KL  2
restoring =  2 + 16  θ (θ : small)
 

3mg 5kL2
+
1 2 16
frequency of oscillation) =
2π Ι
mL2 4mL2
where Ι = mL2 + =
3 3

4. From law of radioactive decay.

Activity µ Number of nuclear of that nucleus present in the sample.
Activity does not depend upon the rate of the formation of nucleus.
In given reaction B decays into E and C.
Total activity of B = rate of decay of B into E + rate of decay of B into C = l5N2 + l3N2

5. The EMF will be induced in the loop, only when there is a change in the flux through the loop.
When the loop was completely inside the field region, for some time (say t1) there is no change in
the flux, hence that time would not be included in the calculation.

b b 2b
The time for which EMF was induced = + =
v v v

6. That wire will break first whose stress reaches the breaking stress (for that
material) first.
F F
Stress = = where F is the tension in the wire. F is same in both the wires.
A πr 2
1
Thus stress ∝ 2 for the wire of smaller radius, the stress is more.
r
Thus the wire with smaller radius will break first.
If rA < rB, then wire A will break first.
If rA > rB, then wire B will break first.
If rA = rB, either of them could break.

8. As the magnetic field is uniform and the particle is projected in a direction perpendicular to the
field, it will describe a circular path. The particle will not hit the yz-plane if the radius of the circle is
mv
smaller than d. For the maximum value of v, the radius is just equal to d. Thus = d.
Bq
Bqd
∴ v=
m

u − u0
9. F = ηA
y
F
⇒ u = y + u0
ηA
1
⇒ u = −2 y + 1 = 100 y + 1
10 × 1

10. The velocity of upper plate is same as that of the layer in contact with the plate i.e. layer at y = 2
cm.
u = 100 (0.02) + 1 = 3 m/s

11. T2 ∝ r3 (Kepler's law)

TA2 rA3 r3 1 T 1
= = 3
= Get A =
TB2 rB3 (4r) 64 TB 8

12. For geostationary satellite, time period = 1 planet day (by def.)
Let T = 1 planet day
T0 = 1 planet year
4 π2 3 4 π2 3  m 
Now T2 = rG = r
Gm Gm  M 
4 π2 3
= r = T03 or T = T0
GM

k k 2500
13-14. ω = , ω′ = = = 10 rad/sec
M M+m 25
M
ω′ = ω
M+m
x1 = A sin φ1
1 2 1
Potential energy stored in the spring at (t = t1) = kx1 = Mω2 sin2 φ1
2 2
Let v and v′ be the velocity of system just before collision and just after collision, so using COLM
Mv MAω cos θ
v′ = =
(M + m ) (M + m )
1 2 1(
kx1 + M + m ) v ′2
Total energy after collision = PE + KE =
2 2
1  M + msin θ 
2
1 2  M + m sin θ 
2
= MA 2 ω2   = kA   =8J
2  M+m  2  M+m 
1( 1  M + m sin2 θ 
M + m ) A ′2 ω′2 = MA 2 ω2  
2 2  M+m 

Imax (a1 + a2 )2
15. =
Imin (a1 − a2 )2
a1 I 4 2
= 1 = =
a2 I2 9 3
Imax
∴ = 25
Imin
If an identical paper is pasted across second slit shifted C.B.F. will back in central point.
tD
shift = ( µ − 1)
d
nλ D
fringe width =
d
shift (µ − 1)t
∴ n= = = 15 .
fringe width λ

16. The change in magnetic flux is zero, hence the current in the ring will be zero.

17. Both (A) and (D) depend on g.

n(n − 1) n=4
18. =6 ⇒ n=4
2 3
If the initial state were n = 3, in the emission spectrum, no wavelengths 2
shorter than λ0 would have occurred. This is possible if initial state were n = 2
∴ (A), (B) and (D)
1

19. From COE (A) is correct.

The force outside the earth varies as inverse square of the distance.
∴ motion is not simple harmonic. However, from symmetry of motion, the motion will be
periodic.
∴ (C) is correct.
From COE
1 GMm  3GMm 
mv 2 = − − −
2 2R  2R 
2GM
⇒ v=
R
∴ (A), (C) and (D) are correct.

20. The current through R1 is constant.

Chemistry PART – II

SECTION – A
pKa1 + pKa2 4 + 9
1. pH at isoelectric point = = = 6.5
2 2
2. Net reaction does not involve any aqueous species.

2+
5. Cr ( SCN)2 (NH3 )4  , shows geometrical (or cis-trans) and linkage isomerism.
6. O O O O
(i) EtO−
H3C C CH2 C O CH2 CH3 
O→ H3C C CH C O CH2 CH3
(ii) H C H
CH2 OH
O O CH3
∆, −OH2
O O H3C C CH C O CH 2

H3C C CH C O CH2 CH3

O O
O CH2 O
←
(Michael)
 H3C C C C O CH2 CH3
H3C C CH C O CH2 CH3
CH2

EtO−
O O
OH CH3
C O CH2 CH3 C O Et
+
Li / ∆
 →
O + H2O + CO2 + Et − OH
O
C O CH2 CH3
O

∆
7. FeSO4  → Fe2O3 + SO3 + SO2

8. Energy of e− in H-atom = - E
Energy of e− in Li+2 = - 9E
1
Energy supplied by photon = IE + mv 2
2
IE = E
1
∴ Ep = 9E + mv 2
2
2 (Ep − 9E )
v=
m

9. In reverse osmosis water moves from more concentrated to less concentrated solution

10. π = iCRT, (i=2)

11. Let conc. of both reactants at equilibrium is x M

2
PbEDTA 2 −  H+ 
Keq =  2
  
x
x = 10−3

12. Chelation increases stability of complexes

14. OH
+
aq.K 2 CO3
P + Q  → R 
HCN
→ S 
H /H2 O
heat
→
O
O
OH
OH OH
← 
+

−H2 O ←
H /H2 O

O heat
CN
O OH
O OH HO
(S)
HCN
O
O
O
+ aq. K 2 CO3
→ H
H H H OH
(P ) (Q) (R )

15.
Cl
→ Cl → Cl
KCN H Pt
 
2

Cl CN NH2

CF CO H HIO4 H O+
16. Trans-2-butene 
3 3
→ epoxide →
3
diol  → 2CH3CHO

17. He and H2 are not hydrogen like particles

18. Radius of cation is smaller than parent atom and that of anion is more than parent atom
19. (A) O
O
C
H 2C O
CH O →
I
CH2 I

I2 will attack the double bond to form a cyclic halonium ion. It then undergoes on intramolecular
reaction. Formation of five membered ring is favoured because (i) attack by a nucleophile on a
halonium ion normally takes place at the more substituted site.
(ii) Formation of five membered ring is more probable.

(B) O
O
+ C
Br O
O 
→
H3C
Br CH2
O
(C)
C
O
Option(C)gives
C
O
(D)
Option(D)gives C O

1, 4 and 1,5-dicarboxylic acids give anhydrides whereas 1,6 and 1, 7-diacids give ketones when
heated with P2O5.

Mathematics PART – III

SECTION – A

1. Normal to y2 = 4ax with slope m is

y = mx – 2am − am3 ..... (1)
(1) touches x2 − y2 = a2 if
(−2am − am3)2 = a2 (m2 − 1)
i. e. if m6 + 4m4 + 3m2 + 1 = 0 ..... (2)
(2) is a sixth degree equation in m with no odd power terms and whose coefficients are all
positive.
⇒ (2) has no real root
∴ |S| = 0

2. Given x + y + z = 5 → (1)
and x2 + y2 + z2 = 9 → (2)
1
(
We have yz = ( y + z ) − y 2 + z2 
2
2
 )
1
( )
= ( 5 − x ) − 9 − x 2  (using) (1) & (2))
2
2

= x2 − 5x + 8
⇒ y, z must be the roots of the equation
( )
u2 − ( 5 − x ) u + x 2 − 5x + 8 = 0 → ( 3 )
As y, z are real, we must have discriminant of (3) ≥ 0
⇒ (5 − x)2 – 4 (x2 – 5x + 8) ≥ 0
⇒ 3x2 – 10x + 7 ≤ 0
⇒ (3x – 7) (x – 1) ≤ 0
 7
⇒ x ∈ 1, 
 3
⇒ Number of integer values that x can take is 2

3. 2 sin2x + sin2 2x = 2
⇒ −2(1 − sin2 x) + 4 sin2 x cos2 x = 0
⇒ cos2 x.cos 2x = 0 → (1)
sin 2x + cos 2x = tan x
⇒ 2 sin x cos2 x + cos 2x cos x = sin x
⇒ sin x cos 2x + cos 2x cos x = 0
⇒ cos 2x (sin x + cos x) = 0 → (2)
Common roots of (1) and (2) are given by cos 2x = 0
( 2n − 1) π
⇒ x= ,n ∈ N
4
nπ
In [0, 4π] we have x = , where n = 1, 3, 5,……,15 → (3)
4
Now, − 2 sin2 x + sin x ≤ 0
⇒ 2 sin2 x − sin x ≥ 0
⇒ (sin x) (2 sin x − 1) ≥ 0
1
⇒ sin x ∈[−1, 0] or ≤ sin x ≤ 1 → (4)
2
5π 7π 13π 15π
Among the 8 values given by (3), only 4 values, i.e., x = , , , satisfy (4)
4 4 4 4

1
4. We have w = z +
z
Take z = eiθ (∵ |z| = 1).
We have w = eiθ + e−iθ = 2cos θ
We know that w is real and | w | ≤ 2

x2 − 1 (
2 x2 − 1 ) (
−3 x 2 − 1 )
2 2 2
5. The scalar triple product of the three given vectors is 2x − 1 2x + 1 x
3x 2 + 2 x2 + 4 x2 + 1

1 2 −3 1 2 0
( 2
)
= x − 1 2x − 1 2x + 1 2 2
x 2
( 2
= x − 1 2x − 1 2x + 1 ) 2 2
5x 2 (using C3 → C3 + C2 + C1)
2 2 2 2 2 2
3x + 2 x +4 x +1 3x + 2 x +4 5x + 7
1 0 0
( )
= x 2 − 1 2x 2 − 1 −2x 2 + 3 5x 2 (using C2 → C2 − 2C1)
2 2 2
3x + 2 −5x 5x + 7

( )(
= x 2 − 1 15x 4 + x 2 + 21 )
Vector are non–coplanar ⇒ Scalar triple product ≠ 0 ⇒ x2 – 1 ≠ 0 (∵ 15x4 + x2 + 21 ≠ 0) ⇒x ≠ ± 1

( )
1/ n
6. We have f ( x ) = a − xn so that
1/ n
 n 
( ) ( ) ( ( ))
1/ n
  
1/ n 1/ n 
f° f ( x ) = f  a − xn  =  a −  a − x
n
  = a − a − xn
    
 
⇒ g ( x ) = f° f° .....f ( x ) = x
2m times

dx dx dx dt
∴ ∫ = ∫x = ∫x =− ∫ nt (using t = 1 + x−n)
(1+ (g ( x )) ) (1 + x ) (1 + x )
1/ n 1/ n
n 1/ n 1/ n
(g ( x ))
n n n n +1 −n

 
1
1  t −1/ n+1  1
( )
1−
=−  +c = 1 + x −n n +c
n 1 1− n
 − + 1 
 n 

7. Given y = f ( x ) ,z = g ( x ) we have
dy dy / dx f ′ ( x ) d2 y d  f ′  dx g′f ′′ − f ′g′′ 1
= = and =  ′ = .
dz dz / dx g′ ( x ) dz 2 dx g
  dz ( g′)2 g′

8. f ( x ) is continuous at x = 3

( )
⇒ f 3− = f ( 3 ) = f 3+ ( )
a | x2 − x − 6 | (
−a x 2 − x − 6 )=a
Now f 3 ( )=
−
lim−
x →3 6+x−x 2
= lim−
x →3 6+x−x 2

x − [x] x−3
( )
f 3 + = lim+
x →3 x−3
= lim+
x →3 x − 3
=1

 x 
 x 
∫
 x tdt   0 
 x 2 + tdt 
  ∫
f ( 3 ) = b lim  3   form  = b lim 
3
 = 9b
x →3
 x − 3   0  x →3  1 
   
 
 
1
⇒ a = 9b = 1 ⇒ b = and a = 1
9

n n
9. Vn = ∑r =1
Sr = 2 ∑ r = n (n + 1)
r =1
Vn n +1
∴ lim 2
= lim =1
n→∞ n n→∞ n

10. (i) Vn = n (n + 1) ⇒ V1 < V2 < V3 < .....

⇒ Statement − 2 is true
n n n

∑  r − r + 1 = 4 1 − n + 1

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
(ii) Qn = ∑ S S
r =1 r r +1
=
4 ∑
r =1 (
r r + 1)
=
4 r =1
⇒ Q1 < Q2 < Q3 < ……….
⇒ Statement −1 is false

11. We have
 2a− x , x<0
f (x) = 
−x x
a + a , x ≥ 0
Clearly, f(x) is continuous in R.
 a2x − 1 
For x > 0, f ′ ( x ) = −a− x loge a + a x loge a = ( a x – a −x) loge a =  log a
 a x  e > 0 for x > 0
 
⇒ f ( x ) is monotonic increasing for x > 0
For x < 0, f ( x ) = 2a− x ⇒ f ′ ( x ) = −2a− x loge a < 0
⇒ f ( x ) is monotonic decreasing for x < 0

0 1 0 1
 −2a   −a + a 
−x −x x

∫ 2a ∫ (a )
−x −x x
12. Required area = dx + +a dx =   + 
−1 0  loge a  −1  loge a 0
2
1 1   −1   3a − 2a − 1
=  −2 − ( −2a )  + + a  − 0 =
loge a  loge a  a   aloge a

1 1 2 2
15. The equation of the line is b 3 y + a 3 x + a 3 b 3 = 0
1 1
2 1 2 1
a3 −a 3
This can be written as y = − 1
x − a3 b3 ⇒ m= 1
, c = −a 3 b 3
b3 b3
Consider the parabola y2 = 4ax

1
3 2 1
a a ab
= 1
=− 1
= −a 3 b 3 = c
m
−a 3 a3
1
b3
∴ Condition for tangency for the parabola y2 = 4ax is satisfied
∴ The given line touches y2 = 4ax
Similarly the line touches x2 = 4by

1
16. ( x + iy ) 5 = a + ib
∴ x + iy = ( a + ib)5 = a5 + 5a4 (ib) + 10a3 (− b2) + 10a2 (−ib3) + 5ab4 + ib5
Equating the real and imaginary parts x = a5 – 10a3b2 + 5ab4 ⇒ y = 5a4b – 10a2b3 + b5
x y 4 2 2 4 4 2 2 4 4 4 4 4
p = − = (a − 10a b + 5b ) − (5a – 10a b + b ) = −4a + 4b = −4 (a − b )
a b
= −4(a2 – b2) (a2 + b2) = −4(a + b)( a − b) ( a +ib) (a −ib)
∴ a − b, a + b, a + ib and a – ib are all factors of p.

π
17. Since 0 < θ < ,0 < sin2 θ, cos2 θ, tan2 θ < 1
4
∞
1
( A ) ∑ sin2k θ = = s ec 2 θ
k =0 1 − sin2 θ

∞
1
(B) ∑ cos
k =0
2k
θ=
1 − cos θ 2
= cosec 2 θ

∞
1 cos2 θ cos2 θ
(C) ∑
k =0
tan2k θ =
1 − tan2 θ
=
cos2 θ − sin2 θ
=
cos 2θ
∞
π
(D) cot θ > 1 in 0 < θ <
4
. Hence, ∑ cot
k =0
2k
θ does not exist.

19. 3y = 9 − 3x ⇒ 9 − 3x > 0 ⇒ x < 2

Similarly, y < 2

c.c 2 c 3
20. Area ( T ) = =
2 2
c
c3
Area (R ) =
2
− x 2 dx ∫
0
3 3 3
c c c
= − =
2 3 6
Area ( T ) c3 6
lim+ = lim+ . 3 = 3
c →0 Area (R ) R →0 2 c

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