Ncma215 FINALS REVIEWER

DIETARY MODIFICATION DIETARY THERAPY

1. You are taking care of a patient with severe COPD. What type of diet would best suit this patient's needs?

A. Pureed sweet potatoes, ground turkey & gravy with mash potatoes

B. Fried chicken, French fries, and pudding

C. Cut apples, fresh broccoli, and grilled chicken

D. Green beans, boiled carrots, and steamed fish

2. A patient who has a colostomy is complaining about having excess gas. You ask the patient to tell you what he has ate in the
past 48 hours. Which food would you suspect is causing the patient excessive gas?*
A. Squash, Spinach, and Pickles
B. Cherries, Radishes, and Watermelon
C. Chicken, grapes, and raspberries
D. Caraway seeds, tomato soup, and eggs

3. A patient is diagnosed with Congestive Heart Failure and must follow a specific diet. Which spices are okay for the patient to
use daily?*
A. Onion Salt & Garlic Powder
B. Ginger & Bay Leaves
C. Garlic Sodium & Nutmeg
D. Sea Salt & Pepper

4. A patient with gout should follow what type of diet?*

A. High-calcium diet
B. Potassium-modified diet
C. Renal Diet
D. Low-purine diet

5. A patient with anemia would benefit from which diet?*

A. Vegetables, fish, and pasta
B. Legumes, organ meat, and dark green leafy vegetables
C. Grains, berries, and organic vegetables
D. Nuts and seeds, fruits, and soy products

6. The patient is on a low potassium diet that includes food such as applesauce, green beans, cabbage, lettuce, grapes, and
raspberries. What type of patient would you expect to be on this type of diet?*
A. A patient with Addison’s disease
B. A patient with osteoporosis
C. A patient with heart disease
D. A patient who recently had gastric bypass surgery

7. A patient is on a lacto-ovo vegetarian diet. What type of foods can the patient eat?*
A. Boiled eggs and chocolate milk
B. Chicken, cheese, and grilled eggplant
C. Fish, milk, and poached eggs
D. Oysters, yogurt, and turkey

8. A patient is suffering from a broken jaw. Which foods would be most beneficial for this patient?*
A. Carrots, fried chicken, and cereal
B. Rice, watermelon, and smoked fish
C. Tacos, peanuts, and fresh broccoli
D. Soup, pudding, and ice cream

9. A patient receiving dialysis should avoid what type of foods?*

A. Steamed broccoli, broiled mackerel, and artificial sweeteners
B. Microwaved sweet potatoes, boiled cabbage, and artichokes
C. Canned soups, cold cut sandwiches, and Chinese take-out
 D. Fresh fruits and vegetable, poultry, and beans

10. A patient is admitted for diverticulitis. The patient has been on a full liquid diet and has been tolerating it well. Now the MD
has ordered the patient a new diet. You would expect to find what type of food on the patient’s lunch tray?*
A. Glass of whole milk, broccoli, and cabbage
B. Piece of white bread, skinless white potatoes, and white rice.
C. Peanut butter sandwich, glass of milk, and strawberries
D. French fries, chicken salad, and apple pie

11. A patient has a low magnesium level. Which food of the selection below is the highest in magnesium?*
A. Avocado
B. Liver
C. Mushrooms
D. Rhubarb

12. A patient is started on the diuretic Spironolactone. Which foods should the patient be careful to avoid eating too much of?*
A. Eggs
B. Green leafy vegetables
C. Hot Dogs
D. Bananas

13. A patient was recently admitted for a Deep Vein Thrombosis and was started on Coumadin. During your education with the
patient you would instruct the patient to avoid what food?*
A. Bananas
B. Lettuce
C. Spinach
D. Processed meats

14. A patient’s potassium level is 6.0. Which food should the patient avoid?*
A. Egg yolks
B. 6.0 is a normal potassium level so the patient can eat whatever they want without an effect
C. Rice
D. Raisins

15. A patient has a stage 4 pressure ulcer on their sacral area. What type of foods would the patient most benefit from?*
A. Liver, spinach, corn
B. Oats, fruits, and vegetables
C. Peanuts, tomatoes, and cabbage
D. Dried beans, eggs, meats

16. A patient is post-opt from gallbladder surgery and is ordered a clear liquid diet. Which of the selection can the patient have?*
A. Vanilla Custard
B. Apple Juice
C. Fudge Popsicle
D. Creamy Chicken Soup

17. A patient just had a Wound Vac ® placed on her abdomen from abdominal surgery. Which foods would help promote wound
healing?*
A. Liver, beef, and fish
B. Citrus fruit and tomatoes
C. Peanuts, beans, and pork
D. Corn, poultry, and grains

18. A patient asks you what vitamin is best for eye sight. Your response is:*
A. Vitamin B12
B. Vitamin B6
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin A

19. You have a patient who just had a stroke and has garbled speech. What type of diet do you expect the patient to be prescribed
after a speech evaluation?*
A. Mechanically altered diet with thin liquids
B. Full liquid diet
C. Soft diet
 D. Mechanically altered diet with nectar thick liquids

20. A patient is to be started on enteral feedings. What important step should the nurse take before the patient is started on
enteral feedings?*
A. Make sure the patient stays nothing by mouth while enteral feedings are being administered
B. Assess the patient’s understanding about enteral feedings
C. Assess patient allergies to lactose
D. Evaluate the families perception of the enteral feedings
21. The nurse is teaching a client who has iron deficiency anemia about foods she should include in
her diet. The nurse determines that the client understands the dietary modifications if she
selects which items from her menu?

A. Nuts and ilk

B. Coffee and tea
C. Cooked rolled oats and fish
D. Oranges and dark green leafy vegetables

22. The nurse is planning to teach a client with malabsorption syndrome about the necessity of
following a low-fat diet. The nurse develops a list of high-fat foods to avoid and should include
which food item on the list?
A. Oranges
B. Broccoli
C. Cream Cheese
D. Broiled haddock
23. The nurse instructs a client with chronic kidney disease who is receiving hemodialysis about
dietary modifications. the nurse determines that the client understands these dietary
modifications if the client selects which items from the dietary menu?
A. Cream of wheat, blueberries, coffee
B. Sausage and eggs, banana, orange juice
C. Bacon, cantaloupe melon, tomato juice
D. Cured pork, grits, strawberries, OJ

24. The nurse is conducting a dietary assessment on a client who is on a vegan diet. The nurse
provides dietary teaching and should focus on foods high in which vitamin that may be lacking in
a vegan diet?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B12
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin E

25. A client with hypertension has been told to maintain a diet low in sodium. The nurse who is
teaching this client about foods that are allowed should include which food item in a list
provided to the client?
A. Tomato soup
B. Boiled shrimp
C. Instant oatmeal
D. Summer squash

26. A postoperative client has been placed on a clear liquid diet. The nurse should provide the client
with which items that are allowed to be consumed on this diet? Select all that apply
 A. Broth
B. Coffee
C. Gelatin
D. Pudding
E. Vegetable juice
F. Pureed vegetables

27. The nurse is instructing a client with hypertension on the importance of choosing foods low in
sodium. The nurse should teach the client to limit intake of which food?
A. Apples
B. Bananas
C. Smoked sausage
D. Steamed vegetables

28. A client receiving abdominal surgery has a large abdominal wound. The nurse should encourage
the client to eat which food item that is naturally high in vitamin C to promote wound healing?
A. Milk
B. Oranges
C. Bananas
D. Chicken

29. The nurse is caring for a client with cirrhosis of the liver. To minimize the effects of the disorder,
the nurse teaches the client about foods that are high in thiamine. The nurse determines that
the client has the best understanding of the dietary measures to follow if the client states an
intention to increase the intake of which food?
A. Pork
B. Milk
C. Chicken
D. Broccoli

30. A client who is recovering from a surgery has been advanced from a clear liquid diet to a full
liquid diet. The client is looking forward to the diet change because he has been bored with the
clear liquid diet. The nurse should offer which full liquid item to the client?
A. Tea
B. Gelatin
C. Custard
D. Ice pop

31. Low nutrient dense foods

A. provide good stamina
B. provide very few nutrients
C. are found only in crash diets
D. are very helpful to pregnant adolescents

32. An inadequate supply of the six classes of nutrients in the diet may result in
A. Malnutrition
B. Indigestion
C. diabetes
 D. stamina

33. Nutritional status:

A. never changes
B. can affect the body's ability to resists diseases
C. is not reflected in one's appearance
D. is determined by heredity

34. It is a mechanical and chemical breakdown of food into smaller components

A. Digestion
B. Elimination
C. Metabolism
D. Absorption

35. An organic catalyst that are protein in nature and are produced by living cellsA catalyst speeds
up or slows down chemical reactions without itself undergoing change
A. Protein
B. Enzymes
C. Carbohydrates
D. Calorie

36. To nourish the body adequately one must

A. include fats at every meal
B. Eat foods containing the six classes of nutrients
C. avoid all low nutrient density foods
D. restrict proteins at breakfast

37. Infants, young children, adolescents, pregnant, adolescents and the elderly
A. all commonly suffer from osteomalacia
B. never suffer from primary nutrient deficiencies
C. care commonly overweight
D. among those prone to malnutrition

38. Another term for fats is

A. CHO
B. protein enhancer
C. inorganic nutrient
D. lipids

39. It is any substance when ingested or eaten nourishes the body.

A. minerals
B. food
C. vitamins
D. nutrients

40. Nutritional status is determined by

A. Heredity
B. Personality
 C. Diet
D. Employment

41. It is a chemical process of transforming foods into other substance to sustain life
A. Absorption
B. Metabolism
C. Digestion
D. Eliminations

42. Nutrients used mainly to build and repair body tissues are
A. iron and fats
B. proteins, vitamins, and minerals
C. carbohydrates and fats
D. fats and water

43. Nutrients used primarily to provide energy to the body are

A. proteins and vitamins
B. carbohydrates, proteins, and fats
C. vitamins and minerals
D. vitamins and water

44. Malnutrition is a condition of the body resulting from a lack of one or more
A. Constipation
B. disease or drug therapy
C. hypertension
D. essential nutrients

45. Foods such as potato chips cakes, sodas and candy are called
A. essential nutrient foods
B. foods with low nutrient density
C. dietetic foods
D. nutritious foods

46. High blood pressure is commonly referred to as

A. Atherosclerosis
B. Hypertension
C. Osteoporosis
D. non-insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus

47. Vitamins and minerals

A. should be taken in megadoses to prevent diseases
B. help proteins to build and repair body tissues
C. Are both organic nutrients
D. Are the primary providers of energy to the body

48. It is the study of food in relation to health.

A. Food
B. Nutrition
 C. Nutrients
D. diet

1. Bioavailability - Absorption of the nutrient from the diet

2. Diet Therapy - a diet specially prescribed to treat a health condition through gradual
elimination and/or integration of specific foods

3. Dietary Modifications - changes made during food preparation, processing, and consumption
to increase the bioavailability of micronutrients and reduce micronutrient deficiencies.

4. Phytic Acid - Inhibits the proper absorption of minerals zinc and iron.

5. Phytate - also called as the "anti-nutrient" which is found in beans, seeds and oats.

6. Germinated Cereal Flours - ontaining amylase to increase the energy and nutrient density of
cereal-based porridges.

7. Diebetic Diet - The most common therapeutic diet which involve limiting high sugar foods to
help blood sugar levels.

8. General Diet - Diet with no restrictions

9. Diets Modified in Consistency - Diet that provides foods that have a texture that is easier to
eat.

10. Diets Modified in Composition - Change in nutrient composition of the diet.

11. High Calorie Diet - a normal diet with an increase in the calorie level to 3000 or more. Aids in
weightloss, fever, hyperthyrodism and burns.

12. Low Calorie Diet - Controls calories, carbohydrates, proteins and fat intake in balance
amount. Recommended for patients with diabetes milletus, cardiovascular disease,
hypertension, gout, gall bladder disease, and precedibg surgery

13. High Protein Diet - Diets that are high in plant and animal proteins. Used to treat
malnutrition and increase muscle mass.

14. Low Protein Diet - reduced intake of protein; prescribed to those with liver and kidney
disease.

15. Fat Controlled Diet - approach to eating which focuses on altering both the total amount and
type of fat consumed in order to lower elevated levels of blood lipids.

16. Low Sodium Diet - This type of diet is good for those with heart disease or kidney disease.

17. Atherosclerosis - condition in which fatty deposits called plaque build up on the inner walls
of the arteries.
18. Myocardial infarction – Heart Attack.

19. Cystic Fibrosis - A genetic disorder that is present at birth and affects both the respiratory
and digestive systems.

20. Nontropical Sprue - Malabsorption caused by the toxic effects of gluten as in celiac disease
and gluten-sensitive enteropathy

21. Diet Progression - Change in diet to adapt to patient's tolerance to foods.

22. Dysphagia - difficulty swallowing.

23. Mechanically Altered Diets - Routinely prescribed for individuals with chewing or swallowing
difficulties.

24. Pureed Diet - Pudding-like consistency

(ex. pureed fruits and juices without pulp, seeds skins, or chunks; well-mashed bananas;
applesauce; pureed cooked vegetables; pureed meats, homogenous souffles, hummus, or
pureed legume spreads; smooth cooked cereals such as Cream of Wheat, pureed rice and
pasta).

25. Mechanical Soft Diet - Minced foods or moist, soft-textured foods

(Canned or cooked fruits without seeds or skin, fruit juices with small amounts of pulp, ripe
bananas, soft cooked vegetables, ground/minced/tender meat, poultry, or fish, tofu, moist
legumes, scrambled or soft cooked eggs.

26. Blenderized Diet - Foods from all food groups, often with added liquid.

27. Oropharyngeal Dysphagia - Inability to transfer food from the mouth and pharynx to the
esophagus; often caused by neurological or muscular disorder.

28. Esophageal Dysphagia - Inability to move food through the esophagus; usually caused by
obstruction or motility disorder.

29. Gastrectomy - Partial gastrectomy or total gastrectomy.

30. Vagotomy - Sever the vagus nerve to decrease acid production.

31. Pyloroplasty - opening of the pylorus

32. Level 1: Dysphagia Pureed - Foods pureed, homogenous and cohesive

-diet for patients with moderate-to-severe dysphagia and poor oral or chewing ability.

33. Level 2: Dysphagia Mechanically Altered - Foods moist and soft textured; foods easily
formbolus
-Diet for patients with mild-to-moderate dysphagia; some chewing ability required
34. Level 3: Dysphagia Advanced - Foods moist and in bite-sized pieces when swallowed
-Individuals using diet need to tolerate mixed food textures
-Diet for patients with mild dysphagia.

35. Clear Liquid Diet

 Minimal digestion
 Easily tolerated
 Clear fluids
 Leaves little intestinal residue
 Limited energy and nutrient content
 Supplemented if > 1-2 days

36. Full Liquid Diet

 Includes milk and other opaque liquids
 puddings, milk, ice cream, yogurt, nectars
 May be transitional diet between clear liquid and solid foods

37. Causes of Dysphagia

 Neurological diseases and disorders
 Surgical procedures involving head and neck
 Physiological or anatomical abnormailties restricting movement of food in the throat or
esophagus

38. Types of Dysphagia

 Oropharyngeal dysphagia
 Esophageal dysphagia

39. Complications of Dysphagia

 Aspiration
 Airway obstruction
 Choking
 Respiratory infections
 Reduced food consumption, malnutrition, and weight loss

40. Dietary Interventions for Dysphagia

 Careful assessment of swallowing abilities
 Modification of physical properties of foods and beverages
 Alternative feeding methods

41. Feeding Strategies For Dysphagia

 Depends on nature of swallowing problem
 Strengthening exercises of jaws, tongue or larynx
 Changing position of head and neck while eating
 Learn new methods of swallowing
  Speech and language therapists often responsible for teaching patients techniques and
strategies to improve feeding

42. Gastric Surgery Indications

 Popular treatment for obesity
 Treatment of peptic ulcers that resist drug therapy
 Correction of ulcer complications
 Treatment of stomach cancer

43. Complications of Gastrectomy

 Substantial weight loss
 Fat malabsorption: decrease in pancreatic lipase and increase in transit
 Bone disease
 Anemia

44. Dietary Adjustments after Gastrectomy

 Smaller stomach limits meal size; affects food tolerance because of potential for
dumping syndromes
 Several small meals and snacks
 Inclusion of protein, fats, complex carbohydrates
 Slow progression to 5-6 meals per day
 Avoidance of sugars and sweets
 Avoidance of milk products if lactose intolerant
 Addition of fiber to delay stomach emptying and reduce diarrhea
 Some patients experience problems with fatty foods, carbonated beverages, alcohol,
peppermint, highly spiced foods, caffeine-containing beverages, extreme temperatures,
chocolate

45. Postgastrectomy Diet

 All foods and fluids withheld until some healing has occurred
 Immediately after surgery: IV fluids with careful monitoring of fluid balance
 24-48 hours after surgery: ice chips or small sips of water
 4-5th day after surgery: liquids, progressing to solid foods when tolerated; tube feedings
if unable to progress to solid foods
 Adjustments influenced by: size of remaining stomach and rapid gastric emptying that
results

NUTRITIONAL EDUCATION AND COUNSELING

1. Nutrition Education – any combination of strategies, accompanied by environmental supports.

2. Health Belief Model – Explains and predicts health behaviors based on patient’s belief about the
health problem and the health behavior.

3. Self- Efficacy Theory (Bandura, A. 1997) – Based on a person’s expectations relative to specific
course of action.
 4 Principal sources of info cognitively appraised and processed:
A. Performance accomplishment
B. Vicarious Experiences
C. Verbal Persuasion
D. Emotional Arousal

4. Concordance – Emphasis on the Consultative Process.

5. Which statement made by an adult patient demonstrates an understanding of healthy nutrition

teaching?
A. I need to stop eating red meat.
B. I will increase the servings of fruit juice to four a day.
C. I will make sure that I eat a balanced diet and exercise regularly.
D. I will not eat so many dark green vegetables and eat more yellow vegetables.

6. The nurse teaches a patient who has had surgery to increase which nutrient to help with tissue
repair?
A. Fat
B. . Protein
C. Vitamin
D. Carbohydrate

7. The nurse is caring for a patient experiencing dysphagia. Which interventions help decrease the
risk of aspiration during feeding? (Select all that apply.)

A. Sit the patient upright in a chair.

B. Give liquids at the end of the meal.
C. Place food on the strong side of the mouth.
D. Provide thin foods to make it easier to swallow.
E. Feed the patient slowly, allowing time to chew and swallow.
F. Encourage the patient to lie down to rest for 30 minutes after eating.

8. The nurse suspects that the patient receiving parenteral nutrition (PN) through a central venous
catheter (CVC) has an air embolus. What action does the nurse need to take first?

A. Raise the head of the bed to 90 degrees

B. Turn patient to left lateral decubitus position
C. Notify health care provider immediately
D. Have the patient perform the Valsalva maneuver

9. The acceptable macronutrient distribution range for carbohydrates is

a. 20-30% of cal
b. 45-65% of cal
c. 10-25% of cal
d. 30-45% of cal

10. Which action is initially taken by the nurse to verify the correct position of a newly placed small-
bore feeding tube?
 A. Placing an order for x-ray film examination to check the position
B. Confirming the distal mark on the feeding tube after taping
C. Testing the pH of the gastric contents and observing the color
D. Auscultating over the gastric area as air is injected into the tube

11. Based on the knowledge of peptic ulcer disease (PUD), the nurse anticipates the presence of
which bacteria when reviewing the laboratory data for a patient suspected of having PUD?
A. Micrococcus
B. Staphylococcus
C. Corynebacterium
D. Helicobacter pylori

12. The nurse is assessing a patient receiving enteral feedings via a small-bore nasogastric tube.
Which assessment findings need a further intervention?

A. Gastric pH of 4.0 during placement check

B. Weight gain of 1 pound over the course of a week
C. Active bowel sounds in the four abdominal quadrants
D. Gastric residual aspirate of 350 mL for the second consecutive time

13. The home care nurse is seeing the following patients. Which patient is at greatest risk for
experiencing inadequate nutrition?

A. A 55-year-old obese man recently diagnosed with diabetes mellitus

B. A recently widowed 76-year-old woman recovering from a mild stroke
C. A 22-year-old mother with a 3-year-old toddler who had tonsillectomy surgery
D. A 46-year-old man recovering at home following coronary artery bypass surgery

14. Which statement made by a patient of a 2-month-old infant requires further education?

A. I'll continue to use a formula for the baby until he is a least a year old.
B. I'll make sure that I purchase iron-fortified formula.
C. I'll start feeding the baby cereal at 4 months.
D. I'm going to an alternate formula with whole milk starting next month.

15. Which vitamin aids in iron absorption?

a. vitamin B
b. vitamin C
c. vitamin E
d. vitamin D

16. The nurse sees the nursing assistive personnel (NAP) perform the following for a patient
receiving continuous enteral feedings. What intervention does the nurse need to address
immediately with the NAP? The NAP:

A. Fastens the tube to the gown with tape.

B. Places the patient supine while giving a bath.
 C. Performs oral care for the patient.
D. Elevates the head of the bed 45 degrees.

17. The patient receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) asks the nurse why his blood glucose is
being checked since he does not have diabetes. What is the best response by the nurse?

A. TPN can cause hyperglycemia, and it is important to keep your blood glucose level in an
acceptable range.
B. The high concentration of dextrose in the TPN can give you diabetes; thus you need to be
monitored closely.
C. Monitoring your blood glucose level helps to determine the dose of insulin that you need to
absorb the TPN.
D. Checking your blood glucose level regularly helps to determine if the TPN is effective as a
nutrition intervention.

18. _____ is used for synthesis of thyroxine, the thyroid hormone that helps regulate metabolism.
a. Iron
b. Sulfur
c. Iodine
d. Phosphorus

19. Patient symptoms are projectile vomiting, fever, myalgia, watery diarrhea, and headache.
Consumed contaminated fruits and vegetables, salads prepped by an infected person, oysters,
and/or contaminated water. Foodborne illness is ____. The onset of 24-48 hours.

a. Listeria
b. E. coli
c. Norovirus
d. Salmonella

20. Enteral Nutrition - This form of nutrition administration is used when a client cannot consume
adequate nutrients and calories orally, but maintains a PARTIALLY functional GI system.

21. Intermittent tube feeding - This EN delivery method is often used for NONcritical clients, home
tube feedings, and clients in rehab. It mostly resembles a NORMAL patter of nutrient intake.

22. In this enteral feeding method, the formula is administered at a CONTINUOUS rate over a 12- to
24-hr period.

a. Cyclic feeding
b. Intermittent tube feeding
c. Continuous infusion method
d. Bolus feeding

23. This enteral feeding delivery method is recommended for critically ill clients, because of its
association with smaller residual volumes and lower risk or aspiration and diarrhea.
a. Intermittent tube feeding
b. Bolus feeding
 c. Cyclic feeding
d. Continuous infusion method

24. When using the continuous infusion method of enteral feeding, residual volumes should be
measured every _______
a. 2-4 hr
b. 4-6 hr
c. 6-8 hr

25. In the continuous infusion method of enteral feeding, the feeding tubes should be flushed with
water every ___ hr.
a. 1
b. 4
c. 8

26. For this method in enteral feeding, formula is administered at a CONTINUOUS rate over an 8- to
12-hr time period, often during SLEEPING hours.
a. Bolus feeding
b. Cyclic feeding
c. Continuous infusion
d. Intermittent tube feeding

27. This EN feeding method administers a LARGE volume of formula (700mL max, usual 250-500mL)
over a SHORT period of time, usually in 15-30min, 4-6x daily
a. Bolus feeding
b. Intermittent tube feeding
c. Cyclic feeding
d. Continuous infusion method

28. TPN is used when the solution to be administered is _____, meaning it is composed of >10%
dextrose.
a. isotonic
b. hypertonic
c. hypotonic

29. 1. The energy needed to maintain life-sustaining activities for a specific period of time at rest is
known as:
a. BMR
b. REE
c. Nutrients
d. Nutrientdensity

30. In general, when energy requirements are completely met by kilocalorie (kcal) intake in food:

a. Weight increases
b. Weight decreases
c. Weight does not change
d. Kilocalories are not a factor
31. In determining kcal expenditure, the nurse knows that carbohydrates and proteins provide 4
kcal of energy per gram ingestedThe nurse also knows that fats provide kcal per gram.
A. 3
B. 4
C. 6
D. 9

32. Some proteins are manufactured in the body, but others are notThose that must obtained
through diet are known as:

A. Amino acids
B. Dispensable amino acids
C. Triglycerides
D. Indispensable amino acids

33. Knowing that protein is required for tissue growth, maintenance, and repairthe nurse must
understand that for optimal tissue healing to occur, the patient must be in:

A. Negative nitrogen balance

B. Positive nitrogen balance
C. Total dependence on protein for kcal production
D. Neutral nitrogen balance

34. In providing diet education for a patient on a low-fat diet, it is important for the nurse to
understand that with few exceptions:

A. Saturated fats are found mostly in vegetable sources

B. Saturated fats are found mostly in animal sources
C. Unsaturated fats are found mostly in animal sources
D. Linoleic acid is a saturated fatty acid

35. Fats are composed of triglycerides and fatty acidsTriglycerides:

A. Are made up of three fatty acids

B. Can be saturated
C. Can be monounsaturated
D. Can be polyunsaturated

36. The patient has been diagnosed with cardiovascular disease and placed on a low-fat dietThe
patient asks the nurse, "How much fat should I have? I guess the less fat, the better." The nurse
needs to explain that:

A. Fats have no significance in health and the incidence of disease

B. All fats come from external sources so can be easily controlled
C. Deficiencies occur when fat intake falls below 10% of daily nutrition
D. Vegetable fats are the major source of saturated fats and should be avoided.
37. The Choose my plate program was developed to replace MyFoodPyramid as a basic guide for
buying food and meal preparationsThis system was developed by:

A. Food and Drug Administration

B. 1990 Nutrition Labeling and Education Act
C. Referenced daily intakes (RDIs)
D. U.SDepartment of Agriculture

38. The ChooseMyPlate program includes guidelines for:

A. Children younger than 2 years

B. Balancing calories
C. Increasing portion size
D. Decreasing water consumption

39. The nurse is providing nutrition teaching to a Korean patientIn doing so, the nurse must
understand that the focus of the teaching should be on:

A. Changing the patient's diet to a more conventional American diet

B. Discouraging the patient's ethnic food choices
C. Food preferences of the patient, including racial and ethnic choices
D. Comparing the patient's ethnic preferences with American dietary choices

40. When teaching a patient about current dietary guidelines for the general population, the nurse
explains referenced daily intakes (RDIs) and daily reference values (DRVs), otherwise known as
daily valuesIn providing this information, the nurse understands that daily values:

A. Have replaced recommended daily allowances (RDAs)

B. Have provided a more understandable format of RDAs for the public
C. Are based on percentages of a diet consisting of 1200 kcal/day
D. Are not usually easy to find computer experience is required

41. The nurse is teaching the patient about dietary guidelines. In discussing the four components of
dietary reference intakes (DRIs), it is important to understand that:

A. That estimated average requirement (EAR) is appropriate for 100% of thepopulation

B. The recommended dietary allowance (RDA) meets the needs of the individual
C. Adequate intake (Al) determines the nutrient requirements of the RDA
D. The tolerable upper intake level (UL) is not a recommended level of intake

42. 14. In teaching mothers-to-be about infant nutrition, the nurse instructs patients to:

A. Give cow's milk during the first year of life

B. Supplement breast milk with corn syrup
C. Add honey to infant formulas for increased energy
D. Remember that breast milk or formula is sufficient for the first 4 to 6 months
43. To counter obesity in adolescents, increasing physical activity is often more important than
curbing intake. Sports and regularmoderate to intense exercise necessitate dietary modifications
to meet increased energy needs for adolescents. The nurse understands that these modifications
include:

A. Decreasing carbohydrates to 25% to 30% of total intake

B. Decreasing protein intake to .75 g/kg/day
C. Ingesting water before and after exercise
D. Providing vitamin and mineral supplements

44. In providing prenatal care to a patient, the nurse teaches the expectant mother that:

A. Protein intake needs to decrease to preserve kidney function

B. Calcium intake is especially important in the first trimester
C. Folic acid is needed to help prevent birth defects and anemia
D. The mother should take in as many extra vitamins and minerals aspossible

45. The patient is an 80-year-old male who is visiting the clinic today for his routine physical
examinationThe patient's skin turgor is fair, but he has been complaining of fatigue and
weakness. The skin is warm and dry, pulse rate is 126 beats per minute, and urinary sodium level
is slightly elevated. After assessment, the nurse should recommend that the patient:

A. Decrease his intake of milk and dairy products to decrease the risk of osteoporosis
B. Drink more grapefruit juice to enhance vitamin C intake and medication absorption
C. Drink more water to prevent further dehydration

46. The nurse is assessing a patient for nutritional status. In doing so, the nurse must:

A. Choose a single objective tool that fits the patient's condition

B. Combine multiple objective measures with subjective measures
C. Forego the assessment in the presence of chronic disease
D. Use the Mini Nutritional Assessment for pediatric patients

47. The patient has a calculated body mass index (BMI) of 34. This would classify the patient as:

A. Unclassifiable
B. Normal weight
C. Overweight
D. Obese

48. Dysphagia refers to difficulty when swallowing. Of the following causes of dysphagia, which is
considered neurogenic?
A. Myasthenia Gravis
B. Stroke
C. Candidiasis
D. Muscular dystrophy
 49. The patient is elderly and has been diagnosed with Imbalanced nutrition: less than body
requirements. Her treatment regimen should include having the nurse:

A. Encourage weight gain as rapidly as possible

B. Encourage large meals three times a day
C. Decrease fluid intake to prevent feeling full
D. Encourage fiber intake

50. In determining the nutritional status of a patient and developing a plan of care, it is important to
evaluate the patient according to:

A. Published standards
B. Nursing professional standards
C. Absence of family input
D. Patient input only

51. High – Confident that the effect in the study reflects the actual effect.
52. Moderate – quite confident that the effect in the study is close to the true effect but it is also
possible it is substantially different.
53. Low – true effect may differ significantly from the estimate.
54. Very low – true effect is likely to be substantially different from the estimated effect.

LEGAL MANDATES RELATED TO NUTRITION AND DIET THERAPY

1. Food Fortification - It is the addition of one or more essential nutrients to food, whether or not
it is normally contained in the food, for the purpose of preventing or correcting a demonstrated
deficiency of one or more nutrients in the population or specific population groups (Codex
Alimentarius).

2. Presidential Decree - The innovation made by President Ferdinand E. Marcos with the
proclamation of Martial Law.

3. Executive Orders - These are acts of the President providing for rules of a general or permanent
character in implementation or execution of constitutional or statutory powers shall be
promulgated in executive orders.

4. Republic Act - A piece of legislation used to create policy in order to carry out the principles of
the Constitution.

5. Mandate - A judicial command or precept issued by a court or magistrates, directing the proper
officer to enforce a judgment, sentence or decree.

6. Letter of Instructions No. 441 (LoI 441- 1976) - It mandated the integration of Nutrition of
Education in the school curriculum.

7. Department of Education and Culture - The department directed to include subjects on basic
nutrition and techniques in nutrition education in the school curriculum at all levels and in allied
courses such as Medicine, Nursing, Agriculture, Midwifery, Social Work, and Education.
8. PD NO. 491: Nurtrional Act of the Philippines - Creation of the National Nutrition Council (NCC)
of the Philippines as the highest policy-making and coordination body on nutrition.

9. EO 51: National Code of Marketing of Breastmilk Substitutes, Breastmilk Supplements and

Other Related Products - Provision of safe and adequate nutrition for infants; protection and
promotion of breastfeeding; ensuring the proper use of breastmilk substitutes and breastmilk
supplements when necessary.

10. RA 7394: Consumer Act of the Philippines - Provides protection to consumers against hazards to
health and safety and deceptive, unfair and unconscionable sales acts and practices.

11. RA 7600: The Rooming-in and Breastfeeding Act - An act providing incentives to all government
and private health institutions with rooming-in and breastfeeding practices and for other
purposes.

12. RA 8172: Act for Salt Iodization Nationwide (ASIN Law) - Contribute to the elimination of
micronutrient malnutrition in the country, particularly iodine deficiency disorders, through the
cost-effective preventive measure of salt iodization; require all producers manufacturers of food-
grade salt to iodized the salt that they produce, manufacture, import, trade or distribute.

13. RA 8976: Food Fortification Act - To prevent and limit nutritional deficiency problems in the
Philippines, a Food Fortification plan providers for the addition of nutrients to processed foods
or food products as per the Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDA).

14. RA 10028: Expanded Breastfeeding Promotion Act - An act expanding the promotion of
breastfeeding, amending for the purpose RA No. 7600.

15. RA 10611: Food Safety Act - Strengthen food safety regulatory system in the country; provides
protection to consumers so they will have access to local foods and food products that have
undergone thorough and rigid inspection.

16. RA 10862: Nutrition and Diebetic Law - The standardization and regulation of nutrition and
dietetics education;
(b) the examination, registration and licensing of nutritionist-dietitians ;
(c) the standardization, supervision, control, and regulation of the practice of nutrition and
dietetics
(d) the development of professional competence of nutritionist-dietitians through continuing
profession.

17. RA 11148: “Kalusugan at Nutrisyon ng Mag-nanay Act - An act scaling up the national and local
health and nutrition programs through a strengthened integrated strategy for maternal,
neonatal, child health and nutrition in the first one thousand (1,000) days of life.

18. RA 9711: Food and Drug Administration - An act strengthening and rationalizing the regulatory
capacity of the bureau of food and drugs BFAD by establishing adequate testing laboratories and
field offices.
ETHICO-MORAL PRINCIPLES AND CULTURAL/ SPIRITUAL PREFERENCES

1. A nurse has transferred from a clinic setting to an inpatient unit. The nurse notices several
questions about spiritual beliefs on the admission form that the nurse had never asked new
clinic clients. What is the most likely reason for asking these questions?

A. Finding a better match for a semiprivate room

B. The Joint Commission's accreditation requirements
C. Invitation to attend the hospital's worship services
D. Identify which members of the clergy to call for spiritual emergencies

2. The family of a client who died of heart failure is making arrangements for a ritual bath to be
given by a ritual burial society. Nurses are making arrangements for access and privacy. Which
religions have this tradition? (Select all that apply.)

A. Buddhism
B. Lutheran Christianity
C. Baptist Christianity
D. Judaism
E. Islam

3. A young client has just learned of a diagnosis of stage 4 lung cancer. The client was about to
graduate from school and get married. "I can't believe in God anymore" the client tells the
oncology nurse. "He should be all-loving." Which situation would the nurse identify the client
as expressing?

A. A justice complaint
B. Spiritual distress
C. Fear of unemployment
D. Premarital anxiety

4. A client comes into the admitting area, a nurse notices a jeweled cross on the client's
necklace. The nurse comments, "Great look; I can see your religious beliefs are important to
you," and starts with the spiritual assessment of the client. How would this approach be
evaluated?

A. Complimenting the client's appearance is helpful

B. No time was taken to establish rapport with the client
C. A focus on jewelry might appear materialistic
D. It is efficient and effective to dive right into the interview

5. A nurse is an active member of an evangelical church. The nurse prays with some clients.
Which statements by the nurse would indicate appropriate considerations? (Select all that
apply.)
A. "I pray only with clients whose minds can still make choices."
B. "Praying together is the best therapeutic relationship."
C. "I tell clients who don't join me that they're on my prayer list."
D. "I ask clients about wanting to pray together."
 E. "Before praying, I confirm that it's a convenient time for clients."

6. When the assisted living nurse asks the new client about her religious beliefs, the client
answers, "I am not convinced that a Higher Power exists. But I am still open to thinking about
it." Which category of religious beliefs does the client identify with?

A. Nontheistic
B. Monotheistic
C. Agnostic
D. Atheistic

7. A nurse working in the memory care unit listens as the newly admitted client talks about his
work as a pilot as if he had just left the airport. The nurse knows he has been retired for
decades. What does the nurse recognize as the benefits of hearing his work life story? (Select
all that apply.)

A. Helping the client maintain a sense of identity

B. Focusing on the positive aspects of a past work life
C. Keeping his verbal abilities exercised
D. Entertaining the other clients and families
E. Giving the nurse insight into the client's behavior

8. A nurse who is a certified diabetes specialist is aware of the negative effects of fasting on
glucose control. The nurse knows that clients with diabetes and clients with other conditions
are often exempt from fasting requirements. Which people have conditions that often exempt
them from religious fasting? (Select all that apply.)

A. Menstruating women
B. Growing teenagers
C. Nursing mothers
D. People over 65
E. Marathon runners

9. A client admitted for major cardiac surgery states a religious preference. Then the client lists
all the church's rules that the client disagrees with. What does the admitting nurse understand
about the client's religious status?

A. The client is a dissenting member of that group.

B. The client is a former member of that group.
C. The client is an outsider trying to be part of that group.
D. The client has been excommunicated from that group.

10. A nurse is observing a newly admitted client for details to add to the spiritual assessment.
Which clinical observations would be useful additions? (Select all that apply.)

A. Interactions with others

B. Behavior
C. Mood
 D. Speech
E. Mealtime choices

11. A dialysis nurse does not agree with a client's decision to stop treatment. "I promised my
spouse I would try it for a while, but it's too much," the client reveals. In supporting the client
's decision, which principle of morality is the nurse honoring?

A. Veracity
B. Autonomy
C. Fidelity
D. Justice

12. Which situation would the nurse anticipate for a client with a spiritual need related to others?

A. Need to transcend life challenges

B. Need to prepare for and accept death
C. Need to know when to give and take
D. Need to cope with loss of a loved one

13. Which exemplar is consistent with the moral principle of nonmaleficence?

A. A client has an adverse reaction to an antibiotic administered by the nurse

B. A client's physical health improves with the recommended exercise regimen
C. The nurse ensures administering pain medication to a client within 10 minutes
D. The nurse ensures client assessment findings are documented accurately

14. A client asks the nurse to pray for the client. What would be the best initial response by the
nurse who believes in prayer?

A. "May I call the chaplain to come pray with you?"

B. "I know your faith is important to you. It is to me too."
C. "What should I pray for?"
D. "Isn't it wonderful that we have God to share our concerns with."

15. A client in the emergency department has a severe injury, and treatment requires red blood
cells. The client is a Jehovah's Witness who believes it would be medical rape for the nurse to
give the transfusion. Which statement by the nurse would most likely lead to resolution of this
conflict?

A. "You must accept the transfusion; if you don't, you will need to leave."
B. "Don't worry, you can ask for pardon after the transfusion."
C. "May I call a representative of your religion so I can understand your position?
D. "I understand your position and I'll be with you as you die."

16. The nurse delivers the evening meal tray to a Jewish client who states that the tray is
unacceptable because there is meat and a carton of milk on the tray. Which is the appropriate
intervention by the nurse?
 A. Remove the milk from the tray.
B. Remove the meat from the tray.
C. Call the dietary staff for a new appropriate tray.
D. Tell the client to only eat the meat or drink the milk.

17. The nurse is working on the obstetrical unit. Which action taken by the nurse would be
inappropriate when caring for a client and their newborn infant?

A. Assisting in the baptism of a seriously ill infant if a chaplain is not available

B. Allowing a parent of the Muslim religion to shave a tuft of the infant's hair
C. Discharging an infant Jewish girl prior to her being named
D. Insisting a Jewish couple name their child prior to the circumcision

18. A nursing instructor teaching a course on religion includes which as core aspects of
spirituality? (Select all that apply.)

A. Religion
B. Forgiveness
C. Hope
D. Faith
E. Health

19. The nurse caring for a client and observes which client behavior as an indicator of spiritual
health?

A. A client who insists on wearing pajama bottoms

B. A client who listens to meditative music each morning before breakfast
C. A client who ambulates in the hallway
D. A client discussing his hobbies

20. Which relationship to spirituality best describes concept of legal issues as they relate to
spirituality?

A. Health beliefs are often influenced by spirituality.

B. Advance directive choices and choices associated with autonomy and self-determination
may be influenced by spirituality.
C. Culture and diversity often influence the spirituality of an individual particularly in terms
of religion and morality.
D. Choices associated with ethics often stem from spirituality or morality.

21. The nurse is preparing to lead a group discussion on spiritual distress. The nurse is aware that
which are treatment related factors that can contribute to spiritual distress? (Select all that
apply.)
A. Death of a significant other
B. Experiencing pain
C. Abortion
D. Blood transfusions
E. Surgery
22. A nurse is admitting a client to the hospital and is aware that which is the best time for the
nurse to conduct the initial spiritual assessment?

A. At the beginning of the assessment process prior to taking the vital signs
B. After introduction and prior to beginning the assessment
C. At the beginning of the assessment process immediately after taking the vital signs
D. At the end of the admission process

23. The nurse caring for a client in an acute care setting recognizes which observation as an
environmental cue to spiritual preferences?

A. A client saying prayer before breakfast

B. A client expressing fear of death
C. A minister at the bedside
D. A rosary sitting on the bedside table

24. The nurse caring for a Jewish client at the time of death is aware that which is considered to
be a Jewish tradition with regards to death?

A. Assist in making arrangements to have the body cremated within 24 hours.

B. Turn the head or body toward Mecca.
C. Drape the mirrors in black.
D. A ritual bath must be given by a family member.

25. A dying client states, "Part of what makes dying hard is that I don't know for sure where I am
going. What do you believe happens in the hereafter?" Which ethical guideline should guide
the response by the nurse?

A. Share one's personal beliefs.

B. Share all spiritual beliefs, favoring none.
C. Never share personal spiritual beliefs.
D. First assess the client's beliefs.

26. A nursing student has attended nutritional in-service regarding dietary practices of a variety of
religions. Which statement made by the nursing student would indicate the need for further
teaching?

A. "Muslims eat all forms of meat."

B. "Mormons typically avoid coffee and tea."
C. "Most Hindus are vegetarian and do not eat beef."
D. "If a Jewish client practices a Kosher diet, it is inappropriate to mix dairy and meat."

27. The student nurse is following a preceptor on the assigned clinical shift. Which behavior of the
nurse would the student interpret as caring?

A. Making sure that all medications and treatments are done on time
 B. Explaining an invasive procedure to the client, then asking if it is all right to begin the
procedure
C. Advising the physician that the client wants to speak to him or her prior to a procedure
D. Using aseptic technique when performing a dressing change.

28. During a midterm evaluation, the nurse educator tells the students they need to work on
improving their aesthetic knowledge. Which is a good way for the students to accomplish this?

A. Study harder.
B. Take better notes.
C. Read about the same topic from a variety of sources.
D. Spend time in the clinical area with seasoned nurses.

29. A nurse is working in a busy intensive care unit. A client is admitted with extensive medical
problems and requires a ventilator. Because the nurse has already been assigned to care for
two other clients, the nurse requests that the nurse manager change assignments so that
appropriate attention can be given to this new admission. Which one of Roach's six C's of
caring is the nurse emulating?

A. Commitment
B. Conscience
C. Confidence
D. Compassion

30. A nurse educator teaches students about caring nursing practice. Which situation
demonstrates that the nurse is able to implement the whole idea of caring?

A. The nurse makes lists every morning, so the day stays organized and planned.
B. The nurse is a volunteer at church and school events.
C. The nurse is able to carve out time for a favorite hobby at least once a week.
D. The nurse takes care of aging parents in addition to providing care to immediate family.

31. The nurse is creating a brochure about effective self-care for nurses. Which statements should
the nurse include in the brochure? (Select all that apply.)

A. Effective self-care promotes enhanced critical thinking ability.

B. Self-care activities include getting adequate rest.
C. Prayer and meditation are examples of self-care activities.
D. Effective self-care builds self-esteem.
E. Effective self-care promotes depersonalization of clients.

32. The staff nurse is writing a journal article that explores the principle of caring as it applies to
nursing. Which statements should she include in the article? (Select all that apply.)

A. Client care is synonymous with caring in nursing.

B. Caring in nursing extends beyond feelings of interest or concern.
C. Nursing interventions can be implemented in the absence of genuine caring.
 D. In nursing, demonstration of caring includes the safe, proficient implementation of nursing
interventions.
E. In nursing, concern for the client's well-being will produce safe, effective care.

33. As the nurse is discharging a client, the client states, open double quote"You've been a great
nurse. You're knowledgeable and skilled, and you have a great attitude. You're a real
professional.close double quote" Which nursing caring behavior or process is the client best
describing?

A. Presencing
B. Empowerment
C. Compassion
D. Competence

34. The nurse educator is instructing a group of students about ways of knowing. Which statement
by the student best reflects ethical knowing?

A. "Ethical knowing relates to the nurse's specific personal style during care delivery."
B. "Ethical knowing applies to every intentional nursing action that may be subject to being
judged right or wrong."
C. "Ethical knowing refers to the nurse's ongoing self-exploration and journey toward self-
actualization."
D. "Ethical knowing is rooted in nursing-related facts and observations."

35. The nursing instructor asks the class to describe empirical knowing. Which student responses
are most accurate? (Select all that apply.)

A. "It includes observations related to nursing."

B. "It's subjective in nature."
C. "It incorporates nursing-related facts."
D. "It can be developed through ongoing academic education."
E. "It's also called the science of nursing."

36. The nursing instructor is teaching a class about the relationship between the concept of self-
care and the concept of professional behaviors. Which statement should he include in the
teaching?

A. Focusing on self-care diminishes the nurse's professionalism toward clients.

B. Prioritizing self-care weakens the nurse's professional affiliation with nursing.
C. Inadequate self-care can impair professional work performance by leading to decreased
physical wellness.
D. Psychosocial wellness does not influence professional behaviors.

37. During a classroom discussion about Maslow's hierarchy of needs, a nursing student asks,
open double quote"What is the most basic level of need?close double quote" What is the best
response by the nursing instructor?

A. "Love and belonging needs are the most basic; these include relationships and affection."
 B. "Physiologic needs are the most basic; these include shelter and water."
C. "Safety needs are the most basic; these include physical and psychological safety."
D. "Esteem needs are the most basic; these include respect and competence."

38. The client tells her nurse, open double quote"You helped me learn how to recognize my own
health needs without telling me how I should think.close double quote" Which nursing caring
behavior or process is the client best describing?

A. Presencing
B. Empowerment
C. Compassion
D. Competence

LIFFE-LONG LEARNING ACTIVITIES

1. A nurse is evaluating a patient's learning regarding nutrition. Which behavior reflects the
highest level of learning in the cognitive domain?

A. Modifies favorite recipes by eliminating foods that have to be avoided

B. Evaluates the benefits associated with avoidance of certain foods
C. States why a mother's diet may affect breast-feeding
D. Identifies a list of foods to be avoided

2. What is the primary reason why nurses attend continuing education programs?

A. Update professional knowledge

B. Network within the nursing profession
C. Fulfill requirements for an advanced degree
D. Graduate from an accredited nursing program

3. A nurse is designing a teaching-learning program for a patient who is to be discharged from

the hospital. What should the nurse do first?

A. Identify the patient's locus of control

B. Use a variety of teaching methods appropriate for the patient
C. Formulate an achievable, measurable, and realistic patient goal
D. Assess the patient's current understanding of the content to be taught

4. A nurse is to provide nutritional counseling for an older adult. What should the nurse do first?

A. Plan educational sessions in the late afternoon

B. Speak louder when talking
C. Provide large-print books
D. Assess for readiness

5. A nurse is teaching an older adult how to perform a dressing change. Which nursing action is
most important to address a developmental stress of aging?
 A. Speak louder when talking to the patient
B. Use terminology understandable to the patient
C. Have the patient provide a return demonstration
D. Allow more time for the patient to process information

6. A nursing instructor is evaluating a student nurse's knowledge. Which student behavior

indicates that learning has occurred in the highest level of learning in the cognitive domain?

A. Identifies the expected properties of urine

B. Explains the importance of producing urine
C. Recognizes when something is contaminated
D. Interprets laboratory results of diagnostic urine testing

7. A patient asks the nurse, "What does 96 indicate when my blood pressure is 140 over 96?"
What is the best response by the nurse?

A. "The 96 is the pressure within an artery when the heart is resting between beats."
B. "The 96 reflects the lowest pressure within a vein when blood moves through it."
C. "Everyone is different so it's really relative to each individual what it means."
D. "Let's talk about the concerns you may have about your blood pressure."

8. A nurse is planning a weight reduction program with an obese patient. What should the nurse
anticipate will be the most important component that will determine the success or failure of
this plan?

A. Rewarding compliant behavior with favorite foods

B. Encouraging at least 1 hour of exercise daily
C. Using an 800-calorie daily dietary regimen
D. Setting realistic goals

9. A nurse is providing health teaching for a patient with a comprehension deficit. Which is the
best intervention by the nurse that will support this patient's learning?

A. Establishing a structured environment

B. Asking that unclear words be repeated
C. Speaking directly in front of the patient
D. Making a referral for a hearing evaluation

10. A nurse is teaching a patient recently diagnosed with diabetes mellitus the step-by step
procedure of administering an insulin injection. However, after two sessions the patient is still
reluctant to self-administer the insulin. What should the nurse do?

A. Have the patient administer the injection to an orange

B. Keep reinforcing the principles that have been presented
C. Give the patient an opportunity to explore concerns about the injection
D. Determine if a member of the family is willing to administer the insulin
11. Every person who attended a smoking cessation educational program completed a
questionnaire. What is this type of evaluation called?

A. Survey
B. Post-test
C. Case study
D. Focus group

12. A patient is readmitted to the hospital because of complications resulting from nonadherence
to the prescribed health-care regimen. What should the nurse do first?

A. Encourage healthy behaviors

B. Develop a trusting relationship
C. Use educational aids to reinforce teaching
D. Establish why the client is not following the regimen

13. A nurse is teaching a patient with a hearing impairment. What should the nurse do?

A. Limit educational sessions to 10 minutes

B. Provide information in written format
C. Use at least 2 teaching methods
D. Teach in group settings

14. A nurse is assessing the results of dietary teaching for a patient with diabetes mellitus. What
patient behavior indicates that learning occurred in the affective domain?

A. Discusses which food on the ordered diet must be avoided

B. Eats the food on the special diet ordered by the physician
C. Compiles a list of foods that are permitted on the diet
D. Asks about which foods can be eaten

15. A nurse educator designed various educational programs that employ role-playing as a
teaching strategy. Which group of people should the nurse anticipate will benefit the most
from role-playing?

A. Older adults preparing to retire from the workforce

B. Men unwilling to admit that they have a drinking problem
C. Adolescents learning to abstain from recreational drug use
D. Middle-aged adults preparing for total-knee replacement surgery

16. To be most effective, at what grade reading level should the nurse prepare educational
medical material?

A. Fourth-grade
B. Eighth-grade
C. Tenth-grade
D. Sixth-grade
17. A nurse uses computer-assisted instruction as a strategy when providing preoperative
teaching. The nurse explains to preoperative patients that the greatest advantage of
computer-assisted instruction is that:

A. Learners can progress at their own rate

B. It is the least expensive teaching strategy
C. There are opportunities for pre- and post-testing
D. Information is presented in a well-organized format

18. Which behavior identified by the nurse indicates the highest level of learning in the
psychomotor domain?

A. Demonstrating a well-balanced stance with crutches

B. Identifying the correct equipment that is needed for a colostomy irrigation
C. Performing a dry sterile dressing change without contaminating the equipment
D. Recognizing the difference between systolic and diastolic blood pressure sounds

19. A nurse is assessing a patient's readiness to learn about smoking cessation. Which patient
factor does the nurse consider is most important when determining if a teaching program is
needed by the patient?

A. Previous experience
B. Perceived need
C. Expectations
D. Flexibility

20. A nurse is teaching a preschool-age child. What teaching method is most appropriate for the
nurse to use when teaching a child in this age group?

A. Demonstrations
B. Coloring books
C. Small groups
D. Videos

21. A nurse is attending a class about a new intravenous pump presented by the hospital staff
education department. What is this type of educational program?

A. Continuing education program

B. Inservice education program
C. Certification program
D. Orientation program

22. A nurse is planning teaching about weight reduction strategies to an obese patient. Before
implementing the teaching plan the nurse first should assess the patient's:

A. Intelligence
B. Experience
C. Motivation
 D. Strengths

23. A nurse is planning to engage a patient in a program to learn about a newly diagnosed illness.
Which psychosocial response to the illness will have the greatest impact on the patient's
future success with learning?

A. Fear
B. Denial
C. Fatigue
D. Anxiety

24. A nurse must implement a teaching plan for a patient recently diagnosed with heart failure.
What should the nurse do first?

A. Identify the patient's level of recognition of the need for learning

B. Frame the goal within the patient's value system
C. Determine the patient's preferred learning style
D. Assess the patient's personal support system

25. A teaching-learning concept basic to all teaching plans is to present content from the:

A. Cognitive to the affective domain

B. Formal to the informal
C. Simple to the complex
D. Broad to the specific

26. A nurse is planning a teaching plan for an older adult. Which common factor among older
adult patients must be considered by the nurse?

A. Learning may require more energy

B. Intelligence decreases as people age
C. Older adults rely more on visual rather than auditory learning
D. Older adult patients are more resistant to change that accompanies new learning

27. A nurse is teaching a postoperative patient deep breathing and coughing exercises. Which
method of instruction is most appropriate in this situation?

A. Explanation
B. Demonstration
C. Video presentation
D. Brochure with pictures

28. A nurse is teaching a patient colostomy care in relation to the affective domain. Which
teaching method is most effective for this situation?

A. Discussing a pamphlet about colostomy care from the American Cancer Society
B. Exploring how the patient feels about having a colostomy
C. Providing a demonstration on how to do colostomy care
 D. Showing a videotape demonstrating colostomy care

29. A school nurse is teaching a class of adolescents about avoiding smoking and includes role-
playing as a creative learning activity. What is the primary reason for using role-playing?

A. Provides more fun than other methods

B. Eliminates the need for media equipment
C. Requires active participation by the learner
D. Gives the learner the opportunity to be another person

30. A culturally competent nurse is planning to teach a patient about a new regimen of self-care.
What must the nurse assess first about the patient before implementing the teaching plan?

A. Religious affiliation
B. Support system
C. National origin
D. Health beliefs

31. A nurse is assessing a patient to determine educational needs. Which is most important for the
nurse to consider?

A. Make no assumptions about the patient

B. Teaching may be informal or formal in nature
C. The teaching plan should be documented on appropriate records
D. A copy of the teaching/learning contract should be given to the patient

32. A nurse is preparing a patient with a colostomy for discharge. What patient outcome indicates
that learning has occurred in the psychomotor domain?

A. Accepts the need to have a colostomy

B. Understands why certain foods should be avoided
C. Verbalizes the rationale for daily colostomy irrigations
D. Changes a colostomy bag without contaminating the hands

33. Which word best describes the nurse's role when functioning as a teacher?

A. Provide
B. Comfort
C. Empower
D. Collaborate

34. Which best describes a patient with an external locus of control? Select all that apply.

A. Behaving appropriately to obtain the right to watch a television program

B. Is self-motivated when implementing health promotion behaviors
C. Wants to please family members with efforts to get well
D. Understands the expected outcome of therapy
E. Is a self-actualized adult
35. The nurse is teaching a patient newly diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus about how to
best manage his blood sugar. Which outcome in the patient's plan of care is associated with
the cognitive domain of learning? The patient:

A. identifies signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia.

B. nods affirmatively with direct eye contact.
C. demonstrates fingerstick glucose monitoring.
D. independently self-administers insulin.

36. When teaching students about how to provide culturally sensitive care to a diverse group of
patients, which teaching strategy should the nurse use?

A. Demonstration
B. Lecture
C. Online sources of information
D. Role modeling

37. A nurse strives to teach a spouse how to monitor a patient's blood pressure. Which teaching
method is best?

A. Provide the patient and spouse with written instruction about how to obtain a blood
pressure reading.
B. Demonstrate the technique for taking a blood pressure reading, and then request a return
demonstration.
C. Schedule the spouse for a class about high blood pressure, including monitoring
technique.
D. Provide the spouse with a patient education brochure about blood pressure monitoring.

38. How might the nurse improve patients' health literacy when communicating with healthcare
providers?

A. Ask patients simple yes or no questions.

B. Speak with passive voice instead of active.
C. Avoid medical jargon and technical terms.
D. Provide information printed in English.

39. Why is patient education important in today's healthcare environment?

A. Primarily it is offered to increase patient confidence for self-care.

B. Nurses do patient teaching to transfer responsibility for care to patients.
C. Patient education contributes to rising healthcare costs.
D. More healthcare is delivered in the home and outpatient settings

40. The nurse working in a hospital with a diverse population strives to offer culturally sensitive
care. What nursing action would be most appropriate?

A. Act as if familiar with cultural practices or values even if uncertain.

 B. Allow patient to include cultural practices in plan of care unless harmful.
C. Use common slang phrases, as they are familiar to many people.
D. Incorporate humor into interactions with patients to put them at ease.

41. What are some ways that the nurse may reinforce patient teaching? Select all that apply.

A. Respond by saying, "What questions do you have?"

B. Ask, "Do you understand the instructions?"
C. Say, "Show me how you would change your ostomy bag."
D. Verbally repeat steps the patient has questions about.
E. Provide a printed pamphlet for the patient to take home.

42. The nurse providing discharge teaching to a patient whose primary language is not English
would most likely use which teaching strategies? Select all that apply.

A. Present 10 to 12 short, simple instructions at a time.

B. Send forms home with the patient for family members to help complete.
C. Use drawings and photographs to illustrate the information.
D. Ask an interpreter to help translate the discharge instructions.
E. Use an active voice with simple words when speaking to the patient.

43. During family therapy, to improve communication skills the nurse teaches family members to
rehearse responses to situations involving interpersonal conflict. What is the primary
drawback of using this teaching strategy?

A. Some people might have difficulty with an interactive approach when there is conflict
among participants.
B. Nurses might rehearse responses that are not effective for resolving interpersonal conflict.
C. Nurses don't use the rehearsal technique because it's an inefficient use of time for
participants.
D. This type of interactive teaching strategy is not as effective as dispersing information
verbally or in print.

NUTRITION COUNSELING AND DIETARY INSTRUCTION

1. Which of the following symptoms would be most likely to present in a

patient with a biotin deficiency?

A. Edema
B. Alopecia
C. Thyroiditis
D. Nausea

2. Nutritional intervention may include all of the following except __________.

A. initiating tube feeding
B. admonishing patients for dietary indiscretion
C. diet prescription or recommendation
D. providing specific nutrient supplementation

3. Which of the following conditions is caused by chronic protein deficiency?

A. Marasmus
B. Kwashiorkor
C. Beriberi
D. Pellagra

4. Which of the following nutrients can cause hypercalcification in soft tissues

when consumed in excess for prolonged periods?

A. Vitamin D
B. Magnesium
C. Niacin
D. Potassium

5. Methylenetetrahydrofolate reductase (MTHFR) deficiency results in the

inability to perform which of the following metabolic processes?

A. Methylation of folate
B. Homocysteine remethylation
C. Methylation of vitamin B12
D. All of these

6. Which of the following is an essential amino acid?

A. Alanine
B. Glutamate
C. Tryptophan
D. Cysteine

7. All of the following criteria must be taken into account when establishing
Daily Reference Intakes (DRI's) except __________.

A. UL's (Upper Intake Levels)

B. ADI (Active Daily Intake)
C. RDA (Recommended Daily Allowance)
D. EAR (Estimated Average Requirements)
 8. Which of the following is the most abundant mineral in the human body?

A. Calcium
B. Potassium
C. Magnesium
D. Iron

NUTRIPRENEURSHIP

1. Entrepreneur - is the process of designing, launching and running a new business,

which is often initially a small business.

2. Entrepreneurship - is the process of designing, launching and running a new

business, which is often initially a small business

3. Nutripreneur - is a person who helps improve the lives of others by building a

profitable business centered on nutrition.

4. Nutripreneurship - is the practice and process that results in creativity,

innovation, development and growth of nutrition as business.

5. Nutripreneurs - are nutritionists’ innovators who use a process of changing the

current situation of the existing products and services, to set up new products and
new services

6. Pillar of Entrepreneurship
 An idea and marker
 Skills/knowledge and experience
 Resources
 Motivation and hard work

7. Steph Lowe – The Natural Nutritionist - Steph Lowe is a sports nutritionist that
offers a gluten-free diet to increase wellness and optimum personal wellness.

8. Kate Freeman – The healthy Eating Hub - Kate Freeman is a registered nutritionist,
author and consultant. She is the founder & managing director of The Healthy
Eating Hub that offers consultation on a range of areas including weight
management, meal planning, family and sports nutrition.

9. Jessica Sepel – JSHealth - Jessica Sepel is a clinical nutritionist, blogger and founder
of JSHealth, that promotes healthy eating, healthy body image, healthy travel and
healthy living.
10. Cyndi O’Meara – Changing Habits - Cydi is the nutritionist that lets you eat
chocolate and can be good for you. She founded Changing habits that provide
information on nutrition and healthy eating.