Unit 1: Introduction to Financial Services Environment and Products

1. In order to be acceptable as a medium of exchange, money must have all except which
one of the following?

A It must be divisible into small units.

B It must be free from the effects of inflation.
C It must be generally acceptable to all parties in all transactions.
D It must be sufficient in quantity.

2. The Bank of England is a central bank because it:

A acts as banker to the Government, supervises the economy and regulates the supply of
money.
B deposits money with the International Monetary Fund.
C has been approved by the Treasury and lends money direct to other banks.
D holds reserves of foreign currency for other banks and institutional investors.

3. How can a bank involved in wholesale banking raise money quickly in order to finance
business activities?

A By a further issue of shares.

B By borrowing from the Bank of England.
C By issuing gilts.
D From the interbank market.

4. If the UK Government's golden rule of fiscal policy is followed, what result will be achieved
with regard to government borrowing over the economic cycle?

A Its funding of current spending will be nil.

B Its funding of government grants will increase.
C It will exceed income by a maximum of 10%.
D It will fall below income received.

5. Which one of the following investments would be most suitable for a person who did not
wish to put their capital at risk?

A Blue chip shares.

B Building society deposit.
C Managed unit trust.
D Warrants.

6. Which one of the following statements regarding local authority stocks is untrue?

A They can be sold to other investors on the open market.

B They offer a fixed rate of interest.
C They pay interest at half-yearly intervals.
D They pay interest net of basic rate UK tax.

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7. Why would a client be interested in the 'coupon' of a gilt-edged security?

A It gives an indication of expected income and capital growth.

B It indicates the amount of capital repayable at maturity.
C It indicates the interest rate payable over the term.
D It indicates the possible gain over the original issue price at redemption.

8. Which one of the following is not a feature of ordinary shares? The shareholder:

A has the right to receive a share of the profits.

B has the right to vote at annual general meetings.
C is liable for the debts of the company.
D ranks after preference shareholders.

9. For which type of share does a warrant holder have the right to subscribe?

A Convertible.
B Ordinary.
C Preference.
D Redeemable.

10. When considering investing in residential property, which one of the following
characteristics is untrue?

A Costs associated with property investment are generally high.

B Rental income provides a poor hedge against the impact of inflation.
C The capital value of the property may fall.
D There may be periods when suitable tenants are difficult to find.

11. James has chosen to place his savings in a cash Individual Savings Account (ISA). He
has done this because:

A he is over age 60.

B he wishes to save £7,000 per tax year.
C his account will allow him to add or withdraw any amount of cash at any time without any
penalty.
D the account is more tax-efficient than standard deposit accounts.

12. Why could equities be considered an inappropriate source of regular income for non-
taxpayers?

A Dividends are normally paid annually.

B Income from equities is subject to capital gains tax.
C Stamp duty is payable on all dividends paid.
D Tax deducted on dividends paid cannot be reclaimed.

13. Which of the following statements in respect of gilts and local authority stock is true?

A Gilts are negotiable and any gain may be subject to capital gains tax.
B Interest on gilts is paid without deduction of income tax but is taxable.
C Interest on local authority stock is subject to capital gains tax.
D Local authority stock is not negotiable and carries a government guarantee.

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18. Under the rules of an Open Ended Investment Company, three of the following types of
charge may be applied. Which one is the exception?

A Administration costs.
B Annual management charge.
C Bid-offer spread.
D Initial charge.

19. What happens when an option derivative reaches its option date?

A The derivative can be converted to a warrant.

B The full maturity value of the derivative is paid to the investor.
C The investor can choose to exercise the option at the predetermined price or let the
option lapse.
D The investor can opt to extend the option date for a further period, at the same price.

20. Which one of the following is one way in which a repayment mortgage differs
fundamentally from a full endowment mortgage?

A Life cover is not automatically built in.

B The higher the interest rate, the higher the monthly repayment to the lender.
C The interest rate charged is usually lower.
D The loan is guaranteed to be fully repaid at the end of the term.

21. What type of mortgage scheme would help someone on a low-income to become an
owner-occupier?

A Buy-to-let.
B Home reversion.
C Housing trust.
D Shared ownership.

22. Which of the following life assurance policies carries the most risk?

A Non-profit.
B Unitised with-profits.
C Unit-linked.
D With-profits.

23- What is the usual financial priority of a retired individual?

A Build up a capital reserve.

B Increase income from investments.
C Maintain his/her standard of living.
D Minimise capital gains tax liability.

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24. James was domiciled in the UK at the time of his death. His estate for inheritance tax
purposes would include all assets:

A in countries without a double taxation agreement with the UK only.

B in the EC only.
C in the UK only.
D wherever situated.

25. The concept of 'know your client' means:

A establishing a client's current financial position in terms of income and expenditure.

B gaining a detailed knowledge of a client's personal and financial circumstances.
C getting your client to identify all his existing life and pension policies.
D understanding a client's current position in terms of assets and liabilities.

26. Which one of the following usually becomes the priority financial need on becoming a
parent?

A Investment.
B Pensions,
C Protection.
D Savings.

27. Which one of the following would normally be regarded as the priority financial need for an
individual who has surplus cash for the first time?

A An emergency fund.
B An equity Individual Savings Account.
C A pension plan.
D A unit trust.

28. Which one of the following could be described as 'proactive servicing'?

A A letter to a client asking the reason for non-payment of three premiums.

B A strongly worded letter to a client who is querying the charges on his unit trust.
C A telephone call to a client's wife who has contacted you to advise of her husband's
death.
D A telephone call to a client to arrange a pre-agreed review following a salary increase.

29. A complaint against an independent financial adviser has been found justified because:

A her business card failed to mention her qualifications.

B she posted the personal illustration to the client after completion of the proposal form.
C the cancellation notice was explained at the time of the sale.
D the key facts illustration had been provided by the product provider.

30. When an individual dies intestate, leaving a spouse, children and an estate valued at
£110,000, which one of the following applies?

A The entire estate passes to the spouse absolutely.

B The estate is divided equally between the surviving spouse and children.
C The first £50,000 passes to the surviving spouse absolutely, along with a life interest in
half the remaining estate.
D The surviving spouse inherits a life interest only in the deceased's entire estate.

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31. Any loss made by a partnership is usually:

A allocated amongst the partners in the same ratio as profits are shared.
B held to be offset against future profits.
C held to reduce any potential tax liability.
D written off.

32. Despite his recent marriage to Katrina, John's existing will has remained in force. Why is
this?

A John has no children or other dependants.

B John's estate is valued at £199,000.
C The will was witnessed by Katrina and her father.
D The will was written with the wedding in mind.

33. Which is true of independent financial advisers in terms of agency law?

A They act as agents of their client.

B They act as agents of the product providers.
C They act on behalf of a network.
D They act on their own account.

34. Which one of the following items of property would be referred to as personalty?

A A collection of vintage wines.

B A detached house.
C A paddock used for grazing horses.
D A Victorian factory building.

35. Which one of the following is a definition of an attorney?

A A person who delegates authority to another to act on their behalf.

B A person who does not himself have the authority to enter into a contract.
C A person who is given the authority to act on behalf of another person.
D A person who moves abroad but wishes to retain a decision maker in the UK.

36. One of the financial restrictions placed on undischarged bankrupts is that:

A they are only able to borrow nominal amounts of money.

B they are only able to work on an employed basis.
C they are unable to buy goods except for their own consumption.
D they are unable to contribute to protection policies.

37. What is the youngest age at which a person resident in the UK can be liable for income
tax?

A From birth.
B Age 16.
C The age at which they start work.
D Age 18.

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38. What is the total tax liability of a higher rate taxpayer on income earned from dividends?

A 20%.
B 22.5%.
C 32.5%.
D 40%.

39. Who is allowed to use expenses to reduce income tax liability?

A Employees only.
B Employees, partners and sole traders.
C Sole traders only.
D Sole traders and partners only.

40. Income tax is not payable on which one of the following forms of income?

A Income from local authority stocks.

B Interest on National Savings Certificates.
C Inventor's income from copyright or patent.
D Tips.

41. Fiona sold a painting for £50,000 in May 2005. For capital gains tax calculation purposes,
to what date can the indexation allowance be applied?

A 31 March 1992.
B 31 March 1998.
C 5 April 1998.
D 5 April 1999.

42. Which one of the following statements in respect of capital gains tax (CGT) is correct?

A CGT may be payable on a deceased's estate in addition to inheritance tax.

B Chargeable assets held within and outside the UK may be subject to CGT on disposal.
C Premium Bond and Lottery winnings are subject to CGT because they are classed as
unearned income.
D The annual exemption allowance may be carried forward for use in a later tax year.

43. A capital gains tax liability could arise in which of the following circumstances?

A A corporation that has just been sold.

B A partnership's daily trading.
C A public limited company's daily trading.
D The retirement of a sole trader.

44. Emma bought some shares in July 2005 that cost her £3,500.00. How much stamp duty
reserve tax did she have to pay?

A £17.50.
B £35.00.
C £105.00.
D £140.00.

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45. Class 4 National Insurance contributions would be paid by:

A Brian, retired, who wishes to enhance his State earnings related pension.
B Jack, self-employed, who makes regular profits exceeding £12,000 pa.
C Julie, an employed wife of a sole trader, with earnings of £14,000 pa,
D Stephanie, self-employed, who wishes to make voluntary contributions in respect of
earning gaps.

46. Mr and Mrs Black have an elderly relative that needs care and locally there is a council-
run residential home into which they would like him to go. This relative does not have any
means to pay for this, but Mr and Mrs Black understand that there may be some help from the
State. What would this help be?

A Attendance allowance.
B Incapacity benefit.
C Income support.
D Invalid care allowance.

47. Wally keeps £500 under his mattress. Which one of the following represents the effect of
inflation on this amount over the period of one year?

A It now purchases fewer euros.

B It now purchases fewer pints of bitter.
C It would have been worth £525 if invested in XYZ shares.
D It would have earned £15 interest in a savings account.

48. A potential disadvantage of a fixed-rate mortgage is that:

A if the fixed rate is lower than the standard variable rate, the lender will add the shortfall to
the loan.
B the new rate payable at the end of the term will always be higher that the rate on the fixed
rate deal.
C the rate throughout the term will generally be higher than the prevailing standard variable
rate.
D there is often a substantial up-front arrangement fee that must be taken into account by
the mortgagor.

49. Nick and Lynne are keen to take advantage of a better deal and remortgage with a new
lender. However, their existing lender has informed them that if they move, they will have to
pay an additional six months' interest. The most likely reason for this is that:

A their lender is reclaiming the valuation fee outlay.

B they have a fixed rate mortgage.
C they have arrears on the mortgage account.
D they have a variable rate mortgage.

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50. Which type of mortgage reduces the normal variable rate of interest?

A Deferred interest mortgage.

B Discounted mortgage.
C Low-cost mortgage.
D Low-start mortgage.

Unit 2: UK Financial Services and Regulation

51. Which one of the following best describes the reason why the Financial Services and
Markets Act 2000 was introduced?

A It was necessary to make the Home Office the main authorising body.
B It was necessary to make the Treasury the main authorising body.
C The existing regulatory structure was too bureaucratic.
D The existing regulatory structure was too fragmented.

52. In judging the FSA's performance, it must be seen to be:

A facilitating competition.
B increasing regulation.
C maintaining costs.
D reducing innovation.

53. Which one of the following is not covered by the Financial Services Authority's Principles
for Business?

A A firm's relations with its regulators.

B Guidelines on financial promotions.
C Maintenance of adequate financial resources.
D The protection of customers' assets.

54. In relation to how a firm deals with its regulator, which one of the following is not defined
within the Principles of Business? A firm must:

A deal with its regulators in a co-operative way.

B deal with its regulators in an open way.
C disclose appropriate data to its regulator.
D disclose data on a regular basis to its regulator.

55. Under the rules relating to approved persons, in which 'function' would the Chief Internal
Auditor be categorized?

A Customer function.
B Governing function.
C Required function.
D Systems and control functions.

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56. Which one of the following job applicants is least likely to meet the FSA 'fit and proper'
requirements?

A Gill, who has recently been made redundant from a firm of independent financial advisers.
B Irene, who currently has an authorised overdraft limit of £2000.
C Josie, whose father's house was repossessed three years ago.
D Veronica, who has missed her last two mortgage payments following a divorce.

57. The EU definition of market abuse can be divided into two areas known as:

A best execution and money laundering.

B insider dealing and market manipulation.
C market manipulation and money laundering.
D money laundering and insider dealing.

58. Which one of the following is exempt from the Consumer Credit Act 1974?

A A credit card account with a limit of £5,000.

B A further advance for house repairs of £15,000.
C A loan for £20,000 secured on property for car purchase.
D An unsecured personal loan of £10,000.

59. The final salary occupational pension scheme offered to employees of the Buckby
Engineering Company has a financial year ending on 31 May 2005. What is the
latest date by which audited accounts and an auditor's statement must be produced?

A 30 November 2005.
B 31 December 2005.
C 5 April 2006.
D 31 May 2006.

60. Who is responsible for considering any complaint brought about because of The Unfair
Terms in Consumer Contracts Regulations 1999?

A Financial Ombudsman Service (FOS).

B Financial Services Authority (FSA).
C Financial Services Compensation Scheme (FSCS).
D Office of Fair Trading (OFT).

61. A firm of insurance intermediaries specialising in life and pensions business and based in
London wishes to conduct business in two other EU countries, France and Germany. How do
EU directives impact on their registration?

A The FSA must approve any move before they can conduct business in either country.
B Their registration with the FSA enables them to conduct business in other EU countries.
C They must apply for separate registration in France and Germany.
D They will be able to conduct life business in France and Germany but not pensions
business.

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62. Which one of the following features of an equity ISA means that it cannot be I
described as CAT standard?

A The fund charge is 0.75% per annum.

B The minimum monthly contribution is £40.
C The units are single-priced.
D 60% of the fund is invested in North America.

63. Which one of the following describes the range of products that could be sold by a
company representative who is fully authorised?

A Any product from the market as a whole.

B Any product from the range of the company represented.
C Products from any company regulated by the Financial Services Authority.
D Products from any non-registered company.

64. The Haddon Bank currently has mortgage loans secured on residential property, totalling
£10m. What minimum level of 'own funds' must be retained to satisfy solvency ratio
requirements?

A £80,000.
B £160,000.
C £400,000.
D £800,000.

65. The frequency of compliance visits by the FSA' s officers to a particular firm depends on
the:

A number of approved individuals employed by the firm.

B regulator's risk assessment of the firm.
C size of the firm, measured by its gross income.
D type of firm.

66. Which one of the following is not a tool open to Financial Services Authority in setting and
enforcing standards for organizations and individuals?

A Compensation.
B Discipline.
C Injunctions and prosecutions.
D Supervision or investigation of firms.

67. Which one of the following roles in a regulated firm would be classified by the FSA as a
'required function'?

A Barbara, who is an investment adviser with an investment house.

B Jackie, who is the chief executive of a Scottish mutual insurer.
C Jean, who is the money laundering reporting officer for a large group of IFAs.
D Lisa, who is a corporate finance adviser.

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68. Douglas is a sleeping partner in a limited liability IFA partnership with his son Richard.
How do the FSA view Douglas's position in the business?

A As a sleeping partner, the FSA ignore his role and simply retain a record of his name.
B As he is not a director, there is no requirement for his approval by the FSA.
C He is regarded as being in a governing function and must be approved by the FSA.
D Since this is regarded as a family business, there is only a requirement for Richard to be
approved.

69. Haddon Bank are about to begin an advertising campaign to promote fresh interest in
their UK Equity Fund which was launched ten years ago. Since they intend to show recent
performance of the fund, what is the minimum period over which performance figures must
be shown?

A One year.
B Five years.
C Seven years.
D Ten years.

70. Which one of the following criteria is not one that must be satisfied by an
advertisement in order to comply with the Financial Services Authority's guidelines on
advertising?

A It must be authorised by the Financial Services Authority.

B It must be fair and not misleading.
C It must be tailored to the likely level of sophistication of the reader.
D It must clearly state the tax position in respect of contributions and benefits.

71. According to the Conduct of Business rules laid down by the Financial Services Authority
it is necessary to keep adequate records of all dealings with customers. Which one of the
following is not a reason for this requirement?

A To assist in responding to customer complaints.

B To constitute an audit trial for inspections.
C To provide evidence of compliance procedures.
D To verify commission income.

72. Under the Financial Services Authority regulations, what is the minimum number of years
for which companies are required to retain records of individual employees' training and
competence?

A Three years.
B Four years.
C Five years.
D Six years.

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73. Before an employee carries out duties that fall under the FSA's regulatory responsibility
he should:

A be assessed as competent to undertake the role without supervision.

B be assessed on technical knowledge and its application.
C have completed the required number of hours' continuing professional development.
D have successfully completed his probation period.

74. Which one of the following statements is false in relation to Training and Competence
regulation?

A All approved persons are subject to the detailed rules.

B Firms must monitor continuing competence.
C Records of assessment criteria must be kept.
D Those subject to the rules must pass an approved examination.

75. Which one of the following has a direct interest in the supervision of the financial services
sector?

A The Bank of England.

B The Department of Trade and Industry.
C The Inland Revenue.
D The Treasury.

76. An independent financial adviser must select both a suitable product and its provider
Which one of the following matters does not need to be considered in selecting the provider?

A The commission paid.

B The cost of the product.
C The product's performance to date.
D The standard of service offered to clients.

77. Under the 'know your customer requirements', advisers should:

A assume that a private customer fully understands the risks involved.

B explain the potential product risks to an execution-only client but not be concerned with
'best execution'.
C offer exactly the same duty of care and advice to all customers.
D provide the highest level of advice and duty of care to clients categorised as private
customers.

78. When is it not necessary to give a customer a 'terms of business' letter?

A If the transaction involves investment advice.

B If the transaction results from an off-the-page advertisement.
C When the customer has been given a business card.
D When the customer is a professional investor.

79. Under the rules of polarisation, financial advisers:

A can be tied to one company but retain a degree of independence.

B can sell only the products of one specific company.
C must be either tied to one particular company or be independent.
D must provide independent advice.

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80. Under know your customer rules, why does an adviser need to establish a 'risk profile’?

A In order to match appropriate insurance solutions.

B In order to match appropriate investment solutions.
C To establish premium sustainability levels.
D To identify affordability levels.

81. When recommending a product to a client, the suitability of advice rules require the
independent adviser to always abide by the fundamental principle of:

A observing that the client knows best.

B observing the client's best interests.
C offering the most cost-effective product.
D offering the top performing product.

82. If a client intends purchasing an investment product from an intermediary on an 'execution

only' basis, then:

A best execution rules will not apply.

B know your customer rules will still apply.
C no commission will be payable.
D no recommendation will be required.

83. When determining what constitutes excessive charges, the FSA rules require that
advisers should consider which one of the following?

A How proposed charges impact on the projected investment return.

B How their charges compare with those of other advisers for similar services.
C The FSA list of recommended charging rates.
D The proportion of the product premium taken in charges.

84. A £12,000 unit-linked single premium investment bond is cancelled by a customer within
the cooling-off period. During this period, the stock market fell sharply and consequently, so
did the value of the bond. What is the customer likely to receive?

A £12,000 less a market adjustment, if specified in the contract.

B £12,000 less a market adjustment, whether or not specified in the contract.
C 95% of the surrender value of the investment bond.
D The paid-up value of the investment bond.

85. An adviser must issue a key facts illustration prior to a sale being concluded for all of the
following products except:

A gilt-edged securities.
B life assurance.
C stakeholder pensions.
D unit trusts.

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86. Sandler's 2001 report on Financial Services has what key proposal for the industry?

A Higher limits on the permitted Free Asset Ratio for Financial Services Companies.
B The development of simple, low-cost, risk-controlled products that would appeal to the
less financially sophisticated.
C The introduction of polarisation for financial advisers.
D Tighter regulation of Occupational Pension Schemes.

87. Jane is arranging a loan secured on her residential property, post-October 2004, but
which is not subject to Financial Services Authority regulation. This is because:

A the loan is for a purpose other than house purchase.

B the loan is for less than £25,000.
C the security for the loan is a second charge.
D the term of the loan is less than ten years.

88. Pauline is offering mortgage advice to a client post-October 2004. This means that, as
well as considering which mortgage suits the client's needs, Pauline must also consider the:

A affordability of the product to the client.

B commission structure of the product.
C impact of the choice of provider on her business spread key performance indicator.
D impact of the choice of provider on her workload.

89. Mortgage Advice Ltd has found that their primary method of obtaining new business is not
now permitted under Financial Services Authority regulation. This means that they must have
been using which of the following methods?

A Cold calling.
B Mortgage introducers.
C Radio advertising.
D TV advertising.

90. Fiona has received an initial disclosure document (IDD) and a personalised key facts
illustration (KFI) containing more elements than usual relating to the specific nature of the
product and its additional risks. What type of mortgage product must she be arranging?

A A cash-back mortgage.
B A further advance.
C A lifetime mortgage.
D A re-mortgage.

91. lain works in the back office of a general insurance broker. From January 2005 he is be
required to be authorised through the same processes of permission and approval which
applies to the remainder of the industry. This is because he:

A arranges for general advertising and marketing of the brokers' services.

B has less than 12 months' experience in the general insurance industry.
C is a qualified mortgage adviser.
D works on processing insurance claims on behalf of clients.

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92. An authorised firm's senior management must ensure that their organization is protected
from use by money launderers by doing all of the following except:

A alerting those under suspicion of money laundering.

B appointing a Money Laundering Reporting Officer.
C providing regular training for staff.
D reporting suspicious transactions.

93. Mandy, a financial adviser, has completed a report form and submitted it to her company's
Money Laundering Reporting Officer. Under what circumstances would she take this action?

A Only when she believes a colleague may be supporting money laundering.

B Only when she knows for certain that a client is involved in money laundering activity.
C When she knows or suspects that a client is involved in money laundering activity.
D When the value of the transaction exceeds €15,000.

94. Employees should receive regular training about what is expected of them under money
laundering rules so that they:

A are aware of the consequences to themselves if they fail to comply.

B can assess their firm's compliance with the sourcebook.
C can caution as appropriate any suspect individuals.
D can complete the Money Laundering Report.

95. Paul was prosecuted under the Proceeds of Crime Act 2002 and received the maximum
sentence of five years and a fine. This means that he must have been convicted of which
money laundering offence?

A Acquiring.
B Arranging.
C Concealing.
D Tipping off.

96. Jason has just received a first interim letter from a firm to whom he had previously made a
complaint. The firm has sent this letter because:

A Jason has not yet confirmed his complaint to the firm in writing.
B the complaint is still under investigation after four weeks.
C the firm has completed its investigations into the complaint.
D they have referred his case to the Financial Ombudsman Service.

97. The Financial Ombudsman Service deals with unresolved complaints in respect of:

A general insurance brokers.

B interest rates.
C investment advice.
D investment performance.

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98. The Financial Services Compensation Scheme will pay out compensation to customers
who have:

A been mis-sold a mortgage endowment policy.

B been rnis-sold a personal pension plan.
C lost money through the insolvency of an authorized firm.
D lost money through the mismanagement of an investment fund.

99. In relation to the Data Protection Act 1998, which one of the following is incorrect?

A It applies only to records held on computer.

B It gives individuals the right of access to data relating to them.
C It requires anyone holding computerised data on individuals to be registered.
D It requires anyone holding data to have a data protection policy.

100.If a company fails to comply with an enforcement notice under the Data Protection' Act
1998, what is the maximum fine that can be imposed, without referring the case to the Crown
Court?

A £5,000.
B £25,000.
C £100,000.
D Unlimited.

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Answers

Qu Ans - Text ref

1 B Unit 1; 1.1
2 A Unit 1; 1.2.1
3 D Unit 1; 1.2.3
4 A Unit 1; 1.3.4.3
5 B Unit 1; Section 2
6 A Unit 1; 2.2.2
7 C Unit 1; 2.2.1
8 C Unit 1; 2.3.1
9 B Unit 1; 3.4
10 B Unit 1; 2.4
11 D Unit 1; 3.2.4
12 D Unit 1; 2.3.1.2. 1
13 B Unit 1; 2.2.1
14 A Unit 1; 2.2.3
15 B Unit 1; 3.2.2
16 B Unit 1: 3.2.1.4
17 A Unit 1; 3.2.5.1. 1
18 C Unit 1; 3.2.3.4
19 C Unit 1; 3.4
20 A Unit 1; 3.5.1.2. 1
21 D Unit 1; 3.5.1.4.3
22 C Unit 1; 3.2.5
23 C Unit 1; 4.2
24 D Unit 1; 1.3.3.1
25 B Unit 1; 4.1
26 C Unit 1; Section 4
27 A Unit 1; 2.1
28 D Unit 1; 4.4.5.1
29 B Unit 1; 4.4.4
30 A Unit 1; 6.1.1.1
31 A Unit 1; 6.1.4
32 D Unit 1; 6.1.1
33 A Unit 1; 6.3
34 A Unit 1; 6.4
35 C Unit 1; 6.5
36 A Unit 1; 6.6
37 A Unit 1; 1.3.3.2
38 C Unit 1; 1.3.3.2
39 B Unit 1; 1.3.3.2
40 B Unit 1; 2.1.5.7
41 C Unit 1; 1.3.3.4
42 B Unit 1; 1.3.3.4
43 D Unit 1; 1.3.3.4
44 A Unit 1; 1.3.3.7
45 B Unit 1; 1.3.3.3
46 C Unit 1; 1.3.5.1 2
47 B Unit 1; 5.4.1
48 D Unit 1; 3.5.1.3 3
49 B Unit 1; 3.5.1.3 3
50 B Unit 1; 3.5.1.3 2

17
Answers

Qu Ans - Text ref

51 D Unit 2; 1.2
52 A Unit 2;1.3
53 B Unit 2; 1.4
54 D Unit 2; 1.4
55 D Unit 2; 1.13.3
56 D Unit 2; 1.6
57 B Unit 2; 1.7
58 B Unit 2; 5.1
59 B Unit 2;5.3.2.6
60 D Unit 2; 5. 2. 2
61 B Unit 2; 5.4 .3. 3
62 D Unit 2;5.5.1
63 B Unit 2; 1.20.1
64 C Unit 2; 1.9.1
65 B Unit 2; 1.10
66 A Unit 2; 1.11
67 C Unit 2; 1.13.2
68 C Unit 2; 1.13.1
69 B Unit 2;1.14
70 A Unit 2; 1.14
71 D Unit 2; 1.15
72 A Unit 2; 1.16.2.4
73 A Unit 2; 1.16.2.1
74 A Unit 2; 1.16
75 D Unit 2; 1.3
76 A Unit 2; 1.22
77 D Unit 2; 1.18.1
78 D Unit 2; 1.19
79 C Unit 2; 1.20.1
80 B Unit 2; 1.21
81 B Unit 2; 1.22
82 D Unit 2; 1.23
83 B Unit 2; 1.24
84 A Unit 2; 1.26
85 A Unit 2; 1.25
86 B Unit 2; 1.27
87 C Unit 2; 1.28
88 A Unit 2; 1.28
89 A Unit 2; 1.28.2
90 C Unit 2; 1.28.1
91 D Unit 2; 1.29
92 A Unit 2; 2. 4.2
93 C Unit 2; 2.7
94 A Unit 2; 2. 8
95 D Unit 2; 2.9
96 B Unit 2; 3.1
97 C Unit 2; 3.2
98 C Unit 2; 3.3
99 A Unit 2;4.1
100 A Unit 2; 4. 1.3

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