LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION

COMPARATIVE MODELS OF POLICING

1.
 LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION AND PLANNING WITH CRIME
MAPPING
1. In this form of authority, personnel do not give orders but they offer advice.
Frequently, this advice is based on a high level of expertise but the advice carries
no formal requirement for acceptance.
A. Democracy C. Line
B. Functional D. Staff

2. Which of the following criteria is necessary in obtaining an EFFECTIVE operational

plan?
A. Identification of unseen scenarios C. More available space for conference
that are possible to happen
B. Need for an increased logistics D. More man power

3. POII A and POI X report only to one (1) supervisor. This is the principle of
_________.
A. Delegation of Authority C. Span of Control
B. Unity of Command D. Chain of Command

4. To improve delegation, the following must be done, EXCEPT:

A. Establish objectives and standards C. Require complete work
B. count the number of supervisors D. Define authority and responsibility

5. The police organization can be structured to attain effective, efficient and

economical police service. Following are the organic units that form part of the
components, EXCEPT:
A. Operational Unit C. Service Unit
B. Auxiliary Unit D. Administrative Unit

6. As much as possible, the preparation of overall development plan of the police

organization should be participated in by the head of all staff service and
operational/administrative support units. This policy is:
A. Desirable; offices can be properly trained in planning
B. Undesirable; the presence of too many officers will create confusion
C. Undesirable; there will be problems of credit grabbing after plan is formulated
D. Desirable; the officers will know the organization better and a sense of
ownership of the plan is promoted

7. . When PLT Jesus de Mesa was temporary denied of his privilege of performing
his police duties, what penalty was rendered by the chief of police resulting from
an offense repeatedly committed in violation of rules and regulation?
A. Dismissal C. Suspension
B. Reprimand D. Restriction
8. Which of the following does not affect the span of control?
A. The degree of interaction between departments being supervised
B. The extent of financial resource involved
C. The competence of both the superior and coordinate
D. The similarity or dissimilarity of activation supervised

9. Which of the following statements can best describe the key reason for having a
vision in formulating a plan?
A. It is the fundamental reason for creating a strategic approach to managing the
leadership of the police department.
B. It is the fundamental reason to come out with the specific mission and strategies
to attain the goals of the organization
C. It is the fundamental reason to develop the resources required for the
attainment of the police goal and for the most convenient time
D. All of these

10. Dr. Dalisay is a Doctor of Philosophy; he opted to join the Philippine National
Police. What would be his initial rank upon entry?
A. P / Captain C. P / Lieutenant
B. P / Major D. NONE

11. Cardo is a graduate of High School and he passed the entrance examination in
the Philippine National Police Academy. After graduation he shall have the rank of.
A. P / Lieutenant C. P / Captain
B. Patrolman D. P / E.M.Sgt.

12. P/EMSgt. Nonito Pacquiao receives 27, 690.00 base pay since he was promoted.
After five years from promotion, what would be his monthly base pay after adding
his longevity pay?
A. 32, 690.00 C. 37, 690.00
B. 30, 459.00 D. 31, 549.00

13. A PNP member who acquired permanent physical disability in the performance of
his duty and unable to further perform his duty shall been titled to a lifetime
pension equivalent to:
A. 50% of his last salary C. 60% of his last salary
B. 70% of his last salary D. 80% of his last salary

14. Director General Nicanor Mallari was appointed as Chief of the PNP on November
21, 2015 and retired on February 21,2016. After six months from his retirement,
the President decided to appoint him as secretary of the DILG. Is the appointment
valid?
 A. Yes, because he is the former Chief, PNP
B. No, because his appointment is within one year from his retirement
C. Yes, because there is already a lapse of six months from his retirement
D. No, because the appointment of secretary of DILG needs the concurrence of
congress

15. Supt. Calvin Reyes is set to be promoted, what is the appropriate Training Course
needed for him to be promoted to Senior Superintendent?
A. Officers Senior Executive Course C. Officers Advance Course
B. Officers Basic Course D. Bachelor of Science in Public Safety

16. Batman was appointed as Regional Director of Region III on April 18, 2016 due to
his dedication and hard work in the PNP. Under the PNP attrition system he will
serve as RD based on his maximum tenure until____________.
A. April 2020 C. April 2025
B. April 2022 D. April 2019

17. SPO2 Renato Hupolito, joined the Philippine National Police on July 5, 2002.
Nevertheless, he want to pursue his career as embalmer, he decided to file an
optional retirement so that he could enjoy benefits of the gratifying PNP which he
served with extreme commitment and loyalty. When does He can retire?
A. June 5, 2022 C. July 5, 2021
B. July 5, 2058 D. August 10, 2023

18. In busy and thickly populated commercial streets like those in Divisoria, police
patrol is very necessary. Since there are several types of patrol, which of the
following will you recommend?
A. horse patrol C. foot patrol
B. mobile patrol D. helicopter patrol

19. All of the following are members of the People’s Law Enforcement Board
(PLEB), EXCEPT:

A. Three (3) members chosen by the Peace and Order Council from
among the respected members of the community.
B. Any barangay Captain of the city/municipality concerned chosen by the
association of the Barangay Captains.
C. Any member of the Sangguniang Panglungsod/Pambayan
D. A bar member chosen by the Integrated bar of the Philippines (IBP)
20. Bicycle patrol have the combined advantage of ________________ since they
can be operated very quietly and without attracting attention.

A. reduced speed and greater area covered.

B. Mobility and wide area coverage
C. Shorter travel time and faster response
D. Mobility and stealth

21. You are the Patrol Supervisor for the morning shift. You don’t have enough men
to cover all the patrol beats. Which of the following will you implement?
A. assign roving mobile patrol with no foot patrol
B. assign mobile patrols only in strategic places
C. maintain your patrolmen at the station and just wait for calls for police assistance
D. assign foot patrol in congested and busy patrol beats but assign a roving mobile
patrol to cover beats which are not covered by foot patrol

22. Police Inspector Juan Dela Cruz is the Chief of Police of a municipality. He
wants his subordinates to be drawn closer to the people in the different
barangays. He should adopt which of the following projects?
A. COPS on the blocks C. Oplan Sandugo
B. Oplan Bakal D. Complan Pagbabago

23. General objectives of the police are the following: 1. To ensure that there is an order in
the community 2. To protect the lives and limbs of every member of the community 3. To
arrest the criminals and bring them to prison 4. To protect the properties of the citizenry
and render appropriate assistance to other government office concerned
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4 C. 1, 2 and 4
B. 1, 2 and 3 D. 1, 3 and 4

24. What do you mean by crime prevention as one of the basic functions of the police?
A. An elimination or reduction of the desire to commit crime
B. Neutralization of criminal activity by proper enforcement of criminal laws
C. Enforcement of rules and regulations and ordinances all aimed at achieving a desired
uniform standard of activity among members of society
D. Police visibility to eliminate desire, opportunity and instruments of crime

25. Primary or line police activities are the following: 1. Patrol work, traffic
control/management and criminal investigation 2. Laboratory, jail or custody
maintenance and identification. 3. Transportation, communication, property supply and
records 4. Juvenile and vice control 5. Personnel, inspection, planning activities,
budgeting, training and public relations
A. 1 and 4 C. 3 and4
B. 2 and 3 D. 4 and 5
26. Organization refers to_____________________.
1. The duties of designating the departments and the personnel that are to carry on the
work, defining their functions and specifying the relations that are to exist between
departments and individuals. 2. Consist of arranging personnel and functions in a
systematic manner designed to accommodate stated goals and objectives in the most
efficient manner possible. 3. Apportioning of works or tasks among the various units or
groups according to some logical plan. 4. A graphic view of the general structure of work
and work relationship in the organization.
A. 1 and 3 C. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 4 D. 3 and 4

27. Primary goals of police professionalization introduced by August Vollmer through the
1931 Wickersham Commission are__________________________. 1. Elimination of
political influence and appoint qualified chief executive 2. Establishment of a mission of
non-partisan public service and raise personnel standards 3. Introduction of principles of
scientific management, emphasizing military-style discipline and developing specialized
units.
A. 1 and 2 C. 2 and 3
B. 1 and 3 D. 1, 2 and 3

28. Procedures utilized and officially adopted as the standard methods of action followed by
all members of the department under specified circumstances, regardless of the functional
unit to which the member may be confronted is _________________________.
A. Policy or Procedural Plans C. Operational Plans
B. Tactical Plan D. Extra- Office Plans

29. Statement No. 1-Policies are guiding principles governing future courses of action; they
have to be stable.Statement No. 2- Procedures are the actual courses of action; they
include working details, methods of operation, and very frequently , paperwork, review,
routing, etc.
A. Statement no. 1 is true while statement no.2 is false
B. Statement no. 1 is false while statement no. 2 is true
C. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both true
D. Statements no.1 and 2 are both false

30. Administrative control and operational supervision over the PNP is exercise by the NAPOLCOM,
which means____________________. 1. Development of policies and promulgation of police
manual for the PNP 2. Affirming, reversing or modifying personnel disciplinary actions 3.
Recommend the recall and reassignment of the Chief of Police 4. Exercise appellate jurisdiction
over decisions on claims for police benefits
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 1, 3 and 4
B. 2, 3 and 4 D. 1, 2 and 4
 31. If the Philippines has one hundred fifty million population, how many policemen is needed to
satisfy its minimum strength?
A. 300,000 C. 250,000
B. 150,000 D. 50,000

32. A How about in a highly urbanized city like Manila where the population is about two million
how many policemen are needed to satisfy it ideal policeman to population ratio?
A. 2,000 C. 4000
B. 3,000 D. 20,000

INDUSTRIAL SECURITY MANAGEMENT

1. If Paco Alvarado wants to become a SG, how many hours of training is needed to
acquire his license as SG?
A. 150 Hours C. 72 Hours
B. 48 Hours D. 300 Hours

2. Rodwin is the new SG as a new employee he should be briefed on security rules

and regulations of the organization and the importance of observing them. This
process is called______.
A. Security promotion C. Security orientation
B. Security reminders D. Security investigation

3. Nicy is planning to build his house in one of the nicest subdivisions in their town of
Tagaytay City; he plans to have many forms of security so that no one has an
 access to his property. If Nicy going to include the quality of the building exterior of
his dream house this is considered as?
A. First line of defense C. Third line of defense
B. Second line of defense D. All of these

4.
 CORRECTIONAL ADMINISTRATION

INSTITUTIONAL CORRECTION
1. A prison institution where prisoner ABC was serving sentence was on fire. The fire
conflagrated to various cells leaving the prisoners with no choice but to escape.
However, amidst this, Prisoner ABC chose to stay. After the fire was extinguished,
authorities were surprised to see ABC able to survive with no injury incurred. Is
prisoner ABC qualified for special time allowance for loyalty?
A. Yes, he is qualified for 1/5 deduction of his sentence.
B. No, special time allowance for loyalty is only applicable to those who escape from
the calamity and later return.
C. Yes, he is qualified for 2/5 deduction of his sentence
D. No, the prisoner should incur an injury such as burn for him to be qualified for
special time allowance for loyalty.

2. Preventive imprisonment is a temporary confinement in a correctional facility of a

person deprived of liberty while undergoing investigation or waiting for final
 judgement. Situation: Pedro was accused of committing an unbailable felony and
was detained with a guilty verdict requiring him to be confined or rehabilitation in a
penal institution for 4 years. Considering that the crime was unbailable, how many
years does Pedro need to serve the sentence?
A. original sentence of 4 years C. 5 years
B. 3 years D. 2 years

3. Pedro XYZ was accused and been found guilty of rape and was bound to serve 40
years in a penal institution. While being confined, XYZ exhibited good behavior
and was active in various prison activities for 11 years already. How much is the
deduction per month can be given to XYZ?
A. 30 days per month C. 25 days per month
B. 23 days per month D. No deduction

4. Who among the following is legally authorized to grand tie allowances to persons
deprive of liberty?
A. Chief BJMP for PDL confined in jails C. warden of provincial, municipal,
district, or city jail
B. Director General of BUCOR for PDL D. All of the above
Confined in penal institution

5. Person BDA was detained in a district jail for killing his long time enemy. One day.
While in detention, he was involved in an argument with a fellow detainee which
lead to a fist fight that killed the latter. What is the classification of BDA in this
situation?
A. Recidivist C. Reiteration
B. Quasi recidivist D. no classification

6. Which of the following is NOT DISQUALUFIED for Good Conduct Time

Allowance?
A. Convict C. Escapees
B. Persons who committed heinous crimes D. Recidivist

7. Person BNG who was been convicted twice for committing murder and rape
escaped from the penal institution to save himself from the strong typoon. Not later
than 48 hours when the typhoon pacified, BNG return to penal authorities. How
much deduction will be given due to his loyalty?
A. 1/5 C. 1/3
B. 1 year D. None
 8. If the person deprived of liberty has been confined for 2 years with no record of
any violations or infractions of the rules insides jail or prison, he is entitled to
received how many days deductions per month?
A. 20 C. 25
B. 23 D. 30
9. Under the 2020 revised GCTA manual , those who committed heinous crime/s
whose punishment under the abolished RA7659 is death, are not entitled to
receive good conduct time allowance. Which of the following is heinous crimes?
A. Parricide C. Murder
B. Infanticide D. all of the above

10. Which of the following describes probation?

I.An community-based correction program given to persons whose sentence does not
exceed six years
II. A single or one time affair
III. Given to inmates who served the minimum years of their sentence
IV. A community based correction program granted by the president through the court
A. I,II, III C. I, II,III,IV
B. I,II, IV D. I & II

11. Which of the following is/are ground/s for the denial of the grant of probation?
I.The offender is in need of the correctional treatment that can be provided most
effectively by his commitment to an institution.
II. There is undue risk that during the period of probation, the offender will commit
another crime.
III. Probation will depreciate the seriousness of the offense committed.
IV. Absence of stable job on the part of the convicted person which disallow him to
render financial support to his family.
A. II, III, IV C. I, III, IV
B. II, IV D. I, II, III

12. What is the action of the court in case a probationer has been found to violate his
conditions?
A. Court modifies the conditions C. court release the person to
the community
B. Court releases the revocation of probation D. A & B

13. Juan a convicted person applies for probation. His application has been given due
course by the court. However, he fails to report to the probation officer task to
conduct post sentence investigation. In addition, when the probation officer went to
his residence, Juan was nowhere to be found. For a reasonable period of time
Juan was not located. In this scenario, Juan is:
A. An absconding probationer C. An absconding petitioner
 B. an escapee D. A wanted person

14. Berna who was been convicted of the crime less serious physical injury punishable
by four years applied for probation. His application was given due circumstances,
the trial court decided to grant her petition. The court then issued the probation
order. However, after reviewing the conditions stipulated in the order, Berna
willfully rejected the grant of probation. Is the rejection justified or allowed in the
law?
A. Yes, as long as the terms and conditions are not advantageous to the petitioner
B. No, contempt of court shall be imposed to those individuals who rejects orders
from the court
C. Yes, as long as the conditions are deemed to be burdensome on the part of the
petitioner
D. No, the fact the Berna applied for probation, already specifies her willingness to
follow the terms of conditions stated in the probation order

15. What is/are likely to happen if petition for probation has been denied?
A. The offender will be sent to prison C. the offender applies for
certiorari to a higher court
B. The offender can apply for appeal to D. A & B
a higher court

16. Arning who is bound to serve 4 years of sentence, decided to apply for probation
after in a week of service at a penal institution, contemplated on the pains he
experienced inside. Is he qualified?
A. Yes, his imprisonment does not exceed 6years C. No, he is already convicted
B. Yes, upon filing his application with the court D. No, he’s serving his sentence
who tries his case already

17. Arrange the following in chronological order.

I.After conviction, the offender files a petition for probation within the convicting/trial court
II. The prosecutor submits his comments on the application of the offender
III. The court grants or denies the petition for probation within fifteen days upon
receipt of the PSIR
IV. The court determines convict qualifications and notifies the prosecutor of the filing
of the petition
V. If petitioner is qualified, his application is referred to the probation offices for post
sentence investigation
VI. Post sentence investigation report shall be submitted to the court within sixty days
VII. Pending PSI, the offender can be temporarily released through bail of release of
recognizance
A. I, V, II, VII, VI, III C. I, II, III, IV, V, VII
B. VII, I, II, III, IV, V, VI D. I, IV, II, V, VI, VII III

18. Pedro a detainee was accused of committing a crime punishable by 5 years of

imprisonment. Considering that he was a first-time offender, he applied for
probation with the court who hears his case. Is he qualified based on the above
circumstances?
A. Yes C. Maybe
B. No D. No idea

19. The following statement regarding parole are true, EXCEPT:

A. Granted to a prisoner only after he C. it is granted more than once, has
serve the minimum of his sentence depending on good behavior
during imprisonment
B. It is a conditional release of a prisoner D. it restores full civil rights

20. All members of the custodial force shall bear in the minds of prisoners that the
purpose of confinement is not so much for restriction but for reformation and
rehabilitation, the statement best describe -
A. prisoners are enemy of society C. leniency
B. prisoners are to be treated harshly D. prisoners are sick people and
need treatment

21. The Superintendent received thru fax a copy of written order duly signed by the
clerk of court and the judge. On this basis, he may release the inmate-
A. Yes, he may be held in contempt if C. Yes, because the written order is
he will not comply duly signed by the judge
B. No, because the written order is not authentic D. All of the above

22.An inmate maybe transferred by the Prison Director upon the recommendation
of the ____ concerned to another prison facility to bring said inmate closer to
family or as part of his rehabilitation program.
A. President C. Superintendent
B. Prison Guard D. DOJ Secretary

23. In admission process of the inmates, several procedures will be followed including
the registration of all information of about the inmate. The register shall contain the
following except?
A. date of admission C. reason for commitment
B. sentence D. name of the authority
24. What law was passed by the U.S. congress which ended the industrial prison
movement?
A. A law, which prohibited the sale of prison made articles to the public and limited
their use to government owned or controlled institutions.
B. Law which prohibits prison institution to have their inmates works in their
respective cells of confinement.
C. Law which prohibits the crafts making inside the penitentiary and disallowing
penitents from indulging themselves in any working place within the place of their
confinement.
D. All of the above

25. During the 6th to 10th year of imprisonment how many days shall an inmate is
allowed deductions as GCTA?
A. 5 days for each month of good behavior C. 10 days for each month of good
behavior
B. 8days for each month of good behavior D. 15 days of each month of good
behavior

26. What circumstances that an inmate who was meted with Life Imprisonment
will not be granted GCTA?
A. While his sentence is finally adjudicated C. While already enjoying credits of
his sentence
B. While his sentence is on appeal D. None of the above

27. Can a detainee be granted GCTA?

A. Yes if he qualifies the number of years C. No because GCTA is only for
sentenced prisoner only
A. No because he is not a convicted prisoner D. Yes provided he voluntarily offered
Into writing that he will be treated
as such sentence prisoner

28. This is also called the guidance or case conference where the prisoner after
undergoing all the tests, interviews and examination appears before the center’s
staff in conference of plan out with him his tentative program of activities the
prisoners should undergo including institutional training, recreational program,
religious program, medical and psychiatry services and social services.
A. Staff conference B. Command conference
C. Officer’s conference D. Conference for prisoners

29. A felony of grave coercion is committed by a public officer or employee who

maltreats a detained prisoner who is not under his custody. The statement is:
A. True, because he is a public officer. C. False, it should be maltreatment
 Of prisoner.
B. True, because he overdoes himself D. False, Physical injury is
Committed.
30. This is a harsh code that provides the same punishment for both citizens and the
slaves as it incorporates primitive concepts. It is said that the Greeks were the first
society to allow any citizen to prosecute the offender in the name of the injured
party.
A. Code of Draco C. The Burgundian Code
B. Justinian Code D. Code of King Hammurabi

31. This takes care of the social case work study of the individual prisoners by
making interviews, home visits referral to community resources free legal services
and liaison works for the inmates.
A. Work and Education Therapy Services C. Guidance and Counseling
Services
B. Socio-Cultural Services D. Medical and Health Services
Branch

32. This school of thought denied individuals responsibility and reflected as essentially
non-punitive reaction to crime and criminality. Since the criminal was held to be not
responsible for his acts. He must not be punished. The adherence of this school
maintained that a crime, as any other act, is a natural phenomenon.
A. Positive school C. Neo-classical school
B. Classical School D. All of these

33. Mr. Tinanga died because of his own negligence; can inmate Tinanga avail the
privilege of pecuniary aid?
A. Yes, he is qualified to said benefits C. No, because the cause of
his death is uncertain;
B.Yes, because he was killed during his D. No, because the cause of
preventive imprisonment; death of Tinanga is due to
his negligence
34. Marion is convicted at Camp Sampaguita, he got sick for fever and cold, as a
correctional officer what be your proper action?
A. Pray for him C. Ask for medical attention
B. Let him die D. Call for a medical doctor

35. Juan Manalo was convicted by final judgment to serve the term of imprisonment
for 20 years. While serving his sixth year of imprisonment, an earthquake rocked
the prison and several inmates escaped. Roberto returned the following day; how
many years would be deducted from his sentence?
A. 4 years C. 8 years
 B. 9 years D. 11 years

36. Which of the following statement DOES NOT AGREE to the basic principle of
correction?
A. Seek to promote discipline and to secure the reformation, and safe custody of
inmates
B. Justice shall be applied partially to all concern regardless of disposition in
life.
C. Without discrimination on grounds of race, colors, genders, language, religion
or other opinion, nationality or social origin, property, birth and or other status,
justice shall be applied impartially.
D. Justice shall be enforced with firmness but tempered with understanding.
37. The only one instance when a prisoner maybe given passes or leave from jails or
places of confinement, as maybe allowed by law or regulation, upon approval of
the appropriate authority, or the court, if already committed by court order and
upon and recommendation of the warden.
A. Very meritorious cases C. Unmeritorious
case
B. Special Cases D. In any case

38. Every violation of jail/prison discipline shall be dealt with accordingly. In extreme
cases, where the violation necessitate immediate action, the warden or the Officer
of the Day may administer the necessary restraints and reports the action taken to
A. An emergency plan C. A Standard Operating
Procedure
B. A general rule D. Not applicable to prisoners

39. As a rule, when a jailbreak, escape or riot is in progress or has just been
perpetuated in the jail, the officer at the control centers shall immediately:
A. Sound the alarm C. Notify the nearest police precinct
B. Locked prisoners in their respective cells D. Call the warden or the director

40. What circumstances that an inmate who was meted with Life Imprisonment will not
be granted GCTA?
A. While his sentence is finally adjudicated C. While already enjoying credits of
his sentence
B. While his sentence is on appeal D. None of the above

41. Prisoners who are nearly to leave the institution, awaiting transfer, those in
disciplinary status, and those who are chronically ill with mental disabilities are
considered:
A. Unassignable prisoners to undergo C. Minimum security prisoners
prison programs
B. All of these D. Special group of offenders

42. Opponents of capital punishment claim that a prisoner's isolation and uncertainty
over their fate constitute a form of mental cruelty and those especially long-time
death row inmates are liable to become mentally ill, if they are not already. This is
referred to as.
A. Death row phenomenon C. Cruelty syndrome
B. Execution syndrome D. None of these

43. Operation conducted by the BJMP where a prisoner maybe checked at anytime.
His bedding, lockers and personal belongings may also opened at any time in his
presence whenever possible.
A. Operation greyhound C. Frisk and check
B. Counting procedure D. Checking procedure

44. Imprisonment is not always advisable. Placing a person to custodial coercion is to

place him in physical jeopardy, thus drastically narrowing his access to source of
personal satisfaction and reducing his self-esteem. This principle is based on the
____ of community-based treatment programs.
A. Restorative aspect C. Humanitarian aspect
B. Managerial aspect D. Legal aspect

45. German conception requested for transfer to other facilities of the Bucor for him to
stay closer to his family as part of his rehabilitation. Who may recommend for his
transfer?
A. Prison Superintendent C. President
B.Prison Director D. Secretary of Justice

46. Dominador was convicted in violation of R.A. # 9165 and was sentenced of
imprisonment for a period of 12 years and 1 day to 20 years or also known as
A. Prision Mayor C. Prision Correctional
B. Reclusion Temporal D. Reclusion Perpetua.

47. Which among the following statement is wrong?

A. Jail is managed by BJMP while Prison is managed by BuCor;
B. Jail is created under RA 6975 or The DILG Act of 1990, while Prison was
created under the Reorganization Act of 1907 otherwise known as The Prison
Law;
C. Jail shall be headed by the Director of BJMP, while Prison is headed by Dir. of
Prison;
D. District Jail is headed by a Warden, while Penal farm is headed by a Penal
Director
48. Inmates who commit suicide are considered as in any of the following:
A. Liability of the jail administration. C. Liability of the relatives of the
victim
C. Responsibility of the relative of the victim D. All of the above

49. It detains minimum custody offenders serving short sentence with constructive
work programs. It provides full employment of prisoners, remedial services and
constructive leisure time activities.
A. Workhouse, jail arm or camp house C. Staff house, Jail facilities
C. Workshop, jail arm or campus D. None of the above

50. What is the privilege of the visiting husband or wife that the jail will allow for sexual
intercourse?
A. Conjugal visit C. Parental Visit
B. Marital Visit D. Privilege visit

51. A person whose political or religious ideologies are considered far outside the
mainstream attitudes of the society or who violates common moral standards and
who has adopted an increasingly extreme ideals and aspirations resorting to the
employment of violence in the furtherance of his/her beliefs.
A. Medium Risk Inmates C.. Violent Extremist Offender
B. Minimum Risk Inmates D. High Value Target

52. Those who require increased security based on intense media coverage or public
concern as a result of their offense such as but not limited to those who have been
involved in a highly controversial or sensationalized crime or those who became
prominent for being a politician, government official, multi-million entrepreneur,
religious or cause-oriented group leader and movie or television personality.
A. High Value Target C. High Risk Inmate
B. High Profile Inmate D. Subversive Group

53. Those who are considered highly dangerous and who require a greater degree of
security, control and supervision because of their deemed capability of escape, of
being rescued, and their ability to launch or spearhead acts of violence inside the
jail.
A. High Value Target C. High Risk Inmate
B. High Profile Inmate D. Terrorist Group

54. A target, either a resource or a person, who may either be an enemy combatant,
high ranking official or a civilian in danger of capture or death, typically in
possession of critical intelligence, data, or authority marked as an objective for a
mission and which a commander requires for the successful completion of the
same.
 A. High Value Target C. High Risk Inmate
B. High Profile Inmate D. High Profile Inmate

55. Any formal or informal ongoing inmates’ group, gang, organization or association
consisting of three or more members falling into one of the following basic
categories: street gangs, prison gangs, outlaw gangs, traditional organized crime,
aboriginal gangs, subversive groups, terrorist groups.
A. security threat group . C. subversive group
B. terrorist group D. high risk inmates

56. A group of persons that commits any of the following: piracy and mutiny in the
high seas or in the Philippine waters, rebellion or insurrection, coup d’état, murder,
kidnapping and serious illegal detention, crimes involving destruction, arson,
hijacking, violation of laws on toxic substances and hazardous and nuclear waste
control, violations of atomic energy regulations, anti-piracy and anti-highway
robbery, illegal and unlawful possession, manufacture, dealing in, acquisition or
disposition of firearms, ammunitions or explosives.
A. violent extremist groups C. terrorist groups
B. high value target D. subversive groups

57. Those inmates who have lesser tendencies to commit offenses and generally pose
the least risk to public safety. In most cases, they may be first time offenders and
are charged with light offenses.
A. ordinary Inmates C. medium risk inmates
B. high risk inmates D. high profile inmates

58. Which of the following is a DISQUALIFICATION in the granting of parole?

A. Conviction is on appeal C. Confined in a jail or serve an
indeterminate prison sentence
B. Served the minimum period of said D. reasonable probability that if
sentence less the good conduct released, he will become law
time allowances (GCTA) abiding

59. The board of pardons and parole assist in the full rehabilitation of individual on
parole or those under conditional pardon with parole conditions, by way of parole
supervision and, recommends to the president of the Philippines the grant of any
form of executive clemency on the board is the:
A. Director of BPP C. DOJ secretary
B. Administrator D. Member of the bar

60. National prisoners confined in a local jail cannot be released on parole his
confinement in said jail is in good faith or due to circumstances beyond the
prisoner’s control. Which of the following is a national prisoner?
A. Conviction in two crimes, both C. Imprisonment in 3 years and
punishable with 2 years each 1 day or above
B. Sentenced for violation of customs law D. All of the above

61. Can a foreigner/ alien who has been convicted in the Philippine court be granted
with a parole?
A. Yes C. Maybe
B. No D. No idea

62. Any violation of the terms and conditions appearing in his release document or any
serious deviation or non-observance of the obligations set forth in the prole
supervision program shall be immediately reported by his probation and parole
officer to the board. The report is called:
A. Probation and parole investigation report C. Infraction report
B. Terms violation report D. investigation and assessment data
63. What is the consequence if the parolee violates the terms and conditions being set
upon his conditional release?
A. Arrest and punishment C. Arrest and punishment
B. Modification of conditions and reevaluation D. Modification of conditions and
serving of original sentence in
prison or jail
64. The following are grounds for the cancellation of parole, EXCEPT:
A. Violation of the parole conditions C. False information given before
or after release
B. Non performance of his civil rights D. commission of a crime

65. Mr. Chago was sentenced to serve a maximum sentence of not more than 6 years.
He filed petition for probation, but he was found to have been previously convicted
of an offense punishable by less than 1 month. Is he qualified for probation?
A. Yes C. No
B. Maybe D. No idea

66. Defendant Pablo De la Cruz was found to be guilty of the crime espionage which is
punishable by reclusion temporal to death. However, due to the existence of
mitigating circumstances, RTC-Branch 12 of Dumaguete City only require him to
be imprisoned for five years ad two months in a national penitentiary. Is Pablo De
la Cruz, qualified to apply for probation?
A. Yes, Presidential Decree 968 qualified persons to apply for peobtion as long as the
years of imprisonment does not exceed 6 years
B. No, he is not qualified since espionage is punishable by reclusion temporal to
death which exceeds six years
C. Yes, any person who has not been confined yet in a correctional facility is qualified
to apply for probation
D. No, he’s crime is against national security

67. Juan was charge with an offense with penalty of not more than six months and/or
a fine of 2,000, or both. His release to a responsible person in the community
instead of filling a bail as ordered by the court is called:
A. Bail bond C. Release on parole
B. Released on probation D. Release on recognizance

68. Denial of probation is appealable to the higher court. This statement is:
A. False C. Maybe
B. True D. No idea

69. Juan a convicted person applies for probation. His application has been given due
course by the court. However, he fails to report to the probation officer tasked to
conduct post sentence investigation. In addition, when the probation officer went to
his residence, Juan was nowhere to be found. For a reasonable period of time
Juan was not located. In this scenario, Juan is:
A. Absconding probationer C. An escape
B. Absconding petitioner D. A wanted Person

70. If an accused whose probation was granted but failed to report for supervision
within the period ordered by the court or a probationer who fails to continue
reporting for supervision and/or whose whereabouts are unknown for a reasonable
period of time, he shall be classified as:
A. Absconding probationer C. An escapee
B. Absconding petitioner D. a wanted person

71. Classification of an inmate as to entitlement who has served imprisonment with

good conduct for a period equivalent to 1/5 of the maximum term of his prison
sentence or those who served 7 years in the case of those who was meted with
the penalty of life sentence.
A. First class inmates C. Third class inmates
B. Second class inmates D. Colonist

72. The privilege to view the deceased relative is permitted if the wake is in the place
within a radius 30km by road from the prison, if more than 30km. the privilege
maybe extended in the inmate provided the inmate can return to his place of
confinement during _______ hours of the same day.
A. Sunlight C. AftTop of Formenoon
B. Morning D. Daylight
73. The imprisonment a convicted offender may serve, at the rate of Php 8.00 a day
subject to certain rules, for failure to pay a fine and if ordered to do so by the
judgment is referred to as.
A. Subsidiary imprisonment C. Preventive imprisonment
B. Secondary imprisonment D. None of the above

74. In admission process of the inmates, several procedures will be followed including
the registration of all information of about the inmate. The register shall contain the
following except?
A. date of admission C. reason for commitment
B. sentence D. name of the authority

75. It prison management, force is used only by correctional institutions or correctional

officers in order to,
A. Exact respect C. Show physical strength and power
B. Enforce discipline during mass D. Perform assignments
jailbreaks or riots

NON-INSTITUTIONAL CORRECTION
1. Jessie was convicted to a prison term of prision correctional. Will he qualify for
probation?
A. No, his sentence is more than six (6) years and one (1) day
B. No, his sentence is six (6) years and one (1) day
C. Yes, his sentence is three (3) years and one (1) day
D. Yes, his sentenced is less than six (6) years and one (1) day

2. Mr. Yao Patalo was convicted of a crime and sentenced to an imprisonment term
of 8years, since he is disqualified for probation, he decided to appeal his case to a
 higher court. The appellate court declared him again guilty but to a lesser penalty
of six years. Can he apply now for probation?
A. Yes, because his sentence is C. No, because he is disqualified
less than 6years and 1 day
B. No, because he already appealed his case D. I don't know

3. The case where the Supreme Court laid down the doctrine that the absolute
pardon removes all that is left of the consequences of conviction, and that it is
absolute in so far it restores the pardonee to full civil and political rights.
A. People vs. Galit C. Cristobal vs. Labrador
B. Fernandez vs. Aquino D. None of these

4. Mando was sentenced to imprisonment on February 7, 2007. On March 5, 2007

the judge who promulgated the decision died. What is the effect of the judge’s
death to the service of Mando’s sentence?
A. He will have to serve his sentence C. His sentence will be suspended
B. His sentence will not be binding anymore D. His sentence will be reduced

5. The court will not grant probation if after the investigation conducted by the
probation officer, it finds that the following are present, except.
A. The offender can be treated better C. Probation will depreciate
In an institution or other places for the gravity of the offense
Correction
B. The offender is a risk to the community D. None of the above

6. A mode of securing the release of any person in custody or detention for the
commission of an offense who is unable to post bail due to abject poverty. A
person accused will be released through reputable person in the Community by
order of the Judge is known as?
A. Bail C. Paroled
B. Probation D. Release on recognizance

7. Whom to submit the Motion for Release on Recognizance, together with the sworn
declaration of indigency or incapacity to post bail executed bythe accused. In case
of indigency, a Certificate of Indigency issued by the Municipal or City Social
Welfare and Development Office where the accused resides must likewise be
attached?
A. Trial Court C. MTC
B. RTC D. Appellate Court

8. The grant of Release on Recognizance aims the following except.

 A. Guarantee the appearance of the accused before any court when so
required;
B. Prevent the undue incarceration of an accused who may be released after
trial unless proven guilty.
C. Protect the people and the peace of the community which may be disturbed
upon the temporary release of the accused.
D. None of these

9. The custodian shall have the following qualifications. Except

A. A person of good repute and probity.
B. A resident of the barangay where the accused resides.
C. He must not be a relative of the accused within
the fourth degree of consanguinity or affinity.
D. He must belong to any of the following sectors and institutions: church,
academe, social welfare, health sector, cause-oriented groups, charitable
organization/s engaged in the rehabilitation of offenders duly accredited by the
local social welfare and development officer
E. He must be a public officer

10. Mr. Chaps is a death convict and he will executed next week. To avoid the
execution he must ask the President for an act of grace then the Chief Executive
order the postponement of the execution. What form of executive clemency given
by the President to Mr. Chaps?
A. Reprieve C. Commutation of sentence
B. Pardon D. Amnesty

11. In determining the fitness of a prisoner for release on conditional pardon, the
following points shall be considered as guides, except: (2005)
A. The political, organizational or religious affiliation of the prisoner should be
disregarded
B. Due regard should be given the attitude of the people in the community from which
he was sentenced.
C. The background of the prisoner before he was committed to prison - social,
economic.
D. Financial capacity of the prisoner

12. What agency has the authority to recommend to the President to the release of
qualified prisoners for Parole, Conditional Pardon and other form of Executive
Clemency?
A. Board of Pardons and Parole C. Department of Justice
 B. Parole and Probation Administration D. National Amnesty Commission

13. What kind of the following documents are required to support a petition for
absolute pardon.
I.Affidavits of at least two (2) responsible community residents the effect that petitioners
conducted himself in a moral and law abiding manner the petitioner occupation
and community service rendered
II. Clearance from the police court and prosecutors office where petitioner reside
III. Record of good conduct time allowance
IV. Endorsement for the jail or prison warden

A. Three and four B. Four and one C. One and two D. Two and Three

14. What portion of the sentence of a petitioner must have been served to be eligible
for the grant of commutation of sentence in case of definite sentence? A. At least
one half of the maximum of his indeterminate sentence
B. At least one half of half the minimum of his indeterminate sentence
C. At least one third of the minimum of his indeterminate sentence
D. At least Twenty year

15. What is an act of grace proceeding from the power entrusted with the execution of
the laws, which exempts the individual on whom it is bestowed from the
punishment that the law inflicts for a crime he has committed?
A. Executive Clemency C. President’s Clemency
B. Malacañan Clemency D. State Clemency

16. It is the extinction of the criminal liability of the individual to whom it is granted
without any condition and restores to the individual his civil rights.
A. Amnesty C. Absolute Pardon
B. Parole D. Reprieve

17. What is an act of the sovereign power granting oblivion or general pardon for a
past offense usually granted in favor of certain classes of persons who have
committed crimes of a political character, such as treason, sedition or rebellion?
A. Amnesty C. Pardon
B. Parole D. Reprieve

18. A kind of executive clemency given by the President to which a penalty be

deferred subject to review by the Supreme Court especially in Death Penalty. A.
Amnesty C. Probation
B. Commutation of sentence D. Reprieve
19. The purpose of all Executive Clemency such as Pardons, Amnesty and
Commutation of sentence is to:
A. Do away with the miscarriage of justice C. Restore the political and civil
rights of the accused
B. Break the rigidity of the law D. All of the above

20. The Quasi-Judicial body which was created under Act 4103 otherwise known as
the Indeterminate Sentence Law or the Parole Law. The agency that grants Parole
to any Prisoner who is qualified to enjoy its benefit refers to:
A. Parole and Probation Administration C. Bureau of Corrections
B. Board of Pardons and Parole D. Public Attorney’s Office

21. There are three (3) casework techniques applied by the parole officer, which one is
not.
A. The trick and treat techniques C. The guidance, counseling and leadership
B. The executive techniques D. The manipulative techniques

22. Mr. Pacquiao committed a crime with a penalty of Prision Mayor, then applied for
Parole the BPP granted it. Later Mr. Pacquiao did and then violate and not
complied with the condition given by the Competent Authority. Mr. Pacquiao was
sent back to the Bureau of Correction to serve the unexpired portion of the
sentence. Can he avail again the privilege of Parole?
A. Yes. The Board may consider the case of a recommitted parolee for the grant of
a new parole after the latter shall have served one-fourth (1/4) of the unserved
portion of his maximum sentence.
B. No. Because it given only once
C. Yes. The Board may consider the case of a recommitted parolee for the grant of
a new parole after the latter shall have served one-fifth (1/5) of the unserved
portion of his maximum sentence.
D. Maybe

23. A kind of Executive Clemency which exempts an individual, within certain limits or
conditions from the punishment that the law inflicts for the offense he has
committed resulting from the partial extinction of his criminal liability.
A. Absolute Pardon C. Commutation of Sentence
B. Reprieve D. Conditional Pardon

24. A Pardon by the President of the Republic of the Philippines shall be extended
when?.
A. Before Prosecution of Criminal Action C. After Filing of
Complaint/Information

B. After Conviction of Final judgement D. Upon the discretion of the President

25. On Executive Clemency a petition filed by the prisoner should be addressed to
whom?
A. Board of Pardons and Parole C. Chairman of the Board of
Pardons and Parole
B. Parole and Probation Administrator D. President of the Republic of
the Philippines

26. Any willful or malicious concealing material information made by the client either
before or after the grant of Conditional Pardon or Parole is a ground for the Board
of Pardons and Parole to
A. Extend the period of Supervision C. Cancel the Parole or recommend the
revoke of Conditional pardon
B. Modify the conditions appeared D. Suspend the exercise of said privileges
on released document until good behavior has shown by the client

27. All except one are the instances wherein supervision of Parole and Conditional
Pardon case deemed to archive/close.
A. Order of Arrest and Recommitment C. Upon receipt of certificate of
issued by the Board of Pardons and Final Release and Discharge
Parole against the client of the client
B. Certificate of transfer of residence D. Certified True Copy of the death
certificate of the deceased client

28. The power of the Chief Executive to grant Pardon is limited to the following,
EXCEPT:
A. Pardon cannot be extended to cases of impeachment
B. No pardon, parole or suspension of sentence for the violation of any election
law may be granted without favorable recommendation of the Commission of
Elections
C. Pardon is exercised only after conviction
D. Pardon is administered by the court

29. Which agency is mandated to evaluate the prisoner’s fitness and qualification to
be granted pardon and parole pursuant to BPP resolution 229?
A. Department of Justice (DOJ) C. Board of Pardons and
Parole (BPP)
B. National Bureau of Investigation D. Probation and Parole
(NBI) Administration (PPA)

30. The following are disqualifications for Parole to be granted.

A. Those who escaped from confinement or evaded sentence; B. Those who have
pending criminal case; C. Those who are Habitual delinquents; D. Those who
 suffering from any mental disorder; and E. Those conviction is on appeal. A. A-B-
C-E C. B-C-D-E
B. A-B-C-D D. A-B-C-D-E

31. One of the mandatory conditions attached to the Parolee is to report at least once
a month for those residing outside Metro Manila/ or NCR to report at least twice a
month for those who are residing in Metro Manila or NCR.
A. True C. False
B. Partially true D. Partially False

32. Upon the receipt of a report, the Board of Pardons and Parole may issue ______
against the parolee.
A. Warrant of Arrest C. Waiver-Cum Authorization
B. Search Warrant D. Order of Arrest and Recommitment

33. The supporting Documents of Petition for Absolute Pardon and/or the petition for
absolute pardon shall be accompanied by the following except
A. The affidavits of at least two responsible members of the community where the
petitioner resides. The affidavits shall, among others, state that the petitioner has
conducted himself in a moral and law-abiding manner since his release from
prison and shall indicate the petitioner's occupation and his social activities
including religious involvement;
B. The clearances from the National Bureau of Investigation, the Philippine National
Police, the Prosecutor's Office, the Municipal Circuit Trial Court, the Municipal Trial
Court, the Municipal Trial Court in Cities, the Metropolitan Trial Court and the
Regional Trial Court where petitioner resides;
C. Proof of payment of indemnity and/or fine, or in lieu thereof, certification from the
City/Municipal Treasurer or Probation and Parole Officer on his financial condition;
and
D. Prison record and Good conduct time allowance record during his service of
sentence

34. Mr. Alcantara is a Parole and Probation Officer. His Parolee violated a condition
set forth in the Parole condition. To what office shall the former report violation? A.
Parole and Probation Administration C. Department of Justice
B. Bureau of Corrections D. Board of Pardons and Parole

35. It refers to the report submitted by the Probation and Parole Officer on violations
committed by a parolee/pardonee of the conditions of his release on parole or
conditional pardon while under supervision.
A. Progress Report C. Summary Report
B. Status Report D. Infraction Report
36. Mr. Jayzam Manabat was convicted of a crime that carries a penalty of eight years
and one day. As a Probation Officer will you recommend him for Probation?
A. No. Because it exceed the maximum C. No. Because no probation will be
impossible penalty granted if there is no PSI
B. Yes. He can appeal for the imposable D. Yes. Because it is the job of the
penalty as a law provided Judge or trial court

37. When will you close a Probation case?

A. When the Probationer absconds the place. B. When he incurred violations C.
When there is recommendation for revocation D. When the termination order
is approved

38. What is submitted to the court by the probation officer that is used as basic for
decision?
A. Post-Sentence Investigation C. Pre-Executive Clemency Investigation
B. Pre-Parole Investigation D. Post-sentence Investigation Report

39. What happens to probation when the court withdraws his privilege of probation? A.
He is released to the community C. He is placed under police custody
B. His placed under parole D. He is returned to prison and he serves
his sentence

40. It is an intervention activity whereby any drug dependent or any person who
violates Sec. 15 of RA 9165, either by himself or through his parents, spouse,
guardian or relative within the fourth degree of consanguinity or affinity, shall apply
to the Board or its duly recognized representative, for treatment and rehabilitation.
A. Voluntary Submission Program C. Progress Report
B. Violation Report D. Infraction Report

41. Who among the following convicted drug pushers may place under probation? A.
John, who is a first time offender C. Teodulo, who is a third time offender
and 20 years old and 21 years old
B.Mathew, who is a first time offender D. None
and 25 years old

42. Ms. Kylie Padilla is the wife of the former probationer who disappeared from their
house. Ms. Padilla insists to be involved in looking for his husband. Which of the
following is the best response of the police to him?
A. He go to the DSWD for assistance C. Leave the case to the police and of
there are developments he will
be informed properly
B. The case is closed and no police help D. He consults the probation officer
is to be given who handled his wife.
43. Which of the following is done by the court if the conditions set forth violates his
probation and proved that he intentionally violate the condition?
A. Issued Temporary Restraining Order
C. Issued release order
B. Probationer should re-apply for probation
D. Court will issue revocation order to probationer and he will have to serve his
original sentence.

44. Mr. Malibog was convicted to the crime of Rape then apply for Probation. As a
Judge will you grant Probation?
A. Yes. Because having sexual force to other is natural, and also under the theory
of Abraham Maslow that sex is a vital need.
B. No. Because the sec. 8 (c), PD 968. Probation will depreciate the seriousness
of the offense committed.”
C. Yes. Because Mr. Malibog has good faith to marry the rape victim.
D. No. as provided by the Probation officer

45. Mr. Gerald Anderson, was sentenced in 2003 to a minimum prison term of three
years and one day. He applied for probation and he was granted probation in
2008. He was included in a robbery and with a prison term of less than three
years. If he applied for probation is he qualified?
A. Yes. His prison term is less than six years
B. No. His prison term is less than three years
C. Yes. There is five years gap between his second offense and the first offense.
D. No. He is second time offender, and probation shall be given once.

46. A person convicted by final judgment of a criminal offense and sentence to

imprisonment of not more than six years who is allowed by the Court to remain in
the community under the supervision of Parole and Probation Officer and subject
to conditions which the Court may imposed.
A. Parole Probation Administrator C. City Probation Officer
B. Probationer D. Regional Probation Officer

47. A document serves as a basis for Court’s decision to grant or deny the application
for probation.
A. Pre-Sentence Investigation Report C. Pre-Executive Clemency Investigation
B. Post-sentence Investigation Report D. Pre-Parole Investigation Report

48. The purpose of the decree on Probation shall be to:

A. Provide an opportunity for the reformation of a penitent offender which might be
less probable if he were to serve a prison sentence.
B. Prevent the commission of offenses
 C. Promote the correction and rehabilitation of an offender by providing him with
individualized treatment
D. All of these

49. The Volunteer Probation Assistant or Probation Aide may be appointed by the
Parole and Probation Administrator from among the citizens of _.
A. Good religious Background C. Good Repute and Probity who have the
willingness, aptitude and capability to act as VPAs
B. High Educational Leve l D. High Social Standing

50. The Court may grant Probation after conviction of the Trial Court. The Supreme
Court grant Probation in the impeachment case.
A. Both sentence are correct C. Both sentence are wrong
B. The first sentence is correct and the D. True and False
second sentence is wrong

51. In Probation, the Court may also require the person placed under it to do the
following except
A. Pursue vocational training program. C. Stop from visiting houses of ill repute
B. Refrain from finding a means of living D. Undergo medical, psychological
and psychiatric treatment

52. May a drug pusher avail probation?

A. Yes. Because it allows pusher to enter plea to lesser offense of possession of
drug paraphernalia under section 12 of RA 9165 in a case involving of shabu of
not more than .99 grams of marijuana of not more than 9.9 grams.
B. No. Because it depreciate the seriousness of the offense.
C. No. Because it is prohibited under RA 9165 to avail Probation.
D. NOTA

53. Probation is a privilege granted to deserving and qualified petitioners, when does it
become a matter of right?
A. After the submission of the Post-Sentence C. When the appeal was
Investigation Report undertaken
B. When the Convict files a petition for Probation D. When his Probation is
Approved
54. The violations of the following Special Laws shall disqualify an Offender to avail of
the benefits of Presidential Decree 968. Except.
A. Omnibus Election Code (Section 264 of BP 881)
B. Robbery
C. Wage Rationalization Act as amended (R.A 6727)
D. Video Gram Law (PD 1987) amended by “Republic Act No. 9239 Optical Media
Act of 2003"
55. The records check within two (2) days after petitioner's initial intake interview, the
investigating probation officer shall conduct records check with the following-
named government offices/council: except
A. National Bureau of Investigation, C. Ombudsman Clearance
Regional Trial Courts/ Municipal
Trial Courts, Prosecution Service
B. Police/Philippine Drug Enforcement D. None of these
Agency (PDEA), Barangay; and
City/Municipal Anti-Drug Abuse Council

56. As a General rule those who awaiting for the decision of the Court on the
application for Probation, the Offender or the Petitioner applying for Probation A.
Must stay in prison as a detainee C. Maybe released on Bail or
Recognizance
B. Must be released even without Bail D. All of these

57. Any action of the sanggunian shall be in the form of a resolution. In case of a
favorable recommendation, the resolution shall include the documentation of the
accused and a list of recommended custodian. How many days shall the
sanggunian concerned shall submit a comment or opposition to the application?
A. Within 24 hours form its filing C. Within 48 hours
B. Within 10 days from receipt of the notice D. After conviction

58. This is a temporary withholding of sentence, before or after judgment; as where

the judge is not satisfied with the verdict, or evidence is suspicious, or indictment is
insufficient, or sometimes if it be a small felony or any favorable circumstances
appear in the criminal’s character. (2000)
A. Reprieve C. Judicial Reprieve
B. B. Executive Reprieve D. Legislative Reprieve