Chapter 1

The Importance of Research as Evidence in Nursing

1: Using evidence as a basis for nursing practice involves all of the following activities,
except:
a) Integrating pertinent research findings into practice
b) Integrating current expert consensus statements into practice
c) Integrating middle range theories into practice
d) Integrating patient preference into practice

2: Which federal agency is responsible for supporting nursing research through the
establishment of a national research agenda, funding of grants, and providing training?
a) National League of Nursing (NLN)
b) American Nurses Credentialing Center (ANCC)
c) American Academy of College of Nursing (AACN)
d) National Institute of Nursing Research (NINR)

3: A research study has strong external validity when:

a) the findings can be applied to other persons and/or situations
b) the peer review process is blinded
c) participants are randomly assigned to groups
d) the findings support the theoretical framework

4: In order to critically appraise a published research study, all of the following questions
must be considered, except:
a) Is the study published in a peer-reviewed journal?
b) Is the design of the study free from bias?
c) Is the study's principal investigator a nurse?
d) Is the sampling frame in the study relatively recent?

5: In what way is nursing research different from outcome measurement in quality

improvement?
a) Nursing research is broader in scope.
b) Nursing research has lower external validity.
c) Nursing research involves the use of more quantitative data.
d) Nursing research has lower replicability.

6: Which type of nursing research provides the nurse with the strongest evidence for
practice?
a) Case study
b) Randomized clinical trial
c) Ex-post-facto study
d) Grounded theory

7: Which statement best describes the reason research is fundamental to nursing practice?
a) Nurses must replicate findings of previous research studies in practice.
b) Nurses are often recruited as subjects in clinical research studies.
c) Nurses are accountable for the effectiveness of nursing interventions based
on research evidence.
d) Nurses are often employed a data collectors in clinical research studies.
8: Which investigative function of nursing research does the American Nurses Association
recommend for baccalaureate-prepared nurses?
a) Educate the public about the importance of research in nursing practice.
b) Apply established findings of nursing and other health-related research into
nursing practice.
c) Develop methods to monitor the quality of nursing practice.
d) Conduct investigations to test pertinent middle-range theories in nursing practice.

9: Which of the following is a true statement about a randomized controlled trial (RCT)?
a) Subjects in the study are randomly assigned to treatment and control groups
b) Funding of the study is achieved at the federal level.
c) Qualitative data are obtained prior to the initiation of the study.
d) Findings from the study provide proof for the underlying theory.

10: How does evidence-based nursing differ from evidence-based medicine?

a) Nursing relies on scientific evidence from randomized controlled trials; medicine relies
on scientific evidence from a variety of research methods
b) Nursing relies on scientific evidence from a variety of research methods;
medicine relies on scientific evidence from randomized controlled trials.
c) Nursing considers patient preference; medicine does not consider patient preference.
d) Nursing utilizes guidelines from expert clinical panels; medicine utilizes evidence solely
from scientific studies that quantify the effects of treatment.

Chapter 2
The Research Process and Traditions of Knowing
1: Quantitative research is rooted in the philosophical assumptions of:
a) positivism
b) constructivism
c) humanism
d) naturalism

2: Which statement describes most accurately a feature of the naturalistic paradigm?

a) Events have antecedent causes
b) Reality is not a fixed entity.
c) The environment is unchanging.
d) Events can be linked to associated causes.

3: Qualitative research is rooted in the philosophical assumptions of:

a) determinism
b) positivism
c) naturalism
d) ways of knowing

4: All of the following characteristics of quantitative research are true, except:

a) The researcher's approach is objective and detached.
b) The design of the study is adaptable.
c) Inferences are used to generalize findings to a defined population.
d) The researcher opinions are not detected in reports of the findings.

5: The primary consideration in choosing a research design for a study is:

a) the preference of the principal investigator
 b) the expertise of the principal investigator
c) the nature of the statistical methods used.
d) the nature of the research questions

6: Which type of research is not intended as a basis for change in nursing practice?
a) Basic research
b) Applied research
c) Experimental research
d) Qualitative research

7: Studies that are conducted using data that have been collected about events that have
already happened are:
a) Quasi-experimental
b) Cross-sectional
c) Longitudinal
d) Retrospective

8: Which research design is able to determine cause and effect of an intervention?

a) Basic research
b) Experimental research
c) Retrospective research
d) Correlational research

9: A researcher using an experimental design is conducting a:

a) Prospective study
b) Correlational study
c) Retrospective study
d) Descriptive study

10: Which type of research uses the process of induction?

a) Experimental research
b) Predictive research
c) Qualitative research
d) Quasi-experimental research

Chapter 3
Ethical Issues in Nursing Research
1: The Nuremberg Code contains all of the following guidelines for carrying out ethical
research, except:
a) Benefits of the research outweigh the risks to subjects
b) Consent is voluntary and informed for subjects
c) Subjects can withdraw from study at any time without repercussions.
d) Deception is allowed if the research serves a worthy purpose

2: What was the primary purpose of the Declaration of Helsinki?

a) Stipulates that subjects have the right to stop the research at any time.
b) Ensures that only qualified scientists conduct research.
c) Recommends that animal research be performed in advance of human research.
d) Differentiates between therapeutic and nontherapuetic research

3: Which of the following is not one of the basic ethical principles of human subjects
described in the Belmont Report?
a) Illegal behavior
b) Justice
c) Beneficence
 d) Respect for persons

4: Which statement best describes the principle of beneficence in research?

a) Do no harm to subjects, maximize possible benefits to subjects, and minimize
possible harms to subjects.
a) Unbiased selection of subjects, adequate follow-up of subjects, and written consent of
subjects.
b) Written consent from subjects, fair distribution of risk and benefit to subjects, do no
harm to subjects.
c) Unbiased selection of subjects, do no harm to subjects, and written consent from
subjects

5: When designing a study, the researcher pays close attention to the subject selection
process so that diverse groups are recruited to participate in the study. This is an example of:
a) the principle of beneficence
b) the principle of justice
c) the Belmont principle
d) respect for persons

6: According to the Belmont Report, the informed consent process of research must contain
all of the following components, except:
a) information
b) comprehension
c) peer-review
d) voluntariness

7: Incomplete disclosure of information in the informed consent of a research study is allowed

if:
a) the subject is a minor
b) there is a language barrier
c) there is a plan to debrief subjects when the results are available
d) the subject is reluctant to participate

8: Vulnerable populations in research include those groups:

a) with financial interests in the study findings
b) with limited capacity to make decisions
c) without research experience
d) without college education

9: Ethical responsibilities of a nurse researcher include all of the following, except:

a) ensuring confidentiality
a) minimizing potential harm
b) minimizing potential benefit
c) respecting subject autonomy

10: What standard is used to determine how much information to disclose to a potential
subject in the informed consent:
a) The extent and nature of the information provided be sufficient for a
reasonable person to decide whether or not to participate.
b) The extent and nature of the information provided be at the 7th grade reading level.
c) The extent and nature of the information provided be in accordance with the
regulations of the funding agency.
d) The extent and nature of the information provided be at the discretion of the
researcher.

Chapter 4
Legal Issues in Nursing Research

1: Negligence can occur in clinical research when the researcher:

a) fails to obtain informed consent
b) uses an instrument known to be defective
c) distributes information known to be incorrect
d) fails to protect a subject's privacy

2: Which legal claim can be filed by a subject if a researcher fails obtain informed consent for
treatment when conducting a research study?
a) Negligence
b) Discrimination
c) Breach of confidence
d) Battery

3: Which statement is true about the Health Information Portability and Accountability Act
(HIPAA)?
a) It governs a person's right to privacy of health care information.
b) It oversees all research involving human subjects.
c) It stipulates the need for informed consent of subjects in research studies.
d) It protects patients from reasonable treatment in experimental studies.

4: A nurse researcher designs a survey to be mailed to a group of advanced practice nurses.

It must be reviewed by the hospital's Institutional Review Board (IRB). What category of
review most probably covers this type of research?
a) Full review
b) Survey review
c) Expedited review
d) Protective review

5: Exempt reviews of research by an Institutional Review Board (IRB) are used when:
a) vulnerable populations are involved
b) the research is approved by the Health Information Portability and Accountability Act
(HIPAA)
c) the study proposed poses minimal risk to subjects
d) the study proposed poses no risk to subjects

6: The following research activities are exempt from IRB (Institutional Review Board) review,
except:
a) quality improvement projects
b) research involving the collection of existing public records
c) research involving pregnant women
d) research involving anonymous surveys

7: When publication of findings is planned on completion of the research, IRB (Institutional

Review Board) approval is:
a) waived
b) required
c) optional
d) discretionary

8: Quality improvement studies are usually exempt from IRB (Institutional Review Board)
review except when:
a) results will be published
b) data is collected on patient care
c) results will be reviewed by hospital administrators
d) data is collected through the use of surveys
9: To avoid accusations of discrimination, a researcher must:
a) obtain informed consent for all subjects in the study
b) ensure confidentiality of a subject's health care records
c) ensure regular communication among members of the research team
d) specify valid inclusion and exclusion criteria for the sampling

10: All of the following elements must be included when preparing an IRB (Institutional
Review Board) form, except:
a) risks to subjects
b) benefits to subjects
c) how data will be analyzed
d) how subjects will be selected

Chapter No. 5
Research Problems, Questions, and Hypotheses

1: A deductive approach for developing a research problem:

a) uses specific observations as starting points
b) is a non-traditional way of finding research problems
c) uses a specific theory as a starting point
d) examines concepts outside of the traditional domain of nursing

2: What type of research utilizes an inductive process of reasoning?

a) Qualitative
b) Experimental
c) Replication
d) Correlational

3: All of the following are purposes for replicating a research study, except:
a) To validate findings
b) To eliminate limitations
c) To develop directional hypotheses
d) To increase generalizability

4: Which statement best describes the difference between a research problem statement and
a research purpose statement?
a) A problem statement describes a gap in knowledge, whereas a purpose
statement declares the goal of the study.
b) A problem statement describes the direction of inquiry; a purpose statement describes
variables to be studied.
c) A problem statement describes the design of the study, whereas the purpose
statement declares the variables to be studied.
d) A problem statement describes the design of the study, whereas the purpose
statement describes the disparity in knowledge.

5: A research hypothesis serves as a basis for:

a) what literature is reviewed
b) how subjects are recruited
c) how informed consent is obtained
d) what statistical tests are used

6: Which statement is true about a research hypothesis?

a) It is a restatement of the research question in a form that can be analyzed.
b) It is designed to quantify the strength of a relationship between two variables.
c) It is a declaration of what needs to be addressed by the research.
d) It is a restatement of the purpose statement and guides the methodology of the study.
7: Which of the following hypotheses is an example of a null hypotheses?
a) Post-operative patients who use guided imagery will report less pain than those who
do not use guided imagery.
b) There will be no difference in pain ratings between post-operative patients
who use guided imagery and those who do not.
c) There will be a change in pain ratings for post-operative patients who use guided
imagery.
d) Decreased use of pain medication will be used as an indicator of decreased pain in
post-operative patients.

8: Which of the following hypotheses is an example of a directional hypotheses?

a) Cardiac patients who participate in an exercise program will report a greater
sense of power than those who do not participate in the exercise program.
b) There will be no difference in power ratings between cardiac patients who participate
in an exercise program and those who do not.
c) There will be a change in power ratings for cardiac patients who participate in an
exercise program.
d) Exercise and power are unrelated.

9: Which statement is false about research hypotheses?

a) They can be implied in the purpose statement of study.
b) At times they must be inferred from the types of statistical tests performed in the
study.
c) They can be implied in the objectives of study.
d) At times they cannot be stated until the study has been completed.

10: What four major elements must be specified in a well-written research question for a
quantitative study?
a) Participants, intervention, variables, analysis
b) Population, intervention, comparison and outcome.
c) Population, variables, outcome, analysis
d) Participants, study site, informed consent, outcome

Chapter 6
The Successful Literature Review
1: A researcher must choose carefully the scope of the literature review. Which statement
most accurately describes a criteria used by researchers to determine when to stop searching?
a) The list of studies is too lengthy.
b) Nothing new is being revealed in the literature sources
c) Conflicting information is being obtained from sources.
d) The researcher disagrees with the information obtained.

2: Which of the following is an example of a seminal piece of research literature?

a) An article describing findings from a quality improvement study.
b) An article describing findings from a recent masters thesis.
c) An article describing findings from a nurse theorist's original work.
d) An article describing findings from a feasibility study.

3: All of the following statements are true about concept mapping, except:
a) It helps the researcher plan systematically how the literature review will proceed.
b) It identifies all relevant concepts that are pertinent to a research question.
c) It helps reduce researcher bias in the literature review process.
d) It identifies primary and secondary sources of literature.
4: What is the most important reason for a researcher to identify search terms and sources of
information a priori in a literature review?
a) It reduces researcher bias.
b) It increases the ease of the review.
c) It reduces the time spent performing the review.
d) It increases the amount of primary sources in the review.

5: What two methods are used to assess the impact of findings from a published research
study?
a) Peer review and journal impact
b) Citation analysis and journal impact
c) Peer review and citation analysis
d) Citation analysis and credibility assurance

6: A nurse is proficient in database searching when looking for research studies. This skill is
an example of:
a) Information literacy
b) Citation analysis
c) Citation literacy
d) Evidence-based practice

7: Which statement is true about the difference between a literature review for a qualitative
study and a quantitative study?
a) The number of primary sources included.
b) The scope of the review.
c) The number of secondary sources.
d) The timing of the literature review.

8: CINAHL is an example of:

a) A method of concept mapping.
b) An electronic database of journals.
c) An interlibrary loan system.
d) A database of full text journals.

9: Which database can be specifically targeted by the nurse for clinical evidence to be used in
evidence-based practice?
a) MEDLINE
b) Ovid
c) Cochrane Library
d) EBSCOhost

10: In a strong literature review, the researcher synthesizes the literature. Which statement
most accurately describes this process?
a) The researcher produces something new from existing knowledge.
b) The researcher describes each study in detail.
c) The researcher includes systematic reviews of the literature.
d) The researcher includes both primary and secondary sources of literature.
Chapter 7
Theoretical and Conceptual Frameworks
1: Which of the following types of theories is the least abstract?
a) Macrotheory
b) Middle-range theory
c) Grand theory
d) Situation-specific theory

2: What is the difference between a concept and construct?

a) A concept is more abstract.
 b) A construct is more abstract.
c) A concept is directly observable.
d) A construct is directly observable.

3: The measurable aspect of a concept is referred to as a:

a) Construct
b) Theory
c) Variable
d) Framework

4: Which of the following is an example of a conceptual definition?

a) Pain is an unpleasant sensory experience.
b) Pain is measured with a Visual Analogue Scale
c) Higher levels of pain lead to higher levels of depression
d) Pain is indicated by facial grimacing.

5: Which statement is false about theoretical frameworks?

a) It is the basic structure of ideas to be tested in a research study.
b) It contains proven relationships between concepts.
c) It may not be formally acknowledged in a research report.
d) It is a collection of concepts and concept maps.

6: All of the following criteria are important when critiquing a theory in a research study,
except:
a) Consistency in conceptual definitions of concepts.
b) Adequacy of the theory to explain the phenomena being studied.
c) Consistency of the relationships between the concepts in the study to the theorist's
work.
d) Adequacy of the citation analysis procedure.

7: Which statement is true about borrowed theories in nursing research?

a) They are rarely helpful in guiding nursing research.
b) A borrowed theory becomes shared when it is empirically adequate for
nursing.
c) A borrowed theory is useful for nursing research but not for nursing practice
d) They are rarely helpful in guiding nursing practice.

8: What is the first step in choosing a theoretical framework for a research study?
a) Discuss with other nurse researchers.
b) Determine the methodology.
c) Choose a concept of interest.
d) Write a directional hypothesis.

9: How do theoretical frameworks differ in quantitative versus qualitative studies?

a) Quantitative studies begin with a theoretical framework; qualitative studies
develop a theoretical framework
b) Quantitative studies may or may not have a theoretical framework; qualitative studies
generally do not have a theoretical framework.
c) Quantitative studies use inductive reasoning from a theoretical framework; qualitative
studies use deductive reasoning to build knowledge.
d) Quantitative studies seek to develop a theoretical framework; qualitative studies start
with general theoretical ideas.

10: All of the following are building blocks of a theory except:

a) Concepts
b) Constructs
c) Relational statements
d) Operational definitions
Chapter 8
Selecting Appropriate Design

1: The foundation for choosing a design for a research study is:

a) The purpose to be achieved by the study.
b) The analysis to be performed in the study.
c) The way subjects will be recruited for the study.
d) The strengths the researcher brings to the study.

2: Which of the following is an example of a method to eliminate a threat to the internal

validity of a quantitative research study?
a) Ensure racial diversity of your sample.
b) Assign subjects randomly to treatment and control group.
c) Recruit subjects with a minimum of a high school education.
d) Use a variety of data collectors.

3: A researcher is seeking develop a theory related to how adolescents manage depression.

Which design is most appropriate?
a) Quantitative design
b) Qualitative design
c) Experimental design
d) Intervention design

4: A researcher is seeking to test the hypothesis that lack of social support and depression
are related. What type of study is this?
a) Experimental
b) Exploratory
c) Descriptive
d) Confirmatory

5: A researcher wants to test the effectiveness of a educational program on smoking

cessation. What is the independent variable in this study?
a) Smoking cessation
b) Smokers
c) Educational program
d) Use of nicotine gum

6: All of the following are true about a dependent variable in research studies, except:
a) It is the outcome of interest in a intervention study.
b) It varies according to the independent variable in experimental studies
c) It is a building block of a theory in qualitative research.
d) It is derived from the theoretical framework of the study.

7: Ethnography is an example of what type of research design?

a) Descriptive
b) Correlational
c) Predictive
d) Quantitative

8: A researcher collects quantitative data on a sample of middle-aged women over the course
of a 5-year period of time. What type of design did the researcher use?
a) Longitudinal
b) Cross-sectional
c) Ethnography
d) Survey
9: What is a limitation of cross-sectional studies?
a) Historical events may affect outcome variables.
b) They do not capture changes that occur over time.
c) They are affected by subject attrition.
d) Maturation of subjects may affect the outcome.

10: A researcher is concerned about possible extraneous variables in the research study.
What is the most important basis for the researcher's concern?
a) Findings will be biased.
b) Subjects will drop-out.
c) Confidentiality will be lost.
d) Theory will be biased.
Chapter 9
The Sampling Strategy

1: A researcher is very careful to recruit subjects for the sample so that it will represent the
population well. This is done to:
a) Maximize selection bias
b) Minimize sampling error
c) Maximize standard error
d) Minimize sampling frame

2: When subjects elect not to participate or drop out of a study, it can lead to:
a) Sampling bias
b) Snowball sampling
c) Saturation of subjects
d) A heterogeneous sample

3: Of the following sampling strategies, which is most often used in qualitative research?
a) Cluster sampling
b) Random sampling
c) Convenience sampling
d) Purposive sampling

4: Of the following sampling strategies, which will result in the least sampling bias?
a) Cluster sampling
b) Random sampling
c) Convenience sampling
d) Purposive sampling

5: A researcher is studying illicit drug use amongst run-away adolescents. The sampling plan
is to rely on referrals from initial subjects to recruit additional subjects. This is an example of:
a) Stratified sampling
b) Systematic sampling
c) Cluster sampling
d) Snowball sampling

6: What is the main limitation of using a convenience sample?

a) Selection bias
b) Attrition
c) Independence
d) Diffusion

7: In qualitative studies, sample size is determined by:

a) Power analysis
b) Effect size
c) Saturation
 d) Trustworthiness

8: One way to decrease the risk of a Type II error is:

a) Increase the sample size.
b) Decrease the sample size.
c) Increase the diversity of the sample.
d) Decrease the effect size.

9: When a study lacks power, which of the following is most likely to occur?
a) Type II error
b) Reduced effect size
c) Type I error
d) Reduced external validity

10: Study findings that cannot be generalized back to a larger population is said to lack:
a) Power analysis
b) Internal validity
c) Effect size
d) External validity

Chapter 10
Principles of Measurement

1: Which of the following is an example of an operational definition of depression?

a) A score of 20 or greater on the Beck's Depression Inventory.
b) A mood disturbance marked by sadness and loss of appetite.
c) A mood disturbance characterized by an imbalance of neurotransmitters
d) A subjective feeling of sadness.

2: A nurse decides to perform a chart review of patients in the intensive care unit over the
past 6 months. She/he is interested in collected data about the incidence of hospital-acquired
infection. What type of data is being collected?
a) Primary data
b) Prospective data
c) Secondary data
d) Qualitative data

3: Which of the following is an example of nominal data?

a) Age
b) Gender
c) Pain ratings
d) Blood pressure measurement

4: A score of 20 on the Beck's Depression Inventory is an example of:

a) Nominal data
b) Ordinal data
c) Interval data
d) Ratio data

5: A subject answers a questionnaire based on a desire to be socially desirable. This is an

example of:
a) Continuous data
b) Systematic error
c) Categorical data
d) Random error

6: All of the following are ways to reduce measurement error, except:

 a) Calibrate physical instruments
b) Use an instrument with high reliability
c) Increase the sample size
d) Use an instrument with high validity

7: An instrument is said to have good internal reliability when:

a) The coefficient alpha is .7 or greater.
b) The test-retest reliability is .7 or greater.
c) The interrater reliability is .7 or greater.
d) The p value is less than .05.

8: A researcher wants to establish reliability of an instrument. The instrument is administered

to a sample of subjects and then given again a week later. The scores from week 1 and week
2 are correlated. What type of reliability is the researcher measuring?
a) Stability within an instrument
b) Stability between raters
c) Stability over time
d) Stability among individuals

9: A researcher performs a factor analysis on a instrument, which will be used in a study.

What type of validity will this establish?
a) Content validity
b) Concurrent validity
c) Discriminant validity
d) Construct validity

10: In a qualitative study, the researcher wants to ensure that the results accurately
represent the underlying meaning of the data and uses triangulation to increase:
a) the credibility of the data
b) the reliability of the data
c) the dependability of the data
d) the feasibility of the data