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Physics: PAPER 1 Multiple Choice

The document is an exam paper for the Cambridge International Examinations General Certificate of Education Advanced Subsidiary Level and Advanced Level PHYSICS multiple choice exam from October/November 2002. It contains instructions for candidates on how to fill out the multiple choice answer sheet, as well as some introductory information and physical formulae that may be useful for answering the questions. The exam consists of 40 multiple choice questions to be answered in 1 hour.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
114 views20 pages

Physics: PAPER 1 Multiple Choice

The document is an exam paper for the Cambridge International Examinations General Certificate of Education Advanced Subsidiary Level and Advanced Level PHYSICS multiple choice exam from October/November 2002. It contains instructions for candidates on how to fill out the multiple choice answer sheet, as well as some introductory information and physical formulae that may be useful for answering the questions. The exam consists of 40 multiple choice questions to be answered in 1 hour.

Uploaded by

2025naldo.s
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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com

CAMBRIDGE INTERNATIONAL EXAMINATIONS


General Certificate of Education Advanced Subsidiary Level
and Advanced Level

PHYSICS 9702/1
PAPER 1 Multiple Choice
OCTOBER/NOVEMBER SESSION 2002
1 hour
Candidates answer on the question paper.
Additional materials:
Multiple Choice answer sheet
Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (Type B or HB is recommended)

TIME 1 hour

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
Do not open this booklet until you are told to do so.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the answer sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has already been done for you.
There are forty questions in this paper. Answer all questions. For each question, there are four
possible answers, A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft
pencil on the separate answer sheet.
Read very carefully the instructions on the answer sheet.

INFORMATION FOR CANDIDATES


Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.

This question paper consists of 19 printed pages and 1 blank page.


SPA (CW/CG) S21713/3
© CIE 2002 [Turn over
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Data

speed of light in free space, c = 3.00 × 10 8 m s –1

permeability of free space, 0 = 4 × 10 –7 H m–1

permittivity of free space, 0 = 8.85 × 10 –12 F m–1

elementary charge, e = 1.60 × 10 –19 C

the Planck constant, h = 6.63 × 10 –34 J s

unified atomic mass constant, u = 1.66 × 10 –27 kg

rest mass of electron, me = 9.11 × 10 –31 kg

rest mass of proton, mp = 1.67 × 10 –27 kg

molar gas constant, R = 8.31 J K –1 mol –1

the Avogadro constant, NA = 6.02 × 10 23 mol –1

the Boltzmann constant, k = 1.38 × 10 –23 J K –1

gravitational constant, G = 6.67 × 10 –11 N m 2 kg –2

acceleration of free fall, g = 9.81 m s –2

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Formulae

uniformly accelerated motion, s = ut +  at 2


v 2 = u 2 + 2as

work done on/by a gas, W = pV

gravitational potential, φ = – Gm
r
simple harmonic motion, a = –  2x

velocity of particle in s.h.m., v = v0 cos  t


v = ±  √(x 20 – x 2)

resistors in series, R = R1 + R2 + . . .

resistors in parallel, 1/R = 1/R1 + 1/R2 + . . .


Q
electric potential, V=
40r
capacitors in series, 1/C = 1/C1 + 1/C2 + . . .

capacitors in parallel, C = C1 + C2 + . . .

energy of charged capacitor, W=  QV


alternating current/voltage, x = x0 sin t

hydrostatic pressure, p = qgh

Nm 2
pressure of an ideal gas, p=  V
<c >

radioactive decay, x = x0 exp(– t )

decay constant,  = 0.693


t 

3H02
critical density of matter in the Universe, q0 =
8G

equation of continuity, Av = constant

Bernoulli equation (simplified), p1 +  qv12 = p2 +  qv22

Stokes’ law, F = Ar v
qv r
Reynolds’ number, Re =

drag force in turbulent flow, F = Br 2qv 2
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1 The prefix ‘centi’ indicates x 10–2. That is, 1 centimetre is equal to 1 × 10–2 metre.

Which line in the table correctly indicates the prefixes micro, nano and pico?

×10–12 ×10–9 ×10–6

A nano micro pico


B micro pico nano
C pico nano micro
D pico micro nano

2 A particle is moving in a straight line with uniform acceleration.

Which graph represents the motion of the particle?

A B C D

distance velocity velocity acceleration

0 0 0 0
0 time 0 time 0 time 0 time

3 A pendulum bob is held stationary by a horizontal force H. The three forces acting on the bob are
shown in the diagram.

30° T

The tension in the string of the pendulum is T. The weight of the pendulum bob is W.

Which statement is correct?

A H = T cos30° B T= H sin30° C W = T cos30° D W = T sin30°

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4 What is meant by the weight of an object?

A the gravitational field acting on the object


B the gravitational force acting on the object
C the mass of the object multiplied by gravity
D the object’s mass multiplied by its acceleration

5 A student carries out a series of determinations of the acceleration of free fall g. The table shows
the results.

g/m s –2

4.91
4.89
4.88
4.90
4.93
4.92

What can be said about this experiment?

A It is accurate and precise.


B It is accurate but not precise.
C It is not accurate and not precise.
D It is not accurate but is precise.

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6 A quantity X is measured many times. A graph is plotted showing the number n of times a
particular value of X is obtained. X has a true value X 0.

Which graph could be obtained if the measurement of X has a large systematic error but a small
random error?

A B
n n

0 0
0 X0 X 0 X0 X

C D

n n

0 0
0 X0 X 0 X0 X

7 The diagram shows a square-wave trace on the screen of a cathode-ray oscilloscope. A grid of
1 cm squares covers the screen. The time-base setting is 10 ms cm–1.

What is the approximate frequency of the square-wave?

A 70 Hz B 140 Hz C 280 Hz D 1400 Hz

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8 A projectile is launched at point O and follows the path OPQRS, as shown. Air resistance may be
neglected.

Q
P R

O S

Which statement is true for the projectile when it is at the highest point Q of its path?

A The horizontal component of the projectile’s acceleration is zero.


B The horizontal component of the projectile’s velocity is zero.
C The kinetic energy of the projectile is zero.
D The momentum of the projectile is zero.

9 Two markers M1 and M2 are set up a vertical distance h apart.

steel ball

time zero
x
M1 time t 1

M2 time t 2

When a steel ball is released from rest from a point a distance x above M1, it is found that the ball
takes time t1 to reach M1 and time t2 to reach M2.

Which expression gives the acceleration of the ball?


2h 2h 2h 2h
A ––2 B ––––– C ––––––2 D ––––––
t2 (t 2 + t 1) (t 2 – t 1) (t 2 – t 12)
2

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10 A body falls from rest in a vacuum near the Earth’s surface. The variation with time t of its speed v
is shown below.

0
0 t

Which graph shows the variation with time t of the speed v of the same ball falling in air at the
same place on Earth?

A B

v v

0 0
0 t 0 t

C D

v v

0 0
0 t 0 t

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11 Two spheres A and B approach each other along the same straight line with speeds uA and uB.
The spheres collide and move off with speeds vA and vB, both in the same direction as the initial
direction of sphere A, as shown below.

uA uB
before collision

A B

after collision
vA vB

Which equation applies to an elastic collision?

A uA + uB = vB – vA
B uA – uB = vB – vA
C uA – uB = vB + vA
D uA + uB = vB + vA

12 Two equal masses travel towards each other on a frictionless air track at speeds of 60 cm s–1 and
30 cm s–1. They stick together on impact.

60 cm s–1 30 cm s–1

What is the speed of the masses after impact?

A 15 cm s–1 B 20 cm s–1 C 30 cm s–1 D 45 cm s–1

13 Which of the following pairs of forces, acting on a circular object, constitutes a couple?

A B C D

F 2F
F F F

2F
F
F

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14 A uniform metre rule of mass 100 g is supported by a knife-edge at the 40 cm mark and a string at
the 100 cm mark. The string passes round a frictionless pulley and carries a mass of 20 g as
shown in the diagram.

0 20 40 60 80 100

20 g

At which mark on the rule must a 50 g mass be suspended so that the rule balances?

A 4 cm B 36 cm C 44 cm D 96 cm

15 The diagrams represent systems of coplanar forces acting at a point. The lengths of the force
vectors represent the magnitudes of the forces.

Which system of forces is in equilibrium?

A B C D

16 Which of the following is an expression for power?

A energy x time
B force x displacement
C force x velocity
D mass x velocity

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17 A car driver adjusts the pressure on a car’s brakes so that the car travels at constant speed down
a hill from P to Q.

The magnitude of the change in the car’s kinetic energy is ∆Ek. The magnitude of the change in its
gravitational potential energy is ∆Ep.

Which statement is correct?

A ∆Ek > ∆Ep B ∆Ek = ∆Ep C ∆Ep > ∆Ek > 0 D ∆Ek = 0

18 An area of land is an average of 2.0 m below sea level. To prevent flooding, pumps are used to lift
rainwater up to sea level.

What is the minimum pump output power required to deal with 1.3 × 109 kg of rain per day?

A 15 kW B 30 kW C 150 kW D 300 kW

19 A twig from a tree drops from a 200 m high cliff on to a beach below. During its fall, 40% of the
twig’s energy is converted into thermal energy.

What is the speed with which the twig hits the beach?

A 35 m s–1 B 40 m s–1 C 49 m s–1 D 63 m s–1

20 Pollen grains are suspended in a liquid and are illuminated strongly. When observed under a
microscope they are seen to be in continuous random motion.

What is the reason for this?

A convection currents in the liquid


B evaporation of the liquid
C molecules of the liquid colliding with the pollen grains
D pollen grains colliding with each other

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21 At a depth of 20 cm in a liquid of density 1800 kg m–3, the pressure due to the liquid is p.

Another liquid has a density of 1200 kg m–3.

What is the pressure due to this liquid at a depth of 60 cm?


p 3p
A – B –– C 2p D 3p
2 2

22 Which line in the table gives approximate ratios of density and molecular spacing for a substance
in its solid, liquid and gas phases?

density molecular spacing

solid : liquid : gas solid : liquid : gas

A 1000 : 1000 : 1 1 : 1 : 10
B 1000 : 100 : 1 1 : 10 : 1000
C 1000 : 1000 : 1 1 : 1 : 1000
D 1000 : 100 : 1 1 : 10 : 100

23 The variation of the extension x of a spring with applied force F is shown.

0
0 x

Which shaded area represents the work done when the extension is increased from x1 to x2?

A B C D
F F F F

0 0 0 0
0 x1 x2 x 0 x1 x2 x 0 x1 x2 x 0 x1 x2 x

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24 Two springs P and Q both obey Hooke’s law. They have spring constants 2k and k respectively.

The springs are stretched, separately, by a force that is gradually increased from zero up to a
certain maximum value, the same for each spring. The work done in stretching spring P is WP,
and the work done in stretching spring Q is WQ.

How is WP related to WQ?

A WP =  WQ B WP =  WQ C WP = 2WQ D WP = 4WQ

25 Which value is a possible wavelength for radiation in the microwave region of the electromagnetic
spectrum?

A 3 × 10–2 m B 3 × 10–5 m C 3 × 10–8 m D 3 × 10–10 m

26 The four graphs represent a progressive wave on a stretched string. Graphs A and B show how
the displacement d varies with distance x along the string at one instant. Graphs C and D show
how the displacement d varies with time t at a particular value of x.

The labels on the graphs are intended to show the wavelength λ, the period T, and the amplitude
a of the wave, but only one graph is correctly labelled.

Which graph is correctly labelled?

A B
λ

d d
a
0 0
0 a x
0 T x

C D

λ
d d
a a
0 0
0 t 0 T t

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27 A wave of amplitude a has an intensity of 3.0 Wm –2.

What is the intensity of a wave of the same frequency that has an amplitude 2a?

A 4.2 Wm –2 B 6.0 Wm –2 C 9.0 Wm –2 D 12 Wm –2

28 Coherent monochromatic light illuminates two narrow parallel slits and the interference pattern
that results is observed on a screen some distance beyond the slits.

Which change increases the separation between the dark lines of the interference pattern?

A using monochromatic light of higher frequency


B using monochromatic light of a longer wavelength
C decreasing the distance between the screen and the slits
D increasing the distance between the slits

29 Monochromatic light of wavelength 590 nm is incident normally on a diffraction grating. The angle
between the two second-order diffracted beams is 43°.

What is the spacing of the lines on the grating?

A 0.87 µm B 1.6 µm C 1.7 µm D 3.2 µm

30 Which equation is used to define resistance?

A power = (current)2 × resistance


B resistivity = resistance × area ÷ length
C potential difference = current × resistance
D energy = (current)2 × resistance × time

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31 The graph shows how the current through a lamp filament varies with the potential difference
across it.

current

0
0 p.d.

Which statement explains the shape of this graph?

A As the filament temperature rises, electrons can pass more easily through the filament.
B It takes time for the filament to reach its working temperature.
C The power output of the filament is proportional to the square of the current through it.
D The resistance of the filament increases with a rise in temperature.

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32 The variation with potential difference V of the current I in a semiconductor diode is shown below.

I / mA
50

0
V/V
-2.0 -1.0 0 1.0 2.0

-50

What is the resistance of the diode for applied potential differences of +1.0 V and –1.0 V?

resistance

at +1.0 V at –1.0 V

A 20 Ω infinite
B 20 Ω zero
C 0.05 Ω infinite
D 0.05 Ω zero

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33 At a circuit junction, a current I divides into currents I1, I2 and I3.

I1

I I2

I3

These currents are related by the equation

I = I1 + I2 + I3.

Which law does this statement illustrate and on what principle is the law based?

A Kirchhoff’s first law based on conservation of charge


B Kirchhoff’s first law based on conservation of energy
C Kirchhoff’s second law based on conservation of charge
D Kirchhoff’s second law based on conservation of energy

34 The combined resistance RT of two resistors of resistances R1 and R2 connected in parallel is


given by the formula
1 1 1
–– = –– + ––
RT R1 R2

Which statement is used in the derivation of this formula?

A The currents through the two resistors are equal.


B The potential difference across each resistor is the same.
C The supply current is split between the two resistors in the same ratio as the ratio of their
resistances.
D The total power dissipated is the sum of the powers dissipated in the two resistors separately.

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35 In the potentiometer circuit below, the moveable contact is placed at N on the bare wire XY, such
that the galvanometer shows zero deflection.

N
X Y

The resistance of the variable resistor is now increased.

What is the effect of this increase on the potential difference across the wire XY and on the
position of the moveable contact for zero deflection?

potential difference across XY position of moveable contact

A increases nearer to X
B increases nearer to Y
C decreases nearer to X
D decreases nearer to Y

36 Six resistors, each of resistance 5 Ω, are connected to a 2 V cell of negligible internal resistance.

2V 5Ω 5Ω
X

5Ω 5Ω

5Ω 5Ω

What is the potential difference between terminals X and Y?

A  V B  V C  V D 2V

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37 Which diagram shows the electric field pattern of an isolated negative point charge?

A B C D

– – – –

38 The numbers of protons, neutrons and nucleons in three nuclei are shown.

nucleus number of number of number of


protons neutrons nucleons
X 15 16 31
Y 15 17 32
Z 16 16 32

Which nuclei are isotopes of the same element?

A X and Y B X and Z C Y and Z D none of them

39 In an experiment to investigate the nature of the atom, a very thin gold film was bombarded with
α-particles.

What pattern of deflection of the α-particles was observed?

A A few α-particles were deflected through angles greater than a right angle.
B All α-particles were deflected from their original path.
C Most α-particles were deflected through angles greater than a right angle.
D No α-particle was deflected through an angle greater than a right angle.

92 U absorbs a slow neutron it subsequently emits two β-particles.


40 When a nucleus of 238

What is the resulting nucleus?

A 240 Np B 240 Pa C 239 Pu D 239Th


93 91 94 90

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