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400 Q For G11 1st Term

The document discusses several genetics concepts: 1) It provides multiple choice questions about inheritance of traits, blood types, and the causes of genetic mutations. 2) The questions cover Mendelian genetics including dominance, segregation, independent assortment and pedigrees. 3) It also addresses cellular processes like DNA replication, transcription, and meiosis.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
147 views85 pages

400 Q For G11 1st Term

The document discusses several genetics concepts: 1) It provides multiple choice questions about inheritance of traits, blood types, and the causes of genetic mutations. 2) The questions cover Mendelian genetics including dominance, segregation, independent assortment and pedigrees. 3) It also addresses cellular processes like DNA replication, transcription, and meiosis.

Uploaded by

romaehab201912
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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1. What are the environmental benefits of growing GM foods?

a) There are none.


b) They reduce the need to use pesticides
c) They preserve the richness of the soil
d) They enhance flora and fauna diversity.

2- The chart shows the inheritance of coat color in mice. The allele for brown coat,
B, is dominant to the allele for white coat, b.

What are the most likely genotypes of the individuals P and Q? B


3- A man is blood group A and his wife is blood group AB. What are the possible
blood groups of their children?
A) A only
B) AB only
C) A and B only
D) A, B and AB

4- A study was made of children whose mothers were blood group O (genotype
IOIO) and whose fathers were blood group AB (genotype IAIB).
Which statement about their children is correct?
A) All will have the same blood group.
B) 50% will have the same blood group as their mother.
C) 50% will have the same blood group as their father.
D) None will have the same blood group as either parent.

5- Some normal fruit flies are subjected to radiation in a laboratory. As a result, they
produce offspring with unusual characteristics, such as white eyes.
What causes this?
A) continuous variation
B) discontinuous variation
C) dominance
D) mutation
6-The pedigree in Figure 15.4 shows the
transmission of a trait in a particular family.
Based
on this pattern of transmission, the trait is
most likely
A) mitochondrial.
B) autosomal recessive.
C) sex-linked dominant.
D) sex-linked recessive.
E) autosomal dominant.

7- Pea plants were particularly well suited for use in Mendelʹs breeding experiments
for all of
the following reasons except that:
A) peas show easily observed variations in a number of characters, such as pea shape
and flower color.
B) it is possible to control matings between different pea plants.
C) it is possible to obtain large numbers of progeny from any given cross.
D) peas have an unusually long generation time.
E) many of the observable characters that vary in pea plants are controlled by single
genes.

8-The allele for red flower colour (R) in a certain plant is co-dominant with the allele
for white flowers (R’). Thus a plant with the genotype RR’ has pink flowers. Tall
(D) is dominant to dwarf (d). What would be the expected phenotypic ratio from a
cross of RR’dd plants with R’R’Dd plants?
A. 9:3:3:1
B. 50% pink 50% white, and all tall
C. 1:1:1:1, in which 50% are tall, 50% dwarf, 50% pink and 50% white
D. 3:1

9- In Drosophila the allele for normal wings (W) is dominant over the allele for
vestigal wings (w) and the allele for normal body (G) is dominant over the allele for
ebony body (g). If two Drosophila with the genotypes Wwgg and wwGg are crossed
together, what ratio of phenotypes is expected in the offspring?
A. 9 × normal wings, normal body : 3 × normal wings, ebony body : 3 × vestigal
wings, normal body : 1 × vestigal wings, ebony body
B. 3 × normal wings, normal body : 3 × normal wings, ebony body : 3 × vestigal
wings, normal body : 1 × vestigal wings, ebony body
C. 3 × normal wings, normal body : 1 × normal wings, ebony body : 3 × vestigal
wings, normal body : 1 × vestigal wings, ebony body
D. 1 × normal wings, normal body : 1 × normal wings, ebony body : 1 × vestigal
wings, normal body : 1 × vestigal wings, ebony body

10- Calico cats are female because


A) a male inherits only one of the two X-linked genes controlling hair color.
B) the males die during embryonic development.
C) the Y chromosome has a gene blocking orange coloration.
D) only females can have Barr bodies.
E) multiple crossovers on the Y chromosome prevent orange pigment production.

11-In horses, gray horses (GG) are codominant to white horses (WW). The
heterozygous horses (GW) is an appaloosa horse (a white horse with gray spots
on the rump and loins). Cross a white horse with an appaloosa horse. What is the
probability of producing a grey horse?
a. ¼
b. b. 1/2
c. 3/4
d. 0

12- Mendel accounted for the observation that traits which had disappeared in the F
1 generation reappeared in the F2 generation by proposing that:
A) new mutations were frequently generated in the F2progeny, ʺreinventingʺ traits
that had been lost in the F1.
B) the mechanism controlling the appearance of traits was different between the F1
and the F2 plants.
C) traits can be dominant or recessive, and the recessive traits were obscured by th
e dominant ones in the F1.
D) the traits were lost in the F1 due to blending of the parental traits.
E) members of the F1 generation had only one allele for each character, but memb
ers of the F2 had two alleles for each character.

13- When Thomas Hunt Morgan crossed his red-eyed F1


generation flies to each other, the F2 generation included both red- and white-
eyed flies. Remarkably, all the white-eyed flies
were male. What was the explanation for this result?
A) The gene involved is on the X chromosome.
B) The gene involved is on the Y chromosome.
C) The gene involved is on an autosome.
D) Other male-specific factors influence eye color in flies.
E) Other female-specific factors influence eye color in flies.

14-
A gene that contains introns can be made shorter (but remain functional) for gen
etic engineering purposes by using
A) RNA polymerase to transcribe the gene.
B) a restriction enzyme to cut the gene into shorter pieces.
C) reverse transcriptase to reconstruct the gene from its mRNA.
D) DNA polymerase to reconstruct the gene from its polypeptide product.

15- Which of the following bonding examples is not possible?


a. A DNA adenine to a DNA thymine
b. A DNA thymine to an RNA thymine
c. A DNA guanine to an RNA cytosine
d. A DNA adenine to an RNA uracil
e. A DNA guanine to a DNA cytosine

16- Which of the following best describes the DNA molecule?


a. Two parallel strands of nitrogen bases held together by hydrogen bonding
b. Two complementary strands of deoxyribose and phosphates held together by
hydrogen bonding
c. Two antiparallel strands of nucleotides held together by hydrogen bonding
d. A single strand of nitrogen bases coiled upon itself by hydrogen bonding
e. A single strand of nucleotides coiled into a helix.

17- In DNA replication, the role of DNA polymerase is to


a. bring two separate strands back together after new ones are formed
b. join the RNA nucleotides together to make the primer
c. builds a new strand from 5` to 3`
d. unwind the tightly would helix
e. join the Okazaki fragments

18- Regarding mitosis and cytokinesis, one difference between higher plants and
animals is that in plants
a. the spindles contain cellulose in addition to microtubules whereas in animals they
do not.
b. sister chromatids are identical, whereas in animals they differ from one another.
c. a cell plate begins to form at telophase, whereas in animals a cleavage furrow is
initiated at that stage.
d. chromosomes become attached to the spindle at prophase, whereas in animals’
chromosomes do not become attacked until anaphase.
e. spindle poles contain centrioles, whereas spindle poles in animals do not

19-During meiosis there are two rounds of all of the following stages EXCEPT
a. prophase
b. metaphase
c. anaphase
d. telophase
e. interphase

16- The synaptonemal complex forms during


a. anaphase I of meiosis
b. interphase of any cell
c. anaphase II of meiosis
d. telophase
e. prophase I of meiosis

17-Heterozygous person can transmit the recessive allele to their offspring without
themselves having the trait
a) Homozygous
b) Heterozygous
c) Carrier
d) Double alleles

18-Three or more potential varieties from crossing tow parents


a) Complete dominance
b) Incomplete dominance
c) Codominance
d) Fertilization

19-Proteins around which eukaryotic DNA is tightly coiled in chromatin


a) Histones
b) Polymerase
c) Ligase
d) Primer

20-Subunits of the two strands within DNA running opposite of each other
a) Double helix
b) Anti-parallel
c) Strands
d) Single helix

21-DNA replication where the replicated double helix consists of a parent strand and
a new strand
a) Conservative model
b) Dispersive model
c) Semi-dispersive model
d) Semiconservative model

22- Mode of DNA replication in E coli is


a) conservative and unidirectional
b) semiconservative and unidirectional
c) conservative and bidirectional
d) semiconservative and bidirectional

23- True replication of DNA is possible due to


a) hydrogen bonding
b) phosphate backbone
c) complementary base pairing rule
d) none of the above

24- Eukaryotes differ from prokaryote in mechanism of DNA replication due to


a) Use of DNA primer rather than RNA primer.
b) Different enzyme for synthesis of lagging and leading strand
c) Discontinuous rather than semi-discontinuous replication
d) Unidirectional rather than semi-discontinuous replication

25- The reaction in DNA replication catalyzed by DNA ligase is


a) Addition of new nucleotides to the leading strand
b) Addition of new nucleotide to the lagging strand
c) Formation of a phosphodiester bond between the 3’-OH of one Okazaki
fragment and the 5’-phosphate of the next on the lagging strand
d) Base pairing of the template and the newly formed DNA strand
26- During DNA replication in prokaryotes, synthesis begins on the circular
chromosome
a) Always at the same place
b) At any stretch of DNA that is high in AT pairs
c) Randomly on the chromosome
d) At the promoter1. Down’s syndrome is due to
a. crossing over
b. linkage
c. sex-linked inheritance
d. nondisjunction of chromosomes

27- A cell with a diploid number of 24 undergoes meiosis, how many


chromosomes are in each daughter cell?
a. 6
b. 12
c. 24
d. 48

28- A color blind mother and normal father would have


a. color blind sons and normal/carrier daughters
b. color blind sons and daughters
c. all have color blindness
d. all normal

29- How many mitotic divisions are needed for a single cell to make 128 cells?
a. 7
b. 14
c. 28
d. 32

30- You have decided to mate a heterozygous rat with a homozygous recessive
one,
If W=White and w = black, what genotype is the generation?
a. 100% heterozygous
b. 50 % homozygous recessive and 50 % heterozygous
c. 50% White and 50% black
d. 50 % heterozygous recessive and 50 % homozygous

31- A cell has 20 chromosomes. After meiosis II, how many chromosomes will
each cell contain?
a.2
b.4
c.10
d.20

32- The diagram below shows a change in chromosomes during cell division.
What process most likely caused this result?

a. crossing over
b. a frame shift mutation
c. base deletion
d. base insertion

33- A normal body cell of a fruit fly contains eight chromosomes. Each normal
gamete of this organism contains only four chromosomes, as a result of the process
of
a. binary fission
b. mitosis
c. meiosis
d. fertilization

34- The enzyme used to Anneal (join) DNA fragments in genetic engineering
a. DNA Polymerase
b. DNA Gyrase
c. DNA Ligase
d. Reverse Transcriptase

35- Molecular Scissors or chemical scalpels in genetic engineering


a. DNA polymerase
b. DNA Ligase
c. DNA Grase
d. Restriction Enzyme

36- Does Bt corn or Bt cotton only kill specific pests that damage the crop?
a. The Bt toxin kills all insects.
b. The Bt toxin kills European corn borer and other flying insects.
c. The Bt toxin kills the European corn borer and its close relatives.
d. The Bt toxin only kills the insects for which it is targeted.
e. The Bt toxin repels but doesn't kill insects.

37- The first plant that was modified by genetic engineering was produced in a
laboratory in:
a. 1954.
b. 1964.
c. 1974.
d. 1984.
e. 1994.

38-As a result of genetically modified crops, chemical use on farms has:


a. Gone up dramatically.
b. Gone down dramatically.
c. Gone up on some but no change on others.
d. Gone down on some crops but there is little or no change on others.
e. Not changed.

39- Can genes escape from genetically modified crops and jump to other plants?
a. Yes, and often do.
b. Only to some crops, but those crops aren't genetically modified.
c. Only during rare climatic conditions.
d. No, genes cannot move from species to species without human intervention.

40- Which of the following represents an organism that is homozygous for two
genes?
a. Rrss
b. RRss
c. RrSs
d. RRSs
41- The allele for green pod color (G) is dominant over the allele for yellow pod
color (g). What is the genotype for a plant with yellow pods?
a. GG
b. Gg
c. gg
d. gG

42- Assume that in humans, brown eyes (B) is dominant over blue eyes (b). The
mother’s genotype is bb and the father’s is Bb. What are the predicted frequencies
of eye color of the children of these parents?
a. 1/2 brown eyes and 1/2 blue eyes
b. all brown eyes
c. 3/4 brown eyes and 1/4 blue eyes
d. all blue eyes

43- Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disease that causes serious respiratory problems. Brad
and Janet are healthy adults with three children. Two of the children appear to be
healthy and one child has cystic fibrosis. The normal allele is represented as C. The
disease-causing allele is represented as c. A person who is homozygous for the c
allele will have the cystic fibrosis disease. What is Brad’s genotype? What is Janet’s
genotype?
a. Brad = cc; Janet = cc
b. Brad = CC; Janet = CC
c. Brad = CC; Janet = cc
d. Brad = Cc; Janet = Cc

44- How does the number of chromosomes in a human liver cell compare to the
number of chromosomes in an ovary?
a. The number of chromosomes in both cells is equal.
b. The liver cell has fewer chromosomes than the ovary cell.
c. The liver cell has more chromosomes than the ovary cell.
d. The number of chromosomes in each cell type varies between individuals.
45- Using special enzymes, scientists have been able to isolate the gene that controls
the production of Protein A from one type of bacteria and insert the gene into another
type of bacteria that does not normally produce Protein A. These bacteria then
produce Protein A. What is the name of this technique?
a. cloning
b. meiosis
c. genetic modification
d. crossing over
46- During Meiosis I crossing over can occur. What is the MOST common result of
crossing over?
a. new tRNA
b. new combinations of alleles.
c. new DNA nucleotides
d. new number of chromosomes

47- Most human traits are determined by


a. one gene
b. one or more genes
c. environmental factors only
d. one or more genes and environmental factors

48- The offspring of sexual reproduction:


a. receives half of its genetic material from each parent.
b. receives all of its genetic material from one parent.
c. receives genetic material from an outside source.
d. receives most of its genetic material from its female parent.

49- Gregor Mendel developed heredity principles from his


a. mathematical analysis of the results of pea plant crosses.
b. working model of the structure of DNA.
c. mapping of the location of human genes on chromosomes.
d. extensive study of breeding duckweed plants

50- Which technique will hopefully be used to identify and devise treatments for
diseases based on the genetic profile of the disease?
A. PCR
B. genetic engineering
C. antisense technology
D. microarray analysis
E. DNA sequencing
D. Microarray analysis

51- The enzyme___ adds three nucleotides of DNA in the ___direction when DNA
is being semi-conservatively replicated
A. DNA polymerase III, 3'->5'
B. DNA polymerase I, 3'->5'
C. DNA polymerase III, 5'->3'
D. DNA polymerase I, 5'->3'
C. DNA polymerase III, 5' ->3'

52-How many unique gametes could be produced through independent assortment


by an
individual with the genotype AaBbCCDdEE?
A) 4
B) 8
C) 16
D) 32
E) 64

53- Which of the following methods determines which genes are actively transcribed
in a cell under a variety of conditions?
A. DNA fingerprinting
B. microarray analysis
C. gene mapping
D. Western blot
E. antisense therapy

54-Which of the following is NOT a direct function of mitosis in humans?


A) growth
B) production of 4 haploid gametes from a single diploid parent cell
C) repair of damaged tissues
D) development of organs
E) production of 2 diploid daughter cells from a single diploid parent cell

55-Why do many cancer patients undergoing chemotherapy lose their hair?


A) The cancerous cells take up too much of the body’s energy, leaving none
available for hair growth
B) Most types of cancer start in the hair follicles
C) Chemotherapy treatments block the synthesis of keratin, the primary protein
component of hair
D) Chemotherapy treatments disrupt meiosis
E) Chemotherapy treatments stop cell division, and hair follicles require high rates
of cell division

56- A cell divides to produce two daughter cells that are genetically different.
A) The statement is true for mitosis only.
B) The statement is true for meiosis I only.
C) The statement is true for meiosis II only.
D) The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis I.
E) The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis II.

57- It was important that Mendel examined not just the F1 generation in his breeding
experiments, but the F2 generation as well, because
A) many of the F1 offspring died.
B) the dominant phenotypes were visible in the F2 generation, but not in the F1
C) parental traits that were not observed in the F1 reappeared in the F2.
D) he obtained very few F1 offspring, making statistical analysis difficult.
E) analysis of the F1 offspring would have allowed him to discover the law of
independent assortment, but not determine dominance.

58- A woman has three sons. The chance that her next child will be a daughter is
A) 1
B) 0
C) 1/4.
D) 1/2.
E) 3/4.

59- Males are more often affected by sex-linked traits than females because
A) males only have one X chromosome.
B) X chromosomes in males generally have more mutations than X chromosomes in
females.
C) mutations on the Y chromosome often worsen the effects of X-linked mutations.
D) male hormones such as testosterone often alter the effects of mutations on the X
chromosome.
E) female hormones such as estrogen often compensate for the effects of mutations
on the X

60- Dependent assortment:


A) Occurs when genes are located on different chromosomes.
B) Occurs when genes are located close together on the same chromosome.
C) Results in a 3:1 ratio of offspring when conducting a dihybrid cross.
D) A and C.
E) B and C.

61- Cytosine makes up 22% of the nucleotides in a sample of DNA from an


organism. Approximately what percentage of the nucleotides in this sample will be
thymine?
A) 11
B) 22
C) 28
D) 44
E) It cannot be determined from the information provided.
62-What is meant by the description "antiparallel" regarding the strands that make
up DNA?
A) One strand is positively charged and the other is negatively charged.
B) One strand contains only nitrogenous bases and the other contains only
phosphates.
C) The twisting nature of DNA creates nonparallel strands.
D) The 5' to 3' direction of one strand runs counter to the 5' to 3' direction of the
other strand.
E) Base pairings create unequal spacing between the two DNA strands.

63- If you start with one DNA molecule, how many molecules will you have after 3
cycles of PCR?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 4
D) 6
E) 8

64-The leading and the lagging strands differ in that


A) the leading strand is built continuously, whereas the lagging strand is built in
short fragments that are ultimately stitched together.
B) the leading strand is built by adding nucleotides to the 3' end of the growing
strand, and the lagging strand is built by adding nucleotides to the 5' end.
C) the lagging strand is built continuously, whereas the leading strand is built in
short fragments that are ultimately stitched together.
D) the leading strand is synthesized at twice the rate of the lagging strand.

65- A cross between homozygous purple-flowered and homozygous white-flowered


pea plants result in offspring with purple flowers. This demonstrates
A) the blending model of genetics.
B) true-breeding.
C) dominance.
D) a dihybrid crosses.
E) the mistakes made by Mendel.
66- When crossing an organism that is homozygous recessive for a single trait with
a heterozygote, what is the chance of producing an offspring with the homozygous
recessive phenotype?
A) 0%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 75%
E) 100%

67-A man with Klinefelter syndrome (47, XXY) is expected to have any of the
following
EXCEPT
A) lower sperm count.
B) possible breast enlargement.
C) increased testosterone.
D) long limbs.
E) female body characteristics.

68- Red-green color blindness is a sex-linked recessive trait in humans. Two people
with normal color vision has a color-blind son. What are the genotypes of the
parents?
A) XcXc and XcY
B) XcXc and XCY
C) XCXC and XcY
D) XCXC and XCY
E) XCXc and XCY

69-The frequency of crossing over between any two linked genes will be which of
the following?
A) Higher if they are recessive
B) Dependent on how many alleles there are
C) Determined by their relative dominance
D) The same as if they were not linked
E) Proportional to the distance between them

70- New combinations of linked genes are due to which of the following?
A) Nondisjunction
B) Crossing over
C) Independent assortment
D) Mixing of sperm and egg
E) Deletions

71-What is the reason that linked genes are inherited together?


A) They are located close together on the same chromosome.
B) The number of genes in a cell is greater than the number of chromosomes.
C) Chromosomes are unbreakable.
D) Alleles are paired together during meiosis.
E) Genes align that way during metaphase I of meiosis.

72- In a series of mapping experiments,


the recombination frequencies for four
different linked genes of Drosophila were
determined as shown in the figure. What
is the order of these genes on a
chromosome map?
A) rb-cn-vg-b
B) vg-b-rb-cn
C) cn-rb-b-vg
D) b-rb-cn-vg
E) vg-cn-b-rb

73- The frequency of crossing over


between any two linked genes will be
which of the
following?
A) Higher if they are recessive
B) Dependent on how many alleles there are
C) Determined by their relative dominance
D) The same as if they were not linked
E) Proportional to the distance between them

74- animal has two unlinked genes, one for head shape (H) and one for tail length
(T). Its genotype is HhTt. Which of the following genotypes is possible in a gamete
from this organism?
A) HT
B) Hh
C) HhTt
D) T
E) tt
75-A genetic code is a message store in…….
A. Cell
B. Nucleus
C. Cytoplasm
D. Gene

76- What is the advantage in clinical use of humulin (human insulin produced
through rDNA technique) over use of conventional ox or pig insulin?
A. It does not cause immunological problems
B. It is cheaper for the patient
C. It is produced by E.coli in our own intestine
D. There is no advantage

77- In interphase what stage does a cell stay the longest?


A. S phase
B. Mitosis
C. G1
D. G2

78 An allele is:
A. another word for a gene
B. a homozygous genotype
C. a heterozygous genotype
D. one of several possible forms of a gene

79- DNA finger printing relies on …….


A. Difference in patterns of genes between individuals.
B. Difference of order of genes between individuals.
C. Difference in junk DNA patterns between individuals.
D. All of these.

80- Which row in the chart on the


right indicates the correct
process for each event
indicated?
a. Row 1
b. Row 2
c. Row 3
d. Row 4
81- Two carriers of albinism have four children. One of their children is albino
and the remaining three are normally pigmented. What is the probability that
their next child will be albino?
a. 25%.
b. 75%.
c. 100%.
d. Zero%

82- In a portion of a gene, the nitrogenous base sequence is T-C-G-A-A-T. Which


nitrogenous base sequence would normally be found bonded to this section of
the gene?
a. A-C-G-T-A-A
b. A-C-G-U-U-A
c. A-G-C-T-T-A
d. U-G-C-A-A-U

83-Which processes always occur in meiosis but not normally in mitosis?


I. Chiasmata formation
II. Recombination of genes
III. Separation of homologous chromosomes
A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. I and III only
D. I, II and III

84- Which statement below might be used by someone who is arguing against the
use of GM crops?
a. GM crops reduce the amount of land and energy that need to be devoted to
agriculture because they have high yields.
b. GM crops need more insecticide to be used than other crops because they
grow faster.
c. The patents for the seeds of GM crops are held by big companies, which may
raise prices and force small farmers out of business.
d. No studies have shown that GM crops are dangerous to human

85- What do we mean when we use the terms monohybrid cross and dihybrid
cross?
A) A monohybrid cross involves a single parent, whereas a dihybrid cross
involves two parents.
B) A monohybrid cross produces a single progeny, whereas a dihybrid cross
produces two progeny.
C) A dihybrid cross involves organisms that are heterozygous for two
characters and a monohybrid cross involves only one.
D) A monohybrid cross is performed for one generation, whereas a dihybrid
cross is performed for two generations.
E) A monohybrid cross results in a 9:3:3:1 ratio whereas a dihybrid cross gives
a 3:1 ratio.

86- Why did the F1 offspring of Mendel's classic pea cross always look like
one of the two parental varieties?
A) No genes interacted to produce the parental phenotype.
B) Each allele affected phenotypic expression.
C) The traits blended together during fertilization.
D) One phenotype was completely dominant over another.
E) Different genes interacted to produce the parental phenotype.

87-What was the most significant conclusion that Gregor Mendel drew
from his experiments with pea plants?
A) There is considerable genetic variation in garden peas.
B) Traits are inherited in discrete units, and are not the results of
"blending."
C) Recessive genes occur more frequently in the F1 generation than do
dominant ones.
D) Genes are composed of DNA.
E) An organism that is homozygous for many recessive traits is at a
disadvantage.

88-How many unique gametes could be produced through independent


assortment by an individual with the genotype AaBbCCDdEE?
A) 4
B) 8
C) 16
D) 32
E) 64

89-The individual with genotype AaBbCCDdEE can make many kinds of


gametes. Which of the following is the major reason?
A) segregation of maternal and paternal alleles
B) recurrent mutations forming new alleles
C) crossing over during prophase I
D) different possible alignments of chromosomes
E) the tendency for dominant alleles to segregate together

90-Why did Mendel continue some of his experiments to the F2 or F3


generation?
A) to obtain a larger number of offspring on which to base statistics
B) to observe whether or not a recessive trait would reappear
C) to observe whether or not the dominant trait would reappear
D) to distinguish which alleles were segregating
E) to be able to describe the frequency of recombination

91-Which of the following differentiates between independent assortment


and segregation?
A) The law of independent assortment requires describing two or more
genes relative to one another.
B) The law of segregation requires describing two or more genes relative to
one another.
C) The law of segregation requires having two or more generations to
describe.
D) The law of independent assortment is accounted for by observations of
prophase I.
E) The law of segregation is accounted for by anaphase of mitosis.

92-Two plants are crossed, resulting in offspring with a 3:1 ratio for a
particular trait. What does this suggest?
A) that the parents were true-breeding for contrasting traits
B) that the trait shows incomplete dominance
C) that a blending of traits has occurred
D) that the parents were both heterozygous for a single trait
E) that each offspring has the same alleles for each of two traits

93-A sexually reproducing animal has two unlinked genes, one for head
shape (H) and one for tail length (T). Its genotype is HhTt. Which of the
following genotypes is possible in a gamete from this organism?
A) tt
B) Hh
C) HhTt
D) T
E) HT
94-When crossing an organism that is homozygous recessive for a single
trait with a heterozygote, what is the chance of producing an offspring with
the homozygous recessive phenotype?
A) 0%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 75%
E) 100%

95-Large quantities of useful products can be produced through genetic engineering


involving:
A- bacteria containing recombinant plasmids.
B- yeast carrying foreign genes
C- transgenic plants
D- all of the above.

96-How can you check to see if the GFP gene was moved into the bacteria
a. Count how many bacteria you have on your plate
b. See if the bacteria changed shape
c. Observe the bacteria under the microscope.
d. Look at the bacteria under UV light.

97- Scientist study the genome of bacteria in termites digestive tracts , to find answer
about breaking down of cellulose to produce ethanol , this is an example of applied
genome in field of :
a. Alternative energy
b. Ecosystem biodiversity
c. Evolution
d. Human Health

98- During which phase of the cell cycle does DNA replication occur?
A- Prophase·
B- Metaphase.
C- Anaphase.
D-Interphase.

99- Starting with N15 (heavy) DNA and after 2 generation in N14 medium E. coli cell
will contain:

a. 25% N15N15 DNA, 50% N15 N14 DNA, and 25% N14 N 14 DNA.
b. 50% N15 N 15 DNA and 50% N14 N 14 DNA.
c. 50% N15 N 15 DNA and 50% N15N14 DNA.
d. 50% N15 N14 DNA and 50% N14 N 14 DNA.

100-Two heterozygotes are crossed. Some of the offspring show the recessive
characteristic. What is the probability that the offspring that show the recessive
characteristic are homozygous?
A . 0.00
B 0.25
C. 0.5
D 1.00

101-Which blood group genotype is homozygous dominant?


A IA IO
B IA IB
C IB IB
D IO IO

102- A man is blood group A and his wife is blood group AB. What are the possible
blood groups of their children?
A. A only
B. AB only
C. A and B only
D. A, B and AB

103- Which of these may be heterozygous?


A a haploid cell
B an allele of a gene
C an organism with a dominant phenotype
D an organism with a recessive genotype

104-Flower colour is controlled by a single pair of alleles. The allele for red flowers
is dominant to the allele for white flowers.
A plant homozygous for red flowers is crossed with a plant homozygous for white
flowers. All the resulting plants have red flowers (F1 generation).
When the F1 generation are crossed with each other, 18 plants are obtained. 12 plants
have red flowers and 6 have white flowers (F2 generation).
What ratio is expected in the F2 generation and what ratio has been obtained?
Ans: C

105-In peas, the allele for round seed (R) is dominant over the allele for wrinkled
seed (r). The allele for yellow seed (Y) is dominant over the allele for green seed (y).
If two pea plants with the genotypes YyRr and Yyrr are crossed together, what ratio
of phenotypes is expected in the offspring?
A. 9 round yellow: 3 round green: 3 wrinkled yellow: 1 wrinkled green
B. 3 round yellow: 3 round green: 1 wrinkled yellow: 1 wrinkled green
C. 3 round yellow: 1 round green: 3 wrinkled yellow: 1 wrinkled green
D. 1 round yellow: 1 round green: 1 wrinkled yellow: 1 wrinkled green

106-Which response describes the behavior of chromosomes in metaphase I and


anaphase II of meiosis?
Metaphase I Anaphase II
A. Chromosomes line up at the Separation of homologous
equator chromosomes
B. Tetrads (bivalents) line up at Separation of homologous
the equator chromosomes
C. Chromosomes line up at the Separation of sister chromatids
equator
D. Tetrads (bivalents) line up at Separation of sister chromatids
the equator

107-Which statement about the nucleotide sequences in the DNA in the nuclei of
human liver and skin cells is true?
a. The DNA sequences of the two cells are completely different.
b. The DNA sequences of the two cells are about 50% similar.
c. The DNA sequences of the two cells are about 75% similar.
d. The DNA sequences of the two cells are 100% the same.
108- In a portion of a gene, the nitrogenous base sequence is T-C-G-A-A-T. Which
nitrogenous base sequence would normally be found bonded to this section of the
gene?
a. A-C-G-T-A-A
b. A-C-G-U-U-A
c. A-G-C-T-T-A
d. U-G-C-A-A-U

109- A study was made of children whose mothers were blood group O (genotype
IOIO) and whose fathers were blood group AB (genotype IAIB).
Which statement about their children is correct?
A- All will have the same blood group.
B- 50% will have the same blood group as their mother.
C- 50% will have the same blood group as their father.
D-None will have the same blood group as either parent.

110- Two heterozygous plants are crossed. What is the ratio of homozygous
genotypes to heterozygous genotypes amongst the offspring?
homozygous heterozygous : genotypes genotypes
A 1:1
B 1:2
C 1:3
D 3:1

111- Some normal fruit flies are subjected to radiation in a laboratory. As a result,
they produce offspring with unusual characteristics, such as white eyes.
What causes this?
A. continuous variation
B. discontinuous variation
C. dominance
D. mutation

112-Which processes always occur in meiosis but not normally in mitosis?


I. Chiasmata formation
II. Recombination of genes
III. Separation of homologous chromosomes
A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. I and III only
D. I, II and III
113-What is the locus of a gene?
A. The proportion of the population that have the gene
B. The part of the phenotype that is affected by the gene
C. The position of a gene on a chromosome
D. The predicted effect of natural selection on the frequency of the gene

114- How many unique gametes could be produced through independent


assortment by an individual with the genotype AaBbCCDdEE?
A) 4
B) 8
C) 16
D) 32

115- The following question refer to the pedigree chart in


Figure 14.2 for a family, some of whose members exhibit
the dominant trait, W. Affected individuals are indicated by
a dark square or circle.

What is the likelihood that the progeny of IV-3 and IV-4


will have the trait?
A) 0%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 75%

116- The diagram below shows a cell in meiosis. What can be deduced from
this diagram?
Stage of meiosis shown Haploid number of
chromosomes in this cell
A. Metaphase I 6
B. Prophase I 3
C. Prophase I 6
D. Metaphase I 3
117- Two true-breeding stocks of pea plants are crossed. One parent has red, axial
flowers and the other has white, terminal flowers; all F₁ individuals have red, axial
flowers. The genes for flower color and location assort independently. If 1,000 F₂
offspring resulted from the cross, approximately how many of them would you
expect to have red, terminal flowers?
A) 65
B) 190
C) 250
D) 565
E) 750
118-In peas the allele for round seed (R) is dominant over the allele for wrinkled
seed (r). The allele for yellow seed (Y) is dominant over the allele for green seed (y).
If two pea plants with the genotypes YyRr and Yyrr are crossed together,
what ratio of phenotypes is expected in the offspring?
A. 9 round yellow : 3 round green : 3 wrinkled yellow : 1 wrinkled green
B. 3 round yellow : 3 round green : 1 wrinkled yellow : 1 wrinkled green
C. 3 round yellow : 1 round green : 3 wrinkled yellow : 1 wrinkled green
D. 1 round yellow : 1 round green : 1 wrinkled yellow : 1 wrinkled green

119- Which of the following is unique to meiosis ?


a) Nuclear membrane breaks down
b) DNA organizes into chromosomes
c) Crossing – over
d) Chromosomes align along the central plate of the cell

120- Which of the following best describes how the process of crossing over during
meiosis leads to an increase in genetic diversity?
a) During prophase I, DNA replication takes place and homologous
chromosomes trade places with each other before lining up in preparation for
metaphase.
b) During prophase1, DNA segments are exchanged between homologues’
chromosomes resulting in different combinations of alleles.
c) During prophase II, fragments of DNA break off of chromosomes and attach
to the ends of other chromosomes, resulting in different gene sequences.
d) During prophase II, sister chromatids separate from each other, and as they
travel to opposite ends of the cell, DNA segments of nearby chromosomes are
exchanged.

121- An enzyme that joins RNA nucleotides to make the primer.


a) Ligase
b) Purine
c) Helicase
d) Primase

122- purine base found in DNA and RNA; pairs with thymine in DNA and with
uracil in RNA
a) Adenine
b) Thymine
c) Cytosine
d) Guanine

123-A heterozygous tall pea plant is crossed with a short plant. Tall (T) is dominant
to short (t) plants. The probability that the offspring plant will be tall is:
A. 75%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 100%

124-Brown (B) is dominant over white (b) in foxes. A homozygous brown fox is
crossed with a white fox. The probability that the fox offspring will be white?
A.0
B. 25
C. 50
D. 100

125-A cross of a white chick (WW) with a black chick (BB) produces all speckled
offspring (WB) This type of inheritance is known as:
A. Incomplete dominance
B. Polygenic inheritance
C. Codominance
D. Multiple alleles

126-If you cross a red plant with a white plant and the offspring is pink, what is that
called?
A. Incomplete dominance
B. Polygenic inheritance
C. Codominance
D. Multiple alleles

127-Organisms that have two identical alleles for a particular trait are said to be:
A. Homozygous
B. Dominant
C. Hybrid
D. Heterozygous

128- A gene that contains introns can be made shorter (but remain functional) for
genetic engineering purposes by using

A) RNA polymerase to transcribe the gene.


B) a restriction enzyme to cut the gene into shorter pieces.
C) reverse transcriptase to reconstruct the gene from its mRNA.
D) DNA polymerase to reconstruct the gene from its polypeptide product.
E) DNA ligase to put together fragments of the DNA that codes for a particular
polypeptide.

129-Huntington’s disease is a dominant condition with late age of onset in humans.


If one parent has the disease, what is the probability that his or her child will
have the disease?
A) 1
B) 3/4
C) 1/2
D) 1/4
E) 0

130-What constitutes a linkage group?


A. Genes carried on the same chromosome
B. Genes whose loci are on different autosomes
C. Genes controlling a polygenic characteristic
D. Alleles for the inheritance of ABO blood groups

131-A cell with a diploid number of 12 chromosomes undergoes meiosis.


What will be the product at the end of meiosis?
A. 2 cells each with 12 chromosomes
B. 4 cells each with 6 chromosomes
C. 2 cells each with 6 chromosomes
D. 4 cells each with 12 chromosomes

132-Which process results in the greatest genetic variation in a


population?
A. Meiosis
B. Mitosis
C. Cytokinesis
D. Natural selection

133-The following is a DNA gel. The results are from a


single probe showing a DNA profile for a man, a woman
and their four children.
Which fragment of DNA is the smallest?
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV

134- The following is a DNA gel. The results are from a single
probe showing a DNA profile for a man, a woman and their
four children.
Which child is least likely to be the biological offspring of
the father?
A. Child 1
B. Child 2
C. Child 3
D. Child 4

135-A parent organism of unknown genotype is mated in a test


cross. Half of the offspring have the same phenotype as the parent. What
can be concluded from this result?
A. The parent is heterozygous for the trait.
B. The trait being inherited is polygenic.
C. The parent is homozygous dominant for the trait.
D. The parent is homozygous recessive for the trait.

136. The allele for red flower color (R) in a certain plant is co-dominant
with the allele for white flowers (R’). Thus, a plant with the genotype
RR’ has pink flowers. Tall (D) is dominant to dwarf (d). What would
be the expected phenotypic ratio from a cross of RR’dd plants with
R’R’Dd plants?
A. 9:3:3:1
B. 50% pink 50% white, and all tall
C. 1:1:1:1, in which 50% are tall, 50% dwarf, 50% pink and 50% white
D. 3:1

137. Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a recessive human disorder in which an individual


cannot appropriately metabolize a particular amino acid. This amino acid is not
otherwise produced by humans. Therefore, the most efficient and effective
treatment is which of the following?
A) Feed them the substrate that can be metabolized into this amino acid.
B) Transfuse the patients with blood from unaffected donors.
C) Regulate the diet of the affected persons to severely limit the uptake of the amino
acid.
D) Feed the patients the missing enzymes in a regular cycle, i.e., twice per week.

138. When a disease is said to have a multifactorial basis, it means that


A) both genetic and environmental factors contribute to the disease.
B) it is caused by a gene with a large number of alleles.
C) it affects a large number of people.
D) it has many different symptoms.
E) it tends to skip a generation.

139. Which of the following provides an example of epistasis?


A) Recessive genotypes for each of two genes (aabb) results in an albino corn snake.
B) The allele b17 produces a dominant phenotype, although b1 through b16 do not.
C) In rabbits and many other mammals, one genotype (cc) prevents any fur color
from developing.
D) In Drosophila (fruit flies), white eyes can be due to an X-linked gene or to a
combination of other genes.

140. Most genes have many more than two alleles. However, which of the following
is also true?
A) At least one allele for a gene always produces a dominant phenotype.
B) Most of the alleles will never be found in a live-born organism.
C) All of the alleles but one will produce harmful effects if homozygous.
D) There may still be only two phenotypes for the trait.
E) More than two alleles in a genotype is lethal.

141. Drosophila (fruit flies) usually have long wings (+) but mutations in two
different genes can result in bent wings (bt) or vestigial wings (vg). If a
homozygous bent wing fly is mated with a homozygous vestigial wing fly,
which of the following offspring would you expect?
A) All +bt +vg heterozygotes
B) 1/2 bent and 1/2 vestigial flies
C) All homozygous + flies
D) 3/4 bent to 1/4 vestigial ratio
E) 1/2 bent and vestigial to 1/2 normal

142. Which enzymes are needed to produce recombinant plasmids that are used
in gene transfer?
A. DNA polymerase and ligase
B. DNA polymerase and restriction enzymes
C. Restriction enzymes and ligase
D. Helicase and restriction enzymes

143. In addition to their circular chromosome, bacteria also have smaller rings of
DNA called
a. RNA
b. Genes
c. Cells
d. Plasmids

144. A scientist wants to change the DNA of sexually reproducing organism and
have the new DNA present in every cell ·of the organism. In order to do this
after fertilization, he would change the DNA in the:
a. zygote
b. placenta
c. testes of the father
d. ovaries of the mother

145. How many mitotic divisions are needed for a single cell to make 128 cells?
a. 7
b. 14
c. 28
d. 32

146. How does the X chromosome differ from the Y chromosome in humans?
A- The Y chromosome is longer.
b- Some genes on the X chromosome are absent from the Y chromosome.
C- The genes are the same but some on the Y chromosome are not expressed.
D- The X chromosome determines sex.

147. Wild type fruit flies have red eyes. A white-eyed female fly is crossed with a
red-eyed male fly. All of the females from the cross are red-eyed and all of the
males, white-eye . What type of inheritance pattern is this?
A- Autosomal dominant
B- Autosomal recessive
C- Incomplete dominance
D- Sex-linked on X chromosome

148- Which is the only commercialized GM fruit?


A. Bananas
B. Apples
C. Papaya
D. Plums

149- The karyotype below is from a human cell. What type


of cell was it most likely taken from?
a. Liver cell
b. Skin cell
c. Ovum cell
d. Lung cell

150- The characteristic indicated by the blackened figures


is probably:
a. Dominant.
b. Recessive.
c. Non-dominant.
d. Sex-linked recessive.

150’-What are the genotypes of the parents?


a. Both are homozygous dominant.
b. Both are heterozygous dominant.
c. Both are homozygous recessive.
d. The male is homozygous dominant; the female is homozygous recessive.
150’’-If one parent has type A blood and the other parent has type B blood, what
blood type will the offspring denoted by the white square and circle have?
a. Type A.
b. Type B.
c. Type AB.
d. Type O.

151- Which of the following occurs in meiosis but not in mitosis?


a) Attachment of spindle fibers to the kinetochore.
b) Pairing of homologous chromosomes at the metaphase plate.
c) Replication of DNA prior to the start of cell division.
d) Separation of sister chromatids at anaphase.

152-In anaphase I of meiosis, chromosomes contains one pair of


a. daughter nucleosomes
b. sister nucleosomes
c. daughter chromatids
d. sister chromatids

153-Period of rest in which daughter cells enters after meiosis I is


a) cytokinesis
b) interkinesis
c) vacuokinesis
d) karyokinesis

154- RR (Red) Antirrhinum is crossed with white (WW) one. Offspring RW are
pink. This is an example of
(a) dominant-recessive
(b) incomplete dominance
(c) hybrid
(d) supplementary genes.

155- In a cross between AABB x aabb, the ratio of F2 genotypes between AABB,
AaBB, Aabb and aabb would be
(a) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(b) 2 : 1 : 1 : 2
(c) 1 : 2 : 2 : 1
(d) 7 : 5 : 3 : 1.

156-A farmer wants to improve his potato yield, so he starts breed it with another
species of potatoes to get the desirable characteristics, the best term that describe
this process is:
a) Independent Assortment
b) Natural selection
c) Crossing over
d) Selective breeding

157-Unwinding of DNA is done by


a) Helicase
b) ligase
c) Hexonuclease
d) Topoisomerase

158- DNA synthesis can be specifically measured by estimating the incorporation


of radio labelled
a) uracil
b) thymine
c) Adenine
d) Deoxyribose sugar

159-DNA synthesis is
a) unidirectional
b) bidirectional
c) nondirectional
d) Multidirectional

160-Most of mistakes during DNA replication are corrected by


a) DNA ligase
b) DNA polymerase
c) gyrase
d) helicase

161- The elongation of the leading strand during DNA synthesis


a) progresses away from the replication fork
b) occurs in 3’-5’ direction
c) produces Okazaki fragments
d) Depend on the action of DNA polymerase

162. Which of the following is unique to meiosis?


e) Nuclear membrane breaks down
f) DNA organizes into chromosomes
g) Crossing – over
h) Chromosomes align along the central plate of the cell

163. In a cross of a yellow color seed hybrid pea with a green one (Yy x yy), what
genotypic proportions would be observed in the offspring?
a) Half heterozygous dominant, half homozygous recessive.
b) Half yellow, half green
c) All heterozygous
d) All yellow

164. Which of the human sex chromosomes is the largest?


a) X- chromosome (female)
b) Y-chromosome (male)

165. “This patient with Marfan syndrome has really long fingers and toes, and is
exceptionally tall” this is a statement describing
a) Genotype
b) Phenotype
c) Monohybridization
d) Locus placement

166-In the laboratory, scientists remove the gene for insulin from human
chromosomes. They insert the gene into the DNA of bacteria. This causes the
bacteria to produce human insulin. The insulin is used to treat diabetes in humans.
Which of these describes this process?

a. -Meiosis
b. -Fertilization
c. -Gene Splicing
d. -DNA Fingerprinting

167-Which of these terms best describes a segment of DNA that codes for a protein?
a. Gene
b. Ribosome
c. Amino Acid

168-A zygote has


a. 1 set of chromosomes
b. No chromosomes
c. 23 chromosomes
d. 2 sets of chromosomes

169-The division of cells to create germ cells is called


a. Mitosis
b. Diploid Split
c. Cytokinesis
d. Meiosis
170-Homologous means
a. Different traits with same information
b. Same trait with different information
c. Different traits with different information
d. Same traits with same information

171-Meiosis divides one diploid cell into


a. 4 haploid cells
b. 4 diploid cells
c. 2 haploid cells
d. 2 diploid cells

172-A germ cell is


a. Sometimes haploid, sometimes diploid, never triploid
b. Triploid
c. Diploid
d. Hapolid

173-Crossing-over is when chromosomes:


a. Exchange DNA strands
b. entangle
c. Split
d. Form sister chromosomes

174-A tetrad is a chromosome with


a. Two chromosomes
b. Four chromosomes
c. No chromosomes
d. None of the above

175-In meiosis II, the two daughter cells are divided into what?
a. Two daughter cells with half the number of chromosomes
b. Four daughter cells with half the number of chromosomes
c. Four cousin cells
d. None of the above

176-Which of the following statements is true of sex chromosome abnormalities in


humans? a) They usually have mild effects and rarely are fatal.
b) Most are not gender specific
c) They cannot be diagnosed before birth.

177-Male sex chromosome abnormalities can be due to abnormal numbers of


______________ chromosome.

a) the X
b) the Y
c) either the X or the Y

178-If someone only has one X chromosome and no Y chromosomes in their somatic
cells, they:

a) are metafemales
b) have Turner syndrome
c) have Klinefelter syndrome

179- A chromosomal abnormality that causes a woman to be unusually short in


stature (average 4'7"), to have a webbed neck, and to generally lack feminine
secondary sexual characteristics is:
a) Triple-X syndrome
b) Turner syndrome
c) XYY syndrome

180-A chromosomal abnormality that causes a man to have asexual to feminine body
contours with large breasts; small penis, testes, and prostate gland; relatively little
body hair; and sterility is:
a) Klinefelter syndrome
b) XYY syndrome
c) Richard Speck Syndrome

181- DNA replication is


a) Conservative
b) Non-conservative
c) Semi-conservative
d) None

182- Semi-conservative DNA replication was first demonstrated in


a) Drosophila melanogaster
b) Escherichia coli
c) Streptococcus pneumonae
d) Drosophila melanogaster

183-What is the name of the plane marked by the dotted line?


a. 1.Metaphase plate
b. 2..Cell plate
c. 3..Metaphase plate
d. 4.Cleavage furrow
184- How many chromosomes are shown in this picture? How many
chromatids?
a. 4 chromosomes, 8 chromatids
b. 8 chromosomes , 4 chromatids
c. 8 chromosomes, 8 chromatids

185- What must this cell do before it can carry out mitosis? (The
cell has a diploid number of 44 chromosomes; 2n = 42n=4).
a. 1.Replicate its DNA
b. 2.Duplicate its centrosome
c. Undergo cytokinesis

186- 1. In incomplete dominance__________________


a) Phenotype of both allele is expressed
b) Phenotype of only one allele is expressed
c) Phenotype of neither of the alleles are expressed
d) Phenotype of both allele is partially expressed

187- Choose the wrong one out.


a) Codominant genes are never haplosufficient
b) Dominant phenotype is expressed when a gene is haplosufficient
c) Incomplele dominance is the presence of haplosufficiency
d) In homozygous condition an allele can express its phenotype be it the dominant
or recessive allele in nature

188-Which strand grows continuously towards the replication fork?


A. Lagging strand
B. DNA strand
C. RNA strand
D. Replicating strand
E. Leading strand

189-In the ABO blood group system in humans, if a person of type-B blood has
children with a person of type-AB blood, what blood types could their children have?
A. Type-AB, type-A, and type-B
B. Type-B and type-AB
C. Type-AB, type-A, type-B, and type-O
D. Type-A and type-B

190-Which of the following statements about these strands is true?


A. Okazaki fragments are used to synthesize the leading strand of DNA.
B. The leading strand of DNA is synthesized continuously.
C. DNA polymerase can only synthesize DNA on the leading strand.
D. The lagging strand can only be synthesized once the leading strand has been
completed.

191- Enzyme removes the primers during the DNA replication


A) Primase
B) Polymerase
C) Exonuclease
D) Restriction

192
Of the following human aneuploidies, which is the one that generally has the most
severe impact on the health of the individual?
A) 47, +21
B) 47, XXY
C) 47, XXX
D) 47, XYY
193-
Chiasmata are what we see under a microscope that let us know which of the follo
wing is occurring?
A) Asexual reproduction
B) Meiosis II
C) Anaphase II
D) Crossing over
E) Separation of homologs

194-
If nondisjunction occurs in meiosis II during gametogenesis, what will be the result
at the completion of meiosis?
A) All the gametes will be diploid.
B) Half of the gametes will be n+ 1, and half will be n— 1.
C) 1/4 of the gametes will be n+ 1, one will be n— 1, and two will be n.
D) There will be three extra gametes.
E) Two of the four gametes will be haploid, and two will be diploid.

195- this is a pedigree for a……..


A) sex-linked recessive trait
B) autosomal dominant trait
C) autosomal recessive trait
D) none of the above

196- A gene that contains introns can be made shorter (but remain functional) for
genetic
engineering purposes by using
A) RNA polymerase to transcribe the gene.
B) a restriction enzyme to cut the gene into shorter pieces.
C) reverse transcriptase to reconstruct the gene from its mRNA.
D) DNA polymerase to reconstruct the gene from its polypeptide product.
E) DNA ligase to put together fragments of the DNA that codes for a particular
polypeptide.

197-Genetic engineering is being used by the pharmaceutical industry. Which of the


following is not currently one of the uses?
A) production of human insulin
B) production of human growth hormone
C) production of tissue plasminogen activator
D) genetic modification of plants to produce vaccines
E) creation of products that will remove poisons from the human body

198-Plants are more readily manipulated by genetic engineering than are animals
because
A) plant genes do not contain introns.
B) more vectors are available for transferring recombinant DNA into plant cells.
C) a somatic plant cell can often give rise to a complete plant.
D) genes can be inserted into plant cells by microinjection.
E) plant cells have larger nuclei.

199-Over human history, which process has been most important in improving the
features of plants that have long been used by humans as staple foods?
A) genetic engineering
B) artificial selection
C) natural selection
D) sexual selection
E) pesticide and herbicide application

200-A farming commitment that embraces a variety of methods that are


conservation-minded, environmentally safe, and profitable is called
A) hydroponics.
B) nitrogen fixation.
C) responsible irrigation.
D) genetic engineering.
E) sustainable agriculture.

201-One centi Morgan is defined as ____ percentage of the total recombination


events.
a) one
b) ten
c) 0.1
d) 0.01

202-Tightly packed form of DNA is called


A. supercoiling
B. compressed state
C. Euchromatin
D. heterochromatin

203-Phases of mitosis does not include:


A. division of cytoplasm
B. division of mitochondria
C. division of vacuoles
D. division of nucleus
Answer: C

204- How many mitotic divisions are needed for a single cell to make 128 cells?
A. 7
B. 14
C. 28
D. 32

205- Process by which haploid daughter cells are formed by division of diploid cells is
called:
A. binary fission
B. meiosis
C. mitosis
D. cell regeneration

206- Cells in which chromosomes are in pairs are classified as


A. bud cells
B. benign cells
C. haploid cells
D. diploid cells

207- When DNA polymerase is in contact with guanine in the parental strand, what
does it add to the growing daughter strand?
A. Phosphate
B. Cytosine
C. Uracil
D. Guanine

208- Which feature of a genetic pedigree chart demonstrates that a characteristic is


sex linked?
A. Numbers of offspring carrying the characteristic decreased over several
generations.
B. One gender is more commonly affected than the other.
C. Equal numbers of males and females inherit the characteristic.
D. Boys and girls only inherit the characteristic from their mothers.

209- Hemophilia is caused by an X-linked recessive allele. In the pedigree shown


below which two individuals in the
pedigree must be carriers of hemophilia?
A. I-1 and II-1
B. I-4 and II-2
C. II-1 and II-2
D. III-2 and III-3

210- Golden rice is a genetically modified


crop plant where the incorporated genes are meant for biosynthesis of …...
A) vitamin A
B) vitamin C
C) vitamin B
D) Beta-carotene

211-Which Type of RNA Functions as a blueprint for DNA?


A) rRNA
B) tRNA
C) mRNA
D) DNA Polymerase

212- Which of the following represents the codons that correspond to this segment
of DNA: TATCAGGAT?
A) AUA—GUC—CUA
B) ATA—GTC—CTA
C) AUAGU—CCUA
D) ACA—CUC—GUA
213- A gene in cattle controls whether horns develop or not. When cattle without
horns are mated together, none of the offspring ever has horns. A male with horns is
mated with females without horns. If half of the offspring have horns and half do
not, what is the conclusion?
A. The male is homozygous dominant.
B. The male is homozygous recessive.
C. The male is heterozygous.
D. Only males have horns.

214- Mendel crossed pure breeding (homozygous) tall pea plants that had colored
flowers with pure breeding dwarf pea plants that had white flowers. All of the
resulting F1 plants were tall and had colored flowers.
If Mendel had crossed these F1 plants with a pure breeding strain of dwarf pea plants
with colored flowers, what proportion of tall colored plants would be expected in the
offspring?
A. 1/4
B. 3/8
C. 1/2
D. 9/16

215-A woman has a heterozygous genotype for blood group B. She is expecting a
baby with a man who is homozygous Group A. What are the possible blood groups
for their baby?
I. Group O
II. Group A
III. Group AB
A. II and III only
B. I and II only
C. I and III only
D. I, II and III

216-Which feature of a genetic pedigree chart demonstrates that a characteristic is


sex linked?
A. Numbers of offspring carrying the characteristic decreased over several
generations.
B. One gender is more commonly affected than the other.
C. Equal numbers of males and females inherit the characteristic.
D. Boys and girls only inherit the characteristic from their mothers.
217-In the pedigree shown below, the female, labelled I-2, is a carrier for color
blindness, however neither male (I-1 or II-1) is color blind

What is the probability that offspring III-1 will be color blind?


A. 50%
B. 25%
C. 12.5%
D. 0%

218-
Bacteria containing recombinant plasmids are often identified by which process?
A) examining the cells with an electron microscope
B) using radioactive tracers to locate the plasmids
C)exposing the bacteria to an antibiotic that kills cells lacking the resistant plasmid
D) removing the DNA of all cells in a culture to see which cells have plasmids

219-Chromosomes first become visible during which phase of mitosis?


A) prometaphase
B) telophase
C) prophase
D) metaphase

220-
How do cells at the completion of meiosis compare with cells that have replicated
their DNA and are just about to begin meiosis?
A) They have twice the amount of cytoplasm and half the amount of DNA.
B) They have half the number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA.
C) They have the same number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA.
D)They have half the number of chromosomes and one-fourth the amount of DNA.

221-Red-green color blindness is a sex-


linked recessive trait in humans. Two people with normal color vision have a color-
blind son. What are the genotypes of the parents?
A) XcXc and XcY
B) XcXc and XCY
C) XCXC and XcY
D) XCXc and XCY
222-
using RNA as a template for protein synthesis instead of translating protein directl
y from the DNA is advantageous for the cell because
A) RNA is much more stable than DNA.
B) RNA acts as an expendable copy of the genetic material.
C)only one mRNA molecule can be transcribed from a single gene, lowering the
potential rate of gene expression.
D) tRNA, rRNA and others are not transcribed.

223-A cross between two true breeding lines one with dark blue flowers and one
with bright white flowers produces F1 offspring that are light blue. When the F1
progeny are selfed a 1:2:1 ratio of dark blue to light blue to white flowers is observed.
What genetic phenomenon is consistent with these results?
a. epistasis
b. incomplete dominance
c. codominance
d. inbreeding depression
e. random mating
224-Polyploidy refers to: a. extra copies of a gene adjacent to each other on
a. chromosome
b. an individual with complete extra sets of chromosomes
c. a chromosome which has replicated but not divided
d. multiple ribosomes present on a single mRNA
e. an inversion which does not include the centromere

225-A gene showing codominance-


a. has both alleles independently expressed in the heterozygote
b. has one allele dominant to the other
c. has alleles tightly linked on the same chromosome
d. has alleles expressed at the same time in development
e. has alleles that are recessive to each other

226-The phenomenon of “independent assortment” refers to:


a. expression at the same stage of development
b. unlinked transmission of genes in crosses resulting from being located on different
chromosomes, or far apart on the same chromosome.
c. association of an RNA and a protein implying related function
d. independent location of genes from each other in an interphase cell
e. association of a protein and a DNA sequence implying related function
227-Mendel’s law of segregation, as applied to the behavior of chromosomes in
meiosis, means that:
a. pairing of homologs will convert one allele into the other, leading to separation
of the types.
b. alleles of a gene separate from each other when homologs separate in meiosis I,
or in meiosis II if there is a single crossover between the gene and the centromere.
c. genes on the same chromosome will show 50% recombination
d. alleles of a gene will be linked and passed on together through meiosis

228. DNA replication is ……………….


a. Conservative
b. Semi conservative
c. Dispersive

229. Pleiotropy occur when …………………….


a. A single gene at a given locus affects many different phenotypes characteristics.
b. A gene at one locus produce a protein that goes to a second locus and affect the
expression of the gene at that second locus.
c. Many traits arise from the interaction of multiple pair of genes.

230. DNA finger printing relies on:


a. Difference in patterns of genes between individuals
b. Difference in junk DNA patterns between individuals.
c. Difference in order of genes between individuals.
d. All of these.

231. Which of the following enzymes remove supercoiling in replicating DNA


ahead of the replication fork?
a. a DNA polymerase
b. Helicases
c. Primases
d. Topoisomerases

232. DNA polymerase III reads the parent strand in a ____ to ____ direction, while
building the new strand in ______ direction (____to _____).
correct answer is:
3' , 5' - opposite - 5', 3'

233-Centromeres are needed for...


a) RNA coding.
b) Chromosome segregation during cell division.
c) Protection of chromosomes.
d) Energy management within the cell.

234-Gametes are produced by...


a) Meiosis
b) Mitosis
c) Miasis
d) Divation

235-Is it possible for Genome to consist of a single chromosome?


a) No.
b) Yes, it's common in eukaryotic cells.
c) Yes, it's common in prokaryotic cells.
d) Yes, but there is only few known cases like this.

236-Who’s the daddy? This mother is trying to decide


between two men who desperately want to support her
and her newborn baby. Both want to be a part of the
baby's life, because they love the mother so much. Who
gets the honor and privilege?
a) Dad 1
b) Dad 2
c) Neither A nor B
237-In this DNA fingerprint, the blood sample taken from a crime scene is not the
victim's and so is assumed to be the perpetrator. Which individual is the best suspect?
a) Bob
b) Sue
c) John
d) Lisa

238-Mitotic anaphase differs from


metaphase in possessing
A. same number of chromosomes and
same number of chromatids
B. half number of chromosomes and half
number of chromatids
C. half number of chromosomes and
same number of chromatids
D. same number of chromosomes and
half number of chromatids

239-The fact that all seven of the pea plant traits studied by Mendel obeyed the
principle of independent assortment most probably indicates which of the following?
A. None of the traits obeyed the law of segregation
B. The diploid number of chromosomes in the pea plants was 7
C. All of the genes controlling the traits were located on the same chromosome
D. All of the genes controlling the traits behaved as if they were on different
chromosomes

240-Mendel’s second law of independent assortment has its basis in which of the
following events of meiosis I?
A. Synapsis of homologous chromosomes
B. Crossing over
C. Alignment of tetrads at the equator
D. Separation of homologs at anaphase

241-A change in the order of the bases in an organism's DNA; by deletion, insertion,
or substitution.
A. Intron
B. Adenine
C. Guanine
D. Mutation
242-A protein that functions in DNA replication, helping to relieve strain in the
double helix ahead of the replication fork.
A. RNA primase
B. DNA polymerase
C. Topoisomerase
D. Lagging strand

243- Both husband and wife have normal vision though their fathers were colour
blind. The probability of their daughter becoming colour blind is
(a) 0%
(b) 25%
(c) 50%
(d) 75%.

244-Which one is a hereditary disease?


(a) cataract
(b) leprosy
(c) blindness
(d) phenylketonuria.

245-Haemophilia is more common in males because it is a


(a) recessive character carried by Y-chromosome
(b) dominant character carried by Y-chromosome
(c) dominant trait carried by X-chromosome
(d) recessive trait carried by X-chromosome.

246- In Down’s syndrome of a male child, the sex complement is


(a) XO
(b) XY
(c) XX
(d) XXY.

247-A colour blind girl is rare because she will be born only when
(a) her mother and maternal grandfather were colour blind
(b) her father and maternal grandfather were colour blind
(c) her mother is colour blind and father has normal vision
(d) parents have normal vision but grandparents were colour blind.

248-In human beings 45 chromosomes/ single X/XO abnormality causes


(a) Down’s syndrome
(b) Kinefelter’s syndrome
(c) Turner’s syndrome
(d) Edward’s syndrome.

249- Down’s syndrome is due to


(a) crossing over
(b) linkage
(c) sex-linked inheritance
(d) nondisjunction of chromosomes.

250-A colour blind mother and normal father would have


(a) colour blind sons and normal/carrier daughters
(b) colour blind sons and daughters
(c) all colour blind
(d) all normal.

251- The colour blindness is more likely to occur in males than in females because
(a) the Y-chromosome of males have the genes for distinguishing colours
(b) genes for characters are located on the sex- chromosomes
(c) the trait is dominant in males and recessive in females
(d) none of the above.

252- Albinism is a congenital disorder resulting from the lack of which enzyme?
(a) tyrosinase
(b) xanthine oxidase
(c) catalase
(d) fructokinase.

253-A child’s blood group is ‘O’. The parent’s blood groups cannot be
(a) A and B
(b) A and A
(c) AB and O
(d) B and O.

254-The genes, which remain confined to differential region of Y-chromosome, are


(a) autosomal genes
(b) holandric genes
(c) completely sex-linked genes
(d) mutant genes.
Despite differences in morphology, the XY chromosomes are homologous and
synapse during zygotene. It is because they have two parts, homologous and
differential. Homologous regions of the two help in pairing. They carry same genes
which may have different alleles. The differential region of Y-chromosome carries
only Y-linked or holandric genes, e.g, testis determining factor (TDF). It is perhaps
the smallest gene occupying only 14 base pairs. Other holandric genes are
hypertrichosis (excessive hairiness) on pinna, porcupine skin, keratoderma
dissipatum (thickened skin of hands and feet) and webbed toes. Holandric genes are
directly inherited by a son from his father. Chromosomes which control most of the
morpho-physiological characters other than sex are called autosomes. Sex linked
genes are those which are found on the sex chromosomes. Mutant genes are formed
by a change in the nucleotide type and sequence of a DNA segment representing a
gene or a cistron.

255- An abnormal human male phenotype involving an extra X-chromosome


(XXY) is a case of
(a) Edward’s syndrome
(b) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(c) intersex
(d) Down’s syndrome.

256-The most striking example of point mutation is found in a disease called


(a) Down’s syndrome
(b) sickle cell anaemia
(c) thalassaemia
(d) night blindness.
Point mutation involves only the replacement of one nucleotide with another. One
type of point mutation is missense mutation. These are base changes that alter the
codon for an amino acid resulting in its substitution with a different amino acid.
For example, mutation of the codon CTT to ATT would result in the replacement of
the hydrophobic amino acid leucine with isoleucine, another hydrophobic amino
acid. Many other missense mutations have been described which do affect the
encoded protein and result in genetic diseases.
These include an A to T mutation in the gene for p-globin, one of the polypeptides
of hemoglobin. This mutation changes codon six of the gene from GAG which
encodes glutamic acid to GTG which encodes valine.
The mutation results in a condition called sickle cell anaemia in which the red blood
cells adopt an abnormal sickle shape due to aggregation of the hemoglobin
molecules. The abnormal cells are short-lived, which causes anaemia and become
lodged in capillaries, which reduce the blood supply to organs.
257-A genetically diseased father (male) marries with a normal female and gives
birth to 3 carrier girls and 5 normal sons. It may be which type of genetic disease?
(a) sex-influenced disease
(b) blood group inheritance disease
(c) sex-linked disease
(d) sex-recessive disease.
Answer:
(c) sex-linked disease

258-A person whose father is colour blind marries a lady whose mother is daughter
of a colour blind man. Their children will be
(a) all sons colour blind
(b) some sons normal and some colour blind
(c) all colour blind
(d) all daughters normal.

259- In which of the following diseases, the man has an extra X-chromosome?
(a) Turner’s syndrome
(b) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(c) Down’s syndrome
(d) haemophilia.

260-A person with the sex chromosomes XXY suffers from


(a) gynandromorphism
(b) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(c) Down’s syndrome
(d) Turner’s syndrome.

261-Albinism is known to be due to an autosomal recessive mutation. The first child


of a couple with normal skin pigmentation was an albino. What is the probability
that their second child will also be an albino?
(a) 50%
(b) 75%
(c) 100%
(d) 25%.

262-Mental retardation in man, associated with sex chromosomal abnormality is


usually due to
(a) moderate increase in Y complement
(b) large increase in Y complement
(c) reduction in X complement
(d) increase in X complement.

263-A woman with two genes for haemophilia and one gene for colour blindness on
one of the ‘X’ chromosomes marries a normal man. How will the progeny be?
(a) 50% haemophilic colour-blind sons and 50% normal sons
(b) 50% haemophilic daughters (carrier) and 50% colour blind daughters (carrier)
(c) all sons and daughters haemophilic and colourblind
(d) haemophilic and colour-blind daughters.

264-In human beings, multiple genes are involved in the inheritance of


(a) sickle-cell anaemia
(b) skin colour
(c) colourblindness
(d) phenylketonuria.

265-Haemophilic man marries a normal woman. Their off springs will be


(a) all haemophilic
(b) all boys haemophilic
(c) all girls haemophilic
(d) all normal.

266- The problem, due to Rh” factor arises when the blood of two (Rh+ and Rh”)
mix up
(a) during pregnancy
(b) in a test tube
(c) through transfusion
(d) both (a) and (c).

267-A marriage between normal visioned man and colour blind woman will produce
offspring
(a) colour blind sons and 50% carrier daughter
(b) 50% colourblind sons and 50% carrier daughter
(c) normal males and carrier daughters
(d) colour blind sons and carrier daughters.

268-Erythroblastosis foetalis is caused when fertilization takes place between


gametes of
(a) Rh female and Rh+ male
(b) Rh+ female and Rh– male
(c) Rh+ female and Rh+ male
(d) Rh~ female and Rh– male.
If fertilization takes place between gametes of R+ female and Rh + male then the
resulting foetus’ blood is Rh+. This is a serious problem. If the R+ child does not
suffer (although the Rh+ blood of the foetus stimulates the formation of anti Rh
factors are not produced in the mother’s blood to harm the foetus). But in second
pregnancy (with Rh+ foetus), the anti Rh factors of the mother’s blood destroy the
foetal red blood corpuscles. This is called erythroblastosis foetalis. New born may
survive but it is often anaemic.

269- Mongolian Idiocy due to trisomy in 21st chromosome is called


(a) Down’s syndrome
(b) Turner’s syndrome
(c) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(d) Triple X syndrome.

270-Probability of four sons to a couple is


(a) 1/4
(b) 1/8
(c) 1/16
(d) 1/32.

271- Male XX and female XY sometime occur due to


(a) deletion
(b) transfer of segments in X and Y chromosome
(c) aneuploidy
(d) hormonal imbalance.
Male XX and female XY sometimes occur due to transfer of segments in X and Y
chromosomes. Deletion is the loss of an intercalary segment of a chromosome which
is produced by a double break in the chromosomes followed by the union of
remaining parts. Aneuploidy is a condition of having fewer or extra chromosomes
than the normal genome number of the species.

272-Number of Barr bodies in XXXX female is


(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4.
273-Sickle cell anaemia induce to
(a) change of amino acid in a- chain of haemoglobin
(b) change of amino acid in b- chain of haemoglobin
(c) change of amino acid in both a and b chains of haemoglobin
(d) change of amino acid either a or b chains of haemoglobin.
Sickle cell anaemia is an autosomal hereditary disorder in which the erythrocytes
become sickle shaped. The disorder or disease is caused by the formation of
abnormal haemoglobin called haemoglobin-S.
As found out by Ingram (1958), haemoglobin-S differs from normal haemoglobin-
A in only one amino acid – 6th amino acid of P-chain, glutamic acid, is replaced by
valine. This is the major effect of the allele. During conditions of oxygen deficiency
6-valine forms hydrophobic bonds with complementary sites of other globin
molecules. It distorts their configuration. As a result, erythrocytes having
haemoglobin-S become sickle-shaped.

274-Which of the following is a correct match?


(a) Down’s syndrome – 21st chromosome
(b) Sickle cell anaemia – X-chromosome
(c) Haemophilia – Y-chromosome
(d) Parkinson’s disease – X and Y chromosome.

275-A diseased man marries a normal woman. They get three daughters and five
sons. All the daughters were diseased and sons were normal. The gene of this disease
is
(a) sex linked dominant
(b) sex linked recessive
(c) sex limited character
(d) autosomal dominant.
276-Down’s syndrome is caused by an extra copy of chromosome number 21. What
percentage of offspring produced by an affected mother and a normal father would
be affected by this disorder?
(a) 100%
(b) 75%
(c) 50%
(d) 25%

277-Which one of the following conditions though harmful in itself, is also potential
saviour from a mosquito borne infectious disease?
(a) thalassaemia
(b) sickle cell anaemia
(c) perniciofls anaemia
(d) leukaemia
In sickle cell anaemia, the shape of the RBC change (sickle shaped) in comparison
to normal one. The sickle cells (RBCs) cannot pass through capillaries and thus clog
them.
On the other hand, the mosquito borne disease is malaria. Here, the main phase of
sexual cycle, in affected mosquito occurs in normal RBC. But as in sicke cell
anaemia, RBCs become deformed, the mosquito cycle cannot be continued here.
Thus sickle cell anaemia is a potential saviour from malaria.

278- Pattern baldness, moustaches and beard in human males are examples of
(a) sex-linked traits
(b) sex limited traits
(c) sex influenced traits
(d) sex determining traits
Sex influenced traits are autosomal traits that are influenced by sex. If a male has
one recessive allele, he will show that trait, but it will take two recessive alleles for
the female to show that same trait e.g. pattern baldness, moustaches and beard in
males. Sex linked traits are those traits the determining genes of which are found on
the sex chromosomes. Sex limited traits are the traits which are expressed in a
particular sex though their genes also occur in the other sex e.g. milk secretion in
mammalian females.

279-The recessive genes located on X-chromosome humans are always


(a) lethal
(b) sub-lethal
(c) expressed in males
(d) expressed in females.

280-A normal woman, whose father was colour-blind is married to a normal man.
The sons would be
(a) 75% colour-blind
(b) 50% colour-blind
(c) all normal
(d) all colour-blind.

281- A woman with normal vision, but whose father was colour blind, marries a
colour blind man. Suppose that the fourth child of this couple was a boy. This boy
(a) may be colourblind or may be of normal vision
(b) must be colour blind
(c) must have normal colour vision
(d) will be partially colour blind since he is heterozygous for the colourblind mutant
allele.

282-Which of the following is not a hereditary disease?


(a) cystic fibrosis
(b) thalassaemia
(c) haemophilia
(d) cretinism.
Cretinism occurs due to hyposecretion of thyroid hormones. Haemophilia is a sex
linked recessive trait. Cystic fibrosis is also a recessive autosomal disorder resulting
in mucus clogging in lungs. Thalassemia involves a gene mutation in the polypeptide
chains of haemoglobin.

283-Haemophilia is more commonly seen in human males than in human females


because
(a) a greater proportion of girls die in infancy
(b) this disease is due to a Y-linked recessive mutation
(c) this disease is due to an X-linked recessive mutation
(d) this disease is due to an X-linked dominant mutation.
Haemophilia is a sex linked disease in which the patient continues to bleed even
from a minor cut since he or she does not possess the natural phenomenon of blood
clotting. Haemophilia (= hemophilia) is genetically due to the presence of a recessive
gene h, carried by X- chromosome. A female becomes haemophiliac only when both
its X-chromosomes carry the gene (XhXh). However, such females generally die
before birth because the combination of these two recessive alleles is lethal.
A female having only one allele for haemophilia (XXh) appears normal because the
allele for normal blood clotting present on the other X-chromosome is dominant.
Such females are known as carriers. In case of males, a single gene for the defect is
able to express itself as the Y-chromosome is devoid of any corresponding allele
(XhY) in which an organism has three times (3n) the haploid number (n) of
chromosomes.

284- A woman with 47 chromosomes due to three copies of chromosome 21 is


characterized by
(a) super femaleness
(b) triploidy
(c) Turner’s syndrome
(d) Down’s syndrome.
285-A man and a woman, who do not show any apparent signs of a certain inherited
disease, have seven children (2 daughters and 5 sons). Three of the sons suffer from
the given disease but none of the daughters affected. Which of the following mode
of inheritance do you suggest for this disease?
(a) sex-linked dominant
(b) sex-linked recessive
(c) sex-limited recessive
(d) autosomal dominant.

286-Sickle cell anaemia has not been eliminated from the African population
because
(a) it is controlled by dominant genes
(b) it is controlled by recessive genes
(c) it is not a fatal disease
(d) it provides immunity against malaria.

287-Cri-du-chat syndrome in humans is caused by the


(a) trisomy of 21st chromosome
(b) fertilization of an XX egg by a normal Y-bearing sperm
(c) loss of half of the short arm of chromosome 5
(d) loss of half of the long arm of chromosome 5
Cri du chat syndrome, also called deletion 5p syndrome, (or 5p minus), is a rare
genetic disorder. Cri du chat syndrome is due to a partial deletion of the short arm
of chromosome number 5. The name of this syndrome is French for “cry of the cat,”
referring to the distinctive cry of children with this disorder.
The cry is caused by abnormal larynx development, which becomes normal within
a few weeks of birth. Infants with cri du chat have low birth weight and may have
respiratory problems. Some people with this disorder have a shortened lifespan, but
most have a normal life expectancy.

288-If a colourblind woman marries a normal visioned man, their sons will be
(a) all colourblind
(b) all normal visioned
(c) one-half colourblind and one-half normal
(d) three-fourths colourblind and one-fourth normal (2006)

289-Both sickle cell anaemia and Huntington’s chorea are


(a) virus-related diseases
(b) bacteria-related diseases
(c) congenital disorders
(d) pollutant-induced disorders

290- A human male produces sperms with the genotypes AB, Ab, aB, and ab
pertaining to two diallelic characters in equal proportions. What is the corresponding
genotype of this person?
(a) AaBB
(b) AABb
(c) AABB
(d) AaBb.

291-The diagram below shows a cell in meiosis. What can be deduced from
this diagram?

Stage of meiosis shown Haploid number of


chromosomes in this
cell
A. Metaphase I 6
B. Prophase I 3
C. Prophase I 6
D. Metaphase I 3

292-Which characteristics are used to identify chromosomes when constructing


a karyotype?
I. The length of the chromosome.
II. The position of the centromere on the chromosome.
III. The pattern of bands on the chromosome.
IV. The position of the chromosome on the spindle.
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. I, II and III only
D. I, II, III and IV
293-What is always a difference between the alleles of a gene?
A. Their position on the chromosome
B. Their amino acid sequence
C. The number of codons that each contains
D. Their base sequence

294- A gene has three alleles. How many different genotypes can be found for
this gene?
A. 3
B. 6
C. 9
D. 12
295- Why is amniotic fluid collected during prenatal testing for abnormal
chromosomes?
A. To obtain uterine cells
B. To obtain fetal cells
C. To obtain dissolved chemical by-products of fetal development
D. To replace it with fluid containing special growth hormones

296- What can be concluded on the basis of the following karyotype?

A. Female with a normal set of chromosomes


B. Male with Down syndrome
C. Female with Down syndrome
D. Male with a normal set of chromosomes

297-A cell replicates its DNA and then starts to divide by meiosis. What is the
expected arrangement of chromosomes if crossing over has taken place
between the two genes shown? c
A. B.

C. D.

298-If a person inherited an allele with the same base substitution mutation
from both parents, what sequences could be altered from normal in the
person’s cells?
A. One mRNA base sequence only
B. Two mRNA base sequences only
C. One mRNA base sequence and one polypeptide amino acid sequence
only
D. Two mRNA base sequences and two polypeptide amino acid
sequences only

299-Which processes result in the greatest amount of genetic variation in a


population?
A. Natural selection and meiosis
B. Meiosis and mutation
C. Mutation and mitosis
D. Mitosis and natural selection

300- In what way are eukaryotic chromosomes different from prokaryotic


chromosomes?
Eukaryotic chromosomes Prokaryotic
chromosomes
A. Protein is present Protein is absent
B. DNA is present DNA is absent
C. RNA is present RNA is absent
D. RNA is absent RNA is present

301- Which response describes the behaviour of chromosomes in metaphase I


and anaphase II of meiosis?
Metaphase I Anaphase II
A. Chromosomes line up at the equator Separation of homologous
chromosomes
B. Tetrads (bivalents) line up at the Separation of homologous
equator chromosomes
C. Chromosomes line up at the equator Separation of sister chromatids
D. Tetrads (bivalents) line up at the Separation of sister chromatids
equator

302- What is the usual cause of Down’s syndrome?


A. 21 pairs of chromosomes
B. Trisomy 21
C. Non-disjunction of sex chromosomes
D. Fertilization of the egg by two sperm

303-If the haploid number of an organism is 8, how many different varieties of


gametes are possible, not considering the effects of crossing over?
A. 16
B. 64
C. 128
D. 256

304- Which event occurs first in meiosis?


A. Centromere appearance
B. Chiasmata formation
C. Crossing over
D. Synapsis

305- What are homologous chromosomes?


A. Two chromosomes with differing sets of genes, in the same
sequence, with the same alleles
B. Two chromosomes with the same set of genes, in a different
sequence, with the same alleles
C. Two chromosomes with a different set of genes, in the same
sequence, with different alleles
D. Two chromosomes with the same set of genes, in the same sequence,
sometimes with different alleles

306- What is a sex-linked gene?


A. A gene whose locus is on the X chromosome only.
B. A gene whose locus is on the X or Y chromosomes.
C. A gene whose locus is on the both X and Y chromosomes.
D. A gene whose locus is on the Y chromosome only.

307- The pedigree chart below shows the inheritance of a genetic disease in a
family. What is the nature of the allele that causes this disease?

A. Dominant and sex linked


B. Dominant and non-sex linked
C. Recessive and sex linked
D. Recessive and non-sex linked

308- Hypophosphataemia is a disorder involving poor re-absorption of


phosphate from glomerular filtrate in humans. It shows a sex-linked
dominant pattern of inheritance as illustrated in the following pedigree.
Which row in the table correctly identifies the genotypes of individuals 1
and 2?
Individual 1 Individual 2
A. XHXh XHY
B. XhY XHXH
C. XhY XHXh
D. unaffected affected

309-What is the genetic cross called between an individual of unknown


genotype and an individual who is homozygous recessive for a particular
trait?
A. Test-cross
B. Hybrid cross
C. Dihybrid cross
D. F1 cross

310-Which of the following represents a test cross to determine if phenotype T


is homozygous or heterozygous? (Note: allele T is dominant to allele t.)
A. Phenotype T crossed with another phenotype T
B. Phenotype T crossed with a phenotype T which is homozygous
C. Phenotype T crossed with a phenotype T which is heterozygous
D. Phenotype T crossed with phenotype t

311-Which of the following blood group phenotypes always has a homozygous


genotype?
A. A
B. B
C. AB
D. O

312- What does the genotype XH Xh indicate?


A. A co-dominant female
B. A heterozygous male
C. A heterozygous female
D. A co-dominant male

313-If a purple flowered (Pp) and a white flowered pea plant (pp) are crossed,
what will the offspring be?
A. 1 : 1 ratio of purple and white flowers
B. 3 : 1 ratio of purple to white flowers
C. 1 : 3 ratio of purple to white flowers
D. All purple flowers

314- Hemophilia is sex-linked and is caused by a recessive allele. A woman’s


father has hemophilia, but her husband does not.
What is the probability of the women and her husband having a child with
hemophilia?
Probability of a son Probability of a
having hemophilia daughter having
hemophilia
A. 50% 0%
B. 0% 0%
C. 100% 0%
D. 0% 50%

315- A gene in cattle controls whether horns develop or not. When cattle
without horns are mated together, none of the offspring ever has horns. A
male with horns is mated with females without horns. If half of the
offspring have horns and half do not, what is the conclusion?
A. The male is homozygous dominant.
B. The male is homozygous recessive.
C. The male is heterozygous.
D. Only males have horns.
316- In garden peas, the pairs of alleles coding for seed shape and seed colour
are unlinked. The allele for smooth seeds (S) is dominant over the allele
for wrinkled seeds (s). The allele for yellow seeds (Y) is dominant over
the allele for green seeds (y).
If a plant of genotype Ssyy is crossed with a plant of genotype ssYy, which
offspring are recombinants?
A. SsYy and Ssyy
B. SsYy and ssYy
C. SsYy and ssyy
D. Ssyy and ssYy

317- A cross is performed between two organisms with the genotypes AaBb
and aabb.
What genotypes in the offspring are the results of recombination?
A. Aabb, AaBb
B. AaBb, aabb
C. aabb, Aabb
D. Aabb, aaBb

318- If red (RR) is crossed with white (rr) and produces a pink flower (Rr), and
tall (D) is dominant to dwarf (d), what is the phenotypic ratio from a cross
of Rr dd and rr Dd?
A. 9:3:3:1
B. 50% pink, 50% white and all tall
C. 1:1:1:1, in which 50% are tall, 50% dwarf, 50% pink and 50% white
D. 3:1

319- A cross is carried out between two heterozygous individuals (AaBb)


where the genes A and B are not linked genes. What would be the
proportions of genotypic recombinants amongst the offspring of this
cross?
A. 0
B. 2
C. 7
D. 100

320- In Drosophila the allele for normal wings (W) is dominant over the allele
for vestigal wings (w) and the allele for normal body (G) is dominant over
the allele for ebony body (g). If two Drosophila with the genotypes Wwgg
and wwGg are crossed together, what ratio of phenotypes is expected in
the offspring?
A. 9 × normal wings, normal body : 3 × normal wings, ebony body : 3
× vestigal wings, normal body : 1 × vestigal wings, ebony body
B. 3 × normal wings, normal body : 3 × normal wings, ebony body : 3
× vestigal wings, normal body : 1 × vestigal wings, ebony body
C. 3 × normal wings, normal body : 1 × normal wings, ebony body : 3
× vestigal wings, normal body : 1 × vestigal wings, ebony body
D. 1 × normal wings, normal body : 1 × normal wings, ebony body : 1
× vestigal wings, normal body : 1 × vestigal wings, ebony body

321- Humans are in blood group M, N or MN. The alleles for blood group M
(M) and blood group N (N) are co-dominant. Humans are also in blood
group A, B, AB or O. The alleles controlling these blood groups are IA,
IB and i.
If two parents have the genotypes ii MM and IA i MN what is the ratio of
possible phenotypes of their offspring?
A. 9 group A, 3 group A, 3 group O, 1 group O,
group M group N group M group N
B. 9 group O, 3 group O, 3 group A, 1 group A,
group M group N group M group N
C. 3 group O, 3 group O, 1 group A, 1 group A,
group M group MN group M group MN
D. 1 group A, 1 group A, 1 group O, 1 group O,
group M group MN group M group MN

322- A polygenic character is controlled by two genes each with two alleles.
How many different possible genotypes are there for this character?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 9
D. 16

323- Which human trait shows a pattern of polygenic inheritance?


A. ABO blood type
B. Sickle cell anemia
C. Skin colour
D. Co-dominant alleles

324- Which enzymes are needed to produce recombinant plasmids that are used
in gene transfer?
A. DNA polymerase and ligase
B. DNA polymerase and restriction enzymes
C. Restriction enzymes and ligase
D. Helicase and restriction enzymes

325- Why is it possible for a gene from one organism to be introduced and
function in a different organism?
A. All organisms are made of cells.
B. All organisms have nuclei.
C. The genetic code is universal.
D. All organisms have ribosomes.

326- Which enzyme is used to produce complementary DNA (cDNA) from


mRNA?
A. Restriction endonuclease
B. Reverse transcriptase
C. DNA ligase
D. RNA primase

327- What happens to the unfertilized egg used in the cloning process of a
differentiated cell?
A. It becomes fertilized.
B. Its nucleus is replaced by the nucleus of the differentiated cell.
C. Its nucleus is fused with the nucleus of the differentiated cell.
D. Its nucleus is exchanged with the nucleus of the sperm.

328- What was the original goal of the Human Genome Project?
A. To determine the function of genes
B. To determine the nucleotide sequence of all human chromosomes
C. To determine how genes control biological processes
D. To understand the evolution of species

329- Which features of DNA fragments are used to separate them in the process
of gel electrophoresis?
A. Their charge and their size
B. Their charge and base composition
C. The sequence of their bases and their charge
D. Their base composition and their size
330- There are many different views on the ethics of reproductive cloning in
humans. Which is a valid argument against cloning in humans?
A. It involves the use of donor sperm which is unethical.
B. It happens naturally when identical twins are conceived.
C. Only females can be cloned.
D. The life expectancy of children produced by cloning might be lower
than normal.

331- _____ An allele is ___.


A. one of the bases in DNA
B. an alternate form of a gene
C. another term for epistasis
D. present only in males and is responsible for sex determination
E. found in mitochondria but not in nuclei

332- _____ What would be the dimensions of a Punnett square for the cross Ww x
ww?
A. 4 x 4
B. 2 x 2
C. 2 x 1
D. 1 x 1

333- _____In a cross of a round hybrid pea with a true breeding round parent (Ww
x WW), what genotypic proportions would be observed in the offspring?
A. Half heterozygous, half homozygous dominant
B. Half round, half wrinkled
C. All heterozygous
D. All round

334- The fundamental Mendelian process which involves the separation of


contrasting genetic elements at the same locus would be called ___.
A. segregation
B. independent assortment
C. continuous variation
D. discontinuous variation
E. dominance or recessiveness

335- Starting with a cross between AA and aa, the proportion of heterozygotes in the
F2 progeny will be ___.
A. 1/8
B. 1/4
C. 1/3
D. 1/2
E. All heterozygotes

336- Genotype is to DNA as phenotype is to


A. Genotype
B. Proteins
C. Expressivity
D. RNA
E. Mutation

337- Albinism, lack of pigmentation in humans, results from an autosomal recessive


gene designated a. Two parents with normal pigmentation have an albino child.
What is the probability that their next child will be albino? What is the probability
that the next child will be an albino girl?

A. 1/2; 1/4
B. 1/4; 1/2
C. 1/4; 1/8
D. 1/8; 1/4

338- A species of mice can have gray or black fur and long or short tails. A cross
between black-furred, long-tailed mice and gray-furred, short-tailed mice produce
all black-furred, long-tailed offspring. Using the gene symbols G for black, g for
gray, S for long and s for short, what would be the genotype of a gray-furred, short-
tailed mouse?
A. GGSS
B. ggSS
C. ggss
D. GgSs
E. Ggss

339- To determine if an organism with a dominant phenotype is heterozygous, one


can perform a ___.
A. reciprocal cross
B. dihybrid cross
C. test cross
340- Barney and Betty are about to have their first child. They both have "normal"
feet but Barney's father has flat feet and Betty has a child from a previous marriage
who has flat feet. What is the probability that they will have a boy with flat feet?
A. 1/2
B. 1/4
C. 1/8
D. 3/4
E. 3/8

341- In the previous question, Barney and Betty learn that they will actually have
twins - dizygotic twins. What is the probability that they will have both a boy and a
girl, both of whom are flat footed?
A. 1/4
B. 1/8
C. 1/16
D. 1/32
E. 1/64

342-A human with the genotype XX is


A. an example of the failure of chromosomes to separate during meiosis.
B. a female.
C. a male.
D. a dwarf.

343- In humans brown eyes are dominant to blue eyes. A cross between a
heterozygous brown eyed individual and a recessive blue eyed individual would
result in a phenotypic ratio of
A. 9:3:3:1.
B. 1:2:1.
C. 3:1.
D. 1:1.

344- In humans, normal color vision is dominant over color blindness. A color blind
male marries a female who is a carrier for color blindness. What is the probability
that a color blind boy, XnY, would be born to these parents?
A. 0%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 75%
345-The scientist who first described the principles of dominance, segregation, and
independent
assortment was
A. Charles Darwin.
B. Albert Einstein.
C. Louis Pasteur.
D. Gregor Mendel.

346- The results of crossing a red flowered Japanese four o’clock plant with a white
flowered Japanese four o’clock are all pink offspring. This demonstrates the
principle of
A. incomplete dominance.
B. multiple alleles.
C. mutation.
D. crossing over.

347- A trait that is carried on the X chromosome and has no allele on the Y
chromosome is
considered
A. an exception to the principle of codominance.
B. normal sex-linked inheritance.
C. lethal in females.
D. normal autosomal inheritance.

348- A heterozygous individual would have the genotype


A. Hh.
B. hh.
C. HH.
D. hornless.

349-Which of the following is a sex-linked trait in humans?


A. red blood cell shape
B. eye color
C. blood type
D. color vision

350- If a mother has blood type A and a father has blood type B, their children’s
blood types
can be
A. A, B, or O only.
B. A, B, O, or AB only.
C. A or B only.
D. O only.

351- A change in the DNA of a gene is called a


A. gamete.
B. trait.
C. translation.
D. mutation.

352- The phenotype of an organism


A. is due to its genotype.
B. is represented with letters.
C. occurs only in homozygous dominant organisms.
D. is also called the organism’s genetic makeup.

353- A few human traits are believed to be carried by genes on the Y chromosome.
A man with a gene that is carried on the Y chromosome will transmit this gene to
A. half of his male offspring.
B. half of his female offspring.
C. all of his male offspring.
D. all of his female offspring.

354- Autosomes are


A. special sex chromosomes.
B. found only in vertebrates.
C. mutated genes.
D. all the chromosomes except the sex chromosomes.

355-A woman is heterozygous for widow’s peak, and she has a child with a man
who is homozygous recessive for widow’s peak. What is the probability of
having a child with an even hairline?
A. 75%
B. 50%
C. 25%
D. 0%
The pedigree below shows the pattern of
inheritance for a sex-linked trait. Use this pedigree
to answer questions 356-and 358.

356-The female in the second generation must be


A. normal because her daughter is normal.
B. normal because the majority of her children
are normal.
C. colorblind because her mother was a
carrier.
D. a carrier because one of her sons is color blind.

357-If the couple in the second generation has another son, what is the probability
that he will show this sex-linked trait?
A. 100%
B. 50%
C. 25%
D. 0%

358-The allele of a trait that always shows up in the F1 generation is said to be


A. recessive.
B. sex linked.
C. dominant.
D. homozygous.

359- Somatic cells with the normal number of chromosomes are called
A. diploid or n.
B. diploid or 2n.
C. haploid or n.
D. haploid or 2n.

360- The phenotype of a heterozygous brown rabbit is


A. brown.
B. BB.
C. bb.
D. Bb.

361- Which of the following statements is true?


A. The individual’s diploid number is 46.
B. The individual would be expected to be normal.
C. The individual would be expected to have a genetic disorder.
D. The individual’s haploid number is 46.

362- To visualize Mendel’s experiments, or any cross in genetics, a simple diagram


called a?__ may be used.
A. graphing calculator
B. Punnett square
C. probability circle
D. genotype

363- The division of the cytoplasm is called


A. crossing over.
B. mitosis.
C. meiosis.
D. cytokinesis.

364- A cross between an individual that is heterozygous for a trait and an individual
that is homozygous recessive for the same trait will probably produce offspring with
A. all the same genotype.
B. two different genotypes.
C. three different genotypes.
D. all of the same characteristics.

365- The variations of the genes for a single trait are called
A. alleles.
B. gametes.
C. sex cells.
D. phenotypes.

366-Recessive alleles are represented with a


A. capital letter.
B. small or lower case letter.
C. word.
D. number.

367- Mr. Sandival has blood type B and Mrs. Sandival has blood type O. They have
three children of their own and one adopted child. Owen has blood type AB, Mary
has blood type O,Susie has blood type B, and Carl has blood type B. Which child is
adopted?
A. Carl
B. Mary
C. Owen
D. Susie

368- A organism with the genotype TtRr could produce which of the following
gametes?
A. TR, Tt, Rr, tr
B. TR, Tr, tR, tr
C. TR, tr only
D. Tr, tR only

The following pedigree shows the inheritance of the sex-linked trait of color vision.
Use the pedigree to answer question 369 and 370.

369- What is the genotype of individual 10 in the above pedigree?


A. XNXn
B. XNY
C. XnY
D. XnYn

370-What is the genotype of individual 2?


A. XNXn
B. XNY
C. XnY
D. XNXN
371- The separation of daughter chromosomes and division of a cell nucleus to form
two nuclei, each with a full set of chromosomes, is called
A. cell division.
B. specialization.
C. mitosis.
D. cytokinesis.

372- The nucleus of a cell has 46 chromosomes before mitosis. After mitosis, each
new cell nucleus
A. will have 46 chromosomes.
B. will have 23 chromosomes.
C. will have 92 chromosomes.
D. will have an unknown number of chromosomes.

373- Which is the correct sequence for the stages of mitotic cell division represented

by the diagrams below?

A. A C D B
B. A B C D
C. B A D C
D. B C D A
Use the following diagram of a cell process to answer questions 374 and 375.

374- What kinds of cells are represented at G?


A. body cells
B. gametes
C. protists
D. prokaryotes

375- What is the diploid number of chromosomes?


A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8

376- Which response describes the behavior of chromosomes in metaphase I


and anaphase II of meiosis?
Metaphase I Anaphase II
A. Chromosomes line up at the equator Separation of homologous
chromosomes
B. Tetrads (bivalents) line up at the Separation of homologous
equator chromosomes
C. Chromosomes line up at the equator Separation of sister chromatids
D. Tetrads (bivalents) line up at the Separation of sister chromatids
equator

377- In garden peas, the pairs of alleles coding for seed shape and seed colour
are unlinked. The allele for smooth seeds (S) is dominant over the allele
for wrinkled seeds (s). The allele for yellow seeds (Y) is dominant over
the allele for green seeds (y).
If a plant of genotype Ssyy is crossed with a plant of genotype ssYy, which
offspring are recombinants?
A. SsYy and Ssyy
B. SsYy and ssYy
C. SsYy and ssyy
D. Ssyy and ssYy

378- What constitutes a linkage group?


A. Genes carried on the same chromosome
B. Genes whose loci are on different autosomes
C. Genes controlling a polygenic characteristic
D. Alleles for the inheritance of ABO blood groups

379-The allele for red flower colour (R) in a certain plant is co-dominant with
the allele for white flowers (R’). Thus a plant with the genotype RR’ has
pink flowers. Tall (D) is dominant to dwarf (d). What would be the
expected phenotypic ratio from a cross of RR’dd plants with R’R’Dd
plants?
A. 9:3:3:1
B. 50% pink 50% white, and all tall
C. 1:1:1:1, in which 50% are tall, 50% dwarf, 50% pink and 50% white
D. 3:1
380- Two genes A and B are linked together as shown below.
A b

a B
If the genes are far enough apart such that crossing over between the
alleles occurs occasionally, which statement is true of the gametes?
A. All of the gametes will be Ab and aB.
B. There will be 25% Ab, 25% aB, 25% ab and 25% AB.
C. There will be approximately equal numbers of Ab and ab gametes.
D. The number of Ab gametes will be greater than the number of ab
gametes.

381- A polygenic character is controlled by two genes each with two alleles.
How many different possible genotypes are there for this character?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 9
D. 16

382- A cross is performed between two organisms with the genotypes AaBb
and aabb.
What genotypes in the offspring are the result of recombination?
A. Aabb, AaBb
B. AaBb, aabb
C. aabb, Aabb
D. Aabb, aaBb

383- The diagram below shows chromosomes during prophase I of meiosis.


How many chromosomes and chiasmata are visible?

Number of Number of chiasmata


chromosomes
A. 2 2
B. 4 2
C. 2 4
D. 4 4
384- In peas the allele for round seed (R) is dominant over the allele for
wrinkled seed (r). The allele for yellow seed (Y) is dominant over the allele
for green seed (y).
If two pea plants with the genotypes YyRr and Yyrr are crossed together,
what ratio of phenotypes is expected in the offspring?
A. 9 round yellow : 3 round green : 3 wrinkled yellow : 1 wrinkled green
B. 3 round yellow : 3 round green : 1 wrinkled yellow : 1 wrinkled green
C. 3 round yellow : 1 round green : 3 wrinkled yellow : 1 wrinkled green
D. 1 round yellow : 1 round green : 1 wrinkled yellow : 1 wrinkled green

385- What is a difference between autosomes and sex chromosomes?


A. Autosomes are not found in gametes but sex chromosomes are.
B. Sex chromosomes are found in animal cells and autosomes are found
in plant cells.
C. Autosomes are diploid and sex chromosomes are haploid.
D. Sex chromosomes determine gender and autosomes do not.

386- The diagram below shows a cell in meiosis. What can be deduced
from this diagram?

Stage of meiosis shown Haploid number of


chromosomes in this
cell
A. Metaphase I 6
B. Prophase I 3
C. Prophase I 6
D. Metaphase I 3

387- If red (RR) is crossed with white (rr) and produces a pink flower (Rr), and
tall (D) is dominant to dwarf (d), what is the phenotypic ratio from a cross
of Rr dd and rr Dd?
A. 9:3:3:1
B. 50% pink, 50% white and all tall
C. 1:1:1:1, in which 50% are tall, 50% dwarf, 50% pink and 50% white
D. 3:1

388- If a person inherited an allele with the same base substitution mutation
from both parents, what sequences could be altered from normal in the
person’s cells?
A. One mRNA base sequence only
B. Two mRNA base sequences only
C. One mRNA base sequence and one polypeptide amino acid sequence
only
D. Two mRNA base sequences and two polypeptide amino acid
sequences only

389- What is the locus of a gene?


A. The proportion of the population that have the gene
B. The part of the phenotype that is affected by the gene
C. The position of a gene on a chromosome
D. The predicted effect of natural selection on the frequency of the gene

390- Which processes always occur in meiosis but not normally in mitosis?
I. Chiasmata formation
II. Recombination of genes
III. Separation of homologous chromosomes
A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. I and III only
D. I, II and III

391-The diagram below shows the life cycle of a moss. The


haploid chromosome number is shown as n and the
diploid number as 2n. At which stage in the life cycle
does meiosis take place?

A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV

392- Mendel crossed pure breeding (homozygous) tall pea plants that had
coloured flowers with pure breeding dwarf pea plants that had white
flowers. All of the resulting F1 plants were tall and had coloured flowers.
If Mendel had crossed these F1 plants with a pure breeding strain of dwarf
pea plants with coloured flowers, what proportion of tall coloured plants
would be expected in the offspring?
1
A.
4
3
B.
8
1
C.
2
9
D.
16

393- A gene has three alleles. How many different genotypes can be found for
this gene?
A. 3
B. 6
C. 9
D. 12

394- A cross is carried out between two heterozygous individuals (AaBb)


where the genes A and B are not linked genes. What would be the
proportions of genotypic recombinants amongst the offspring of this
cross?
A. 0
B. 2
C. 7
D. 100

395- What is the genetic cross called between an individual of unknown


genotype and an individual who is homozygous recessive for a particular
trait?
A. Test-cross
B. Hybrid cross
C. Dihybrid cross
D. F1 cross

396- What is the usual cause of Down’s syndrome?


A. 21 pairs of chromosomes
B. Trisomy 21
C. Non-disjunction of sex chromosomes
D. Fertilization of the egg by two sperm

397- Which enzyme is used to produce complementary DNA (cDNA) from


mRNA?
A. Restriction endonuclease
B. Reverse transcriptase
C. DNA ligase
D. RNA primase

398- Which human trait shows a pattern of polygenic inheritance?


A. ABO blood type
B. Sickle cell anemia
C. Skin colour
D. Co-dominant alleles

399- If the haploid number of an organism is 8, how many different varieties


of gametes are possible, not considering the effects of crossing over?
A. 16
B. 64
C. 128
D. 256

400- How does the X chromosome differ from the Y chromosome in humans?
A. The Y chromosome is longer.
B. Some genes on the X chromosome are absent from the Y
chromosome.
C. The genes are the same but some on the Y chromosome are not
expressed.
D. The X chromosome determines sex.

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