RBI Assistant Previous Year Paper with Solutions

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RBI Assistant Previous Year Paper – English Section

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the questions.

The term ‘Biofuel’ refers to liquid or gaseous fuels for the transport sector that are
predominantly produced from biomass. A variety of fuels can be produced from biomass
resources including liquid fuels such as ethanol, methanol, biodiesel, Fischer-Tropsch diesel, and
gaseous fuels such as hydrogen and methane.

The first-generation liquid biofuels are made from sugar, starch, vegetable oils or animal fats
using conventional technology. The basic feedstocks for the production of first-generation
biofuels come from agriculture and food processing. The second-generation technologies use a
wider range of biomass resources – agriculture, forestry and waste materials. Third-generation
biofuels may include the production of bio-based hydrogen for use in fuel cell vehicles, e.g. algae
fuel, also called oilgae.

Globally, liquid biofuels are most commonly used to power vehicles, heat homes and for
cooking. Biofuels offer many benefits including sustainability, less greenhouse gas emissions,
regional development, wasteland agriculture and security of supply.

The biomass resource base is composed of a wide variety of forestry and agricultural resources,
industry residues and municipal solid and urban wood residues. The forest resources include
residues produced during the harvesting of forest produce, fuel wood etc. Some forest
resources also become available through initiatives to reduce fire hazards and improve forest
health.

The agricultural resources include grains used for biofuels production, animal manures and crop
residues derived primarily from corn and small grains (e.g., wheat straw). A variety of regionally
significant crops such as cotton, sugarcane, rice and orchards can also be a source of crop
residue. Municipal and urban wood residues are also widely available.

Other advanced biofuel feedstocks include non-plant sources such as fats, manure and the
organic material found in urban waste. In addition, algae production has great promise because
algae generate higher energy yields and require much less space to grow than conventional
feedstocks. Also, algae would not compete with food crops for land and could be grown with
minimal inputs using a variety of methods.

Question 1: As per the passage, what is Biofuel?

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A) It is a type of petroleum fuel which emits less carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.

B) It is a type of non-viscous fuel which is produced from solid waste.

C) It is a type of liquid or gaseous fuel which is produced from biomass.

D) It is a type of fuel which is generated by industrial waste.

E) It is a type of fuel which is formed by a homogenous mixture of petroleum and diesel.

Question 2: As per the passage, what are the components of biomass resource base?
1. All municipal residues

2. Industry residues

3. Forest resources

4. Agriculture resources

A) Only 1 and 2

B) Only 2, 3 and 4

C) Only 1, 3 and 4

D) Only 2 and 4

E) All 1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 3: As per the passage, why algae production has great promise as a biofuel feedstock?
1. Because it generates higher energy yields

2. Because it requires more space to grow than conventional feedstocks

3. Because it competes with other food crops for land

A) Only 1

B) Only 2 and 3

C) Only 1 and 3

D) Only 3

E) All 1, 2 and 3

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Question 4: As per the passage, which of the following fuels cannot be obtained from biomass
resources?
1. Diesel

2. Methanol

3. Ethanol

A) Only 2

B) Only 3

C) Only 1

D) Only 1 and 2

E) All 1, 2 and 3

Question 5: As per the passage, which of the following is correctly matched?

1. First-generation liquid biofuels - forestry and waste materials

2. Second-generation liquid biofuels - sugar, starch, vegetable oils

3. Third-generation liquid biofuels - Bio-based hydrogen for fuel cell vehicles

A) Only 1

B) Only 2 and 3

C) Only 3

D) Only 2

E) All 1, 2 and 3

Question 6: As per the passage, which of the following crops can be used as crop residue?
1. Cotton

2. Rice

3. Wheat

A) Only 2

B) Only 1 and 2

C) Only 2 and 3

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D) Only 3

E) All 1, 2 and 3

Question 7: Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word ‘PRODUCED’ as used in the
passage?
A) Surrounded

B) Processed

C) Accessed

D) Disturbed

E) Infused

Question 8: Which of the following is the opposite in meaning to the word ‘SIGNIFICANT’ as used
in the passage?
A) Intent

B) Event

C) Adamant

D) Unimportant

E) Crucial

Question 9:
In the question below, a sentence is given, divided into four parts, one of which may contain a
grammatical error. From the options, choose the part containing the error, and mark that as
your answer. In case the sentence is correct as it is, choose ‘No error’ as your answer.

A) The integration of technological

B) and innovative advancements

C) in this area can help curb the

D) seriously issue of food wastage.

E) No error

Question 10: In the question below, a sentence is given, divided into four parts, one of which
may contain a grammatical error. From the options, choose the part containing the error, and

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mark that as your answer. In case the sentence is correct as it is, choose ‘No error’ as your
answer.
A) Every civic body across India should be

B) responsible for ensuring near total sewage

C) treatment and ensuring that rivers and freshwater sources

D) in and around there limits are not polluted by wastewater.

E) No error

Question 11: In the question below, a sentence is given, divided into four parts, one of which
may contain a grammatical error. From the options, choose the part containing the error, and
mark that as your answer. In case the sentence is correct as it is, choose ‘No error’ as your
answer.
A) One would have thought that with so many well-meaning

B) and deeply committed individuals and groups who have

C) consistently fought against social prejudice of various kinds,

D) we would have found ways to counter prejudice.

E) No error

Question 12: In the question below, a sentence is given, divided into four parts, one of which
may contain a grammatical error. From the options, choose the part containing the error, and
mark that as your answer. In case the sentence is correct as it is, choose ‘No error’ as your
answer.
A) Passed in 2016, the code was

B) formulated to made the process

C) of shutting down and exiting a

D) business easier and less time-consuming.

E) No error

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 RBI Assistant Previous Year Paper with Solutions
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Question 13: In the question below, a sentence is given, divided into four parts, one of which
may contain a grammatical error. From the options, choose the part containing the error, and
mark that as your answer. In case the sentence is correct as it is, choose ‘No error’ as your
answer.
A) One might wondered why the

B) Canadian government chose to take

C) such a momentous step armed

D) with such a flimsy defence.

E) No error

Question 14: In the question given below, a sentence is given with one blank, followed by five
options, each having a word which may or may not fit in the blank. From the given options,
choose the one that gives the correct word that fits in the blank.
The Supreme Court has ________ the trial until late December so that both parties will have time
to prepare.

A) tested

B) calculated

C) determined

D) postponed

E) None of the above

Question 15: In the question given below, a sentence is given with one blank, followed by five
options, each having a word which may or may not fit in the blank. From the given options,
choose the one that gives the correct word that fits in the blank.
The Prime Minister gave a nationwide ________ to the people following a horrific terrorist attack
on the capital.

A) address

B) failure

C) tour

D) campaign

E) None of the above

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Question 16: In the question given below, a sentence is given with one blank, followed by five
options, each having a word which may or may not fit in the blank. From the given options,
choose the one that gives the correct word that fits in the blank.
Brussels is a beautiful city, so it cannot be described as a ______ tourist destination.

A) agile

B) esteem

C) respectable

D) mundane

E) None of the above

Question 17: In the question given below, a sentence is given with one blank, followed by five
options, each having a word which may or may not fit in the blank. From the given options,
choose the one that gives the correct word that fits in the blank.
He had _________ refusing the invitations and visitors, which left limited time for work and his
students.

A) difficulty

B) troubled

C) shortcoming

D) complaint

E) ailment

Question 18: In the given question, a sentence has been broken into four parts and the parts
are jumbled. Choose the option which provides the correct way to re-arrange the parts to form a
grammatically and contextually meaningful sentence. If all the parts are correctly placed, mark
(e) as your answer.
There has been (A)an exponential rise in(B)/ diet-related and lifestyle diseases(C)/ in our
country.(D)

A) ADBC

B) CABD

C) DACB

D) ACBD

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E) No rearrangement

Question 19: In the given question, a sentence has been broken into four parts and the parts
are jumbled. Choose the option which provides the correct way to re-arrange the parts to form a
grammatically and contextually meaningful sentence. If all the parts are correctly placed, mark
(e) as your answer.
Weather experts claimed(A)/in the coming days(B)/would get more snow (C)/that the Himalayan
region (D).

A) ADBC

B) BADC

C) DACB

D) ADCB

E) No rearrangement

Question 20: In the given question, a sentence has been broken into four parts and the parts
are jumbled. Choose the option which provides the correct way to re-arrange the parts to form a
grammatically and contextually meaningful sentence. If all the parts are correctly placed, mark
(e) as your answer.
The state is all set (A)/ by displaying hygiene ratings (B)/on the doors of restaurants(C)/to
enhance the dining experience(D)

A) BDAC

B) ADBC

C) CDAB

D) DBAC

E) No rearrangement

Question 21: In the given question, a sentence has been broken into four parts and the parts
are jumbled. Choose the option which provides the correct way to re-arrange the parts to form a
grammatically and contextually meaningful sentence. If all the parts are correctly placed, mark
(e) as your answer.
sometimes fail to take into account that (A)/teachers should be qualified and acquainted (B)/the
education outreach can (C)/with child psychology(D)

A) CBAD

B) DACB

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 RBI Assistant Previous Year Paper with Solutions
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C) CABD

D) ACBD

E) No rearrangement

Question 22: In the given question, a word has been given and there are three ways in which
the word has been used, in similar or different forms. You need to see which of the sentences
have correctly used the highlighted word, and mark that as your answer.
Bow

1. The bird sat on the topmost bow of the tree.

2. We must all bow before the queen.

3. The hunter carried a bow and seven arrows.

A) Only 2

B) Only 1 and 2

C) Only 1 and 3

D) Only 2 and 3

E) All 1, 2 and 3

Question 23: In the given question, a word has been given and there are three ways in which
the word has been used, in similar or different forms. You need to see which of the sentences
have correctly used the highlighted word, and mark that as your answer.
Mine

1. The blue bike is not mine.

2. The government decided to mine the southern part of the plateau.

3. He works in a gold mine.

A) Only 1

B) Only 1 and 2

C) Only 1 and 3

D) Only 2 and 3

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E) All 1, 2 and 3

Question 24: In the given question, a word has been given and there are three ways in which
the word has been used, in similar or different forms. You need to see which of the sentences
have correctly used the highlighted word, and mark that as your answer.
Boot

1. I have bought a new pair of boot.

2. He found the lost keys in the boot of his car.

3. The manager boot James yesterday.

A) Only 2

B) Only 1 and 2

C) Only 1 and 3

D) Only 2 and 3

E) All 1, 2 and 3

Question 25: In the given question, a word has been given and there are three ways in which
the word has been used, in similar or different forms. You need to see which of the sentences
have correctly used the highlighted word, and mark that as your answer.
Bat

1. A flock of bat flew in through the open window.

2. The sportsman happily signed his bat for the young fan.

3. She did not bat an eyelid when she was told that she had exhausted all her savings.

A) Only 3

B) Only 1 and 2

C) Only 1 and 3

D) Only 2 and 3

E) All 1, 2 and 3

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Question 26: In the question below, a sentence is given with four words highlighted in bold. One
of these four words may either be wrongly spelled in the sentence. Find out the word, which is
wrongly spelled. If all the words are correctly spelled, mark (e) as your answer.
Obviously he can't make any promises but I am confident that he will look at the arguements
carefully.

A) obviously

B) promises

C) confident

D) arguements

E) All are correct

Question 27: In the question below, a sentence is given with four words highlighted in bold. One
of these four words may either be wrongly spelled in the sentence. Find out the word, which is
wrongly spelled. If all the words are correctly spelled, mark (e) as your answer.
The air was stale and the dusty atmosphere was enough to make all of them hesitent to
breathe freely.

A) stale

B) atmosphere

C) hesitent

D) freely

E) All are correct

Question 28: In the question below, a sentence is given with four words highlighted in bold. One
of these four words may either be wrongly spelled in the sentence. Find out the word, which is
wrongly spelled. If all the words are correctly spelled, mark (e) as your answer.
To most people, giraffes are merely adorible, long-necked animals that rank near the top of a
zoo visit.

A) merely

B) adorible

C) rank

D) visit

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 RBI Assistant Previous Year Paper with Solutions
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E) All are correct

Question 29: In the question below, a sentence is given with four words highlighted in bold. One
of these four words may either be wrongly spelled in the sentence. Find out the word, which is
wrongly spelled. If all the words are correctly spelled, mark (e) as your answer.
Blood transfusions are used for various medical conditions to replace lost componants of the
blood.

A) various

B) conditions

C) replace

D) componants

E) All are correct

Question 30: In the question below, a sentence is given with four words highlighted in bold. One
of these four words may either be wrongly spelled in the sentence. Find out the word, which is
wrongly spelled. If all the words are correctly spelled, mark (e) as your answer.
Austria was keen to recover territory, so it invaded France's client states in Eastern Europe.

A) keen

B) recover

C) territory

D) invaded

E) All are correct

ANSWER KEYS and SOLUTIONS:

1) - C) 2) - B) 3) - A) 4) - C) 5) - C) 6) - B)
7) - B) 8) - D) 9) - D) 10) - D) 11) - E) 12) - B)
13) - A) 14) - D) 15) - A) 16) - D) 17) - A) 18) - E)
19) - D) 20) - B) 21) - C) 22) - D) 23) - E) 24) - A)
25) - D) 26) - D) 27) - C) 28) - B) 29) - D) 30) - E)

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 RBI Assistant Previous Year Paper with Solutions
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Solution 1: C)

(c) is the correct answer. Refer to the lines- “The term ‘Biofuel’ refers to a liquid or gaseous fuels for
the transport sector that are predominantly produced from biomass.” It implies that biofuel is a
liquid or gaseous fuel which is produced from biomass. Thus, (c) is true. (a) is untrue as biofuel is
not a petroleum fuel. (b) is untrue as it is out of context, (d) is untrue as it is not generated from
industrial waste. (d) is untrue as biofuel is not a mixture of petrol and diesel.

Solution 2: B)

(b) is the correct answer. Refer to the lines- “The biomass resource base is composed of a wide
variety of forestry and agricultural resources, industry residues and municipal solid and urban wood
residues.” It implies that biomass resource base is composed of the following: forestry and
agricultural resources, industry residues and urban woods. Thus, 2, 3 and 4 are true. 1 is untrue
as only solid municipal residues contribute to the biomass resource base.

Solution 3: A)

(a) is the correct answer. Refer to the lines- “..algae production has great promise because algae
generate higher energy yields and require much less space to grow than conventional feedstocks. Also,
algae would not compete with food crops for land and could be grown with minimal inputs using a
variety of methods.” It implies that algae production has great promise because it generates
higher yields, requires much less space to grow than conventional feedstock and also does not
compete with other food crops for land. This makes 1 true and 2 and 3 false.

Solution 4: C)

(c) is the correct answer. As per the passage, fuels that can be produced from biomass resources
are liquid fuels such as ethanol, methanol, biodiesel, Fischer-Tropsch diesel, and gaseous fuels
such as hydrogen and methane. Thus, diesel cannot be produced from biomass. This makes (1)
true.

Solution 5: C)

(c) is the correct answer. As per the passage, the first-generation liquid biofuels are made from
sugar, starch, vegetable oils or animal fats using conventional technology. The second-
generation technologies use a wider range of biomass resources – agriculture, forestry and
waste materials. Third-generation biofuels may include the production of bio-based hydrogen
for use in fuel cell vehicles. This makes 1 and 2 false and 3 true.

Solution 6: B)

(b) is the correct answer. Refer to the lines- A variety of regionally significant crops such as cotton,
sugarcane, rice and orchards can also be a source of crop residue. It implies that wheat cannot be
used as crop residue. Thus, 1 and 2 are correct.

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 RBI Assistant Previous Year Paper with Solutions
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Solution 7: B)

(b) is the correct answer. PRODUCED means to manufacture something. PROCESSED is the
closest in the meaning of it. Surrounded- Encircled, Accessed- Acquired, Disturbed- Interrupted,
Infused- Pervade.

Solution 8: D)

(d) is the correct answer. SIGNIFICANT means ‘important’. Unimportant is the antonym of it.

Intent- Aim, Event- Occurrence, Adamant- Inflexible, Crucial- Vital

Solution 9: D)

In (d), replace the adverb SERIOUSLY with the adjective SERIOUS, as we need an adjective to
modify the noun ISSUE. Thus, (d) is the right answer.

Solution 10: D)

In (d), replace the adverb THERE with the possessive pronoun THEIR, as we need the possessive
pronoun here since the sentence talks about the limits of the rivers and freshwater sources.
Thus, D is the right answer.

Solution 11: E)

The sentence is grammatically and meaningfully correct, and contains no error. Thus, (e) is the
right answer.

Solution 12: B)

In (b), replace MADE with MAKE as the infinitive construction TO + VERB will always take the base
form of the verb. Thus, (b) is the right answer.

Solution 13: A)

In (a), replace WONDERED with WONDER as the modal verb MIGHT will take the base form of the
main verb that follows it. Thus, (a) is the right answer.

Solution 14: D)

(d) is the right answer. We need the past participle form of the verb as the present perfect tense
construction HAS + VERB always takes the past participle form of the verb. The sentence seeks to
convey that the Supreme Court has put off the trial in order to allow both parties to prepare.
POSTPONED fits contextually. It means to schedule an event for a later time than initially
planned.

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TESTED- take measures to check the quality, performance of something

CALCULATED- to estimate the amount of something

DETERMINED- to ascertain or establish exactly by research or calculation.

Solution 15: A)

(a) is the right answer. We need a noun to be modified by the adjective NATIONWIDE. The
sentence seeks to convey that the Prime Minister gave a speech to the people of his country
after its capital was attacked by terrorists. ADDRESS(a formal speech delivered to an audience)
fits contextually.

FAILURE- lack of success.

TOUR- a journey for pleasure in which several different places are visited

CAMPAIGN- an organized course of action to achieve a goal

Solution 16: D)

(d) is the right answer. We need an adjective to modify the noun phrase TOURIST DESTINATION.
The sentence seeks to convey that Brussels is a beautiful city. We need an adjective that carries a
negative meaning to fit in the blank as the sentence states that Brussels cannot be described by
that word. MUNDANE means dull; boring.

AGILE- able to move quickly and easily

ESTEEM- respect and admiration

RESPECTABLE- regarded by society to be good, proper, or correct

Solution 17: A)

We need a noun here to form the object of the verb HAD. The sentence tells us how he had
issues refusing the invitations and visitors, which left less time for work and his students.
DIFFICULTY will fit here. Thus, (a) is the right answer.

TROUBLED is a verb. Shortcoming - weakness; disadvantage. Complaint - grievance. Ailment -

disease.

Solution 18: E)

(e) is the correct answer. The correct sequence is ABCD. A and B together introduces the subject
-EXPONENTIAL RISE. C follows B by further adding what witnessed the exponential rise: Diet and

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lifestyle related diseases. D concludes it by stating that the problem is related to a particular
country.

Solution 19: D)

(d) is the correct answer. The correct sequence is - ADCB. A begins the sentence by introducing
the subject- PREDICTION OF WEATHER EXPERTS. D follows A as it defines the region- the
Himalayan region. C follows D as it states the prediction - more snow in the region. B concludes
by stating the prediction is for coming days.

Solution 20: B)

(b) is the correct answer. The correct sequence is - ADBC. A begins the sentence by introducing
the subject- THE STATE. D follows A as it talks about the objective of the state- enhance the
dining experience. B and C form a pair as they talk about how the state will enhance its dining
experience by displaying hygiene ratings on the restaurant’s doors.

Solution 21: C)

(c) is the correct answer. The correct sequence is-CABD. C comes first as it introduces the
subject- THE EDUCATION OUTREACH. A further adds to C by stating that education is unable to
recognise certain things. B and D form a pair as they talk about the things that education fails to
recognise- qualification of teachers and their understanding of child psychology.

Solution 22: D)

To BOW means to bend the head or the upper part of the body as a sign of respect. 2 uses the
word to say that we must all bow before the queen. A BOW is a weapon used for shooting
arrows. 3 uses the word to convey that the hunter carried a bow and seven arrows. Thus, (d) is
the right answer.

1 is incorrect as it confuses BOW with BOUGH (branch).

Solution 23: E)

MINE is the possessive form of the pronoun ME. 1 uses the word to convey that the blue bike
does not belong to the speaker. To MINE means to excavate. 2 uses the word to convey that the
government has decided to mine the southern part of the plateau. A MINE can also be used as a
noun to refer to a pit where excavation happens. 3 uses the word in to convey that he works at a
site where gold is dug out. Thus, (e) is the right answer.

Solution 24: A)

BOOT refers to the trunk of a car. 2 uses the word to say that he found the lost keys in the trunk
of his car. Thus, (a) is the right answer.

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In 1, we need to replace the singular BOOT with the plural BOOTS as the word PAIR refers to two
boots. In 3, we need to replace the base form verb BOOT (to fire or dismiss) with its past form
BOOTED as the sentence talks about an event that happened yesterday.

Solution 25: D)

A BAT is an implement used to hit balls in games. 2 uses the word to convey that the sportsman
happily signed the bat for a young fan. To BAT AN EYELID means to show an emotional reaction.
3 uses the word to convey that she didn’t show any reaction at being told that she had
exhausted all her savings. Thus, (d) is the right answer.

In 1, we need to replace the singular BAT with the plural BATS as the word FLOCK suggests that
there were many bats.

Solution 26: D)

The sentence tells us it is obvious (evident) that he can’t make any promises (vows) but the
author is confident (certain) that he will look at the statements carefully. D is incorrectly spelled.
The correct spelling of the word is ARGUMENTS. Thus, (d) is the right answer.

Solution 27: C)

The sentence tells us the air was stale (not fresh) and the dusty atmosphere (air) was enough to
make all of them uneasy to breathe freely (openly). C is incorrectly spelled. The correct spelling
of the word is HESITANT. Thus, (c) is the right answer.

Solution 28: B)

The sentence tells us how to most people, giraffes are merely (simply) appealing animals that
rank (are at the top of) near the top of a zoo visit (tour). B is incorrectly spelled. The correct
spelling of the word is ADORABLE. Thus, (b) is the right answer.

Solution 29: D)

The sentence tells us how blood transfusions are used for various (many) medical conditions
(illnesses) to replace (supplant) lost parts of the blood. D is incorrectly spelled. The correct
spelling of the word is COMPONENTS. Thus, (d) is the right answer.

Solution 30: E)

The sentence tells us how Austria was keen (eager) to recover (conquer) territory (regions), so it
invaded (entered without permission) France’s client states. All the word are correctly spelled.
Thus, (e) is the right answer.

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RBI Assistant Previous Year Paper – Reasoning Section

Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below.

Seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F and G have exam on different days of a week from Monday to
Sunday. Each of them likes different colours among Black, Blue, Green, Pink, Red, Yellow and
White.

D has exam before G’s exam. G does not have exam on Wednesday. C has exam just after F, who
likes Yellow colour. A has exam two days before the one, who likes White colour. One person has
exam between A’s and B’s exam. E likes Black colour and has exam on Sunday. B likes Red
colour. Neither D nor A likes Pink colour.

Question 1: Who has exam on Monday?

A) D

B) B

C) F

D) E

E) A

Question 2: Who among the following likes Green colour?

A) D

B) A

C) F

D) E

E) Cannot be determined

Question 3: How many persons have exams after F’s exam?

A) Two

B) One
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C) Four

D) Three

E) Five

Question 4: C likes ______ colour.

A) Yellow

B) Red

C) White

D) Pink

E) Blue

Question 5: How many persons have exam between D’s and G’s exam?
A) Three

B) Four

C) Two

D) One

E) Five

Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below.

D>ES@B#%QA^&=P?RU<T+F!

Question 6: How many such symbols are there which are immediately followed and
immediately preceded by a consonant in the given arrangement?
A) Four

B) Three

C) Two

D) Five

E) None of the above

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Question 7: If all the consonants are dropped from the arrangement then which of the
following, will be 2nd element to the right of the 6th element from the left end of the given
arrangement?
A) A

B) ^

C) =

D) &

E) None of the above

Question 8: In the given arrangement, how many such consonants are there which are
immediately followed by vowel?
A) Three

B) One

C) Zero

D) Two

E) None of the above

Question 9: In the given arrangement, how many such letters are there which are immediately
followed by a symbol and immediately preceded by a letter?
A) Four

B) One

C) Three

D) Two

E) None of the above

Question 10: How many symbols are there between ‘B’ and ‘T’ in the given arrangement?
A) Six

B) Five

C) Eight

D) Four

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E) None of the above

Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below:

Ten persons namely, A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I and J live on 10 different flats of a 5 storey building,

where the bottommost floor is 1 and the floor above is 2 and so on. There are 2 types of flats on
each floor, flat P and flat Q such that flat P is in the west of flat Q. Flat P of floor 1 is immediately
below of flat P of floor 2, which is immediately below of flat P of floor 3 and so on, similarly for
flat Q.

B and F live in the same type of flat. Two floors are there between the floors of B and F. F lives
exactly in the west of G. B lives on the even numbered floor. I's floor is immediately above G's
floor. I and E live in the same type of flat. There is one floor between the floors of I and E. D's
floor is just below H's floor. J lives above A. C doesn’t live in flat Q. H and J don't live in same type
of flat.

Question 11: How many persons live below A (considering both types of flats)?
A) 3

B) 2

C) 6

D) Cannot be determined

E) 4

Question 12: ____ lives just above C.

A) I

B) E

C) No-one

D) D

E) J

Question 13: ____ lives in flat P of floor 2.

A) B

B) D

C) H

D) F

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E) None of the above

Question 14: Who among the following lives to the west of J (on the same floor)?
A) C

B) B

C) D

D) Cannot be determined

E) None of the above

Question 15: ____ lives on the bottommost floor.

A) H, A

B) C, E

C) D, I

D) F, G

E) None of the above

Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below.

There are seven members A, K, R, S, T, U and V in a family, which consists of three generations.
There is only one married couple in the family. U is the only daughter of R, who is the daughter
of K.

K is the sister-in-law of V, who is not married. S is the daughter of A, who has one brother. R has
two children.

Question 16: How is T related to S?

A) Son

B) Niece

C) Nephew

D) Brother

E) None of the above

Question 17: How is R related to V?

A) Sister

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B) Daughter

C) Can’t be determined

D) Niece

E) None of the above

Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below.

Eight persons are sitting at different places such that D is 6m north of A, who is 8m west of C. E
is 12m east of B, who is 6m south of G. H is 4m south of C. F is 10m north of E. F is exactly
between A and C.

Question 18: What is the shortest distance between G and H?

A) 15m

B) 16m

C) 18m

D) 20m

E) None of the above

Question 19: What is the direction of C with respect to G?

A) South west

B) North east

C) North west

D) East

E) None of the above

Question 20: If all the letters of the word ‘DENLARUSSO’ are replaced by 3rd succeeding letter in
the alphabetical series then what is the difference between the number of consonants and
vowels?
A) More than seven

B) Six

C) Seven

D) Five

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E) None of these

Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below:

Nine persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I sit around a circular table. No two persons with names
starting with consecutive alphabets are immediate neighbors of each other. Persons whose
names start with vowel face towards the centre while others face outside.

C sits 3rd to the left of H.B sits 3rd to the right of G.A sits 2nd to the right of I.F doesn’t sit adjacent
to B.D doesn’t sit 2nd to the right of E.Neither E nor D sits adjacent to G or H.

Question 21: Who sits to the immediate left of G?

A) I

B) A

C) B

D) F

E) None of the above

Question 22: Who sits 4th to the right of A?

A) B

B) C

C) E

D) G

E) None of the above

Question 23: What is the position of D with respect to F?

A) 2nd to the left

B) 3rd to the right

C) 4th to the right

D) 2nd to the right

E) None of the above

Question 24: How many persons sit between G and A, if counted from the right of A?
A) Two

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B) Five

C) Four

D) Six

E) None of the above

Question 25: __ sits to the immediate right of the person, who sits 4th to the left of H.
A) G

B) C

C) D

D) E

E) None of the above

Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below.

In a certain language,

I. ‘in time base thing demand’ is coded as ‘koe, poe, moe, goe, noe’

II. ‘beside right comment silence’ is coded as ‘yoe, coe, boe, xoe’

III. ‘demand head in right’ is coded as ‘uoe, poe, moe, xoe’

IV. ‘head demand comment base’ is coded as ‘moe, yoe, uoe, noe’

Question 26: What is the code of “thing”?

A) boe

B) coe

C) poe

D) yoe

E) Cannot be determined

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Question 27: Which of the following words is coded as ‘xoe’?

A) in

B) time

C) demand

D) right

E) silence

Question 28: What is the code of “base head”?

A) moe, uoe

B) noe, uoe

C) goe, koe

D) coe, boe

E) None of the above

Question 29: What is the code of “in”?

A) poe

B) noe

C) moe

D) yoe

E) None of the above

Question 30: How many such numerals are there in the number ‘4573249145’ which will remain
at the same position when arranged in ascending order from right to left?
A) None

B) Three

C) One

D) Two

E) Four

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Question 31: In the question below there are three statements followed by two conclusions I
and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance
from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows
from the three statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements:

Only port are coast

Some port are boat

All boat are drain

Conclusions:

I. All coast are boat is a possibility

II. Some drain are coast

A) Only conclusion I follows

B) Both the conclusions I and II follow

C) Neither conclusion I nor II follow

D) Only conclusion II follows

E) Either conclusion I or II follows

Question 32: In the question below there are three statements followed by two conclusions I
and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance
from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows
from the three statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements:

Some father is uncle

Every uncle is sister

Only a few sister is brother

Conclusions:

I. A few uncle can be brother

II. All father is sister

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A) Both conclusion I and conclusion II follow

B) Only conclusion I follows

C) Only conclusion II follows

D) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows

E) None of the above

Question 33: In the question, assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the
conclusion (s) among given three conclusions is /are definitely true and then give your answer
accordingly.
Statements: T < N = W; U < T ≤ H; K < W ≤ A

Conclusions:

I. U < A

II. H > K

III. N > H

A) Only conclusion II is true.

B) Only conclusions II and III are true.

C) Only conclusion I is true.

D) Only conclusions I and II are true.

E) All conclusions I, II and III are false.

Question 34: In the question, assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the
conclusion (s) among given three conclusions is /are definitely true and then give your answer
accordingly.
Statements: L > K ≥ D; C < K; S < M ≥ L

Conclusions:

I. L > C

II. K < M

III. S < C

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A) Only conclusion I is true

B) Only conclusions I and II are true

C) Only conclusion III is true

D) All conclusions I, II and III are true

E) Only conclusions II and III are true

Question 35: In the question, assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the
conclusion (s) among given three conclusions is /are definitely true and then give your answer
accordingly.
Statements: V ≥ R > D; K > C ≥ Z; D < C

Conclusions:

I. V > C

II. Z < R

III. K > D

A) All conclusions I, II and III are true

B) Only conclusions II and III are true

C) Only conclusions I and II are true

D) Only conclusion I is true

E) Only conclusion III is true

निर्दे श: दिए गए जानकारी के आधार पर सवाल ों के उत्तर िें |

सात व्यक्ति A, B, C, D, E, F और G की परीक्षा एक सप्ताह में Monday से Sunday तक दिन्न दिन्न दिन क है |इनमे से
प्रत्येक क अलग-अलग रों ग पसोंि है - Black, Blue, Green, Pink, Red, Yellow और White|

D की परीक्षा G की परीक्षा से पहले है |G की परीक्षा Wednesday क नहीों है |C की परीक्षा F के तत्काल बाि है और F

क Yellow रों ग पसोंि है |A की परीक्षा उस व्यक्ति से ि दिन पहले है दजसे White रों ग पसोंि है |एक व्यक्ति की परीक्षा A
और B की परीक्षा के बीच है |E क Black पसोंि है और उसी परीक्षा Sunday क है |B क Red पसोंि है |ना ही D ना ही
A क Pink पसोंि है |

प्रश्न 1: इस व्यक्ति की परीक्षा Monday क है ?

A) D

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B) B

C) F

D) E

E) A

प्रश्न 2: दनम्नदलक्तित में से दकसे Green रों ग पसोंि है ?

A) D

B) A

C) F

D) E

E) दनधाा ररत नहीों दकया जा सकता

प्रश्न 3: F की परीक्षा के बाि दकतने व्यक्तिय ों की परीक्षा है ?

A) ि

B) एक

C) चार

D) तीन

E) पाों च

प्रश्न 4: C क ______ रों ग पसोंि है |

A) Yellow

B) Red

C) White

D) Pink

E) Blue

प्रश्न 5: D और G की परीक्षा के बीच दकतने व्यक्तिय ों की परीक्षा है ?

A) तीन

B) चार

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C) ि

D) एक

E) पाों च

निर्दे श: दिए गए जानकारी के आधार पर सवाल ों के उत्तर िें |

D>ES@B#%QA^&=P?RU<T+F!

प्रश्न 6: दिए गए व्यवस्था में ऐसे दकतने प्रदतक है दजनके तत्काल बाि और तत्काल पहले एक consonant है ?
A) चार

B) तीन

C) ि

D) पाों च

E) इनमे से क ई नहीों

प्रश्न 7: यदि व्यवस्था से सिी consonant क हटा दिया जाता है त दिए गए व्यवस्था के बाएों छ र से छठे तत्व के िाएँ से
िू सरा तत्व कौन सा है ?
A) A

B) ^

C) =

D) &

E) इनमे से क ई नहीों

प्रश्न 8: दिए गए व्यवस्था में, ऐसे दकतने consonant है दजनके तत्काल बाि एक vowel है ?
A) तीन

B) एक

C) शून्य

D) ि

E) इनमे से क ई नहीों

प्रश्न 9: दिए गए व्यवस्था में, ऐसे दकतने अक्षर है दजनके तत्काल बाि एक प्रदतक और तत्काल पहले एक अक्षर है ?
A) चार

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B) एक

C) तीन

D) ि

E) इनमे से क ई नहीों

प्रश्न 10: दिए गए व्यवस्था में 'B' और 'T' के बीच दकतने प्रदतक है ?
A) छह

B) पाों च

C) आठ

D) चार

E) इनमे से क ई नहीों

निर्दे श: दिए गए जानकारी के आधार पर सवाल ों के उत्तर िें |

िस व्यक्ति A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I और J एक 5-तलीय ईमारत के 10 दवदिन्न flats में रहते हैं जहाँ सबसे दनचला तल
क 1, इसके ऊपर के तल क 2 और इसी तरह अन्य तल ों क िी अोंदकत दकया गया है |प्रत्येक तल पर 2 प्रकार के flats
है , flat P और flat Q जहाँ flat P flat Q के पदिम में है |तल 1 का flat P तल 2 के flat P से तत्काल नीचे है और तल 2
का flat P तल 3 के flat P से तत्काल नीचे है और इसी तरह, समान रूप से यह flat Q के दलए िी लागू ह ता है |

B और F समान प्रकार के flat में रहते है |B और F के तल के बीच ि तल है |F G के ठीक पदिम में रहता है |B एक सम
सोंख्या से अोंदकत तल पर रहता है |I का तल G के तल से तत्काल ऊपर है |I और E समान प्रकार के flat में रहते है |I और
E के तल के बीच एक तल है |D का तल H के तल से तत्काल नीचे है |J A के ऊपर रहता है |C flat Q में नहीों रहता है |H
और J समान प्रकार के flat में नहीों रहते है |

प्रश्न 11: A के नीचे दकतने व्यक्ति रहते हैं (ि न ों प्रकार के flats का ध्यान रिते हुए)?
A) 3

B) 2

C) 6

D) दनधाा ररत नहीों दकया जा सकता

E) 4

प्रश्न 12: _____ C के तत्काल ऊपर रहता है |

A) I

B) E

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C) क ई िी नहीों

D) D

E) J

प्रश्न 13: ______ तल 2 के flat P में रहता है |

A) B

B) D

C) H

D) F

E) इनमे से क ई नहीों

प्रश्न 14: दनम्नदलक्तित में से कौन J के पदिम में रहता है (समान तल में)?
A) C

B) B

C) D

D) दनधाा ररत नहीों दकया जा सकता

E) इनमे से क ई नहीों

प्रश्न 15: _______ सबसे दनचले तल पर रहता है |

A) H, A

B) C, E

C) D, I

D) F, G

E) इनमे से क ई नहीों

निर्दे श: दिए गए जानकारी के आधार पर सवाल ों के उत्तर िें |

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तीन पीढ़ी के एक पररवार में सात सिस्य हैं - A, K, R, S, T, U और V|पररवार में केवल एक दववादहत युगल है |U R की
इकलौती पुत्री है और R K की पुत्री है |

K V की साली/ननि/िािी है और V दववादहत नहीों है |S A की पुत्री है और A का एक िाई है |R के ि बच्चे हैं |

प्रश्न 16: T S से कैसे सम्बोंदधत है ?

A) पुत्र

B) ितीजी/िाों जी

C) ितीजा/िाों जा

D) िाई

E) इनमे से क ई नहीों

प्रश्न 17: R V से कैसे सम्बोंदधत है ?

A) बहन

B) पुत्री

C) दनधाा ररत नहीों दकया जा सकता

D) ितीजी/िाों जी

E) इनमे से क ई नहीों

निर्दे श: दिए गए जानकारी के आधार पर सवाल ों के उत्तर िें |

आठ व्यक्ति दिन्न दिन्न स्थान पर इस तरह बैठे है दक D A के 6m उत्तर में बैठा है और A C के 8m पदिम में बैठा है |E B
के 12m पूवा में बैठा है और B G के 6m िदक्षण में बैठा है |H C के 4m िदक्षण में बैठा है |F E के 10 m उत्तर में है |F A
और C के ठीक मध्य में बैठा है |

प्रश्न 18: G और H के बीच की न्यूनतम िु री दकतनी है ?

A) 15m

B) 16m

C) 18m

D) 20m

E) इनमे से क ई नहीों

प्रश्न 19: G के सन्दिा में C दकस दिशा में है ?

A) िदक्षण पदिम

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B) उत्तर पूवा

C) उत्तर पदिम

D) पूवा

E) इनमे से क ई नहीों

प्रश्न 20: यदि शब्द ‘DENLARUSSO’ के सिी अक्षर ों क वणामाला श्रोंिला में तीसरे अगले अक्षर से प्रदतस्थादपत दकया जाता
है त consonants और vowels की सोंख्या के बीच का अोंतर दकतना है ?
A) सात से अदधक

B) छह

C) सात

D) पाों च

E) इनमे से क ई नहीों

निर्दे श: दिए गए जानकारी के आधार पर सवाल ों के उत्तर िें |

नौ व्यक्ति A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H और I एक वरत्ताकार मेज़ पर बैठे हैं |वैसे ि व्यक्ति एक िु सरे के तत्काल पड़ सी नहीों है
दजनके नाम लगातार अक्षर ों से शुरू ह ते हैं |वह व्यक्ति केंद्र का सामना करते हैं दजनके नाम vowels से शुरू ह ते हैं
जबदक शेष व्यक्ति केंद्र से बाहर का सामना करते हैं |

C H के बाएों से तीसरे स्थान पर बैठा है |B G के िाएँ से तीसरे स्थान पर बैठा है |A I के िाएँ से िु सरे स्थान पर बैठा है |F B
के बगल में नहीों बैठा है |D E के िाएँ से िु सरे स्थान पर नहीों बैठा है |ना ही E ना ही D G या H के बगल में बैठे हैं |

प्रश्न 21: G के तत्काल बाएों ओर कौन बैठा है ?

A) I

B) A

C) B

D) F

E) इनमे से क ई नहीों

प्रश्न 22: A के िाएँ से चौथे स्थान पर कौन बैठा है ?

A) B

B) C

C) E

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D) G

E) इनमे से क ई नहीों

प्रश्न 23: F के सन्दिा में D का क्या स्थान है ?

A) बाएों से िू सरा

B) िाएँ से तीसरा

C) िाएँ से चौथा

D) िाएँ से िू सरा

E) इनमे से क ई नहीों

प्रश्न 24: A के िाएँ ओर से गणना करने पर, G और A के बीच दकतने व्यक्ति बैठे हैं ?
A) ि

B) पाों च

C) चार

D) छह

E) इनमे से क ई नहीों

प्रश्न 25: ______ उस व्यक्ति के तत्काल िाएँ ओर बैठा है , ज H के बाएों से चौथे स्थान पर बैठा है |
A) G

B) C

C) D

D) E

E) इनमे से क ई नहीों

निर्दे श: नीचे िी गई जानकारी के आधार पर प्रश् ों के उत्तर िें ।

एक दनदित िाषा में,

I. ‘in time base thing demand’ का क ड है ‘koe, poe, moe, goe, noe’

II. ‘beside right comment silence’ का क ड है ‘yoe, coe, boe, xoe’

III. ‘demand head in right’ का क ड है ‘uoe, poe, moe, xoe’

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IV. ‘head demand comment base’ का क ड है ‘moe, yoe, uoe, noe’

प्रश्न 26: “thing” का क ड क्या है ?

A) boe

B) coe

C) poe

D) yoe

E) दनधाा ररत नहीों दकया जा सकता

प्रश्न 27: दनम्नदलक्तित में से कौन से शब्द क 'xoe' के रूप में क दडत दकया गया है ?
A) in

B) time

C) demand

D) right

E) silence

प्रश्न 28: “base head” का क ड क्या है ?

A) moe, uoe

B) noe, uoe

C) goe, koe

D) coe, boe

E) इनमें से क ई नहीों

प्रश्न 29: “in” का क ड क्या है ?

A) poe

B) noe

C) moe

D) yoe

E) इनमें से क ई नहीों

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प्रश्न 30: यदि सोंख्या ‘4573249145’ में सिी अोंक क िाएँ से बाएों आर ही क्रम में व्यवक्तस्थत दकया जाता है त दकतने
अोंक ों के स्थान में क ई बिलाव नहीों आएगा?
A) एक िी नहीों

B) तीन

C) एक

D) ि

E) चार

प्रश्न 31: दनम्नदलक्तित प्रश् में तीन कथन के बाि ि दनष्कषा I और II दिए गए हैं |आपक दिए गए कथन क सत्य मानना है
िले ही वह ज्ञात तथ् ों से दिन्न िी ह और दिर यह तय करना है दक दिए गए दनष्कषों में से कौन सा दनष्कषा इन कथन ों का
तकासोंगत अनुसरण करता है |
कथि:

केवल port coast है

कुछ port boat है

सिी boat drain है

निष्कर्ष:

I. सिी coast के boat ह ने की सोंिावना है

II. कुछ drain coast है

A) केवल दनष्कषा I अनुसरण करता है |

B) ि न ों दनष्कषा I और II अनुसरण करता है |

C) ना ही दनष्कषा I ना ही II अनुसरण करता है |

D) केवल दनष्कषा II अनुसरण करता है |

E) या दनष्कषा I या II अनुसरण करता है |

प्रश्न 32: दनम्नदलक्तित प्रश् में तीन कथन के बाि ि दनष्कषा I और II दिए गए हैं |आपक दिए गए कथन ों क सत्य मानना है
िले ही वह ज्ञात तथ् ों से दिन्न िी ह और दिर यह तय करना है दक दिए गए दनष्कषों में से कौन सा दनष्कषा इन कथन ों का
तकासोंगत अनुसरण करता है |
कथि:

कुछ father uncle है

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प्रत्येक uncle sister है

केवल कुछ sister brother है

निष्कर्ष:

I. कुछ uncle brother ह सकते है

II. सिी father sister है

A) ि न ों दनष्कषा I और दनष्कषा II अनुसरण करता है |

B) केवल दनष्कषा I अनुसरण करता है |

C) केवल दनष्कषा II अनुसरण करता है |

D) ना ही दनष्कषा I ना ही दनष्कषा II अनुसरण करता है |

E) इनमे से क ई नहीों

प्रश्न 33: दनम्नदलक्तित प्रश् में, दिए गए कथन ों क सत्य मानकर, यह तय करना है दक दिए गए तीन दनष्कषों में से कौन सा
दनष्कषा दनदित रूप से सत्य है और उसी अनुसार अपना उत्तर िें |
कथि: T < N = W; U < T ≤ H; K < W ≤ A

निष्कर्ष:

I. U < A

II. H > K

III. N > H

A) केवल दनष्कषा II सत्य है |

B) केवल दनष्कषा II और III सत्य है |

C) केवल दनष्कषा I सत्य है |

D) केवल दनष्कषा I और II सत्य है |

E) सिी दनष्कषा I, II और III गलत है |

प्रश्न 34: दनम्नदलक्तित प्रश् में, दिए गए कथन क सत्य मानकर, यह तय करना है दक दिए गए तीन दनष्कषों में से कौन सा
दनष्कषा दनदित रूप से सत्य है और उसी अनुसार अपना उत्तर िें |
कथि: L > K ≥ D; C < K; S < M ≥ L

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निष्कर्ष:

I. L > C

II. K < M

III. S < C

A) केवल दनष्कषा I सत्य है

B) केवल दनष्कषा I और II सत्य है

C) केवल दनष्कषा III सत्य है

D) सिी दनष्कषा I, II और III सत्य है

E) केवल दनष्कषा II और III सत्य है

प्रश्न 35: दनम्नदलक्तित प्रश् में, दिए गए कथन क सत्य मानकर, यह तय करना है दक दिए गए तीन दनष्कषों में से कौन सा
दनष्कषा दनदित रूप से सत्य है और उसी अनुसार अपना उत्तर िें |
कथि: V ≥ R > D; K > C ≥ Z; D < C

निष्कर्ष:

I. V > C

II. Z < R

III. K > D

A) सिी दनष्कषा I, II और III सत्य है |

B) केवल दनष्कषा II और III सत्य है

C) केवल दनष्कषा I और II सत्य है

D) केवल दनष्कषा I सत्य है

E) केवल दनष्कषा III सत्य है

ANSWER KEYS and SOLUTIONS:

1) - B) 2) - E) 3) - D) 4) - C) 5) - A) 6) - B)
7) - D) 8) - D) 9) - C) 10) - E) 11) - E) 12) - C)
13) - B) 14) - A) 15) - D) 16) - C) 17) - D) 18) - B)
19) - B) 20) - B) 21) - A) 22) - C) 23) - D) 24) - B)

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25) - B) 26) - E) 27) - D) 28) - B) 29) - A) 30) - C)
31) - C) 32) - B) 33) - C) 34) - B) 35) - E)
Solution 1: B)

Starting point: Here, after using all the direct information we can use statements of A and B in
order to make two cases:

Clues: A has exam two days before the one, who likes White colour. One person has exam
between A’s and B’s exam. E likes Black colour and has exam on Sun day. B likes Red colour.

Inference: So, B must have exam on Tuesday or Monday.

Days Case 1 Case 2

Monday B Red
Tuesday B Red
Wednesday A
Thursday A
Friday White
Saturday White
Sunday E Black E Black
Clues: C has exam just after F, who likes Yellow colour. D has exam before G’s exam. G does not
have exam on Wednesday. Neither D nor A likes Pink colour.

Inference: So, case 1 must be rejected as G does not have exam on Wednesday. D and A like
Green and Blue colour.

Days Person Colour

Monday B Red
Tuesday D Green/Blue
Wednesday A Blue/Green
Thursday F Yellow
Friday C White
Saturday G Pink
Sunday E Black
B has exam on Monday.

Hence, option b.

Solution 2: E)

Either D or A likes Green colour.

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Hence, option e.

Solution 3: D)

Three persons have exams after F’s exam.

Hence, option d.

Solution 4: C)

C likes White colour.

Hence, option c.

Solution 5: A)

Three persons have exam between D’s and C’s exam.

Hence, option a.

Solution 6: B)

Given series,

D>ES@B#%QA^&=P?RU<T+F!

There are three such symbols which are immediately followed and immediately preceded by a
consonant in the given arrangement.

Hence, option b.

Solution 7: D)

Given series,

D> E S @ B # % Q A ^ & = P ? R U < T + F !

If all the consonants are dropped from the arrangement, then the arrangement would be like

> E @ # % A ^ &= ? U <+ !

So the 2nd element to the right of the 6th element from the left end of the given arrangement is
&.

Hence, option d.

Solution 8: D)

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Given series,

D> E S @ B # % Q A ^ & = P ?R U< T + F !

There are two such consonants which are immediately followed by a vowel.

Hence, option d.

Solution 9: C)

Given series,

D>E S @ B # % Q A ^& = P ?R U < T + F !

There are three such letters which are immediately followed by a symbol and immediately
preceded by a letter.

Hence, option c.

Solution 10: E)

Given series,

D> E S @ B # % Q A ^ & = P ? R U < T + F !

There are seven symbols between ‘B’ and ‘T’ in the given arrangement.

Hence, option e.

Solution 11: E)

Starting point: Start placing B, G and F, so B live in flat P of either floor 2 or floor 4.

Clues: I lives on a floor that is immediately above the floor of G. I and E live in the same type of
flat. There is one floor between the floors of I and E.

Inference: I lives in either flat P or flat Q.

Case 1: When B lives on 2nd floor. G cannot be placed in this case, so this case is not possible.

Floors Flat P Flat Q

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5 F G
4
3
2 B
1
Clues: D's floor is just below H's floor.

Inference:

Case 2: When B lives on 4th floor.

It means that E lives on 4th floor and since I and E live in the same type of flat, I lives in Flat-Q on
2nd floor. Thus D lives in flat-P on 2nd floor.

Floors Flat P Flat Q

5
4 B E
3
2 D I
1 F G
Clues: J lives above A. C doesn’t live in flat Q. H and J don't live in same type of flat.

Inference: So, J must live in flat Q which implies that H lives in flat P and thus C lives in flat P and
A lives in Flat Q on 3rd floor.

The final arrangement is as follows:

Floors Flat P Flat Q

5 C J
4 B E
3 H A
2 D I
1 F G
4 persons live below A.

Hence, option e.

Solution 12: C)

No-one lives above C.

Hence, option c.

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Solution 13: B)

D lives in flat P of floor 2.

Hence, option b.

Solution 14: A)

C lives to the west of J.

Hence, option a.

Solution 15: D)

F and G live on the bottommost floor.

Hence, option d.

Solution 16: C)

Clues:

U is the only daughter of R, who is the daughter of K.

R has two children.

K is the sister-in-law of V, who is not married.

S is the daughter of A, who has one brother.

Inference:

S is the sister of R.

V is the brother of A.

T is the only son of U.

The family tree:

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T is the nephew of S.

Hence, option c.

Solution 17: D)

R is the niece of V.

Hence, option d.

Solution 18: B)

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The shortest distance between G and H is (12 + 4) = 16m

Hence, option b.

Solution 19: B)

C is to the north east of G.

Hence, option b.

Solution 20: B)

DENLARUSSO

If all the letters are replaced by 3rd succeeding letters, we get

GHQODUXVVR

Number of consonants is 8 and number of vowels is 2.

So, 8 – 2 = 6

Hence, option b.

Solution 21: A)

Starting Point: First try to place C, H, B and G so as to get only two cases.

Clues:

C sits 3rd to the left of H.

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B sits 3rd to the right of G.

Inference:

B sits either immediate right of H or immediate left of H.

Case I: B sits immediate right of H:

Case II: B sits immediate left of H:

Clues:

A sits 2nd to the right of I.

F doesn’t sit adjacent to B.

Neither E nor D sits adjacent to G or H, this is not possible in case I, so case I is rejected.

Inference:

E sits immediate right of C.

I sits immediate left of G.

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F sits immediate right of H.

A and D sits immediate left of each other.

The final seating arrangement is given below:

I sitsto the immediate left of G.

Hence, option a.

Solution 22: C)

E sits 4th to the right of A.

Hence, option c.

Solution 23: D)

D sits 2nd to the right of F.

Hence, option d.

Solution 24: B)

Five persons sit between G and A, if counted from the right of A.

Hence, option b.

Solution 25: B)

C sits to the immediate right of G, who sits 4th to the left of H.

Hence, option b.

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Solution 26: E)

From statement I, III and IV, we conclude that “demand” is coded as “moe”.

From statement I and IV, we conclude that “base” is coded as “noe”.

From statement II and IV, we conclude that “comment” is coded as “yoe”.

From statement II and III, we conclude that “right” is coded as “xoe”.

From statement I and III, we conclude that “in” is coded as “poe”.

From statement III and IV, we conclude that “head” is coded as “uoe”.

The final table is shown below:

Word in time base Thing demand beside right comment silence head
Code poe koe/goe noe goe/koe moe boe/coe xoe yoe coe/boe uoe
Either “boe” or “coe” is coded as ‘thing’.

Hence, option e.

Solution 27: D)

“right”is coded as “xoe”

Hence, option d.

Solution 28: B)

“base head” is coded as “noe, uoe”

Hence, option b.

Solution 29: A)

“in” is coded as “poe”.

Hence, option a.

Solution 30: C)

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Given number ‘4573249145’

After rearrangement we get 9755444321 so, only one such numeral which remains at the same
position i.e. 4.

Hence, option c.

Solution 31: C)

Following figures can be formed from the statements.

As, only port are coast means that nothing can be part of coast except port. So, none of the
conclusion follows.

Hence, option c.

Solution 32: B)

Following figure can be formed:

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From the figure, only conclusion I follows.

Hence, option b.

Solution 33: C)

Given statements: T < N = W; U < T ≤ H; K < W ≤ A

On combining, we get

U < T < N = W ≤ A; K < W = N > T ≤ H

Conclusions:

I. U < A: True (As U < T < N = W ≤ A, so U < A)

II. H > K: False (As K < W = N > T ≤ H, so relation between H and K can’t be determined)

III. N > H: False (As N > T ≤ H, so relation between N and H can’t be determined)

Hence, option c.

Solution 34: B)

Given statements: L > K ≥ D; C < K; S < M ≥ L

On combining, we get

S < M ≥ L > K > C; D ≤ K < L ≤ M

Conclusions:

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I. L > C: True (As L > K > C, so L > C)

II. K < M: True (As K < L ≤ M, so K < M)

III. S < C: False (As S < M ≥ L > K > C, relation between S and C can’t be determined)

Hence, option b.

Solution 35: E)

Given statements: V ≥ R > D; K > C ≥ Z; D < C

On combining, we get

V ≥ R > D < C ≥ Z; K > C > D < R

Conclusions:

I. V > C: False (As V ≥ R > D < C, relation between V and C can’t be determined)

II. Z < R: False (As R > D < C ≥ Z, relation between Z and R can’t be determined)

III. K > D: True (As K > C > D, so K > D)

Hence, option e.

RBI Assistant Previous Year Paper – Quant Section

Question 1: What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series?
81, 83, 87, 95, 111, ?

A) 139

B) 156

C) 143

D) 147

E) 136

Question 2: What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series?
24, 8, 15, ?, 12, 4

A) 5

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B) 7

C) 4

D) 9

E) 11

Question 3: What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series?
111, 109, 115, ?, 211, -509

A) 76

B) 82

C) 91

D) 105

E) None of these

Question 4: What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series?
25, 41, 73, ?, 185, 265

A) 117

B) 127

C) 133

D) 109

E) 121

Question 5: What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series?
16, 16, ?, 96, 384, 1920

A) 48

B) 32

C) 24

D) 56

E) 28

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Question 6: The difference between the downstream and upstream speeds of a boat is 12
km/hr. If the speed of the boat in still water is 14 km/hr more than that of the current, then find
the downstream speed of the boat.
A) 18 km/hr

B) 32 km/hr

C) 26 km/hr

D) 28 km/hr

E) None of these

Question 7: Ratio of present ages of Ranu and Rekha is 5:6, respectively. 5 years hence for now,
ratio of age of Ranu and Rekha will be 6:7, respectively. Find the present age of Ranu.
A) 15 years

B) 20 years

C) 25 years

D) 30 years

E) None of these

Question 8: Length of a rectangle is equal to the side of a square. If area of the square and
rectangle is 484 m2 and 330 m2, respectively then find the perimeter of the rectangle.
A) 52 metres

B) 68 metres

C) 74 metres

D) 92 metres

E) None of these

Question 9: In a resort, 30% and 20% of the total number of guests ate pizza and burger,
respectively. If 30% of the remaining number of guests which is equal to 810 ate cake, then find
total number of guests in the resort.
A) 5400

B) 6400

C) 4800

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D) 7200

E) None of these

Question 10: Jai Exp. started from Kota towards Delhi at 9 A.M. with a speed of 20 m/sec. Shakti
Exp. started from Delhi towards Kota at 2 P.M. with a speed of 108 km/hr. If they met in between
at 4 P.M., then find the distance between Kota and Delhi.
A) 720 km

B) 540 km

C) 600 km

D) 480 km

E) 800 km

Question 11: Anita and Ajay started a business by investing Rs. 24000 and Rs. 30000,
respectively. After 4 months, Vishal also joined them by investing Rs. 36000. If the annual profit
received by them is Rs. 1820 then find the profit share of Ajay.
A) Rs. 700

B) Rs. 720

C) Rs. 740

D) Rs. 660

E) Rs. 680

Question 12: 120 litres of mixture contains butter and oil in the ratio of 5:7, respectively. If 24
litres of the mixture is replaced by same quantity of butter, then find the ratio of butter and oil in
the final mixture.
A) 3:4

B) 7:5

C) 8:7

D) 11:9

E) 12:17

Question 13: A seller buys a product for Rs. 4400 and marked it 25% above the cost price and
sold it after giving a discount of 30%. Find the loss percentage incurred to the seller.
A) 10.5%

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B) 12.5%

C) 14.5%

D) 16.5%

E) None of these

Question 14: ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’ can do a piece of work in 10 days, 12 days and 15 days, respectively. If
‘A’ and ‘B’ together completed 60% of the work and remaining work will is completed by ‘C’ alone,
then find the total time taken to complete the whole work.
A) 102/11 days

B) 80/13 days

C) 70/11 days

D) 70/13 days

E) None of these

Question 15: Rs. (x + 250) when invested at 20% p.a. simple interest for 4 years gives an interest
of Rs. (0.8x + 200). Find the value of (x + 450).
A) 2100

B) 1800

C) 1200

D) 1700

E) Cannot be determined

Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below.

The given line graph shows the number of interstate buses and intrastate buses, at five different
bus stands.

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Question 16: Find the ratio of the total number of interstate buses at bus stands ‘A’ and ‘C’,
together to the number of intrastate buses at bus stand ‘E’.
A) 3:2

B) 2:1

C) 1:1

D) 5:4

E) 4:7

Question 17: Total number of buses (interstate + intrastate) at bus stand ‘C’ is how much
percent more/less than the number of interstate buses at bus stand ‘D’.
A) 75%

B) 60%

C) 80%

D) 45%

E) None of these

Question 18: If 1/3rd of interstate buses and 20% of intrastate buses, at bus stand ‘E’ operates in
night, then find the number of buses (interstate + intrastate) buses that operates in day.
A) 220

B) 180

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C) 250

D) 120

E) 300

Question 19: Find the difference between number of intrastate buses at bus stands ‘A’ and ‘B’,
together and total number of buses (interstate + intrastate) at bus stand ‘D’.
A) 100

B) 120

C) 130

D) 80

E) None of these

Question 20: The number of interstate buses at bus stand ‘F’ is 80 more than at bus stand ‘D’. If
the number of intrastate buses at bus stand ‘F’ is 25% more than the number of interstate buses
in that bus stand, then find the total number of buses (interstate + intrastate) at bus stand ‘F’.
A) 540

B) 320

C) 360

D) 450

E) 480

Question 21: What will come in the place of question mark (?) in the given expression?
1728 + 270 ÷ 6 = ? × 9

A) 108

B) 152

C) 197

D) 242

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E) 274

Question 22: What will come in the place of question mark (?) in the given expression?
750% of 360 – ? × 50 = 1050

A) 12

B) 33

C) 58

D) 76

E) 99

Question 23: What will come in the place of question mark (?) in the given expression?
2000 ÷ √625 + (77/3) × 12 = ?

A) 338

B) 348

C) 398

D) 388

E) 288

Question 24: What will come in the place of question mark (?) in the given expression?
36 of 24 ÷ 12 + (25 × 18) ÷ 45 = ?

A) 44

B) 82

C) 115

D) 146

E) 192

Question 25: What will come in the place of question mark (?) in the given expression?
320 + (24)2 ÷ 16 × 25 = ?

A) 700

B) 800

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C) 900

D) 1220

E) 1100

Question 26: What will come in the place of question mark (?) in the given expression?
√(484 × 196) ÷ 14 – 4 = ?2 – 103

A) 6

B) 11

C) 22

D) 36

E) 49

Question 27: What will come in the place of question mark (?) in the given expression?
[(3)9 ÷ (3)4 × (3)4] ÷ [(3)8 ÷ (3)4] = (3)?

A) 3

B) 8

C) 5

D) 4

E) 2

Question 28: What will come in the place of question mark (?) in the given expression?
252 × 4 + 3660 ÷ 366 = ? + 16 × 6

A) 744

B) 812

C) 922

D) 1002

E) 1112

Question 29: What will come in the place of question mark (?) in the given expression?
(5/12) × 480 + 150 = ?% of 875

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A) 30

B) 35

C) 20

D) 40

E) 25

Question 30: What will come in the place of question mark (?) in the given expression?
25% of 960 + 240 = ? × 24

A) 36

B) 32

C) 30

D) 24

E) 20

Question 31: What will come in the place of question mark (?) in the given expression?
(220 + 180) ÷ 4 + (24 × 2.5) = ?

A) 150

B) 100

C) 160

D) 120

E) 200

Question 32: What will come in the place of question mark (?) in the given expression?
(18 × 5) + 12.5% of 480 = ? × 3

A) 45

B) 50

C) 20

D) 40

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E) 30

Question 33: What will come in the place of question mark (?) in the given expression?
(152 + 125) ÷ 5 + 200 = ? × 15

A) 24

B) 18

C) 16

D) 14

E) 22

Question 34: What will come in the place of question mark (?) in the given expression?
(? × 24) – 88 = 25% of 800

A) 14

B) 12

C) 16

D) 18

E) 20

Question 35: The average of three numbers is 42.5, while the average of 1st two numbers is
38.75, then find the remaining third number.
A) 45.5

B) 47

C) 48

D) 50

E) 52.5

प्रश्न 1: दनम्नदलक्तित श्रोंिला में प्रश्वाचक दचन्ह (?) के स्थान पर क्या आएगा?

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81, 83, 87, 95, 111, ?

A) 139

B) 156

C) 143

D) 147

E) 136

प्रश्न 2: दनम्नदलक्तित श्रोंिला में प्रश्वाचक दचन्ह (?) के स्थान पर क्या आएगा?
24, 8, 15, ?, 12, 4

A) 5

B) 7

C) 4

D) 9

E) 11

प्रश्न 3: दनम्नदलक्तित श्रोंिला में प्रश्वाचक दचन्ह (?) के स्थान पर क्या आएगा?
111, 109, 115, ?, 211, -509

A) 76

B) 82

C) 91

D) 105

E) इनमें से क ई नहीों

प्रश्न 4: दनम्नदलक्तित श्रोंिला में प्रश्वाचक दचन्ह (?) के स्थान पर क्या आएगा?
25, 41, 73, ?, 185, 265

A) 117

B) 127

C) 133

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D) 109

E) 121

प्रश्न 5: दनम्नदलक्तित श्रोंिला में प्रश्वाचक दचन्ह (?) के स्थान पर क्या आएगा?
16, 16, ?, 96, 384, 1920

A) 48

B) 32

C) 24

D) 56

E) 28

प्रश्न 6: एक नाव की धारा अनुप्रवाह और धारा दवरुद्ध गदत के बीच का अोंतर 12 km/hr है । यदि शाों त जल में नाव की गदत
धारा की गदत से 14 km/hr अदधक है , त नाव की धारा अनुप्रवाह गदत ज्ञात कीदजए।
A) 18 km/hr

B) 32 km/hr

C) 26 km/hr

D) 28 km/hr

E) इनमें से क ई नहीों

प्रश्न 7: रानू और रे िा की वतामान आयु का अनुपात क्रमशः 5:6 है । अब से 5 वषा बाि रानू और रे िा की आयु का अनुपात
क्रमशः 6:7 ह गा। रानू की वतामान आयु ज्ञात कीदजए।
A) 15 years

B) 20 years

C) 25 years

D) 30 years

E) इनमें से क ई नहीों

प्रश्न 8: एक आयत की लोंबाई एक वगा की िुजा के बराबर ह ती है । यदि वगा और आयत का क्षेत्रिल क्रमशः 484 m2 और
330 m2 है , त आयत का पररमाप ज्ञात करें ।
A) 52 metres

B) 68 metres

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C) 74 metres

D) 92 metres

E) इनमें से क ई नहीों

प्रश्न 9: एक ररजॉटा में, कुल मेहमान ों की सोंख्या के क्रमशः 30% और 20% ने दपज्जा और बगार िाया। यदि शेष मेहमान ों
की सोंख्या का 30% ज 810 के बराबर है , केक िाया, त ररसॉटा में मेहमान ों की कुल सोंख्या ज्ञात कीदजए।
A) 5400

B) 6400

C) 4800

D) 7200

E) इनमें से क ई नहीों

प्रश्न 10: Jai Exp. 20 m/sec की गदत से 9 A.M. पर क टा से दिल्ली के दलए रवाना हुई। Shakti Exp. 108 km/hr की
गदत से 2 P.M. पर दिल्ली से क टा के दलए रवाना हुई। यदि वे बीच में 4 P.M. पर दमलते हैं , त क टा और दिल्ली के बीच
की िू री ज्ञात कीदजए।
A) 720 km

B) 540 km

C) 600 km

D) 480 km

E) 800 km

प्रश्न 11: अनीता और अजय ने क्रमशः Rs. 24000 और Rs. 30000 का दनवेश करके एक व्यवसाय शुरू दकया। 4 महीने
के बाि, दवशाल िी Rs. 36000 का दनवेश करके उनके साथ जुड़ गया। यदि उनके द्वारा प्राप्त वादषाक लाि Rs. 1820 है
त अजय का लाि दहस्सा ज्ञात कीदजए।
A) Rs. 700

B) Rs. 720

C) Rs. 740

D) Rs. 660

E) Rs. 680

प्रश्न 12: 120 litres दमश्ण में क्रमशः 5:7 के अनुपात में butter और oil है । यदि 24 litres दमश्ण क समान मात्रा में
butter से प्रदतस्थादपत दकया जाता है , त अोंदतम दमश्ण में butter और oil का अनुपात ज्ञात कीदजए।

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A) 3:4

B) 7:5

C) 8:7

D) 11:9

E) 12:17

प्रश्न 13: एक दवक्रेता एक उत्पाि क Rs. 4400 में िरीिता है और क्रय मूल्य से 25% अदधक अोंदकत दकया और 30% की
छूट िे कर इसे बेच दिया। दवक्रेता क हुई हादन प्रदतशत ज्ञात कीदजए।
A) 10.5%

B) 12.5%

C) 14.5%

D) 16.5%

E) इनमें से क ई नहीों

प्रश्न 14: ‘A’, ‘B’ और ‘C’ एक काम क क्रमशः 10 दिन, 12 दिन और 15 दिन में पूरा कर सकते हैं । यदि 'A' और 'B' काम
का 60% पूरा करते हैं और शेष काम अकेले 'C' द्वारा पूरा दकया जाता है , त पूरे काम क समाप्त ह ने में लगने वाला कुल
समय ज्ञात कीदजए।
A) 102/11 days

B) 80/13 days

C) 70/11 days

D) 70/13 days

E) इनमें से क ई नहीों

प्रश्न 15: Rs. (x + 250) क जब 4 वषा के दलए 20% प्रदत वषा साधारण ब्याज की िर से दनवेश दकया जाता है त Rs. (0.8x
+ 200) का ब्याज दमलता है । (x + 450) का मान ज्ञात कीदजए।
A) 2100

B) 1800

C) 1200

D) 1700

E) दनधाा ररत नहीों दकया जा सकता

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निर्दे श: नीचे िी गई जानकारी के आधार पर प्रश् ों के उत्तर िें ।

दिए गए line graph पाों च अलग-अलग bus stands पर interstate buses और intrastate buses बस ों की सोंख्या
िशाा ते हैं ।

प्रश्न 16: Bus stands ‘A’ और ‘C’ पर interstate buses की कुल सोंख्या और bus stand ‘E’ पर intrastate buses
की सोंख्या का अनुपात ज्ञात करें ?
A) 3:2

B) 2:1

C) 1:1

D) 5:4

E) 4:7

प्रश्न 17: Bus stand 'C' पर buses (interstate + intrastate) की कुल सोंख्या bus stand 'D' पर interstate
buses की सोंख्या से दकतना प्रदतशत अदधक / कम है।
A) 75%

B) 60%

C) 80%

D) 45%

E) इनमें से क ई नहीों

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प्रश्न 18: यदि bus stand 'E' पर interstate buses का एक- दतहाई और intrastate buses का 20% रात के समय
चलती हैं , त दिन में चलने वाली (interstate + intrastate) buses की सोंख्या दकतनी है ?
A) 220

B) 180

C) 250

D) 120

E) 300

प्रश्न 19: Bus stands ‘A’ और ‘B’ पर intrastate buses की सोंख्या और bus stand ‘D’ में buses की कुल सोंख्या
(interstate + intrastate) के बीच का अोंतर ज्ञात करें ?
A) 100

B) 120

C) 130

D) 80

E) इनमें से क ई नहीों

प्रश्न 20: Bus stand ‘F’ पर interstate buses की सोंख्या bus stand ‘D’ की तुलना में 80 अदधक है । यदि Bus
stand ‘F’ पर intrastate buses की सोंख्या उस bus stand में interstate buses की सोंख्या से 25% अदधक है , त
bus stand 'F' पर कुल buses (interstate + intrastate) की सोंख्या दकतनी है ?
A) 540

B) 320

C) 360

D) 450

E) 480

प्रश्न 21: दिए गए समीकरण में प्रश्वाचक दचन्ह (?) के स्थान पर क्या आएगा?
1728 + 270 ÷ 6 = ? × 9

A) 108

B) 152

C) 197

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D) 242

E) 274

प्रश्न 22: दिए गए समीकरण में प्रश्वाचक दचन्ह (?) के स्थान पर क्या आएगा?
750% of 360 – ? × 50 = 1050

A) 12

B) 33

C) 58

D) 76

E) 99

प्रश्न 23: दिए गए समीकरण में प्रश्वाचक दचन्ह (?) के स्थान पर क्या आएगा?
2000 ÷ √625 + (77/3) × 12 = ?

A) 338

B) 348

C) 398

D) 388

E) 288

प्रश्न 24: दिए गए समीकरण में प्रश्वाचक दचन्ह (?) के स्थान पर क्या आएगा?
36 of 24 ÷ 12 + (25 × 18) ÷ 45 = ?

A) 44

B) 82

C) 115

D) 146

E) 192

प्रश्न 25: दिए गए समीकरण में प्रश्वाचक दचन्ह (?) के स्थान पर क्या आएगा?
320 + (24)2 ÷ 16 × 25 = ?

A) 700
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B) 800

C) 900

D) 1220

E) 1100

प्रश्न 26: दिए गए समीकरण में प्रश्वाचक दचन्ह (?) के स्थान पर क्या आएगा?
√(484 × 196) ÷ 14 – 4 = ?2 – 103

A) 6

B) 11

C) 22

D) 36

E) 49

प्रश्न 27: दिए गए समीकरण में प्रश्वाचक दचन्ह (?) के स्थान पर क्या आएगा?
[(3)9 ÷ (3)4 × (3)4] ÷ [(3)8 ÷ (3)4] = (3)?

A) 3

B) 8

C) 5

D) 4

E) 2

प्रश्न 28: दिए गए समीकरण में प्रश्वाचक दचन्ह (?) के स्थान पर क्या आएगा?
252 × 4 + 3660 ÷ 366 = ? + 16 × 6

A) 744

B) 812

C) 922

D) 1002

E) 1112

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प्रश्न 29:
दिए गये समीकरण में प्रश्दचन्ह (?) के स्थान पर क्या आएगा?
(5/12) × 480 + 150 = ?% of 875
A) 30

B) 35

C) 20

D) 40

E) 25

प्रश्न 30:
दिए गये समीकरण में प्रश्दचन्ह (?) के स्थान पर क्या आएगा?
25% of 960 + 240 = ? × 24

A) 36

B) 32

C) 30

D) 24

E) 20

प्रश्न 31:
दिए गये समीकरण में प्रश्दचन्ह (?) के स्थान पर क्या आएगा?
(220 + 180) ÷ 4 + (24 × 2.5) = ?
A) 150

B) 100

C) 160

D) 120

E) 200

प्रश्न 32:
दिए गये समीकरण में प्रश्दचन्ह (?) के स्थान पर क्या आएगा?
(18 × 5) + 12.5% of 480 = ? × 3
A) 45

B) 50

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C) 20

D) 40

E) 30

प्रश्न 33:
दिए गये समीकरण में प्रश्दचन्ह (?) के स्थान पर क्या आएगा?
(152 + 125) ÷ 5 + 200 = ? × 15
A) 24

B) 18

C) 16

D) 14

E) 22

प्रश्न 34:
दिए गये समीकरण में प्रश्दचन्ह (?) के स्थान पर क्या आएगा?
(? × 24) – 88 = 25% of 800
A) 14

B) 12

C) 16

D) 18

E) 20

प्रश्न 35: तीन सोंख्याओों का औसत 42.5 है , जबदक पहली ि सोंख्याओों का औसत 38.75 है , दिर शेष तीसरी सोंख्या ज्ञात
करें ?
A) 45.5

B) 47

C) 48

D) 50

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E) 52.5

ANSWER KEYS and SOLUTIONS:

1) - C) 2) - A) 3) - C) 4) - E) 5) - B) 6) - C)
7) - C) 8) - C) 9) - A) 10) - A) 11) - A) 12) - C)
13) - B) 14) - A) 15) - E) 16) - C) 17) - A) 18) - A)
19) - B) 20) - D) 21) - C) 22) - B) 23) - D) 24) - B)
25) - D) 26) - B) 27) - C) 28) - C) 29) - D) 30) - E)
31) - C) 32) - B) 33) - B) 34) - B) 35) - D)
Solution 1: C)

81 + 21 = 83

83 + 22 = 87

87 + 23 = 95

95 + 24 = 111

111 + 25 = 143

Hence, option c.

Solution 2: A)

24 ÷ 3 = 8

8 + 7 = 15

15 ÷ 3 = 5

5 + 7 = 12

12 ÷ 3 = 4

Hence, option a.

Solution 3: C)

111 – 2! = 109

109 + 3! = 115

115 – 4! = 91

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91 + 5! = 211

211 – 6! = -509

Hence, option c.

Solution 4: E)

25 + (8 × 2) = 41

121 + (8 × 4) = 73

73 + (8 × 6) = 121

121 + (8 × 8) = 185

185 + (8 × 10) = 265

Hence, option e.

Solution 5: B)

16 × 1 = 16

16 × 2 = 32

32 × 3 = 96

96 × 4 = 384

384 × 5 = 1920

Hence, option b.

Solution 6: C)

Speed of the current = 12/2 = 6 km/hr

Speed of the boat on still water = 6 + 14 = 20 km/hr

Downstream speed of the boat = 20 + 6 = 26 km/hr

Hence, option c.

Solution 7: C)

Let present age of Ranu and Rekha is ‘5x’ years and ‘6x’ years, respectively.

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According to the question,

(5x + 5)/(6x + 5) = 6/7

Or, 35x + 35 = 36x + 30

Or, x = 5

Present age of Ranu = 5 × 5 = 25 years

Hence, option c.

Solution 8: C)

Side of square = √484 = 22 metres

Area of rectangle = 330 m2

Breadth × 22 = 330

Or, Breadth of the rectangle = 15 metres

Perimeter of the rectangle = 2 × (15 + 22) = 74 metres

Hence, option c.

Solution 9: A)

Let total number of guests in the resort be ‘x’

Number of guests who ate pizza = 0.3x

Number of guests who ate burger = 0.2x

Number of guests who ate cake = 0.3 × {x – (0.3x + 0.2x)} = 0.3 × 0.5x = 0.15x

According to the question,

0.15x = 810

Or, x = 810/0.15 = 5400

Therefore, total number of guests in the resort = 5400

Hence, option a.

Solution 10: A)

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Speed of Jai Exp. = 20 × (18/5) = 72 km/hr

Distance travelled by Jai Exp. in 5 hours = 72 × 5 = 360 km

Distance travelled by Jai Exp. and Shakti Exp. together in next 2 hours = 2 × (108 + 72) = 360 km

Total distance = 360 + 360 = 720 km

Hence, option a.

Solution 11: A)

Respective ratio of the profit share of Anita, Ajay and Vishal = (24000 × 12):(30000 × 12):(36000 ×
8) = 4:5:4

Profit share of Ajay = 1820 × {5/(4 + 5 + 4)} = Rs. 700

Hence, option a.

Solution 12: C)

Remaining quantity of the original mixture = 120 – 24 = 96 litres

Quantity of butter in final mixture = 96 × (5/12) + 24 = 64 litres

Quantity of oil in final mixture = 96 × (7/12) = 56 litres

Ratio of butter and oil in the final mixture = 64:56 = 8:7

Hence, option c.

Solution 13: B)

Selling price of the product = 4400 × 1.25 × 0.70 = Rs. 3850

Loss percentage = [(4400 – 3850)/4400] × 100 = 12.5%

Hence, option b.

Solution 14: A)

Let, the total work is 60 units (LCM of 10, 12 and 15)

Efficiency of ‘A’ = 60/10 = 6 units/day

Efficiency of ‘B’ = 60/12 = 5 units/day

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Efficiency of ‘C’ = 60/15 = 4 units/day

Desired time = [(0.60 × 60)/(6 + 5) + (0.40 × 60)/4] = 36/11 + 24/4 = (36 + 66)/11 = 102/11 days

Hence, option a.

Solution 15: E)

According to the question,

{(x + 250) × 0.20 × 4} = 0.8x + 200

Or, 0.8x + 200 = 0.8x + 200

Therefore, value of ‘x’ cannot be determined

Hence, option e.

Solution 16: C)

Number of interstate Number of intrastate

Bus stands
buses buses
A 60 30
B 30 60
C 90 120
D 120 90
E 150 150
Required ratio = (60 + 90):150 = 1:1

Hence, option c.

Solution 17: A)

Total number of buses at bus stand ‘C’ = 90 + 120 = 210

Required percentage = {(210 – 120)/120} × 100 = 75%

Hence, option a.

Solution 18: A)

Required number of buses = {(2/3) × 150} + (0.8 × 150) = 100 + 120 = 220

Hence, option a.

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Solution 19: B)

Required difference = (120 + 90) – (30 + 60) = 120

Hence, option b.

Solution 20: D)

Number of interstate buses at bus stand ‘F’ = 120 + 80 = 200

Number on intrastate buses at bus stand ‘F’ = 1.25 × 200 = 250

Therefore, required number of buses = 200 + 250 = 450

Hence, option d.

Solution 21: C)

1728 + 270 ÷ 6 = ? × 9

1728 + 45 = ? × 9

1728 + 45 = ? × 9

1773 = ? × 9

? = 197

Hence, option c.

Solution 22: B)

750% of 360 – ? × 50 = 1050

2700 – ? × 50 = 1050

? × 50 = 1650

? = 33

Hence, option b.

Solution 23: D)

2000 ÷ √625 + (77/3) × 12 = ?

2000 ÷ 25 + 308 = ?

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80 + 308 = ?

? = 388

Hence, option d.

Solution 24: B)

36 of 24 ÷ 12 + (25 × 18) ÷ 45 = ?

36 of 24 ÷ 12 + 10 = ?

864 ÷ 12 + 10 = ?

? = 82

Hence, option b.

Solution 25: D)

320 + (24)2 ÷ 16 × 25 = ?

320 + 576 ÷ 16 × 25 = ?

320 + 36 × 25 = ?

320 + 900 = ?

? = 1220

Hence, option d.

Solution 26: B)

√(484 × 196) ÷ 14 – 4 = ?2 – 103

(22 × 14) ÷ 14 – 4 = ?2 – 103

22 – 4 = ?2 – 103

?2 = 121

? = ±11

Hence, option b.

Solution 27: C)

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[(3)9 ÷ (3)4 × (3)4] ÷ [(3)8 ÷ (3)4] = (3)?

[(3)9] ÷ (3)4 = (3)?

(3)9 ÷ (3)4 = (3)?

(3)5 = (3)?

?=5

Hence, option c.

Solution 28: C)

252 × 4 + 3660 ÷ 366 = ? + 16 × 6

1008 + 10 = ? + 96

? = 922

Hence, option c.

Solution 29: D)

(5/12) × 480 + 150 = ?% of 875

(5 × 40) + 150 = ?% of 875

? = (350/875) × 100

? = 40

Hence, option d.

Solution 30: E)

25% of 960 + 240 = ? × 24

0.25 × 960 + 240 = ? × 24

? = (240 + 240) ÷ 24

? = 480 ÷ 24

? = 20

Hence, option e.

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Solution 31: C)

(220 + 180) ÷ 4 + (24 × 2.5) = ?

(400 ÷ 4) + 60 = ?

? = 100 + 60

? = 160

Hence, option c.

Solution 32: B)

(18 × 5) + 12.5% of 480 = ? × 3

90 + 0.125 × 480 = ? × 3

? = (90 + 60) ÷ 3

? = 50

Hence, option b.

Solution 33: B)

(152 + 125) ÷ 5 + 200 = ? × 15

(225 + 125) ÷ 5 + 200 = ? × 15

? = (70 + 200) ÷ 15

? = 18

Hence, option b.

Solution 34: B)

(? × 24) – 88 = 25% of 800

(? × 24) – 88 = 0.25 × 800

? = (200 + 88) ÷ 24

? = 12

Hence, option b.

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Solution 35: D)

Required number = 42.5 × 3 – 38.75 × 2

= 127.5 – 77.5

= 50

Hence, option d.

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