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Summary MCQ AD

The document contains 33 multiple choice questions related to software engineering concepts and processes. Some key topics covered include software testing types (e.g. black box testing), software development phases (e.g. requirements, design), software modeling techniques (e.g. UML), software life cycles (e.g. waterfall, incremental), and component-based development processes.

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Kasun Jayamina
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
76 views17 pages

Summary MCQ AD

The document contains 33 multiple choice questions related to software engineering concepts and processes. Some key topics covered include software testing types (e.g. black box testing), software development phases (e.g. requirements, design), software modeling techniques (e.g. UML), software life cycles (e.g. waterfall, incremental), and component-based development processes.

Uploaded by

Kasun Jayamina
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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1) The individual or organisation who wants a product to be developed is known as the:

(a) Developer
(b) User
(c) Contractor
(d) Initiator
(e) Client.

2) Black box testing is also called


(a) Specification-based testing
(b) Structural testing
(c) Verification
(d) Unit testing
(e) Stress testing.

3) Traditionally, the phase of software development where a formal approach used is


(a) Programming
(b) Design
(c) Requirements
(d) Planning
(e) Testing

4) The degree of interaction between two modules is known as


(a) Cohesion
(b) Strength
(c) Inheritance
(d) Coupling
(e) Instantiation.

5) Which of the following is a type of abstraction?


(a) Data
(b) Procedural
(c) Iteration
(d) All of the above
(e) None of the above.

6) Empirical estimation models are typically based on


(a) Expert judgment based on past project experiences
(b) Refinement of current project estimation
(c) Regression models derived from historical project data
(d) Trial and error determination of the parameters and coefficients
(e) Estimation of present data.

7) Consider the following statements:


i. 100% statement coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
ii. 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% statement coverage.
iii. 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
iv. 100% decision coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
v. 100% statement coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.

(a) ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False


(b) i & v are True; ii, iii & iv are False
(c) ii & iii are True; i, iv & v are False
(d) ii, iii & iv are True; i & v are False
8) What is the difference between a project risk and a product risk?
a) A Project risks are potential failure areas in the software or system; product risks are risks that
surround the project’s capability to deliver its objectives.
b) B Project risks are the risks that surround the project’s capability to deliver its objectives; product
risks are potential failure areas in the software or system.
c) C Project risks are typically related to supplier issues, organizational factors and technical issues;
product risks are typically related to skill and staff shortages.
d) D Project risks are risks that delivered software will not work; product risks are typically related to
supplier issues, organizational factors and technical issues.

9) Which of the following is not true?


a) Designing with UML improves system designs
b) In UML, Inheritance is shown by sub-class pointing an arrow to the base class.
c) In UML, Aggregation indicates a whole-part relationship
d) All of the above are true

10) The final form of testing COTS software is _________ testing.


(a) Unit
(b) Integration
(c) Alpha
(d) Module
(e) Beta.

11) Which of the following ensures that software meets the user’s functional and non functional
requirements?
(a) Software testing
(b) Verification
(c) Validation
(d) All of the above

12) Which one of the following is a software validation method?


(a) Refactoring
(b) Software Design
(c) Acceptance testing
(d) Requirement analysis
(e) Prototyping

13) Which one of the following is not a phase in the requirements elicitation process?
(a) Requirements prioritization and negotiation
(b) Requirement specification
(c) Requirement analysis
(d) Requirement classification and organization

14) The incremental model,


a) Is a plan driven process
b) Releases software in several versions
c) Is hybrid model
d) None of the above are true
15) The method of one object acquiring the state or methods of another object is known as,
a) Cohesion
b) Inheritance
c) Creating objects
d) None of the above

16) Requirements Engineering,


a) Is a spiral model
b) Has four stages
c) Validates requirements
d) None of the above are true
e) All of a) to c) are true

17) If an object is a part of another main object, and both can exist independently, this relationship is
known as
(a) Inheritance
(b) Composition
(c) Aggregation
(d) Association
(e) Polymorphism

18) What is a difference between waterfall model and reuse oriented software engineering?
a) The main process activities are different.
b) In reuse-oriented software engineering you may have to go back and repeat a stage before the
software is delivered.
c) Both approaches are used to develop only large systems
d) All of the above are correct (differences)

19) Which of the following stages occur after requirement specification when developing software
applications using reusable components?
a) System Design with Reuse
b) Development
c) Component Analysis
d) Development and Integration of components

20) Which of the following statements is not true?


a) A class is a template of an object
b) An object is an instance of a class
c) A Use-case happens outside a system
d) Objects become active by calling methods
e) All of the above are true

21) ________is a very early build intended for limited distribution to a few key customers and to marketing
for demonstration purposes.
(a) Alpha release
(b) Beta release
(c) Test release document
(d) Build
22) Boundary value analysis belong/s to?
a) White Box Testing
b) Black Box Testing
c) None of the Above
d) Both of the Above

23) Given the following pseudo code:


READ A READB READC
IF (A>B or A >C) THEN
Print 'A is too large'
ELSE
IF(B=C)THEN
Print 'B cannot be the same as C'
ENDIF
ENDIF

What is the minimum number of tests which would be required for 100% statement and for 100% decision
coverage?

a) 1 for statement coverage, 2 for decision coverage.


b)2 for both statement and decision coverage.
c) 2 for statement coverage, 3 for decision coverage.
d) 3 for both statement and decision coverage

24) Given the following state transition table:

Which of the test cases below will cover the following series of state transitions?
S1 -SO-S1 -S2-SO
a) D, A, B, C.
b) A, B, C, D.
c) D, A, B.
d) A, B, C.

25) A program validates a numeric field as follows:


Values less than 10 are rejected, values between 10 and 21 are accepted, values greater than or equal to 22
are rejected. Which of the following input values cover all of the equivalence partitions?
(a) 10,11,21
(b) 3,20,21
(c) 3,10,22
(d) 10,21,22
26) Which one of the following BEST describes a potential benefit of independent testing?
a. An independent tester may be more objective than a developer when testing a product.
b. An independent tester may have a better understanding of how software works than a developer.
c. An independent tester may take less time to test a product than a developer.
d. An independent tester may have better communication skills than a developer.

27) What is the normal order of activities in which software testing is organized?
a) Unit, integration, system, validation
b)System, integration, unit, validation
c) Unit, integration, validation, system
d)None of the above

The above diagram represents the following paths through the code:
a) vwy.
b) vwz.
c) vxy.
d) vxz.
28) What is the MINIMUM combination of paths required to provide
full statement coverage?
a) 1 only.
b) 1, 2 and 4.
c) 1, 2, 3 and 4.
d) 1, 3 and 4.

29) Software Engineering:


(a) Is a set of rules about developing software products
(b) Has been around as a discipline since the early 50’s
(c) Started as a response to the so-called ‘Software Crisis’ of the late 90’s
(d) Is an engineering discipline concerned with all the aspects of software production
(e) Is now a mature discipline on par with other established engineering fields

30) The software life cycle can be said to consist of a series of phases. The classical model is referred to as
the waterfall model. Which phase may be defined as "The concept is explored and refined, and the
client's requirements are elicited?"
(a) Requirements
(b) Specification
(c) Design
(d) Implementation

31) In the maintenance phase the product must be tested against previous test cases. This is known as
__________ testing.
(a) Unit
(b) Integration
(c) Regression
(d) Module
(e) Beta.
32) Domain Engineering in CBSE is to
(a) Identification of components
(b) Catalogue reusable components
(c) Domain modeling
(d) Structural modeling
(e) All the above.

33) A simple way of looking at the spiral software life-cycle model is as a waterfall model with each phase
proceeded by
(a) Build-and-fix
(b) Freezing
(c) Synchronization
(d) Testing
(e) Risk analysis.

34) A design is said to be a good design if the components are


(a) Strongly coupled
(b) Weakly cohesive
(c) Strongly coupled and Weakly cohesive
(d) Strongly coupled and strongly cohesive
(e) Strongly cohesive and weakly coupled.

35) How does a software project manager need to act to minimize the risk of software failure?
(a) Double the project team size
(b) Request a large budget
(c) Form a small software team
(d) Track progress
(e) Request for more period of time.

36) The tools for computing critical path and project completion times from activity networks is/are
I. CPM.
II. DRE.
III. FP.
IV. PERT.
a) Both (I) and (III) above
b) Both (I) and (IV) above
c) Both (II) and (IV) above
d) Both (II) and (III) above
e) All (I), (II), (III) and (IV) above.

37) The following is a list of defects found in a system and/or its associated documents
1. Overly complicated construct
2. Syntax violation of code
3. Vulnerabilities to security
4. Unused variables exist in the code
How many of these can be identified by Static Testing
(a) All of the above
(b) None of the above
(c) 1,3 and 4 only
(d) 4 only
38) You are a tester for testing a large system. The system data model is very large with many attributes and
there are a lot of inter dependencies with in the fields. What steps would you use to test the system and
also what are the efforts of the test you have taken on the test plan
a) Improve super vision, more reviews of artefacts or program means stage containment of the defects.
b)Extend the test plan so that you can test all the inter dependencies
c) Divide the large system in to small modules and test the functionality
d)Test the interdependencies first, after that check the system as a whole

39) In which of the the following stages does unit testing occur?
(a) Design
(b) System integration
(c) Implementation
(d) None of the above

40) What are the stages of the software testing process?


a) Acceptance testing
b) System Testing, Component testing
c) Verification and Validation
d) All of the above
e) a and b only

41) Black box testing is also called


a) Specification-based testing
b) Structural testing
c) Verification
d) Unit testing
e) Stress testing.

42) What are the phases of the Rational Unified Process?


a) Specification, Development, Validation
b) Specification, Design, Implementation, Validation
c) Inception, Elaboration, Design and Implementation, Validation
d) None of the above

43) A supermarket offers a number of loyalty card accounts based on thecustomer purchase history held
on a continuous basis as follows:

If the customer has purchased more than 100,000 worth of items , but below LKR 200, 000 – Bronze
Account. Purchases at least LKR 200,000 but below LKR 400,000 - Premium Account. Purchases at
least LKR 400,000 but below LKR 600,000 - Platinum Account. Purchases at least LKR 600,000 - Special
Account.(Units are in Sri Lankan Rupees )
Which of the following values are boundary values?
a) LKR 100,000, 200,000 , 400,000 , 600,000
b) LKR 99,999 , 100,100, 100,001
c) LKR 99,000 , 199,999, 399,999, 599,998
d) LKR 100,002, 200,001, 400,001, 600,001

44) Which one of the following statements on Test Driven Development is not true?
a) It is iterative
b)Uses automated tests
c) Removing bugs is easy
d)Used in the waterfall model

45) A white box testing technique that measures the number of or percentage of decision directions
executed by the test case designed is called
(a) Condition coverage
(b) Decision/Condition coverage
(c) Decision Coverage
(d) Branch coverage

46) In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:


An employee has £4000 of salary tax free.
The next £1500 is taxed at 10%.
The next £28000 after that is taxed at 22%.
Any further amount is taxed at 40%.
To the nearest whole pound, which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case?
a) £28000.
b) £33501.
c) £32001.
d) £1500.

47) Given the following decision table: What is the expected result for each of the following test cases (TC1 and
TC3)?
Rulel Rule 2 Rule3 Rule 4
Conditions
Premium ticket holder FALSE TRUE FALSE FALSE
Silver card holder TRUE , FALSE TRUE FALSE
20 cabin points TRUE FALSE FALSE t TRUE
Actions
Free car to airport TRUE FALSE FALSE FALSE
Use of lounge TRUE FALSE TRUE FALSE
Dedicated check - in TRUE TRUE TRUE TRUE

TC1: Fred is a silver card holder with 10 cabin points.


TC3: Carol is a premium ticket holder with no silver card and no cabin points

(a) TC1- allow use of lounge and dedicated check-in but no car; TC3 - allow dedicated check-in only.
(b) TC1- allow use of lounge, car and dedicated check-in; TC3 - allow dedicated check-in only.
(c) TC1- allow use of lounge only; TC3 - allow use of lounge and dedicated check-in.
(d) TC1- allow dedicated check-in only; TC3 - allow dedicated check-in only.
48) A program with high cyclometric complexity is almost likely to be:
(a) Large
(b) Small
(c) Difficult to write
(d) Difficult to test

49) Test ware (test cases, test dataset)


(a) needs configuration management just like requirements, design and code
(b) should be newly constructed for each new version of the software
(c) is needed only until the software is released into production or use
(d) does not need to be documented and commented, as it does not form part of the released
software system

50) A system requires 100% statement and 100% decision coverage at component testing for all modules. The
following module, shown in the control flow diagram below, has been tested with two test cases.

Test case 1 follows the path A, B, D, E, F, G. Test case 2 follows the path A, C, D E, F, What level of coverage has
been achieved?
a. Statement coverage 100%; decision coverage 100%.
b. Statement coverage 100%; decision coverage 75%.
c. Statement coverage 75%; decision coverage 75%.
d. Statement coverage 100%; decision coverage 50%.

51) Identify, from among the following, the correct statement.


(a) One of the main challenges Software Engineering facing today is the requirement of most
software systems to work with a multitude of homogenous systems
(b) ‘Legacy systems’ are custom developed software systems for the legal domain
(c) Software does not wear-out in the traditional sense of the term, but software does tend to
deteriorate as it evolves
(d) Since software is essentially ‘intangible’ it is relatively easy to manage software projects
(e) With the advent of component-based software assembly, we find that only less than 20% of
today’s software is still custom built.
52) Read the following paragraph and identify the correct statement.

“Imagine that you were recently hired as a software engineer to a company that specializes in aircraft
navigation control software. While orientating yourselves to the company’s work practices, you
observe that they in fact do not conduct a few tests that they should in order to comply with the
relevant safety standard. When you inquire about this from the project manager, he dismisses it
saying that those tests are really unnecessary (and takes an unreasonably long time to conduct, as
well as being superfluous) and that they have managed with the other tests for so long, without any
problems.”
(a) You should immediately resign from the company and file a complaint with the relevant standard
institution
(b) You should do nothing and let the matter slide
(c) Although you are new to the company, and you hardly know anything about the internal
processes and politics, you should insist on the company changing its work practices
immediately; failing which you threaten to report the matter
(d) Since you are new to the company, and you are unfamiliar with the internal processes and
politics, you should first find-out more about the issue and its background
(e) None of the above statements are correct

53) The final form of testing COTS software is _________ testing.


(a) Unit
(b) Integration
(c) Alpha
(d) Module
(e) Beta.

54) Which of the following interface design principles reduces the user’s memory load?
i. Define intuitive shortcuts
ii. Disclose information in a progressive fashion
iii. Establish meaningful defaults
iv. Provide an on-line tutorial
a) Only (I) above
b) Only (II) above
c) Only (III) above
d) (I), (II) and (III) above
e) All (I), (II), (III) and (IV) above.

55) Which of the following task(s) is/are not part of software configuration management?
i. Change control.
ii. Reporting.
iii. Statistical quality control.
a) Only (I) above
b) Only (II) above
c) Only (III) above
d) Both (I) and (II) above
e) Both (I) and (III) above.

56) Which property of the rapid prototype is not important?


(a) The speed with which it can be developed
(b) The speed with which it can be modified
(c) Its ability to determine the client's real needs
(d) The insights that the design team can gain from it, even if they are of the 'how not to do it' variety
(e) Its internal structure.

57) Myers (1978) identifies seven levels of cohesion. Which level of cohesion may be defined as followed;
"the output from one element in the component serves as input for some other element"?
(a) Communicational cohesion
(b) Functional cohesion
(c) Communicational cohesion
(d) Temporal cohesion
(e) None of these.

58) In the classical chief programmer team approach, the team member responsible for maintaining the
detailed design and coding is
(a) The chief programmer
(b) The programming secretary
(c) A specialized function that exists outside 'the team'
(d) The individual coder (i.e. programmer)
(e) The back-up programmer.

59) What is the expected result for each of the following test cases?

i. Citibank card member, holding a Silver room


ii. Non Citibank-member, holding a Platinum room
(b) A – Don’t offer any upgrade, B – Don’t offer any upgrade.
(c) A – Don’t offer any upgrade, B – Offer upgrade to Gold.
(d) A – Offer upgrade to Silver, B – Offer upgrade to Silver.
(e) A – Offer upgrade to Gold, B – Don’t offer any upgrade

60) Which software process model is based on the three basic software development approaches?
a) Bohem’s spiral model
b) Waterfall model
c) Rational Unified process
d) None of the above

61) What is the fundamental reason that software cannot be considered to be engineered?
(a) It is designed by humans and therefore flawed
(b) Software engineering (as opposed to other forms of engineering, such as Civil) is an art - not a
science
(c) The discipline is relatively new, say in comparison to bridge building that is an activity that has
millennia of practice
(d) None of these are true. Software Engineering is a truly rigorous discipline
(e) The complexity of systems and their interaction continues faster than we can understand it.
62) To be an effective aid in process improvement the baseline metrics used must be
(a) Based on reasonable estimates from failed projects
(b) Measured consistently across projects
(c) Drawn from large projects only
(d) Based only on successful projects
(e) Drawn from failed projects.

63) The degree of interaction between two modules is known as


(a) Cohesion
(b) Strength
(c) Inheritance
(d) Coupling
(e) Instantiation.

64) Which of the following is not viewed as a primary motivator in improving a software process?
(a) Increased Effectiveness
(b) Better Product Quality
(c) Improved Staff Satisfaction
(d) Reduced Costs
(e) Tighter managerial control.

65) Which one of the following is not a stage in the V-Model?


(a) Physical Decomposition
(b) Project Planning
(c) System Requirements
(d) Final System Test

66) Which of the following statements are true?


(a) Software designing requires creativity
(b) For incremental development, generating a lot of documentation is not possible
(c) The requirement specification may be updated
(d) All of the above

67) What is the difference between a project risk and a product risk?
a) Project risks are potential failure areas in the software or system; product risks are risks that
surround the project’s capability to deliver its objectives.
b) Project risks are the risks that surround the project’s capability to deliver its objectives;
product risks are potential failure areas in the software or system.
c) Project risks are typically related to supplier issues, organizational factors and technical issues;
product risks are typically related to skill and staff shortages.
d) Project risks are risks that delivered software will not work; product risks are typically related
to supplier issues, organizational factors and technical issues.

68) A supermarket offers a number of loyalty card accounts based on the customer purchase history held
on a continuous basis as follows:
If the customer has purchased more than 100,000 worth of items, but below LKR 200, 000 – Bronze
Account. Purchases at least LKR 200,000 but below LKR 400,000 - Premium Account. Purchases at least
LKR 400,000 but below LKR 600,000 - Platinum Account. Purchases at least LKR 600,000 - Special
Account.(Units are in Sri Lankan Rupees )
Which of the following values are boundary values?
(a) LKR 100,000, 200,000 , 400,000 , 600,000
(b) LKR 99,999 , 100,100, 100,001
(c) LKR 99,000 , 199,999, 399,999, 599,998
(d) LKR 100,002, 200,001, 400,001, 600,001

69) Which of the following is not the integration strategy?


(a) Design based
(b) Big-bang
(c) Bottom-up
(d) Top-down

70) Which of the following is NOT a standard related to testing?


a. IEEE829
b. IEEE610
c. BS7925-1
d. BS7925-2

71) Which of the following items should not be included in the software project management plan?
(a) The techniques and case tools to be used
(b) Detailed schedules, budgets and resource allocations
(c) The life cycle model to be used
(d) The organisational structure of the development organisation, project responsibilities,
managerial objectives and priorities
(e) None of the above.

72) What is the fundamental reason that software cannot be considered to be engineered?
(a) It is designed by humans and therefore flawed
(b) Software engineering (as opposed to other forms of engineering, such as Civil) is an art - not a
science
(c) The discipline is relatively new, say in comparison to bridge building that is an activity that has
millennia of practice
(d) None of these are true. Software Engineering is a truly rigorous discipline
(e) The complexity of systems and their interaction continues faster than we can understand it.

73) Which configuration objects would not typically be found in the project database?
(a) Design specification
(b) Marketing data
(c) Executable code
(d) Test plans
(e) Test procedures.

74) Which of these are objectives for software testing?


(a) Determine the productivity of programmers
(b) Eliminate the need for future program maintenance
(c) Eliminate every error prior to release
(d) Uncover software errors
75) Which of the following is not a logical layer of the application in client server system?
(a) Presentation layer
(b) Application layer
(c) Data Management layer
(d) Programming layer
(e) Business layer.

76) An example of the risk involved in software development is


(a) Key personnel may resign before the product is complete
(b) The manufacturer of critical components (e.g. the hardware associated with a real-time system)
may go bankrupt
(c) Technology changes may render the product obsolete
(d) Competitors may market a fully functional lower-cost equivalent package
(e) All of these are risks involved in software development.

77) If a control switch is passed as an argument this is an example of _______ coupling.


(a) Content
(b) Common
(c) Control
(d) Stamp
(e) Data.

78) Which of the following is not the guiding principle of software project scheduling?
(a) Compartmentalization
(b) Market assessment
(c) Time allocation
(d) Effort validation
(e) Interdependency.

79) In the maintenance phase the product must be tested against previous test cases. This is known as
(a) Unit testing
(b) Integration testing
(c) Regression testing
(d) Module testing
(e) Beta testing

80) Which of the following is true?


a) Structured specification for requirements limits freedom of writing requirements
b) You cannot draw Use-case diagrams for some computer based systems
c) Use-case modelling cannot be used for Requirements discovery
d) All of the above are not true

81) A design is said to be a good design if the components are


(a) Strongly coupled
(b) Weakly cohesive
(c) Strongly coupled and Weakly cohesive
(d) Strongly coupled and strongly cohesive
(e) Strongly cohesive and weakly coupled.
82) Coupling is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module
a) Can be written more compactly
b) Focuses on just one thing
c) Is able to complete its function in a timely manner
d) Is connected to other modules
e) Is able to completed its logic in a timely manner

83) With regard to Evolutionary development, identify the correct statement.


(a) Evolutionary development usually comes in two flavors; exploratory development, and throw-
away prototyping
(b) Very large projects are natural candidates for an evolutionary development based approach
(c) Exploratory development is used in situations where most of the requirements are well
understood in advance
(d) One of the strong points of evolutionary development is that it facilitates easy project
management, through the high volume of documentation it generates
(e) Often the construction of a throw-away prototype is not followed by a reimplementation of the
system using a more structured approach.

84) To be an effective aid in process improvement the baseline metrics used must be
(a) Based on reasonable estimates from failed projects
(b) Measured consistently across projects
(c) Drawn from large projects only
(d) Based only on successful projects
(e) Drawn from failed projects.

85) The software life cycle can be said to consist of a series of phases. The classical model is referred to as the
waterfall model. Which phase may be defined as "The concept is explored and refined, and the client's
requirements are elicited?”
a) Requirements
b) Specification
c) Design
d) Implementation
e) Integration

86) What is the reason that we need Software Engineering?


(a) To develop software
(b) To ensure quality in software applications
(c) To Earn profit
(d) None of the above

87) Which one of the following is not a stage in the requirement specification activity?
(a) System validation
(b) Feasibility study
(c) Requirement validation
(d) None of the above

88) You are a tester for testing a large system. The system data model is very large with many attributes
and there are a lot of inter dependencies with in the fields. What steps would you use to test the system
and also what are the efforts of the test you have taken on the test plan
a) Improve supervision, more reviews of artefacts or program means stage containment of the defects.
b)Extend the test plan so that you can test all the inter dependencies
c) Divide the large system in to small modules and test the functionality
d)Test the interdependencies first, after that check the system as a whole

89) Which of the following is the component test standard?


(a) IEEE 829
(b) IEEE 610
(c) BS7925-1
(d) BS7925-2

90) Which of the following activities would NORMALLY be undertaken during test planning?
1. Defining the test levels.
2. Designing test conditions.
3. Controlling test progress. <
4. Identifying the objectives of testing.
5. Determining tests data requirements.
6. Defining the testing roles.

(a) 2, 3 and 4.
(b) 1, 4 and 6.
(c) 1, 4 and 5.
(d) 2, 3 and 6

91) Coupling is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module


(a) Can be written more compactly
(b) Focuses on just one thing
(c) Is able to complete its function in a timely manner
(d) Is connected to other modules
(e) Is able to completed its logic in a timely manner.

92) Which of the following is true for a thin-client?


(a) Processes application logic
(b) Performs data management task
(c) Places heavy processing load on the server
(d) Makes use of processing power of the client
(e) Places heavy processing load on the client.

93) The relationship between a derived class (or subclass) and base class is referred to as
(a) Association
(b) Inheritance
(c) Polymorphism
(d) Instantiation
(e) Aggregation.

94) Refer to the following statements about Review Methods


1. static techniques find causes of failure , rather than finding failures them selves
2. Moderator( in a formal review ) is the person who decides the execution of reviews
3. Scribe will prepare review items
The Incorrect statements are
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) All of the above
(d) None of the above

95) The degree of interaction between two modules is known as


(a) Cohesion
(b) Strength
(c) Inheritance
(d) Coupling
(e) Instantiation.

96) Which one of the following may not refer to user requirements frequently?
(a) Client Managers
(b) System End-Users
(c) Developers
(d) System Architects

97) Identify the correct benefit of conducting a review as a testing technique


i. Life Time cost accumulations
ii. Early Detection and correction of errors
iii. Reduced quality of software
iv. Increased future reviews

98) Select the correct statements from the following


X – Execution of software is involved in dynamic testing
Y – Manual examination (Reviews) AND automated analysis are known to be Static Techniques
Z – Reviewing Project documentation is not considered as a method of Dynamic Testing
a) X,Y TRUE & Z FALSE
b) X,Y,Z TRUE & NONE FALSE
c) X, TRUE & Y,Z FALSE
d) X,Z TRUE & Y FALSE

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