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Set 3

The document is a practice test for Standard 10 (EM) with 100 multiple choice questions covering various subjects like English, Mathematics and General Knowledge. The test is for 2 hours duration. Students are instructed to choose one answer for each question and shade the corresponding bubble on the OMR answer sheet using a ball point pen. All questions carry equal marks and there are no negative marks for wrong answers.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
34 views

Set 3

The document is a practice test for Standard 10 (EM) with 100 multiple choice questions covering various subjects like English, Mathematics and General Knowledge. The test is for 2 hours duration. Students are instructed to choose one answer for each question and shade the corresponding bubble on the OMR answer sheet using a ball point pen. All questions carry equal marks and there are no negative marks for wrong answers.

Uploaded by

Siddhi Ganguly
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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SET 3

SAMARTH TEST SERIES


Std. X (EM) CET
Marks : 100 Academic Year 2020-21 Time : 2 Hours

Instructions :
1. For each question choose the correct answer among the four choices
given. Thickly shade only one circle of your choice in the OMR answer
sheet with thick ball point only.
2. Answer all questions. Each question carries one mark.
3. There are ‘NO’ negative marks for wrong answers.

1. It was impossible to connect the dots looking forward. (Pick out non-finites verb)
a) was b) forward c) impossible d) looking

2. ‘Tireless striving stretches its arms’ is the example of ........


a) Alliteration b) Metaphor c) Personification d) Antithesis

3. Dr. Kalam advised the narrator after his graduation to ..................


a) use his degree and gold medal to transform the society he lived in.
b) had provided him with more soul-shaping wisdom.
c) shine and the reflect
d) back in the present moment

4. Find out the function of modal auxiliary underlined below.


You ought to work hard to get good marks.
a) possibility b) advice c) ability d) compulsion

5. Fill in the blanks :


They do not lie awake in the dark and weep for their sins.
a) enjoy b) rejoice c) cheer d) lament

6. The highest number of world Heritage Sites are located in .............


a) France b) India c) Germany d) Italy

7. Which state does Mary Kom belong to?


a) Maharashtra b) Manipur c) Tamil Nadu d) Kerala

8. Child’s father and the villagers panic and hastily suggest ............
a) to take her to the hospital
b) ayurvedic treatment
c) religious remedies to help
d) do not take to her to the hospital

9. Dr. Kalam’s father was a symbol of .............


a) simplicity and divinity b) father and friend c) trust and faith d) teacher and disciple

10. Ray said, “I want to meet your parents.”


a) Ray said that he want to meet my parents. b) Ray said that he wanted to meet my parents.
c) Ray said if he wanted to meet my parents. d) Ray said he wanted to meet my parents.

11. The baby is crying loudly. (Present perfect continuous tense of this sentence is ...............)
a) The baby had been crying loudly. b) The baby had cried loudly.
c) The baby has cried loudly d) The baby has been crying loudly.

12. Find odd one out : Lady guest ate the luncheon
a) Peach b) Coffee c) Pizza d) Ice cream

13. The nobel Prize is one of the greatest honours in the world. (Comparative degree of this
sentence is ..............)
a) Very few honours in the world are as good as The Nobel Prize.
b) No other honours are as good as The Nobel Proize.
c) The Nobel Prize is greater than any other honour in the world.
d) The Nobel Prize is greater than most other honours in the world.

14. Antonyms for the word ‘worse’ is .............


a) better b) best c) good d) bad

15. Smita accepted the suggestion .............


a) grateful b) gratefully c) annoyed d) with not interestingly

16. Trees old and young, sprouting of shady boon. (This the example of ..........)
a) Exclamation b) Personification c) Metaphor d) Antithesis

17. BaratIyaaoM ko ilae sadOva dova kaOna hO?


a) caaor b) DakU c) danava d) AitqaI

18. dusaro ko du#a sao du#aI haonao ka Baava -


a) ehsaana b) kRtGna c) hmaddI- d) svaaqa-

19. krto jaaAao panao kI mat saaocaao jaIvana saara.([sa pMi@tayaao sao hmao haonaovaalaa baaoQa)
a) kma- krto rihe.fla kI Apoxaa kIijae b) kma- nahI krnao hO.fla kI Apoxaa krnaa hO.
c) kma- krto rihe.fla kI Apoxaa mat kIijae d) kma- nahI krnaa hO AaOr fla kI Apoxaa BaI nahIM krnaa hO.

20. maIra p`sanna haotI hOM -


a) Ba@taoM kao do#akr b) laaogaaoM kI vyaqaa do#akr c) saMsaar ko rMga-ZMga do#akr d) saaQau kao do#akr

21. maaoma ko AMdr jalanao vaalao Qaagao ka kaya- -


a) dUsaraoM ko jaIvana maoM AMQaora fOlaanaa. b) dUsaraoM kao raoSanaI donaa.
c) #audkao raoSanaI donaa. d) Apnao ilae hI kaya- krnaa.

22. ‘pZnaa’ [sa Sabd ka kRdMt Sabd -


a) pZanaa b) pZvaanaa c) pZa[- d) pZakr

23. isarcana ek ............ qaa.


a) ica~kar b) karIgar c) hlavaa[- d) naaokr

24. sajjana manauYya ko pasa ............ haota hOO.


a) duga-UNa b) sad\gauNa c) svaaqa- d) AkD,

25. yauvak ko Anausaar irSvat ........... kI bahna hO.


a) iSaYTacaar b) AcCa[- c) Ba`YTacaar d) sad\gauNa
26. kiva ko Gar pr .......... ivaBaaga ka bahut baD,a Capa pD,a.
a) Aayakr b) puilasa c) C.B.I. d) ivak`I kr

27. Saas~I jaI ko mana kI pID,a -


a) doSa ko ilae bahut jyaad kama krnaa pD,a. b) Apnao p%naI kao sau#a nahIM do sako.
c) #aud kao samaya nahIM do pae. d) samaya pr Gar jaanao nahIM imalata qaa.

28. ijasanao ApnaI kTara svayaM hI Apnao saInao maoM BaaoMk dI qaI.- (ivaSaoYataAaoM ko AaQaar pr naama ilai#ae.)
a) ranaI laxmaIbaa[- b) caa^Md baIbaI c) pd\imanaI d) ranaI dugaa-vatI

29. Alaga jaaoD,I phcaainae.


a) iknaara - tT b) AanaMd - #aod c) poT - ]dr d) sadI- - zMD

30. naagar jaI ka phlaa ]pnyaasa -


a) gadr ko fUla b) gaRhlaxmaI c) mahakala d) sarsvatI

31. kakI nao [sa sqaana pr laokr jaanao kI [cCa vya@t kI -


a) jaha^M pr mahmaanaaoM nao baOzkr #aanaa #aayaa qaa. b) hird\vaar c) banaarsa d) vaOYNavadovaI

32. [sasao iSaiSar ?tu kI tulanaa kI hO.


a) maailak b) AnyaayaI ranaI c) AnyaayaI rajaa d) Qanavaana

33. iplaaMkDo JaopavaNaarI -


a) vaasa$ b) vaaiGaNa c) pixaNaI d) gaaya

34. icarkala iTkNaara AanaMd -


a) sau#a b) svaanaMdtRPtI c) maaOja d) hYa-

35. lao#akanao idlaolyaa SaalaIcao iBaxaok-yaanao kaya kolao ?


a) iBaxaok-yaanao %yaa SaalaI svat: vaaprlyaa b) iBaxaok-yaanao %yaa SaalaI svat:cyaa kuTuMbaasa vaaprayalaa idlyaa
c) iBaxaok-yaanao %yaa SaalaI %yaacyaa pirjanaaMsa vaaprayalaa d) iBaxaok-yaanao %yaa SaalaI ivaklyaa va daona tIna idvasa paoTBar jaovaUna Gaotlao

36. ha pdaqa- pahUna pMtaMcyaa AMgaacaa itLpapD hao[- -


a) saa#ar b) karlyaacaI BaajaI c) vaaMgyaacaI BaajaI d) baTaTo vaDo

37. kvaI naarayaNa saUva-o yaaMcaa sava-sva AsalaolaI gaaoYT -


a) pOsaa b) AEaU c) hat d) saMp%tI

38. Abdulaalaa tpaovanaatIla maulaI mhNat -


a) daDIvaalaa b) cauDIvaalaa c) GaaoDovaalaa d) canaovaalaa

39. AiBaYaokcyaa baabaaMnaa BaoTayalaa Aalaolao -


a) tavaDokaka b) pavaDokaka c) Gartkaka d) saavaMtkaka
40. dixaNa gaaovyaatIla maaSaola yaoqao lao#akaMcao ............. gaolaoo.
a) mhatarpNa b) iSaxaNa c) t$NapNa d) baalapNa

41. kvaiya~I [Midra saMt yaaMcyaanausaar javaanaalaa yaaMcao ekca AaOxaNa Aaho -
a) dInadubaLyaaMcao b) QanavaanaaMcao c) EaImaMtIcao d) ivadyaaqyaa-Mcaoo

42. GarI basaUna dUrcyaa gaavaI paohcavaNaar -


a) Bayakqaa b) rahsya kqaa vaNa-na c) p`vaasa vaNa-na d) baalakqaa

43. lao#ak Atula Qaamanakr yaaMcyaa mato jaMgalaatIla sagaLyaat Qaaokadayak janaavar -
a) saaMbar b) h%tI c) vaaGa d) lahana ipllao AsaNaarI vaaiGaNa

44. vaogaLI jaaoDI AaoL#aa.


a) kaLI x gaaorI b) Qavala x PaaMZra c) doSaI x prdoSaI d) daT x ivarL

45. kvaI jaa^ja- laaopIsa yaaMcyaa mato, ]%saahI AayauYya mhNajao -


a) JaaDacao #aaoD b) TvaTvaIt fUla c) TvaTvaIt fL d) TvaTvaIt pana

46. ; ho ivaramaicanh AaoL#aa -


a) ]d\gaaricanh b) APaUNa-ivarama c) AQa-ivarama d) svalpivarama

47. Secretary yaa [Mga`jaI pairBaaiYak Sabdalaa marazI p`itSabd saaMgaa -


a) icaTNaIsa b) gaayak c) vyavasqaapk d) vaadk

48. AcaUk Sabd AaoL#aa -


a) saMskRit b) saskMRtI c) saMsk`utI d) saMskRtI

49. The solution of the equation 2x – y = 2 is ...........


a) (2, 2) b) (5, 2) c) (2, 5) d) (5, 5)

50. Degree of quadratic equation is always ................


a) 4 b) 3 c) 2 d) 1

51. A set of numbers where the numbers are arranged in a definite order, like the natural
numbers, is called a .........
a) index b) numbers c) line d) sequence

52. A die is rolled. ‘A’ is the event that the uppermost face shows a prime number. What is ‘A’
equal to?
a) {1, 3, 5} b) {2, 3, 5} c) {2, 4, 6} d) {1, 2, 3}
3 5
53. 2 x = 2, then x = ?

a) -4 b) 4 c) 3 d) -3

54. If for a quadratic equation, b2 - 4ac = 0, then which of the following statement is true?
a) The roots are real and equal b) The roots are real and unequal
c) The roots are not real d) The roots are irrational

55. The first term of an A.P. is 1 and nth term is 25. If Sn = 520, then n = ..........
a) 40 b) 50 c) 30 d) 20

56. What is the probability of the event that a number chosen from 1 to 100 is a prime number?
1 6 1 1
a) b) 25 c) d)
8 4 5
57. If two similar triangles are equal areas, then he two triangles are ...........
a) neither similar nor congruent b) similar but not congruent
c) similar and congruent d) None of the above

58. If ΔABC ~ ΔDEF, if A = 45° and E = 87° then C =?


a) 55° b) 45° c) 87° d) 48°

59. Out of the dates given below which date constitutes a Pythagorean triplet?
a) 16/08/16 b) 15/08/17 c) 03/05/17 d) 04/09/15

60. A rectangle having length of a side is 12 and length of diagonal is 20 then what is length
of other side?
a) 16 b) 12 c) 5 d) 6

61. Two circles of radii 6.6 cm and 2.2 cm respectively touch each other. What is the distance
between their centres?
a) 8.8 cm b) 4.4 cm or 8.8 cm c) 4.4 cm d) 3.3 cm

62. Length of a tangent segment drawn from a point which is at a distance 12.5 cm from the
centre of a circle is 12 cm, find the diameter of the circle.
a) 24 cm b) 14 cm c) 25 cm d) 7 cm

63. The maximum number of tangents that can be drawn to a circle from a point outside it is....
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3

64. Seg AB is parallel to Y-axis and coordinates of point A are (1, 5) then coordinates of point
B can be ........... .
a) (1, 5) b) (1, -5) c) (3, 5) d) (5, 0)

65. The value of 9 cot2 θ - 9 cosec2 θ is .........


a) 9 b) -9 c) -1 d) 1

66. The orbit of a planet is an ellipse with the Sun at one of the ...........
a) foci b) middle c) surface d) centre

67. The number of electrons in the outermost shell of alkali metals is .............
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

68. Antioxidants are used to prevent ........... food containing fats and oils.
a) Reduction b) Decomposition c) Oxidation and reduction d) Oxidation
69. The device which converts mechanical energy into electrical energy is called ..............
a) Electric generator b) Electric fuse c) Electric motor d) Electric bell

70. If the temperature of water increases from 10C to 30C, the density of water ............ .
a) decreases b) increases c) remains the same d) fluctuates

71. The ray of light strikes the glass slab at an angle of 500. What is the angle of incidence?
a) 1300 b) 600 c) 500 d) 400

72. Longsightedness can be corrected by using .............. lens.


a) converging b) concave c) convex d) cylindrical

73. Substance used to decrease the melting point of alumina in Hall’s process is ..............
a) limonite b) gypsum c) cryolite d) CuSO4

74. Which of the following is the communication satellite of India?


a) EDUSAT b) INSAT c) Astrosat d) Resourusat-1

75. Protein located in bones is .............


a) ossein b) myosin c) haemoglobin d) melanin

76. Our muscle cells perform ........... type of respiration during exercise.
a) aerobic b) anaerobic c) arobic d) none of the above

77. Implantation of embryo occurs in .............


a) sepal b) petal c) uterus d) androecium

78. In modern civilization, ........... has become a primary need.


a) shelter b) cloth c) food d) energy

79. Kinetic energy in flowing water drives .............. to generate electricity.


a) turbines b) watermill c) windmill d) generator.

80. Which of the following animals has a hard calcareous shell?


a) nereis b) bivalve c) herdmania d) shark

81. ......... is a substance obtained by microbial processing that roles as artificial sweetener.
a) Nycin b) Lysine c) Xanthenes d) Xylitol

82. Alcohol consumption mainly affects the ............ system.


a) respiratory b) excretory c) nervous d) digestive

83. ............... translated the Sanskrit text of Hitopadesh.


a) Sir John Marshall b) James mill c) Friedrich Max Muller d) Mountstaurt Elphistone

84. .............. was the newspapers during Julius Caesar’s Reign used to be placed at public
places in Rome.
a) Acta Diurna b) Daily news c) Julius Caesar d) News of Rome

85. Thomas Cook established a travel agency selling ............


a) Toys b) Tourist tickets c) Food items d) Handicraft
86. ............. British officer wrote about Maratha history.
a) Colonel Todd b) William Wilson Hunter c) James Mill d) Grant Duff

87. In 1983, .......... is declared as cultural heritage.


a) Taj Mahal b) Ahmedabad c) Champaner- Pavagadh d) Nashik

88. Identify the wrong pair :


a) Matheran – Hill Station b) Tadoba – Rock-cut Caves
c) Kolhapur – Pilgrim Centre d) Ajanta – World Heritage

89. Election Commissioner is appointed by ..................


a) Prime minister b) Speaker of Lok Sabha c) President d) Vice president

90. ............ is the main demand of farmer’s movement.


a) Protection of consumers b) Building of dams
c) To get the right price for agricultural product d) Right to cultivate on the forest land

91. Constituencies are created by .......... committee of the Election Commission.


a) Voting b) Timetable c) Selection d) Delimitation

92. Both the countries have ........... type of government.


a) Republic b) Military c) Presidential d) Communist

93. The Lakshadweep Island of Arabian sea are ............


a) coral island b) volcanic island
c) made from the part separated from the mainland d) continental island

94. Brazil experience ........... types of rainfall.


a) frontal b) orographic c) retreating d) relief

95. Find the odd man out : With reference to flora of India-
a) Deodar b) Anjan c) Orchid d) Banyan

96. Literacy rate of Brazil is .............. compared to India.


a) low b) average c) moderate d) high

97. ................ has emerged as the major metropolitan and industrial area in South Brazil.
a) Parana b) Rio Grande Do Sul c) Santa Catarina d) Sau Paulo

98. The economies of India and Brazil are of the .............. type
a) Undeveloped b) Developing c) Developed d) Highly developed

99. Official Brazilian time, BRT is ............ hours behind GMT.


a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

100. ‘...................’ policy has been promoted by Brazilian government to reduce regional
imbalance in the country.
a) Go west b) Go East c) Go South d) Go North

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