1720 Time : 3 Hrs. [PHYSICS] Choose the correct answer : Acircular arc of ragius R subtends an angle n/3 rad ‘at the centre. It carries current J, The magnetic field at the centre will be ul I 1) So tol o 4nR @ 12nR ft iu 3) Bol bol oS 6R ” 12R Current /y is moving in a regular hexagon shaped loop of side length a. What is the magnetic field at the centre of hexagon? (2) Silo, 7a (4) Lele = ‘Two straight infinitely long and thin parallel wires are spaced 10 cm apart and carry a current of 1 Aeach, What is magnetic field at a point distance 10 cm from both wires when current flowing are in opposite direction? 4 What is magnetic field at point O, if the wire carries ‘a current / and straight parts are very long? zanis, tlt bd fale | olen.» 5. A charge q is moving in a circle of radius r with (1.2 = 1087, ‘speed v. The magnetic field at centre of the loop is Bx10°T (2) 4V3 x10 = @ Hoe (3) 2V3 «10° T Hoa 2noqv (4) 63102 T @ or @ =3 ‘Space for Rough Work6. CEE A current / is uniformly distributed over the cros: section of a solid cylindrical long conductor of radius R. The variation of magnetic field with distance from axis of conductor is best represented by which graph? ‘A charged particle of specific charge 0.2 Cikg has velocity of (2/+3])m/s at some instant in uniform ‘magnetic field (5/ + 2])T. What is the acceleration of the particle at this instant? (1) 3.8% mis? (2) 1.2 mis? (3) -2.2% mis? (4) 1.2% mis? Two proton beams are moving parallel in same direction. Which of the following statement may be correct? (1) Magnetic force and electrostatic forces will cancel each other (2) Magnetic force between proton beams will be attractive (8) Repulsive force wil be greater than attractive force 9 (4) Both (2) and (3) are correct The force on a current carrying square loop PORS due to infinitely long current carrying wire in its plane, as shown in the figure, is : J h a) h + |e — 2a a (1) 2M. attractive * (2) Hale. repusive @) tale , attractive 9 (4) tale, attractive ‘Space for Rough Work40. Two protons enter a region of transve rs magnetic field. What will be the ratio of time period of ravolution, if their ratio of kinetic energy is 2V2 : /3? (1) VB:2v2 (ast (2) 3:8 (4) 8:3 A charge q and mass m moving with velocity v enters a region of uniform magnetic field 8 at an angle 0. Which of the following represents correct graph for pitch w.rt. angle 02 (0<0-< 90°) ° In ° iD, ° 1. @) al N «@ J 7 o> o 0 12. A rigid wire consists of a semicircular portion of radius R and two straight sections AB and CD. The wire has partially emerged in a perpendicular magnetic field By as shown in figure. What is the force on the wire ift carries a current I? (1) BAR, upwards (2) 28dR, upwards (8) 2BdR, downwards (4) It does not experience only force 13. A rectangular coll of 50 tums is hung vertically in uniform horizontal magnetic field of magnitude 107 T, 80 that plane of the coil is parallel to field, height of coll is Sem and width is 2 om. What strength of current must pass through it in order to deflect it through 30° if torsional constant of usponsion wire is 10-? N m per degree? (1) 329 (2) 36 pA (3) 690A (4) 1290 414, A proton and a deuteron are projected with same speeds perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field. What is the rato oftheir periods of revolution? (1) 4:2 aa (3) 1:4 (4) 1:v2 15. A cyclotron’s oscillating frequency is 10 MHz. The radius of dee is 60 cm. Whats the kinetic energy of proton produced by the accelerator, if the magnetic, field is 0.65 Tesla? (1) 7.28 Mev (2) 12.6 kev (@) 10.5ev (4) 19.4 ev 46. A proton of mass m, speed v describes half a revolution in a circle of radius R in magnetic field B. ‘The change in its kinetic energy will be (1) mv @ See (9 dm (9 200 ‘Space for Rough Work———_—_—_ 17, The magnetic dipole moment of current loop as | 20. A ring of radius R moves with velocity v in uniform shown in figure is static magnetic field Bas shown in diagram. The emt induced between points P and Qis (1) vaR (1 ~c05 9) (2) 2vBR sin 6/2 (3) 2vBR cos 6/2 (4) vaR sino 21, A bar magnet hes coorchity of 4000 A nr’. is @ @ wes desired to be demagnetised by inserting it inside a 8 solenoid 20 em long and having 500 turns. The current which will be required for this ideal solenoid a2; tal? @ Sie, is 1) 0.40 A 18. Which ofthe following statements is/are correct? o or (1) When magnetic flux linked with conducting loop ae is constant, then emf induced is zero (@) 08a (2) Self inductance of a coil depends on its (4) 1.6 ‘geometry 22. The electric network shown in figure is part of a (3) Eddy currents generates heating effect in metal complete circuit. fat any instant, current i= 1A and (@) Atot potential difference across A and 8 is zero, then 19. The magnetic field at a point at a distance x, from value of es centre, on the axis of short magnet is equal fo field ot at a point at 2 distance y, from centre, on the ' ensv L=120H equatorial line of same magnet. The ratio of $s} &§ arin. distances y and xis A R220 3® (1) 22 27 (1) 500 A's (2) 1000 Ws @) 20 (4) 280 (3) 2500 A's (4) 250s Space for Rough WorkSO 24. ‘The variation of magnetic susceptiilty x with temperature T for a diamagnetic sample is respectively as 7 cay a @) ol t ° Tv - x x 8 @ \ o T oT Two bar magnets A and 8 of same size and mass performs 10 and 15 oscilations per minute respectvely, at a certain place. The ratio of magnetic moments, is (1) 4:9 2) 26 (3) 2:3 @) 3:2 Magnetisation of a magnet can be reduced by (1) Heating (2) Mechanical impact (8) Magnetising in oppesite direction (@) Alloftnese A magnet of magnetic moment M=(50/) A m? is placed in a magnetic field 6 =(0.2/ +0.3])T. The torque acting on the magnet is (1) (15%)Nm (2) (15k +10j)Nm (3) 10kNm (4) Zero A wire PO of length 2 m is made to slide on two parallel conducting rails with constant speed 1 mis. The trails are connected together by a resistance of 5 Q.as shown in the figure. The power dissipated through the resistor is 28, 30. 5a (1) 06W (2) 08W @)12W (4) 03W When current is passed through a steel spring, then au (1) Gets compressed (2) Gets expanded (3) Breaks (4) Remains unchanged A particle of charge q and mass m starts moving from origin under the action of an electric field E=&;) and magnetic field B= 8) with velocity J=Vo]. The time after which its speed becomes 2wis 5 2niv9 289 oz oo V3 Bq VB avy @) BEd 4) SMe oe 2 ‘The magnetic flux linked with a coil at any instant ¢ is given by @= (10 —50t + 5) Wb. The induced emf att=2sis (1) 10V @)5V 2) 19V (4) Zero ‘Space for Rough WorkAll India Aakash Test Series for NEE 31 32, 33, Two ferromagnetic materials X and Y have Hysteresis curves of the shapes shown below 1 1 x y (1) X and Y are suitable for making permanent magnets ‘more suitable for permanent magnet while Y for electromagnet (8) Xis more suitable as electromagnet and Y as Permanent magnet (4) Hysteresis loss is more for X than Y Earth's magnetic field at magnetic equator is approximately 0.4 G. Earth's dipole moment is (Re = 6400 km) (1) 7 102 Am? (2) 1.05 « 102A m2 (3) 6* 102 Am? (4) 4 102A me A solenoid core material has relative permeability 400. Windings of solenoid are insulated from core and carry a current of 2 A. If number of tums are 1000 per metre, what is the magnetic field B at centre of solenoid? (1) 107 (2) 399T (3) 20T (4) 08T A metallic rod of length 1.2 m is rotated with frequency of 50 revis with one end hinged. A ‘constant and uniform magnetic field of 0.5 T, parallel to axis of rotation, is present everywhere. The emf induced between ends of the rod is (1) 92 (2) 63V (3) 113V (4) 16 @ 36. 37. 39. The coefficient of coupling between two coils having selfinductance 16 H and 9 H and coefficient of ‘mutual inductance 9 H, is (1) 065 (2) 0.75 (3) 08 (4) 10 SECTION-B SI unit of inductance, henry, can be written as (1) weberlampere (2) joule/ampere? (3) ampere secondivolt (4) (1) and (2) are correct ‘Two identical circular loops of metal wire are tying ‘on table without touching each other. Loop A cartias, a cument which | ncresses with Gy In response to loop A, the loop B (1) Remains stationary (2) Is attracted by loop A (3) Is repelled by loop A (4) Starts rotation A galvanometer has resistance of 63 9. In order to send only 10% of main current through this galvanometer, the resistance of required shunt is (1) 6a (2) 30 7a 4) 59 Energy in current associated with (1) Magnetic field (2) Electric field (3) Gravitational field (4) Electric and magnetic field carrying ideal inductor is ty40. A charge q moving with velocity v,/ enters a region of magnetic field 8,7 and olectric field Ei. Eo = Bovo, then motion of charge particle will be (1) Uniform circular motion (2) Helical motion with uniform pitch (3) Helical path with non-uniform pitch, (4) Uniformly accelerated motion along straight line 41. Which of the following is a diamagnetic substance? (1) Gold (2) Calcium (3) Aluminium (4) Both (1) and (2) 42. A galvanometer has resistance 100 0. It gives full scale deflection on passing 10 mA current through it. To convert it into voltmeter of range 0 to 10 V, the resistance to be added in series is (y) 11100 (2) 909 (3) 90000 (4) 9000 43. Aloop of irregular shape carrying current is located in an external magnetic field as shown in the figure. If wire of loop is flexible, the wire reshapes itself into (1) An elliptical shape (2) Circular shape (3) Rectangular shape (4) Equilateral triangle “44, Auniform magnetic field 6 = Byk exists in a region. A current carrying wire is placed in x-y plane as ‘shown. What is the force acting on wire AB? 48, 46. 47. WEEE ae A short bar magnet is placed with its axis 20° with ‘an external magnetic field of 0.8 T, experiences a torque of 0.016 Nm. How much work is required to tum it to 90° with magnetic field from this position? (1) 0.0285 (2) 0.0735 (3) 0.06 5 (4) 0.354 Magnetic field at the centre of a current carrying circular loop of area A is B. The magnetic moment of the loop is 0 (a SAA Hoe rs BAA 2eavA 4 @ w oa ‘A time varying magnetic flux linked with a coil is given by $= af. fat time t= 3 s, the emf induced is, 9V, then value of ais, (1) 0.66 Wb s? (3) 1.5 Wo s? (2) 45Wos? (4) 25 Wos? ‘Space for Rough Work48. 52. 83. EU DRI ‘A metal rod slides on conducting rails as shown in figure. The circuit area is perpendicular to magnetic field with B= 0.2 T. Ifthe resistance of circuit is 4.2, er = 49, A magnotisng flekd of 1600 A im proguegs magnetic fx of 2.4 * 10° WD in an iran gat ® cross-sectional area 0.2 em. The suscepti iy the force needed to move the rod as indicated with iron bar is a constant speed of 5 mis will be equal to (ay 972 (2) 596 (3) 316 (4) 518 50. What inductance would be needed 1 1 kWh of energy in a coil carrying curren, " 207 (1) 5x 102N (2) 4% 102N (1) 12H (2) 16H (8) 9*104N (4) 2 1031N (3) 1.8 10H (4) 1210 [CHEMISTRY] zs _ SECTION-A 54. In Freundlich adsorption isotherm, the Slope cy ‘The protecting power of lyophilic colloidal sol is ‘expressed in terms of (1) Critical micetle concentration (2) Oxidation number (3) Coagulation value (4) Gold number ‘The correct thermodynamics relation associated with adsorption of a gas on solid surface (1) 4H<0,4G<0,4S<0 (2) AH>0, 4G <0, 4S<0 (3) AH<0,4G>0,4S>0 (4) 4H>0, a6 >0,a5>0 ‘The catalyst used in the Ostwald’s process is (1) FezOs (2) V:Os (3) Platinised asbestos (4) Fe plot between log ~ and tog P is 1 Gyn @s 1 @t ast m ® 55. Positively charged sol among the following is. (1) Gold sot (2) Congo red sot (3) SbaSs sol (4) CrOsxH:0 56. Cheese is a colloidal solution of (1) Solid in liquid (2) Liquid in sotid (3) Gas in liquid (4) Liquid in tiquid 57. Incorrect statement about physisorption is, (1) Itis caused by chemical bond formation (2) Itis not specific in nature (8) Itis reversible in nature (4) Enthalpy of adsorption is low (20-40 ku/mol) " ‘Space for Rough Work58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63, The range of diameter of colloidal particles is between (1) 10%10104m (2) 10°10 10m (3) 10-7t010%m (4) 10 t0 10m Which of the following colloids is prepared by electrical disintegration method? (4) Sulphur sol (2) AsiSs sol (3) Fe(OH): sol (4) Siver sot Principal emulsifying agent for OW emulsions is. (1) Long chain alcohols (2) Proteins (@) Lampbiack (4) Heavy metal salts of fatty acids In stomach, the enzyme that converts proteins into peptides (1) Invertase (2) Topsin (3) Diastase (4) Pepsin Incorrect statement among the following is (1) Lyophilc colloids are reversible sols. (2) Lyophobic colloids are ireversible sols (3) Lyophilic colloids are quite stable (4) Lyophobic colloids are protective colloids Sulphide ore among the following is (1) Cuprite (2) tron pyrites (8) Malachite (4) Magnetite Vapour phase refining is used for which of the following elements? (1) zr (2) Ge @) cu (4) Zn In froth floatation method of concentration of Galena core, containing ZnS and PbS, the depressant used is (1) Nacn (3) Xanthates (2) Pine oil (4) Aniline 66. 67. 68. 69, 70. nm 72, Which of the following is not a mathod of concentration of oro? (1) Hydraulic washing (2) Leaching (3) Liquation (4) Magnetic separation In blast furnace, the reaction that takes place bbotwoon 900-1500 K is (1) 3F0:03 + CO -» 2FaxO. + CO (2) FoO + CO -» Fo + CO (8) FosO.+ ACO -3Fo + ACO (4) Fe:0s+ CO + 2Fe0 + COs ‘The blistered appearance of blister copper is due to the evolution of (1) Soz (3) COz Copper matte contains (1) Cuz0 and Fe20> (3) Cuz0 and Curs German silver contains (1) 60-70% Zn, 15-20% Cu, 15-20% Ni (2) 30-40% Zn, 20-25% Al, 40-45% Cu (3) 40-50% Ni, 25-30% Zn, 25-30% Cu (4) 25-30% Ni, 25-30% Zn, 40-50% Cu Complex which is not formed during leaching of silver and gold is (1) TAg(CNy (2) (AWGN (3) (Ag(CN)P- (4) (Zn(CNy ‘Among the following, the reaction involved in roasting is (1) Fe:0sxHi0(s) 2» Fe:0s(s) + xH20(9) (2) 22ZnS(s) + 302g) —+ 22n0(s) + 250g) {@) ZnC0x(s) —* 2n0(e) + COX) (4) CaCOsMgCOs(s) + Cad{s) + MgO(s) +2C0x9) (2) O2 (4) SOs (2) CuzS and Fes. (4) FeS and Cu:0 ‘Space for Rough Work74, 75. 78. 79. Purest form of commercial iron is. (1) Pig iron (2) Cast iron (3) Wrought iron (4) Stee! ‘The compound which has the highest boiling point ‘among the following is, (1) HO (2) Hes (3) Hse (4) HeTe Correct order of negative value of electron gain enthalpy is (1) O>S>Se>Te>Po (2) S>0>Se>Te>Po (8) S>Se>Te>Po>O (4) 0>S>Se>Po>Te ‘The shape of interhalogen compounds XX} and XXG respectively are A (1) Bent T-shaped and see-saw (2) Bent T-shaped and square pyramidal (3) Tetrahedral and see-saw (4) Trigonal planar and octahedral The gas which is used in filing balloons for meteorological observations is . (1) He 2) Ne @)Ar (4) Kr Which of the foiowing elements has highest boiling point? (ar (2) He (8) ke (4) Xe XeFe on complete hydrolysis gives a compound X. Correct statement about the compound X is (1) Ithas distorted octahedral shape (2) Itis a colourless explosive solid (3) Itis a colourless volatile liquid (4) Ithas square pyramidal shape 80, at 82. 83. Correct order of the oxidising power of oxo; chlorine is, (1) HCIO« > HCIO > HCIOs > HCI0, (2) HCIO« > HCIOs > HCIO2 > HCIO (3) HCIO > HCIOz >» HCIOs > HCIO, (4) HCIO > HCIOy > HCIO2 > HCIO. Tho products obtained when Cl reacts wth ht concentrated NaOH are a (1) NaCl + NaOCl + H20 (2) NaCl + NaClOs + HzO (3) NaOCl + NaCiOs + HO (4) NaCl + NaCiOs + H0 Im which of the following compounds, perce cs of linkage is present? © (1) H2SiOo (2) H2SO3 (3) H2S208 (4) H2S2Or ‘Amphoteric oxide among the following is (1) Nios (2) Pids (3) As:Os (4) BizOs In which of the following reactions, No(g) is net obtained as a product? (1) NH«Cl(aq) + NaNO2(aq)—> (2) (NHejxCreOr—2 (3) Ba(a),— (4) (NH.)2S0.+2Na0H > Strongest reducing agent among the following is (1) NH (2) Ply (3) AsHs (4) Bitty ¢ ‘Space for Rough Work87. co 92. ea ‘SECTION-B ‘Abrown acidic gas which is obtained by the thermal decomposition of Pb(NOs)> at 673 K is. (1) 0 (2) NO» (@) NO (4) NsOs {in solid state, the hybridization of P in PCs is/are (1) spre (2) sp (3) soe (4) Both (2) and (3) Incorrect statement about allotropes of sulphur is (1) c-sulphur is stable below 369 K and -suiphur stable above 369 (2) Melting point of f-sulphur is higher than that of a-sulphur (3) Both « and p-sulphur are soluble in CS2 (4) a-sulphur are colourless needle shaped crystals ‘and fi-sulphur is yellow in colour ‘The colour of pure ozone in gaseous phase and liquid phase respectively are (1) Pale biue and dark blue (2) Pate blue and violet black (3) Dark blue and pale blue (4) Violet black and pale blue ‘The correct order of X-X bond dissociation enthalpy is (1) F2>Ch>Br>ts (2) Ch>Fr> Broke (3) Ch>Br>F2>t2 (4) Ch>Bre>te> Fe Deacon's process is used for the preparation of a (2) Ch (3) H:S0. (4) Hel ‘Chemica! formula of tear gas is (1) COCk (2) CICH2CH2SCH2CH;CI (3) CCbNOz (4) CHCl 93, 95, 97. Number of P-OH bond{s) present in pyrophosphoric acid is at (2) 2 3 (4) 4 The spontaneous combustion of which gas is technically used in Holme's signals? (1) Oy (2) PH (3) SO (4) HS Compound which has the highest pis is. (1) HE (2) Het (3) HBr (4) HI Consider the following statements |. Hall-Heroult process is used for the reduction of, alumina. I Siderite is an ore of copper. Il. During electrolytic refining, impure metal is used as cathode. The correct statements(s) is/are (1) Lonty (2) Vand tt only (3) Land it only (4) 1. tane Incorrect statement about white phosphorus is (1) Transtucent white waxy solid (2) Dissolves in boiling NaOH solution in an inert atmosphere giving NasHPO 3) Itconsists of discrete tetrahedral Ps molecule (4) Readily catches fire in air to give dense white fumes Consider the following reaction, XeF2 + PFs > The product obtained is (1) (XeFsP [PFS (2) [XeFs)[PFap (3) XeF a) [PFaP (4) DXoFP[PFer ‘Space for Rough Work103, COE 99. In brown ring test, the chemical formula of brown coloured complex formed is (1) [Fe(H20)* (2) [Fe(H20)e}* (3) [Fe(H:0)s(NO)* (4) [Fe(CN)sNOP- ™ Ey 100. An example of homogeneous catalysis ig (1) ANH, (9) +50;() "> NOC) + 6H, oy) (2) N,(g)+3H,(g) £22» 2NH, (g) (3) 280,(9)+0,(¢)—""-»280,(g) Pus) (4) 280,(g)+0,(g)—““-» 280, (g) [BOTANY] — SECTION-A 101. Which of the given traits wrt. pea plant are expressed in both homozygous as well as heterozygous condition? (a) Inflated pod (b) Green pod (c) Axial flower (2) White flower (1) (@) and (6) only (2) Allexcept (4) (3) Allof these (4) Both (c) and (4) 102. In which of the given crosses, F: progenies will not be seen with tall stem? (1) Tex Tt (2) Text @) tet (4) Txt How many types of gametes will be produced by a ividual if it is heterozygous for three loci? 104, Solect the Incorract statement viet. Punngy square. (1) 111s a graphical representation to caluats uy probabil of all possible Genotypes offspring ina genetic cross (2) The possible gametes are written cry on ong side of the square (3) All possible combinations are represented in box in the square (4) Ithelps us to understand production of gametes and formation of zygote 105. Chromosomal theory of inheritance was proposed by (1) TH. Morgan (2) Charles Darwin and AR. Wallace (8) Gregor Johann Mendel (4) Sutton and Boveri How many characters in pea plant were selected by Mendel to carry out hybridisation experiment? (7 (2) 14 (3) 34 (4) 22 107. A particular character in diploid species is controlled by a gene which has three alleles in the population. How many genotypes are possible in this 106. population? (1) Six (2) Four (3) Three (4) Two jace for Rough Work408, Cross between which pea plant the test cross? (1) Plant with green pod » Plant with yellow pod (2) Terminal flowered plant * Terminal flowered considered to be plant (3) Heterozygous round seeded plant Homozygous round seeded plant (4) Homozygous violet flowered plant Heterozygous violet flowered plant 4109, The best example for incomplete dominance is (1) Colourbtindness (2) Flower colour in pea plant (@) ABO blood group (4) Flower colour in snapdragon 4140. In which genetic condition, each cell in the affected person, has only one sex chromosome? (1) Thalassemia (2) Phenyiketonuria (3) Tumer's syndrome (4) Kiinefeter's syndrome 111, Male parent with blood group A and female parent with blood group B, had progeny with only either blood group AB or A. What could be the possible genotype of parents? Male Female «owe ree e@ a i @ i 4 e All India Aakash Test Seri 112.Match the column-1 with column-l and select the 113, 114, correct option. Column-t Column (ay [aa xxy |) | Tumers syndrome (b) | zo-22 i | Kiinetetter's| method of sex | | syndrome determination (6) | Trisomy 21 | (ip | Buttery {@ | Monosomy | (iv) | Down's syndrome (1) acti), Bi), ef). d-(i) (2) a-tiv), b-(ii), efi). d-()) (3) ae(i), bi), c().8-() (4) acti), bi), ef).d-() Select the incorrect statement. (1) Female birds are heterogametic (2) In female moths, 50% of ova have no sex chromosome (3) In honey bee, females have haif the number of ‘chromosomes than that of a male (4) Henking coined the term X-body Consider the given statements and select the correct option. ‘Statement A: Failure of segregation of chromatids during cell division results only in polyploidy. Statement B: Down's syndromes was first described by Langdon Down. (1) Only statement A is correct (2) Only statement B is correct (3) Both statements are correct (4) Both statements are incorrect ‘Space for Rough Work115, 116. 117. 118, 119. UT |n Mendelian dihybrid cross, out of 256 individual obtained in Fz generation, how many aro pure homozygous for both traits? (1) 32 (2) 16 (@) 15 (4) 64 Drosophila is. suitable material for experimental sgenetics, because (1) Itcoutd be grown on simple synthetic medium in laboratory (2) Itcan complete its life cycle in about two months (8) It's size is about 2 mm (4) It is found over ripe fruits tke mango and banana Select the incorrect match w. human pedigree analysis (1) @—Haemophilic female (2) = Unattected offspring (3) DE =@ - Consanguineous mating (4) @ - Carrier female for colourblindness Select the odd one w.rt. aulosomal recessive disorder. (1) Sickle cell anaemia (2) Thalassemia (3) Haemophilia (4) Phenylketonuria Which of the given disorder can be seen in an individual when the mutation includes substitution of, a purine by pyrimidine? (1) Chronic myelogenous leukemia (2) Sickle cell anaemia (3) «thalassemia (4) Bthalassemia ‘symbols used in 120. 121. 122, Consi a select the correct option forthe names of wi 2 labels P, Q and R. ferry ae Pp lea P a R (1) | N-Glycosigic | Nucleoside | Phosphosster linkage linkage (2)| Hydrogen | Nucleoside | Phosphodiester| bond linkage (8) | Hydrogen | Nucleotide | Phosphoester | bond linkage (4) | N-Glycosidic | Nucleotide | Phosphodiester linkage linkage How many nucleosomes are present in the nucleus of a diploid eukaryotic cell which possess 6.6 * 10* bp? (1) 33 x 108 (2) 66 « 10? (3) 33.108 (4) 66 «10° Which of the given enzymes facilitates opening of DNA helix during replication? (1) DNA helicase (2) DNA polymerase (3) RNA polymerase (4) Topoisomerase ‘pace for Rough Work423. Select the Incorrect statement wrt. double helical structure of DNA. (1) The two chains of DNA run in anti-paraliol fashion (2) The backbone is phosphate (3) The nitrogenous bases project outwards (4) Guanine is bonded with cytosine with three H- bonds. 124, Select the incorrect match w.rt. lac-operon, constituted by sugar- (1) Lacz ~ Codes for f-galactosidase (2) Laca ~ Codes for transacetylase (8) Lacy — Codes for permease (4) gene — Provides attachment site for RNA polymerase @izs. me process of translation of mRNA to proteins begins when (1) Small ribosomal subunit encounters an mRNA (2) {RNAs charged (8) Peptide bond is formed (4) Amino acids is activated 126. In which of the given process, both of the given strands of nucleic acid act as template? (1) DNA replication (2) Transcription (3) Translation (4) Reverse transcription 127. The term nucleic acid was given by (1) Friedrich Miescher (2) Altmann (3) Mendel (4) Franklin 128. Mark the odd one wr. type of genetic material of the given organisms. (1) Escherichia colt (2) Human genome (3) Lambda phage (4) @* 174 bacteriophage 129. How many types of histones form the core part of 131 132, nucleosome? (2 5 @) 4 differentiated into heterochromatin and euchromatin regions, on the basis of staining behaviour in a typical nucious. Which of the given statements is/are correct wrt. heterochromatin? (A) Lightly stained region {B) Chromatin is densely packed (C) Transcriptionally itis inactive (0) Darkly stained region (1) (A) only (2) (A) and (C) only (3) (A), (8) and (C) (4) (B), (C) and (D) |. Which of the given enzymes is not involved during DNA replication on 345? (1) DNA polymerase | (2) DNA ligase (8) RNA polymerase (4) DNA dependent DNA polymerase In the process of transcription in eukaryotes, the RNA polymerase Il transcribes (1) Precursor of mRNA. (2) The adapter RNA (8) 5S rRNA and SnRNA. (4) RNAs ~ 288, 185 template with polarity ‘Space for Rough WorkTeed 193. What will be the sequence of mRNA produced by 134. 136. 136, 137, the following stretch of DNA? 3 ATCGGTTAAC 5° TEMPLATE STRAND 5’ TAGCCAATTG 3’ CODING STRAND. (1) 5 AUCGGUUARC 3° (2) 3: GUUAAGGCAU 5° (3) 3° GUUAACCGAU 5 (4) 5 UAGCCUUAAC 3° Allof the following are stop codons, except (1) UA, (2) AUG (3) VAG. (4) UGA DNA was extracted from a bacterial species. The Proportion of cytosine was found to be 30%, then calculate the proportion of purine? (1) 70% (2) 40% (3) 50% (4) 20% SECTION-B If hybrid DNA is allowed to replicate for one ‘generation in medium containing N'S and for second generation in medium containing N', then what should be the proportion of light, heavy and hybrid DNA respectively? (1) 25%, 0% and 75% (2) 0%, 25% and 75% (3) 25%, 25% and 50% (4) 0%, 0% and 100%. Which of the foliowing sequence of bases on lanticodon loop is true for tRNA that brings ‘methionine to the mRNA? (1) 5 AUG 3" (2) 5'caus’ () SuAC 3" (4) 5° GUAS" 4138, The uniform distance between two ONA sy 139. 140. 141 142, Tost a tra the helix is maintained, becaus nds (1) Purine comes abways oppo3H0 102 prtnidng (2) The plane of ona base pair stacks over ty, (3) The double chain of DNA is heicay tig, right-handed fashion (4) The two chains of ONA runs in paral fashion Select the Incorrect statement wrt, features of human genome. (1) Less than 2% of the genome codes for poten (2) Repeated sequences make up very tary portion of human genome (3) Chromosome 1 has most genes (4) The average gene consists of 300 bases The theory of one gene-one enzyme was put forward by (1) Jacob and Monod (2) Beadle and Tatum (3) Meselson and Stahl (4) Hershey and Chase Select the correct statements wr. UTRS. (A) These are additional sequences which are net translated. edn ‘alert (8) These are present at both 5° end after start codon and 3"end before stop codon. (C) These are present on mRNA. (0) Required for efficient translation process. (1) (A)and (B) only (2) Allof these. (3) (A), (C) and (0) only (4) (8), (C) and (0) only In fac operon, which of the given is site for binding of the product of regulator geno? (1) Terminator (2) Operator (3) Promoter (4) Structural gone443. Which of the following would block mature mRNA from being translated into protein? (1) A substance that causes mutation in template strand of DNA (2) A substance that blocks active sito of RNA polymerase (@) A substance that prevents the transter of amino acid to growing polypeptide chain (4) A substance that prevents removal of non- coding sequence from pre-mRNA +144. A drug functions by preventing the complementary binding of MRNA molecule to FRNA. ‘The drug most likely targets which of the given cell organelles? (1) SER (2) Nucteus {@) Ribosome (4) Golgi apparatus 445. Select an incorrect interpretation w.r.. a marriage between a colourblind female and a male with normal vision. (1) 100% of their sons will be affected (2) None of their daughter are affected (8) The colourblind female has affected father and cartier mother (4) Mother of male is homozygous récessive for the disorder 148. Select the incorrect statement wrt. phenylketonuria. (1) Its an inbom error of metabolism (2) The affected individual lacks an enzyme called phenylalanine hydroxylase that converts tyrosine into phenylalanine (3) The affected individual wil have accumulation of phenylpyruvic acid in brain (4) The affected individual wil be mentally retarded 4147, Select the correct option in which the given ‘combination results into Klinefeter’s syndrome. (A) Egg (22 + 0) * Sperm (22 +X) (8) Egg (22 + X) * Sperm (22 + 0) (C) Egg (22 + XX) « Sperm (22 + Y) (0) Egg (22 + x) x Sperm (22 + XY) (1) Both (A) and (B) (2) Both (B) and (C) (3) Only (©) (4) Both (C) and (0) 148, How many genotypes are possible in Fz generation ifa character is controlled by 3 pair of polygenes? a3 29 (3) 27 (4,8 149. Which of the given law proposed by Mendel is universally applicable? (1) Law of dominance (2) Law of segregation (3) Law of independent assortment (4) Both (1) and (3) 4150. Read the given statements stating them true (T) or false (F) and select the correct option. (A) Phenotype is ‘morphological appearance. observable (8) Skin colour in man is an example of polygenic inheritance. (C) Turner's syndrome is a Mendelian disorder. (1) AT. BT OF (4) AFB, CF ‘Space for Rough Work—s [ZOOLOGY] 155, Choose the option that completes the analog, a SECTION-A 151. General factors contributing to the increasing trend in population size from the year 1900 to 2000 excludes decline in (1) Maternal mortality rate (2) Infant mortality rate (3) Number of people in reproducible age (4) Absolute scarcity of basic requirements of food, shelter and clothing In-vivo type of assisted reproductive technology involving gamete transfer that is used to help those females who cannot conceive is (1) ZIFT (2) Ics! (3) GIFT (4) UT Term for natural type of contraceptive method involving the role of hormones is (1) Lactational amenorrhea (2) LNG-20 (3) Femidoms (4) Cotus interruptus 152. 153 184, How many of the following sexually transmitted infections are completely curable if detected early and treated property? Syphilis, Genital herpes, HIV _ infection, Trichomoniasis, Hepatitis-B, Chlamydiasis (1) One (2) Three (3) Two (4) Four 156, 187. 158, correctly. Hormone releasing IUD: releasing IUD : Multiload 375 (1) cur (2) Lippes' toop (2) Progostasert (4) Sahoti ‘According to the MTP amendment act of which yoar in India, may a pregnancy be terminated on certain grounds within the first 12 weeks on the opinion of one registered medical practitioner? (1) 1951 (2) 1971 (3) 2011 (4) 2017 Which among the following can be a primary constituent of implants that are used as contraceptive device? (1) Parathormone (2) Pitocin (8) Prolactin (4) Progestogens “Surgical intervention blocks gamete transport and thereby prevents conception.” This technique in females is / involves, (1) Known as tubectomy (2) Known as vasectomy (3) Removal of fallopian tubes (4) Removal of ovaries = Copper ‘Space for Rough Work159. 160. 161 162. Read the given statements |. Restrictions imposed around MTP promote indiscriminate and legalised female fosticide in Indi I Induced abortion leading to MTP is most widely accepted method of conception in our country. Select the correct option. (1) Statement lis true (2) Statement It is true (3) Both statements ! and tl are true (4) Both statements | and I! are false Select the statement which is not applicable to Sahel (1) Developed by scientists at CDRI, Lucknow (2) Chief ingredient is Centchroman (3) ‘Once a week pill with high contraceptive value (4) Its mode of action includes blocking menstruation, ‘Promoting early ovulation and implantation Natural methods of contraception working on the principle of avoiding chances of ovum and sperms ‘meeting exclude (1) Coitus interruptus (2) Spermicidal jellies (3) Withdrawal method (4) Periodic abstinence CChoose the mismatch wrt. contraceptive methods. | (1) | Diaphragm, ~ | Barrier methods | cervical caps | | and vautts @ | Vasectomy |=] Methods resuting in and tubectomy | | sterle male and female @ | Progestogen |-Ator the qually of ony pills cervical mucus (@) | Us suchas || Promote phagocytosis cut of sperms within the tte 163, 164. 1685, Read the given statements. (a) Adoption is considered as a legal and one of the best methods for infertile couples looking for parenthood. {b) Intrauterine insemination involves transfer of ‘embryo into fallopian tubes. {c) In ICSI, sperms are directly injected into the malo roproductive tract. ‘Solect the option that eorrectly mentions the above statements as true (T) of false (F). (1) aT, DF, oF (2) a-F,b-T,o-T (3) a-T, b-F, -T (4) oF, DF, CT Solect the incorrect match wt. STIs. Disease : causative (1) | Hepat ~ | Transfusion of blood (2)| HIV infection |= | Sharing utensils and | clothes @ | Genial warts | =| Viral venereal dsease | (0) Ticbomorass [=] Hin" nitance i | persons in age group of16-24years | Statutory ban on amniocentesis in ladia is applicable for detection of (2) Cleft palate (b) Down's syndrome (c) Haemophilia (d) Sex of the foetus (0) Sickle ~ cell anemia (9) Cleft tip Select the correct option. (1) (@), (b) and (f) (3) Only (2) (2) (0). (€) and (a) (4) (@and (f) ‘Space for Rough Work.DUET ae 166. Use of how many ofthe following can alterlinterfere with the sexual drive/act of the user? Condom, Injectables, IUDs, Oral pills, Sahel POP (1) One (2) Two 3) Three (4) Zero Which of the following is a correct statement? (1) Cu7 is generally inserted by user herself in her reproductive tract (2) Mutilosd 375 once inserted need not be replaced ever (3) CuT can be considered as a medicated IUD (4) LNG-20. makes the uterus suitable for implantation and the cervix non-hostile to the sperms “The zygote develops into an embryo which is retained with a food store within a protective structure, the seed.” ‘This statement is true for all, except (1) Angiosperms (2) Fems (3) Cycads (4) Dicots With regards to plant phylogeny, the bryophytes havelare (1) Descendants of tracheophytes (2) Evolved directly from tracheophytes (3) Ancestral to chlorophytes 167. 168. 169, (4) A separate line of evolution that arose from chlorophytes - 170. m1. 172. Czy Select the option with all statements that ae trya jo, Australopithecines. {a) Walked bipedally (b) Earliest fossils obtained from Australia (6) Man-like primates walked in East.Afican grasslands. (d) Existed probably 2-4 mya. (e) Fossils of man-like bones have been discovere in Ethiopia and Tanzania. (1) (@), (€), (d) and (e) (2) (a), (b), (c) and (4) (3) Only (b), (4) and (e) (4) Only (a), (c) and (d) Which among the following practiced ritualized burial of the dead and can be considered to have lived in Europe? (1) Dryopithecus (2) Homo sapiens neanderthalensis @) A. afticanus (4) Homo habitis The early evidence of the ‘use of fre’ by hominids is from a site in the Rift valley of Kenya, dated ‘approximately 1.5 mya, The hominids used fre and Probably ate meat, had a large brain possibly around (1) 650 cc = (2) 1400 ce L (3) 800 ce (4) 1950 cc ‘Space for Rough WorkAll inca Aakash T @ [01] Origin of Universe | - [ 20 Btton years ago ] [(@)| Ongin of Earth [a lowneteen [is | (3) | Origin of tite | 1) | Origin offiet | = | mmutt-cettutar form | | oftfe i 474, The hypothesis that the constituents in early atmosphere on Earth, combined with an energy source to produce monomers that eventually led fo formation of diverse organic molecules which aggregated to form frst life forms, was first given by (1) Oparin and Haldane (2) Miter and Urey (8) Louis Pasteur (2) Sidney Fox and S.L. Miter 175. The scientist whose efforts helped to dismiss the theory of spontaneous generation of life but could not explain / prove origin of first life forms was (1) SL. Miller (2) Louis Pasteur (2) SBS. Haldane (6) Al. Oparin 176. The source of energy in conditions created by Stanley Miller in laboratory to prove chemical evolution of life was predominantly (1) UV radiations (2) Spark discharge from electrodes (2) Bolling water (4) Vacuum pump 177. The earliest prokaryotes to evolve on earth would be most likely (1) Anaerobic chemoautotrophs (2) Chemoheterotrophs (3) Aerobic chemoautotrophs (4) Aerobic photoautotrophs Arborescent lycopods, horsetails and ferns dominated the land during (1) Carboniferous period (2) Carboniferous epoch (3) Carboniferous era (4) Cambrian period Which among the following doesn't fall in the commonly suggested line of evolution for mammals? (1) Therapsids (2) Thecodonts (3) Pelycosaurs (4) Early extinct reptiles Choose the correct option to complete the given analogy. Flying squirrel : Sugar glider : Mouse : (1) Wombat (2) Frying phatanger (3) Marsupial mouse (4) Numbat Fossils are remains of hard parts of ife forms found in rocks. They are likely to be found in relative abundance in which type of rocks? (1) Igneous (2) Granite (3) Sedimentary (4) Metamorphic 178, 179. 180. 181. ‘Space for Rough Work183. 184, ‘Statement A: Photoautotrophs used sunlight rather than inorganic molecules as a source of energy for converting COs into organic molecules. Statement B: The early photoautotrophs used H2S ‘as a sourco of hydrogen atoms. unlike cyanobacteria that used HzO as a source of hydrogen atoms. Select the correct option. (1) Both statements A and B are correct (2) Both statements A and B are incorrect {3) Only statement A is correct (4) Only statement Bis correct ‘Select the reason from options below that justifies why giraffes have a long neck as per Charles Darwin (1) twas designed by special creator in that way (2) They used neck more extensively than other body parts (@) They eventually contributed to greater reproductive success (4) Catastrophes eliminated short-necked forms Select the incorrect statement (4) Theory of Panspermia advocated by many ‘tronomers promotes the thought that units of ite called spores were transferred to different planets including earth (2) The geological history of earth correlates with the biological history (@) Darwin concluded that existing living forms share similarities not among themselves but also with life forms that existed milions of years 290 (4) Thomas Malthus, a French naturalist worked in Malay Archipelago and came to similar conclusions as Darwin 185. 186. 187. With roference to industrial mote that after pollution destroyed lichens on trees, the survival of the dark coloured pe, moth increased due to (1) Their more robust nature (2) Protection from predators (3) Protection from poisonous lichens (4) Iniroduction of mutation in dark coloured my, duo to pollution SECTION-B, . The unit of evolution is _A__while the unt oy natural selection is _B_. Choose the option tat fils the blanks correctly. (1) A= Species. B - Population (2) A~ Population, B — Individual ° (3) A~ Individual, B - Species (4) A= Individual, B - Population Select the mismatch wart. proponent mentioned regarding the prevalent thought. s e toa PePereg 108, (1) Inheritance of = [Lamarck] acquired characters | (2) | Idea of saltation = | Hugo de Vries (@) | Reproductive fitness | -| Alfred Wallace | and natural selection | (@)| Inhertable Yactors’ | - | Charles Darwin | influencing | phenotypes. | When a new allele suddenly becomes very abundant in a large population, which is the most likely cause? (1) Itis mutating rapidly (2) Bottleneck effect is being observed (3) Emigrants are bringing it with them (4) Itis being strongly selected by nature ‘Space for Rough Work"489. Which type of natural selection would the following case experience? “A population of mice, with coat colours that range from white to black including many intermediate shades, placed in an environment of white and black pebbles and exposed to an aerial predator’. (1) Stabiising selection {2) Balancing selection (3) Directional selection (4) Disruptive selection 190. Choose the incorrect match, (1) | Javaman | - e | @)| Prehistoric | - Fossils discovered in 1891 Homo habits | - Cave paintings at humans Bhimbetka rock shelters (4) | Cro-Magnon | - | Radiocarbon dating man indicates that they existed 1.5 mya 191, Select the correct statement. (1) Extneon of large reptles around end of Cretaceous lead to mammalian adaptive radiation in many ecological niches (2) Evolution of man with the gradual loss of language sls and sel-conscousness as no corelaonwihineeate in eral capac wih fine (3) Due to absence of continental drift, placental mammals of South America got isolated from © —_poushes’ mammals of Nor America ‘and Restate (4) Ichthyosaurs were reptile-ike fishes that migrated from terrestrial to aquatic habitat over time 192. Examples of homologous structures do not include (1) Wings of a bird and forelegs of a horse (2) Wings of a bat and wings of a butterfly (3) Tendrils of Cucurbita and thoms of Bougainvitloa (4) Hearts of various vertebrates 193. In humans, the muscles of ear pinna are examples of (1) Adaptive radiation (2) Coevolution (3) Vestigial structures (4) Divergent evolution 4194, Which of the following is false for Tyrannosaurus? (1) Iwas not a three-homed dinosaur (2) It can be described as bipedal, carnivore with dagger-lke teeth (3) It possibly shared common ancestor with Archaeopteryx, Brachiosaurus and Stegosaurus (4) It is a-direct ancestor of Crocodile, Pteranodon and Triceratops 195, Darwin's finches are not an example of (1) Adaptive radiation (2) Founder's effect (3) Convergent evolution (4) Natural selection 196. Specialised procedure to form an embryo in the laboratory in which a sperm is directly injected into the ovum is, (1) ET (2) Ics (3) AL (4) tur ‘Space for Rough WorkCUE 4197. Though all persons are vulnerable to STIs, thei incidences are very high among persons belonging to which age group? (1) 9-12 years (2) 40-55 years (8) 15-24 years (4) 25-40 years 4198. Which type of evolution is being referred to in the following line? “When more than one adaptive radiation appeared to have occurred in an isolated geographical area representing different habitats”. (1) Coevolution (2) Divergent evolution (3) Microevolution (4) Convergent evolution 199, Read statement given below. “The embryos of all vertebrates including human develop a row of vestigeal aill slits just behind the head but itis functional only in fish and not found in any other adult vertebrate”. a | = Select the option that correctly identines proponent of this obsorvation and the catege Evidences supporting the idea of evolution, 27% 200. Category of evidence | Proponent (1) | Embryological Emst Hecke! (2) | Anatomical and Ernst Hecker Morphology {@) | Palacontological Karl von Baer (4) | Embryological Emsier | Read the given statements and select the incor statement, - (1) While creation and presence of variation jg directionless, natural selection can te directional as itis in the context of adaptation (2) Appearance of _—_ antibiotic resistant © cellsforganisms in a time scale of months or years and not centuries is an example of evolution by anthropogenic action * (a) The rate of appearance of new forms is never linked to the life cycle or the life span (4) Adaptive ability Is inherited and has a genetic basisCT All India Aakash Test Series for NEET - 2022 Test Date : 2610972021 ANSWERS | x a) a1. 121.(1) 161.2) | 20 2) 2 0) 172.(1) 162.2) 2 2 @) 3. @) 123.0) 163.1) + @ 4 @ 8.) 124.) 164. 2) 5 @) 3) 85. (4) 125.(1) 165. (9) 5 mat 88. @) 128.(1) 166. (4) 7 @ 47. @) 87. (8) 127.2) 167.3) @ 5 @ 3) 88. (a) 128.) 168.2) 2 3 2. @ a. 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(4) 33.) 79. @ 119.2) 159. (4) 199.(1) 40) 0) 120.4) 160. (4) 200.(9) Corporate Office: Rakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delh-110005, Phone "01147620456,