Prelims Practice Series

Indian and World

Geography

Drishti Publications
(A Unit of VDK Publications Pvt. Ltd.)

641, First Floor, Dr. Mukherjee Nagar, Delhi-110009

Telephone: 011-47532596, 8750187501

Website
www.drishtiias.com
 CONTENTS

1. Origin of Universe, Earth & Life 1-42

2. Rocks & Minerals 43-49

3. Atmosphere, Distribution of Temperature & Heat Budget 50-68

4. Pressure & Wind Systems 69-86

5. Condensation & Precipitation 87-92

6. Cyclones & Anticyclones 93-100

7. Weather & Climate 101-118

8. Weathering, Mass Movement & Erosion 119-125

9. Landforms 126-138

10. Oceans & Oceanic Resources 139-161

11. Physiography 162-187

12. Drainage System 188-224

13. Natural Vegetation 225-246

14. Soil 247-257

15. Population 258-278

16. Agriculture 279-310

17. Resources of India & World 311-330

18. Industries 331-343

19. Location & Mapping 344-387

20. Miscellaneous 388-396

 1 Origin of Universe,
Earth & Life

1. Geomorphic factors influencing plants and animals  Minor Tectonic Plates: These include Arabian Plate,
distributions are: CDS Exam (I) 2020 Caribbean Plate, Cocos Plate, Juan de Fuca Plate,
(a) slope angle and relief only Nazca Plate, Philippine Sea Plate, and Scotia Plate.
(b) slope aspect and relative relief  Tertiary Tectonic Plates: They are numerous in number.

(c) slope angle, slope aspect and relief ‰ Saudi Arabian plate is not a major tectonic plate.

(d) slope angle, slope aspect and relative relief

Answer: (d)
Explanation:
‰ Slope angle, slope aspect and relative relief are the
geomorphic factors that influence plants and animals
distribution.
‰ Slope angle and slope aspect are crucial factors
responsible for causing differences in distribution of
plants and animals. Variation in these parameters causes
variation in moisture content, air and soil temperature, Tectonic Plates
rate of evaporation, which in turn affects the composition Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
and distribution of associated flora and fauna.
3. The four planets closest to the Sun are called
‰ Relative relief features mainly include land and soil type.
Different types of soils provide basis for different types  CDS Exam (II) 2020
of vegetation, which in turn affects the distribution of (a) terrestrial planets (b) giant planets
animals that depend on it. Regions having fertile soils (c) dwarf planets (d) gas planets
generally see concentration of populations of different Answer: (a)
species of plants and animals.
Explanation:
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Type of Definition
2. Which one of the following is not a major tectonic plate? Planet
 CDS Exam (II) 2020
The four planets closest to the Sun are called
Terrestrial

(a) Saudi Arabian plate

Planets

terrestrial planets because they are solid and

(b) Antarctica and the surrounding oceanic plate rocky planets, like the earth. Mercury, Venus,
(c) India-Australia-New Zealand plate Earth and Mars are the terrestrial planets.
(d) Pacific plate These planets are very big and are mostly
Gas Giants
Planets/

Answer: (a) composed of gases like hydrogen and helium

Giant

Explanation: and do not have hard surfaces, for example,

Jupiter.
‰ The surface of the earth is divided into different tectonic
plates. A dwarf planet is a celestial body that is in orbit
Dwarf Planets

‰ Tectonic plates are of following types: arbit around the sun. It has sufficient mass for
 Major Tectonic Plates: These include Antarctica and its self gravity to overcome rigid body forces
the surrounding oceanic plates, North American plate, so that it assumes hydrostatic equillibrium.
South American plate, Pacific plate, India-Australia- It has not cleared the neighbourhood around
New Zealand plate, Africa with the eastern Atlantic its orbit and is not a satellite.
floor plate, Eurasia and the adjacent oceanic plates. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

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Indian and World Geography Prelims Practice Series

4. On 21st June, the Sun UPSC CSE (Pre) 2019 6. If the equatorial plane of earth is not inclined to its orbit,
(a) does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle then: CAPF (ACs) Exam 2019
(b) does not set below the horizon at Antarctic Circle (a) Duration of the year would be longer
(c) shines vertically overhead at noon on the Equator (b) Summer would be warmer
(d) shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of Capricorn (c) There would be no change of seasons
Answer: (a) (d) Winter would be longer
Explanation: Answer: (c)
‰ During ‘Summer Solstice’, on 21st June, the Northern Explanation:
Hemisphere witnesses its longest day of the year, while ‰ If the plane of the Earth’s Equator is not inclined to the
the Southern Hemisphere sees its shortest day. plane of its orbit, then there would be no change in
‰ During this time, the Earth’s North Pole is at its maximum seasons.
tilt towards the Sun and the Sun appears directly ‰ Inclination of the earth’s equatorial plane means, tilting
overhead at 23.5° N latitude, i.e., along the Tropic of of the earth towards the orbit. Due to this, there is a
Cancer. variation in seasons all over the world. Summer,
‰ As the Arctic Circle falls in the Northern Hemisphere, the monsoon and winter are the three main variations of
Sun does not set below the horizon during Summer the season. Also, the low temperature in southern and
Solstice, because here the sunrise and sunset start to northern hemisphere is the result of inclination of the
converge in the northern sky. In contrast, the same event Earth’s equatorial plane.
happens in the Antarctic Circle during Winter Solstice, Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
i.e., on 22nd December.
7. Which one among the following stars is nearest to the
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. Earth? CDS Exam (I) 2019
5. Which one of the following represents the inner planets? (a) Sirius (b) Arcturus
 CAPF (ACs) Exam 2019 (c) Spica (d) Proxima Centauri
(a) Planets between the sun and the earth Answer: (d)
(b) Planets between the sun and the belt of asteroids Explanation:
(c) Planets near the earth ‰ Proxima Centauri is the closest star to the Earth.
(d) Planets around the sun ‰ Sirius is a binary star which is also known as Canis Mojaris
Answer: (b) or the Dog Star. It is the brightest star in the night sky.
Explanation: ‰ Arcturus is the brightest star in constellation of bootes
‰ The inner planets lie between the sun and the belt of and also the brightest star in northern celestial
asteroids. They include four planets, namely mercury, hemisphere.
venus, earth and mars. These planets have smaller and ‰ Spica is a close binary star which lies in northern
denser bodies. They are also known as terrestrial planets. constellation of virgo.
‰ The inner planets are composed mainly of refractory Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
minerals, such as the silicates, which form their crusts 8. Which of the following planets of our solar system has
and mantles, and metals, such as iron and nickel, which the least mass? CDS Exam (I) 2019
form their cores.
(a) Neptune (b) Jupiter
(c) Mars (d) Mercury
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
‰ Increasing order of mass of planets is:
Mercury < Mars < Venus < Earth <Uranus < Neptune <
Saturn < Jupiter.
‰ Mass of mercury is 0.0553 of the earth’s mass.
‰ The planet mercury is nearest to the Sun. It is the smallest
planet of our solar system with no satellite of its own.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

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 2 Rocks & Minerals

1. Which one of the following minerals is not a naturally 3. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using
occurring silicate? CAPF (ACs) Exam 2020 the codes given below the lists: UPPCS (Pre) 2019
(a) Feldspar (b) Zeolite List-I (Coal Field) List-II (Location)
(c) Mica (d) Bauxite A. Talcher 1. Damodar valley
Answer: (d) B. Karnapura 2. Son valley
Explanation:
C. Singrauli 3. Godavari valley
‰ Feldspar, zeolite and mica are minerals whereas bauxite
is an ore. D. Singareni 4. Mahanadi valley
‰ Bauxite is an ore comprising primarily of alumina and
Codes:
parts of silica, iron oxides and titanium dioxide. It appears A B C D
to be a reddish clay-like material. (a) 4 1 2 3
‰ India’s bauxite deposits are mainly found in the (b) 3 2 1 4
Amarkantak plateau, Maikal hills and in the plateau (c) 2 4 3 1
region of Bilaspur-Katni.
(d) 1 3 2 4
‰ Odisha is the largest producer of bauxite, contributing
Answer: (a)
to nearly fifty percent of the country’s total production.
Explanation:
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Coal Field Location
2. Which one of the following materials contains calcium?
 UPPCS (Pre) 2019 ‰ Talcher coalfield is the largest
(a) China clay (b) Corundum repository of power grade coal in
India.
(c) Gypsum (d) Talc Talcher
‰ It occupies a basin in south-eastern
Answer: (c) (A-4)
part of the Mahanadi valley belt of
Explanation: Gondwana Basin and is located
‰ Gypsum: Gypsum (calcium sulfate hydrate) is formed mainly in Angul district of Orissa.
during the evaporation of sea water and thus, may occur
‰ Karnapura coalfield forms the part
with evaporite salts and/or with limestone. The gypsum
of Ranchi, Hazaribagh and Palamau
deposits are mined and generally converted into Plaster Karnapura
districts of Jharkhand State.
of Paris which is used for construction. (B-1)
‰ The coalfield forms a part of the
‰ China clay: Kaolin, also called china clay, is a soft
Damodar river basin.
white clay that is an essential ingredient in the
manufacturing of china clay and porcelain. It is widely ‰ Singrauli coalfield is spread across
used in the making of paper, rubber, paint and many the districts of Singrauli and
other products. It does not contain calcium. Singrauli Sonbhadra in the states of Madhya
‰ Corundum: Corundum is a very hard, tough and stable
(C-2) Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh
mineral. For all practical purposes, it is the second respectively. The coal field lies
hardest mineral after diamond. It is unaffected by acids mostly in the Son River valley.
and most environments. Translucent brown corundum ‰ The Singareni coal field stretches
Singareni
and emery are the most common forms of corundum. across the Pranahita – Godavari
(D-3)
‰ Talc: Talc is a hydrous magnesium silicate mineral. Valley in the state of Telangana.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

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Indian and World Geography Prelims Practice Series

4. Which one of the following sedimentary rocks is 6. Chemical weathering of rocks is much greater in a place
organically formed ? NDA & NA Exam (II) 2019 with: NDA & NA Exam (I) 2018
(a) Shale (b) Chert (a) Cold and dry climate
(c) Halite (d) Chalk (b) Hot and humid climate
Answer: (d) (c) Hot and dry climate
Explanation: (d) Cold and humid climate
‰ Shale is a fine-grained sedimentary rock formed from Answer: (b)
the compaction of silt and clay-size mineral particles Explanation:
commonly called 'mud'. ‰ Chemical weathering is a gradual and ongoing process
‰ Chert is a sedimentary rock composed of microcrystalline that changes the composition of rocks, often transforming
or cryptocrystalline quartz, a mineral form of silicon them when water interacts with minerals to create
dioxide (SiO2). various chemical reactions.
‰ Halite is mainly a sedimentary mineral that is usually ‰ It basically increases with the rise in temperature and
found in arid climates where ocean water evaporates. rainfalls. Thus, rocks in hot and wet climates experience
‰ Chalk is a variety of limestone composed mainly of
faster rates of chemical weathering than do rocks in cold,
calcium carbonate derived from the shells of tiny marine dry climates. Hence, hot and humid climate suits the
process.
animals and also from the calcareous remains of marine
algae known as coccoliths. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer. 7. Which of the following statements relating to Dharwar
geological system are correct? CAPF (ACs) Exam 2016
5. Which one of the following is not an igneous rock?
 CAPF (ACs) Exam 2018 1. They belong to Archaean geological period.
(a) Granite (b) Gneiss 2. They are metamorphosed sedimentary rocks.
(c) Pumice (d) Basalt 3. They are of great economic importance for its mineral
resources.
Answer: (b)
4. They are found predominantly in Karnataka, Tamil
Explanation: Nadu, Odisha and Jharkhand.
‰ Igneous Rocks: These type of rocks are formed when
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
magma comes out and cools and then solidifies. As
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
igneous rocks are formed out of magma and lava from
the interior of earth, they are also known as primary (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1 and 2 only
rocks. Examples of igneous rocks include granite, gabbro, Answer: (a)
pegmatite, basalt, volcanic rock (pumice) and tuf. Explanation:
‰ Sedimentary Rocks: The Earth's crust is made up of ‰ Rocks of Dharwar system were formed as a result of the
different types of rocks. Due to external factors, these erosion and sedimentation of the rocks of Archaean
rocks roll down, crack and hit each other, resulting into geological period, which dates between 2.5 billion to 1.8
small fragments. These fragments are then transported billion years ago. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
by wind, water, etc. These loose sediments are ‰ They were formed due to the metamorphosis of the
compressed hardened to form layers of rocks known as sediments formed out of the Archean rocks. Hence,
sedimentary rocks. Examples of sedimentary rocks statement 2 is correct.
include sandstone, conglomerate, limestone, shale, ‰ Rocks of Dharwar system are economically very
loess, geyserite, chalk, coal, chert, halite and potash. important. All prominent metallic minerals like gold, iron,
‰ Metamorphic Rocks: They are formed when igneous and manganese, etc., are mined from these rocks. Hence,
sedimentary rocks come under great heat turning them statement 3 is correct.
into metamorphic rocks. They are still under great ‰ Rocks of this system are found in southern Deccan region
pressure and heat and can melt down to form molten predominantly in Karnataka and Tamil Nadu and in the
magma again. Examples of metamorphic rocks include regions of Odisha and Jharkhand. Hence, statement 4 is
gneissoid, syenite, slate, schist, marble and quartzite. correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

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 3 Atmosphere, Distribution of
Temperature & Heat Budget

1. Insolation percentage received on Pole as compared to Explanation:

Equator is approximately: ‰ The rate at which the temperature decreases with
Combined Geo-Scientist (Pre) Exam 2020 increase in height is known as normal lapse rate. This
(a) 42 percent (b) 68 percent decrease is roughly at the rate of 1° Celsius for every 165
meters of height.
(c) 33 percent (d) 47 percent
‰ Tropopause is the upper limit of the troposphere.
Answer: (d)
Temperature stops to fall with the increase in height at
Explanation: this level, and is nearly constant.
‰ Insolation is the incoming solar energy intercepted by Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
the earth. The amount of insolation decreases from the
equator towards the poles. It is the most important 3. The lowest temperature is observed/recorded in which
element controlling the earth’s weather and climate. It one of the following layers of the atmosphere?
determines the temperature of the earth.  CAPF (ACs) Exam 2018
‰ However, there is variation in the insolation received at (a) Stratosphere (b) Mesosphere
the same latitudes of the earth because it is guided by (c) Thermosphere (d) Troposphere
the local factors of the region. Answer: (b)
‰ Insolation received at subtropical deserts is maximum Explanation:
whereas insolation received at equator is less than the
insolation received at tropics.
‰ Insolation at land (continents) will be more than the
insolation at oceans. It will be greater in summers and
less in winters. It will be more at tropics than at poles.
‰ Out of 100% insolation, only 51% reaches the earth’s
surface, which also gets reflected back. Ice-covered or snow
covered areas reflect 2-3% of insolation. 49% of the total
insolation gets reflected, scattered and absorbed in the
atmosphere before reaching the earth’s surface.
‰ Hence, the equator receives somewhat 51% and the
poles receive around 2-3% of the insolation. Also, the
difference between the insolation received at equator
and poles is 45-47%.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
2. The normal lapse rate of temperature of Earth’s
atmosphere drops to 0°C at the
NDA & NA Exam (II) 2019
(a) upper part of ionosphere.
(b) upper boundary of the tropopause.
(c) lower part of mesosphere.
(d) upper boundary of stratopause.
Answer: (b) Structure of Atmosphere

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Prelims Practice Series Atmosphere, Distribution of Temperature & Heat Budget

‰ Temperature decreases with an increase in altitude. It 6. Which one of the following statements about temperature
is known as Normal Lapse Rate. is correct? NDA & NA Exam (II) 2018
‰ However, in the stratosphere, the temperature starts to (a) Temperature decreases with height in the
increase up to the stratopause. This phenomenon is stratosphere.
called the Inversion of Temperature. (b) Temperature is constant at different heights in the
‰ In mesosphere, the temperature again starts to decrease stratosphere.
with increasing altitude. The coldest temperature in the (c) Temperature increases with height in the troposphere
Earth’s atmosphere is found near the top of this layer at an average rate of 6.5°C per kilometer.
(-90°C). (d) Temperature decreases with height in the troposphere
‰ In thermosphere, the temperature rises rapidly with at an average rate of 6.4°C per kilometer.
increasing height. The ionosphere is part of this layer. Answer: (d)
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. Explanation:
4. Which of the following causes adiabatic temperature ‰ In troposphere, the temperature generally decreases
changes in atmosphere? CDS Exam (I) 2018 with height at an average rate of 6.4°C per kilometer.
(a) Deflection and advection The gases present in this zone generally absorb very less
amount of incoming solar radiation.
(b) Latent heat of condensation
‰ The actual rate at which the temperature drops with
(c) Expansion and compression of the air
altitude is called the environmental lapse rate.
(d) Partial absorption of solar radiation by the
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
atmosphere
Answer: (c) 7. Most ozone gas (about 90%) is located in the atmospheric
Explanation: layer of  CDS Exam (II) 2017
The rate of change of temperature by expansion and (a) ionosphere (b) troposphere
compression of the air mass is called adiabatic temperature (c) stratosphere (d) mesosphere
change of the atmosphere. The word adiabatic means no outside Answer: (c)
heat is involved in the warming or cooling of the air parcels. Explanation:
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. ‰ Although ozone is present in small concentrations
throughout the atmosphere, most (arount 90%) of it
5. The maximum concentration of ozone is found in which
exists in the stratosphere (layer 10-50 km above the
of the following? UPPCS (Pre) 2018
Earth’s surface).
(a) Troposphere (b) Mesosphere
‰ In stratosphere, temperature remains constant up to the
(c) Stratosphere (d) Exosphere height of 20 kms after which it gradually increases up to
Answer: (c) the height of 50 kms, due to the presence of the ozone
Explanation: layer (also called ozonosphere).
‰ Ozone is a gas that is naturally present in our atmosphere. ‰ The ozonosphere layer is also called chemosphere
About 90% of Ozone concentration is found in the because a lot of chemical activities take place here. The
stratosphere, which begins about 10–16 km above temperature rises at the rate of 5°C per kilometre
Earth’s surface and extends up to about 50 km altitude. through out the ozonosphere. Ozonosphere absorbs
‰ The stratospheric region with the highest ozone ultra-violet radiations and shields life on earth from
concentration is commonly known as the ozone layer. intense and harmful radiations.
The ozone layer extends over the entire globe with some ‰ This layer is almost free from clouds and associated
variation in altitude and thickness. This layer absorbs weather phenomenon, making conditions most ideal for
ultra-violet radiations and shields life on earth from flying planes. However, sometimes, cirrus clouds are
intense and harmful solar radiations. present at lower levels in this layer.
‰ The remaining ozone, about 10%, is found in the ‰ The lower portion of the stratosphere is also influenced by
troposphere, which is the lowest region of the the polar jet stream and subtropical jet stream. The upper
atmosphere, between Earth’s surface and the limit of the stratosphere is known as stratopause and it is
stratosphere. the zone separating stratosphere from the mesosphere.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

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 4 Pressure & Wind Systems

1. Consider the following statements: 2. In the region of eastern shore of Adriatic Sea, a cold and
UPSC CSE (Pre) 2020 dry wind blowing down from the mountain is known as
1. Jet streams occur in the Northern Hemisphere only. CDS Exam (I) 2020
(a) Mistral (b) Bora
2. Only some cyclones develop an eye.
(c) Bise (d) Blizzard
3. The temperature inside the eye of a cyclone is nearly
10°C lesser than that of the surroundings. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only Wind Characteristics
(b) 2 and 3 only Dry and cold north-easterly winds that
(c) 2 only blow towards the Eastern shore of the
(d) 1 and 3 only
Bora Adriatic Sea from the mountains. Such
winds are confined to the lowest levels of
Answer: (c) the Troposphere.
Explanation:
These winds occur during winter and are
‰ Jet Stream is a geostrophic wind blowing horizontally cold and dry in nature that blows in Spain
through the upper layers of the troposphere, generally Mistral
and France from North-West to South-East
from west to east, at an altitude of 20,000 - 50,000 feet. direction.
‰ Jet Streams develop where air masses of different Cold and dry wind in Switzerland blows from
temperatures meet. So, usually surface temperatures Bise Swiss Plateau.
determine where the Jet Stream will form.
Blizzard is a severe winter storm
‰ Greater the difference in temperature, faster is the wind
characterised by strong winds and heavy
velocity inside the jet stream. Jet Streams extend from Blizzard
snowfall. These winds are mostly prevalent
20° latitude to the poles in both hemispheres. Hence, in the North and South Polar regions.
statement 1 is not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
‰ Cyclones are of two types, tropical cyclone and
temperate cyclone. The center of a tropical cyclone is 3. In the Hadley cell thermal circulation, air rises up and
known as the ‘eye’, where the wind is calm at the center finally descends at: CDS Exam (I) 2020
with no rainfall. However, in a temperate cyclone, there (a) inter tropical convergence zone
is not a single place where winds and rains are inactive, (b) doldrums
so the eye is not found. Hence, statement 2 is correct. (c) subtropical high-pressure cells
‰ The warmest temperatures are found in the eye itself, (d) equatorial troughs
not in the eyewall clouds where the latent heat occurs. Answer: (c)
The air is saturated only where convective vertical Explanation:
motions pass through flight level. Inside the eye, the ‰ Hadley Cells are the low-latitude overturning circulations
temperature is greater than 28°C and the dewpoint is that have air rising at the equator and air sinking at
less than 0°C. These warm and dry conditions are typical roughly 30°N and S latitude producing high pressure
of the eyes of extremely intense tropical cyclones. Hence, region over the subtropical belt.
statement 3 is not correct. ‰ They are responsible for the trade winds in the Tropics
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. and control low-latitude weather patterns.

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Indian and World Geography Prelims Practice Series

Answer: (c)
Explanation:
‰ Mistral is a cold and dry strong wind in southern France.
It blows down from the north along the lower Rhone
River valley towards the Mediterranean Sea.
‰ It is most frequent in winter and sometimes causes
considerable damage to crops.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
7. Doldrums are: CAPF (ACs) Exam 2019
1. equatorial calms
2. calm and light winds
3. Roaring Forties
Tropospheric Cells
4. variable both in position and in extent
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 only
4. Which one of the following is the natural vegetation of (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4
Southeast China? NDA & NA Exam (I-II) 2020
Answer: (a)
(a) Subtropical broadleaf evergreen forest
Explanation:
(b) Tropical broadleaf evergreen forest
‰ Doldrums, also known as Equatorial Low Pressure Belt,
(c) Tropical deciduous forest
is an area that lies between 10°N and 10°S latitudes.
(d) Temperate evergreen forest
‰ It is a thermally induced belt caused by high insolation
Answer: (a) and the convective rise of air (updraft). This region
Explanation: observes vertical cloud like cumulonimbus with thunder
‰ Southeast China mainly comprises of Subtropical and lightning and afternoon shower followed by
broadleaf evergreen forest. Here, the crests of the taller atmospheric stability with absolute calm. Hence, 1 is
hills contain temperate cloud-forest communities, but correct.
low hills and inter-montane basins support seasonally
‰ As this zone happens to be the zone of convergence of
dry, subtropical forest.  
trade winds from two hemispheres from sub-tropical
‰ It is adapted well to wet summers and an extended cool,
high pressure belts, there are extremely calm and light
dry season that lasts from November until April.
air movements. Hence, 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
‰ The position of the doldrums varies with the movement
5. ‌Which‌ ‌one‌ ‌of‌ ‌the‌ ‌following‌ ‌countries‌ ‌is‌ ‌called‌ ‌the‌ of the Sun, thus they are variable both in position and
‌‘country‌ ‌of‌ ‌winds’?‌ ‌ NDA & NA Exam (I-II) 2020 in extent. Hence, 4 is correct.
(a)‌ ‌India (b)‌ ‌China‌ ‌ ‰ Roaring Forties are Westerly winds that originate from
(c)‌ ‌Denmark‌ (d)‌ ‌Germany‌ ‌ ‌ sub tropical high pressure belt and move towards sub-
polar low pressure belt and, prevail between 35° to 60°
Answer: ‌(c)‌
latitudes. Hence, 3 is not correct.
Explanation:‌
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Denmark‌ ‌is‌ ‌called‌ ‌the‌ ‌‘country‌ ‌of‌ ‌winds’‌. It is on the
top in the proportion of wind power in the world. Denmark’s‌ 8. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
‌wind‌ ‌power‌ ‌vision‌ ‌is‌ ‌to‌ ‌make‌ ‌its‌ ‌electricity‌ ‌sector‌ ‌fossil-free UPPCS (Pre) 2019
by 2030.‌ ‌‌ (Wind) (Country)

Therefore,‌‌option (c)‌‌is‌‌the‌‌correct‌‌answer.‌ (a) Santa Ana California
6. Which one of the following is a cold local wind? (b) Haboob Sudan
NDA & NA Exam (I-II) 2020 (c) Yamo Japan
(a) Santa Ana (b) Chinook (d) Mistral Australia
(c) Mistral (d) Loo Answer: (d)

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 Condensation &
5 Precipitation
1. In the context of which of the following do some Answer: (b)
scientists suggest the use of cirrus cloud thinning Explanation:
technique and the injection of sulphate aerosol into ‰ Dew is a type of precipitation where water droplets form
stratosphere? UPSC CSE (Pre) 2019 on the ground or on objects near the ground in a process
(a) Creating the artificial rains in some regions called condensation of moisture. The favourable weather
(b) Reducing the frequency and intensity of tropical elements for dew include clear skies, light wind, decent
cyclones soil moisture and low night-time dew point depressions.
(c) Reducing the adverse effects of solar wind on the ‰ Dew forms when the temperature becomes equal to the
Earth dew point, i.e., the atmospheric temperature below
(d) Reducing the global warming which water droplets begin to condense and results in
Answer: (d) the formation of dew.
Explanation: ‰ Long wave emission from the Earth’s surface causes it
to cool at night and as the atmospheric temperature
‰ Cirrus cloud thinning is a kind of technique that involves
reaches the dew point, dew can form. However, cloud
thinning of the wispy, elongated cirrus clouds of high
cover prevents this from happening as it reflects back
altitudes.
the Earth’s radiation.
‰ Cirrus clouds do not reflect a lot of solar radiation back
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
into the space, but as these are formed at high altitudes
with cold temperatures, these clouds trap long-wave 3. Which one of the following is applicable to collision-
radiation and have a climate impact similar to greenhouse coalescence process of precipitation? CDS Exam (I) 2018
gases. (a) Clouds which do not extend beyond the freezing
‰ Thinning of cirrus clouds would be achieved by injecting level.
ice nuclei (such as dust) into regions where cirrus clouds (b) Clouds which extend beyond the freezing level.
are present, making the ice crystals bigger and reducing
(c) All types of clouds.
the cirrus optical depth. Thinning the clouds would allow
more heat to escape into space and thereby, cool the (d) Cirrocumulus cloud.
planet. Answer: (a)
‰ Stratospheric Aerosol Injection (SAI) is a technique that Explanation:
involves spraying of large quantities of inorganic particles ‰ In warm clouds, where all of the cloud droplets are liquid,
(e.g. Sulphur dioxide) into the stratosphere to act as a the collision-coalescence process is the primary
reflective barrier against the incoming sunlight, thus mechanism responsible for producing precipitation.
helping to reduce the global warming. ‰ Cloud droplets collide and coalesce or stick together.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer. Larger cloud droplets have slightly higher terminal
velocities because they have the smaller surface area to
2. Why are dewdrops not formed on a cloudy night?
weight ratios. This advantage allows them to fall faster
 UPSC CSE (Pre) 2019 and collide with smaller cloud droplets.
(a) Clouds absorb the radiation released from the Earth’s ‰ Sometimes, the cloud droplets will stick together and
surface. coalesce to form a larger droplet. This begins positive
(b) Clouds reflect back the Earth’s radiation. feedback where these larger droplets then fall even
(c) The Earth’s surface would have low temperature on faster, collide with even smaller droplets in their path
cloudy nights. and aggregate more cloud droplets together.
(d) Clouds deflect the blowing wind to ground level. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

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Indian and World Geography Prelims Practice Series

4. Which one of the following places does not fall on Explanation:

leeward slope? CDS Exam (II) 2018 ‰ Nimbostratus clouds bring continuous precipitation that
(a) Pune (b) Bengaluru can last for many hours. These low-level clouds are full
(c) Leh (d) Mangaluru of moisture.
Answer: (d) ‰ These are multi-level, grey, often dark, amorphous,

Explanation: nearly uniform clouds that usually produce continuous

rain, snow or sleet but no lightning or thunder.
‰ The mountains block the passage of rain bearing winds,
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
thus, creating a condition of rain shadow or leeward side
on the opposite side of the mountain. This side is 7. Which one of the following is not a favourable condition
generally dry and receives low rainfall as compared to for occurrence of a thunderstorm?
windward side of the mountain.  CAPF (ACs) Exam 2017
‰ From the given options, Mangaluru does not fall on the (a) Conditional and convective instability.
leeward side of the Western Ghats. It is on the windward
(b) Adequate supply of moisture in the lower
side of this mountain range.
atmosphere.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
(c) Advection of cold dry air in the lower troposphere
5. South Arcot and Ramanathapuram receive over 50 and warm moist air in the upper troposphere.
percent of their annual rainfall from which one of the (d) A synoptic situation of low level convergence and
following? CDS Exam (II) 2018 upper level divergence.
(a) South-west monsoon Answer: (c)
(b) North-east monsoon Explanation:
(c) Bay of Bengal branch of summer monsoon ‰ Low level moisture is assessed by examining boundary
(d) Western disturbances layer dewpoints. Severe thunderstorms are more likely
Answer: (b) to occur when the surface dewpoint is 55 F or higher, all
else being equal. Low dewpoint values inhibit sufficient
Explanation:
latent heat release and significantly reduce the tornado
‰ The Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) is a low
threat.
pressure zone located at the Equator where trade winds
‰ Tornadoes are more likely to occur when the low
converge and so, it is a zone where air tends to ascend.
convergence level is relatively low as compared to
In July, the ITCZ is located around 20°N-25°N latitudes
relatively high. The depth of moisture in the lower
(over the Gangetic plain), sometimes called the monsoon
troposphere and the rate of moisture advection are also
trough. This monsoon trough encourages the development
important to examine.
of thermal low over north and northwest India.
‰ While a lack of moisture in the lower troposphere
‰ Due to the shift of ITCZ, the trade winds of the Southern
reduces the severe storm threat, a lack of moisture in
hemisphere cross the Equator between 40° and 60°E
the middle troposphere is helpful to the severe storm
longitudes and start blowing from southwest to
threat if there is abundant moisture in the lower
northeast due to the Coriolis force. It becomes southwest
troposphere. Convective (potential) instability is present
monsoon.
in this situation.
‰ In winter, the ITCZ moves southwards, and so, the
‰ The advection of higher dew point values into the
reversal of winds from northeast to south and southwest
boundary layer can increase instability in a severe
takes place. They are called northeast monsoons.
weather situation. This is often accomplished by
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. advection from a warm ocean source.
6. Which one of the following types of cloud is characterized Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
by continuous precipitation?
8. Which of the following statements with regards to
 NDA & NA Exam (II) 2018 cloudburst is/are correct?  CDS Exam (I) 2017
(a) Cirrocumulus (b) Cumulus 1. It is defined as sudden localized very heavy downpour
(c) Nimbostratus (d) Cumulonimbus with cloud thunder and lightning.
Answer: (c) 2. It mostly occurs in the hilly areas.

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 6 Cyclones & Anticyclones

1. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer Explanation:
using the codes given below the lists: Cyclones are rapid inward air circulations around a low-
 UPPCS (Pre) 2020 pressure area. The air circulates in an anticlockwise direction
List-I List-II in the Northern Hemisphere and clockwise direction in the
Southern Hemisphere.
(Tropical Cyclone) (Country)
A. Baguios 1. Australia Tropical Cyclone Temperate Cyclone
B. Hurricanes 2. China It moves from east to west It moves from west to east
C. Typhoons 3. Philippines following the trade winds. with westerlies.
D. Willy-Willies 4. United States of Tropical cyclone has an Temperate cyclone affects
America effect on a smaller area. a much larger area.
Codes: It has a more damaging Temperate cyclone has
A B C D effect because of high relatively less velocity of
(a) 3 4 1 2 velocity of the wind. the wind.
(b) 3 4 2 1 It is formed only on the sea It can be formed on both
(c) 2 3 4 1 surface with much higher land and sea
temperature of 27 degree
(d) 2 1 3 4
centigrade.
Answer: (b)
Its duration is of not more It can last for up to 15-20
Explanation:
than 7 days. days.
Tropical Cyclone Country Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Baguios (A-3) Philippines
3. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
Hurricanes (B-4) United States of America
using the codes given below the lists:
Typhoons (C-1) China  UPPCS (Pre) 2019
Willy-Willies (D-2) Australia List-I List-II
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. (Tropical Cyclone) (Country)
2. Which one of the following may be the true characteristic A. Willy-Willies 1. Philippines
of cyclones? CDS Exam (I) 2019 B. Taifu 2. Australia
(a) Temperate cyclones move from west to east with C. Baguio 3. Japan
westerlies whereas tropical cyclones follow trade D. Hurricanes 4. U.S.A.
winds.
Codes:
(b) The front side of cyclone is known as the ‘eye of
A B C D
cyclone’.
(a) 3 4 1 2
(c) Cyclones possess a centre of high pressure
surrounded by closed isobars. (b) 2 3 4 1
(d) Hurricanes are well-known tropical cyclones which (c) 1 3 2 4
develop over mid-latitudes. (d) 2 3 1 4
Answer: (a) Answer: (d)

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Indian and World Geography Prelims Practice Series

Explanation: ‰ The conditions favourable for the formation and

intensification of tropical storms are:
Tropical Cyclone Country
 Large sea surface with a temperature higher than 27°
Willy-Willies (A-3) Australia
C. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Taifu (B-4) Japan  Presence of the Coriolis force. Hence, statement 2 is
Baguio (C-1) Philippines correct.
Hurricanes (D-2) U.S.A.  Small variations in the vertical wind speed.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.  A pre-existing weak low-pressure area or low-level-
cyclonic circulation.
4. Which one of the following can be said to be essentially
 Upper divergence above the sea level system.
related to ‘Polar Front Theory’? NDA & NA Exam (I) 2019
‰ A mature tropical cyclone is characterized by the strong
(a) Anticyclone
spirally circulating wind around the centre, called the
(b) Tropical Cyclone eye. The diameter of the circulating system can vary
(c) Temperate Cyclone between 150 and 250 km.
(d) Inter Tropical Convergence ‰ The eye is a region of calm with descending air. Around
Answer: (c) the eye is the eye wall, where there is a strong spiraling
Explanation: ascent of air to a greater height reaching the tropopause.
The wind reaches maximum velocity in this region. From
‰ The ‘Polar Front Theory’ explains about where the storms
the eye wall, rain bands may radiate and trains of
originate. It states that cyclone orginates at the polar
cumulus and cumulonimbus clouds may drift into the
fronts where the polar easterlies and the westerlies meet.
outer region. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
‰ The theory states that waves start to develop along the
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
polar front and as the wave develops, it takes on a
cyclonic motion. This Polar Front is majorly located in 6. The ‘eye of the cyclone’ has: CDS Exam (I) 2016
the middle latitudes and marks the polar front transition (a) Abnormally high temperature and lowest pressure
region, separating warmer tropical air from colder polar (b) Abnormally low temperature and pressure
air in the mid-latitudes.
(c) Clear sky and lowest temperature
‰ This region also possesses a strong temperature gradient
(d) Dense cloud cover and low pressure
and thus, it is a reservoir of potential energy that can be
readily tapped and converted into the kinetic energy Answer: (a)
associated with extratropical cyclones (temperate Explanation:
cyclones). ‰ The atmospheric disturbances which involve a closed
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. circulation around a low pressure zone are called
Cyclones. They are anticlockwise in the Northern
5. Which of the following statements about tropical cyclone hemisphere and clockwise in the Southern hemisphere.
are correct? CAPF (ACs) Exam 2018
‰ They play a vital role in the exchange of latitudinal heat
1. It originates and develops over warm oceanic surface. and maintenance of heat balance along different
2. Presence of Coriolis force is necessary for it. latitudes. The main parts of a tropical cyclone are the
3. It occurs in middle latitudinal region. rainbands, the eye and the eyewall.
4. It develops ‘eye’ with calm and descending air ‰ Eye: It is the centre of the tropical cyclone and a region
condition. of calm with subsiding air. It has abnormally high
Select the correct answer using the codes given below: temperature and lowest pressure.
‰ Rainbands: These are curved bands of clouds and
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 4
thunderstorms that trail away from the eye wall in a
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4
spiral fashion. These bands are capable of producing
Answer: (b) heavy bursts of rain and wind as well as tornadoes. There
Explanation: are sometimes gaps in between spiral rain bands where
‰ Tropical cyclones are violent storms that originate over no rain or wind is found.
oceans in tropical areas and move over to the coastal ‰ Eyewall: Eyewall is around the eye, where there is a
areas. Hence, statement 3 is not correct. strong spiralling ascent of air to greater height reaching

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 7 Weather & Climate

1. According to Koppen’s climatic classifications of India, 3. Which of the following statements regarding
Great Northern Plains are represented by: Mediterranean and Monsoon climate is/are correct?
 CAPF (ACs) Exam 2020  CDS Exam (I) 2020
(a) Cwg Climate (b) Aw Climate 1. Precipitation in Mediterranean climate is in winter
(c) Amw Climate (d) As Climate while in Monsoon climate it is mostly in summer.
Answer: (a) 2. The annual range of temperature in Mediterranean
Explanation: climate is higher than the Monsoon climate.
‰ The Koppen Climate Classification System is the system 3. Rainy and dry seasons are found in both the climates.
used for classifying the world’s climate. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
‰ ‘Cwg’ climate is represented by monsoon with dry winter (a) 1 only
that is predominantly experienced in the Ganga plain,
(b) 2 and 3 only
eastern Rajasthan, northern Madhya Pradesh and in
most of the North-eastern part of India. These regions (c) 1 and 3 only
collectively constitute the Great Northern Plains. (d) 1, 2 and 3
‰ ‘Aw’ climate is for the tropical savannah which can be Answer: (c)
seen in the south of the Tropic of Cancer like most of the Explanation:
regions of the peninsular plateaus.
‰ Confined entirely to the Western portion of continental
‰ ‘Amw’ climate represents monsoon with short dry masses, the Mediterranean climate lies between 30° and
season. This type of climate is experienced along the 45° north and south of the equator. On the other hand,
west coast of India, like the south of Goa.
the Monsoon climate is found along the coastal regions
‰ ‘As’ climate is for monsoon with dry summer. The of southwest India, Sri Lanka, Bangladesh, Myanmar,
Coromandel coast of Tamil Nadu experiences this type Thailand, Laos, Cambodia and parts of Vietnam.
of climate.
‰ The Mediterranean lands receive most of their
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
precipitation in winter when the Westerlies shift towards
2. Which one of the following climatic types is found in equator, whereas Monsoon climate has a similar annual
Central Spain? CDS Exam (I) 2020 precipitation pattern with that of the rainforests, that is
(a) Subarctic largely confined to the high Sun season. Mediterranean
(b) Mediterranean dry hot summer land experiences heavy summer rain of about 150 cm.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
(c) Subtropical Steppe
‰ The Mediterranean climate is considered to be a resort
(d) Humid continental warm summer
climate due to its pleasant and comfortable winter
Answer: (d)
season (average temperature ranges between 5°C and
Explanation: 10°C). The mean summer temperature also ranges
‰ There are different climatic zones in Spain due to its large between 20°C to 27°C. The mean annual range of
size. temperature of the Mediterrancan climate becomes 15°C
‰ In Central Spain, the climate is continental, with baking to 17°C on even more. Monsoon climate has a similarity
hot summers and quite cold winters. with tropical rain forests climate as here the temperature
‰ Modest continental atmosphere is experienced in inland is consistently being high all year. The average annual
areas of the peninsula such as the city of Madrid. temperature is 27.05°C (80.7° F). Hence, statement 2 is
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer. not correct.

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Indian and World Geography Prelims Practice Series

‰ The Mediterranean climate has the characteristics of 5. In which of the following regions of the world, the
clear skies and high temperatures, hot, dry summers and production of citrus fruits is well developed?
cool, wet winters. In the Northern hemisphere, the  UPPCS (Pre) 2020
prevailing onshore Westerlies bring much cyclonic rain (a) Monsoon regions
from the Atlantic. Monsoonal areas experience dry warm (b) Tropical high lands regions
summer season (March to June), humid warm summer (c) Mediterranean regions
season (July to October) and dry winter season
(d) Equatorial regions
(November to February). It experiences abundant rainfall
like that of the tropical rain forest climate. Hence, Answer: (c)
statement 3 is correct. Explanation:
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. ‰ The mediterranean region lying between 30° to 45° north
and south of the equator is most favourble for the
4. The Isotherm Line, which divides India North-South in growth of citrus fruits. About 70% of the world total
almost two equal parts in the month of January, is prodcution comes from this region.
 CDS Exam (II) 2020 ‰ A wide range of citrus fruits such as oranges, figs, olives
(a) 10 °C (b) 25 °C and grapes are usually cultivated in this region.
(c) 15 °C (d) 20 °C ‰ Mediterranean regions are known as ‘Orchards of the
Answer: (d) world’ for their fruit cultivation.
Explanation: Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
‰ The Isotherms are lines that join places having equal 6. Atmospheric conditions are well-governed by humidity.
temperature. Which one among the following may best define
‰ The isotherm line, which divides India, North-South humidity? CDS Exam (I) 2019
in almost two equal parts in the month of January is (a) Form of suspended water droplets caused by
20 °C. The Tropic of Cancer divides India into two equal condensation
parts. (b) Deposition of atmospheric moisture
(c) Almost microscopically small drops of water
condensed from and suspended in air
(d) The moisture content of the atmosphere at a
particular time and place
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
‰ The amount of moisture content present in the
atmosphere at a particular time and place is called
humidity. Humidity can be of different types namely:
 Absolute Humidity: It is the measure of water vapour
in the air, nonetheless temperature.
 Relative Humidity: It is the percentage of moisture
present in the air as compared to its full capacity.
 Dew Point: It can be defined as the temperature at
which air is 100% saturated and is not capable of
holding additional amount of moisture.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
7. Which one of the following regions is an important
supplier of citrus fruits? CDS Exam (II) 2019
(a) Equatorial region
(b) Mediterranean region
Isotherms in India during the Month of January (c) Desert region
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer. (d) Sub-humid region

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 8 Weathering, Mass
Movement & Erosion

1. The gently sloping accumulation of coarse alluvium ‰ High rate of soil erosion in Chambal Valley is due to ravine
deposits by a braided stream is known as: formation and top soil erosion. Chambal Valley falls
 CAPF (ACs) Exam 2019 under the most critical zone for the formation of gullies.
(a) sand bar (b) alluvial fan Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
(c) bajada (d) diaras
3. Which one of the following countries does not experience
Answer: (a) Mediterranean climate? CISF AC (EXE) LDCE 2019
Explanation: (a) Syria (b) Jordan
‰ Sand Bar: It is a long raised area of sand below the
(c) Lebanon (d) Israel
surface of water, usually formed by moving currents. It
is an area where the river enters the sea. It is also the Answer: (b)
gently sloping accumulation of coarse alluvium deposits Explanation:
by a braided stream. ‰ Mediterranean climate is subtropical in nature. It is
‰ Alluvial Fans: These are cone-shaped depositional characterized by hot, dry summers and mild, humid
landforms built by streams and are heavy with sediments. winters.
They are formed when streams flowing from mountains ‰ The climate of Jordan is hot and dry, characterized by
break into foot slope plains of low gradient. They appear long-dry summers and short, cool winters.
throughout the Himalayan foothills in the North Indian
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
plains.
‰ Bajada: It is formed by the interfuse of alluvial fans. This 4. Stalactite, stalagmite and pillars are the depositional
fan-shaped deposit is formed from the deposition of landforms of: NDA & NA Exam (II) 2019
sediment by a stream from upland region onto flat land (a) running water (b) wind
at the base of a mountain and is common in arid areas,
(c) glacier (d) underground water
where a large quantity of sediment is deposited by flash
floods. Answer: (d)
‰ Diaras: These are pieces of land that get created in the Explanation:
middle of a river as a result of deposition of sands over ‰ Stalactite is an icicle-shaped mass of calcite, grown down
the decades. from the cave ceiling while stalagmites grow up from the
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. cave floor.
‰ Pillars are the joining points of a stalactite and stalagmite
2. Which one of the following river valleys of India is under
the influence of intensive gully erosion? which lead to the formation of a cave pillar or column.
 CDS Exam (I) 2019 ‰ Stalactite, stalagmite and pillars are the elongated forms
of various minerals deposited from solution by slowly
(a) Kosi (b) Chambal
dripping underground water.
(c) Damodar (d) Brahmaputra
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: 5. Directions: The following item consists of two statements,
‰ The removal of soil by the running surface water along Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two
with drainage lines is called gully erosion. It is one of the statements carefully and select the correct answer using
most damaging forms of soil erosion. the codes given below: CDS Exam (I) 2018

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Indian and World Geography Prelims Practice Series

Codes: faster rates of chemical weathering than rocks in cold,

(a) Both the statements are individually true and dry climates. Hence, hot and humid climate suits the
Statement II is the correct explanation of process.
Statement I Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
(b) Both the statements are individually true but 7. Which one of the following is not a process of chemical
Statement II is not the correct explanation of weathering? NDA & NA Exam (II) 2018
Statement I (a) Solution (b) Carbonation
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false (c) Oxidation (d) Exfoliation
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true Answer: (d)
Statement I : By far the most common topographic Explanation:
form in a Karst terrain is the sinkhole. ‰ Chemical weathering is a process that includes solution,

Statement II: Topographically, a sinkhole is a carbonation, hydration, oxidation and reduction. These
act on the rocks to decompose, dissolve or reduce them
depression that varies in depth from less than a meter
to a fine clastic state through chemical reactions by
to few hundred meters.
oxygen, surface, soil water and other acids.
Answer: (b)
‰ Exfoliation is not the process of chemical weathering. It
Explanation: is a process of weakening and separation of the surface
‰ Limestone is soluble in rain water, with which carbon layers of rock as a result of chemical or thermal
dioxide forms a weak acid. A region with large stretch of weathering or of pressure release due to erosion.
limestone forms a distinct type of topography called Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
‘Karst’ terrain.
‰ On the surface of limestone are numerous swallow holes,
8. In India, glacial terraces known as ‘Karewas’ are found
which are small depressions carved out by solution in: NDA & NA Exam (I) 2016
where rain water sinks into limestone at the point of (a) Saptkosi Valley (b) Jhelum Valley
weakness. They are also known as sinkholes. (c) Alaknanda Valley (d) Teesta Valley
‰ These are by far the most common topographic forms Answer: (b)
in the Karst terrain. A sinkhole is a depression in the Explanation:
ground that varies in depth from less than a meter to ‰ Glacial terraces known as ‘Karewas’ are the thick deposits
few hundered meters and has no natural external surface of glacial clay and other materials embedded with
drainage. Hence, statements I and II are true. moraines. These are majorly found in the Valley of
Both the statements are individually true but Statement Kashmir, especially in the Bhadarwah Valley of the
II is not the correct explanation of Statement I Jammu Division, which is also known as Jhelum Valley.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. ‰ The lacustrine deposits (deposits in the lake) are useful
for the cultivation of Zafran, a local variety of saffron.
6. Chemical weathering of rocks is much greater in a place
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
with: NDA & NA Exam (I) 2018
(a) Cold and dry climate 9. In Thar region, the shifting sand dunes are locally known
(b) Hot and humid climate as: NDA & NA Exam (I) 2016
(c) Hot and dry climate (a) Dhrian (b) Daurs
(d) Cold and humid climate (c) Dhoros (d) Dhaya
Answer: (b) Answer: (a)
Explanation: Explanation:
‰ In Thar region, the shifting sand dunes are locally known
‰ Chemical weathering is a gradual and ongoing process
that changes the composition of rocks, often transforming as Dhrian. This is the local name which is given to the
them when water interacts with minerals to create sand dunes of Rajasthan, Thar desert.
various chemical reactions. ‰ The depression of the sand which is blown from the Thar
Desert of Rajasthan is called as the Dhand.
‰ It basically increases as the temperatures rise and the
rain falls. Thus, rocks in hot and wet climates experience Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

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 9 Landforms

1. A long narrow stretch of sand and/or shingle with one ‰ Karst landforms are found in various parts of the world
end attached to the mainland is called such as the Kwangsi area of China, Causses of France,
 CAPF (ACs) Exam 2020 the Yucatán Peninsula, and the Middle West, Kentucky
and Florida of the United States.
(a) Sand spit (b) Sandbar
(c) Sand dune (d) Tombolo
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
‰ Tombolo is a deposition landform in which an island is
attached to the mainland by a narrow piece of land, such
as a spit or bar.

Karst Landforms
‰ Poljes are depressions in limestone karst, that commonly
occur as large scale landform in tectonically active karst
areas. Polje is the largest karst landform found in karstic
geological regions of the world.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Tombolo
‰ Tombolo is an Italian word meaning ‘pillow’ or ‘cushion’.
3. Which one of the following is not a fluvial landform?
 CDS Exam (II) 2020
‰ Two or more tombolos may form an enclosure called a
(a) Cirque (b) Gorge
lagoon.
(c) Braids (d) Canyon
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Answer: (a)
2. Which one of the following karst landforms is the largest Explanation:
in size? CAPF (ACs) Exam 2020 The landforms developed by running water, particularly
(a) Polje (b) Uvala in humid areas are called fluvial landforms.
(c) Swallow Hole (d) Sink Hole Landform Type
Answer: (a) Cirque: Cirques are deep, long and wide
Explanation: troughs or basins with very steep concave
to vertically dropping high walls at its head, Glacial
‰ A typical landform produced by the action of groundwater
as well as sides. They are quite often found
through the process of solution and deposition in the at the heads of glacial valleys.
regions of limestone or dolomite is called Karst
Gorge: A narrow valley with steep, rocky
topography. The rocks of this topography are dense, Fluvial
walls located between hills or mountains.
highly jointed and thinly bedded.
Braids: It is present in braided river channels. Fluvial
‰ It is named after the typical topography developed in
the limestone rocks of Karst region, in the Balkans Canyon: A deep narrow valley with steep
Fluvial
sides.
adjacent to the Adriatic Sea.

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Prelims Practice Series Landforms

Answer: (c)
Explanation:
‰ Isoclinal: It is formed when the two limbs of a fold are
parallel to each other and, thus, approximately parallel
to the axial plane.
‰ Anticlinal: It is a fold that is convex upward and has its
oldest beds at the core.
‰ Recumbent: It is a fold which is so gentle that the
inclination of the strata is barely perceptible. The strata
of the two flanks may be essentially parallel or lie nearly
flat. Moreover, it has an essentially horizontal axial plane.

Glacial Landforms
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
4. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer
using the code given below the Lists:
 CAPF (ACs) Exam 2019
List I List II Major Types of Folds
(Landform) (Agent) ‰ Monoclinal: It involves local warping in horizontal strata
A. Loess 1. Wind deposited and rock beds, lying at two different levels, separated
B. Tombolo 2. Glacier deposited by steep inclined limbs.
C. Point bars 3. River deposited Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
D. Moraines 4. Sea deposited
6. A deep valley characterized by steep step-like slope is
Code: known as  NDA & NA Exam (II) 2019
A B C D (a) U-shaped valley.
(a) 1 4 3 2
(b) Blind valley.
(b) 1 3 4 2
(c) Gorge.
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) Canyon.
(d) 2 4 3 1
Answer: (d)
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Explanation:
‰ U-shaped Valley: Glacial troughs or U-Shaped valleys are
Landform Agent the result of the process of glaciation. They have
Loess Wind deposited characteristic of mountain glaciations in particular.
Tombolo Sea deposited ‰ Blind Valley: It is a deep, narrow, flat bottomed valley
with an abrupt ending. It arises in the limestone or karst
Point bars River deposited
landscapes basically, where a layer of permeable rock
Moraines Glacier deposited lies above an impermeable substrate.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. ‰ Gorge: It is a deep cleft valley formed between
escarpments or cliffs resulting from weathering, and the
5. In which one of the following folds is the axial plane found
erosive activity of a river over time. Basically, it is a
to be virtually horizontal? NDA & NA Exam (II) 2019
narrow valley between hills or mountains with steep
(a) Isoclinal
rocky sides.
(b) Anticlinal
‰ Canyon: A canyon is a deep, narrow valley with steep
(c) Recumbent sides. The Grand Canyon in the U.S. State of Arizona is
(d) Monoclinal an example of tectonic uplift.

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 10 Oceans & Oceanic
Resources

1. With reference to Ocean Mean Temperature (OMT), Answer: (a)

which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? Explanation:
 UPSC CSE (Pre) 2020 ‰ The highest surface part of a wave is called the crest,
1. OMT is measured up to a depth of 26°C isotherm and the lowest part is the trough.
which is 129 meters in the south-western Indian ‰ The vertical distance between the crest and the trough
Ocean during January-March. is the wave height. The horizontal distance between two
2. OMT collected during January-March can be used in successive crests or troughs is known as the wave length.
assessing whether the amount of rainfall in monsoon ‰ The height of a wave is affected by wind speed, wind
will be less or more than a certain long-term mean. duration, or how long the wind blows, and fetch, which
Select the correct answer using the code given below: is the distance over water that the wind blows in a single
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only direction.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
‰ Scientists from Pune’s Indian Institute of Tropical
Meteorology (IITM) have found that OMT has better
ability to predict Indian summer monsoon than the Sea
Surface Temperature (SST).
‰ The SST is restricted to a few millimetres of the top ocean
layer and is largely influenced by strong winds,
evaporation, or thick clouds. In contrast, OMT, which is ‰ When the wind speed is slow, it results in the formation
measured up to a depth of 26°C isotherm, is more stable of small waves only. If the wind speed is great, but blows
and consistent, and the spatial spread is also less. for a few minutes only, no large waves will be formed.
‰ The 26°C isotherm is seen at depths varying from 50-100 ‰ When strong winds blow for a longer period of time but
metres. During January-March, the mean 26°C isotherm‘s over a shorter distance, no large sea-waves occur.
depth in the Southwestern Indian Ocean is 59 metres. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
‰ With OMT, the information on whether the amount of 3. Which one of the following does not illustrate the
monsoon rainfall will be more or less than the long-term importance of the Coral Reef? CAPF (ACs) Exam 2020
mean can be available by beginning of April, two months (a) They provide employment to the people
before the southwest monsoon can set in. This is because (b) They supply building materials
OMT is analysed by measuring the ocean thermal energy (c) They protect shoreline from storms
during the period from January to March. Hence,
(d) They protect communities from earthquakes
statement 2 is correct.
Answer: (d)
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Explanation:
2. The distance between two successive crests or troughs ‰ Coral Reefs are home to 1/4th of the total population of
of sea waves is called as: CAPF (ACs) Exam 2020 marine species. These are the labyrinths of living
(a) wave length (b) wave height limestone and are the basis for the formation of other
(c) wave frequency (d) Fetch ecosystems. For example, The Coral Triangle.

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Indian and World Geography Prelims Practice Series

‰ They absorb wave energy and contribute to the reduction

of coastal erosion.
‰ Mining of coral reefs for calcium and construction
material has become threat for the sustainability of coral
reefs.
‰ Healthy coral reefs support commercial and subsistence
fisheries as well as jobs and businesses through tourism
and recreation.
‰ Coral reefs are an important source of protein and
millions of people around the world depend on them for
food, protection and employment.
‰ The corals have developed an arsenal of very effective
chemical weapons to defend themselves and fight in the
conquest of reef space. Moreover, as its nature is very
Oceanic Currents
similar to our bones, the coral’s skeleton is a promising
lead for bone regeneration. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer. 5. Which one of the following is considered as the deepest
point of the oceans? CDS Exam (II) 2020
4. Which of the following are warm ocean currents?
(a) Tonga Trench (b) Mariana Trench
 CDS Exam (I) 2020
(c) Philippine Trench (d) Kermadec Trench
(a) Kuroshio and California Current Answer: (b)
(b) North Atlantic Drift and Brazil Current Explanation:
(c) Canaries and Benguela Current ‰ In the Pacific Ocean, somewhere between Guam and the
(d) West Wind Drift and Falkland Current Philippines, lies the Mariana Trench.
Answer: (b) ‰ The bottom of the Mariana Trench is Challenger Deep,

Explanation: the deepest point on Earth.

‰ The deepest point of Tonga trench is Horizon Deep,
‰ Ocean currents are continuous movements of water in
which is also considered as the second deepest point on
the ocean that follow set paths. Ocean currents move
earth.
from one place to another and help to maintain
‰ Galathea Depth in the Philippine trench is the 3rd deepest
temperature equilibrium.
point.
‰ Based on temperature, Ocean currents are classified into
two types: cold currents (For example, Labrador Current,
Peruvian Current, Benguela Current, etc) and warm
currents (For example, Kuroshio Current, Gulf Stream,
North Atlantic drift, etc).
‰ The ocean currents which move from a warm region to
cold regions (from the equator towards pole) are called
warm currents. These are usually observed on the east
coast in the low and middle latitudes in both the
hemisphere and on the west coast of the continents in
higher latitudes of the northern hemisphere.
‰ Cold current bring down the temperature of a place
below its latitudinal normal and warm current increases
the temperature of a place above its latitudinal normal.
Mariana Trench
‰ Distribution of cold and warm currents is shown in the
map given below: Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

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 11 Physiography

1. Which one of the following is the youngest mountain ‰ Sonoran is the hot desert that is found in North America.
range of India? UPPCS (Pre) 2020 ‰ It has a sub-tropical climate and recieves 75 to 380 mm
(a) Himadri Range (b) Aravally Range of rain per year.
(c) Western Ghat (d) Vindhya Range ‰ It is also called Desierto de Altar.
Answer: (a) Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Explanation: 3. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
‰ The Greater Himalayas or the Himadri is the Northern using the code given below the lists:
most, and the highest range of the Himalayas. With an  CDS Exam (II) 2019
average elevation of around 6,000 m above sea level, this List-I List-II
is the loftiest and the youngest mountain range of India.
(Peak) (Name of Hill)
‰ It is mainly formed of central crystalline rocks (mostly
A. Anaimudi 1. Nilgiri
granite and gneisses) overlaid by metamorphosed
sediments. B. Doddabetta 2. Satpura
‰ The highest mountain peak of the world, Mount Everest
C. Dhupgarh 3. Aravali
(8,848 m) is situated in this range. D. Guru Shikhar 4. Annamalai
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. Code:
A B C D
2. Sonoran is a: CAPF (ACs) Exam 2019
(a) 3 2 1 4
(a) desert area of North America
(b) 3 1 2 4
(b) seasonal wind of France
(c) 4 1 2 3
(c) cash crop of Mediterranean region
(d) 4 2 1 3
(d) tribe in South Africa
Answer: (c)
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Explanation:
‰ Anaimudi is a famous peak situated in the Annamalai
Hills that ranges from the Western Ghats and extends
upto the borders of Tamil Nadu and Kerala.
‰ Annamalai Hills is also known as the Elephants Hill
because it is the home to the largest surviving population
of Asiatic Elephants, Nilgiri Tahrs and Gaurs. The Hill is
also famous for Neela Kurinji flower, that blooms in every
12th year.
‰ Doddabetta is the highest mountain peak of Nilgiri Hills
in the state of Tamil Nadu.
‰ Dhupgarh Peak is situated in the Satpura Hill Range, near
Panchmarhi in the state of Madhya Pradesh.
‰ Guru Shikhar is situated in the Arbuda Mountains of the
Aravali Hills in Rajasthan. Guru Shikhar is the highest
peak of the Aravali Range.
Sonoran Desert Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

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4. Telegraphic Plateau is a part of UPPCS (Pre) 2019 ‰ Remains of the Lower Paleolithic (around 500,000 to
(a) North Atlantic Ridge (b) South Atlantic Ridge 125,000 Before Present) Soanian culture were found in
(c) Indian Ocean Ridge (d) None of these the Shiwalik region. Also, a fossil jaw found in the
Himalayan highlands of Tibet belongs to a vanished
Answer: (a) human species called Denisovans. Hence, statement 3
Explanation: is correct.
Telegraphic plateau is a part of the North Atlantic Ridge, Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
which is relatively flat and shallow, when compared to the rest
of the oceans away from the shore. 7. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of
the hills of Central India located from West to East?
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
 UPPCS (Pre) 2019
5. ‘Imphal Basin’ surrounded by Manipur hills is a fine (a) Maikal, Satpura, Mahadeo and Chhotanagpur
example of: UPPCS (Pre) 2019 (b) Satpura, Mahadeo, Maikal and Chhotanagpur
(a) Lacustrine plain (c) Maikal, Mahadeo, Satpura and Chhotanagpur
(b) Loess plain (d) Satpura, Mahadeo, Chhotanagpur and Maikal
(c) Glacial plain Answer: (b)
(d) Alluvial plain Explanation:
Answer: (a) The correct sequence of the hills of Central India located
Explanation: from West to East is Satpura hills followed by Mahadeo hills,
‰ The valley of Kashmir, the Imphal Basin in the Manipur then Maikal hills and then Chhotanagpur hills.
hills are examples of Lacustrine plain.
‰ The depositions of sediments in a lake give rise to
a Lacustrine Plain or Lake Plains.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
6. With reference to the Himalayan range, which of the
statement(s) is/are correct? UPPCS (Pre) 2019
1. The sedimentary rocks of the greater Himalayas were
fossil less.
2. Marine livings fossils are found in the sedimentary Hills of Central India
rocks of lesser Himalayas. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
3. Remains of human civilization are found in outer or
Shivalik Himalayas. 8. Consider the following statements:
 UPSC CSE (Pre) (2018)
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
1. The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located
Code:
in the Indian territory.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
2. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
3. The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was
Answer: (d) in 1991 and it has remained inactive since then.
Explanation: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
‰ The sedimentary rocks of greater Himalayas are fossils (a) 1 only
less as the rocks are metamorphosed under very high (b) 2 and 3
temperatures. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
(c) 3 only
‰ Shells, pebbles and marine fossils are found in the
(d) 1 and 3
limestone beds of the tallest and the youngest mountain
ranges of the Himalayas, a geological evidence that Answer: (a)
proves that the Himalayas rose from the Tethys Sea. Explanation:
Especially in Nepal, Ammonites (sea animals having ‰ Barren Island is India’s only active volcano which is
shells) are found in large numbers in the Kali Gandaki located in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. Hence,
river. Hence, statement 2 is correct. statement 1 is correct.

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 12 Drainage System

1. Consider the following pairs: UPSC CSE (Pre) 2020 Explanation:

River Flows into ‰ Lonar Lake, also known as Lonar crater, is a saline and
1. Mekong Andaman Sea alkaline lake located at Lonar in Buldhana
2. Thames Irish Sea district, Maharashtra.
3. Volga Caspian Sea ‰ It is believed to have been created over 52,000 years
ago, when a meteorite hit the Earth. Mineral content of
4. Zambezi Indian Ocean
Lonar lake is found to be similar to that of moon rocks.
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
‰ Chilika Lake is India’s largest brackish water lagoon,
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only located in the state of Odisha.
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only ‰ Loktak Lake is a freshwater lake, known for floating
Answer: (c) swamps called Phumdis and is located in the state of
Explanation: Manipur.
‰ Mekong River, originates in the icy headwaters of the ‰ Pangong Lake is located in the Union Territory of Ladakh
Tibetan highlands, flows through the steep canyons of and is the world’s highest saltwater lake.
China, known as the upper basin and through lower basin Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
countries Myanmar, Laos, Thailand, and Cambodia,
before fanning an expansive delta in Vietnam and 3. Which among the following is a west flowing river?
emptying into the South China Sea. Hence, pair 1 is not  CISF AC (EXE) LDCE 2020
correctly matched. (a) Teesta (b) Tapti
‰ River Thames, the longest river in England, flows from (c) Subarnarekha (d) Betwa
the Cotswolds to the North Sea. The main tributaries of Answer: (b)
Thames are Buscot, Reading, and Kingston. Hence, pair
Explanation:
2 is not correctly matched.
‰ Tapti also known as Tapi, is one among the major rivers
‰ The Volga River, the longest river in Europe, runs through
of central India.
Russia and finally drain into the Caspian Sea just south of
the Kazakhstan border. Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched. ‰ It is a major west flowing river covering the states of
Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat.
‰ The Zambezi is the fourth largest river after the Congo/
Zaire, Nile and Niger in Africa. It rises in the Kalene hills Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
in north-western Zambia and flows eastwards finally 4. Which of the following rivers is a Trans-Himalayan river?
draining into the Indian Ocean. Hence, pair 4 is correctly  UPPCS (Pre) 2020
matched.
(a) Jhelum (b) Sutlej
Therefore, the option (c) is the correct answer.
(c) Ganga (d) Ravi
2. Which one of the following lakes in India has a large Answer: (b)
quantity of a substance found in the Moon?
Explanation:
 CDS Exam (II) 2020
‰ The Indus, Sutlej, and Brahmaputra are the Trans-
(a) Lonar Lake, Maharashtra
Himalayan rivers. They are named so because they
(b) Pangong Lake, Ladakh originate beyond the Great Himalayas.
(c) Chilika Lake, Odisha ‰ The Trans-Himalayas is the mountain range found north
(d) Loktak Lake, Manipur of the Himalayas.
Answer: (a) Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

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5. Consider the following tributaries of River Yamuna and Explanation:

arrange them from West to East: UPPCS (Pre) 2020 The ‌Krishna‌ ‌Raja‌ ‌Sagar‌ ‌Dam‌ ‌was‌ ‌built‌ ‌across‌ ‌river‌ ‌Kavery‌
1. Betwa 2. Ken in‌ the state of ‌Karnataka.‌ ‌It is ‌the‌ ‌main‌ ‌source‌ ‌of‌ ‌drinking‌ ‌water‌
3. Sindh 4. Chambal ‌for‌ ‌the ‌Mysore‌ ‌city‌ ‌and‌ ‌almost‌ ‌the‌ ‌whole‌ ‌of‌ ‌Bangalore.‌ ‌
Select the correct answer from the codes given below. Therefore, option‌‌(d) is‌‌the‌‌correct‌‌answer.‌‌
Code: 7. Consider the following pairs UPSC CSE (Pre) 2019
(a) 4, 3, 1 and 2 Glacier River
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 1. Bandarpunch : Yamuna
(c) 3, 2, 1 and 4 2. Bara Shigri : Chenab
(d) 2, 3, 1 and 4 3. Milam : Mandakini
Answer: (a) 4. Siachen : Nubra
Explanation: 5. Zemu : Manas
‰ The Yamuna River is the western most and the longest Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
tributary of the Ganga, has its source in the Yamunotri (a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4
glacier on the western slopes of the Banderpunch Range. (c) 2 and 5 (d) 3 and 5
It joins the Ganga at Prayagraj (Allahabad).
Answer: (a)
‰ It is joined by Chambal, Sindh, Betwa, and Ken on its right
Explanation:
bank, which originates from Peninsular plateau while
Hindon, Rind, Sengar, Varuna, etc, join Yamuna it on its ‰ An important glacier of the Yamuna river basin is
left bank. Bandarpunch glacier in the Garhwal division of the
Himalayas. It is situated on the Northern slopes of
Bandarpunch West, Khatling peak and Bandarpunch
peak. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.
‰ Bara Shigri is the largest glacier located in the Lahaul
Spiti region in Chandra Valley, Himachal Pradesh. It is
the second longest glacier in the Himalayas after
Gangotri. It flows northwards and feeds the Chenab river.
Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched.
‰ Milam glacier in Munsiyari, Pithoragarh district,
Uttarakhand is the source of Gori Ganga river. Gori Ganga
is an important tributary of Kali River. Hence, pair 3 is
not correctly matched.
‰ Siachen glacier in Kashmir is located at an altitude of
roughly 5,400 meters. It is the source of the Nubra river,
a tributary of the Indus river flowing into Pakistan and
draining into the Arabian Sea. Hence, pair 4 is correctly
matched.
‰ Zemu glacier is the largest in the Eastern Himalayas in
Yamuna and its Tributaries Sikkim. It is at the base of the Kanchendzonga and is one
of the sources of the Teesta river, tributary of the
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Brahmaputra river. Hence, pair 5 is not correctly
6. Krishna‌ ‌Raja‌ ‌Sagara‌ ‌Dam/Reservoir‌ ‌is‌ ‌developed‌ ‌on‌ matched.
 NDA & NA Exam (I-II) 2020 Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
(a) river‌ ‌Krishna‌ ‌ 8. Hirakud Dam is built across which river?
(b) river‌ ‌Tungabhadra‌ ‌  CISF AC (EXE) LDCE 2019
(c) river‌ ‌Godavari‌ ‌ (a) Kaveri (b) Mahanadi
(d) river‌ ‌Kavery‌ ‌ (c) Krishna (d) Godavari
‌Answer:‌ ‌(d) Answer: (b)

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 13 Natural Vegetation

1. Which one of the following statement is not correct? 3. It has wide crown so the foliage can absorb the
 CAPF (ACs) Exam 2020 maximum Sunlight.
(a) Mahogany is a timber species of Tropical Rainforest. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(b) Chaparral vegetation is found in Taiga climate. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Lichens are predominantly found in Tundra region. (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Sal is a representative species of Moist Deciduous Answer: (d)
Forest. Explanation:
Answer: (b) ‰ Acacia trees are species of the thorny forest and shrub
Explanation: vegetation. These types of vegetation consists of thorny
‰ Chaparral vegetation is composed of broad-leaved
trees and bushes, and are native to topical and
subtropical regions of the world. In India, these are
evergreen shrubs, bushes, and small trees. Chaparral is
found in the semi-arid areas of Gujarat, Rajasthan,
found in regions characterized by hot, dry summers and
Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Uttar Pradesh and
mild, wet winters. On the other hand, the Taiga climate
Haryana.
is marked by extremly cold and long winters and
summers are moderately hot and short. The vegetation ‰ Trees are scattered and have long roots penetrating
consists coniferous type of trees such as spruce, pine, deep into the soil to get moisture. The stems are
sedar etc. succulent to conserve water. Hence, statement 1 is
correct.
‰ Tropical Rainforests are hot and receive heavy rainfall
‰ Leaves are mostly thick, small or have thorns to minimize
throughout the year. The trees do not shed their leaves
evaporation. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
at the same time as there is no particular dry season.
Vegetation includes Hardwood trees like rosewood, ‰ The wide umbrella-shaped crown enables the Acacia
ebony, mahogany, etc. trees to capture the maximum Sunlight. Hence,
statement 3 is correct.
‰ Tundra region is defined as a treeless desert found in
the high latitudes of the polar regions. It is characterized Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
by long, dry winters of total darkness and extremely low 3. Which one of the following groups of cities does not have
temperatures. Lichens are a predominant species found Sclerophyll as its natural vegetation cover?
here.  CDS Exam (I) 2020
‰ Moist deciduous forest, also termed as monsoon forests (a) Valparaiso and Cape Town
are characterized by areas with heavily buttressed trees (b) Lisbon and Perth
which receive rainfall between 100-200 cm. These trees
(c) Los Angeles and Adelaide
shed their leaves during the spring and early summer
(d) Las Vegas and Queensland
season when sufficient moisture is not available. Sal is
a representative species of moist deciduous forest. Answer: (d)
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. Explanation:
‰ The Sclerophyll plants are usually found near the
2. Which one of the following statements about the Acacia southern tip of South Africa and South West Australia.
tree is/are correct? CAPF (ACs) Exam 2020 These vegetation are closely associated with low soil
1. It has a long shallow root system which enables it to fertility and seasonal occurence of fire.
find moisture. ‰ The leaf orientation of Sclerophyll is hard leaves, short
2. It has thorny leaves to prevent water loss. internodes and parallel or oblique to direct sunlight.

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Indian and World Geography Prelims Practice Series

‰ The areas that are covered under this vegetation are As per the Indian State of Forest Report (ISFR) 2019, the
Valparaiso, Cape Town, Lisbon, Perth, Los Angeles and correct sequence of the percentage of forest cover to the total
Adelaide. area in ascending order are:
‰ Las Vegas and Queensland are the areas that do not Percentage of Forest
have specific climatic conditions that are suitable for the State
Cover as per ISFR 2019
cultivation of this type of vegetation.
Maharashtra 16.50%
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Madhya Pradesh 25.14%
4. Timber vegetation is generally not found in which of the
Odisha 33.15%
following regions? CDS Exam (II) 2020
Chhattishgarh 41.13%
(a) Subtropical region (b) Temperate region
(c) Alpine region (d) Tundra region Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Answer: (d)
7. Which one of the following states of India has the largest
Explanation: area under dense evergreen forest cover?
Region Vegetation  CAPF (ACs) Exam 2019
Subtropical Ash, Pine, Birch, Oak, Chestnut, etc. (a) Himachal Pradesh (b) Arunachal Pradesh
Region (c) Karnataka (d) Uttarakhand
Temperate Oak, Maple, Ash, Olive, Deodar, Answer: (b)
Region Cedar etc. Explanation:
Alpine Region Juniper, Pine, Birch etc. ‰ Among the given options, Arunachal Pradesh has the largest
area under dense evergreen forest cover. As per the ISFR
Tundra Dwarf shrub, mosses, lichens (no 2019, Arunachal Pradesh, out of the total geographical area
Region trees) etc. has around 21,095 km2 of very dense forest.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer. ‰ Oak, pine, fir, etc., are the types of vegetations found in
5. Which one of the following countries does not have these areas.
Tundra vegetation? CDS Exam (II) 2020 Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
(a) Belarus (b) USA 8. Which one of the following does not fall in the areas of
(c) Russia (d) Canada tropical deciduous forest biomes?
Answer: (a)  CAPF (ACs) Exam 2019
Explanation: (a) The Neotropics mainly West Indies
‰ Tundra Vegetation also known as Treeless polar (b) Indo-Malaysian zone mainly in south and south-east
desert that are found in the high latitudes. It is majorly Asia except equatorial evergreen rainforest areas
found in the polar regions, primarily in Alaska, Canada, (c) Eastern Africa and northern Australia
USA, Russia, Greenland, Iceland and Scandinavia, as well (d) North America mainly South-west America
as Sub-Antarctic islands. Answer: (c)
‰ Belarus is outside the polar region and the vegetation is
Explanation:
majorly dominated by pine and spruce.
‰ Tropical deciduous forest biomes are located in North
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. America, Europe and Asia. Some famous deciduous
6. Consider the following States: UPSC CSE (Pre) 2019 forests include the Northeast China Plain, the Great
1. Chhattisgarh 2. Madhya Pradesh Smoky Mountains National Park (US) and the European
Temperate Deciduous Forest.
3. Maharashtra 4. Odisha
‰ The Neotropics mainly West Indies, Indo-Malaysian zone
With reference to the States mentioned above, in terms mainly in south and south-east Asia except equatorial
of percentage of forest cover to the total area of State, evergreen rainforest areas and North America mainly
which one of the following is the correct ascending order? South-west America comes under the tropical deciduous
(a) 2-3-1-4 (b) 2-3-4-1 forest biome.
(c) 3-2-4-1 (d) 3-2-1-4 ‰ Whereas, the eastern Africa have tropical moist forest
Answer: (c) and northern Australia falls under tropical savanna forest.
Explanation: Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

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 14 Soil

1. Which one of the following soils is characterized by very 3. The term soil impoverishment relates to which one of
high content of organic matter? CDS Exam (I) 2020 the following? CDS Exam (II) 2019
(a) Vertisol (b) Histosol (a) Soil erosion
(c) Gelisol (d) Spodosol (b Soil deposition
Answer: (b) (c) Soil getting very deficient in plant nutrients
Explanation: (d) Soil getting enriched with plant nutrients
‰ Histosol: These are soils that are composed mainly of Answer: (c)
organic materials and contain at least 20% to 30% organic Explanation:
matter by weight. ‰ The term soil impoverishment refers to the condition of
‰ Spodosol: These are acid soils characterized by a degradation in the quality of soil, or degradation in its
subsurface accumulation of humus that is complexed richness of nutrients.
with Aluminium (Al) and Iron (Fe). They have a spodic ‰ Soil impoverishment is caused due to reckless cutting of
horizon with very high organic matter content and are trees, soil erosion, over-use of pesticides etc.
generally found in depression or where the soils have an
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
impermeable sub soils.
‰ Vertisol: These are clay-rich soils that shrink and swell 4. Which one of the following is the largest component of
with changes in moisture content. the soil system? CISF AC (EXE) LDCE 2018
‰ Gelisol: They contain permafrost within 2 meters of the (a) Living organisms (b) Mineral matter
surface and these soils are limited geographically to the (c) Soil solution (d) Soil organic matter
high-latitude polar regions. Answer: (b)
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. Explanation:
2. The largest geographical area of India is covered by which ‰ The basic components of soil are mineral particles,
one of the following types of soils? CDS Exam (II) 2020 organic matter or humus, water and air. The largest
component of soil is the mineral portion, which makes
(a) Inceptisols (b) Entisols
up approximately 45% to 49% of the volume.
(c) Alfisols (d) Vertisols
‰ The actual amount of each of these depends upon the
Answer: (a) type of soil. Some soils are deficient in one or more of
Explanation: these, while there are some others that have varied
Classification of soils in India by Indian Council of combinations. The typical soil consists of approximately
Agricultural Research (ICAR), as per the United States 45% mineral, 5% organic matter, 20-30% water, and
Department of Agriculture (USDA) taxonomy is mentioned 20-30% air.
below: Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Soil Area (in Thousand Percentage 5. Which of the following statements is not correct?
Hectares) (%)  UPPCS (Pre) 2018
Inceptisols 130372.90 39.74 (a) Black soil is locally called ‘regur’.
Entisols 92131.71 28.08 (b) According to Krabs, the regur soil is essentially a
mature soil.
Alfisols 44448.68 13.55
(c) Black soils are highly retentive to moisture.
Vertisols 27960.00 8.52 (d) Black soil is found in Himalayan region.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. Answer: (d)

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Indian and World Geography Prelims Practice Series

Explanation: ‰ Formation: These soils are formed under conditions of

‰ Black Soils are also known as regur soil. These soils are high rainfall and high temperature. Alternate dry and
made up of extremely fine i.e. clayey material and are wet condition leads to intense leaching of lime along
well-known for their capacity to hold moisture. It is ideal with silica and only iron and aluminium oxides are left.
for growing cotton and is also known as black cotton soil. Due to presence of iron oxides, laterite soils are generally
‰ As per the Krebs, the regur is essentially a mature soil red in colour. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
which has been produced by relief and climate, rather ‰ Nutrients: It lacks in nitrogen, phosphorous, potash, lime
than by a particular type of rock. and humus, hence it is not fertile and mostly suitable for
‰ This type of soil is typical of the Deccan trap (Basalt) bushes and pastures only. Laterite soils are widely cut
region spread over North-West Deccan plateau and is as bricks for use in house construction. Hence, statement
made up of lava flows. They cover the plateaus of 2 is not correct.
Maharashtra, Saurashtra, Malwa, Madhya Pradesh and ‰ Crops: With the use of fetilizer and irrigation facitilies,
Chhattisgarh and extend in the South-East direction it can be made suitable for cultivation of rice, ragi,
along the Godavari and the Krishna valleys. cashew, tapioca, etc. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
6. Which of the following is concerned with soil? 8. Which of the following statements regarding soil is/are
 UPPCS (Pre) 2018 correct?  CDS Exam (II) 2016
(a) Edaphic 1. Alluvial soils are rich in nitrogen content.
(b) Climatic 2. Black soils are rich in iron and lime but deficient in
(c) Biotic nitrogen.
(d) Topography 3. Laterite soils are rich in iron and aluminium but
Answer: (a) deficient in nitrogen and potassium.
Explanation: Select the correct answer using the code given below.
The edaphic factor includes the physical, chemical, and (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
biological properties of soil that results from biologic and (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
geologic phenomena or anthropogenic activities.
Answer: (c)
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. Explanation:
7. Consider the following statements regarding laterite soils ‰ Soil is basically uppermost thin layer of earth formed by
of India: CDS Exam (I) 2016 broken rock material, organic materials from decayed
1. Laterite soils are generally red in colour plant, animals, living organisms, water and air. Hence, it
2. Laterite soils are rich in nitrogen and potash has both biotic as well as abiotic components.
3. Laterite soils are well developed in Rajasthan and ‰ Diverse geographical setting, climatic types and vegetation
UP in India have led to the birth of many varieties of soil.
4. Tapioca and cashew nuts grow well in this soil ‰ Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) has
Which of the statements given above is / are correct? classified the Indian soils on the basis of their nature and
character as per the United States Department of
(a) 1 only
Agriculture (USDA) Soil Taxonomy.
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 4 only Soil Characteristics
(d) 1, 2 and 4 ‰ Distribution: The alluvial soil covers
Answer: (c) the largest area in India. It covers
more than 45% area, which is around
Explanation:
Alluvial 15 lakh square km.
Laterite Soil
Soils ‰ Formation: Alluvial soils are derived
‰ Distribution: It is found mainly in the western part of
from the sediments deposited by
Western Ghats at higher altitudes and on the Eastern
rivers in the Northern plains of India.
Ghats, Rajmahal Hills, Vindhayans and the Malwa plateau
region. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
Contd…

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 15 Population

1. Natural Population Change is calculated by: 3. 2011 census has divided the working population of India
 CAPF (ACs) Exam 2020 into four major categories. Which one of the following
(a) subtracting the death rate from the birth rate is not one of them? CAPF (ACs) Exam 2020
(b) multiplying the death rate with the birth rate (a) Cultivators
(c) adding the death rate with the birth rate (b) Domestic workers
(d) subtracting the birth rate from the death rate (c) Household industrial workers
Answer: (a) (d) Agricultural Laborers
Explanation: Answer: (b)
‰ A discrete assemblage of entities who dwell in a Explanation:
particular geographical location with identifiable ‰ According to the 2011 census, the working population
characteristics such as people, animals with the objective of India is divided into four major categories:
of analysis and data collection is called a population.
 Cultivators  Household labourers
‰ Birth rate is the number of children born per thousand
 Agricultural labourers  Other workers
persons in a year. On the other hand, death rate is
defined as the number of persons dying per thousand in Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
a year. 4. Nyishi tribe is found mainly in: CDS Exam (I) 2020
‰ The natural increase in population is calculated by (a) Andaman and Nicobar (b) Arunachal Pradesh
subtracting the death rate from the birth rate.
(c) Nilgiri-Kerala (d) Kashmir Valley
Natural Increase = Birth Rate - Death Rate Answer: (b)
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. Explanation:
2. Dardic group of language belongs to which language ‰ Nyishi is the largest ethnic community in the state of
family? CAPF (ACs) Exam 2020 Arunachal Pradesh.
(a) Indo-European ‰ Boori Boot Yolo festival is celebrated in the month of
(b) Austric February by this tribal community to welcome spring
(c) Sino-Tibetan and a successful harvest.
(d) Dravidian Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Answer: (a) 5. According to the Census 2011, in India, what is the
Explanation: percentage of people (approximately) considered to be
‰ Dardic language belongs to the group of languages migrants (internal), i.e., now settled in a place different
related to the Indo-European family. The language is from their previous residence? CDS Exam (I) 2020
spoken in Pakistan, Kashmir, and Afghanistan. Dardic (a) 25% (b) 35%
languages are often divided into three sub-categories: (c) 45% (d) 55%
 Kafiri, or Western Answer: (b)
 Khowari, or Central Explanation:
 Eastern group (Shina and Kashmiri) ‰ Migration is the movement of people from one place to
‰ Kashmiri is the only Dardic language that has been used another. It can be over a short or long distance, be short-
extensively for literary purposes. term or permanent, voluntary or forced, intra-national
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. or international.

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‰ 37% or 45.36 crore Indians are considered as migrants Explanation:

according to the Census 2011. ‰ Total Fertility Rate (TFR) indicates the average number
‰ These are internal migrants (now settled in a place of children expected to be born to a woman during her
different from their previous residence). reproductive span of 15-49 years.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. ‰ The replacement level is the number of children needed
to replace the parents, after accounting for fatalities,
6. Decadal growth rate of population in percentage was
skewed sex ratio, infant mortality, etc. Population starts
highest in India in the year CDS Exam (II) 2020
falling below this level.
(a) 1991 (b) 1981
‰ Total Fertility Rate (TFR) of a population need to be 2.1
(c) 1971 (d) 1961 in order to reach at the replacement level of fertility.
Answer: (c) Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Explanation:
9. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
‰ Growth of population is a percentage change in the
using the codes given below the lists
number of people living in a particular area between two
 UPPCS (Pre) 2020
points of time.
List-I List-II
‰ According to the Census of 2011, annual growth rate of
India’s population is 1.64 percent. (Ethnic Group) (Country)
‰ The decades 1961-1971 are referred to as the period of A. Jews 1. Egypt
population explosion in India, caused by high fertility B. Teda 2. Iran
rate, rapid fall in the mortality rate etc. C. Beja 3. Libya
‰ In World Population Prospects 2019, India is projected D. Lur 4. Israel
to surpass China as the world’s most populous country Codes:
around 2027.
A B C D
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
(a) 1 2 3 4
7. Which of the following tribes is not the native to the (b) 4 1 2 3
Andaman and Nicobar Islands of India? (c) 4 1 3 2
 UPPCS (Pre) 2020
(d) 4 3 1 2
(a) Halchu (b) Rengma
Answer: (d)
(c) Onge (d) Shompen
Explanation:
Answer: (b)
Ethnic group along with their respective countries is
Explanation: mentioned in the table below:
‰ Except Rengma, all above mentioned tribes are native
to the Andaman and Nicobar Islands of India. Great Ethnic Group Country
Andamanese, Sentinelese, Jarwas, Onges and Shompen Jews Israel
are native tribes of Andaman and Nicobar Islands. Teda Libya
‰ They are related to the Negrito racial group. Some of
Beja Egypt
these tribes are extremely backward and are struggling
to come out of the stone age mode of livelihood. On the Lur Iran
other hand, Rengma tribe is found in Nagaland and Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Assam states of India.
10. According‌ ‌to‌ ‌Census‌ ‌of‌ ‌India,‌ ‌2011,‌ ‌which‌ ‌one‌ ‌among‌
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. t‌ he‌‌following‌‌is‌‌the‌‌least‌‌populated‌s‌ tate‌‌in‌I‌ndia?‌‌
8. What should be Total Fertility Rate (TFR) of a population  NDA & NA Exam (I-II) 2020
in order to reach at the replacement level of fertility? (a) Maharashtra‌‌
 UPPCS (Pre) 2020 (b) Madhya‌‌Pradesh‌‌
(a) 1.0 (b) 1.6 (c) Odisha‌‌
(c) 2.1 (d) 2.3 (d) Punjab‌‌
Answer: (c) Answer:‌‌(d)

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 16 Agriculture

1. What is/are the advantage/advantages of zero tillage in ‰ No tilled soils tend to be cooler than others, partly
agriculture? UPSC CSE (Pre) 2020 because a surface layer of plant residues is present.
1. Sowing of wheat is possible without burning the Carbon sequestration in the soil has the potential to
residue of previous crop. enhance its quality and reducing the threat of global
warming. Hence, 3 is correct.
2. Without the need for nursery of rice saplings, direct
planting of paddy seeds in the wet soil is possible. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

3. Carbon sequestration in the soil is possible. 2. What are the advantages of fertigation in agriculture?
Select the correct answer using the code given below:  UPSC CSE (Pre) 2020
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only 1. Controlling the alkalinity of irrigation water is
possible.
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Efficient application of Rock Phosphate and all other
Answer: (d)
phosphatic fertilizers is possible.
Explanation: 3. Increased availability of nutrients to plants is
‰ Zero Tillage, also called no-till farming, is a cultivation possible.
technique in which the soil is disturbed only along the 4. Reduction in the leaching of chemical nutrients is
slit or in the hole, into which the seeds are planted. The possible.
reserved detritus from previous crops covers and Select the correct answer using the code given below:
protects the seedbed.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
‰ As per the study, it has been found that farmers in north
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
India can not only help to reduce air pollution but also
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
improve the productivity of their soil and earn more
profits, if they stop burning their crop residue and instead (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
adopt the concept of no-till farming. Answer: (c)
‰ Under zero tillage, the direct seeding of wheat into Explanation:
unploughed soil and with rice residues left behind has ‰ The practice of supplying crops in the field with fertilizers
proved very beneficial. It saved water, labour and use of via the irrigation water is called fertigation. It is a modern
agro-chemicals, reduced greenhouse gas emissions, and agro-technique that facilitates higher yield and reduced
improved soil health and crop yield. It thus, benefits both environmental pollution by efficient use of fertilizers,
farmers and the society at large. Hence, 1 is correct. minimizing fertilizer application and increasing return
on the fertilizer invested.
‰ Direct Seeded Rice (DSR) is a viable option to reduce the
unproductive water flows. DSR refers to the process of ‰ The benefits of fertigation methods over conventional
establishing a rice crop from seeds sown in the field or drop-fertilizing methods include:
rather than by transplanting seedlings from the nursery.  Increased nutrient absorption by plants. Hence, 3 is
Conventional rice establishment system requires a correct.
substantial amount of water. It has been reported that  Accurate placement of nutrient; where the water
water up to 5000 litres is used to produce 1 kg of rough goes the nutrient goes as well.
rice. However, with increasing shortage of water, dry-  Ability to ‘microdose’; feeding the plants just enough
DSR with minimum or zero tillage further enhances the so nutrients can be absorbed and are not left to be
benefits of this technology, by saving labour. Hence, 2 washed down to stormwater next time it rains.
is correct.  Reduction of fertilizer, chemicals, and water needed.

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 Reduced leaching of chemicals into the water supply ‰ Sulfur is a major by-product of oil refining and gas
and also reduction of the soil erosion issues as the processing industries. Most of the crude oil grades
nutrients are pumped through the water drip system. contain some amount of sulfur, most of which must be
Leaching is decreased often through methods used removed during the refining process to meet strict sulfur
to employ fertigation. Hence, 4 is correct. content limits in refined products. This is typically done
 Reduced water consumption due to the plant’s through hydrotreating, and it results in production of
increased root mass ability to trap and hold water. H2S gas, which is converted into elemental sulfur. Hence,
 Application of nutrients can be controlled at the statement 3 is correct.
precise time and rate necessary. ‰ Sulfur can also be mined from naturally-occurring
 Minimized risk of the roots contracting soil-borne deposits; but this is more costly than sourcing from oil
diseases through the contaminated soil. and gas and has largely been discontinued. Sulfuric acid
 Through fertigation, pH of the irrigation water can is used in the production of both Monoammonium
be managed. Hence, 1 is correct. phosphate (MAP) and Diammonium phosphate (DAP).
‰ Phosphorus fertigation has not been generally Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
recommended for agriculture because of its tendency
4. With reference to pulse production in India, consider the
to cause clogging. If irrigation water has high amount of
following statements: UPSC CSE (Pre) 2020
calcium (Ca) and mangesium (Mg), it causes the
formation of the precipitate of insloluble Ca and Mg. 1. Black gram can be cultivated as both kharif and rabi
Hence, statement 2 is not correct. crop.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. 2. Green-gram alone accounts for nearly half of pulse
production.
3. With reference to chemical fertilizers in India, consider
3. In the last three decades, while the production of
the following statements: UPSC CSE (Pre) 2020
kharif pulses has increased, the production of rabi
1. At present, the retail price of chemical fertilizers is pulses has decreased.
market-driven and not administered by the
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Government.
2. Ammonia, which is an input of urea, is produced (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
from natural gas. (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Sulphur, which is a raw material for phosphoric acid Answer: (a)
fertilizer, is a by-product of oil refineries. Explanation:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? ‰ In India, the important pulse crops grown in winter (rabi)
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only are chickpea, lentil, lathyrus, field pea and kidney bean.
(c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 However, green gram, black gram and cowpea are grown
Answer: (b) in both spring and rainy season.
Explanation: ‰ Black gram is a warm weather crop, and comes up in
areas receiving an annual rainfall ranging from 600 to
‰ The Government of India subsidizes fertilizers to ensure
1000 mm. It is mainly cultivated in a cereal-pulse
that fertilizers are easily available to farmers and the
country remains self-sufficient in agriculture production. cropping system, primarily to conserve soil nutrients and
The same has been achieved largely by controlling the utilize the left over soil moisture particularly, after rice
price of fertilizer and the amount of its production. cultivation. Hence, although it can be grown in all the
Hence, statement 1 is not correct. seasons, the majority of black gram cultivation falls in
either rabi or late rabi seasons particularly in peninsular
‰ Ammonia (NH3) has been synthesized from natural gas.
In this process, natural gas molecules are reduced to India. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
carbon and hydrogen. The hydrogen is then purified and ‰ According to the Directorate of Economics and Statistics
reacted with nitrogen to produce ammonia. This (DES), the share of pulse production in 2018-19 was
synthetic ammonia is used as fertilizer, either directly as comprised of Tur (15.34%), Gram (43.29%), Moong
ammonia or indirectly after synthesis as urea, ammonium (green gram,10.04%), Urad (black gram, 13.93%), Lentil
nitrate, and monoammonium or diammonium (6.67%), and Other Pulses (10%). Hence, statement 2 is
phosphates. Hence, statement 2 is correct. not correct.

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 17 Resources of India & World

1. According to India’s National Policy on Biofuels, which ‰ Major Minerals

of the following can be used as raw materials for the  Fuel Minerals: Coal, Lignite, Natural Gas, Petroleum
production of biofuels? UPSC CSE (Pre) 2020 (Crude).
1. Cassava  Metallic Minerals: Bauxite, Chromite, Copper Ore,
2. Damaged wheat grains Gold, Iron Ore, Lead (Concentrates), Zinc
3. Groundnut seeds (Concentrates), Manganese Ore, Silver, Tin
(Concentrates), Tungsten (Concentrates).
4. Horse gram
 Non-Metallic Minerals: Agate, Andalusite, Apatite,
5. Rotten potatoes
Asbestos, Ball Clay, Barytes, Calcite, Chalk, Clay,
6. Sugar beet Corundum, Calcarious sand, Diamond, Diaspore,
Select the correct answer using the code given below: Dolomite, Kyanite, Laterite, Limestone, Limestone
(a) 1, 2, 5 and 6 only (b) 1, 3, 4 and 6 only Kankar, Lime Shell, Magnesite, Mica (crude), Ochre,
(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 Pyrites, Pyrophyllite, Phosphorite, Quartz, impure
quartz, Quartzite, Fuchsite Quartzite, Silica Sand, Salt
Answer: (a)
(Rock), Salt (Evaporated), Shale, Slate, Steatite,
Explanation: Sillimanite, Vermiculite, Wollastonite.
‰ The National Policy on Biofuels, 2018, allows production
‰ Minor Minerals
of ethanol from damaged food grains and also allows
 Minor Minerals include Bentonite, Boulder, Brick
conversion of surplus quantities of food grains to
Earth, Building Stones, Chalcedony or Corundum,
ethanol, based on the approval of the National Biofuel
Fuller’s Earth, Gravel, Lime Stone, Dunite, Felspar,
Coordination Committee.
Fire Clay, Felsite, Flourite (Graded), Flourite
‰ The Policy expands the scope of raw material for ethanol (Concentrates), Gypsum, Garnet (Abrasives), Garnet
production by allowing use of sugarcane juice, sugar (Gem), Graphite run-on-mines, Jasper, Kaolin,
containing materials like sugar beet, sweet sorghum, Marble, Murram, Ordinary Clay, Ordinary Sand,
starch containing materials like corn, cassava, damaged Ordinary Earth, Pebbles or Kankar, Quartzite and
food grains like wheat, broken rice, rotten potatoes, unfit Sand stone, Road Metal, Salt Petre, Shale, Shingle,
for human consumption for ethanol production. Slate.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. ‰ Chromite, Kyanite and Sillimanite are major minerals,
2. Consider the following minerals: UPSC CSE (Pre) 2020 whereas Bentonite is a minor mineral.
1. Bentonite 2. Chromite Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
3. Kyanite 4. Sillimanite 3. With reference to solar water pumps, consider the
In India, which of the above is/are officially designated following statements: UPSC CSE (Pre) 2020
as major minerals? 1. Solar power can be used for running surface pumps
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 4 only and not for submersible pumps.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only 2. Solar power can be used for running centrifugal
Answer: (d) pumps and not the ones with piston.
Explanation: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
‰ According to the National Account Statistics (2007),
minerals are broadly classified into major and minor (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
minerals. Answer: (d)

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Indian and World Geography Prelims Practice Series

Explanation: 6. Climax mine, the largest producer of molybdenum, is

‰ The main components in a solar pumping system include located in CDS Exam (II) 2020
a Photo Voltaic (PV) array, an electric motor and a pump. (a) Canada (b) USA
‰ There are several different types of solar-powered (c) Australia (d) South Africa
pumps depending on their functional mechanism. But Answer: (b)
primarily, there are four types of solar water pumps: Explanation:
submersible pumps, surface pumps, Direct Current (DC) ‰ Climax mine, which is the largest producer of Molybdenum
pumps and Alternate Current (AC) pumps. Hence, is located in Colorado, USA.
statement 1 is not correct. ‰ Molybdenum is a lustrous grey metal with higher melting
‰ Solar Power can be used to run both centrifugal as well point then Iron.
as piston pumps. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. ‰ Molybdenum as a essential trace material are also found
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer. in milk products, legumes and leafy vegetables.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
4. In India, the largest reserve of Bauxite is found in
 CISF AC (EXE) LDCE 2020 7. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
 UPPCS (Pre) 2020
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Gujarat
(Country) (Iron-Ore
(c) Jharkhand (d) Odisha
Producing Area)
Answer: (d) (a) Kazakhstan Karaganda
Explanation: (b) Ukraine Krivoy Rog
‰ Odisha is the largest Bauxite producing state, accounting (c) Germany Normendy
for more than half of the total production of India. (d) France Pyrenees
‰ The main bauxite belt is located in Kalahandi and Koraput Answer: (c)
districts in Odisha and further extending into Andhra Explanation:
Pradesh.
Country Iron-Ore Producing Area
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Kazakhstan Karaganda
5. Which one of the following is not a renewable source of
Ukraine Krivoy Rog
energy? Combined Geo-Scientist (Pre) Exam 2020
(a) Wind
Germany Saar Vogelsburg, Erzeburg and
Westphalia are iron ore producing
(b) Sunlight area in Germany. Normendy is in
(c) Nuclear minerals France.
(d) Bio-fuels France Pyrenees
Answer: (c) Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Explanation:
8. Postmasburg and its adjacent areas of South Africa is
‰ Resources that will never end or run out (sun, wind and major producer of which of the following minerals?
water) or naturally replenish themselves are known as  UPPCS (Pre) 2020
renewable energy. On the contrary, resources that don’t (a) Uranium
replenish themselves are non-renewable resources. This (b) Bauxite
makes non-renewable resources limited in supply and
(c) Manganese
non-sustainable in use.
(d) Mica
‰ There are four major types of non-renewable resources:
Answer: (c)
oil, natural gas, coal, and nuclear energy. Oil, natural gas,
and coal are collectively called fossil fuels and are non- Explanation:
renewable. Nuclear energy that comes from radioactive ‰ South Africa is the world largest producer and also holds
elements like uranium extracted from the ore and then, largest reserve of Manganese.
refined into fuel. So the material used in nuclear power ‰ Postmasburg and its adjacent areas of South Africa is a
plant is limited in supply hence, non- renewable. major producer of Manganese.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

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 18 Industries

1. Which one of the following countries in Asia established Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
the first Export Processing Zone (EPZ) in 1965? Codes:
 Combined Geo-Scientist (Pre) Exam 2020 (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(a) China (b) India (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
(c) South Korea (d) Japan Answer: (c)
Answer: (b) Explanation:
Explanation: ‰ The Balaghat mines in Madhya Pradesh, Khetri mines in
‰ Effectiveness of Export Processing Zone (EPZ) was first Rajasthan and Singhbhum district of Jharkhand are
recognized by India. India was the first country in Asia leading producers of copper. Hence, pair 1 is not
to set up EPZ in Kandla in 1965. As the name suggests, correctly matched.
EPZ is a model for the promotion of exports. ‰ Ballari-Chitradurga-Chikkamagaluru-Tumakuru belt in
‰ To overcome the limitations of multiplicity of controls Karnataka has large reserves of iron ore. Hence, pair 2
and clearances, absence of infrastructure, repelling of is correctly matched.
foreign investments, etc., in India, Indian Government ‰ Odisha is the leading producer of Manganese. Major
announced Special Economic Zones (SEZs) Policy in April, mines in Odisha are in Bonai, Kendujhar, Sundergarh,
2000. Gangpur, Koraput, Kalahandi and Bolangir. Hence, pair
‰ To attract multinational companies and encourage the 3 is not correctly matched.
export companies, countries are using EPZ policy which ‰ Chhattisgarh has bauxite deposits in Amarkantak plateau
will help in: while Katni, Jabalpur and Balaghat in Madhya Pradesh
 Attracting the foreign investment to generate have important deposits of bauxite. Hence, pair 4 is
employment. correctly matched.
 Expanding the industrial base. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
 Introducing technology. 3. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as
‰ EPZ will help economies by: Assertion (A) and other as Reason (R): UPPCS (Pre) 2020
 offering expedited licensing or building permits. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
 minimizing customs regulations. Codes:
 ensuring duty-free tax incentives. (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
 developing infrastructure to investor’s requirements. explanation of (A)
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. (b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
2. Which of the following are not correctly matched? (c) (A) is true but (R) is false
 UPPCS (Pre) 2020
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
(Mineral) (Mining City)
Assertion (A): Ahmedabad is the largest centre of cotton
1. Copper Chitradurga textile industry in India.
2. Iron ore Ballari  eason (R): Ahmedabad is located in Major Cotton
R
3. Manganese Bhilwara growing region of India, so it has no problem of raw
4. Bauxite Katni materials.

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Answer: (d) 4. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
Explanation: using the codes given below the Lists: CDS Exam (I) 2019
‰ The cotton textile industry is one of the traditional
List-I (City) List-II (Product)
industries of India. Cotton textile industry uses a non- A. Detroit 1. Motorcar
weight loosing raw material and is generally located in B. Antwerp 2. Diamond cutting
large urban centres, such as Mumbai, Ahmedabad, C. Tokyo 3. Steel
Surat, etc. D. Harbin 4. Shipbuilding
‰ In 1854, the first modern cotton mill was established in Codes:
Mumbai. After the first mills were set up in Mumbai and A B C D
Ahmedabad in the second half of the 19th century, the (a) 3 4 2 1
cotton textile industry expanded very rapidly. (b) 3 2 4 1
‰ Favourable conditions in Maharashtra have made it the (c) 1 4 2 3
largest centre of the cotton textile industry in India. (d) 1 2 4 3
Hence, Assertion (A) is false. Answer: (d)
‰ Presently, the major centres of the cotton textile Explanation:
industry are Ahmedabad, Bhiwandi, Solapur, Kolhapur,
City Product
Nagpur, Indore and Ujjain. All these centres are the
Detroit (Michigan, USA) Motorcar
traditional centres and are located close to the cotton
producing regions. Maharashtra, Gujarat and Tamil Nadu Antwerp (Belgium) Diamond cutting
are the leading cotton producing states. Hence, Reason Tokyo (Japan) Shipbuilding
(R) is true. Harbin (China) Steel
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
5. Consider the following statements relating to Coal India
Limited : CDS Exam (I) 2019
1. It is designated as a ‘MahaRatna’ company under
the Ministry of Coal.
2. It is the single largest coal-producing company in the
world.
3. The Headquarter of Coal India Limited is located at
Ranchi, Jharkhand.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
‰ Coal India Limited (CIL), a state owned Coal Mining
Corporation, came into being in November, 1975.
‰ CIL is a Maharatna company under the Ministry of Coal.
Maharatna is a privileged status conferred by the
Government of India to select state owned enterprises
in order to empower them to expand their operations
and emerge as global giants. Hence, statement 1 is
correct.
Textile Industries
‰ Coal India Limited has been conferred with the status
(A) is false but (R) is true of being the single largest coal-producing company in
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer. the world. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

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 19 Location & Mapping

1. Siachen Glacier is situated to the  Italy  Lebanon

 UPSC CSE (Pre) 2020  Malta  Israel
(a) East of Aksai Chin (b) East of Leh  Slovenia  Jordan
(c) North of Gilgit (d) North of Nubra Valley  Croatia  Egypt
Answer: (d)  Montenegro  Libya

Explanation:  Albania  Tunisia

‰ The Siachen Glacier is located in the Eastern Karakoram  Greece  Algeria

range in the Himalayas, just northeast of Point NJ9842  Turkey  Morocco
where the Line of Control between India and Pakistan  Gibraltar (a British Overseas Territory)
ends.  Bosnia and Herzegovina
‰ It has the distinction of being the largest glacier outside  Palestine (Gaza Strip)
the polar and subpolar regions.  Syria Northern Cyprus (de facto, disputed)
‰ It lies to the west of Aksai Chin, north of Nubra valley  Republic of Cyprus Akrotiri and Dhekelia (a British
and almost east of Gilgit. Overseas Territory)
‰ North Sudan is not a Mediterranean country, it lies in
Northeast Africa.

Location of Siachen Glacier alongwith Nearby Regions

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
2. Which one of the following is not a Mediterranean
country? CAPF (ACs) Exam 2020
(a) Tunisia (b) Libya Countries Around the Mediterranean Region

(c) North Sudan (d) Egypt Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Answer: (c) 3. Which one among the following countries does not have
Explanation: common boundary with South Africa?
‰ The countries that lie in the Mediterranean region are CAPF (ACs) Exam 2020
following: (a) Zambia (b) Zimbabwe
 Portugal  France (c) Botswana (d) Namibia
 Spain  Monaco Answer: (a)

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Explanation:
‰ South Africa is bordered by Namibia to the north west,
by Botswana and Zimbabwe to the north and by
Mozambique and Swaziland to the north east and east.
‰ Zambia does not have common boundary with South
Africa. It is a landlocked country at the crossroads of
Southern, Central, and East Africa. It is separated from
Zimbabwe by the Zambezi River.

Volga River
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
6. The Isotherm Line, which divides India North-South in
almost two equal parts in the month of January, is
 CDS Exam (II) 2020
Countries Sharing Boundary With South Africa
(a) 10 °C (b) 25 °C
(c) 15 °C (d) 20 °C
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Answer: (d)
4. In the field of tourism, which one of the following Indian Explanation:
States is described as ‘One State Many Worlds’? The isotherm line, which divides India, North-South in
 CDS Exam (I) 2020 almost two equal parts in the month of January is 20 °C. It runs
(a) Assam (b) West Bengal roughly parallel to the Tropic of Cancer.
(c) Karnataka (d) Rajasthan Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Answer: (c) 7. The largest geographical area of India is covered by which
Explanation: one of the following types of soils? CDS Exam (II) 2020
 arnataka is described as ‘One State Many Worlds’
K (a) Inceptisols (b) Entisols
because of the diversity and richness of heritage, culture, (c) Alfisols (d) Vertisols
history and economic development. Answer: (a)
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. Explanation:
Classification of soils in India by Indian Concil of
5. Which one of the following rivers does not drain into Agricultural Research (ICAR), as per the United States
Black Sea? CDS Exam (I) 2020 Department of Agriculture’s (USDA) taxonomy.
(a) Volga (b) Dnieper
Area (in Thousand
(c) Don (d) Danube Soil Percentage
Hectares)
Answer: (a) Inceptisols 130372.90 39.74
Explanation:
Entisols 92131.71 28.08
‰ The Black Sea is located between Eastern Europe and
Alfisols 44448.68 13.55
Western Asia.
Vertisols 27960.00 8.52
‰ Danube, Dnieper and Don are the rivers that drains into
Black Sea. While, Volga drains into the Caspian Sea. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

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 20 Miscellaneous

1. Which one of the following State of India is not covered List-I List-II
by Flood Forecasting Stations set up by the Central Water (Type of Lake) (Example)
Commission? CDS Exam (I) 2019
A. Tectonic 1. Lonar Lake
(a) Rajasthan
B. Crater 2. Gangabal Lake
(b) Jammu and Kashmir
C. Glacial 3. Purbasthali Lake
(c) Tripura
D. Fluvial 4. Bhimtal Lake
(d) Himachal Pradesh
Codes:
Answer: (d)
A B C D
Explanation:
(a) 4 1 2 3
‰ Central Water Commission is a premier organization in
the field of Water Resources. Presently, it is operating (b) 4 2 1 3
as an attached office of the Ministry of Jal Shakti, (c) 3 1 2 4
Department of Water Resources and River Development (d) 3 2 1 4
and Ganga Rejuvenation. Answer: (a)
‰ It is the nodal organization for flood forecasting in the
Explanation:
country, appointed by the Ministry of Home Affairs and
National Disaster Management Authority. Type of Lake Example
‰ Existing flood forecasting network covers 22 States/ Tectonic Lake: It is formed
Union Territories and 19 major river basins and sub- due to the warping, bending, Bhimtal Lake
basins in the country. Himachal Pradesh is not covered fracturing and subsidence of (Uttarakhand)
by Flood Forecasting Stations. the Earth’s crust.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer. Crater Lake: It is formed
during a volcanic explosion,
2. The Headquarter of the International Tropical Timber Lonar Lake
where the top of the cone
Organization is located at CDS Exam (I) 2019 (Maharashtra)
may break off, leaving behind
(a) New Delhi a hollow space called crater.
(b) Yokohama
Glacial Lake: This body of
(c) Madrid water is formed under the
(d) Jakarta influence of ice sheets and Gangabal Lake
Answer: (b) glaciers. Ice contact lakes and (Jammu and Kashmir)
Explanation: distal lakes are the types of
glacial lakes.
The Headquarter of the International Tropical Timber
Organization (ITTO) is located at Yokohama, Japan. The Fluvial Lake: It is created due
membership of ITTO represents more than 80% of the world’s to the bends and meandering
tropical forests. of river throughout its course
Purbasthali Lake
and through non-uniform
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. (West Bengal)
topography of land, where a
3. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer number of lakes are formed
using the codes given below the Lists: with flowing river water.
CDS Exam (I) 2019 Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

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4. Damanganga Reservoir Project with about 115 km of Explanation:

minor canals and distributaries is located in ‰ Suez Canal which was constructed in 1869. Hence,
CDS Exam (I) 2019 statement 1 is correct.
(a) NCT ‰ Being a sea-level waterway running north-south across
(b) Dadra and Nagar Haveli the Isthmus of Suez in Egypt, it connects the
(c) Puducherry Mediterranean sea and the Red Sea. Hence, statement
(d) Goa 2 is correct.
Answer: (b) ‰ Separating the African continent from Asia, the Canal
has provided the shortest maritime route between
Explanation:
Europe and the lands lying around the Indian and
Damanganga Reservoir Project is a multipurpose project
Western Pacific oceans. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
which is located in Dharampur Taluka of Valsad district of
Gujarat. It is an inter-state project of the Government of ‰ Though being an open cut and without locks canal with
Gujarat and the Union Territory of Dadra and Nagar Haveli. extensive straight lengths, it has eight major bends.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
5. What is the name of the first research station established
by the Government of India for conduct of research at 8. Which one of the following pairs of countries with new
Antarctica? CISF AC (EXE) LDCE 2019 names and old names is correctly matched?
(a) Dakshin Gangotri (b) Uttar Gangotri  CAPF (ACs) Exam 2018
(c) Bharati (d) Maitri New Name Old Name
Answer: (a) (a) Kingdom of Eswatini : Swaziland
Explanation: (b) Malawi : Rhodesia
‰ Dakshin Gangotri was the first scientific base station of (c) Botswana : Nyasaland
India, situated in Antarctica. (d) Zimbabwe : Ceylon
‰ Presently, India has two research stations at Antarctica,
Answer: (a)
namely ‘Maitri’ and ‘Bharati’. Bharati research station
Explanation:
was the latest one to be established in 2013.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. New Name Old Name

6. The First Union Territory of India to run 100 percent on Kingdom of Eswatini Swaziland
solar energy is UPPCS (Pre) 2019 Malawi Nyasaland
(a) Andaman-Nicobar (b) Chandigarh Botswana Bechuanaland
(c) Diu (d) Pondicherry Sri Lanka Ceylon
Answer: (c) Zimbabwe Rhodesia
Explanation: Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Diu became the first Union Territory of India to run 100%
on solar energy during daytime. This is a new benchmark for 9. Which of the following cities are associated with ship
other cities to become clean and green. building? CISF AC (EXE) LDCE 2018
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. 1. Antwerp 2. Trieste
3. Minsk 4. Hamburg
7. Which one of the following statements about the Suez
Canal is not correct? NDA & NA Exam (II) 2019 Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) The Suez Canal was constructed in 1869. (a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(b) It links the Mediterranean Sea and the Red Sea. (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) It has a six lock system and ships cross the different Answer: (a)
levels through these locks. Explanation:
(d) It has given Europe a new gateway to the Indian ‰ The cities associated with shipbuilding among the
Ocean. mentioned options are Antwerp, Trieste and Hamburg.
Answer: (c) Hence, 1, 2 and 4 are correct.

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