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Half 2 (SPM)

This document provides instructions for a biology exam consisting of 5 sections and 33 total questions. Section A has 16 one-mark questions. Section B has 5 two-mark questions. Section C has 7 three-mark questions. Section D has 2 four-mark case-based questions. Section E has 3 five-mark questions. Students must answer all questions, and can choose between internal choices in some questions. Diagrams should be drawn where necessary.
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
57 views7 pages

Half 2 (SPM)

This document provides instructions for a biology exam consisting of 5 sections and 33 total questions. Section A has 16 one-mark questions. Section B has 5 two-mark questions. Section C has 7 three-mark questions. Section D has 2 four-mark case-based questions. Section E has 3 five-mark questions. Students must answer all questions, and can choose between internal choices in some questions. Diagrams should be drawn where necessary.
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
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Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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Class: XII BIOLOGY (SUBJECT CODE-044) MAXIMUM MARKS: 70

TIME: 3 HOURS

General Instructions:

(i) All questions are compulsory.

(ii) The question paper has five sections and 33 questions. All questions are compulsory.

(iii) Section–A has 16 questions of 1 mark each; Section–B has 5 questions of 2 marks each; Section– C

has 7 questions of 3 marks each; Section– D has 2 case-based questions of 4 marks each; and

Section–E has 3 questions of 5 marks each.

(iv) There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some questions.
A student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.

(v) Wherever necessary, neat and properly labeled diagrams should be drawn

SECTION – A

1. Which pairs are correctly matched?


Column-I Column-II
A. Cyanobacteria - 1. Biopesticides
B. Mycorrhiza - 2. Solubilization of phosphate
C. Bacillus thuringiensis - 3. Cry protein
D. Single-cell protein. - 4. Rhizobia

(a) A and 2
(b) C and 3
(c) C and 4
(d) A and 3

2. Suppose an electrical current has moved DNA fragments through a gel. What does the band on
this gel that is furthest from the top (that is, from whcrere the DNA fragments were added)
represent?
(a) shortest fragments of DNA
(b) longest fragments of DNA
(c) restriction enzyme used to cut the DNA into fragments
(d) ligase used to bind the DNA fragments together
3. Which of the following statements about cloning vectors is false?
(a) ‘Ori’ is a sequence responsible for controlling the copy number of the linked DNA
(b) Selectable marker selectively permitting the growth of the non-transformants
(c) To link the alien DNA, the vector needs to have a single recognition site for the commonly used
restriction enzymes
(d) The ligation of alien DNA is carried out at a restriction site present in one of the two antibiotic
resistance genes

4. Which one of the following statements is correct?


A) The proteins encoded by the genes cry I Ac and cry II Ab control cotton bollworms.
B) Protein encoded by cry I Ab controls corn borer.
C) Both [a] and [b]
D) Proteins encoded by cry I Ac and cry I Ab control flies.
5. Which of the following is/are correct?

(i) Biowar Biowar is the use of biological weapons against humans


and or their crops and animals.

(ii) Bioethics Bioethics is the unauthorized use of bioresources and


traditional knowledge related to bioresources for
commercial benefits.

(iii) Biopatent Exploitation of bioresources of other nations without


proper authorisation.

A) Only (ii)

B) Only (i)

C) (i) and (ii)

D) (i) and (iii)

6. Biotechnology deals with industrial scale production of biopharmaceuticals and biological products
using genetically modified:

A) microbes only

B) plants and animals only

C) fungi only

D) All of the above

7. What is normally given to a patient with myocardial infarction when they arrive at the hospital?
(a) Penicillin
(b) Streptokinase
(c) Cyclosporin-A
(d) Statins
8. Which of the following represents largest man made ecosystem?
(A) Zoo
(B) Garden
(C) Aquarium
(D) Agroecosystem
9. Choose incorrect option w.r.t. amount of living material present in different trophic levels at a
given time:
(A) Can be measured as number
(B) Is equivalent to standing crop
(C) Is always represented as dry weight only
(D) Expressed both as biomass and number
10. Which of the following statement is wrong?
(A) A stable community should show much variation in productivity from year to year
(B) According to Tilman’s long term ecosystem experiments increased diversity contributed to
higher productivity
(C) Stable community must be resistant to occasional disturbances
(D) Rich biodiversity is essential for ecosystem health but imperative for the very survival of the
human race on this planet.
11. Read the following statements
(1) India has a greater ecosystem diversity than Norway
(2) According to the IUCN (2004), the total number of plant and animal species described so far
is slightly more than 15 million.
(A) Both (1) and (2) are correct
(B) Only (2) is correct
(C) Both (1) and (2) are incorrect
(D) Only (1) is correct

12. What is one of the most important functions of botanical gardens?

(a) they provide a beautiful area for recreation

(b) one can observe tropical plants there

(c) they allow ex-situ conservation of germplasm

(d) they provide the natural habitat for wildlife.

Question No. 13 to 16 consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these
questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true
13. Assertion: Darwin’s finches show a variety of beaks suited for eating large seeds, flying
insects and cactus seeds.
Reason: Ancestral seed-eating stock of Darwin’s finches radiated out from South America main
land to different geographical areas of the Galapagos Islands, where they found competitor-free
new habitats.

14. Assertion: In recombinant DNA technology, human genes are often transferred into bacteria
(prokaryotes) or yeast (eukaryotes).
Reason: Both bacteria and yeast multiply very fast to form a huge population which express the
desired gene.
15. Assertion : Yeasts such as Saccharomyces cerevisiae are used in baking industry.
Reason: Carbon dioxide produced during fermentation causes bread dough to rise by thermal
expansion.
16. Assertion: Tropical latitudes have greater biological diversity then temperate latitudes.
Reason: Tropical regions remain relatively undisturbed for millions of years.

SECTION – B
17. State two postulates of Oparin and Haldane’s theory with reference to the origin of life.
18. Why is it not possible for an alien DNA to become part of a chromosome anywhere along its
length and replicate normally?
19. Compare narrowly utilitarian and broadly utilitarian approaches to conserve biodiversity,
with the help of suitable examples
20. What does ‘R’ represent in the given equation for productivity in an ecosystem?
GPP – R = NPP
21. A) Define copy number. Which is responsible for controlling the copy number?

OR

B) Name the source of statin and state its action on the human body.

SECTION – C

22. Write about Baculoviruses.

23. Define the two core techniques of the modern biotechnology.


24. i) Name the four ways used to introduce a desired DNA segment into a bacterial cell in
recombinant technology experiments. (1 Mark)
ii) Briefly explain any 2 ways. (2 Marks)
25. What is gene therapy? Name the first clinical case in which it was used.
26. What are cyanobacteria? With an example write its uses.
27. A) Define Biopiracy with an example.
OR
B) i) Which is the raw material for decomposition? Define
ii) Name the steps involved in the process of decomposition.
28. Suggest two practices giving one example of each, that help to protect rare or threatened
species.

SECTION – D

29.When the reptiles came down, mammals took over the earth. There’ were mammals in
South America, which resembled some of the modern day mammals. But due to continental
drift, they disappeared whereas the pouched mammals of Australia flourished and evolved
into the various forms of pouched mammals that we see today.

(i). What event led to the rise of mammals on Earth?


A) The arrival of birds
B) The disappearance of reptiles
C) Continental drift
D) The evolution of pouched mammals

(ii). What unique type of mammals flourished and evolved in Australia?


A) Rodents
B) Primates
C) Pouched mammals
D) Hoofed mammals

(iii). Continental drift refers to:


A) The migration of animals between continents
B) The slow movement of Earth’s continents over geological time
C) The rapid sinking of continents into the ocean
D) The growth of continents due to volcanic activity

(iv). Which era in Earth’s history is commonly associated with the dominance of reptiles?
A) Paleozoic Era
B) Mesozoic Era
C) Cenozoic Era
D) Proterozoic Era

30. Animals that have had their DNA manipulated to possess and express an extra (foreign) gene
are known as transgenic animals. Transgenic rats, rabbits, pigs, sheep, cows and fish have been
produced, although over 95 per cent of all existing transgenic animals are mice. The common
reasons for the production of transgenic animals are : (i) Normal physiology and development:
Transgenic animals can bespecifically designed to allow the study of how genes are regulated,
and how they affect the normal functions of the body and its development. (ii) Study of disease:
Many transgenic animals are designed to increase our understanding of how genes contribute to
the development of disease. Today transgenic models exist for many human diseases such as
cancer, cystic fibrosis, rheumatoid arthritis and Alzheimer’s. (iii) Biological products: Medicines
required to treat certain human diseases can contain biological products, but such products are
often expensive to make. In 1997, the first transgenic cow, Rosie, produced human protein-
enriched milk (2.4 grams per litre). The milk contained the human alpha-lactalbumin and was
nutritionally a more balanced product for human babies than natural cow-milk. (iv) Vaccine
safety: Transgenic mice are being developed for use in testing the safety of vaccines before they
are used on humans. (v) Chemical safety testing: This is known as toxicity/safety testing. The
procedure is the same as that used for testing toxicity of drugs.

(i) For the vaccine testing, transgenic ………………… are being developed.

(a) Snake

(b) Birds

(c) Mice

(d) Insects

(ii) Which of the following is treated by α-1-antitrypsin (human protein)?

(a) Filariasis

(b) Emphysema

(c) Malaria

(d) Ascariasis

(iii) Transgenic animals are …………… sensitive when compared to other non-transgenic animals.

(a) More

(b) Less

(c) Moderately

(d) None of these

(iv) What is meant by transgenic animals?

SECTION – E

31. A. (i) Mention the contribution of SL Miller’s experiment to origin of life.

(ii) What is ‘fitness of an individual’ according to Darwin?

(iii) List any four factors, which affect Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.


OR

B. Explain the different steps involved in sewage treatment before it can be released
into natural water bodies.

32. A. i) Briefly explain “Insertional inactivation” with galactosidase enzyme as example - 2.5 Ms.
ii) Describe amplification of the gene of interest using PCR - 2.5 Ms.
OR
B. Explain the different types of ecological pyramids.

33. A) i) How has the use of Agrobacterium as vectors helped in controlling Meloidogyne
incognita infestation in tobacco plants? Explain in the correct sequence - 3 Marks.
ii) Write about ELISA - 2 Marks.
OR

B. During a class tour to a botanical garden, Mamta saw that some plant species were extinct
and some endangered, which are no more found in the wild forest. She asked her teacher about how
those species became endangered and extinct. The teacher explained
(i) Mention the factors responsible for the loss of biodiversity.

(ii) Explain the causes of biodiversity losses.

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