QUESTION BANK 2020

VETERINARY MICROBIOLOGY

Veterinary Virology

1. FMD virus serotypes in India are

a O, A and C c O, A, C, Asia1
b O, A and Asia1 d O, A and SAT
2. EDS virus belongs to the genus
a Aviadenovirus c Siadenovirus
b Adenovirus d Atadenovirus
3. Ephemeral fever is also known as
a 3-day fever c both a and b
b Stiff sickness d none of the above
4. Severe vomition, grey foul-smelling diarrhea and gastro enteritis in pups are
characteristics of
a Parvo virus infection c Infectious canine hepatitis
b Canine distemper d Rabies
5. Rabies virus belongs to the genus
a Vesiculovirus c Adenovirus
b Lyssavirus d Novirhabdovirus
6. New castle Disease virus can be isolated in embryonated chicken eggs by which
route of inoclulation
a CAM c yolk sac
b amniotic d allantoic
7. Pump handle respiration is a typical clinical sign observed in
a Infectious larygotracheitis c Infectious bronchitis
b Avian influenza d New castle Disease
8. Herpes virus of turkey is used as a vaccine for
a Marek‘s disease c IBR
b ILT d none of the above
9. Swine fever virus can be propagated in
a MDBK c primary pig kidney cells
b Vero d primary calf kidney cells
10. Big liver disease is caused in
a ILT c Avian leucosis complex
b MD d ND
11. Equine encephalitis virus belongs to the family
a Birnaviridae c Flaviviridae
b Togaviridae d Calciviridae
12. The following virus families have segmented genome
a Reoviridae c Bunyaviridae
b Birnaviridae d All the above
13. The following viruses are neurotrophic viruses
a Rabies virus c Both a & b
b Aujeszky‘s disease virus d None of the above

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14. ‗pol’ gene in retroviruses encode for
a Reverse transcriptase c Both a & b
b Integrase d None of the above
15. The following cytopathic effects are seen in the PPR infection
a Acidophilic intracytoplasmic c Inclusion bodies both in
inclusion body formation cytoplasm & in nucleus
b Syncytial formation d All the above
16. Persistent infection is seen in
a Equine infectious anaemia c Rinderpest
b Maedi-visna d a & b only
17. Viruses having herring bone appearance of ribonucleoprotein
a African horse sickness c Equine infectious anaemia
b Equine influenza d None of the above

18. Lentogenic strain of Newcastle disease virus

a komorow c Hertz
b Milano d LaSota
19. An example of cubical symmetry virus
a Orthomyxoviridae c Paramyxoviridae
b Rhabdoviridae d Picorna viridae
20. Hard pad disease is caused by
a Morbilivirus c Parvovirus
b Adenovirus d rotavirus
21. Which of the following is the smallest virus?
a Coronaviridae c Toraviridae
b Arteriviridae d Circoviridae
22. Which of the following is not antigenically related to other three viruses?
a Rinderpest c Mumps
b Canine distemper virus d Measles
23. In which infection corneal opacity in dogs may develop?
a Canine distemper c Canine parvovirus
b Rabies d Infectious canine hepatitis
24. Which of the following is the vaccine strain of Infectious Bronchitis?
a Mukteswar strain c Massachusette strain
b LaSota d R2B
25. Which of the following is the biological vector in transmission of African swine
fever?
a Culicoides sp. c Both a and b
b Ornithodorus sp. d None of the above
26. Milker‘s nodule is caused by
a Capripox c Parapox
b Cowpox d Suipox
27. Predilection site for parvovirus is
a Bone marrow c Enteric epithelium
b Foetus d All the above

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28. Cup shaped depressions are seen in the surface of
a Calcivirus c Picorna virus
b Togavirus d Parvovirus
29. Antigenic shift is more common in
a Orthomyxo viruses c Bunya viruses
b Arena viruses d All the above

30. The following poxviruses are antigenically related except

a Cowpox c Sheep pox
b Lumpy skin disease virus d Goat pox

ANSWER KEYS
1. c 13.a 25.b
2. d 14.a 26.b
3. a 15.b 27.c
4. b 16.c 28.a
5. b 17.d 29.a
6. b 18.c 30.b
7. a 19.a
8. a 20.a
9. c 21.d
10. c 22.a
11. c 23.d
12. d 24.c

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General Veterinary Microbiology and Immunology

. 1. The largest immunoglobulin molecule

a) Ig E b) Ig D c) Ig M d) Ig A

2. The bacteria which grow best at temperature 700C is called as

a) Mesophiles b) Thermophiles c) Hyperthermophiles d) Halophiles

3. The bacteria require low level of oxygen for growth is known as

a) Aerobes b) Anaerobes c) Microaerophiles d) Obligate anaerobes

4. Who discovered first antibiotic penicillin

a) Ignaz Semmelweis b) Alexander Fleming c) Paul Ehrlich d) Gerd Binnig

5. Cells divide in one plane and remain attached predominantly in pairs.

a) Tetracocci b) Diplococci c) Streptococci d) Gerd Binnig

6. Cells are lined up side by side like match sticks and at angles
to one another
a) Streptobacilli b) Trichomes c) Palisade d) Diplobacilli

7. Bacteria with less than one complete twist or turn are called
a) Spirochetes b)Mycelia c) Spirilla d) vibrioid

8. Endospores can be stained by

a) Schaffer-Fulton stain b) grams stain c) Acid fast stain d) None

9. Which bacterial growth phase the cells are dividing regularly by binary
fission and cell numbers increase in geometric progression.
a) Lag Phase b) log phase c) Stationary phased) Decline Phase

10. Bacteria that require low level (5-10%) carbon dioxide for growth.
a) Aerobic b) Anaerobic c) Microaerophilic d) Capinophilic

11. Salt loving bacteria are called

a) Acidophiles b) osmophile c) Halophile d) xerophile

12. Bacteria that that utilise light as energy source

a) chemotrophs b) chemolithotrophs c) phototroph d)
chemoorganotrophs

13. The total energy yield from complete oxidation of glucose is

a) 24 ATP b) 38 ATP c) 18 ATP d) 6 ATP

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14. The media contains agar at a concentration of 0.2-0.5 percent is called
a) Liquid media b) Solid media c) Semisolid media d) None

15. An epidemic disease condition affecting a large geographical area or

often on a global scale
a) Epidemic b) Endemic c) Sporadic d) Pandemic

16. The organism lives on the host without causing any disease.
a) Saprophytis b) Commensalism c) Symbiosis d) Parasitism

17. Presence of toxins in blood

a) Bacteraemia b) Septicaemia c) Toxaemia d) Anemia

18. The percentage of Peptidoglycan in gram positive bacterial cell wall

a) 80% b) 10% c) 20% d) 5%

19. Mutations involving one or very few base pairs

a) Point mutation b) missense mutation c) nonsense mutation d) silent
mutation

20. Transfer of genetic material from one bacterium to another with a help
of bacteriophage (Bacterial virus ) is known as
a) Recombination b) Transformation c) Transduction d) Conjugation

21. The media used for isolation of fungi are

a) Malt agar b) Potato dextrose agar
c) Sabouraud‘s dextrose agar d) All the above

22. Wood lamp uses which rays for identification of fungus in the hair
a) IR rays b) UV rays c) Both a and b d) None

23. Bacteria are measured in terms of

a) Millimeter b) Meter c) Micrometer d) Nanometer

24. Virus structure can be studied by

a) Light microscope b) Electron microscope c) Fluorescent microscope d) None

25. The movement of bacteria directed towards or away from chemical

compounds are known as
a) Phototaxis b) Chemotaxis c) Magnetotaxis d) All the above

26. The protein coat that covers the nucleic acid of the infectious
virus particle is known as
a) Virion b) Viriod c) Capsomere d) Capsid

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27. Plasmids that contain genes that code for antibiotic resistance.
a) Colicinogenic factors b) Fertility factor c) Resistance factor d) None

28. The specialized convoluted invagination of the cytoplasmic membrane

and is more prominent in Gram-negative bacteria.
a) Ribosomes b) Mesosomes c) Magnetosomes d) Nucleosome

29. The enzyme involved in replication of bacterial DNA is/are

a) DNA polymerase b) DNA helicase c) Both a and b d) None

30. The ability of viruses to agglutinate RBC is known as

a) Haemagglutination b) Haemadsorption c) Haemolysis d) Haemoptysis

ANSWER KEYS
1. c 13.a 25.b
2. b 14.b 26.d
3. c 15.d 27.c
4. b 16.b 28.b
5. b 17.c 29.a
6. c 18.a 30.b
7. c 19.b
8. a 20.d
9. b 21.c
10. d 22.b
11. c 23.c
12. c 24.b

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General Veterinary Microbiology and Immunology
.
1. Club colony formation is seen in
a. Botyromycosis b. Arcanobacterium pyogenes
c. Actinomyces bovis d. Both a and b
2. Exudative epidemitis of pig is caused by
a. S.aureus b. S.hyicus
c. S.intermedius d. S.epidermitidis
3. For decontamination of specimen to eliminate fast growing bacteria to isolate
M.bovis
a. 2-4 % sodium hydroxide b. 1% Sodium carbonate
c. 3% phenol d. 2.5% glutaraldehyde
4. Ascoli test is used to diagnose
a. Anthrax b. Brucellosis
c. Mastitis d. Wingrot
5. Swarming of agar plates is by
a. Proteus spp b. Staphylococcus spp
c. Streptococcus spp d. E.coli
6. Candida albicans is the causative agent for
a. Thrush b. Woolsorters disease
c. Ringworm psoriasis d. Weils disease
7. Bipolar appearance of organisms is specific for
a. Pasteuralla spp b. Brucella spp
c. E.coli d. Mycobacterium spp
8. The zebra markings in large intestine of affected animals are noticed in

a. Johne‘ s disease b. SMEDI

c. PPR d. FMD

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9. Myocarditis in young calves noticed in
a. FMD b .Blue Tongue
c. Tuberculosis d. Calf scour

10. The media used for isolation of fungi are

a) Malt agar b) Potato dextrose agar
c) Sabouraud‘s dextrose agar d) All the above

11.Living together of two or more species of organisms for mutual

benefit is called as
a) Commensals b) Symbiosis c) Antibiosis d) Parasitism

12. Rhizoids are root like structures in fungus produced by

a) Rhizopus b) Mucor c) Absidia d) All

13. Fungal media should have the following properties to promote the fungal growth
than bacterial growth
(a) Medium sugar with neutral pH (b) High sugar with alkali pH
(c) Low sugar with acidic pH (d) High sugar with acidic pH

14. Hjarre‘s disease in poultry is caused by

(a) Salmonella pullorum (b) E.coli (c) Pseudomonas d) Salmonella gallinarum

15. Lumpy jaw in cattle is caused by

(a) Actinobacillus lignieresi (b) Actinomyces bovis (c) Salmonella
(d) E.coli

16. Clostridium perfringens type D in lambs and kids cause

(a) Pulpy kidney disease (b) Lamsiekte (c) Limber neck (d) Braxy

17. Chinese letter or Cuneiform arrangement is characteristic of

(a) Cryptococcus (b) Pseudomonas (c) Corynebacteria (d) Salmonella

18. Shiga like toxins cause a disease in pigs called

(a) Diamond skin disease (b) Odema disease (c) Dysentery (d) Pulpy kidney disease

19. Biovin antigen of Salmonella is called as

(a) H antigen (b) Vi antigen (c) O antigen d) F antigen
20. Among the following which one is non capsulated and motile
(a) E.coli (b) Cl.tetani (c) Cl.perfringens (d) Cl.botulinum

21. Which among the following is lactose non-fermenter

(a) Citrobacter (b) Enterobacter aerogenes (c) Salmonella (d) E.coli

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22. Among the following which is coagulase producing organism?
(a) Streptococcus (b) Enterococcus (c) Staphylococcus (d) Micrococcus

23. Among the following which one is string test positive and non-motile?
(a) E.coli (b) Klebsiella (c) Enterobacter aerogenes (d) Proteus

24. Diamond skin disease is caused by

(a) Enterobacter aerogenes (b) Proteus (c) Erysipelas (d) Enterococcus

25. Lumpy jaw can be diagnosed by direct examination of

(a) Sulphur granules b) Grayish-white granules (c) Silver granules (d) None of the above

26. Which among the following can be used to demonstrate fungal elements in tissue
sections?
(a) Periodic acid-Schiff (PAS) (b) Gram staining (c) Modified Ziehl-neelsen
(d) India ink

27. The caseous lympadenitis in sheep is caused by

(a) Mycoplasma gallisepticum (b) Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
(c) C.renale (d) Aspergillus flavus

28.Bovine farcy is caused by

(a) A.bovis (b) A.lignerisi c) N.farcinica (d) None of the above

29.Pasteurella multocida type A causes

(a) Fowltyphoid (b) Infectious coryza (c) Fowlcholera (d) None of the above

30. Sleepy foal disease is caused by

(a) A.equli (b) C.novyi type B (c) Listeria (d)All the above

31.In gelatin stab culture E.rhusiopathiae produce growth of

(a) Inverted fir tree appearance (b) darkegg yolk appearance(c) bottle brush appearance
(d) All of the above

32. Isolation of Listeria require a process called

(a) Salt enrichment (b) Heat enrichment (c) Cold enrichment(d)All of the above

33.Braxy in sheep is caused by

(a) Cl.hemolyticum (b)Cl.septicum(c) Cl.chauvoei(d)All the above
34.The only live spore vaccine for animal bacterial disease used isfor
(a) Anthrax (b)Rabies(c) Enterotoxaemia(d) Black quarter
35.A tuft of flagella present at one end of bacteria is called as
(a) Amphitrichous (b) Lophotrichous(c) Peritrichous (d) Atrichous
36. Father of Bacteriology is
(a) Antony Van Leewenhock (b) Loius Pasteur (c) Metchinicoff(d) Lister

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37. The word ending for order of a family in bacterial classification is called as

(a) ales (b) oid (c) eles(d) caea

38. A strain with special biochemical or physiological properties is called as

(a) serovar (b)pathovar(c) biovar(d) phagewar

39. The DNA is associated at one point with an invagination of cell membrane is called

a) mesosome b) phagosome c) chondroitin d) mitochondria

40. In pneumococcus (Streptococcus pneumoniae), the techoic acids bears the antigenic
determinants

a) Frossman antigen b)Heterophile antigen c)Multi antigen d) antigenic membrane

ANSWER KEYS
1. a 13.b 25.a 37.a
2. b 14.b 26.a 38.c
3. d 15.b 27.b 39.a
4. a 16.a 28.c 40.a
5. a 17.c 29.c
6. a 18.a 30.a
7. a 19.b 31.c
8. a 20.a 32.c
9. a 21.a 33.b
10. c 22.c 34.a
11. a 23.b 35.b
12. c 24.c 36.a

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