Explanation

X1
The correct answer is B.
Half the project is done and half the cost has been expended. The answer is simple. Or is it? In fact, you do not
know what was planned, so you cannot answer this question based on the information provided.
Knowledge Area: Cost
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 292

Explanation
X2
The correct answer is C.
Active listening, negotiating, and political awareness are all important interpersonal and team skills a project
manager should strive to develop.
Knowledge Area: PM Framework/Processes
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 49

Explanation
X3
The correct answer is D.
The project with the shortest payback period is generally the best choice.
Knowledge Area: Integration
Process Group: Initiating
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 130

Explanation
X4
The correct answer is A.
Quality improvements are neither a tool of Manage Quality nor an output of Validate Scope. They are identified
through measurement and analysis in addition to experience. Quality improvements can come from more people
than the customer and the project manager. Quality improvements generally require change requests or
recommended corrective actions.
Knowledge Area: Quality
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 335

Explanation
X5
The correct answer is C.
Modifying the products in production does not solve the problem, it just prevents it from getting bigger. Waiting
for an injury is unethical, and may cause additional liability. Although insurance would cover the risk, it is best to
recall the product and fix the problem in all instances.
Knowledge Area: Integration
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 604

Explanation
X6
The correct answer is C.
After a team member completes project work, it is the project manager's job to provide input to the team
member's manager regarding performance.
Knowledge Area: Resource
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 389

Explanation
X7
The correct answer is A.
You need to tailor the reports to meet the needs of all stakeholders, not just one subset. Find out what each
stakeholder needs, and address those needs. This should be outlined in the communications management plan.
Knowledge Area: Communications
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 427

Explanation
X8
The correct answer is B.
Remember that the project manager is included in the original number of team members. The formula is [n x (n -
1)]/2, or (6 x 5)/2 = 15.
Knowledge Area: Communications
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 425

Explanation
X9
The correct answer is D.
This risk must be an opportunity. To exploit the opportunity means to change the project to make sure the
opportunity occurs.
Knowledge Area: Risk
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 467

Explanation
X10
The correct answer is D.
The sooner such discoveries are made known to other project managers, the sooner you can improve the
capabilities of colleagues in your company. It is part of a project manager’s professional and social responsibility
to build such capabilities. After you’ve updated the other project managers, you can then document the
discoveries in the project lessons learned and the status report.
Knowledge Area: PM Framework/Processes
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 602

Explanation
X11
The correct answer is C.
Saying "No more changes" is not likely to be effective. All the other choices could be done.
Knowledge Area: Cost
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 292

Explanation
X12
The correct answer is A.
Notice that the issue of the key team member leaving has already occurred. Although the activity was not on the
critical path, it would have impacted a critical path activity if it was not completed within its three-day float.
Therefore, advising the participants not to waste time on non-critical path activities is not correct. The best
choice is to discover why the problem happened so you can prevent similar situations in the future. Only a
reevaluation of the communications management plan looks at the cause of the problem.
Knowledge Area: Communications
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 428

Explanation
X13
The correct answer is A.
This question tests whether you realize that administrative closure can occur at the end of each project phase (if
you have divided the project into phases), as well as at the end of the project.
Knowledge Area: Integration
Process Group: Closing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 163

Explanation
X14
The correct answer is C.
By definition, free float (or slack) is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without impacting the early
start of its successor.
Knowledge Area: Schedule
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 241

Explanation
X15
The correct answer is B.
The project risk management plan is created in project planning.
Knowledge Area: Integration
Process Group: Closing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 164

Explanation
X16
The correct answer is B.
Stakeholder management is an ongoing effort throughout the project. This work begins in initiating, with the
Identify Stakeholders process. It continues in planning with Plan Stakeholder Management, in executing with
Manage Stakeholder Engagement, and in monitoring and controlling with Control Stakeholder Engagement.
Knowledge Area: Stakeholder
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 584
Explanation
X17
The correct answer is D.
Remember that analogous estimates can be top-down, high-level project estimates and can be used on
individual activities for bottom up estimating. The estimates rely on the performance of projects or work that is
similar (or analogous) to what is being estimated. This question is asking the benefit of an analogous project
estimate. Therefore, the analogous estimate is not based on a detailed understanding all the work. The project
manager needs more than an analogous (high-level) estimate to determine whether the project will meet the
schedule. The benefit of an analogous project estimate is that it can help clarify management’s expectations for
the project with an early evaluation of whether the constraints can be met. They can be used to help clarify
management’s expectations for the project. Any differences between the analogous estimate and the detailed
bottom-up estimate can be reconciled in the planning processes.
Knowledge Area: Schedule
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 287

Explanation
X18
The correct answer is A.
The formula is [n x (n - 1)]/2 or (7 x 6)/2 = 21 communication channels.
Knowledge Area: Communications
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 425

Explanation
X19
The correct answer is C.
The project charter gives authorization to begin a project or project phase. The project charter is approved in
project initiating.
Knowledge Area: PM Framework/Processes
Process Group: Initiating
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 85

Explanation
X20
The correct answer is B.
The project management plan is completed before the Validate Scope process. The Validate Scope process
does not deal with time, but rather with acceptance. The Validate Scope process does not occur before the
Define Scope process. The choice stating the Validate Scope process ensures customer acceptance, shows the
deliverable meets specifications, and provides a chance for differences of opinion to come to light is entirely
correct, making that the best answer.
Knowledge Area: Scope
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 208
Explanation
X21
The correct answer is C.
Crashing changes the resources on the project. Knowing where the project has float and the mandatory
dependencies helps determine where to move resources and thus decrease schedule. Value analysis focuses
on finding a less costly way to do the work.
Knowledge Area: Schedule
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 252

Explanation
X22
The correct answer is C.
All theft must be reported.
Knowledge Area: Resource
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 601

Explanation
X23
The correct answer is D.
Assessment refers to the first few steps of risk management. These steps must be repeated throughout the
project whenever there is a change to the project or a new risk is identified.
Knowledge Area: Risk
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 455

Explanation
X24
The correct answer is D.
The first level should be the project life cycle or major deliverables, not descriptions of the products. The WBS
does not list deliverables in chronological order. It is inefficient to organize a WBS by functional area. The WBS
is hierarchical; therefore, each lower level is made up of all the parts of the segment directly above it.
Knowledge Area: Scope
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 200

Explanation
X25
The correct answer is D.
A lessons learned document describes more than just the decisions made. It should include what went right,
wrong, progress, etc.
Knowledge Area: PM Framework/Processes
Process Group: Closing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 110

Explanation
X26
The correct answer is B.
The opportunity cost is the value of the project that was not selected; the lost opportunity. Here, the opportunity
cost is $30,000.
Knowledge Area: Integration
Process Group: Initiating
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 131

Explanation
X27
The correct answer is C.
After 20 days, the lease cost will be $150 x 20 = $3,000. To buy, the cost will be $2,000 + ($50 x 20) = $3,000.
Knowledge Area: Procurement
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 508

Explanation
X28
The correct answer is D.
Although carefully creating the WBS might help, it is not the best choice. A strong quality control plan really
means, "spend the most time checking the work." Since it is after the fact and reactive, it is not the best choice
for this situation. Decreasing fringe benefits would only make things worse. A reward system for those involved
would be the most beneficial.
Knowledge Area: Resource
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 390

Explanation
X29
The correct answer is D.
The heuristic (general rule) we use in project decomposition is 80 hours for a medium-sized project. It doesn't
matter how experienced the team members are. You need this level of reporting to manage the project
effectively.
Knowledge Area: Scope
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 201

Explanation
X30
The correct answer is B.
Parties involved in the approved contract or agreement are key stakeholders whose needs the project manager
must address throughout the project.
Knowledge Area: Stakeholder
Process Group: Initiating
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 576

Explanation
X31
The correct answer is C.
Lack of an adequate testing environment, limited testing, and the likely unavailability of the resource are all risks
that should have been identified early in the project, and for which response strategies should have been
developed.
Knowledge Area: Risk
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 453

Explanation
X32
The correct answer is C.
Approvals of changes in resources used would generally not be required in a fixed-price contract.
Knowledge Area: Procurement
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 510

Explanation
X33
The correct answer is D.
While the actions described are a part of the project manager’s effort throughout the project, they are the primary
focus of Develop Team and Manage Team.
Knowledge Area: Resource
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 390

Explanation
X34
The correct answer is C.
The process being described here is Determine Budget. Funding limit reconciliation is a tool—not an input—of
the Determine Budget process, and funding requirements are an output of that process.
Knowledge Area: Cost
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMBOK® Guide
Page: 248

Explanation
X35
The correct answer is C.
The overall project budget may be included in the project charter but not the detailed costs. Even small projects
should have a budget and schedule. It is not impossible to create a project budget before the project
management plan is created. However, it is not wise to do so, as the budget will not be accurate. The project
budget and baseline are not finalized and accepted until the planning processes are completed.
Knowledge Area: Cost
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 290

Explanation
X36
The correct answer is C.
A Pareto diagram is a type of histogram. It helps to identify the most frequently occurring problems and
determine which problems to focus your attention on. The result is a higher quality project. It can be used to look
at past problems, not to predict future ones.
Knowledge Area: Quality
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 343

Explanation
X37
The correct answer is D.
Resource calendars are an output of Acquire Resources. Updates to the issue log are outputs of Manage
Project Team. The resource management plan is an output of Plan Resource Management. The Develop Team
process involves training and other activities that make team members more capable of doing their jobs and
working as a high performing team. Therefore, you expect performance improvements to result. Such
improvements are documented in team performance assessments, an output of Develop Team.
Knowledge Area: Resource
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 390

Explanation
X38
The correct answer is B.
Kickoff meetings occur during project planning. Quality management activities are not a part of procurement
closure. Scope validation planning is part of the planning process. All types of closure ensure the actual product
of the project meets the requirements and is accepted by an internal or external customer. Note, however, that
procurements are closed in monitoring and controlling, not as part of Close Project or Phase.
Knowledge Area: Integration
Process Group: Closing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 164

Explanation
X39
The correct answer is C.
You need to communicate changes and problems with the stakeholders. This includes the sponsor, team
members, and functional managers.
Knowledge Area: Communications
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 430

Explanation
X40
The correct answer is C.
Sometimes complex problems are caused by not doing simple things. After you read through the choices, it's
clear that the data in the first paragraph is completely extraneous. The troubled activity has float and so does not
need immediate attention. It may not be necessary for additional team members to assist the troubled activity,
but none of the choices suggest investigating whether the amount of float is enough to cover any delay caused
by the trouble. Rather, the choices take you in different directions. Investigating why the schedule is so
aggressive should have been done before the project began. Replacing team members does not solve the root
cause of the problem. Could there be something the project manager is doing wrong, or could be doing that she
is not, that would solve the problem without losing resources? Wouldn't it be more effective to discover the root
cause of those team members' concerns so the problem does not surface again later? The creation of an issue
log will let the troubled team members know their concerns have been heard, are noted, and will be resolved.
This might be enough to stop them from leaving and avoid the resultant project delays and confusion if new
team members must be added.
Knowledge Area: Resource
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 392

Explanation
X41
The correct answer is C.
Remember that procurement audits are used to capture lessons learned, which will improve the procurement
processes within the organization.
Knowledge Area: Procurement
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 551

Explanation
X42
The correct answer is D.
Did you get tricked into looking at the length of each activity to calculate project length? The start is the
beginning of July and the end is the end of the year, making the maximum duration six months.
Knowledge Area: Schedule
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 243

Explanation
X43
The correct answer is A.
In a functional organization, the project manager has the least support for the project and has little authority to
assign resources. Project expediter and project coordinator are roles in a weak matrix organization.
Knowledge Area: PM Framework/Processes
Process Group: Initiating
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 31

Explanation
X44
The correct answer is D.
The larger the BCR, SPI, and CPI the better. A project with high priority normally holds more senior
management commitment.
Knowledge Area: Integration
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 130

Explanation
X45
The correct answer is C.
The only estimate that is usually made in the initiating process group is the rough order of magnitude estimate.
This estimate is accurate to -25 percent to +75 percent. As the project progresses and more is known, this
estimate will be refined to a more limited range.
Knowledge Area: Cost
Process Group: Initiating
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 289

Explanation
X46
The correct answer is D.
The team is using the benchmarking technique to review methodologies used by comparable projects or
organizations to establish quality metrics and acceptable variance ranges, and to measure quality.
Knowledge Area: Quality
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 329

Explanation
X47
The correct answer is C.
This question is asking for the output of the procurement process as a whole, not an output of the pieces within
the process. The procurement process should lead to formal acceptance of the product of the procurement. Be
sure to carefully read questions on the exam!
Knowledge Area: Procurement
Process Group: Closing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 552

Explanation
X48
The correct answer is D.
The actions described are generally required, and are not gold plating. Project performance appraisals provide
information on team members’ performance, but do not include action to recognize that performance. A
recognition and rewards system involves formal management action to promote desired behavior of individuals.
Knowledge Area: Resource
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 390

Explanation
X49
The correct answer is B.
The WBS dictionary defines each element in the WBS. Therefore, descriptions of the work packages are in the
WBS dictionary. Activity lists may identify the work package they relate to, but they do not contain detailed
descriptions of the work packages. The project scope statement defines the project scope, but it does not
describe the work a team member is assigned. The scope management plan describes how scope will be
planned, managed, and controlled. It does not include a description of each work package.
Knowledge Area: Scope
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 204

Explanation
X50
The correct answer is C.
By definition, risk is the uncertainty of some aspect of the project.
Knowledge Area: Risk
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 442

Explanation
X51
The correct answer is B.
The word "formal" in this question relates to gaining customer sign-off. Until the customer formally accepts the
project's deliverables, you do not have acceptance.
Knowledge Area: PM Framework/Processes
Process Group: Closing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 109

Explanation
X52
The correct answer is D.
This is a question that looks for your understanding of the term breach, and its impact on your project. In this
situation, the seller has not breached the contract; he has not yet failed to meet a deliverable due date. It says
he is having trouble meeting it. Until a breach occurs, you do not need to take legal action. Reminding the seller
of penalties is not correct because it does not deal with the problem. It simply says, "You must find the
resources." Moving into procurement closure will not provide the required deliverable. Since the contract has not
been breached, the best thing to do is to prevent the breach. You could help the seller find other resources.
They may be found internally, or you may have a better understanding of the availability of resources in your
area.
Knowledge Area: Procurement
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 544

Explanation
X53
The correct answer is C.
A poor communications management plan is not likely to cause the volume of changes in this instance.
Knowledge Area: Integration
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 160

Explanation
X54
The correct answer is B.
The stakeholder register identifies individuals and groups the project will communicate with. Historical
information, including lessons learned, from previous projects may indicate issues with communications that will
be useful on the current project. The stakeholder engagement plan addresses how communication will be used
on the project to manage stakeholder expectations. Company culture is an enterprise environmental factor and
is a consideration in planning the project communications. The scope baseline is not an input to this process.
Knowledge Area: Communications
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMBOK® Guide
Page: 360

Explanation
X55
The correct answer is A.
This question is worded strangely! Get used to it because you will have many instances where it will take you
awhile to figure out what the question is asking, let alone come up with the best answer. A list of activities from
previous projects may be used as an input to defining activities on a similar project.
Knowledge Area: Schedule
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMBOK® Guide
Page: 224

Explanation
X56
The correct answer is D.
This is an example of a two-stage question you may find on the exam. First you need to draw the network
diagram and find the critical path, and then make a decision. The network diagram has four paths: Start, A, D, G,
End = 14 Start, B, E, H, End = 12 Start, C, E, H, End = 16 Start, C, F, I, End = 9 The critical path is 16 (Start, C,
E, H, End). Many people immediately look for the longest duration activity on the project to cut. Here activity D is
the longest, at 10 weeks. However, that activity is not on the critical path, and cutting it would not shorten the
project's duration. You must change the critical path. In this case, both activity C and activity H are on the critical
path. If you have a choice, all things being equal, choose the earlier option. Therefore, activity C is the best
answer.
Knowledge Area: Schedule
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 252

Explanation
X57
The correct answer is D.
The scenario does not indicate that you can outsource the work or hire all new team members with the skill to
make the schedule. It might be a good idea but then the knowledge gained in the test would not be accurate for
transitioning to other teams to these practices and tools. The most likely outcome is that the costs of training
would need to be added into the budget for the project. This is more proactive and therefore a better answer
than just revising the schedule to account for decreased effectiveness. If we train the project team they are likely
to be able to perform the work effectively and efficiently.
Knowledge Area: Cost
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 283

Explanation
X58
The correct answer is D.
Focusing on the most critical issues to improve quality relates to histograms. Stimulating thinking analyzing the
cause of quality problems relate to fishbone diagrams. Only determining if a process is functioning within
established metrics relates to control charts.
Knowledge Area: Quality
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 338

Explanation
X59
The correct answer is B.
The exam will ask questions like this to make sure you know the benefits you should be getting out of the
processes and tools of project management. The details of what needs to be done are found in the WBS
dictionary. The names of team members are included in the responsibility assignment matrix and other
documents. Project history is found in the lessons learned and other historical records. A major benefit of a
project charter is that it documents the authority given to the project manager.
Knowledge Area: Integration
Process Group: Initiating
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 138

Explanation
X60
The correct answer is B.
There is always the option to simply postpone dealing with the issue until later. This is withdrawing. The other
choices are not conflict management techniques.
Knowledge Area: Resource
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 396

Explanation
X61
The correct answer is C.
Here we are tying together the concepts of standard deviation and contracts. Using the concept of standard
deviation, we find the cost of this project will vary, at one standard deviation, from $1.8M to $2.2M. Since this is
not insignificant, there appears to be some ambiguity with the project definition. As you are not totally sure of the
scope, you would not pick a fixed-price option (FP or FPIF). Of the two cost-reimbursable options, you need to
select the better of the two. Cost plus percentage of costs (CPPC) is probably the worst type of contract to use,
as there is no incentive for the seller to control costs. This leaves a cost plus fixed fee (CPFF) contract as the
best choice.
Knowledge Area: Procurement
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 514

Explanation
X62
The correct answer is A.
Notice the phrasing of this question, "most likely not do." Expect to see questions worded on the exam in ways
that can cause you to misinterpret them. You will also see questions about things we forget to do in the real
world. "Who has time," you might say, "to determine if each problem is really solved?" One could respond with,
"Who has time not to do this? Who has time to deal with the same problem twice?" The final steps of problem-
solving include implementing a decision, reviewing it, and confirming that the decision solved the problem.
Knowledge Area: Resource
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 401

Explanation
X63
The correct answer is C.
Remember the definition of a project: temporary and unique. Operations and maintenance are considered
ongoing activities, not temporary. Therefore, such work is not considered a project or part of a project.
Knowledge Area: PM Framework/Processes
Process Group: Initiating
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 23

Explanation
X64
The correct answer is A.
Presenting an analysis of the differences between the models to the project sponsor is the better choice.
Because this is an issue that affects multiple stakeholder groups across the organization, it is up to the sponsor
to make the decision and up to the project manager to provide the information for the decision to be made. This
is an example of evaluating before making a decision.
Knowledge Area: Scope
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 193

Explanation
X65
The correct answer is A.
If the scope change request had been properly handled, the impact of the change would have been identified
and addressed immediately.
Knowledge Area: Scope
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 209

Explanation
X66
The correct answer is B.
In initiating, you don't need a precise estimate to get the charter approved. A rough order of magnitude (ROM)
estimate, with a range of -25/+75 percent suffices. It is unlikely the cost of the final resources would be outside
the parameters of a ROM estimate.
Knowledge Area: Integration
Process Group: Initiating
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 289

Explanation
X67
The correct answer is D.
Did you get this wrong? If so, you may have misread it. The question is asking for inputs to quality as a whole. In
other words, "What must you have before you can do quality management?" Checklists cannot be the correct
answer since they are created during the quality management process, not an input to it.
Knowledge Area: Quality
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 333

Explanation
X68
The correct answer is C.
Notice the phrasing in the question: "most likely not do." Expect to see questions worded on the exam in ways
that can cause you to misinterpret them. You will also see questions about things we forget to do in the real
world. "Who has time," you might say, "to determine if each problem is really solved?" One could respond with,
"Who has time not to do this? Who has time to deal with the same problem twice?" The final steps of problem-
solving include implementing a decision, reviewing it, and confirming that the decision solved the problem.
Knowledge Area: Resource
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 401

Explanation
X69
The correct answer is C.
Stakeholders have an impact throughout the project, but they must be identified and involved at the beginning of
the project in order to determine their requirements and expectations. This means that even stakeholders who
play a smaller role or whose requirements are addressed later in the project are included early. If this effort is not
done early, the results may be expensive changes and/or dissatisfaction later in the project.
Knowledge Area: Stakeholder
Process Group: Initiating
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 573

Explanation
X70
The correct answer is D.
An unrealistic schedule is the fault of the project manager. One of the key responsibilities of a project manager is
to see if the needed end date for a project can be met and to create options to make it happen before project
executing starts.
Knowledge Area: Schedule
Process Group: Initiating
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 221

Explanation
X71
The correct answer is B.
Scope, schedule, cost, quality, risk, resources, and customer satisfaction is the most accurate list of constraints,
or competing demands, that a project manager must deal with.
Knowledge Area: PM Framework/Processes
Process Group: Initiating
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 46

Explanation
X72
The correct answer is C.
Team members are harder to motivate if their loyalty is to their functional organization rather than to the project
team.
Knowledge Area: Resource
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 31
Explanation
X73
The correct answer is A.
The project manager cannot control everything or everyone involved with the project. It is inevitable that changes
to the project baselines will be required during the life of the project. Rather than working to satisfy every
stakeholder, it is the role of the project manager to work to the project management plan during project
executing.
Knowledge Area: PM Framework/Processes
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 95

Explanation
X74
The correct answer is B.
Cost of quality is the cost of work added to the project to accommodate quality efforts. Design of experiments is
used to determine which variables will improve quality on a project. Statistical sampling is used in quality control,
when it would take too long or cost too much to evaluate an entire group. Cost-benefit analysis is used in project
selection to compare the expected project costs to the potential benefits. It is the only tool listed that would be
useful in the situation presented.
Knowledge Area: Integration
Process Group: Initiating
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 130

Explanation
X75
The correct answer is D.
Outsourcing is only a possibility if you have proof that another company could do the inspection with less
damage. Evaluating the attributes of the population is effectively saying "inspect them all," which would destroy
all production. Decreasing the cost of quality would only make the quality issues greater. The best choice is to
inspect a sample of the satellites.
Knowledge Area: Quality
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 338

Explanation
X76
The correct answer is D.
Contract documentation includes requested and approved contract changes. A contract change is required to
put in place the new limits.
Knowledge Area: Procurement
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 549

Explanation
X77
The correct answer is C.
Asking the customer to try to get approvals in on time is smoothing. Meeting with the customer to determine a
new due date is problem-solving. Demanding the approvals today is forcing. Postponing a decision reflects the
conflict resolution technique of withdrawal.
Knowledge Area: Resource
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 396

Explanation
X78
The correct answer is A.
When the seller has more expertise than the buyer, the procurement statement of work should describe
performance or function rather than a complete description of the work. In any case, the procurement statement
of work should be as detailed as possible.
Knowledge Area: Procurement
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 526

Explanation
X
The correct answer is B.
The project status needs to be known by many people. Therefore, it is best to present this type of information in
writing so that it can be transmitted to many people at once. It is also formal in that it is an official report of the
project. Therefore, formal written communication is the best answer.
Knowledge Area: Communications
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 420

Explanation
X
The correct answer is B.
The key word here is "overall." Control Quality is incorrect because they are not addressing the specific work
performance (i.e., the table is too short). The Manage Quality process is used to make sure standards and
processes are being followed.
Knowledge Area: Quality
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 332
Explanation
X
The correct answer is C.
This could be an example of a change to contract language where the project manager was not actively
involved. The procurement manager generally has the authority to approve change orders. Although asking the
accounting department about any additional changes is a good idea, it is not an immediate need based on the
information provided. The question does not state that the impact of the change on project time, cost, quality
and/or risk has been analyzed. Therefore, the best choice is to start integrated change control.
Knowledge Area: Procurement
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 541

Explanation
X
The correct answer is A.
Presenting anything other than your original estimate (allocating more to the budget) is inaccurate and calls into
question your competence and integrity as a project manager. The customer should list potential changes and
risks related to your estimate. If the costs and risks are justified, you can ethically increase the budget.
Knowledge Area: Cost
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 285

Explanation
X
The correct answer is C.
Keeping the risk owner onsite through the entire duration of the project is not practical, but risk owners are
responsible to implement contingency plans. What was needed was an early warning that the risk might occur. A
risk that you have taken the time to create a response plan for is one that will have a large impact on the project.
This is worth the project manager's oversight.
Knowledge Area: Risk
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 470

Explanation
X
The correct answer is C.
Tacit knowledge includes emotions, experience, and abilities. Sharing this type of knowledge requires an
atmosphere of trust within the team or organization. The other choices relate to explicit knowledge.
Knowledge Area: Integration
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 152
Explanation
X
The correct answer is D.
Crashing and replanning are essentially delaying the problem. Instead, the project manager should try to prevent
it by showing the consequences if the resources are not available. This is a more effective strategy than saying,
"But you gave those resources to me."
Knowledge Area: Integration
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 150

Explanation
X
The correct answer is B.
The Manage Communications process in executing includes performance reporting, such as variance reports,
and trend reports. In the Close Project or Phase process, a final report documents the success of the project.
Knowledge Area: Communications
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 428, 111

Explanation
X
The correct answer is B.
There is no information presented about lag or progress. The activity described has float because there is a
difference between the early start and late start. An activity that has float is probably not on the critical path.
Knowledge Area: Schedule
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 243

Explanation
X
The correct answer is D.
Though all the choices seem like good ideas, there is only one best option. Usually these questions can be
reworded to, "What do you do next?" Integrating is a great idea, but not all projects have another project with
which to integrate. The project manager cannot move on until the project is actually completed. That means that
the Close Project or Phase process must occur. The only choice that relates to Close Project or Phase is to
analyze project success or failure. Once that process is done, then throw a party!
Knowledge Area: Integration
Process Group: Closing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 164
Explanation
X
The correct answer is D.
The professional and social responsibility of the project manager requires that the truth be told. Reporting that
the project is doing well is lying and unethical. Reporting that the project will be late is not the correct choice
because you do not know the project will be late. There is time to fix the problems. You would not report that the
project is behind budget, because there are no cost problems illustrated in the question. As in any report, you
need to state the issues and options.
Knowledge Area: Communications
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 604

Explanation
X
The correct answer is A.
Originally the critical path duration was 18, but that has reduced to 16 so now there are two (not three) critical
paths. Activity A will lose float with the change in the critical path activity B. The project is not complete until both
F and B are complete, as we now have the two critical paths. The only possible true statement that relates to the
scenario and could be correct is that "The project will complete sooner if F is started immediately."
Knowledge Area: Schedule
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 243

Explanation
X
The correct answer is A.
Self-fulfillment, or self-actualization, is the highest point in Maslow's hierarchy of needs.
Knowledge Area: Resource
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 385

Explanation
X
The correct answer is B.
An OBS (organizational breakdown structure) shows responsibilities by department. An RBS (resource
breakdown structure) breaks the work down by type of resources. A resource histogram shows resource usage
by time unit. The team directory is a list of team members.
Knowledge Area: Resource
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 373

Explanation
X
The correct answer is A.
A payback period is the amount of time it takes to recoup the investment in a project.
Knowledge Area: Integration
Process Group: Closing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 130
Explanation
X
The correct answer is D.
A cost baseline is an output of the Determine Budget process.
Knowledge Area: Cost
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 290

Explanation
X
The correct answer is D.
Did you like the idea of asking the team member why he needs more time? That would have been done before
you determined the only impact. The use of the phrase "only impact" here implies the investigation of the impact
in integrated change control has already been done. Looking for objections from stakeholders cannot be the best
choice, as change control board members are the selected representatives of the stakeholders. Generally, a
change not impacting the baselines would not require approval by a change control board. However, since the
other choices offered here are clearly incorrect, we must assume that such approval has been specified in the
change management plan for this project. Therefore, the best choice is to submit the information to the change
control board and determine if this might impact the team member's future work. After the board reviews, and
formally rejects or approves the change, you should inform the team member of the decision.
Knowledge Area: Integration
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 159

Explanation
X
The correct answer is A.
In a matrix organization, each team member reports to the project manager and the functional manager. Team
members may therefore be worried about who will handle their evaluations, serving multiple managers, and/or
developing commitment. Since the same fringe benefits are given to all employees no matter what work they do,
that is the exception.
Knowledge Area: PM Framework/Processes
Process Group: Initiating
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 31

Explanation
X
The correct answer is B.
This is looking at how to best balance cost and risk while planning a project. The least effective way to do that
would be to send the team members and not pay for the visa. This is also not an ethical choice, as this type of
payment is common and allowable. To not pay it might put your team members at risk of being ordered to leave
before the work is done. It is important to consider all options as you try to mitigate cost risk on a project that will
take place where there is uncertainty of completing the work. Outsourcing to a local company might be less
costly, and paying to have project team members do the work in three-month increments might be less costly.
The costs of the best option should ultimately be included in your project budget.
Knowledge Area: Cost
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 290

Explanation
X
The correct answer is A.
The expected value takes into account the probability and the impact. The calculation is (0.2 x 14) + (0.1 x 21) +
(0.5 x 14).
Knowledge Area: Risk
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 461

Explanation
X
The correct answer is D.
Operational work is that which is ongoing and frequently requires performing job functions repeatedly to sustain
an organization.
Knowledge Area: PM Framework/Processes
Process Group: Initiating
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 25

Explanation
X
The correct answer is A.
All reports and diagrams are communications tools. This question asks you to pick the most appropriate quality
tool to help communications. A why-why diagram, also called a cause-and-effect diagram, is more appropriate
than a Pareto diagram since you are trying to determine the causes. Once causes are known and you have data
on occurrences, the data can be displayed in a Pareto diagram.
Knowledge Area: Quality
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 333

Explanation
X
The correct answer is B.
Determining what processes should be used describes Plan Quality Management. Evaluating quality describes
Control Quality. In the Manage Quality process, quality audits are performed to make sure the correct processes
are being used and that they are effective.
Knowledge Area: Quality
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 332

Explanation
X
The correct answer is B.
The first thing a project manager should do when assigned a project after the charter is completed is to review
the charter to make certain he understands it. He needs to know who the key stakeholders are that had input
into the high-level scope described in the charter. Identify Stakeholders is an initiating process; the others occur
in planning.
Knowledge Area: Stakeholder
Process Group: Initiating
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 575

Explanation
X
The correct answer is C.
Formal power is based on your position.
Knowledge Area: Resource
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 394

Explanation
X
The correct answer is C.
You can expect many questions dealing with changes on the exam. Generally, you look for impacts to all
aspects of the project, even if the project is ahead of schedule and/or under budget. You cannot approve the
change or request the sponsor's approval until you have determined the effects of the change on the project.
There is no such thing as a configuration change board.
Knowledge Area: Scope
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 210

Explanation
X
The correct answer is B.
Simply refusing to provide a reference, without doing what you can to help the team member, is unethical and
violates the principle of treating people fairly. Consulting with the functional manager may represent a breach of
confidence between the project manager and the team member, and is not the best option. The project manager
does not have the authority to release corporate records. He should, however, update the team member’s
personnel records to reflect the training he has received and the new skills he has acquired.
Knowledge Area: Resource
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 601

Explanation
X
The correct answer is B.
Risk auditors do not measure the effectiveness of risk thresholds. The only source of potential conflict listed here
is that one of the functions of risk auditors is to investigate the effectiveness of risk owners.
Knowledge Area: Risk
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 489

Explanation
X
The correct answer is D.
Changing to a component with a lower life cycle cost will not decrease project costs; it will just decrease costs to
the organization after the results of the project have transitioned into ongoing business operations. Using a more
experienced resource will almost always lead to higher costs, and making activities occur concurrently could
affect costs later, due to the increased risk. Although it may not be the first choice to think of, deleting a test
would decrease project costs, so it is the best answer offered. It may also decrease quality, there are possible
impacts to customer satisfaction but that is not what the question is asking you to solve.
Knowledge Area: Cost
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 306

Explanation
X
The correct answer is C.
Reciprocal communication may be formal or informal, verbal, or written, external or internal to the organization.
By definition, reciprocal conversation is interactive.
Knowledge Area: Communications
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 423

Explanation
X
The correct answer is D.
Performing activities concurrently relates to fast tracking. Since activity G is the only one of these two activities
on the critical path, completing the two in parallel will have no effect on the critical path.
Knowledge Area: Schedule
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 243

Explanation
X
The correct answer is C.
Projects often need their own reward systems to affect performance. Project managers should create such a
system for each project.
Knowledge Area: Resource
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 390

Explanation
X
The correct answer is B.
The issue here is managing people and physical resources. Only the resource management plan relates to that.
Knowledge Area: Resource
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 374

Explanation
X
The correct answer is D.
This change increases the length of the path that activity G is on to 24 months, but it does not change the critical
path that is Start, E, I, End.
Knowledge Area: Schedule
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 243
Explanation
X
The correct answer is D.
Notice how the choices are similar to each other? Simply look at the first part of each choice "Control Scope
focuses on …" and see which version of the first part of the statement is correct. Then read the second part of
each choice. The only statement that is entirely correct is: Control Scope focuses on controlling the scope of the
project and Perform Integrated Change Control focuses on determining the impact of a change of scope on time,
cost, quality, risk, resources, and customer satisfaction.
Knowledge Area: Scope
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 209

Explanation
X
The correct answer is D.
Those having the problem should resolve the problem. In this case, the two team members should work out the
problem. Because it is impacting the project, the project manager needs to participate in the resolution.
Knowledge Area: Resource
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 367

Explanation
X
The correct answer is C.
Combining four initiatives into one project sounds like a recipe for failure. Suggest that management prioritize
the work. Then, a charter for the project with the most compelling business case can be created.
Knowledge Area: PM Framework/Processes
Process Group: Initiating
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 23

Explanation
X
The correct answer is C.
Replacing the team member would be an unnecessarily drastic action because the work for which he needs
training is project-specific work. Some examples of the work this team member might be asked to do include
acting as a risk owner, being involved on the change control board, and more. You would have accounted for the
team member's level of experience and productivity in the project management plan so revising the schedule is
unnecessary, and no impact to the project is referenced in the question. If the new skills that the employee
needed to be trained on would benefit the organization in the future, it would be appropriate to ask the functional
manager to fund it. Training for project-specific work is considered part of the cost baseline. Mentoring is the
only logical choice, and it is work that a project manager may be frequently called on to perform.
Knowledge Area: Resource
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 389

Explanation
X
The correct answer is B.
Notice that this question asks about the use of a tool of project management. Many people can learn from a
book what a lessons learned register is, but questions like this can more readily be answered if you actually use
the tool and know from experience its value. Ask yourself about the other tools of project management. Why are
they beneficial? The best uses of lessons learned are as continuous improvement tools within the current
project, historical records for future projects, and tools for improving the organization’s processes and systems.
There are other tools that are better for accomplishing the things listed in the other choices.
Knowledge Area: PM Framework/Processes
Process Group: Closing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 44

Explanation
X
The correct answer is C.
Ethics questions are tough because they push the envelope of project management. A "you have your way, I
have mine" approach disregards activities that might be legal in another country but are illegal in your own
country. It does not always work to apply the business practices of your own country because each country has
its own laws. No matter the circumstances or location, the rule against violating fundamental human rights is
applicable.
Knowledge Area: Integration
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 603

Explanation
X
The correct answer is B.
Time estimates for the activities should be created by the team and should not be added together to create the
project estimate. Some activities may take place concurrently; these would be identified in the network diagram.
Knowledge Area: Schedule
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 227

Explanation
X
The correct answer is D.
Notice that the work described in this question is product verification, not scope validation. The Validate Scope
process occurs in project monitoring and controlling. Product verification is done in the Close Project or Phase
process.
Knowledge Area: PM Framework/Processes
Process Group: Closing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 109

Explanation
X
The correct answer is D.
Notice how some choices contain statements that are true as well as statements that are not true. The WBS
makes use of the knowledge gained while creating the product description, but the product description is created
in project initiating, not project executing. The communications management plan is included in the project
management plan, but the WBS is created after the project charter. Again, not a completely correct choice. The
product description contains the customer's, not the sponsor's requirements, so that choice cannot be best.
"There must be an attempt to gain a complete product description before the project is initiated" is a correct
statement. This effort may be the result of another project to determine the requirements.
Knowledge Area: PM Framework/Processes
Process Group: Initiating
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 88

Explanation
X
The correct answer is D.
Did you notice this project has already begun? Risk management is a required element of project management.
You must complete risk management, starting with the Plan Risk Management process.
Knowledge Area: Risk
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 450

Explanation
X
The correct answer is C.
Delaying project completion or adding work to the project are unethical actions. When the project is completed
early, the project manager should report that the project came in ahead of time and explain why. This is a
success! If there was proper project planning, this should occur because an expected risk did not materialize.
Knowledge Area: Schedule
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 263

Explanation
X
The correct answer is B.
The question asks for the "appropriate" risk response strategy. The risk described is of such magnitude that
posting a sign would not have enough of a clear effect on the risk. Insuring against the risk might decrease cost
risk but not other types of risks. You might still have deaths. Classroom training might also reduce the probability
of the risk occurring, but it is not the best or most appropriate choice. Because of the impact of the risk, not doing
the work package is the only appropriate choice.
Knowledge Area: Risk
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 466

Explanation
X
The correct answer is D.
Earned value analysis is a progress reporting tool. Pareto analysis is a quality tool. Expert interviews simply
provide information from individuals. Facilitation sessions can be used to help groups of stakeholders with
different perspectives reach consensus on prioritizing requirements. Since this is an international project, you will
likely need to hold facilitation sessions remotely.
Knowledge Area: Scope
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 190

Explanation
X
The correct answer is C.
The procurement process is more formal and requires more formal processes. Ensuring all sellers receive the
same information in writing eliminates the problem of bias in presenting the opportunity.
Knowledge Area: Procurement
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 536

Explanation
X
The correct answer is A.
Regression analysis is a tool of the Close Project or Phase process. Also in closing, reasons for termination are
documented, and information is transferred to the next project phase or to operations. The Validate Scope
process looks at acceptance of project deliverables, and occurs during project monitoring and controlling, not at
the end of the project. In Close Project or Phase, we confirm that all product scope is completed and that the
project objectives have been met.
Knowledge Area: Integration
Process Group: Closing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 164

Explanation
X
The correct answer is C.
McGregor's Theory X and Theory Y have to do with how much you can trust subordinates. Theory Y states that
people are willing and capable of working without supervision. Theory X suggests you can't trust subordinates at
all, and have to keep a careful watch on them or they will not be productive.
Knowledge Area: Resource
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 385

Explanation
X
The correct answer is A.
There are many choices that are reasonably correct. Look for the most immediate need. Here, the team member
is in a manufacturing environment. That means communications will most likely be blocked by noise. It is best for
the project manager to ask the team member to repeat back what he says, to ensure the team member correctly
heard what the project manager communicated.
Knowledge Area: Communications
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 423

Explanation
X
The correct answer is D.
With the information given, you cannot calculate the SPI. Pulling the EV and CV out of the situation, you
determine EV = $500,000, and CV is -$100,000. AC = EV - CV or $600,000. You can now calculate CPI =
EV/AC = $500,000/$600,000 = 0.83.
Knowledge Area: Cost
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 294

Explanation
X
The correct answer is C.
It is not practical to limit the scope of the changes. Each change request needs to be evaluated as a separate
entity.
Knowledge Area: Schedule
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 146, 263

Explanation
X
The correct answer is C.
Inspection, histograms, and cause-and-effect diagrams are all tools that can be used in Control Quality. Mind
mapping is the gathering of quality requirements and illustrating their impacts on other parts of project planning.
Knowledge Area: Quality
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMBOK® Guide
Page: 298

Explanation
X
The correct answer is C.
Look at the wording of the choices and you will see this question is talking about a procurement situation. To find
the best answer, think about the rules for contract closure. Making sure the customer is satisfied is certainly a
good thing, but that satisfaction must turn into formal acceptance (in writing) in order for a contract to be closed
out. Each project is different and may have different requirements for closure. Lien waivers, export certificates,
or warranty and guarantee information might be needed before the contract can be closed. These unique needs
of the project are included in the contract. Therefore, the project is not complete until formal acceptance is
received, and any other requirements for project closure as stated in the contract are met.
Knowledge Area: Procurement
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 551

Explanation
X
The correct answer is D.
Many project managers spend all their time while the work is being done issuing and using status reports. Great
project managers know that these reports are necessary but are not a replacement for properly managing a
project. By interacting with the team, watching what is going on, and listening to the team members, you will find
out sooner than later what the "real" status of the project is. Reports are normally a week or two behind the
actual work, causing a delay in reacting to problems. That is the biggest disadvantage of progress reports as
opposed to watching what is going on, asking questions, and assisting team members.
Knowledge Area: Communications
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 428

Explanation
X
The correct answer is A.
Historical information is not enough to base an estimate on. Team estimates or estimating using the schedule
model are not possible because you are still in project initiating. You have not yet identified activities, nor do you
have a schedule model. It is best to provide a rough order of magnitude estimate based on your current
understanding of this project.
Knowledge Area: Cost
Process Group: Initiating
Source: PMP® Exam Pr

Explanation
X
The correct answer is D.
The question is asking, "What is done after Estimate Activity Durations?" Collecting historical records, creating
an activity list, and updating the WBS are done before Estimate Activity Durations. Schedule compression is
done as part of the Develop Schedule process, after Estimate Activity Durations.
Knowledge Area: Schedule
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 252

Explanation
X
The correct answer is C.
Did you notice how difficult this question was to read? Such wording is intentional—to prepare you for
interpreting questions on the real exam. Looking at this situation, you see there are three paths through the
network. They are Start, A, C, E, F, End with a duration of 40 + 35 + 10 + 22 = 107; Start, A, C, D, End with a
duration of 40 + 35 + 30 = 105; and Start, B, D, End with a duration of 25 + 30 = 55. If the duration of activity B
changes from 25 to 37, the activity will take 12 hours longer. As the activity is only on the third path, it will only
change the duration of that path from 55 to 55 + 12, or 67 hours. Since the duration of the critical path is 107
hours, the delay with activity B will have no impact on the project timeline or the current critical path.
Knowledge Area: Schedule
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 243

Explanation
X
The correct answer is D.
Because an unidentified problem or risk occurred, it is important to reevaluate the Identify Risks process as well
as to look for unexpected effects of the problem. However, they are not your first choices. You might need to
inform management, but this is reactive, not proactive, and not the first thing you should do. Since this is a
problem that has occurred, rather than a problem that has just been identified, the first thing you must do is
address the risk by creating a workaround.
Knowledge Area: Risk
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 478

Explanation
X
The correct answer is C.
Did this question make you think? Notice how many of the choices twist around the truth to make them incorrect.
If you picked an incorrect choice, try to figure out why your choice was not correct. Project managers have less
authority in a functional organization than in a matrix organization. The amount of time people work on projects
depends on the needs of the organization, not how the organization is structured. Functional organizations do
not provide flexibility.
Knowledge Area: PM Framework/Processes
Process Group: Initiating
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 31

Explanation
X
The correct answer is A.
During project executing, the project is mostly defined, the team knows what to do. Therefore, the project
manager does more coaching.
Knowledge Area: Resource
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 393

Explanation
X
The correct answer is A.
Neither redefining the scope or resource leveling are appropriate for this situation. Fast tracking involves
increased risk and so is not the best choice in this case. Crashing is a cost/schedule trade-off, and is less risky
than fast tracking. Since the project manager is not worried about her budget, but is worried about time and risk,
crashing is the most logical solution.
Knowledge Area: Schedule
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 253

Explanation
X
The correct answer is D.
Analogous estimating is used most frequently during project initiating and planning, not project executing.
Parametric estimating involves calculations based on historical records. Analogous estimating early in the
project uses top-down estimating techniques.
Knowledge Area: Cost
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 232

Explanation
X
The correct answer is C.
Operations and maintenance are ongoing activities after the project is completed. This work is not considered
part of the project.
Knowledge Area: PM Framework/Processes
Process Group: Closing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 109

Explanation
X
The correct answer is A.
Inspecting work packages is a monitoring and controlling function. Many people get tricked by the choice of
"obtaining formal acceptance of the project scope from the customer." This can occur throughout the project.
Closing involves formal acceptance of the product of the project. Project performance appraisals are done in
project executing. Only archiving project documents is done in project closing.
Knowledge Area: PM Framework/Processes
Process Group: Closing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 110

Explanation
X
The correct answer is D.
Influence and delegating are leadership styles. Collaboration and compromise are conflict resolution techniques.
Recognition and rewards are a tool of resource management. Ensuring common understanding and managing
project communication are ways for a project manager to reduce misunderstandings on the project.
Knowledge Area: Communications
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 422
Explanation
X
The correct answer is B.
To ensure clear, concise communications, the project manager must manage communications by deciding what
form of communication is best in each situation.
Knowledge Area: Communications
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 426

Explanation
X
The correct answer is B.
This term refers to control limits. A data point inside the control limits is an example of "in control." A data point
within one sigma is not a relevant data point. A process is out of control when a point falls outside the upper or
lower control limits on a control chart or when seven consecutive data points fall on the same side of the mean.
Knowledge Area: Quality
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 339

Explanation
X
The correct answer is D.
This is an ethical question. One generally needs to work within the laws and customs of the host country.
Knowledge Area: Integration
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 603

Explanation
X
The correct answer is B.
Only government officials can collect routine government fees.
Knowledge Area: Cost
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 603

Explanation
X
The correct answer is C.
The costs of activities are included in the project cost estimate, and the contingency reserves (to cover identified
risks) are added to that to come up with the cost baseline. Thereafter, the management reserves (to cover
unknown, or unidentified, risks) are added to come up with the cost budget. The management reserves make up
the difference between the cost baseline and the cost budget.
Knowledge Area: Cost
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 290

Explanation
X
The correct answer is B.
If earned value is lower than planned value, it indicates less work is occurring than was scheduled, resulting in
schedule slippage.
Knowledge Area: Schedule
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 294

Explanation
X
The correct answer is A.
Many quality tools can be used in multiple quality management processes and for multiple purposes. In the Plan
Quality Management process, you are defining quality for the project and determining how quality will be
measured. Matrix diagrams are used to compare variables and identify key metrics. Benchmarking looks at past
projects to set guidelines from which to measure quality performance. Mind mapping is used in Plan Quality to
help organize related information. Quality audits analyze how well the project is following policies and
procedures, and is the only choice offered that is not used in planning.
Knowledge Area: Quality
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 329

Explanation
X
The correct answer is C.
Did you notice that planning and executing are the only process groups offered as choices? Therefore, design
and integration can be eliminated as options. Doing the actual work (in executing) will generally take the most
project time and resources.
Knowledge Area: PM Framework/Processes
Process Group: Initiating
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 95

Explanation
X
The correct answer is D.
Employees who believe their efforts will lead to effective performance and expect to be rewarded for their
accomplishments remain productive as rewards meet their expectations is an example of expectancy theory.
Knowledge Area: Resource
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 398

Explanation
X
The correct answer is C.
Any instance where there is an evaluation of the quality standards is part of Manage Quality.
Knowledge Area: Quality
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 332

Explanation
X
The correct answer is A.
Party B is only required to deliver what is defined in the contract.
Knowledge Area: Procurement
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 544

Explanation
X
The correct answer is D.
You always need to follow the change control process. You cannot arbitrarily decide to refuse to pay claims.
Reserves should be used for identified risks and not used arbitrarily.
Knowledge Area: Procurement
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 547

Explanation
X
The correct answer is C.
Since a project control system is created during planning, that cannot be best. There is nothing in the situation
described, or in standard project management practice, that would say taking a holiday would be a problem with
contracts. Team meetings are scheduled as needed by the project and frequency is determined during project
planning. The project manager should understand reasons a project may be under budget so he can determine
when to take action and what action to take.
Knowledge Area: Cost
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 294

Explanation
X
The correct answer is B.
The question states that internal measures have already been created. Therefore, external measures are
needed. Researching results of other companies' projects helps to benchmark externally.
Knowledge Area: Quality
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 328

Explanation
X
The correct answer is A.
Although one could let the sponsor know about the stakeholders' request, the best choice listed would be to say
no, as this was already considered. An even better choice would be to find the root cause of the problem, but
that choice is not offered here.
Knowledge Area: Scope
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 210

Explanation
X
The correct answer is C.
It is unlikely that all stakeholders will be completely satisfied with the outcome of the project, as all of their
requirements may not be supported by the project objectives. Project objectives deal with both project and
product scope. There are risks involved in achieving project objectives, which will be analyzed in project
planning. Project objectives included in the project charter must be measurable.
Knowledge Area: Integration
Process Group: Initiating
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 137

Explanation
X
The correct answer is B.
If there is available budget, crashing the schedule is the best option. Overtime is never the first option when it is
possible to use project management and crashing techniques.
Knowledge Area: Schedule
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 253

Explanation
X
The correct answer is D.
Selected risk response strategies may cause additional (secondary) risks to occur. Analyzing secondary risks is
part of the Plan Risk Responses process.
Knowledge Area: Risk
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 470

Explanation
X
The correct answer is B.
First, you need to document the reasons the customer will not sign off on acceptance. Once you understand the
issues, you can work to resolve them.
Knowledge Area: PM Framework/Processes
Process Group: Closing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 111

Explanation
X
The correct answer is C.
Benchmarking, cost-benefit analysis, and matrix diagrams are tools of Plan Quality Management. Inspection is a
tool of Control Quality, not of Plan Quality Management.
Knowledge Area: Quality
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 329

Explanation
X
The correct answer is D.
Fixed costs do not vary with the amount produced. Direct costs could be either fixed or variable and therefore
would not be the best answer. Sunk costs are already spent. Variable costs change with the amount produced.
Knowledge Area: Cost
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 283

Explanation
X
The correct answer is B.
Threatening to fire the team members is penalty power and is the least effective choice. Although discussing the
benefits of the project over lunch with the managers of team members is an example of reward power, the
people who are receiving the reward are not in the position to assist with the specific problems listed in the
question. Expert power is generally a good choice, although in this case, the expertise is technical, and the
project manager may not be the technical expert on the project. Providing bonuses for meeting specific quality
measures represents rewarding the team directly and is the most effective choice included here.
Knowledge Area: Resource
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 390

Explanation
X
The correct answer is D.
Complaining about the missed deadline could be done, but it is not proactive. It would be helpful to get to the
root cause of why this department always comes up with such ideas or changes after the project begins.
However, this is not the immediate problem; the change is the immediate problem, and therefore complaining is
not best. The type of project organization described is a matrix organization. There is not anything inherently
wrong with such an organization, nor is there anything in this particular situation that would require it to be
changed. So, changing the way the company is organized cannot be best. The department's history indicates
that asking if the department has other changes is something that should definitely be done, but the proposed
change needs more immediate attention. Looking at impacts of the change begins integrated change control.
Knowledge Area: Integration
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 162
Explanation
X
The correct answer is B.
Inconsistency and unpredictability are indications that the process is out of control.
Knowledge Area: Quality
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 339

Explanation
X
The correct answer is B.
Manage Quality involves determining whether standards are being followed. Simply continuing project work
would be the least effective, since it does not address the specific problem described in the question.
Knowledge Area: Quality
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 332

Explanation
X
The correct answer is A.
Cost-benefit analysis is done earlier in the project to help select between alternatives. All the other choices are
done during the Close Project or Phase process. Therefore, performing cost-benefit analysis must be the best
answer.
Knowledge Area: Integration
Process Group: Closing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 164

Explanation
X
The correct answer is C.
You want to document the change to be sure that everyone gets the message, but it does not require formal
communication.
Knowledge Area: Communications
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 420

Explanation
X
The correct answer is B.
This type of issue must be settled early in the project because the content and extent of the entire project
management plan depends on the deliverables and objectives. The best way to resolve the issue is by
performing a feasibility analysis, which is a problem-solving method. The other choices are really smoothing or
forcing.
Knowledge Area: PM Framework/Processes
Process Group: Initiating
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 66
Explanation
X
The correct answer is A.
Final funding limit reconciliation would have been done after fast tracking. The other choices are all possible
explanations for an invoice to be outside the funding limit reconciliation.
Knowledge Area: Cost
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 292

Explanation
X
The correct answer is D.
Develop Project Charter is an initiating process. Outputs from the Define Activities, Sequence Activities, and
Estimate Activity Durations processes in project planning are inputs to the Develop Schedule process.
Therefore, Develop Schedule occurs after those processes.
Knowledge Area: Schedule
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 238

Explanation
X
The correct answer is C.
The project baselines are included in the original approved project management plan, and are changed to reflect
approved changes to the plan. Baselines are useful in detecting variances from the project management plan.
The WBS is created before the project management plan. Therefore, baselines are not available when the WBS
is created.
Knowledge Area: Integration
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 145

Explanation
X
The correct answer is D.
There are certain basic things that should go into all contracts; an arbitration (or dispute resolution) clause is one
of them. Imagine a situation where you have a dispute, but no plan already agreed to in the contract!
Knowledge Area: Procurement
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 542

Explanation
X
The correct answer is A.
Quality audits and work performance information would lead up to the performance issues being identified. The
performance measurement baseline is made up of the scope, time, and cost baselines. Changing that would not
address the problem of unsatisfactory performance. It is likely that recommended corrective actions (a type of
change request) would result from efforts to identify ways to eliminate the causes of unsatisfactory performance.
Knowledge Area: Quality
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 335
Explanation
X
The correct answer is D.
You must report the activities.
Knowledge Area: Resource
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 601

Explanation
X
The correct answer is D.
Because net present value is the value in today's dollars of different cash flows, the project with the highest NPV
is the best one. The number of years is included in the NPV calculation.
Knowledge Area: Integration
Process Group: Initiating
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 129

Explanation
X
The correct answer is A.
Don't be fooled because "personality" is on the list. Schedule conflict is the number one source of conflict on
projects. Know the top four sources of conflict: schedules, project priorities, resources, and technical opinions.
Knowledge Area: Resource
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 396

Explanation
X
The correct answer is D.
This is another question about the process of project management. Remember that every project has a product,
service, or result. Some of those could be intangible. The product of the project is created in project executing.
Knowledge Area: PM Framework/Processes
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 95

Explanation
X
The correct answer is D.
Reporting that the project is on schedule is unethical. It is best to report the true status of the project and your
plan of action to resolve the problem.
Knowledge Area: Communications
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 604

Explanation
X
The correct answer is D.
It is important to look for the choice that would solve the real problem. The most likely root cause is that
stakeholders were missed and, as a result, their requirements were not found. Those stakeholders are now
requesting changes to accommodate their needs. There is no reason to think that training, management
oversight, or a need for more processes are factors contributing to the number of changes.
Knowledge Area: Stakeholder
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 576

Explanation
X
The correct answer is C.
These are responsibilities of the stakeholders. It is especially important to remember that stakeholders should be
involved in planning the project.
Knowledge Area: PM Framework/Processes
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 38

Explanation
X
The correct answer is C.
This is a tricky question. Although risks can be identified at any time throughout the project, most risks are
identified during the Identify Risks process. Newly emerging risks are identified in the Monitor Risks process.
Knowledge Area: Risk
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 453, 477

Explanation
X
The correct answer is A.
The life cycle approach may be predictive or adaptive. With a predictive life cycle approach, efforts are made to
schedule the entire project during planning. With an adaptive approach, the near-term work will be scheduled in
more detail, and the scheduling of later releases will be iterated as the project progresses.
Knowledge Area: Schedule
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 223

Explanation
X
The correct answer is A.
Stakeholders is a generic term that includes the customer, but not all stakeholders are as influential in decision-
making. A requirements conflict is generally resolved in favor of the customer.
Knowledge Area: Scope
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 192

Explanation
X
The correct answer is B.
The biggest problem is retaining team members until closure of the project. People often start looking for their
next project and leave before administrative closure is complete.
Knowledge Area: Integration
Process Group: Closing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 31
Explanation
X
The correct answer is D.
Decomposition is used to break the project deliverables into manageable pieces during the Create WBS
process.
Knowledge Area: Scope
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 204

Explanation
X
The correct answer is B.
Estimate at completion means the total cost of the project at completion, based on current information.
Knowledge Area: Cost
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 294

Explanation
X
The correct answer is B.
Double declining balance is a form of depreciation. That eliminates the choice of life cycle costing. The choices
of decelerated depreciation and straight-line depreciation are also incorrect because double declining balance is
a form of accelerated depreciation.
Knowledge Area: Integration
Process Group: Planning
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 132

Explanation
X
The correct answer is D.
The first issue here is whether the team member has done something that will have a negative impact on the
project as a whole. The second issue is whether the communications management plan and WBS are
appropriate. Therefore, the first thing to do is to review the work packages and deliverables to determine impacts
of the work not done. This action could be followed by any or all of the other choices.
Knowledge Area: Integration
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 162

Explanation
X
The correct answer is D.
Identify Stakeholders is not a planning process and is not an input to the initiating processes. If you don't know
the difference between the performing organization (you) and your customer before the project begins, you are
really in trouble! Identify Stakeholders is an initiating process. You need a high-level understanding of
stakeholder requirements before beginning the planning processes. This understanding is achieved through
various forms of data gathering and stakeholder analysis during initiating. Remember, however, that these
efforts may be performed throughout the project, as new stakeholders may be identified at any time.
Knowledge Area: Stakeholder
Process Group: Initiating
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 576
Explanation
X
The correct answer is D.
Negative float indicates you are behind. Requesting an extension of the project due date essentially means, "Do
nothing and ask for more time." Fast tracking an already risky project only puts the project in worse shape. The
more proactive choice is to acquire more resources for critical path activities.
Knowledge Area: Schedule
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 264

Explanation
X
The correct answer is D.
Design of experiments attempts to combine variables to determine which combination of variables produces the
required level of quality. The quality measure here is the percentage of burnable hydrocarbons.
Knowledge Area: Quality
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 333

Explanation
X
The correct answer is C.
There are many issues that will be different in this project than those the project manager has experience with. It
is unethical to overtly or indirectly mislead the sponsor about his qualifications. On the other hand, the project
manager may have so many skills that would benefit the project that his lack of experience with global teams
might not be a major problem. The project manager must make sure the sponsor is aware of his skills, as well as
the gaps in his qualifications, so the sponsor has the correct information on which to base a decision.
Knowledge Area: Resource
Process Group: Initiating
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 604

Explanation
X
The correct answer is A.
In some cultures, being “on time” is not as important as in other cultures. Your historical records should include
an understanding of the seller’s culture to determine whether this is the case with him. He may, in fact, not
realize he has caused you any inconvenience. Cultural awareness is a key factor in successful business
relationships.
Knowledge Area: Stakeholder
Process Group: Executing
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 602

Explanation
X
The correct answer is D.
This question focuses on how to control costs, not estimating. The best way to control costs is to estimate at the
beginning of the project and check costs against the baseline throughout the project.
Knowledge Area: Cost
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 292
Explanation
X200
The correct answer is C.
Don't be confused by the early discussion of schedule compression. The question is asking whether adding
resources provides a constant increase in work effort. The law of diminishing returns says that for each
additional resource, you will not realize the same increase in benefit that you realized from the previous
resource.
Knowledge Area: Schedule
Process Group: Monitoring & Controlling
Source: PMP® Exam Prep
Page: 132