MOCK-3

1. The Medicare program is made up of several parts. Which part is affected by the Centers
for Medicare and Medicaid Services - hierarchal condition categories (CMS-HCC)?
a. Part A c. Part C
b. Part B d. Part D

2. Healthcare providers are responsible for developing ____ ____ and policies and
procedures regarding privacy in their practices.
a. Patient hotlines c. Fees
b. Work around procedures d. Notices of Privacy Practices

3. A covered entity may obtain consent of the individual to use or disclose protected health
information to carry out all but what of the following?
a. for public use c. payment
b. treatment d. healthcare operations

4. How many components should be included in an effective compliance plan?

a. 3 c. 7
b. 4 d. 9

5. According to the AAPC Code of Ethics, Member shall use only ____ and ____ means in all
professional dealings.
a. private and professional c. legal and profitable
b. efficient and inexpensive d. legal and ethical

6. Medicare Part D is what type of insurance?

a. A Medicare Advantage program managed by private insurers
b. Hospital coverage available to all Medicare Beneficiaries
c. Prescription drug coverage available to all Medicare Beneficiaries
d. Physician coverage requiring monthly premiums

7. Which option below is NOT a covered entity under HIPAA?

a. Medicare c. BCBS
b. Medicaid d. Worker’s’ Compensation

8. The 2012 OIG Work Plan prioritizes which of the following topics for review?
a. Dystrophic nail care
b. Lesion removal
c. E/M services during the global surgery periods
d. Fracture repair

9. Muscle is attached to bone by what method?

a. Tendons, ligaments, and directly to bone
b. Tendons and aponeurosis
c. Tendons, aponeurosis and directly to bone
d. Tendons, ligaments, aponeurosis, and directly to bone
10. What is affected by myasthenia gravis?
a. Neuromuscular junction c. Muscle/bone connection
b. Muscle belly d. Bone

11. Which respiratory structure is comprised of cartilage and ligaments?

a. Alveoli c. Bronchiole
b. Lung d. Trachea

12. Upon leaving the last portion of the small intestine, nutrients move through the large
intestine in what order?
a. Cecum, transverse colon, ascending colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon,
rectum, anus
b. Cecum, ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon,
rectum, anus
c. Cecum, ascending colon, transverse colon, sigmoid colon, descending colon,
rectum, anus
d. Cecum, descending colon, transverse colon, ascending colon, sigmoid colon,
rectum, anus

13. What are chemicals which relay amplify and modulate signals between a neuron and
another cell?
a. Neurotransmitters c. Interneurons
b. Hormones d. Myelin

14. A surgeon performs an “escharotomy.” This procedure is best described as:

a. Removal of scar tissue resulting from burns or other injuries
b. Removal of a basal cell carcinoma
c. Debridement of a pressure ulcer
d. Removal of a fingernail

15. The dome-shaped muscle under the lungs flattening during inspiration is the:
a. Bronchus c. Mediastinum
b. Diaphragm d. Pleura

16. A thin membrane lining the chambers of the heart and valves is called the:
a. Myocardium c. Pericardium
b. Endocardium d. Epicardium

17. A vesiculotomy is defined as:

a. Removal of an obstruction from the vas deferens
b. Surgical cutting into the seminal vesicles
c. Removal of one of the seminal vesicles
d. Incision into the prostate
18. Destruction of lesions of the vulva can be done with “cryosurgery”. This method uses:
a. Chemicals c. Laser
b. Extreme cold d. Heat conduction
19. What term describes a woman in her first pregnancy?
a. Primigravida c. Nulligravida
b. Primipara d. Parturition

20. A form of milk produced the first few days after giving birth is:
a. Chorion c. Colostrum
b. Lactose d. Prolactin

21. The root for pertaining to pancreatic islet cells is:

a. Cyt/o c. Pancreat/o
b. Insul/o d. Endocrin/o

22. Sialography is an x-ray of:

a. Sinuses c. Salivary glands
b. Liver d. Ventricles of the brain

23. What is the meaning of “provider” in the ICD-10-CM guidelines refers to?
a. the hospital c. insurance Company
b. the physician d. the patient

24. What is an example of an injury that would be considered a superficial injury?

a. blister c. nerve injury
b. laceration d. venomous insect bite

25. When can you use the code for HIV (B20)?
a. The test result is inconclusive
b. The test result is confirmed by the physician’s diagnostic statement
c. Known HIV without symptoms
d. Suspected HIV

26. What are some examples of fracture aftercare?

a. Follow-up for healed fracture, cast change, medication adjustment
b. Follow-up for healed fracture, cast change
c. Follow-up for healed fracture, medication adjustment
d. Cast change, medication adjustment

27. The instructions and conventions of the classification take precedence over
a. Physicians
b. Official Coding Guidelines
c. CPT®
d. Nothing, they are only used in the event of no other instruction.
28. What diagnosis code(s) should be reported for spastic cerebral palsy due to meningitis?
a. G03.9, G80.1 c. G80.1, G03.9
b. G80.1, G09 d. G09, G80.1

29. What diagnosis code(s) should be reported for a patient with polyneuropathy and
sarcoidosis?
a. G63, D86.9 c. D86.9, G63
b. G60.9, D86.9 d. D86.9, G60.9

30. 32-year-old sees her obstetrician about a lump in the right breast. Her mother and aunt
both have a history of breast cancer. What diagnosis code(s) should be reported?
a. N63, Z85.3 c. C50.919, Z80.3
b. N63.10 d. N63.10, Z80.3

31. A 50-year old female visits her physician with symptoms of insomnia and upset stomach.
The physician suspects she is pre-menopausal. His diagnosis is impending menopause. What
diagnosis code(s) should be reported?
a. G47.00, K30 c. Z78.0, G47.09, K30
b. N92.0 d. Z78.0

32. What does MRSA stand for?

a. Methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus
b. Methicillin resistant streptococcus aureus
c. Moderate resistance susceptible aureus
d. Mild resistance streptococcus aureus

33. When the type of diabetes mellitus is not documented in the medical note, what is used
as the default type?
a. Type II c. Can be Type I or II
b. Type I d. Secondary

34. A patient with viral Hepatitis A is being treated for glomerulonephritis. What ICD-10-CM
code(s) should be reported?
a. K75.9, N08 c. K75.9, N05.9
b. N08, B15.9 d. B15.9, N08

35. A patient is coming in for follow-up of his essential hypertension and cardiomegaly. Both
conditions are stable and he is told to continue with his medications. What ICD-10-CM
code(s) should be reported?
a. I11.9, I51.7 c. I11.9
b. I51.7, I10 d. I51.7

36. Patient is seeing the ophthalmologist to examine an old retained metal foreign body in
his retina there is the possibility of infection. What ICD-10-CM code(s) should be reported?
a. H44.709, Z18.10 c. H44.649, Z18.11
b. H44.649, Z18.10 d. H44.749, Z18.10
37. What type of fracture is considered traumatic?
a. Pathologic fracture c. Stress fracture
b. Malunion fracture d. Compound fracture

38. Under what circumstances would an external cause code be reported?

a. Illness and injuries
b. Causes of injury, poisoning, and other adverse affects
c. Causes of neoplasms, hypertension and medications
d. Only for the cause of accidents

39. What chapter contains codes for diseases and disorders of the nails?
a. Chapter 13: Diseases of Musculoskeletal and Connective Tissue
b. Chapter 14: Congenital Anomalies
c. Chapter 10: Diseases of the Genitourinary system
d. Chapter 12: Diseases of the Skin and Subcutaneous Tissue

40. The patient has benign prostate hypertrophy with urinary retention. What ICD-10-CM
code(s) should be reported?
a. N40.1 c. N40.1, R33.9
b. N40.1, R33.8 d. N40.0, R33.8

41. A 2-month-old is seeing his pediatrician for a routine health check examination. The
physician notices a diaper rash and prescribes an ointment to treat it. What ICD-10-CM
code(s) should be reported?
a. L22 c. L22, Z00.121
b. Z00.121, L22 d. Z00.129, L22

42. A three-year-old is brought to the burn unit after pulling a pot of hot soup off the stove
spilling onto to her body. She sustained 18% second degree burns on her legs and 20% third
degree burns on her chest and arms. Total body surface area burned is 38%. What ICD-10-
CM code(s) should be reported for the burns (do not include External cause codes for the
accident)?
a. T21.31XA, T22.00XA, T24.202A, T31.32 c. T21.31XA, T22.30XA, T24.209A, T31.32
b. T21.39XA, T22.00XA, T24.202A, T31.31 d. T21.31XA, T22.399A, T24.202A, T31.31

43. A patient is coming in for follow-up of a second-degree burn on the arm. The physician
notes the burn is healing well. He is to come back in two weeks for another check-up. What
ICD-10-CM code(s) should be reported?
a. Z51.89, T22.20XA c. Z09, T22.20XD
b. T22.20XD d. Z09

44. A patient was treated in the emergency department for a nasal fracture. Bleeding was
controlled, a splint applied and the patient sent home. He returned to the ED several hours
later with new bleeding from both nares. What ICD-10-CM code(s) should be reported for
the second ED visit?
a. T79.2XXA c. S02.2XXA, T79.2XXA
b. S02.2XXA d. T79.2XXA, S02.2XXA
45. 40-year-old woman, 25-weeks-pregnant with her second child, is seeing her obstetrician.
She is worried about decreased fetal movement. During the examination the obstetrician
detects bradycardia in the fetus. What ICD-10-CM code(s) should be reported?
a. O09.12, O09.413 c. O09.413, O09.522
b. P29.12, O09.413 d. O09.522, O76

46. What three components are considered when Relative Value Units are established?
a. Physician work, Practice expense, Malpractice Insurance
b. Geographic region, Practice expense, Malpractice Insurance
c. Geographic region, Conversion factor, Physician fee schedule
d. Physician work, Physician fee schedule, Conversion factor

47. CPT® Category III codes are reimbursable at what level of reimbursement?
a. 10%
b. 100%
c. 85%
d. Reimbursement, if any, is determined by the payer

48. HCPCS Level II includes code ranges which consist of what type of codes?
a. Category II codes, temporary national codes, miscellaneous codes, permanent
national codes.
b. Dental codes, morphology codes, miscellaneous codes, temporary national codes,
permanent national codes.
c. Permanent national codes, dental codes, category II codes.
d. Permanent national codes, miscellaneous codes, dental codes, and temporary
national codes.

49. A patient is seen in the OR for an arthroscopy of the medial compartment of his left
knee. What is the correct coding to report for the Anesthesia services?
a. 01400 c. 29870-LT
b. 01402 d. 29880-LT

50. What is the correct CPT® code for the wedge excision of a nail fold of an ingrown
toenail?
a. 11720 c. 11765
b. 11750 d. 11760

51. What is the correct code for the application of a short arm cast?
a. 29065 c. 29125
b. 29075 d. 29280

52. What is the code for partial laparoscopic colectomy with anastamosis and
coloproctostomy?
a. 44208 c. 44145
b. 44210 d. 44207
53. What is the correct CPT® code for strabismus reparative surgery performed on 2
horizontal muscles?
a. 67311 c. 67314
b. 67312 d. 67316

54. What is commonly known as a boil of the skin?

a. Abscess c. Lesion
b. Furuncle d. Impetigo

55. What is the correct diagnostic code to report an open wound of the right leg related to a
non-healing operative wound of squamous cell carcinoma?
a. T81.72XA c. T81.4XXA
b. T81.89XA d. Z85.828

56. The patient is here to follow-up for a keloid excised from his neck in November of last
year. He believes it’s coming back. He does have a recurrence of the keloid on the superior
portion of the scar. Since the keloid is still small, options of an injection or radiation to the
area were discussed. It was agreed our next course should be a Kenalog injection. Risks
associated with the procedure were discussed with the patient. Informed consent was
obtained. The area was infiltrated with 1.5 cc of medication. This was a mixture of 1 cc of
40-mg Kenalog and 0.5 cc of 1% lidocaine with epinephrine. He tolerated the procedure
well. What CPT® and ICD-9-CM code(s) are reported?
a. 11900, 11901 x 7, J3301, L91.0 c. 11901, J3301, L91.0
b. 11900, J3301, L91.0 d. 11901 x 8, J3301, D48.5

57. A patient presents with a recurrent seborrheic keratosis of the left cheek. The area was
marked for a shave removal. The area was infiltrated with local anesthetic, prepped and
draped in a sterile fashion. The lesion measuring 1.8 cm was shaved using an 11-blade.
Meticulous hemostasis was achieved using light pressure. The specimen was sent for
permanent pathology. The patient tolerated the procedure well. What CPT® code(s) is
reported?
a. 11200 c. 11442
b. 11312 d. 11642

58. A 45-year-old male with a previous biopsy positive for malignant melanoma, presents
for definitive excision of the lesion. After induction of general anesthesia the patient is
placed supine on the OR table, the left thigh prepped and draped in the usual sterile
fashion. IV antibiotics are given, patient had previous MRSA infection. The previous
excisional biopsy site on the left knee measured approximately 4 cm and was widely elipsed
with a 1.5 cm margin. The excision was taken down to the underlying patellar fascia.
Hemostasis was achieved via electrocautery. The resulting defect was 11cm x 5cm. Wide
advancement flaps were created inferiorly and superiorly using electrocautery. This allowed
skin edges to come together without tension. The wound was closed using interrupted 2-0
monocryl and 2 retention sutures were placed using #1 Prolene. Skin was closed with a
stapler. What CPT® code(s) is/are reported?
a. 27328 c. 14301, 27328-51
b. 14301 d. 15738, 11606-51
59. Operative Report
PREOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Diabetic foot
ulceration.
POSTOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Diabetic foot
ulceration.
OPERATION PERFORMED: Debridement and split thickness autografting of left foot
ANESTHESIA: General endotracheal.
INDICATIONS FOR PROCEDURE: This patient with multiple complications from Type II
diabetes has developed ulcerations which were debrided and homografted last week. The
homograft is taking quite nicely; the wounds appear to be fairly clean; he is ready for
autografting.
DESCRIPTION OF PROCEDURE: After informed consent the patient is brought to the
operating room and placed in the supine position on the operating table. Anesthetic
monitoring was instituted, internal anesthesia was induced. The left lower extremity is
prepped and draped in a sterile fashion. Staples were removed and the homograft was
debrided from the surface of the wounds. One wound appeared to have healed; the
remaining two appeared to be relatively clean. We debrided this sharply with good bleeding
in all areas. Hemostasis was achieved with pressure, Bovie cautery, and warm saline soaked
sponges. With good hemostasis a donor site was then obtained on the left anterior thigh,
measuring less than 100 cm2. The wounds were then grafted with a split-thickness autograft
that was harvested with a patch of Brown dermatome set at 12,000 of an inch thick. This
was meshed 1.5:1. The donor site was infiltrated with bupivacaine and dressed. The skin
graft was then applied over the wound, measured approximately 60 cm 2 in dimension on
the left foot. This was secured into place with skin staples and was then dressed with
Acticoat 18's, Kerlix incorporating a catheter, and gel pad. The patient tolerated the
procedure well. The right foot was redressed with skin lubricant sterile gauze and Ace wrap.
Anesthesia was reversed. The patient was brought back to the ICU in satisfactory condition.
What CPT® and ICD-9-CM codes are reported?
a. 15220-58, 15004-58, E10.621,L97.508
b. 15120-58, 15004-58, E11.621, L97.529
c. 15950-78, 15004-78, E11.622 ,L97.526
d. 11044-78, 15120-78, E11.622 , L97.809

60. A patient is seen in the same day surgery unit for an arthroscopy to remove some loose
bodies in the shoulder area. What CPT® code(s) should be reported?
a. 29805 c. 29807
b. 29806 d. 29819

61. What is the acromion?

a. Part of the elbow joint c. Tendon in the shoulder
b. Ligament near the knee d. Extension of the scapula

62. In ICD-10-CM, what do you look for in the alphabetic index, to code a tear of the
supraspinatus muscle of the shoulder?
a. Rotator cuff, sprain c. Injury, shoulder
b. Sprain, shoulder d. Tear, rotator cuff
63. A patient presented with a closed, displaced supracondylar fracture of the left elbow.
After conscious sedation, the left upper extremity was draped and closed reduction was
performed, achieving anatomical reduction of the fracture. The elbow was then prepped and
with the use of fluoroscopic guidance, two K-wires were directed crossing the fracture site
and pierced the medial cortex of the left distal humerus. Stable reduction was obtained,
with full flexion and extension. K-wires were bent and cut at a 90 degree angle. Telfa
padding and splint were applied. What CPT® code(s) should be reported?
a. 24535 c. 24582
b. 24538 d. 24566

64. A 27-year-old triathelete is thrown from his bike on a steep downhill ride. He suffered a
severely fractured vertebra at C5. An anterior approach is used to dissect out the bony
fragments and strengthen the spine with titanium cages and arthrodesis. The surgeon
places the patient supine on the OR table and proceeds with an anterior corpectomy at C5
with discectomy above and below. Titanium cages are placed in the resulting defect and
morselized allograft bone is placed in and around the cages. Anterior Synthes plates are
placed across C2-C3 and C3-C5, and C5-C6. What CPT® code(s) should be reported?
a. 22326, 22554-51, 22845, 22851, 20930 c. 63001, 22554-51, 22845, 20931
b. 63081, 22554-51, 22846, 22851, 20930 d. 22326, 22548-51, 22846, 20931

65. This 45-year-old male presents to the operating room with a painful mass of the right
upper arm. General anesthesia was induced. Soft tissue dissection was carried through the
proximal aspect of the teres minor muscle. Upon further dissection a large mass was noted
just distal of the IGHL (inferior glenohumeral ligament), which appeared to be benign in
nature. With blunt dissection and electrocautery, the 4-cm mass was removed en bloc and
sent to pathology. The wound was irrigated, and repair of the teres minor with
subcutaneous tissue was closed with triple-0 Vicryl. Skin was closed with double-0 Prolene
in a subcuticular fashion. What CPT® code(s) should be reported?
a. 23076-RT c. 23075-RT
b. 23066-RT d. 11406-RT

66. A 50-year-old male had surgery on his upper leg one day ago and presents with serous
drainage from the wound. He was taken back to the operating room for evaluation of the
hematoma. His wound was explored, and there was a hematoma at the base of the wound,
which was very carefully evacuated. The wound was irrigated with antibacterial solution.
What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes should be reported?
a. 10140-79, M96.840 c. 10140-76, L76.01
b. 27603-78, M96.840 d. 27301-78, M96.840
67. A patient presents with a healed fracture of the left ankle. The patient was placed on
the OR table in the supine position. After satisfactory induction of general anesthesia, the
patient’s left ankle was prepped and draped. A small incision about 1 cm long was made in
the previous incision. The lower screws were removed. Another small incision was made just
lateral about 1 cm long. The upper screws were removed from the plate. Both wounds were
thoroughly irrigated with copious amounts of antibiotic containing saline. Skin was closed in
a layered fashion and sterile dressing applied. What CPT® code(s) should be reported?
a. 20680 c. 20670
b. 20680, 20680-59 d. 20680, 20670-59
68. A 31-year-old secretary returns to the office with continued complaints of numbness
involving three radial digits of the upper right extremity. Upon examination, she has a
positive Tinel’s test of the median nerve in the left wrist. Anti-inflammatory medication has
not relieved her pain. Previous electrodiagnostic studies show sensory mononeuropathy.
She has clinical findings consistent with carpal tunnel syndrome. She has failed physical
therapy and presents for injection of the left carpal canal. The left carpal area is prepped
sterilely. A 1.5 inch 25 or 22 gauge needle is inserted radial to the palmaris longus or ulnar
to the carpi radialis tendon at an oblique angle of approximately 30 degrees. The needle is
advanced a short distance about 1 or 2 cm observing for any complaints of paresthesias or
pain in a median nerve distribution. The mixture of 1 cc of 1% lidocaine and 40 mg of
Kenalog is injected slowly along the median nerve. The injection area is cleansed and a
bandage is applied to the site. What CPT® code(s) should be reported?
a. 20526, J3301 c. 20526, J3303
b. 20551, J3302 d. 20550, J3302

69. What CPT® code should be reported for a frontal sinusotomy, nonobliterative, with
osteoplastic flap, brow incision?
a. 31080 c. 31084
b. 31087 d. 31086

70. A patient’s nose was hit with a baseball during a high school baseball game. At that time
reconstruction was performed, with local grafts. Patient returns now as an adult, discontent
with the bony prominence along the bony pyramid and flat look of the tip of the nose. He
underwent major repair with osteotomies and nasal tip work. What CPT® code(s) should be
reported?
a. 30410 c. 30450
b. 30435 d. 30462

71. A 14-year-old boy presents at the Emergency Department experiencing an uncontrolled

epistaxis. Through the nares, the ED physician packs his entire nose via anterior approach
with medicated gauze. In approximately 15 minutes the nosebleed stops. What CPT® and
ICD-10-CM codes should be reported?
a. 30903-50, R04.0 c. 30901, R04.0
b. 30901-50, R04.0 d. 30905, R04.0

72. A surgeon performs a high thoracotomy with resection of a single left lung segment on a
57-year-old heavy smoker who had presented with a six-month history of right shoulder
pain. An apical lung biopsy had confirmed lung cancer. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM code(s)
should be reported?
a. 32100, C34.11, F17.219 c. 32503, C34.12, F17.210
b. 32484, C34.12, F17.218 d. 19271, 32551-51, C34.10, M25.511, F17.218

73. What part of the cardiovascular system is responsible for the one-way flow of blood
through the chambers of the heart?
a. Septum c. Bundle of His
b. Heart valves d. Atria
74. Which main coronary artery bifurcates into two smaller ones?
a. Right c. Inverted
b. Left d. Superficial

75. A patient suffering from an abdominal aortic aneurysm involving a renal artery undergoes
endovascular repair using modular prosthesis with two docking limbs. Select the CPT®
code(s) for this procedure.
a. 34805 c. 34803
b. 0078T, 0079T d. 34802

76. Physician changes the old battery to a new battery on a patient’s dual chamber
permanent pacemaker.
a. 33212 c. 33213, 33233-51
b. 33229 d. 33228

77. A 35-year-old patient presented to the ASC for PTA of an obstructed hemodialysis AV
graft in the venous anastomosis and the immediate venous outflow. The procedure was
performed under moderate sedation administered by the physician performing the PTA. The
physician performed all aspects of the procedure, including radiological supervision and
interpretation & intraservice time is about 1 hour. Code for all services performed.
a. 36903, 99151, 99153×3, 75978-26 c. 36902, 99151, 99153×3
b. 36901, 99152, 99153×1, 75978-26 d. 35476, 99155, 99157×3, 75978-26

78. What is included in all vascular injection procedures?

a. Catheters, drugs, and contrast material
b. Selective catheterization
c. Just the procedure itself
d. Necessary local anesthesia, introduction of needles or
catheters, injection of contrast media with or without
automatic power injection, and/or necessary pre-and post
injection care specifically related to the injection procedure.

79. In the cardiac suite, an electrophysiologist performs an EP study. With programmed

electrical stimulation, the heart is stimulated to induce arrhythmia. Observed is: right atrial
and ventricular pacing, recording of the bundle of His, right atrial and ventricular recording,
and left atrial and ventricular pacing and recording from the left atrium.
a. 93600, 93602, 93603, 93610, 93612, 93618, 93621, 93622
b. 93619, 93621
c. 93620, 93621, 93622
d. 93620, 93618, 93621

80. Preoperative Diagnosis: Coronary artery disease associated with congestive heart
failure; in addition, the patient has diabetes and massive obesity.
Postoperative Diagnosis: Same Anesthesia: General endotracheal Incision: Median
sternotomy
Indications: The patient had presented with severe congestive heart failure associated with
her severe diabetes. She had significant coronary artery disease, consisting of a chronically
occluded right coronary artery but a very important large obtuse marginal artery coming off
as the main circumflex system.
She also has a left anterior descending artery, which has moderate disease and this supplies
quite a bit of collateral to her right system. The decision was therefore made to perform a
coronary artery bypass grafting procedure, particularly because she is so symptomatic. The
patient was brought to the operating room.
Description of Procedure: The patient was brought to the operating room and placed in
supine position. Myself, the operating surgeon was scrubbed throughout the entire
operation. After the patient was prepared, median sternotomy incision was carried out and
conduits were taken from the left arm as well as the right thigh. The patient weighs almost
three hundred pounds and with her obesity there was some concern as to taking down the
left internal mammary artery. Because the radial artery appeared to be a good conduit, she
should have an arterial graft to the left anterior descending artery territory. She was
cannulated after the aorta and atrium were exposed and after full heparinization.
Attention was turned to the coronary arteries. The first obtuse marginal artery was a very
large target and the vein graft to this target indeed produced an excellent amount of flow.
Proximal anastomosis was then carried out to the foot of the aorta. The left anterior
descending artery does not have severe disease but is also a very good target, and the radial
artery was anastomosed to this target, and the proximal anastomosis was then carried out
to the root of the aorta.
Sternal closure was then done using wires. The subcutaneous layers were closed using
Vicryl suture. The skin was approximated using staples.
a. 33533, 33510 c. 33533, 33517
b. 33511 d. 33533, 33517, 35600

81. CLINICAL SUMMARY: The patient is a 55-year-old female with known coronary disease
and previous left anterior descending and diagonal artery intervention, with recent
recurrent chest pain. Cardiac catheterization demonstrated continued patency of the
stented segment, but diffuses borderline changes in the ostial/proximal portion of the right
coronary artery.
PROCEDURE: With informed consent obtained, the patient was prepped and draped in the
usual sterile fashion. With the right groin area infiltrated with 2% Xylocaine and the patient
given 2 mg of Versed and 50 mcg of fentanyl intravenously for conscious sedation and pain
control, the 6-French catheter sheath from the diagnostic study was exchanged for a 6-
French sheath and a 6- French JR4 catheter with side holes utilized. The patient initially
received 3000 units of IV heparin, and then IVUS interrogation was carried out using an
Atlantis Boston Scientific probe. After it had been determined that there was significant
stenosis in the ostial/proximal segment of the right coronary artery, the patient received an
additional 3000 units of IV heparin, as well as Integrilin per double-bolus injection. A 3.0, 16
-mm-long Taxus stent was then deployed in the ostium and proximal segment of the right
coronary artery in a primary stenting procedure with inflation pressure up to 12
atmospheres applied. Final angiographic documentation was carried out, and then the
guiding catheter pulled, the sheath upgraded to a 7-French system, because of some diffuse
oozing around the 6-French-sized sheath, and the patient is now being transferred to
telemetry for post-coronary intervention observation and care.
RESULTS: The initial guiding picture of the right coronary artery demonstrates the right
coronary artery to be dominant in distribution, with luminal irregularities in its proximal and
mid third with up to 50% stenosis in the ostial/proximal segment per angiographic criteria,
although some additional increased radiolucency observed in that segment.
IVUS interrogation confirms severe, concentric plaque formation in this ostial/proximal
portion of the right coronary artery with over 80% area stenosis demonstrated. The mid,
distal lesions are not significant, with less than 40% stenosis per IVUS evaluation.
Following the coronary intervention with stent placement, there is marked increase in the
ostial/proximal right coronary artery size, with no evidence for intimal disruption, no
intraluminal filling defect, and TIMI III flow preserved.
CONCLUSION: Successful coronary intervention with drug-eluting Taxus stent
placement to the ostial/proximal right coronary artery.
a. 92928-RC, 92978-RC c. 92922-RC, 92978-51-RC
b. 92980-RC, 92984-RC, 92978-59RC d. 92982-RC, 92981-59 RC, 92978-51-RC

82. What is the correct ICD-10-CM coding for a 30-year-old obese patient with a BMI of
32.5?
a. E66.9, Z68.32 c. E66.0, Z68.32
b. E66.8, Z68.32 d. E66.3, Z68.31

83. What CPT® code(s) is/are reported for a percutaneous endoscopic direct placement of a
tube gastrostomy for a patient who previously underwent a partial esophagectomy?
a. 49440, 43116 c. 49440
b. 43246, 43116 d. 43246

84. A patient suffering from cirrhosis of the liver presents with a history of coffee ground
emesis. The surgeon diagnoses the patient with esophageal varices. Two days later, in the
hospital GI lab, the surgeon ligates the varices with bands via an UGI endoscopy. What CPT®
and ICD-10-CM codes are reported?
a. 43205, I85.10 c. 43227, K74.60, I85.11
b. 43244, K74.60, I85.10 d. 43235, I85.11

85. A 45-year-old patient with liver cancer is scheduled for a liver transplant. The patient’s
brother is a perfect match and will be donating a portion of his liver for a graft. Segments II
and III will be taken from the brother and then the backbench reconstruction of the graft
will be performed, both a venous and arterial anastomosis. The orthotopic
allotransplantation will then be performed on the patient. What CPT® code(s) is/are
reported?
a. 47140, 47146, 47147, 47135 c. 47140, 47147, 47146, 47136
b. 47141, 47146, 47135 d. 47141, 47146, 47136

86. Closure of exstrophy of bladder is performed with epispadias repair. What CPT® code(s)
is/are reported for this service?
a. 54390 c. 51860
b. 51940 d. 51880
87. Circumcision with adjacent tissue transfer was performed. What CPT® code(s) is/are
reported for this service?
a. 14040 c. 54163
b. 54161-22 d. 54161, 14040
88. The patient presents to the office for CMG (cystometrogram) procedure(s). Complex
CMG cystometrogram with voiding pressure studies is done, intrabdominal voiding pressure
studies, and complex uroflow are performed. What CPT® code(s) is/are reported for this
service?
a. 51726 c. 51728, 51797, 51741
b. 51726, 51728, 51797 d. 51728-26, 51797-26, 51741-26

89. Preoperative diagnosis: Cytologic atypia and gross hematuria

Postoperative diagnosis: Cytologic atypia and gross hematuria
Procedure performed: Cystoscopy and random bladder biopsies and GreenLight laser
ablation of the prostate. Description: Bladder biopsies were taken of the dome, posterior
bladder wall and lateral side walls. Bugbee was used to fulgurate the biopsy sites to diminish
bleeding. Cystoscope was replaced with the cystoscope designed for the GreenLight laser.
We introduced this into the patient's urethra and performed GreenLight laser ablation of
the prostate down to the level of verumontanum (a crest near the wall of the urethra).
There were some calcifications at the left apex of the prostate, causing damage to the laser
but adequate vaporization was achieved. What CPT® code(s) is/are reported for this service?
a. 52648, 52204 c. 52649, 52224-59
b. 52647 d. 52648, 52224-59

90. Patient presents for excision of multiple kidney cysts. Three cysts are excised. What
CPT® code(s) is/are reported for this service?
a. 50290 c. 50060
b. 50280 x 3 d. 50280

91. What is a root word for vagina?

a. Uter/o c. Hyster/o
b. Colp/o d. Metri/o

92. What is a bilateral structure of the female reproductive system?

a. Bartholin’s gland c. Ovaries
b. Fallopian tubes d. All of the above

93. The patient presents with a recurrent infection of the Bartholin’s gland which has
previously been treated with antibiotics and I&D. At this visit her gynecologist incises the
cyst, draining the material in it and tacks the edges of the cyst open creating an open pouch
to prevent recurrence. How is this procedure coded?
a. 56405 c. 56440
b. 56420 d. 56740

94. What CPT® code is used to report a complete unilateral removal of the vulva and deep
subcutaneous tissues?
a. 56630 c. 56625
b. 56633 d. 56620
95. Vulvar cancer in situ can also be documented as:
a. VIN I c. Adenocarcinoma of the vulva
b. VIN II d. VIN III
96. What does the abbreviation IVF mean?
a. Intravenous fluids c. Intravaginal foreign body
b. In vitro fertilization d. Infundibulum via Fallopian tube

97. A pregnant patient presents to the ED with bleeding, cramping, and concerns of loss of
tissue and material per vagina. On examination, the physician discovers open cervical os
with no products of conception seen. He tells the patient she has had an abortion. What
type of abortion has she had?
a. Missed c. Spontaneous
b. Induced d. None of the above

98. Patient wishes permanent sterilization and elects laparoscopic tubal ligation with falope
ring. What is/are the CPT® code(s) reported for this service?
a. 58671 c. 58615
b. 58600 d. 58670

99. A patient presents with cervical cancer, it has spread and metastasized throughout the
pelvic area. She receives a total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo
oophorectomy, cystectomy and creation of an ileal conduit and partial colectomy. What
is/are the CPT® code(s) reported for this service?
a. 58150, 51590, 44140 c. 58150, 51590, 44140, 58720
b. 58152, 44141 d. 58240

100. A pregnant patient presents with the baby in a breech presentation. During the
delivery the doctor attempts to turn the baby while it is still in the uterus. The baby turns
but then immediately resumes his previous position. Can this service be billed? If so, what is
the code?
a. No, since the doctor was unable to successfully turn the baby.
b. No, this procedure is included in the obstetrical global package
c. Yes, since the doctor did the work, even though the outcome
was unsuccessful. Report this procedure with code 59412
d. Yes, only billing it with postpartum care 59515

101. What are the four lobes of the brain?

a. Frontal, Parietal, Temporal, Occipital
b. Sulci, Cerebellum, Pons, Medulla
c. Frontal, Cerebral, Cerebellum, Pons
d. Frontal, Cerebrum, Temporal, Occipital

102. What disease is characterized by enlarged skeletal parts?

a. Acromegaly c. Hyperthyroidism
b. Goiter d. Cushing’s syndrome

103. What is the term for paralysis affecting one side of the body?
a. Monoplegia c. Quadriplegia
b. Paraplegia d. Hemiplegia
104. A patient with chronic lumbago is seen by the physician to have an epidural
injection at the sacral level. What CPT® code(s) is reported for this procedure?
a. 62319 c. 62310
b. 62360 d. 62311

105. The physician removes the thymus gland in a 27-year-old female with myasthenia
gravis. Using a transcervical approach, the blood supply to the thymus is divided and the
thymus is dissected free from the pericardium and the thymus is removed. What CPT®
code(s) is reported for this procedure?
a. 60520 c. 60522
b. 60521 d. 60540

106. A patient is having a decompression of the nerve root involving two segments of
the lumbar spine via transpedicular approach. What CPT® code(s) is/are reported?
a. 63056 c. 63030, 63035
b. 63056, 63057 d. 63030

107. A patient with a herniated cervical disc undergoes a cervical laminotomy with a
partial facetectomy and excision of the herniated disc for cervical interspace C3-C4.
What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported?
a. 63050, M50.20 c. 63020, 63035, M50.20
b. 63020, M50.20 d. 63050, M50.20

108. Mrs. Marsden slipped on the ice last winter and fractured several lumbar vertebrae.
Since then she has required pain management therapy at her local hospital with an
anesthesiologist. He injects five percent Marcaine mixed with the steroid Decadron
(16mg) into the nerve located in the facet joints at levels L3-L4 and L4-L5 on both sides at
each level. What CPT® code(s) are reported for this procedure?
a. 64493 x 2 c. 64493 x 4 –50
b. 64493 –50, 64494 –50 d. 64483–50, 64484–50

109. A 37-year-old has multilevel lumbar degenerative disc disease and is coming in for an
epidural injection. Localizing the skin over the area of L5-S1, the physician uses the
transforaminal approach. The spinal needle is inserted, and the patient experienced
paresthesias into her left lower extremities. The anesthetic drug is injected into the epidural
space. What CPT® code(s) is/are reported for this procedure?
a.64483, 64484 c.64493, 64494
b.64493 d.64483

110. A patient receives a paravertebral facet joint injection at three levels on both sides of
the lumbar spine using fluoroscopic guidance for lumbar pain. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM
codes are reported?
a. 64493, 64494 x 2, M54.89 c. 64493, 64495 x 2, M54.5
b. 64493-50, 64494-50, 64495-50, M54.5 d. 64495-50, M54.5
111. A 47-year old female presents to the OR for a partial corpectomy to three thoracic
vertebrae. One surgeon performs the transthoracic approach while another surgeon
performs the three vertebral nerve root decompressions necessary. How both providers
do involved code for their portions of the surgery?
a. 63087-52, 63088-52 x 2 c. 63087-80, 63088-80 x 2
b. 63085-62, 63086-62 x 2 d. 63085, 63086-82 x 2

112. A 15-year-old has been taken to surgery for crushing his index and middle fingers,
injuring his digital nerves. The physician located the damaged nerves in both fingers and
sutures them to restore sensory function. What CPT® code(s) are reported?
a. 64831, 64872 c. 64831, 64837-51
b. 64834, 64837-51 d. 64831, 64832

113. A patient had recently experienced muscle atrophy and noticed she did not have pain
when she cut herself on a piece of glass. The provider decides to obtain a biopsy of the
spinal cord under fluoroscopic guidance. The biopsy results come back as syringomyelia.
What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported?
a. 62270, G95.0, R20.9 c. 62269, G95.0, R20.9
b. 62270, G95.0 d. 62269, G95.0

114. A 26-year-old patient presents with headache, neck pain, and fever and is concerned
he may have meningitis. The patient was placed in the sitting position and given 0.5 mg
Ativan IV. His back was prepped and a 20-gauge needle punctured the spine between L4
and L5 with the return of clear fluid. The cerebral spinal fluid was reviewed and showed no
sign of meningitis. What CPT® code(s) is reported?
a. 62270 c. 62282
b. 62272 d. 62319

115. What does IOL stand for?

a. Interoptic laser c. Interdemensional ocular lengths
b. Intraocular lens d. Iridescence over lamina

116. Patient had an abscess in the external auditory canal, which was drained in the
office. What CPT® code(s) should be reported?
a. 69540 c. 69020
b. 69105 d. 69000

117. What CPT® code(s) should be reported for removal of foreign body from the
external auditory canal w/o general anesthesia?
a. 69205 c. 69200
b. 69220 d. 69210

118. A patient has heavy skin and muscle hooding down and blocking his vision due to
ptosis of upper muscular eyelid defect. The physician performed a bilateral upper
blepharoplasty. What ICD-10-CM code(s) should be reported?
a. H02.403 c. H02.401
b. H02.409 d. H02.402
119. A patient with a cyst-like mass on his left external auditory canal was visualized under
the microscope and a microcup forceps was used to obtain a biopsy of tissue along the
posterior superior canal wall. What CPT® code(s) should be reported?
a. 69100-RT c. 69140-RT
b. 69105-LT d. 61945-LT

120. Using your CPT® Index, look up anesthesia for an appendectomy. What CPT®
code(s) is reported for the anesthesia?
a. 00790 c. 00860
b. 00840 d. 00862

121. Using your CPT® Index, look up anesthesia for a cholecystectomy. No

indication of the approach is mentioned. What CPT® code(s) is for the anesthesia?
a. 00790 c. 00840
b. 00797 d. 00842

122. Following labor and delivery, the mother developed acute kidney failure. What
ICD-10-CM code(s) is reported?
a. O26.90 c. O90.4
b. P01.9 d. N19

123. A 42-year-old patient was undergoing anesthesia in an ASC and began having
complications prior to the administration of anesthesia. The surgeon immediately
discontinued the planned surgery. If the insurance company requires a reported
modifier, what modifier is reported best describing the extenuating circumstances?
a. 53 c. 73
b. 23 d. 74

124. Code 00350, Anesthesia for procedures on the major vessels of the neck, has a base
value of ten (10) units. The patient is a P3 status, which allows one (1) extra base unit.
Anesthesia start time is reported as 11:02, and the surgery began at 11:14. The surgery
finished at 12:34 and the patient was turned over to PACU at 12:47, which was reported as
the ending anesthesia time. Using fifteen-minute time increments and a conversion factor
of $100, what is the correct anesthesia charge?
a. $1,500.00 c. $1,700.00
b. $1,600.00 d. $1,800.00

125. A 43-year-old patient with a severe systemic disease is having surgery to remove an
integumentary mass from his neck. What CPT® code(s) and modifier is reported?
a. 00300-P2 c. 00322-P3
b. 00300-P3 d. 00350-P3

126. A 59-year-old patient is having surgery on the pericardial sac, without use of a
pump oxygenator. The perfusionist placed an arterial line. What CPT® code(s) is
reported for anesthesia?
a. 00560 c. 00561
b. 00560, 36620 d. 00562
127. A CRNA is personally performing a case, with medical direction from an
anesthesiologist. What modifier is appropriately reported for the CRNA services?
a. QX c. QK
b. QZ d. QS

128. A 40-year-old female in good physical health is having a laparoscopic tubal ligation. The
anesthesiologist begins to prepare the patient for surgery at 0830. Surgery begins at 0900
and ends at 1000. The anesthesiologist releases the patient to recovery nurse at 1015. What
is the total anesthesia time and anesthesia code?
a. 1hr 30 minutes, 00840 c. 1 hr, 00840
b. 1hr 45 minutes, 00851 d. 1 hr 15 minutes, 00851

129. Procedure: Body PET-CT Skull Base to Mid Thigh

History: A 65-year-old male Medicare patient with a history of rectal carcinoma presenting
for restaging examination. Description: Following the IV administration of 15.51 mCi of F-18
deoxyglucose (FDG), multiplanar image acquisitions of the neck, chest, abdomen and pelvis
to the level of mid thigh were obtained at one-hour post-radiopharmaceutical
administration. (Nuclear Medicine Tumor imaging).What CPT® code(s) is/are reported?
a. 78815
b. 78815, 96365
c. 78816, 96365

130. 25 year old female in her last trimester of her pregnancy comes into her obstetrician’s
office for a fetal biophysical profile (BPP). An ultrasound is used to first monitor the fetus’
movements showing three movements of the legs and arms (normal). There are two
breathing movements lasting 30 seconds (normal). Non-stress test (NST) of 30 minutes
showed the heartbeat at 120 beats per minute and increased with movement (normal or
reactive). Arms and legs were flexed with fetus’ head on it chest, opening and closing of a
hand. Two pockets of amniotic fluid at 3cm were seen in the uterine cavity (normal).
Biophysical profile scored 9 out of 10 points (normal or reassuring). What CPT® code(s)
is/are reported by the obstetrician?
a. 76818 c. 76815
b. 76819 d. 59025, 76818

131. 65-year-old female has a 2.5 cm by 2.0 cm non small cell lung cancer in her right upper
lobe of her lung. The tumor is inoperable due to severe respiratory conditions. She will be
receiving stereotactic body radiation therapy under image guidance. Beams arranged in 8
fields will deliver 25 Gy per fraction for 4 fractions. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are
reported?
a. 77435-26, C34.11, Z51.0 c. 77373-26, Z51.0, C34.11
b. 77371-26, C34.11 d. 77431-26, Z51.0, C34.12

132. A patient with thickening of the synovial membrane undergoes a fluoroscopic guided
radiopharmaceutical therapy joint injection on his right knee. What CPT® code(s) is/are
reported by the physician if performed in an ASC setting?
a. 79440 c. 79999, 77002
b. 79440, 20610 d. 79440-26, 77002-26, 20610
133. A patient with bilateral lower extremity deep venous thromboses has a history of a
recent pulmonary embolus. Under ultrasound guidance an inferior vena cavagram was
performed demonstrating the right and left renal arteries at the level of L1. A tulip filter
device was passed down the sheath, positioned, and deployed with excellent symmetry. It
showed the filter between the renal veins and the confluence of the iliac veins but well
above the bifurcation of the inferior vena cava. What CPT® code(s) is reported?
a. 75825 c. 75820
b. 75827 d. 75860

134. An oncology patient is having weekly radiation treatments with a total of seven
conventional fractionated treatments broken up five on one day and two on the next.
What radiology code is appropriate for this series of clinical management fractions?
a. 77427 c. 77427x2
b. 77427x7 d. 77427-22

135. A patient in her 2nd trimester with a triplet pregnancy is seen for an obstetrical
ultrasound only including fetal heartbeats and position of the fetuses. What CPT® code(s)
is/are reported for the ultrasound?
a. 76805, 76810, 76810 c. 76815 x 3
b. 76811, 76812, 76812 d. 76815

136. In what section of the Pathology chapter of CPT® would a coder find codes for a FISH
test?
a. Cytopathology c. Chemistry
b. Immunology d. Other Procedures

137. A patient has a severe traumatic fracture of the humerus. During the open reduction
procedure, the surgeon removes several small pieces of bone embedded in the nearby
tissue. They are sent to Pathology for examination without microscopic sections. The
pathologist finds no evidence of disease. How should the pathologist code for his
services?
a. This service cannot be billed c. 88300
b. 88304 d. 88309, 88311

138. A patient presents with right upper quadrant pain, nausea, and other symptoms of
liver disease as well as complaints of decreased urination. Her physician orders an albumin;
bilirubin, both total and direct; alkaline phosphatase; total protein; alanine amino
transferase; aspartate amino transferase, and creatinine. What CPT® code(s) is/are
reported?
a. 82040, 82247, 82248, 84075, 84155, 84460, 84450, 82565
b. 80076, 82565
c. 80076
d. 80076-22
139. 17-year-old girl has a bone marrow biopsy for examination as a potential stem cell
donor for her mother who has acute monocytic leukemia (AML). What diagnosis code is
used with the typing of the stem cell specimens?
a. C93.00 c. Z52.001, C93.00
b. Z52.091 d. Z52.091, C93.00

140. A urine pregnancy test is performed by the office staff using the Hybritech ICON
(qualitative visual color comparison test). What CPT® code(s) is reported?
a. 84703 c. 81025
b. 84702 d. 81025, 36415

141. What category of codes should be used to report an evaluation and management
service provided to a patient in a psychiatric residential treatment center?
a. Hospital inpatient services c. Nursing facility services
b. Observation services d. Domiciliary, rest home or custodial care

142. A pediatrician is asked to be in the room during the delivery of a baby at risk for
complications. The pediatrician is in the room for 45 minutes. The baby is born and is
completely healthy, not requiring the services of the pediatrician. What CPT® code(s)
does the pediatrician report?
a. 99219 c. 99360
b. 99252 d.99360 x 2

143. An infant is born six weeks premature in rural Arizona and the pediatrician in
attendance intubates the child and administers surfactant in the ET tube while waiting in
the ER for the air ambulance. During the 45 minute wait, he continues to bag the critically ill
patient on 100 percent oxygen while monitoring VS, ECG, pulse oximetry and temperature.
The infant is in a warming unit and an umbilical vein line was placed for fluids and in case of
emergent needs for medications. How is this coded?
a.99291 c. 99291, 31500, 36510, 94610
b. 99471 d. 99434, 99464, 99465, 94610, 36510

144. Patient comes in today at four months of age for a checkup. She is growing and
developing well. Her mother is concerned because she seems to cry a lot when lying down
but when she is picked up she is fine. She is on breast milk but her mother has returned to
work and is using a breast pump, but hasn’t seemed to produce enough milk.
PHYSICAL EXAM: Weight 12 lbs 11 oz, Height 25in., OFC 41.5 cm. HEENT: Eye: Red reflex
normal. Right eardrum is minimally pink, left eardrum is normal. Nose: slight mucous Throat
with slight thrush on the inside of the cheeks and on the tongue. LUNGS: clear. HEART: w/o
murmur. ABDOMEN: soft. Hip exam normal. GENITALIA normal although her mother says
there was a diaper rash earlier in the week.
ASSESSMENT
Four month old well check
Cold
Mild thrush
Diaper rash
PLAN:
Okay to advance to baby foods
Okay to supplement with Similac
Nystatin suspension for the thrush and creams for the diaper rash if it recurs
Mother will bring child back after the cold symptoms resolve for her DPT, HIB and polio
What E/M code(s) are reported?
a. 99212 c. 99391, 99212-25
b. 99391 d. 99213

145. A new patient wants to quit smoking. The patient has constant cough due to smoking
and some shortness of breath. No night sweats, weight loss, night fever, CP, headache, or
dizziness. He has tried patches and nicotine gum, which has not helped. Patient has been
smoking for 40 years and smokes 2 packs per day. He has a family history of emphysema. A
limited three system exam was performed. Physician discussed the pros and cons of
medications used to quit smoking in detail. Counseling and education done for 20 minutes
of the 30 minute visit. Prescription for Chantrix and Tetracylcine were given. Patient to
follow up in 1 month. We will consider chest X-ray and cardiac work up. Select the
appropriate CPT code(s) for this visit:
a. 99202 c. 99203, 99354
b. 99203 d. 99214, 99354

146. A patient with coronary atherosclerosis underwent a PTCA in 2 vessels. What CPT®
code(s) is/are reported?
a. 92920, 92921-59 c. 92924
b. 92920×2 d. 92925, 92996

147. A patient with malignant cardiovascular hypertension is admitted by his primary care
physician. What are the correct ICD-10-CM code(s) for this encounter?
a. I25.10, I11.9 c. I25.10
b. I11.9, I25.10 d. I11.9

148. A baby was born with a ventricular septal defect (VSD). The physician performed a
right heart catheterization and transcatheter closure with implant by percutaneous
approach. What codes are reported?
a. 93530, 93581-59, Q21.9 c. 93530, Q24.0
b. 93581, Q21.0 d. 93530, 93591-59, Q21.0

149. 30-year-old male cut his left hand on a piece of aluminum repairing the gutter on his
house. 6 days later, it became infected. He went to the intermediate care center in his
neighborhood, his first visit there. The wound was very red and warm with purulent
material present. The wound was irrigated extensively with sterile water and covered with a
clean sterile dressing. An injection of Bicillin CR, 1,200,000 units was given. The patient was
instructed to return in 3-4 days. The physician diagnosed open wound of the hand with
cellulitis. A problem focused history and examination with a low MDM were performed.
What are the CPT and ICD-10-CM codes?
a. 96372, L02.113 c. 99201, 96372, J0558 x 12, L03.114
b. 99201, J0558 x 4, L03.119 d. 99284, L03.114
150. Mrs. Salas had 30 minutes of angina decubitus and was admitted to the Coronary
Care Unit with a diagnosis of R/O MI. The cardiologist (private practice based) takes her to
the cardiac catheterization suite at the local hospital for a left heart catheterization.
Injection procedures for selective coronary angiography and left ventriculography were
performed and imaging supervision and interpretation for the selective coronary
angiography and left ventriculography was provided. What CPT® code(s) are reported for
the services?
a. 93452-26 c. 93453-26
b. 93458-26 d. 93453-26, 93462