ISTQB 123 QUESTIONS

1. Which of the following is a MAJOR activity of test planning?

A. Initiation of corrective actions
B. Measuring and analysing results
C. Determining the exit criteria
D. Monitoring and documenting progress

2. Which two of the following are common attributes of maintenance testing?

a. It is carried out to ensure that the system will be reliable once in service
b. It includes regression testing
c. It requires the use of fully defined specifications
d. It can include testing a system after migration from one platform to another.
A. a and b
B. a and c
C. c and d
D. b and d

3. Which of the following is a standard for test documentation?

A. IEEE Std.1028
B. EEE Std. 1044
C. ISO 9126.
D. IEEE Std.829

4. A wholesaler sells printer cartridges. The minimum order quantity is 5. There is a 20% discount for
order of 100 or more printer cartridges. You have been asked to prepare test cases using various values
for the printer cartridges ordered.
Which of the following group contain three test inputs that would be generated using Boundary Values
Analysis?
A. 5, 6, 20
B. 4, 5, 80
C. 4, 5, 99
D. 1, 20, 100

5. Consider the following state table:

A B C D

S1 S2/R1 S3/R2 S1/N S4/R6

S2 S2/N S2/N S3/R3 S4/R4

S3 S4/R5 S2/R3 S2/R6 S2/N

 S4 S4/N S4/N S2/N S1/R7

Which of the following would result in a change of state to S2 with an action of R6?
A. From state S1, input A
B. From state S2, input B
C. From state S3, input C
D. From state S4, input D

6. Which of the following is a MAJOR activity of test control?

A. Scheduling test analysis and design
B. Implementing the test policy or strategy
C. Making decisions based on information from test monitoring
D. Determining the scope and risks

7. What the a test execution tool enable?

A. Test to be executed automatically, or semi automatically
B. Test to be written without human intervention
C. Preparation of test data automatically
D. Manage test assets such as test conditions and test cases

8. If a system has been tested and only a few defects have been found, what can we conclude about
the state of the system?
a) The system may be defect free but the testing done cannot guarantee that this is true.
b) The system is defect free and further testing would therefore be a waste of resources.
c) It depends what the system is designed to do
d) Further testing should be considered but this should be focussed on areas of highest
risk because it would not be possible to test everything.
e) Testing should be curtailed because it is yielding no value
A. A, C and D
B. B, c and D
C. A, D and E
D. B, C and E

9. What should be the MAIN objective during development testing?

A. To cause as many failures as possible so that defects in the software are identified and can
be fixed
B. To confirm that the system works as expected and that requirements have been met
C. To assess the quality of the software with no intention of fixing defects
D. To give information to stakeholders of the risk of releasing the system at a given time

10. When in the life cycle should testing activities start?

A. As early as possible
 B. After the test environment is ready
C. Ater the requirement is ready
D. Nce the code is available to test

11. Given the following sample of pseudo code:

1 Input number of male rabbits
2 Input number of female rabbits
3 If male rabbits > 0 and female rabbits > 0 then
4 Input Do you want to breed (Yes/No)
5 If breed = No
6 Print deep male and female rabbits apart
7 End if
8 End If
Which of the following test cases will ensure that statement 6 is executed?
A. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 1, breed = Yes
B. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 1, breed = No
C. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 2, breed = Yes
D. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 0, breed = No

12. During which activity of the Fundamental Test Process test process do you determine the exit criteria?
A. Test analysis and design
B. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
C. Test closure activities
D. Test planning and control

13. Which of the following activities would improve how a tool is deployed within an organisation? =
success factor for tool
a) Roll out the tool across the organisation as quickly as possible to all users.
b) Conduct periodic lessons learnt reviews with tool users.
c) Provide technical support to the test team for each type of tool.
d) If a tool is not being used, withdraw it and look for an alternative.
e) Make sure processes are improved to reflect a new tool
A. a, b and c
B. a, c and d
C. c, d and e
D. b, c and e

14. Which statement BEST describes the role of testing?

A. Testing ensures that the right version of code is delivered
B. Testing can be used to assess quality
C. Testing shows that the software is error free.
D. Testing improves quality in itself

15. Which of the following would NOT NORMALLY be considered for a testing role on a project?
 A. System operator
B. Developer
C. Configuration manager
D. Performance specialist

16. Retirement of software or a system would trigger which type of testing?

A. Load testing
B. Portability testing
C. Maintenance testing
D. Maintainability testing

17. Which of the following best describes the purpose of non-functional testing?
A. To measure characteristics of a system which give an indication of how the system performs
its functions
B. To ensure that a system complies with the quality standards set by ISO 9126
C. To ensure that a system deals appropriately with software malfunctions
D. To measure the extent to which a system has been tested by functional testing

18. A candidate sits an exam with 40 questions. To pass, the candidate must answer at least 25
questions correctly. To gain a distinction, a mark of 32 or above must be achieved. Which of these
groups of exam scores would fall into three different equivalence classes?
A. 32, 36, 40
B. 0, 27, 36
C. 0, 24, 32
D. 25, 32, 40

19. Which of the following would be MOST USEFUL in estimating the amount of re-testing and
regression testing likely to required?
A. The purchase of an automated test execution tool
B. Time allocated for acceptance testing
C. Metrics from previous similar projects
D. Impact analysis

20. Which ADDITIONAL test level could be introduced into a standard V-mode after system testing?
A. System Integration Testing
B. Acceptance Testing
C. Regression Testing
D. Component Integration Testing

21. Arrive-and-Go airline wants to clarify its baggage handling policy, whilst maximising revenues, and
will introduce the following tariffs for all baggage per individual customer (weights are rounded up to the
nearest 0.1Kg):
The first 2Kg will be carried free of charge. The next 10Kg will be carried for a flat charge of 0. An
additional 15Kg will be charged a total charge of 7. Luggage over this amount will be charged at ? per Kg,
up to a maximum of 150 Kg per person. No passenger may take more that 150 Kg with them. Which of
the following would constitute boundary values of baggage weights in the price calculation?
A. 0, 5.0, 10.0, 17.0
B. 2.0, 9.9, 15.0, 26.9
C. 1.9, 12.0, 14.9, 150.0
D. 2.0, 12.1, 27.0, 150.1

22. Which of the following would TYPICALLY be carried out by a test leaderand which by a tester?
a) Creation of a test strategy
b) Creation of a test specification
c) Raising of an incident report
d) Write a test summary report
A. a and b would be carried out by a test leader, whilst c and d would be carried out by a tester
B. b and c would be carried out by a test leader, whilst a and d would be carried out by a tester
C. a and d would be carried out by a test leader, whilst b and c would be carried out by a tester
D. a and c would be carried out by a test leader, whilst b and d would be carried out by a tester

23. Which one of the following provides the BEST description of test design?
A. Identification of the features which should be tested
B. Specification of test cases required to test a feature
C. Specification of the order in which test cases should be executed
D. Creation of a test suite

24. Which of the following activities should be performed during the selection and implementation of
a testing tool?
a) Determine whether the organization existing test process needs to change
b) Conduct a proof of concept
c) Implement the selected tool on a project behind schedule to save time
d) Identify coaching and mentoring requirements for the use of the selected tool
A. a, b and c
B. b, c and d
C. a, c and d
D. a, b and d

25. Where may functional testing be performed?

A. At system and acceptance testing levels only
B. At all test levels
C. At all levels above integration testing
D. At the acceptance testing level only

26. Why should expected results be defined before execution?

 A. To assist in test automation
B. To improve test efficiency
C. To reduce the possibility of incorrect results
D. To improve design of the software

27. Pair the correct test design techniques (i to v) with the category of techniques (x, y and
z):
i) Exploratory Testing
ii) Equivalence Partitioning
iii) Decision Testing
iv) Use Case Testing
v) Condition coverage

x) Specification-based
y) Structure-based
z) Experienced-based
A. x = i and ii; y = iii and v, z = iv
B. x = i, ii and iv; y = v; z = iii
C. x = ii and iv; y = iii and v; z = i
D. x = iii and iv; y = v; z = i and ii.

28. Which statement is a valid explanation as to why black-box testdesign techniques can be useful?
A. They can help to derive test data based on analysis of the requirement specification
B. They can help derive test case based on analysis of a component code structure
C. They can help to derive test conditions based on analysis of a system internal structure
D. They can help to reduce testing costs

29. A system specification states that a particular field should accept alphabetical characters in either
upper or lower case. Which of the following test case is from an INVALID equivalence partition?
A. Feeds
B. F33ds
C. FEEDS
D. fEEDs

30. Which of the following statements about functional testing is correct?

A. Functional test case are derived from specifications
B. Functional test case are derived from an examination of the code
C. Functional testing ensure error free software
D. Functional testing should be done before the inspection process

31. Which activity in the Fundamental Test Process creates test suites for efficient test execution?
A. Implementation and execution
B. Planning and control
C. Analysis and design
 D. Test closure

32. Which of the following are true of software development models?

a) Component Integration testing is present in all good development models.
b) Acceptance testing can take place before system testing starts.
c) Acceptance testing should only start when system testing is complete.
d) There may be fewer than four test levels in a V-model.
A. b and d
B. a and b
C. b and c
D. c and d

33. Which one of the following methods test estimation rely on information captured from
previous projects?
A. Test point-based
B. Expert-based
C. Metrics -based
D. Development effort-based

34. For which of the following is Impact Analysis ESPECIALLY important?

A. Maintenance Testing
B. Unit Testing
C. System Testing
D. User acceptance Testing

35. Which of the following statements are true in relation to component testing?
a) Stubs may be used
b) May cover resource behaviour (e.g. memory leaks).
c) Tests the interactions between software components.
d) Defects are typically fixed without formally managing these defects.
A. a, c and d
B. a, b and d
C. b, c and d
D. a, b and c

36. Which of the following are the typical defects found by static analysis tools?
a) Variables that are never used
b) Security vulnerabilities.
c) Poor performance.
d) Unreachable code
e) Business processes not followed.
A. b, c and d are true; a and e are false
B. a are true; b, c, d and e are false
 C. c, d and e are true; a and b are false
D. a, b and d are true; c and e are false

37. Given the following state transition diagram:

Which of the test cases below will cover the following series of state transitions? SS S1 S2 S1 S2 ES
A. A,B,E,B,F
B. A,B,C,D
C. A,B,E,B,C,D
D. A,B,F

38. Which one of the following is true of software development models?

A. There are always four test levels in the V-model.
B. In a Rapid Application Development (RAD) project, there are four test levels for each iteration.
C. In Agile development models, the number of test levels for an iteration can vary depending on
the project
D. There must be at least four test levels for any software development model.

39. Which two of the following are attributes of structural testing?

a) It is based on testing features described in a functional specification.
b) It can include statement and decision testing.
c) It can be carried out at all levels of testing.
d) It can include debugging.
A. a and b
B. a and d
C. b and d
D. b and c

40. Under what circumstances would you plan to perform maintenance testing? a)
As part of a migration of an application from one platform to another.
b) As part of a planned enhancement release.
c) When the test scripts need to be updated.
d) For data migration associated with the retirement of a system
A. a, b and c
B. b , c and d
C. a, b and d
D. a, c and d
41. You have designed test case to provide 100% statement and 100% decision coverage for
the following
if width > length then
biggest_dimension =
width else
biggest_dimension=length
end_if
The following has been added to the bottom of the code fragment
above. print “Biggest dimension is” & biggest_dimension.
print “width:” & width print “Length:” &
length. How many MORE test case are required?
A. One more test case will be required for 100% decision coverage
B. Two more test case will be required for 100% statement coverage, one of which will be used
to provide 100% decision coverage
C. Non, existing test case can be used
D. One more test case will be required for 100% statement coverage

42. Which of the following is a review process activity?

A. Individual preparation
B. Writing test conditions
C. Developing a test plan
D. Executing test scripts

43. A test team consistently finds between 90% and 95% of the defects present in the system under
test. While the test manager understands that this is a good defect - detection percentage for hẻ tét
team and industry, senior management and executives remain disappointed in the test group, saying
that the test team misses too many bugs. Given that the users are generally happy with the system and
that the failures which have occurred have generally been low impact, which of the following testing
principles is most likely to help the test managers explain to these managers and executives why some
defects are likely to be missed?
A. Exhaustive testing is impossible
B. Defect clustering
C. Pesticide paradox
D. Absence - of - errors fallacy

44. A system requires 100% decision coverage at component testing for all modules. The
following module há bên tested with a single test case.
The test case follows the path A, B, D, E, F, G. What level of decision coverage has been achieved?
A. 100%
B. 50%
C. 75% (outcome)
D. 90%

45. Which of the following statements is GENERALLY true of

testing?
a) Testing can show the presence of defects.
b) Testing reduces the probability of uncovered defects.
c) Testing can show that a previously present defect has been removed.
d) Testing can prove that software is defect free.
A. a, b and c
B. a, b and d
C. a, c and d
D. b, c and d

46. Given the following sample of pseudo code:

Which of the following test cases would achieve 100% statement coverage?
A. A = 5, B = 10 and C = 2
B. A = 10, B = 10 and C = 10
C. A = 10, B = 5 and C = 2
D. A = 2, B = 5 and C = 10

47.

The above table shows 6 test procedures (P to U) that must now be entered into a test execution
schedule. Business severity is regarded as the most important element in determining the sequence of
the test procedures, but other dependencies must also be taken into consideration. Regression testing
can only be run once all other tests have completed.
Which of the following represents the MOST effective sequence for the test execution schedule (where
the first entry in the sequence is the first procedure to be run, the second entry is the second to be run
and so on)?
A. S,R,P,T,Q,U
B. P,R,T,Q,S,U
C. R,P,S,T,Q,U
D. P,Q,R,S,U,T

48. Place the stages of the Fundamental Test Process in the usual order (by time).
a) Test closure activities.
b) Analysis and design.
c) Planning and control.
d) Implementation and execution.
e) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting.
A. C, b, d, e, a
B. C, b,e, d, a
C. C, b, d, a, e
D. B, c, d, e, a

49. Which of the following statements correctly describes the benefit of fault attacks?
A. They are more effective at finding faults than formal test design techniques
B. They are useful when there is limited experience in the test team
C. They can evaluate the reliability of a test object by attempting to force specific failures to occur
D. They are less structured than other experience-based techniques.

50. Which of the following pairs of factors is used to quantify risks?

A. Impact and Cost
B. Likelihood and Impact
C. Product and Project
D. Probability and Likelihood

51. Which of the following statements about black box and white boxtechniques is correct?
A. Decision Testing, Equivalence Partitioning and Condition Coverage are all black box techniques.
B. Decision Table Testing, State Transition and Use Case Testing are all black box techniques.
C. Decision Testing, Equivalence Partitioning and Statement Testing are all white box techniques.
D. Boundary Value Analysis, State Transition and Statement Testing are all white box techniques.

52. Which one of the following BEST describes a test control action?
A. Setting a completion date
B. Reporting on poor progress
C. Adding extra test scripts to a test suite
D. Retesting a defect fix

53. Which of the following is MOST clearly a characteristic of structure based (white-box) techniques?
A. Test case are independent of each other
B. Test case can be easily automated
C. Test cases are derived systematically from the delivered code
D. Test cases are derived systematically from specifications.

54. Which of the following activities would improve how a tool is developed within an organisation?
a) Defining best practice guidelines for users.
b) Roll out the tool across the organisation as quickly as possible to all users
c) Provide technical support to the test team for each type of tool.
d) Introduce a system to monitor tool usage and user feedback
e) Ensure that the test process is not changed as result of the tool introduction.
A. a, b and c
B. a, c and d
C. c, d and e
D. b, d and e

55. Which of the following statements is true?

A. Testing cannot prove that software is incorrect.
B. Testing can prove that software is either correct or incorrect
C. Testing cannot prove that software is correct
D. Testing can prove that software is correct.

56. Which of the following is a specification-based technique?

A. Use Case Testing
B. Error Guessing.
C. Condition coverage
D. Statement Testing

57. Which of the following are key success factors to the review process?
A. Review time is allowed in the test execution schedule, process improvement is recognised in
the follow up meeting and the objective is always to find defects.
B. Each review has a clear objective, the right people are involved, training is provided in the
review technique and management fully support the process.
C. Participants are trained, all review meetings are time boxed and moderators are project managers
D. Every team member will be involved, all review techniques are used on every work product and
tét managers control the review process.

58. Match the following format review roles and responsibilities:

1) Moderator
2) Recorder
3) Reviewer
4) Manager
Responsibilities
p) The person chosen to represent a particular viewpoint and role.
q) The person who decides on the execution of inspections and determines if the inspection
objectives have been met.
r) The person who leads the inspection of a document or set of documents.
s) The person who documents all the issues, problems and open

points.

A. 1Q, 2S, 3P, 4R

 B. 1R, 2S, 3P, 4Q
C. 1Q, 2P, 3S, 4R
D. 1R, 2P, 3S, 4Q

59. How is the scope of maintenance testing assessed?

A. Scope is related to the risk, size of the changes and size of the system under test
B. Scope is defined by the size and type of system being changed
C. Scope is defined by the size and type of system being changed
D. Scope is related to the number of system users affected by the change.

60. Which of the following is MOST likely to be an objective of a pilot project to introduce a test tool?
A. To assess if the test tool brings benefits at reasonable cost
B. To ensure that developers will use the test tool
C. To ensure that the time spent testing and the cost of testing is reduced
D. To assess if everyone in the organisation can be trained prior to roll-out

61. Which of the following test activities are more likely to be undertaken by a test lead than a tester?
A. Create test specifications
B. Schedule tests
C. Define metric for meeting test progress
D. Prepare and acquire test data

62. During which activity of the Fundamental Test Process do you compare actual with expected results?
A. Test closure activities
B. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
C. Test analysis and design
D. Test implementation and execution

63. Which of the following activities should be considered before purchasing a tool for an
organization?
a) Ensure that the tool does not have a negative impact on existing test processes.
b) Produce a business justification examining both costs and benefits.
c) Determine whether the vendor will continue to provide support for the tool.
d) Introduce tool deployment activities into the testing schedule.
A. a and d
B. b and c
C. c and d
D. a and c

64. What is the USUAL sequence for performing the following activities during the Fundamental
Test Process?
A. Analyse the test basis documents.
B. Define the expected results.
C. Create the test execution schedule.
 D. Establish the traceability of the test conditions

65. Which of the following statements describe why experience-based test design techniques are
useful?
a) They can help derive test cases based on analysis of specification documents
b) They can identify tests not easily captured by formal techniques.
c) They make good use of tester knowledge, intuition and experience.
d) They are an effective alternative to formal test design techniques.
A. a and c
B. a and b
C. b and d
D. c and d

66. The list below (a to e) describes one major task for each of the five main activities of the
fundamental test process. Which option ( A to D) places the tasks in the correct order, by time?
a) Create bi-directional traceability between test basis and test cases.
b) Check test logs against exit criteria
c) Define the objectives of testing
d) Check planned deliverables have been delivered.
e) Comparing actual results with expected results
A. a, c, b, e, d
B. c, a, d, e, b
C. c, a, e, b, d
D. d, a, c, b, e

67. Which of the following is a project risk?

A. There are non-standard implementations of some features
B. We may not be able to get a contractor to join the test team as planned
C. The response times of the software may not be fast enough
D. The contract has a legal loophole which has affected the company profit

68. Given the following fragment of code, how many tests are required for 100% statement coverage?
If width > length then
biggest _dimension = width
If height > width then
biggest _dimension = height
Endif
Else
biggest _dimension = length
If height > length then
biggest _dimension = height
Endif
Endif
A. 1
 B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

69. Given the following decision table:

Rule 1 Rule 2 Rule 3 Rule 4

Conditions

Age <21 yrs 21 - 29 yrs 30 - 50 yrs > 50 yrs

Insurance Class A A or B B, C or D C or D

Actions

Premium £100 £90 £70 £70

Excess £2,500 £2,500 £500 £1,000

Which of the following test cases and expected results is VALID?

A. 23 year old in insurance class A Premium is 90 and excess is 2,500.
B. 51 year old in insurance class C Premium is 70 and excess is 500.
C. 31 year old in insurance class B Premium is 90 and excess is 2,500.
D. 43 year old in insurance class C Premium is 70 and excess is 1,000.

70. Which one of the following statements about approaches to test estimation is true?
A. A metrics-based approach is based on data gathered from previous projects; an expert-
based approach uses the knowledge of the owner of the tasks or experts
B. A metrics-based approach is based on creating a work-breakdown structure first; an expert-
based approach is based on input from estimation experts
C. A metrics-based approach is based on data gathered from previous projects; an expert-
based approach is based on a work-breakdown structure
D. A metrics-based approach is based on an analysis of the specification documents; an expert-
based approach is based on the opinion of the most experienced tester in theorganistion.

71. Which characteristics BEST describe a walkthrough?

A. Documented, includes peers and experts
B. Formal process collects metrics
C. Defined roles, led by trained moderator
D. Led by the author, may be documented

72. A failure has occurred during system testing and incident report must be raised. The
following attributes are available for the report:
 A. Tester name
B. Date raised
C. Priority (to fix)
D. Severity (impact on the system)

73. Which of the following are characteristics of good testing in any life cycle model?
a) Every development activity has a corresponding test activity
b) Testers review development documents early
c) There are separate levels for component and system integration test
d) Each test level has objectives specific to that level
e) Each test level is based on the same test basis
A. a, d and e
B. b, c and e
C. a, c and d
D. a, b and d

74. The flow graph below shows the logic of a program for which 100% statement coverage and 100%
decision coverage is required on exit from component testing

The following test cases have been run:

● Test case 1 covering path A, B, D, G
● Test case 2 covering path A, B, D, E, F, E, F, E, F, E, G
● Test case 3 covering path A, C, D, E, F, E, G
Which of the following statements related to coverage is correct?
A. Statement coverage is 100%; decision coverage is 100%
B. Statement coverage is less than 100%; decision coverage is 100%
C. Statement coverage is 100%; decision coverage is less than 100%
D. Statement coverage and decision coverage are both less than 100%

75. Which of the following is a purpose of the review kick off activity?
A. Explain the objectives
 B. Select the personnel group
C. Document results
D. Define entry and exit criteria

76. Which tasks would USUALLY be performed by a test leader and which by the tester?
a) Adapt planning based on test results
b) Create test specifications
c) Plan tests
d) Write or review a test strategy
A. c and d by the tester leader; a and b by the tester
B. a and b by the tester leader; c and d by the tester
C. a and d by the tester leader; b and c by the tester
D. a, c and d by the tester leader; b by the tester

77. The digital rainbow Thermometer uses 7 colours to show the ambient temperature. Each colour
spans a range of just 5, with an operating minimum and maximum of minus 5 oC and 30oC. Which of
the following values is minimum of minus 5oC and 30oC. Which of the following values is LEAST likely
to have been identified when applying the boundary value test design technique?
A. 30oC
B. 0oC
C. 8oC
D. 15oC
78. Given the following state table:

On Off Channel 1 Channel 2 Channel > 2 Stby

Standby Live N N N N N

Live N Standby Display channel 1 Display channel 2 N Standby

Display channel 1 N N N Display channel 2 N Standby

Display channel 2 N N Display channel N N Standby

Which of the following represents an INVALID transition (N)?

A. Off from Display Channel 1?
B. Channel 2 from Display Channel 1?
C. Stby from Live?
D. Channel 2 from Live?
 79. Given the following sample of pseudo code:

What is the minimum number of test cases required to guarantee 100% decision coverage?
A. 2
B. 1
C. 3
D. 4

80. Given the following flow chart diagram:

What is the minimum number test cases required for 100% statement coverage and 100% decision
coverage, respectively?
A. Statement Coverage = 1, Decision Coverage = 3.
B. Statement Coverage = 2, Decision Coverage = 3.
C. Statement Coverage = 2, Decision Coverage = 2.
D. Statement Coverage = 3, Decision Coverage = 3.

81. During which activity of the Fundamental Test Process test process do you review the test basis?
 A. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting.
B. Test implementation and execution
C. Test analysis and design
D. Test planning and control

82. Which of the following activities would NORMALLY be undertaken during test planning?
a) Scheduling test analysis and design
b) Designing Test Conditions
c) Monitoring test progress
d) Identifying the objectives of testing
e) Evaluating test tools
Selecting test metrics for monitoring and control
A. b,c and d
B. a, d and f
C. a, d and e
D. b, c and f

83. Given the following decision table:

Rule 1 Rule 2 Rule 3 Rule 4

Conditions

Frequent Flyer Gold Gold Silver Silver

Class Business Economy Business Economy

Actions

Free Upgrade First Business No Business

Discounted N/A First First N/A

Upgrade

What is the expected result for each of the following test cases?
P) Gold frequent flyer, travelling in Economy class.
Q) Silver frequent flyer, travelling in Business class

A. P. Offer free upgrade to Business and discounted upgrade to First. Q. Offer discounted upgrade
to First
B. P. Offer free upgrade to Business but cannot upgrade to First. Q. Offer discounted upgrade to First
C. P. Offer free upgrade to First. Q. Cannot upgrade to First
D. P. Offer discounted upgrade to First. Q. Offer free upgrade to First

84. Which of the following matches the activity (i to iv) to its most suitable type of tool (p to s)?
i) Analysis of code structure
ii) Generation of test cases.
iii) Simulation of the environment in which a component is run.
iv) Analysis of test metrics

p) Test management.
q) Test design tool.
r) Static analysis tool.
s) Test harness.

A. i-s, ii-p, iii-r, iv-q

B. i-r, ii-q, iii-s, iv-p
C. i-r, ii-s, iii-p, iv-q
D. i-q, ii-r, iii-s, iv-p

85. Which of the following types of defect are typically found in reviews rather than in dynamic testing?
a) Deviations from standards.
b) Defects in interface implementation.
c) Poor maintainability of code.
d) Poor performance of the system.
e) Defects in requirements
A. a, c and e
B. a, b and d
C. b, d and e
D. a, c and d

86. Which of the following is a TYPICAL objective of a pilot project for introducing a testing tool into
an organisation?
A. To assess whether the benefits will be achieved at a reasonable cost
B. To identify the initial requirements of the tool
C. To select the most suitable tool for the intended purpose
D. To document test design and test execution processes

87. Which of the following account for most of the failures in a system?= defect cluster
A. They will be found in the smallest modules
B. They will be evenly distributed among all modules
C. They will be found in the largest modules
D. They will be found in a small proportion of modules

88. What is the MAIN benefit of designing tests early in the life cycle?
A. It is cheaper than designing tests during the test phases
B. It helps prevent defects from being introduced into the code
C. Tests designed early are more effective than tests designed later
D. It saves time during the testing phases when testers are busy
89. Which statement about combinations of inputs and preconditions is true for a large system?
A. It is easy to test them all in a short time
B. It is not practically possible to test them all
C. It is not possible to test any of them
D. It is essential to test them all in order to do good testing

90. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be included in an incident report? ~ bug report
A. Suggestions for correcting the problem
B. Degree of impact on stakeholder interests
C. Date the incident was discovered
D. Life cycle process in which the incident was discovered

91. Which ordering of the list below gives increasing levels of test independence?
a) Tests designed by a fellow-member of the design team
b) Tests designed by a different group within the organisation
c) Tests designed by the code author
d) Tests designed by different organisation
A. C, a, b, d
B. B, d, a, c
C. C, a, d, b
D. A, c, d, b

92. Which of the following are white-box test design techniques?

a) Decision table testing.
b) Decision coverage.
c) Boundary value analysis.
d) Error guessing.
e) Statement testing.
A. a and e
B. b and d
C. b and e
D. e and d

93. Which on of the following BEST describes the purpose of a priority rating in an incident report?
A. To show which parts of the system are affected by the incident
B. To show how quickly the problem should be fixed
C. To show how much it would cost to fix the defect
D. To show progress of testing

94. What is the purpose of configuration management in testing?

a) To choose and implement a suitable configuration management tool.
b) To identify unique items of testware and their related developed software.
c) To provide traceability between items of testware and developed software.
d) To enable manager to configure the software

e) To control the versions of software released into the test environment.

A. a, c and e
B. a, b and d
C. b, c and d
D. b, c and e

95. Which of the following activities would improve how a tool is deployed within an organisation?
a) Roll out the tool across the organisation as quickly as possible to all users.
b) Provide technical support to the test team for each type of tool.
c) Limit communication with the tool vendor to allow users to develop their own best practice.
d) Make sure processes are improved to reflect a new tool.
e) Regularly analyse how the tool is being used.
A. a, b and c
B. a, c and d
C. b, d and e
D. b, c and e

96. Four testes have each submitted an incident report in which each reported a problem with the
User log-on process. User log-on is a critical component of the system. The table below describes the
four defect reports submitted.

Tester ID Incident Inputs/Expected and Actual results Business

description priority
(1 high
2 medium
3 low)
Tester 1 User log-on Entered User id of J SMITH and password of ABC01 1
validation error but got an error message

Tester 2 Log-on does not Inputs: Entered valid user id and password 2
meet requirement Expected result: Main menu screen to be displayed
Actual result: Error saying incorrect password

Tester 3 Log-on Password Inputs: User id = J SMITH, password = ABC01 2

validation error Expected result: Main menu screen
Actual result: Error message EM008 “Invalid
password” This test has worked many times before

Tester 4 Password validation Inputs: User id = J SMITH, password = ABC01 1

error Expected result: Main menu screen
Actual result: EM008 “Invalid password”
N.B the same inputs worked yesterday, before code
release 1.2 was delivered.
Which Tester has reported the incident MOST effectively, considering the information and priority
they have supplied?
A. Tester 3
B. Tester 1
C. Tester 2
D. Tester 4

97. Which of the following statements describe why error guessing is a useful test design
technique?
a) It can help derive test cases based on analysis of specification documents.
b) It can identify tests not easily captured by formal techniques.
c) It can make good use of tester experience and available defect data.
d) It is a cheaper alternative to more formal test design techniques.
A. a and b
B. b and c
C. c and d
D. a and c

98. A system under development contains complex calculations and decision logic, and it is assessed as
high risk because of the relative inexperience of the development team in the application domain. Which of
the following would be the MOST appropriate choice of test design technique for component testing?
A. Decision testing
B. Statement testing
C. State transition testing
D. Equivalence partitioning

99. Which option BEST describes objectives for test levels within a life cycle model?
A. Objectives should be generic for any test level
B. Objectives are the same for each test level
C. Each test level has objectives specific to that level
D. Each test level must have different objectives

100. Which of the following are characteristic of test management tools?

a) They support traceability of tests to source documents
b) They provide an interface to test execution tools.
c) They help to enforce coding standards  review
d) They manipulate databases and files to set up test data
A. a and c
B. b and c
C. a and b
D. b and d

101. Which of the following BEST describes a data-driven approach to the use of test execution tools?
A. Monitoring response times when the system contains a specified amount of data
 B. Manipulation of databases and files to create test data
C. Using a generic script that reads test input data from a file
D. Recording test scripts and playing them back

102. Four testers have each submitted an incident report in which each reported a problem with the
User log-on process, a critical component of the system. The incident reports do not follow a prescribed
template and the data needs to be entered into the project incident management tool.

Which tester has reported the incident most effectively to enable capture in the incident management
tool, considering the information and priority they have supplied?
A. Tester 3
B. Tester 1
C. Tester 2
D. Tester 4

103. From a Testing perspective, what are the MAIN purpose of Configuration Management?
a) Identifying the version of software under test
 b) Controlling the version of testware items
c) Developing new testwave items

d) Tracking changes to testware items

e) Analysing the need for new testwave items.
A. b, d and e
B. b, c and d
C. a, b and d
D. a, c and e

104. In which activity of the Fundamental Test Process is the test environment set up?
A. Test implementation and execution (set up/build test env)
B. Test planning and control
C. Test analysis and design (define/design test env)
D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

105. Which of the following is a purpose of the review kick off activity?
A. Explain the objectives
B. Select the personnel group (plan)
C. Document results
D. Define entry and exit criteria (plan)

106. Which of the following activities should be performed during the selection and implementation of
a testing tool?
A. Determine whether the organisation existing test process needs to change
B. Conduct a proof of concept
C. Implement the selected tool on a project behind schedule to save time.
D. Identify coaching and mentoring requirements for the use of the selected tool
E. a, b and d

107. Which one of the following is a characteristic of good testing in any lifecycle model?
A. Each test level has the same test objective
B. There should be more testing activities than development activities
C. Test design can only begin when development is complete
D. Testers should begin to review documents as soon as drafts are available

108. Which of the following statements is true?

A. A test condition specifies input values and expected results; a test case combines one or more
test conditions
B. A test condition may be derived from requirements or specifications; a test procedure specifies
the sequence of action for the execution of a test
C. A test case specifies the sequence of execution of test conditions; a test procedure specifies
test pre-conditions and post-conditions
D. A test case specifies input values and expected results; a test procedure may be derived
from requirements or specifications.
109. Which of the following are structure-based techniques?
a) Decision table testing
b) Boundary value analysis.
c) Multiple condition coverage
d) Use case testing
e) Decision testing
A. a and c
B. b and d
C. b and e
D. c and e

110. Which of the following defects would NORMALLY be identified by a static analysis tool?
A. The response time form the search function exceeded the agreed limit
B. The design specification had many grammatical errors
C. The component code had variables that were used but had not been declared
D. The component was found to be the source of the memory leak

111. System test execution on a project is planned for eight weeks. After a week of testing, a tester
suggests that the test objective stated in the test plan of finding as many defects as possible during
system test’ might be more closely met by redirecting the test effort according to which test principle?
A. Impossibility of exhaustive testing
B. Importance of early testing
C. The absence of errors fallacy
D. Defect clustering

112.

Test procedure ID Business Dependencies on other test Other dependencies

Severity procedures
(1 = High
2 = Medium
3 = Low)

P 3 None Delivery of the code this part

of system is running very late

Q 1 None Regression Testing only

R 1 Requires S to be run first None

S 2 None None

T 2 None Regression Testing only

 U 3 None None

The above table shows 6 test procedures (P to U) that must now be entered into a test execution
schedule. Business severity is regarded as the most important element in determining the sequence of
the test procedures, but other dependencies must also be taken into consideration. Regression testing
can only be run once all other tests have completed. Which of the following represents the MOST
effective sequence for the test execution schedule (where the first entry in the sequence is the first
procedure to be run, the second entry is the second to be run and so on)?
A. R,Q,S,T,U,P
B. S,R,P,U,Q,T
C. Q,R,S,T,P,U
D. S,R,U,P,Q,T

113. Given the following decision table:

Rule 1 Rule 2 Rule 3 Rule 4

Conditions

Existing medical condition Yes No No No

Smoker Don’t care Yes No No

Skiing Don’t care Don’t care No Yes

Actions

Insure No Yes Yes Yes

Offer Discount Not No 15% 10%

applicable

What is the expected action for each of the following test cases?
● Joe is a smoker who will be skiing and has an existing medical condition.
● Sue is a non-smoker who does not ski and does not have an existing medical condition.
A. Insure Joe offering no discount, insure Sue offering no discount
B. Insure Joe, offering a 10% discount and insure Sue offering a 10% discount
C. Do not insure Joe and insure Sue offering no discount
D. Do not insure Joe and insure Sue offering a 15% discount

114.

Test procedure ID Business Dependencies on other test Other dependencies

 Severity procedures
(1 = High
2 = Medium
3 = Low)

P 1 Cannot start until R has

completed

Q 1 None Regression Testing only

R 2 None None

S 2 None None

T 3 Delivery of the code this part

of system is running very late

U 3 None None

The above table shows 6 test procedures (P to U) that must now be entered into a test execution
schedule. Business severity is regarded as the most important element in determining the sequence of
the test procedures, but other dependencies must also be taken into consideration. Regression testing
can only be run once all other tests have completed. Which of the following represents the MOST
effective sequence for the test execution schedule (where the first entry in the sequence is the first
procedure to be run, the second entry is the second to be run and so on)?

A. Q,P,S,R,U,T
B. R,S,U,P,Q,T
C. R,P,S,U,T,Q
D. P,Q,R,S,U,T

115. A program level Master Test Plan states that a number of best practices must be adopted for its
project life cycle models, irrespective of whether a sequential or iterative-incremental approach is
adopted for each project. Which of the following life cycle related best practices would you expect to see
in the Master Test Plan?
a) There should be a testing activity that corresponds to each development activity.
b) Each project should have four test levels if using a V-model
c) Test personnel should ensure that they are invited to review requirements and design documents
as soon as draft versions are available.
d) System testing must not be performed by the development teams
A. a and b
B. a and c
C. b and d
D. c and d
116. The flow graph below shows the logic of a program for which 100% statement coverage and
100% decision coverage is required on exit from component testing

The following test case has been run:

Test Case 1 covering path A, B, D, G. Which of the following ADDITIONAL test cases would need to
be written to provide the required coverage?
A. Test Case 2 covering path A, C, D, E, F, E, G
B. Test Case 3 covering path A, B, D, E, G
C. Test Case 4 covering path A, C, D, E, G.
D. Test Case 5 covering path A, C, D, G

117. Which of the following BEST describes a keyword-driven testing approach?

A. Test input and expected results are stored in a table or spreadsheet, so that a single control
script can execute all of the tests in the table
B. Action-words are defined to cover specific interactions in system (e.g, log-on entries) which can
then be used by testers to build their tests
C. Keywords are entered into a test harness to obtain pre-defined test coverage reports
D. The test basis is searched using keywords to help identify suitable test conditions

118. An automated air-conditioner is programmed to turn its heating unit on when the temperature falls below
17oC and to turn its refrigeration unit on when the temperature exceeds 26 oC. The air-conditioner is designed
to operate at temperatures between -10oC and +40oC. Given the above specification, the temperature exceeds
26oC. The air-conditioner is designed to operate at temperatures between -10oC and +40oC. Given the above
specification, which of the following sets of values shows that the equivalence partition test design technique has
been used correctly?
A. -11oC, -1oC, 18oC, 27oC, 51oC
B. -11oC, -1oC, 12oC, 18oC, 27oC, 51oC
C. -11oC, 18oC, 51oC
D. -1oC, 12oC, 18oC, 27oC
119. Which of the following software work products would NOT TYPICALLY be examined using
static analysis techniques?
A. Design specification
B. Component code
C. Software model
D. Test procedure
E. Non- functional requirements specification

120. Which of the following is an example of a product risk?

A. Software that does not perform its intended functions
B. Failure of a third party
C. Problems in defining the right requirements
D. Skill and staff shortages

121. A simple gaming system has been specified as a set of use cases. It has been tested by the
supplier and is now ready for user acceptance testing. The system is assessed as low risk and there is
pressure to release the software into the market as soon as possible. Which of the following test
techniques would be most appropriate for this testing?
A. State transition testing and decision testing
B. Equivalence partitioning and statement testing
C. Use case testing and exploratory testing
D. Decision table testing and exploratory testing

122. Which of the following is a MAJOR task of evaluating exit criteria and reporting?
A. Writing a test summary report for stakeholders
B. Logging the outcome of test execution
C. Repeating test activities as a result of action taken for each discrepancy
D. Evaluating testability of the requirements and system

123. Which one of the following best describes risk-based testing?

A. Testing as much of the system as possible in the time available
B. Targeting testing at the more critical areas of the system
C. Marking full use of formal test case design techniques
D. Fixing as many defects as possible before go-live
E.
F.