ANSWER KEY

Airman Certification Standards Oral Exam

Private Pilot Airplane (PVT)

Stage Check Guide

Time Requirements: Please allow the following times for each stage check

Stage 1: 1 Hour Ground, 2 Hour Flight

Stage 2: 2 Hour Ground, 2 Hour Flight
Stage 3: 2 Hour Ground, 2 Hour Flight

Stage Check Preparation: Students must prepare the following documents for each stage check.

Stage 1: Pre Solo Written Exam, and Maintenance Logs

Stage 2: Weight and Balance, Flight Plan with Weather Brief, and Maintenance Logs
Stage 3: Weight and Balance, Flight Plan with Weather Brief, and Maintenance Logs

Applicability: Each topic with be marked with a 1, 2, 3, or ALL to indicate when a topic should be tested
during training. Questions listed below are examples for what will be asked, but
additional questions can be added as determined by the stage check instructor.

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 Table of Contents

Task A: Pilot Qualifications ..................................................................................................... 3

Task B: Airworthiness Requirements ...................................................................................... 8
Task C. Weather Information ................................................................................................ 14
Task D. Cross-Country Flight Planning (2 & 3) ........................................................................ 22
Task E. National Airspace System .......................................................................................... 23
Task F. Performance and Limitations (3) ............................................................................... 26
Task G. Operation of Systems (ALL)....................................................................................... 28
Task H. Human Factors ......................................................................................................... 32

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Preflight Preparation
Task A: Pilot Qualifications
References: 14 CFR parts 61, 91; FAA-H-8083-2 (Risk Management Handbook), FAA-H-8083-25 (Pilot's
Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge)

Objective: To determine that the applicant exhibits satisfactory knowledge, risk management, and skills
associated with airman and medical certificates including privileges, limitations, currency, and operating
as Pilot-in-Command (PIC) as a private pilot.

Knowledge: The applicant demonstrates understanding of:

1. Currency, regulatory compliance, privileges, and limitations. (ALL)

Q: What qualifies you to be a private pilot?

A: 1. At least 17 years old
2. English Proficient
3. US Student Pilot, Recreational Pilot, or Sport Pilot Certificate
4. Current First, Second, or Third Class Medical Certificate
5. Receive the required endorsements
6. Meet the applicable aeronautical experience requirements
7. Pass the knowledge and practical tests

Q: How long does a student pilot certificate last?

A: It never expires.

Q: When does a private pilot certificate expire?

A: It does not expire, provided the pilot maintains currency.

Q: What must be accomplished for a private pilot to be considered current?

A: 1. A flight review within the preceding 24 calendar months
2. 3 Takeoffs and landings in the same category and class within the preceding
90 days
3. If the airplane has a tail wheel or the flight is to be conducted at night, the 3
takeoffs and landings must be to a full stop.
4. Current Medical

Q: If a private pilot wants to carry passengers, what compensation can they receive?
A: A private pilot may not pay less than pro rata share for the flight.

Q: What are some privileges and limitations for a private pilot?

A: 1. May carry passengers or property, but not for hire.
2. May act as Pilot in Command for a charitable, nonprofit, or community event.
3. May act as PIC in connection with a business as long as it is incidental to the business
and no passengers or cargo are carried for compensation.
4. As an aircraft salesman with over 200 hours of flight time, may demonstrate the
aircraft to potential buyers.

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 5. May tow a glider if the requirements of 14 CFR Part 61.69 are met.

Q: Can a private pilot operate a high performance aircraft? (More than 200 HP)
A: Yes, provided they receive the required training and an endorsement from a CFI.

Q: What about a complex aircraft? (Controllable pitch propeller, retractable landing gear, and
flaps)
A: Yes, provided they receive the required training and an endorsement from a CFI.

Q: What are the requirements for flying a tailwheel airplane, and what is required for currency?
A: FAR 61.31(i) specifies that a CFI must include training on: normal and crosswind takeoffs and
landings, wheel landings, and go around procedures. Upon completion, a one-time
endorsement is put into the logbook. To remain current, a pilot must complete 3 takeoffs and
landings to a full stop within the preceding 90 days.

Q: When is a type rating required?

A: According to FAR 61.31, a type rating is required for:
1. Any aircraft that weighs more than 12,500 lbs. Max Gross Takeoff Weight,
2. Any aircraft with a turbojet/turbofan powerplant, or
3. Any aircraft specified by the Administrator

Q: When a pilot moves to a new permanent address, how long do they have to notify the FAA of
the change of address?
A: 30 days after the move.

2. Location of airman documents and identification required when exercising private pilot
privileges. (ALL)

Q: What personal documents must a private pilot have to conduct a flight?

A: 1. Government issued photo identification (i.e. passport, driver's license, etc.)
2. Pilot certificate
3. Current and applicable medical certificate
4. FCC Restricted radiotelephone operator permit (if the flight is international)

Q: Where must the required documents be located during the flight?

A: The documents must be with the pilot on the flight.

3. The required documents to provide upon inspection. (ALL)

Q: What is a ramp check?

A: An inspection by the FAA to ensure pilots remain in compliance with the Federal Aviation
Regulations.

Q: When may a ramp check occur?

A: Whenever an inspector:
1. Observes an unsafe operation in the traffic pattern or on the ramp,
2. Is notified by ATC of an unsafe operation, or
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 3. Conducts normal surveillance

Q: What documents are required to be presented during an inspection?

A: Pilot certificates, medical certificates, government issued photo id and, if applicable,
logbooks.

Q: What is the inspector authorized to inspect?

A: 1. Airworthiness certificate
2. Aircraft Registration
3. Operating Handbook
4. Weight and Balance Information
5. Minimum Equipment List (if applicable)
6. Aeronautical Charts (if applicable)
7. General airworthiness of the aircraft
8. ELT battery
9. VOR check
10. Seats/safety belts

4. Pilot logbook/record keeping. (ALL)

Q: As a private pilot, what flight time is required to be logged?

A: 1. Flight time toward currency (i.e. flight review, landings etc.…)
2. Training toward an additional certificate or rating

Q: Other than flight time toward certificates, ratings, and currency, what else is kept in
logbooks?
A: Endorsements

5. Compensation (ALL)

Q: If a private pilot wants to carry passengers, what compensation can they receive?
A: A private pilot may not pay less than pro rata share for the flight.

Q: Can a private pilot be reimbursed for operating expenses that are directly related to search
and location operations?
A: Yes, provided the operation is sanctioned and under the direction and control of a local,
state, or federal agency, or an organization that conducts search and location operations.

Q: May a private pilot act as PIC of an aircraft in connection with any business or employment
and receive compensation?
A: Yes, if the flight is only incidental to that business or employment, and the aircraft does not
carry passengers or property for compensation or hire.

6. Towing (ALL)

Q: Can a private pilot tow a glider?

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 A: Yes, provided they obtain glider towing privileges.

Q: What are the requirements for obtaining towing privileges?

A: 1. Hold a private pilot certificate with appropriate category rating
2. Log minimum 100 hours as PIC in same category aircraft used for towing
3. Have a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor certifying the receipt of
ground and flight training in gliders or unpowered ultralight vehicles, and is proficient in
the areas listed in 61.69(a)(3)(i)(ii)(iii) and (iv).
4. Have a logbook endorsement from a pilot that already meets the requirements of
61.69 (c) and (d), who has accompanied the pilot on three flights which has certified
them to have accomplished at least three flights in an aircraft while towing a glider or
unpowered ultralight vehicle, or while simulating towing flight procedures.
5. In the preceding 12 months, performed three simulated or actual tows accompanied
by a qualified pilot or has been towed for three flights in a glider or unpowered
ultralight vehicle.

7. Category and Class (ALL)

Q: As it pertains to the certification of aircraft, what is the category and class of a Cessna 172?
A: A Cessna 172 is a normal category and airplane class.

Q: With respect to airmen, what is a category and class?

A: Airplane, single engine land. Airplane is the category and single engine land is the class.

8. Endorsements (ALL)

Q: What endorsements are required for the private pilot practical test?
A: 1. Aeronautical Knowledge Test (61.35)
2. Deficiencies in the knowledge test (61.39)
3. Flight proficiency/practical test (61.103(f), 61.107(b), and 61.109)

Q: What other endorsements may a private pilot receive?

A: 1. High performance
2. Tail wheel
3. Complex
4. High altitude

9. Medical certificates: class, expiration, privileges, temporary disqualifications. (ALL)

Q: What class of medical is required for a private pilot?

A: Third class

Q: What is the duration of a Third Class medical given to a 25-year-old pilot?

A: 60 Calendar months

Q: What is the duration of a First Class medical given to a 40 year old pilot?

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 A: 24 calendar months. After the first 6, the privileges drop to second class, and after the next
six months, they become third class privileges for 12 calendar months.

Q: Who is authorized to perform medical exams?

A: An FAA-designated Aviation Medical Examiner (AME)

10. Drugs, alcohol regulatory restrictions that affect the pilot's ability to operate safely. (ALL)

Q: How long after drinking alcohol must a pilot wait before operating an airplane?
A: 8 Hours, and must have less than a .04 blood alcohol content (BAC), and must not be under
the influence of alcohol.

Q: Where can a pilot check to see if Over-the-Counter drugs are acceptable?

A: 1. Consult an AME
2. AOPA publishes a database to search medications.
3. FAA website has a list of acceptable medications.
4. Contact an FAA Flight Surgeon

Q: Can a pilot fly with a hangover?

A: While it may have been more than 8 hours, and the BAC may be under .04, this is still
considered "under the influence of alcohol" and would be prohibited.

Risk Management:

1. Distinguishing proficiency versus currency (ALL)

Q: It has been 12 calendar months since your private pilot practical test. Is a pilot legal to fly?
Should they?
A: Legally, yes. Distinguish between proficiency and currency.

Q: Does a checkride for the instrument rating count as a flight review?

A: Yes, passing a checkride counts as a flight review. Any further checkride will also reset the
flight review.

2. Setting personal minimums (ALL)

Q: The wind is gusting to 30 knots and the crosswind component is within the demonstrated
ability of the aircraft. Should you fly? What action could you take to mitigate the risks involved?
A: It is up to you whether or not you feel you can handle the current conditions. To help
mitigate the risks, take a flight instructor up with you to learn how to handle these conditions
and then assess the situation again to see if you can handle it.

Q: What is the importance of personal minimums?

A: Just because the airplane can fly in certain types of weather does not mean the pilot should
or has to fly in it.

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3. Maintaining fitness to fly (ALL)

Q: What is a good checklist to gauge fitness for flight?

A: IMSAFE checklist: 1. Illness
2. Medication
3. Stress
4. Alcohol
5. Fatigue
6. Eating/Emotions

4. Flying unfamiliar aircraft (ALL)

5. Operating with unfamiliar flight display systems or unfamiliar avionics (ALL)

Q: After passing your private pilot check ride in a Cessna 172 with G1000 avionics, can you
legally fly a Piper Warrior with an Avidyne Glass system?
A: Legally, yes. It would be a good idea to fly with someone who is familiar with the aircraft and
the avionics systems before taking the airplane out solo. A private pilot single engine land is
allowed to fly any non-turbojet single engine aircraft that weighs less than 12,500 lbs.

Task B: Airworthiness Requirements

References: 14 CFR Parts 39, 43, 91; FAA-H-8083-2 (Risk Management Handbook), FAA-H-8083-25
(Pilot's Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge)

Objective: To determine that the applicant exhibits satisfactory knowledge, risk management, and skills
associated with airworthiness requirements, including aircraft certificates.

Knowledge: The applicant demonstrates understanding of:

1. General airworthiness requirements and compliance for airplanes (ALL)

a. Certificate location and expiration dates

Q: What aircraft certificates are required to be onboard during a flight?

A: 1. Supplements
2. Placards
3. Airworthiness
4. Registration
5. Radio Permit (if flying internationally)
6. Operating Handbook (POH)
7. Weight and Balance

Q: When does the airworthiness certificate expire?

A: Never, provided the aircraft is kept up to date with all maintenance requirements.

b. Required Inspections
c. Inspection requirements
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 Q: What inspections are required to maintain airworthiness? (AVIATE-A)
A: 1. Annual - performed every 12 calendar months
2. VOR - inspected every 30 days for IFR flight
3. 100 Hour - inspected every 100 hours if the aircraft is for hire
4. Altimeter/Pitot Static System - Inspected every 24 calendar months
5. Transponder - Inspected every 24 calendar months
6. ELT - Inspected every 12 calendar months
Battery - Replaced after 1/2 useful life or 1 hour cumulative use
7. Airworthiness Directives - Complied with

Q: Does an aircraft operated for flight instruction need a 100 hour inspection?
A: Yes. Flight instruction is considered for hire.

Q: Can an annual count as a 100 hour inspection? Can a 100 hour take the place of an annual?
A: An annual inspection can be counted as a 100 hour inspection. The inspections are identical,
but an annual must be signed by an A&P (airframe and powerplant) mechanic with Inspector
Authorization and the 100 hour can be signed by any A&P.

NOTE:
Applicant must be able to locate the aircraft maintenance logs and determine if the required
inspections have been completed and if the aircraft is airworthy.

Q: Paragon does not use the standard 100 hour/annual inspection program; how can we
determine if we are legal?
A: Paragon uses the Cessna/FAA approved phase inspection program. All three phases must be
completed within 12 months or 600 hours to qualify as an annual inspection. The phase one
and phase two alternate every 50 hours and have a +/- 5-hour tolerance.

Q: If a phase one inspection was completed at 1322 hours, what inspection is next and when is it
due?
A: The next inspection would be a phase two inspection assuming that it has been less than 600
hours or 12 months since the last phase three inspection. The phase two inspection would be
due at 1372 hours.

2. Individuals who can perform maintenance on the aircraft, including A&P and IA roles in
aircraft maintenance and inspections (2 & 3)

Q: Who is authorized to sign off the completion of an annual inspection?

A: An A&P mechanic with Instructor Authorization.

3. Pilot-performed preventive maintenance (2 & 3)

Q: Where can a pilot find what items of preventive maintenance may be performed?
A: FAR Part 43 Appendix A, Paragraph C

Q: Can a private pilot remove, install, or repair landing gear tires?

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 A: Yes.

Q: Can a private pilot perform maintenance to fix the flap motor on their personal airplane?
A: No.

4. Equipment requirements for day and night flight for example: flying with inoperative
equipment (approved Minimum Equipment List (MEL), Kinds of Operation Equipment List
(KOEL), VFR and placards). (2 & 3)

Q: What instruments are required for a flight during VFR daytime conditions, and where can this
information be found?
A: The instruments required are found in FAR 91.205(b) and can be arranged in the acronym:
ATOMATO FLAMES.
1. Airspeed Indicator
2. Tachometer for each engine
3. Oil pressure gauge for each engine using pressure system
4. Manifold pressure gauge for each altitude engine
5. Altimeter
6. Temperature gauge for each liquid-cooled engine
7. Oil temperature gauge for each air-cooled engine
8. Fuel gauge indicating the quantity of fuel in each tank
9. Landing gear position indicator
10. Anti-collision lights - for aircraft certificated after March 11, 1996
11. Magnetic direction indicator
12. ELT
13. Seat belts/shoulder harnesses

Q: What instruments are required for a VFR flight at night?

A: These instruments can be found in FAR 91.205(c) and can be arranged in the acronym: FLAPS.
For nighttime operation, all of the VFR day instruments plus the night instruments are required.
1. Fuses - one spare set
2. Landing light - if operated for hire
3. Anti-collision light system
4. Position lights
5. Source of power

Q: What is an MEL?
A: The MEL is the specific inoperative equipment document for a particular make and model
aircraft by serial and registration numbers. It stands for: Minimum equipment list.

Q: Do the Paragon Cessna 172’s have an MEL?

A: No, none of the 172’s in our fleet have an MEL.

Q: What is a Kinds of Operation Equipment List (KOEL)?

A: It is a table that identifies the systems and equipment upon which type certification for each
kind of operation was predicated. Kind of operation means: VFR day, VFR night, IFR day, and IFR

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 night. This table is typically found in chapter two of the POH or AFM. Paragon’s 172 aircraft
operate under a KOEL not 91.205.

Q: What procedure would you use if the beacon light is found to be inoperative during the
preflight of a Cessna 172?
A: This flowchart shows the procedure for determining whether or not the aircraft would be
able to be flown. The aircraft does not have an MEL, the beacon light is not required by the
KOEL, 91.205 does not require the beacon light, and there are no AD's that require the beacon.
The next step would be to deactivate the beacon (if it does not deactivate anything else) and
placard it as inoperative. After this has been completed, the pilot makes the final determination
of airworthiness and, if they decide it does not constitute a hazard, the plane may be flown.

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 Q: Where would you find placards? What are some examples of placards?
A: A complete list of placards can be found in the POH or AFM typically in chapter 2. Placards
are found inside the aircraft in clear view of the occupants. There is a no-smoking placard,
operating limitations for utility and normal category, baggage compartment maximum weight,
etc.

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5. Proving airworthiness (specifics of the aircraft-compliance with Airworthiness Directives or
applicability of Safety Bulletins). (ALL)

Q: Where can you find documentation regarding the required inspections for airworthiness?
A: They can be found in the maintenance logs for the engine, powerplant, and propeller.

Q: What is an airworthiness directive?

A: They are legally enforceable regulations issued by the FAA in accordance with 14 CFR part 39
to correct an unsafe condition in a product.

Q: Where can information regarding compliance with airworthiness directives be found for
Paragon's airplanes?
A: This can be found with the engine, powerplant, and propeller logs specific for the aircraft.

6. Obtaining a special flight permit (ALL)

Q: What can be done if an airplane that is based at an airport without maintenance facilities is
not airworthy to fly?
A: The pilot can apply for a special flight permit, which would allow the aircraft to be flown to a
point for repairs, alterations, or maintenance.

7. Equipment Malfunctions (ALL)

Q: What is the first thing that a pilot should do when equipment has malfunctioned?
A: First and foremost, the pilot should always maintain positive control of the airplane in the
event of any type of emergency or abnormal situation. Only after the pilot has positive control
of the airplane should he utilize the appropriate checklist for the given situation.

Risk Management: The applicant demonstrates the ability to identify, assess and mitigate risks,
encompassing:

1. Inoperative Equipment (2 & 3)

2. Equipment failure during flight (2 & 3)

Q: After you determine a piece of equipment is inoperative but is still airworthy, what course of
action would you take to determine the safety of flight?
A: In order to mitigate risk, you could use the PAVE model, 5P checklist or the risk assessment
matrix to determine the hazards associated with the risk of flying with inoperative equipment.

Q: What is the PAVE model?

A: The PAVE model is used to assess risk factors in all areas of flight operation.
1. Pilot - Currency, personal minimums, documents
2. Aircraft - Documents, required equipment, airworthy
3. EnVironment - Weather, time of day, CFIT
4. External pressures - Passengers influence, desire to get home

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 Q: What is the 5P Model?
A: A method of risk mitigation that stands for:
1. Pilot
2. Plane
3. Passengers
4. Plan
5. Programming

Q: What is another method of assessing risk before a flight?

A: The risk management matrix. It gives probabilities of risk and the severity of the
consequences. Any flight has some level of risk involved. Through a thorough preflight of the
pilot and airplane and conditions of flight, that risk can be negligible to minor and the
probability of something happening is very low. When a pilot skips steps and hurries to get into
the airplane and fly, the risk increases.

Discrepancy records or placards

Task C. Weather Information

References: 14 CFR Part 91; FAA-H-8083-25 (Risk Management Handbook), AC 00-6 (Advisory Circular
00-6), AC 00-45 (Advisory Circular 00-45), AIM

Objective: To determine that the applicant exhibits satisfactory knowledge, risk management, and skills
associated with weather information for a flight under VFR.

Knowledge: The applicant demonstrates understanding of

1. Acceptable sources of weather data for flight planning purposes (ALL)

Q: What are some acceptable sources for obtaining the weather for a flight?
A: 1. Call 1-800-WX-BRIEF and speak to a briefer
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 2. Log on to 1800wxbrief.com and obtain a briefing
3. Aviationweather.gov
4. DUATS
5. FltPlan.com and ForeFlight

Q: What are different types of briefings available?

A: 1. Standard Briefing
2. Abbreviated Briefing
3. Outlook Briefing
4. In-Flight Briefing

2. Weather products required for preflight planning and en-route operations (2 & 3)

Q: What are some weather products that can be used for preflight planning?
A: METARs, TAFs, AIRMETs, SIGMETs, PIREPs, Area Forecasts (FA), Radar Summary Chart,
Weather Depiction Charts, and others.

Q: Decode this METAR and TAF:

A: KFMY 131801Z 20010KT 10SM SCT025 SCT037 BKN065 30/24 A2997 RMK AO2 LTG DSNT NE

KFMY 131739Z 1318/1418 21008KT P6SM VCTS SCT035CB BKN080 BKN250

TEMPO 1318/1322 VRB14G22KT 3SM TSRA BKN025CB
FM132200 21006KT P6SM VCSH SCT035 SCT100 BKN200
FM140100 14004KT P6SM SCT030 SCT100 BKN200
FM140800 14004KT P6SM VCSH SCT015 SCT100 BKN200
FM141400 17006KT P6SM VCTS SCT020CB SCT100 BKN200

Q: What preflight information is required by FAR 91.103? (NWKRAFT)

A: 1. NOTAMs/TFRs
2. Weather
3. Known ATC Delays
4. Runway lengths
5. Alternates
6. Fuel requirements
7. Takeoff/landing performance

3. Current and forecast weather for departure, en route, and arrival phases of flight (2 & 3)

Q: Where can a pilot find current and forecast weather for their flight?
A: 1. Call flight service on 1-800-WX-BRIEF and speak to a briefer
2. Log on to 1800wxbrief.com and obtain a briefing
3. Aviationweather.gov
4. DUATS
5. FltPlan.com and ForeFlight

Q: During the flight, how can a pilot obtain an updated forecast for their destination?

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 A: Pilots may contact 122.2 MHz for En route Flight Advisory Service (EFAS). They may also
monitor HIWAS on select VORs across the country. Until October 1, 2015, Flight Service used to
offer Flight Watch, but that has been consolidated into the universal frequency of 122.2 MHz.

Q: What is HIWAS and how can the frequency be located?

A: It is hazardous in-flight weather advisory service. It can be found by locating a VOR with an H
in the top right corner. It broadcasts over the VOR frequency. Lee County VOR, RSW, has HIWAS
available.

4. Meteorology applicable to the airport, local area, departure, en route, alternate, and
destination of a VFR flight in Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC) to include expected
climate and hazardous conditions such as: (2 & 3)
a. Atmospheric composition and stability

Q: What is the standard temperature lapse rate?

A: -2°C per 1000 feet of altitude

Q: In what layer of the atmosphere is most flight training performed?

A: The troposphere. It is the layer of atmosphere that begins at the surface and goes up to a
height between 4 and 12 miles. Most of the mass of the atmosphere is in the troposphere.

Q: What is atmospheric stability?

A: It is a measure of the atmosphere's tendency to encourage or deter vertical motion.

Q: What types of weather would be expected in moist, unstable air?

A: Thunderstorm activity.

Q: What are the conditions that make up a "standard day?"

A: There are three factors included in the standard day.
1. Sea Level
2. 29.92" Hg / 1013.2 mb
3. 15°C / 59°F
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b. Wind (e.g. crosswind, tailwind, wind shear, etc) (ALL)

Q: What can a pilot use to determine the crosswind component of the total wind?
A: The wind component chart, which can be found in the performance section of the Pilot's
Operating Handbook. The chart looks like this:

Q: What is wind shear?

A: It is a change in wind speed and/or direction over a short distance. It can either occur
horizontally or vertically and is often associated with strong temperature inversions or density
gradients.

Q: Where can wind shear be found?

A: It can occur at high or low altitudes.

Q: Where would the most dangerous encounter with wind shear occur?
A: During the critical phases of flight when the aircraft is near the ground.

c. Temperature (2 & 3)

Q: What significance does the temperature have in flight planning?

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 A: Temperature affects the density altitude. In a high temperature situation, the aircraft likely
will not perform as well as it would on a standard day. Taking this into consideration, short field
takeoff distances will be increased and climb rates will be reduced.

Q: What is density altitude?

A: It is pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature.

d. Moisture/Precipitation (2 & 3)

Q: What is the temperature/dew point spread called?

A: Relative Humidity

Q: Why would a pilot want to know if there is precipitation along their route of flight?
A: Depending upon the altitude and part of the country the flight is conducted in, rain could turn
into ice on the wings.

e. Weather system formation, including air masses and fronts (2 & 3)

Q: What are the general air flow characteristics of a low pressure system? A high pressure
system?
A: Low Pressure: inward, upward, and counter clockwise
High Pressure: outward, downward, and clockwise

Q: What is an air mass?

A: It is a body of air with horizontally uniform temperature, humidity, and pressure.

Q: How are air masses classified?

A: They are classified according to their temperature and moisture characteristics. For the
United States, they are classified as:

1. Continental Polar - cold, dry air mass

2. Maritime Polar - cold, moist air mass
3. Continental Tropical - warm, dry air mass
4. Maritime Tropical - warm, moist air mass

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 Q: What is a front?
A: The boundary between two air masses. They are classified by which type of air mass is
replacing the other.

Q: What is an occluded front?

A: An occluded front occurs when a cold front overtakes a warm front. On a weather chart, it
looks like this:

f. Clouds (2 & 3)

Q: How are clouds classified?

A: They are classified by their height, physical appearance, and whether or not they produce
precipitation. Their names are usually combinations of the following:

1. Cirro - high
2. Alto - middle
3. Stratus - layer, sheet like, low
4. Cumulus - Heap-like, puffy
5. Nimbus - clouds producing precipitation
Clouds are named with combinations of these, such as "nimbostratus, cirro-stratus, or
cumulonimbus."

g. Turbulence (2 & 3)

Q: Where can a pilot look to find information regarding turbulence on the route of their flight?
A: Pireps will have information from other pilots about turbulence. The winds and temperature
aloft charts can show where the wind direction changes and can cause turbulence.

Q: If turbulence is experienced on a flight, what airspeed should the airplane maintain?

A: Design maneuvering speed, or Va.

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 Q: What are some types of turbulence?
A: 1. Convective - caused by vertical currents of air rising from differential surface heating
2. Mechanical - occurs when an obstruction to the wind impedes the normal flow of the
wind
3. Wind shear - arises from frontal zones, sea breeze fronts, thunderstorms, etc.
4. Clear air turbulence (CAT) - can occur at any altitude due to convective currents,
obstruction to wind flow, wind shear, or any combination of these.

h. Thunderstorms (2 & 3)

Q: What three basic ingredients are required for the formation of a thunderstorm?
A: Moisture, rising unstable air, and a lifting action.

Q: What are the three stages of a thunderstorm?

A: Developing stage, mature stage, and dissipating stage?

Q: What hazards could be encountered by flying through a thunderstorm during the mature
stage?
A: Strong winds pushing upward, heavy rain, potential hail, and possible tornadoes.

i. Icing and freezing level information (2 & 3)

Q: What is the significance of the freezing level?

A: The freezing level is where the outside temperature is at 0°C, the freezing point of water.

Q: What hazard can occur if an airplane flies through a cloud at an altitude above the freezing
level?
A: Icing can occur. Icing adds weight to the airplane and makes it less aerodynamic.

Q: What are the types of icing?

A: 1. Clear
2. Rime
3. Mixed
4. Induction

Q: What types of anti-ice or deice does a Cessna 172 have?

A: Pitot heat

Q: If icing occurs during a flight, what should a pilot do?

A: 1. Move to an altitude with significantly colder temperatures
2. Move to an altitude with temperatures above freezing
3. Fly to an area clear of visible moisture
4. Change the heading, and fly to an area of known non-icing conditions

j. Fog (2 & 3)

Q: What are some types of fog?

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 A: 1. Radiation fog
2. Advection fog
3. Upslope fog
4. Freezing fog

Q: What type of fog is created on calm, clear nights?

A: Radiation fog.

k. Frost (2 & 3)

Q: What is frost?
A: It is the coating or deposit of ice that may form in humid air in cold conditions, usually
overnight.

l. METARs and TAFs (ALL)

Q: For how long is a TAF valid?

A: 24-30 Hours, depending upon the airport.

Q: How often are TAFs issued?

A: Four times daily at 0000z, 0600z, 1200z, and 1800z.

Q: How often are METARs issued?

A: Hourly, unless a special issuance is deemed necessary.

Q: What does +TSRA mean on a METAR?

A: Thunderstorm with heavy rain.

Q: What does TAF mean?

A: Terminal Aerodrome Forecast

m. Weather related charts (2 & 3)

Q: What are some weather related charts that a pilot can use for flight planning?
A: Radar summary chart, weather depiction chart, prognostic charts, surface analysis chart, low
level significant weather chart, etc

n. Weather Advisories (2 & 3)

Q: Where can pilots receive weather advisories?

A: Select VORs with HIWAS, center weather advisories, Flight Service Stations

o. PIREPs (2 & 3)

Q: What does PIREP mean?

A: It is a pilot report.

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 Q: What is the difference between UA and UUA?
A: UA is a standard pirep and UUA is an urgent pirep.

5. En route weather resources (2 & 3)

Q: What are some weather resources along the route of flight?

A: Flight service stations, air traffic control, HIWAS, ATIS/AWOS/ASOS at nearby airports,
NEXRAD radar in the airplane (not to be used to fly between storms, but for reference), etc.

6. Cockpit displays of digital weather and aeronautical information (2 & 3)

Q: What are some ways that weather information is shown inside the airplane on the avionics?
A: There is a wind inset that shows direction and strength of winds. There is an option on the
MFD to display local METARs and TAFs. XM Lightning and NEXRAD radar can show storm paths.

7. Season weather phenomena (2 & 3)

Q: What are some seasonal phenomena that occur in southwest Florida?

A: Hurricane season is typically during the summer and fall. Daily thunderstorms occur during
the summer months. During the winter, it rains less and wildfires start. This can cause reduced
visibility.

Risk Management: The applicant demonstrates the ability to identify assess and mitigate risks,
encompassing:

1. Factors involved in determining a valid go/no-go decision

2. Dynamic weather affecting flight
3. The limitations of weather equipment
4. The limitations of aviation weather reports and forecasts
5. The limitations of inflight aviation weather resources
6. Identification of alternate airports along the intended route of flight and circumstances that would
make diversion prudent
7. Identification of weather conditions that may increase or reduce risk for the planned flight
8. Establishing personal weather minimums based on the parameters of the flight, e.g. ceilings, visibility,
cross-wind component, etc.), and determining when existing and/or forecast weather conditions exceed
these minimums

Task D. Cross-Country Flight Planning (2 & 3)

References: 14 CFR part 91; FAA-H-8083-2 (Risk Management Handbook), FAA-H-8083-25 (Pilot's
Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge); Navigation Charts; Chart Supplements U.S.; AIM; NOTAMs

Objective: To determine that the applicant exhibits satisfactory knowledge, risk management, and skills
associated with cross-country flights and VFR flight planning.

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This section should be evaluated based upon an individual cross country flight. It should asses the
following areas of knowledge:

Knowledge: The applicant demonstrates understanding of:

1. Route planning, including consideration of special use airspace

2. Applying universal coordinated time (UTC) to flight planning
3. Converting and calculating time relative to time zones and estimated time of arrival
4. Calculating time, climb and descent rates, course, distance, heading, true airspeed, and ground speed
5. Fuel planning
6. Altitude selection accounting for terrain and obstacles, glide distance of the aircraft, VFR cruising
altitude, and the effect of wind
7. Conditions conducive to icing
8. Symbology found on VFR charts including airspace, obstructions and terrain features
9. Elements of a VFR flight plan
10. Procedures for activating and closing a VFR flight plan in controlled and non-controlled airspace
11. Seasonal weather phenomena

Risk Management: The applicant demonstrates the ability to identify, assess and mitigate risks,
encompassing:

1. The pilot
2. The aircraft
3. The environment
4. External pressures
5. Lack of appropriate training when flight is planned in an area different from the pilot's local area, such
as in mountains, congested airspace, or location with different weather and topography
6. The tendency to complete the flight in spite of adverse change in conditions
7. Failure to select the appropriate VFR altitude for the direction of flight
8. Limitations of ATC services
9. Improper fuel planning
10. A route overflying significant environmental influences, such as mountains or large bodies of water
11. Flight in areas unsuitable for landing or below personal minimums
12. Seasonal weather patterns

Task E. National Airspace System

References: 14 CFR parts 71, 91, 93; FAA-H-8083-2 (Risk Management Handbook), Navigation Charts;
AIM

Objective: To determine that the applicant exhibits satisfactory knowledge, risk management, and skills
associated with the National Airspace System operating under VFR as a private pilot.

Knowledge: The applicant demonstrates understanding of:

1. Types of airspace/airspace classes and basic VFR weather minimums (ALL)

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 Q: What are the classes of airspace?
A: A, B, C, D, E, G

Q: Which airspace is uncontrolled?

A: Class G airspace

Q: What are the basic VFR weather minimums for each class of airspace?
A: This chart has the weather minimums for each class of airspace.

Q: What are the Class G airspace weather minimums?

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ANSWER KEY 11/15/2018
 A: At altitudes below 1200' AGL:
1. Day - 1 Statute mile, clear of clouds
2. Night - 3 Statute miles, 500' below, 1,000' above, 2,000' horizontal
At altitudes above 1200' AGL and below 10,000’ MSL:
1. Day - 1 Statute mile, 500' below, 1,000' above, 2,000' horizontal
2. Night - 3 Statute miles, 500' below, 1,000' above, 2,000' horizontal

2. Charting symbology - Use a sectional chart for this part. (2 & 3)

3. Operating rules, pilot certification, and airplane equipment requirements for flying in
different classes of airspace (2 & 3)

Q: What does a pilot need to operate an aircraft in Class A airspace?

A: An instrument rating, and aircraft certified for IFR flying, and an instrument flight plan

Q: Before operating in Class B airspace, what four things must a pilot have?
A: 1. Mode C Transponder
2. Discrete Code
3. Two-Way radio communication
4. Clearance

Q: Is a transponder required for flight into Class D airspace?

A: No.

Q: What minimum pilot certification is required for operating in Class B airspace?

A: Private pilot, unless a specific endorsement is given to a student pilot for a particular Class B
airspace.

4. Special use, special flight rules areas, and other airspace areas (2 & 3)

Q: What are some types of special use airspace?

A: 1. Restricted Airspace
2. Prohibited Airspace
3. Warning Area
4. Air Defense Identification Zone (ADIZ)
5. Military Operations Area (MOA)
6. Flight Restricted Zone (FRZ)

Q: What is a Special Flight Rules Area?

A: It is an area in which the normal regulations of flight do not apply in whole or in part,
especially concerning airspace classification.

Q: Where can a pilot find an SFRA?

A: Washington, DC, New York City, and Los Angeles all have SFRAs.

Q: Can a flight be operated through a restricted area?

A: Yes, if the controlling agency has been contacted and permission has been given.
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5. Temporary Flight Restrictions (2 & 3)

Q: What is a temporary flight restriction (TFR)?

A: It is a type of Notice to Airmen (NOTAM) that defines an area restricted to air travel due to a
hazardous condition, a special event, or a general warning for the entire FAA airspace.

6. Aircraft speed limitations in various classes of airspace (2 & 3)

Q: What is the maximum speed an aircraft may fly under 10,000 ft?
A: 250 kts indicated airspeed unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC.

Q: What is the speed limit when operating beneath the shelf of a Class B airspace?
A: 200 kts indicated airspeed

Q: Within a Class D airspace, what is the maximum speed at which an aircraft may operate?
A: 200 kts indicated airspeed

Risk Management: The applicant demonstrates the ability to identify, assess and mitigate risks,
encompassing:

1. Various classes of airspace.

2. Maintaining VFR at night
3. Special use airspace
4. Compliance with or avoidance of specific en route airspace

Task F. Performance and Limitations (3)

References: FAA-H-8083-1 (Weight and Balance Handbook), FAA-H-8083-2 (Risk Management

Handbook), FAA-H-8083-3 (Airplane Flying Handbook), FAA-H-8083-25 (Pilot's Handbook of Aeronautical
Knowledge); POH/AFM

Objective: To determine that the applicant exhibits satisfactory knowledge, risk management, and skills
associated with operating an aircraft safely within the parameters of its performance capabilities and
limitations.

Knowledge: This should be covered on a specific aircraft and day's weather to assess the understanding
of the elements of performance. Be sure to calculate weight and balance for the aircraft. The applicant
demonstrates understanding of:

1. Elements related to performance and limitations (3) (e.g. takeoff and landing, crosswind,
tailwind and headwind, density altitude, glide performance, weight and balance, climb, cruise, descent,
powerplant considerations) by explaining the use of charts, tables, and data to determine performance.

Q: What is the crosswind component if the wind is 020 @ 25 knots and runway 5 is the active?
A: 13 knots crosswind

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 Q: What is included in basic empty weight?
A: The airframe, engine, and all items of operating equipment that have fixed locations and are
permanently installed in the aircraft. Includes hydraulic fluid, unusable fuel, and undrainable oil.

Q: What is the Arm?

A: The horizontal distance in inches from the reference datum line to the center of gravity of the
item.

Q: Where is the weight and balance data located for your airplane and how can you tell if it is
correct?
A: The weight and balance data can be found in the AFM located in the aircraft. The weight and
balance in the printed POH and Maneuvers Manual is only information and not actual. The weight
and balance must have a signature of an A&P certifying it is accurate.

2. Factors affecting performance to include atmospheric conditions, pilot technique, aircraft

condition, and airport environment. (3)

Q: What effect does an increase in density altitude have on takeoff and landing performance?
A: The pilot can expect an increased takeoff distance, reduced rate of climb, increased true
airspeed on approach and landing, and an increased landing roll distance.

Q: Can the condition of the aircraft and aircraft environment effect the performance of a 172?
A: The performance numbers in the POH are based on a perfect/new 172 flown by a
professional pilot in a controlled environment. Great care should be taken when flying near
book numbers. For example, if the POH shows you able to take off in 550’, don’t attempt a
takeoff from a 600’ runway.

3. The effects of loading on performance (3)

Q: How can an aircraft that is loaded overweight effect the performance of the plane?
A: Anytime you operate outside of the limitations of the POH you are instantly a test pilot. The
aircraft can become uncontrollable and impossible to maintain controlled flight. The pilot can
expect higher takeoff speed, longer takeoff run, reduced rate of climb, lower maximum altitude,
shorter range, reduce cruising speed, reduced maneuverability, higher stalling speed, higher
landing speed, longer landing roll, and excessive weight on the nose wheel.

4. The effects of exceeding weight and balance limits (3)

Q: What can the pilot expect if the aircraft is loaded outside the CG limits of the airplane?
A: CG has a great effect of the performance of the plane. If the CG is too far aft, the pilot can
expect a lower stall speed, higher cruise speed and a less stable airplane. If the aircraft is loaded
too far forward, the pilot can expect a higher stall speed, slower cruise speed, more stable
airplane, and greater back elevator pressure required.

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5. The effects of weight and balance changes over the course of the flight (3)

Q: During flight can the CG move outside of allowable limits?

A: Yes, fuel burn can cause the CG to more forward or aft outside of the allowable limits. If you
only verify that you are in CG during takeoff, you are not guaranteed to be in limits at landing.

Q: What is the purpose of calculating Zero Fuel Weight?

A: Zero fuel weight is used for two reasons. The first purpose allows you to determine how
much fuel can be carried with a predetermined aircraft load. The second purpose allows you to
determine if all your fuel was burned would the CG move outside of the allowable limits? To
make this determination, calculate the Takeoff weight and Zero Fuel weight. Plot both points on
the CG chart and draw a line between both. If the line remains inside the CG envelope at all
times you will never be outside of CG limits.

6. Aerodynamics (3)

Q: What are the four dynamic forces that act on an airplane?

A: Lift, weight, thrust and drag

Q: What is angle of attack?

A: The angle of attack is the angle between the wing cord line and the direction of relative wind.

Q: What is load factor?

A: Load factor is the ratio of the total load supported by the airplane’s wing to the actual weight
of the airplane. The load factor is measured in times of gravity or G’s. In this case the weight of
the airplane is equal to 1G, and if a load of three times the actual weight of the airplane was
imposed upon the wing due to curved flight, the load factor would be equal to 3G’s.

Risk Management: The applicant demonstrates the ability to identify, assess and mitigate risks,
encompassing:

1. Performance charts
2. Limitations
3. Variations in flight performance resulting from weight and balance changes during flight
4. Published aircraft performance data as it relates to expected performance

Task G. Operation of Systems (ALL)

References: FAA-H-8083-2 (Risk Management Handbook), FAA-H-8083-3 (Airplane Flying Handbook),

FAA-H-8083-25 (Pilot's Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge), POH/AFM

Objective: To determine that the applicant exhibits satisfactory knowledge, risk management, and skills
associated with the safe operation of systems on the airplane provided for the flight test.

Knowledge: The applicant demonstrates understanding of:

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1. Major components of the systems: (ALL)

a. Primary Flight Controls and Trim (ALL)

Q: What are the primary flight controls?

A: Elevator, rudder, and ailerons

Q: What is the purpose of trim?

A: It alleviates the control pressures required by the pilot and prevents them from having to
exert constant pressure on the pitch controls.

b. Flaps, leading edge devices, and spoilers as appropriate (ALL)

Q: What type of flaps does a Cessna 172 have?

A: Single slot flaps

Q: What is the purpose of flaps?

A: Flaps produce greater lift which allows a lower landing speed, a steeper descent angle
without an airspeed increase, and reduces the length of the takeoff or landing roll.

c. Powerplant and propeller (basic engine knowledge) (ALL)

Q: What type of engine does the 172 have?

A: The 172 has a Lycoming IO-360-L2A. The engine is horizontally opposed, direct drive, air
cooled, fuel injected and normally aspirated.

Q: What does direct drive mean?

A: The propeller is connected directly to the crankshaft.

Q: What does Lycoming IO-360 mean?

A: 1. Lycoming is the maker
2. I means fuel injected
3. O means the cylinders are horizontally opposed
4. 360 means there are 360 cubic inches of displacement

Q: How much horsepower does the engine of the Cessna 172 produce?
A: 180 horsepower at 2700 rpm

Q: What type of propeller is installed on the Cessna 172?

A: McCauley, two blade, metal, fixed pitch propeller

d. Landing gear (ALL)

Q: What type of landing gear is installed on the Cessna 172?

A: Tricycle type fixed landing gear with a steerable nose wheel

e. Fuel, oil, and hydraulic (ALL)

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 Q: What is the total fuel capacity of the Cessna 172? What amount is usable?
A: There are two 28 gallon tanks in the wings. The total amount of fuel is 56 gallons. There are 3
gallons of unusable fuel, so the total usable fuel is 53 gallons.

Q: What type of fuel is approved for the Cessna 172? What color is the fuel?
A: 100/100LL fuel. The 100 is green and 100LL is blue.

Q: What is the total capacity of oil in the Cessna 172? How much is required by Paragon for a
flight?
A: The total capacity is 8 quarts. The airplane is required to have 5 quarts. When it reaches 5
quarts we add a quart to make the oil 6 quarts for flight.

Q: When someone says the fuel is "at the tabs," what does that mean?
A: The airplane is fueled to the bottom of the fuel filler tab, which means 17.5 gallons usable in
each tank or 35 gallons usable.

Q: How many fuel pumps does the aircraft have?

A: The plane has a total of 2 fuel pumps: Engine driven and electrical.

Q: What kind of brakes are installed in the airplane?

A: Single disc, hydraulically actuated brakes on each main landing gear wheel. Each brake is
connected to a master cylinder attached to each of the pilot's rudder pedals.

f. Electrical (ALL)

Q: The electrical system is a 28-volt direct current system with a belt-driven 60 ampere
alternator with a 24-volt main storage battery and a 24-volt standby battery. Why is the battery
a lower voltage than the system?
A: The alternator charges the battery, so it needs to be a higher voltage.

Q: What is the purpose of the standby battery?

A: It supplies power to the Essential Bus in the event that the alternator and main battery
sources have failed.

Q: If the alternator and battery both fail, will the engine stop?
A: No. The engine runs independently on magnetos and does not require electrical power to
run.

Q: If the alternator fails during flight, how would a pilot know?

A: The first thing that would be noticed would be the discharge on the battery amps. Then
there would be a “LOW VOLTS” annunciator light that comes on the PFD once the battery has
discharged slightly.

g. Avionics (ALL)

Q: What avionics are installed in Paragon's Cessna 172s?

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 A: Garmin G1000 glass panel

Q: What does AHRS mean?

A: Attitude and Heading Reference System

h. Pitot-static, vacuum/pressure and associated flight instruments (2 & 3)

Q: What instruments receive information from the pitot-static system?

A: 1. Airspeed indicator - both pitot tube and static port
2. Altimeter - static port
3. Vertical Speed Indicator - static port

Q: What interprets the information from the pitot tube and static port?
A: Air Data Computer (ADC)

Q: What information does the AHRS show?

A: Attitude and heading

Q: If the vacuum pump fails, what instruments would we lose?

A: We would only lose the standby attitude indicator.

Q: What is the flux valve under the left wing?

A: That is the magnetometer for the heading information. It interacts with the AHRS.

i. Environmental (ALL)

Q: How does the cabin heat work?

A: Heat from the exhaust gas manifold heats the air before it enters the cabin.

j. Deicing and anti-icing (3)

Q: What is the difference between anti-ice and deice?

A: Anti-ice prevents any ice from accumulating and deice removes it once it has formed

Q: On the Cessna 172, is there any deice or anti-ice system?

A: The pitot heat can work as either. If there is ice in the system, the heat works as deice. If
there is a chance for ice to build up, the heat can prevent ice.

2. Normal Operation of Systems (ALL)

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3. Common errors made by pilots (ALL)

4. Abnormal operation of systems (recognition of system failures/malfunctions) (ALL)

5. Systems interaction and pilot monitoring of automated systems (ALL)

Risk Management: The applicant demonstrates the ability to identify, assess and mitigate risks,
encompassing:

1. Mishandling a system failure

2. Troubleshooting system failures/malfunctions
3. Mismanagement of airplane systems, which can cause a problem or system failure
4. Determining and/or declaring an emergency
5. Failure to identify system malfunctions or failures
6. Outside/environmental factors affecting the systems, including improper fueling,
carburetor ice, extremely cold temperatures, and vapor lock
7. Detection and management of threats and errors
8. Ineffective monitoring of automation

Task H. Human Factors

References: FAA-H-8083-2 (Risk Management Handbook), FAA-H-8083-25 (Pilot's Handbook of

Aeronautical Knowledge), AIM

Objective: To determine that the applicant exhibits satisfactory knowledge, risk management, and skills
associated with personal health, flight physiology, aeromedical and human factors, as it relates to safety
of flight.

Knowledge: The applicant demonstrates understanding of:

1. The symptoms, recognition, causes, effects, and corrective actions associated with
aeromedical and physiological issues including: (ALL)

a. Hypoxia

Q: What is hypoxia?
A: It is a deficiency in the amount of oxygen that reaches the tissues

Q: What are the four types of hypoxia?

A: 1. Hypoxic
2. Stagnant
3. Histotoxic
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 4. Hypemic

Q: When is supplemental oxygen required in a non-pressurized aircraft?

A: 1. Above 12,500 feet - after 30 minutes, the required flight crew must have oxygen
2. Above 14,000 feet – the required flight crew for the entire time the aircraft is
operated above 14,000
3. Above 15,000 feet - everyone must be provided with oxygen for the entire duration of
the flight above 15,000 feet

b. Hyperventilation

Q: What is hyperventilation?
A: It is a deficiency in carbon dioxide

Q: What is a way to stop someone from hyperventilating?

A: Have them focus on something different. Ask them to read the checklist or tell a story to get
their mind off of whatever is causing them to hyperventilate.

c. Middle ear and sinus problems

Q: Why is it recommended to not fly with an ear infection?

A: The Eustachian tubes in the ear become clogged with fluid and the pressure can cause severe
pain, and even possibly damage eardrums.

d. Spatial disorientation

Q: What is spatial disorientation?

A: It is the inability of a person to correctly determine their body position in space.

Q: What are some examples of illusions that can occur when spatial disorientation occurs?
A: 1. Somatogravic Illusion
2. Inversion Illusion
3. Head-up Illusion
4. The Leans
5. Graveyard Spiral/Spin

Q: How can a pilot prevent spatial disorientation?

A: Learn to fly with instruments and trust their indications.

e. Motion sickness

Q: What causes motion sickness?

A: It is caused by the brain receiving conflicting signals about the state of the body

Q: What should a pilot do if a passenger is suspected to be suffering from motion sickness?

A: Open the air vents, loosen clothing, keep eyes on something outside, and avoid unnecessary
head movements. The flight should be terminated as soon as practicable.

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f. Carbon monoxide poisoning

Q: What is carbon monoxide poisoning?

A: Carbon monoxide is a tasteless, colorless, odorless gas that can significantly reduce the ability
of the blood to carry oxygen. This can lead to the effects of hypoxia to occur.

Q: What action should be taken if a pilot suspects carbon monoxide poisoning?

A: Turn off the heater, open the vents, and land as soon as possible and seek medical treatment

g. Stress and fatigue

Q: What are two types of fatigue?

A: 1. Acute - intense mental workload or physical activity causes acute fatigue
2. Chronic - accumulates over time due to lack of sleep, stress, jet lag

Q: What are the dangers of flying an airplane while fatigued?

A: A fatigued pilot may not notice errors until it is too late to fix them.

h. Dehydration and nutrition

Q: What are some common symptoms of dehydration?

A: Dehydration presents with headache, fatigue, cramps, sleepiness, and dizziness

i. Hypothermia

Q: What is hypothermia?
A: It is the condition of having an abnormally low body temperature

j. Optical Illusions

Q: What is autokinesis?
A: At night in conditions with poor visual cues, a stationary object appears to be in motion

Q: What is the down sloping terrain illusion?

A: Flying a final approach over a down sloping terrain with a flat runway may produce the visual
illusion of being too low and cause the pilot to fly the approach higher than necessary.

Q: What may occur if a pilot flies into an airport with a narrow runway?
A: The narrow runway can make the pilot seem higher than normal and cause them to fly the
approach lower than appropriate.

Q: What can occur if the pilot is unable to clearly see the horizon?
A: The pilot may align the airplane with a banked cloud or some terrain that is not level. If the
pilot does not use the instruments, the situation can lead to a graveyard spiral.

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2. The effects of alcohol, drugs, and over-the-counter medications, and associated regulations
(ALL)

Q: How long after drinking alcohol may a pilot operate an aircraft?

A: 8 Hours, provided their BAC is under .04% and they are no longer under the influence

Q: Where can questions regarding medication use before flying be directed?

A: The best person to ask about medications is an Aviation Medical Examiner (AME)

3. The effects of dissolved nitrogen in the bloodstream of a pilot or passenger in flight

following scuba diving (ALL)

Q: How long after a Scuba dive should someone fly in an airplane above 8,000 feet?
A: 24 hours

Q: What is decompression sickness?

A: It is a condition that results when nitrogen bubbles form in the tissues of the body and can
cause pain in the muscles and joints, cramps, numbness, nausea, and paralysis.

4. The effects of hazardous attitudes on aeronautical decision making (ALL)

Q: What are the five hazardous attitudes and their antidotes?

A:

5. Collision avoidance, scanning, obstacle and wire strike avoidance (ALL)

Q: During a daytime flight, what is the recommended collision avoidance scan?

A: Split the sky into segments and focus on small portions to check for movement, and then
move to the next segment.

Q: During flight in visual meteorological conditions, who has the responsibility for collision
avoidance?
A: The pilot in command of each aircraft in the area operates under the "see and avoid"
principle

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6. The pilot/airplane interface to include: pilot monitoring duties and the interaction with
charts and avionics equipment (ALL)

Q: How can a pilot mitigate the risk associated with the "Programming" factor?
A: The pilot should take the time to learn how to use the avionics and programming in the
airplane. A flight with passengers should not be the first time the pilot has experienced the
programming in a specific airplane.

Risk Management: The applicant demonstrates the ability to identify, assess and mitigate risks
encompassing:

1. The impact of environmental factors on medication’s physiological effects

2. Personal risk factors and the conflict between being goal oriented and adhering to personal
limitations
3. Optical illusions
4. The circumstances of the flight (day/night, hot/cold) that affect the pilot’s physiology
5. Continued VFR flight into Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IMC)
6. Hazardous attitudes
7. Failure to detect and manage threats and errors associated with human factors
8. Ineffective monitoring of automation
9. Distractions

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ANSWER KEY 11/15/2018