April 8 2
April 8 2
2023
COMPUTER BASED TEST (CBT)
Questions & Solutions
Date: 08 April, 2023 (SHIFT-2) | TIME : (03.00 p.m. to 06.00 p.m)
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SUBJECT: MATHEMATICS
PART : MATHEMATICS
1. The area of the quadrilateral ABCD with vertices
A (2, 1, 1), B(1, 2, 5), C (–2, –3, 5) and D(1, –6, –7) is equal toss
(1) 8 38 (2) 48 (3) 54 (4) 9 38
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans. (1)
Sol. AC 4 î 4 ĵ 4k̂
BD 0 î 8 ĵ 12k̂
1 1
Area = | AC BD | 4 4 52 32 22
2 2
Area = 8 38
2. The value of 36 (4 cos29° – 1)(4 cos227° – 1)(4 cos2 81° – 1) (4 cos2 243° –1) is
(1) 27 (2) 18 (3) 54 (4) 36
NTA Ans. (4)
Reso Ans. (4)
Sol. 36(4cos2 9°–1) (4sin2 9°–1) (4cos2 27°–1) (4sin2 27°–1)
36 16 sin2 9 cos2 9 4 1 16 sin2 27 cos2 27 4 1
364 sin 18 34 sin 54 3
2 2
2
2
5 1 5 1 3
36 4 3 4
4 4
6 2 5 12 6 2 5 12
36
4 4
9 3 5 3 5
9(9–5) = 36
1 2is in
3. Let A = (0, 2) : is purely im aginary The sum of elements in A is
1 – i s in
(1) (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
NTA Ans. (4)
Reso Ans. (4)
1 2i s in 1 i s in
Sol. Re 0
1 i s in 1 s in
1–2sin2 = 0
1
sin= ±
2
3 5 7
, , ,
4 4 4 4
Sum is 4
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| JEE(Main) 2023 | DATE : 08-04-2023 (SHIFT-2) | PAPER-1 | MATHEMATICS
4. If the probability that the random variable X take values x is given by
P(X = x) = k (x + 1)3–x, x = 0, 1, 2, 3, ……, where k is a constant, then P(X ≥ 2) is
20 7 7 11
(1) (2) (3) (4)
27 18 27 18
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)
Sol. P(x = 0) + P(x = 1) + p(x = 2) + p(x = 3) +……. = 1
K 2K 3K 4K
........ 1
3º 31 3 2 3 3
2 3 4
K 1 2 3 ...... 1
3 3 3
Now
2
Let S = 1 ....
3 3 2 33
S 1 2 3
0 2 3 ....
3 3 3 3
2S 1 1 1
1 2 3 ....
3 3 3 3
1
1
1
3
3 3 9
S=
2 2 4
9
Now K. 1
4
4
K
9
Now P(x 2) = P(2) + P(3) + …….
= 1 – P(0) – P(1)
K 2K 5K
=1– = 1
1 3 3
20 7
1
27 27
5. For a, b Z and a – b ≤ 10, let the angle between the plane P : ax + y – z = b and the line l : x – 1 = a –
1
y = z + 1 be cos–1 if the distance of the point (6, –6, 4) from the plane P is 3 6 , then a4 + b2 is equal
3
to
(1) 32 (2) 25 (3) 48 (4) 85
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans. (1)
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| JEE(Main) 2023 | DATE : 08-04-2023 (SHIFT-2) | PAPER-1 | MATHEMATICS
Sol. ax+y–z=b
x 1 y a z 1
1 1 1
n a î ĵ k̂
p î ĵ k̂
n.p
sin=
np
a 1 1 2 2
a 2 3
2 3
equal to
(1) 11280 (2) 11290 (3) 11310 (4) 11260
NTA Ans. (2)
Reso Ans. (2)
Sol; Sn = 5+8+14+23+35+………+an + an
Sn = 5+8 +14+23
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| JEE(Main) 2023 | DATE : 08-04-2023 (SHIFT-2) | PAPER-1 | MATHEMATICS
3 30 31 61 3 30 31
a30 6 5 30
2 2 2 2
30 30 31 6 1
= 150
2 6 2
= 13635
S30 – q40 = 11290
nn 1 5
3
an =
2
nn 1n 1 5n
3 1
Sn =
2 3
1 3
S30 – a40 = 30 29 31 150 – 40 39 – 5
2 2
= 11290
7. Let A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7}. Then the relation R = {(x, y) A × A : x + y = 7} is
(1) reflexive but neither symmetric nor transitive
(2) transitive but neither symmetric nor reflexive
(3) symmetric but neither reflexive nor transitive
(4) an equivalence relation
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)
Sol. Reflexive :- xRx x + x = 7. x A, R is not reflexive.
Symmetric :- xRy x + y = 7. y + x = 7 yRx R is symmetric
Transitive :- 1R6 & 6 R 1 but 1 is not related to 1 so not transitive
11
1
8. The absolute difference of the coefficients of x10 and x7 in the expansion of 2x 2 is equal to
2x
(1) 103 – 10 (2) 133 – 13 (3) 113 – 11 (4) 123 – 12
NTA Ans. (4)
Reso Ans. (4)
Sol. Tr+1 = Cr (2x2) 11 – r(2x)–r
11
11 26 11 27
abs . diff. = C5 . – C 4 .
25 24
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| JEE(Main) 2023 | DATE : 08-04-2023 (SHIFT-2) | PAPER-1 | MATHEMATICS
x x 2 x
log2 x dx is equal to
9. The integral
2
x
x x x x x x x x
x 2 x 2 x 2 x x
(1) – + C (2) log2 + C (3) (4) log2
2 x 2 x 2 x 2 2
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans. (Bonus)
1 5 –1
, A = A + I and + = –2, then 4 + + is equal to :
10. If A = 2 2 2
10
(1) 10 (2) 19 (3) 14 (4) 12
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)
1 5
Sol. A=
10
Characteristic Equation: A2 – 11x + (10 – 5)I = 0
given A–1 = A + I
A2 + A – I = 0
A2 – 11A + (10 – 5)I = 0
1
= = = K(let)
1 – 11 5 – 10
+ = –2
K – 11K = – 2
1
K=
5
1
=
5
–11
=
5
5 – 10 = 5
=3
4 2 + 2 + 2
1 121
=4× + + 9 = 14
25 25
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| JEE(Main) 2023 | DATE : 08-04-2023 (SHIFT-2) | PAPER-1 | MATHEMATICS
12. If > > 0 are the roots of the equation ax2 + bx + 1 = 0, and
1
1 – cos x 2 bx a 1 1 1
2
lim –
1 21 – x
2 = k , then k is equal to
x
14. Let S be the set of all values of [–, ] for which the system of linear equations
x+y+ 3z=0
–x + (tan) y + 7z=0
x + y + (tan) z = 0
120
has non-trivial solution. Then is equal to
s
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| JEE(Main) 2023 | DATE : 08-04-2023 (SHIFT-2) | PAPER-1 | MATHEMATICS
1 1 3
1 tan 7
1 1 tan
Sol.
tan2 – 3+ 7– 3 tan – 7 + tan= 0
tan [tan +1] – 3 [tan + 1] = 0
tan = 3
1
3 3 4 4
2
3 26
120 120
20
6
x –1 y – 2 z 5
15. Let P be the plane passing through the line = = and the point (2, 4, –3). If the image of
1 –3 7
the point (–1, 3, 4) in the plane P is (, , ) then + + is equal to
(1) 12 (2) 9 (3) 10 (4) 11
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)
Sol.
n
B(2, 4, –3)
A(1, 2, –5) P (1, – 3, 7)
P î – 3 ĵ 7k̂
AB î 2 ĵ 2k̂
P AB –20 î 5 ĵ 5k̂
n 4 î – ĵ – k̂
eqn of plane 4(x – 1) + (–1)(y – 2) + (–1)(z + 5) = 0
4x – y – z – 7 = 0
Image of (–1, 3, 4) is (, , )
1 – 13 –4 –2(–4 – 3 – 4 – 7)
= = = =2
4 –1 –1 16 1 1
=7, = 1, = 2
+ + = 10
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| JEE(Main) 2023 | DATE : 08-04-2023 (SHIFT-2) | PAPER-1 | MATHEMATICS
16. Let O be the origin and OP and OQ be the tangents to the circle x2 + y2 – 6x + 4y + 8 = 0 at the points P
1
and Q on it. If the circumcircle of the triangle OPQ passes through the point , then a value of is
2
3 1 5
(1) (2) – (3) 1 (4)
2 2 2
NTA Ans. (4)
Reso Ans. (4)
Sol. Equation of circumcircle whose diametric end point is (3,– 2) & (0,0)
x(x – 3) + y(y + 2) = 0
x2 + y2 – 3x + 2y = 0
1
pt ( , ) is on circle
2
1
2 + – 3 + 1 = 0
4
5
2 – 3 + =0
4
4 2 –12 + 5 = 0
10 2
= , =
4 4
5 1
= ,
2 2
9
17. Let the mean and variance of 12 observations be and 4 respectively. Later on, it was observed that two
2
m
observations were considered as 9 and 10 instead of 7 and 14 respectively. If the correct variance is
n
,where m and n are coprime, then m + n is equal to
(1) 316 (2) 317 (3) 314 (4) 315
NTA Ans. (2)
Reso Ans. (2)
Sol.
xi =
9
x i = 54.
12 2
correct x = 54 + 7 + 14 – 9 – 10 = 56.
i
56 14
correct x i = =
12 3
2 =
x i
2
9
– =4
2
12 2
x2 97
= x i2 = 291
12 4
corr. xi2 = 291 + 64 = 355
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| JEE(Main) 2023 | DATE : 08-04-2023 (SHIFT-2) | PAPER-1 | MATHEMATICS
corr 2 =
x 2 x2
12
2
355 14
= –
12 3
281 m
=
36 n
m + n = 281 + 36 = 317
18. Let the vectors u1 î ĵ ak̂ , u 2 î b ĵ k̂ and u3 c î ĵ k̂ be coplanar. If the vectors
v1 = (a +b) î + c ĵ + c k̂ , v 2 = a î + (b + c) ĵ + a k̂ and v 3 = b î + b ĵ + (c + a) k̂ are also coplanar, then 6
(a + b + c) is equal to
(1) 4 (2) 0 (3) 12 (4) 6
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)
1 1 a
Sol. 1 b 1 0
c 1 1
a + b + c – 1 –1– abc =0
ab c c
& a bc a 0
b b ac
R3 R3 – (R1 + R2)
ab c c
a bc a 0
2a 2c 0
– 2ac2 – 2a2c – 2ac (b + c) – 2ac(a + b) = 0
ac2 + a2c – abc – ac2 – a2c – abc = 0
– 2abc = 0
abc = 0
2–a–b–c=0
a + b + c = 12 6(a + b + c) = 12
19. Let A (0, 1), B(1, 1) and C(1, 0) be the mid-points of the sides of a triangle with incentre at the point D. If
the focus of the parabola y2 = 4ax passing through D is ( + 2 , 0), where and are rational numbers,
then is equal to
2
9
(1) 8 (2) 6 (3) (4) 12
2
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| JEE(Main) 2023 | DATE : 08-04-2023 (SHIFT-2) | PAPER-1 | MATHEMATICS
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans. (1)
Sol.
P (0, 2)
B (1, 1)
A (0, 1)
D (x, y)
040 4
D ,
42 2 42 2
2 2
D ,
2 2 2 2
D 2 – 2, 2 – 2,
y2 = 4ax
2 – 2 2
4a 2 – 2
2– 2
a=
4
focus (a, 0)
1 1
– 2 =+ 2
2 4
1 1
= ,b=–
2 4
1
2
= =8
2 1
16
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| JEE(Main) 2023 | DATE : 08-04-2023 (SHIFT-2) | PAPER-1 | MATHEMATICS
21. Let the solution curve x = x(y), 0 < y < , of the differential equation
2
–
ln 22 =–
ln 22 +C
2 2
C=0
1
x= y=
2 ln cos y 6
1
x= –
3
2 ln
2
1
x= , m = 4, n = 3, mn = 12
ln 4 – ln 3
1 1 1
22. Let 0 < z < y < x be three real numbers such that , , are in an arithmetic progression and x, 2
x y z
3
y, z are in a geometric progression. If xy + yz + zx = xyz, then 3(x + y + z)2 is equal to _________
2
NTA Ans. (150)
Reso Ans. (150)
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| JEE(Main) 2023 | DATE : 08-04-2023 (SHIFT-2) | PAPER-1 | MATHEMATICS
2 1 1
Sol. = + ……(1)
y x z
1 1 1 3 3 3
+ + = =
x y z 2 y 2
y= 2 ……(2)
x, 2 y , z are in G. P.
2y2 = xz
xz = 4……..(3)
from (1) x+z= 2 xz
x+z=4 2
now 3(x + y + z)2 = 3(4 2 + 2 )2 = 150
3 x 2 k x 1, x 1
23. Let k and m be positive real numbers such that the function f(x) = is
mx k ,
2 2
x 1
8f 8
differentiable for all x > 0. Then is equal to __________.
1
f
8
NTA Ans. (309)
Reso Ans. (309)
Sol. f (1–) = f(1) = f(1+)
3 + k 2 = m + k2 --------(1)
f(1–) = f1 (1+)
k
6+ = 2m ---------(2)
2 2
from (1) & (2)
k 1
3+k 2 =3+ + k2 k2 + k 2 = 0
4 2 4 2
7 7 7 103
k = 0, k = If k = ,m=3+ =
4 2 4 2 32 32
k
6x
f(x) = 2 x 1
2mx
103
f(8) =
2
1 6 k.2 2 3 2 .k 4 8.f (8)
f = + = + = now = 309
8 8 2.3 4 3 3 1
f
8
6x 2 5x 1 2
24. If domain of the function loge + cos–1 2x – 3 x 4 is (, ) (, ], then
2x – 1 3x – 5
18 (2 + 2 + 2 + 2), is equal to __________.
NTA Ans. (20)
Reso Ans. (20)
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| JEE(Main) 2023 | DATE : 08-04-2023 (SHIFT-2) | PAPER-1 | MATHEMATICS
6x 2 5x 1 2x 2 – 3 x 4
Sol. > 0 & – 1 1
2x – 1 3x – 5
(3x 1)(2x 1) 2x 2 – 6 x 9 2x 2 – 1
>0& 0& 0
2x – 1 3x – 5 3x – 5
1 1 1
– –
2 3 2
5/3
1 5
1
2 3
2
1 1 1 1
Common – , – ,
2 3 2 2
(, ) (, ]
1 1 1 1 10
18(2 + 2 + 2 + 2) = 18 = × 18 = 20
4 9 4 2 9
x dx
2.4
25. Let [t] denote the greatest integer function. If 2
2 3 5 , then + + + is equal
0
to __________.
NTA Ans. (6)
Reso Ans. (6)
1 2 3 2 5 2.4
= 0.dx 1.dx 2.dx 3.dx 4.dx x 5.dx = x 2x 3x 4x 2 5x
2 3 2 5 2.4
Sol. 1 2 3 5
0 1 2 3 2 5
2 1 2 3 2 32 3 4 5 2 52.4 5
1 2 3 2 12 5
9 2 3 5
= = 9, = –1, = –1, = –1
= + + + = 6
26. Let P1 be the plane 3x – y – 7z = 11 and P2 be the plane passing through the points (2, –1, 0), (2, 0, –1),
and (5, 1, 1). If the foot of the perpendicular drawn from the point (7, 4, –1) on the line of intersection of
the planes P1 and P2 is (, , ), then + + is equal to__________.
NTA Ans. (11)
Reso Ans. (11)
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| JEE(Main) 2023 | DATE : 08-04-2023 (SHIFT-2) | PAPER-1 | MATHEMATICS
Sol. P1 : 3x – y –7z = 11
x 2 y 1 z
P2 : 0 1 1 0
3 2 1
(x – 2) –(y + 1) (+3) +z (+3) = 0
P2 : x – y – z – 3
P n1 n 2
n1 3î ĵ 7k̂
n 2 î ˆj k̂
n1 n 2 6î 4 ĵ 2k̂
P 3î 2 ĵ k̂ common point on the planes
Put z = 0
3x – y = 11
x–y=3
x = 4, y = 1, z = 0
x 4 y 1 z 0
Line is
3 2 1
Let point on this line (3 + y, 2 +1, ) N
given point is A (7,4,–1)
2
3 : 1. If R (, ) is the point of intersection of the tangents to the parabola at P and Q, then is equal to
__________.
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| JEE(Main) 2023 | DATE : 08-04-2023 (SHIFT-2) | PAPER-1 | MATHEMATICS
Sol. Parabola is
y2 = 12x
R()
a=3
Q
P
t2 = 3t1
2 a 2 t1 t 2 a 16t12
16
at1t 2 3t12
28. Let m and n be the numbers of real roots of the quadratic equations x2 – 12x + [x] + 31 = 0 and
x2 – 5 |x + 2 | – 4 = 0 respectively, where [x] denotes the greatest integer ≤ x. Then m2 + mn + n2 is equal
to __________.
NTA Ans. (9)
Reso Ans. (9)
Sol. x2 – 12x + 35 = 4–[x]
(x–5) (x–7) = 4–[x]
No solution so m = 0
x2 4
= |x+2|
5
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| JEE(Main) 2023 | DATE : 08-04-2023 (SHIFT-2) | PAPER-1 | MATHEMATICS
29. Let R = {a, b, c, d, e} and S = {1, 2, 3, 4}. Total number of onto functions : R S such that (a) 1, is
equal to __________.
NTA Ans. (384)
Reso Ans. (180)
Sol. If f(a) 1
For a [remaining 4 to all 4 + remaining 4 to remaining 3
4!
3
C1 4! 3!
2! 2!
3 × (24 + 36) = 180
Let the area enclosed by the lines x + y = 2, y = 0, x = 0 and the curve f(x) = min x 2 ,1 x where ]
3
30.
4
denotes the greatest integer ≤ x, be A. Then the value of 12 A is __________.
NTA Ans. (17)
Reso Ans. (17)
1
2
3 1 3 1 2
x dx + .
2
Sol. A=
4 2 2 2
0
1 1 3 1
= . . 1
3 8 4 2
1 o
x+y=2
1/2 2
1 9
12 A = + + 12 = 17
2 2
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JEE (Main)
PAPER-1 (B.E./B. TECH.)
2023
COMPUTER BASED TEST (CBT)
Questions & Solutions
Date: 08 April, 2023 (SHIFT-2) | TIME : (3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m)
fww
SUBJECT: PHYSICS
PART : PHYSICS
x2
31. The trajectory of projectile, projected from the ground is given by y x . Where x and y are
20
measured in meter. The maximum height attained by the projectile will be.
(1) 5 m (2) 10 2 m (3) 10 m (4) 200 m
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans. (1)
Sol. dy/dx = 1 – x/10 = 0
x = 10
ymax = 10 – 100/20 = 5 m
32. The acceleration due to gravity at height h above the earth if h << R (Radius of earth) is given by
2h 2h2 h 2 h
(1) g' = g1 (2) g' g1 (3) g' g 1 (4) g' g 1
R 2 2R 2 2R
R
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans. (1)
GM g 2h
Sol. g' = = g1 .
(R H)2 h
2
R
1
R
33. Electric potential at a point 'P' due to a point charge of 5 × 10 –9C is 50 V. The distance of 'P' from the
1
point charge is: (Assume, 9 109 Nm2C2 )
4 0
(1) 90 cm (2) 0.9 cm (3) 9 cm (4) 3 cm
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans. (1)
kq
Sol. v
r
9 109 5 109 9
50 r 0.9m
r 10
r 0.9 100 90 cm
34. An emf of 0.08 V is induced in a metal rod of length 10 cm held normal to a uniform magnetic field of
0.4 T, when moves with a velocity of :
(1) 2 ms–1 (2) 0.5 ms–1 (3) 20 ms–1 (4) 3.2 ms–1
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans. (1)
Sol. = BVL
0.08 = 0.4 (V) (0.1)
V = 2 m/s.
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| JEE(Main) 2023 | DATE : 08-04-2023 (SHIFT-2) | PAPER-1 | PHYSICS
35. Given below are two statement: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: Electromagnets are made of soft iron.
Reason R: Soft iron has high permeability and low retentivity.
In the light of above, statement, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
(1) A is not correct but R is correct
(2) A is correct but R is not correct
(3) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(4) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
NTA Ans. (4)
Reso Ans. (4)
36. A hydraulic automobile lift is designed to vehicles of mass 5000 kg. The area of cross section of the
cylinder carrying the load is 250 cm 2. The maximum pressure the smaller piston would have to bear is
[Assume g = 10 m/s2]
(1) 2 × 10+5 Pa (2) 20 × 10+6 Pa (3) 2 × 10+6 Pa (4) 200 × 10+6 Pa
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)
F Mg 5000 10
Sol. P = = 2 × 106 N/m2 .
A A 250 10 4
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| JEE(Main) 2023 | DATE : 08-04-2023 (SHIFT-2) | PAPER-1 | PHYSICS
39. The temperature at which the kinetic energy of oxygen molecules becomes double than its value at 27°C
is
(1) 1227°C (2) 627°C (3) 327°C (4) 927°C
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)
Sol. K.E. T
K.E T2 T2
2
K.E.T1 300
T2 = 600k = 327°C
40. Work done by carnot engine operating between temperatures 127°C and 27°C is 2kJ. The amount of
heat transferred to the engine by the reservoir is:
(1) 2.27 kJ (2) 2kJ (3) 8 kJ (4) 4kJ
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)
T2 W
Sol. 1
T1 Q1
300 2
1
400 Q1
Q1 = 8.
41. The width of fringe is 2 mm on the screen in a double slits experiment for the light of wavelength of
400 nm. The width of the fringe for the light of wavelength 600 nm will be:
(1) 3 mm (2) 4 mm (3) 1.33 mm (4) 2 mm
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans. (1)
Sol.
1 1
2 2
2 = 3mm
42. For a given transistor amplifier circuit in CE configuration VCC = 1 V, RC = 1 k, Rb = 100 k and = 100.
Value of base current Ib is
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| JEE(Main) 2023 | DATE : 08-04-2023 (SHIFT-2) | PAPER-1 | PHYSICS
Sol. For saturation region VCE 0
VCE = VCC – iCRC = 1 – (iC) (1000) = 0 iC = 1mA
iC 1mA
iB 10A
100
iC
RC = 1k
iB
RB
VCC = 1 volt
iB
43. For particle P revolving round the centre O with radius of circular path r and angular velocity , as shown
in below figure. the projection of OP on the x-axis at time is
(1) x(t) = rcos t (2) x(t) = rcos t
6 6
(3) x(t) = rsin t (4) x(t) = rcos(t)
6
NTA Ans. (2)
Reso Ans. (2)
x
Sol. cost
6 R
2 2
x R cost where
6 T 6 3
t=t
R
t t=0
6
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44. The waves emitted when a metal target is bombarded with high energy electrons are
(1) X-ray (2) Microwaves (3) Radio Waves (4) Infrared rays
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans. (1)
45. Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Area under velocity-time graph given the distance travelled by the body in a given time
Statement II : Area under acceleration-time graph is equal to the change in velocity in the given time.
In the light of given statement, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are False
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is False.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
NTA Ans. (2)
Reso Ans. (2)
46. A radio active material is reduced to 1/8 of its original amount in 3 days. If 8 × 10–3 kg of the material is
left after 5 days the initial amount of the material is
(1) 40 g (2) 32 g (3) 64 g (4) 256 g
NTA Ans. (4)
Reso Ans. (4)
Sol. T 1 1 days
2
1
m0 8 10 3
32
m0 32 8 103 256 gm
47. The orbital angular momentum of a satellite is L, when it is revolving in a circular orbit at height h from
earth surface. If the distance of satellite from the earth centre is increased by eight times to its initial
value, then the new angular momentum will be-
(1) 3 L (2) 4 L (3) 9 L (4) 8 L
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans. (1)
GM
Sol. L = mvr = m r = m GM r
r
Lf 9r Lf 9r
So L r Lf = 3Li = 3L.
Li r Li r
48. A bullet of mass 0.1 kg moving horizontally with speed 400 ms –1 hits a wooden block of mass 3.9 kg kept
on a horizontal rough surface. The bullet gets embedded into the block and moves 20 m before coming
to rest. The coefficient of friction between the block and the surface is (Given g = 10 m/s²)
(1) 0.50 (2) 0.90 (3) 0.25 (4) 0.65
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)
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Sol. By momentum conservation
0.1 × 400 = (3.9+0.1)V
V = 10 m/s
v 2 u 2 2as
O 10 2 2as
100 100
a 2.5
40 400
g = 2.5
= 0.25
49. The power radiated from a linear antenna of length is proportional to (Given, λ = Wavelength of wave):
2
2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2
NTA Ans. (4)
Reso Ans. (4)
51. A series combination of resistor of resistance 100 , inductor of inductance 1 H and capacitor of
capacitance 6.25 F is connected to an ac source. The quality factor of the circuit will be______.
NTA Ans. 4
Reso Ans. 4
XL 1 L 1 L 1 1
Sol. 4
R LC R R C 100 6.25 10 6
52. A body of mass 5 kg is moving with a momentum of 10 kg ms –1. Now a force of 2 N acts on the body in
the direction of its motion for 5 s. The increase in the Kinetic energy of the body is________ J.
NTA Ans. 30
Reso Ans. 30
Sol. New momentum = 20 kg-m/s
102 202
Ki = 10,K f 40
25 25
Change in K.E. = 30J.
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53. Two transparent media having refractive indices 1.0 and 1.5 are separated by a spherical refracting
surface of radius of curvature 30 cm. The centre of curvature of surface is towards denser medium and
a point object is placed on the principle axis in rarer medium at a distance of 15 cm from the pole of the
surface. The distance of image from the pole of the surface is__________cm.
NTA Ans. 30
Reso Ans. 30
1 .5 1 1 .5 1
Sol.
V 15 30
V = –30
|V| = 30.
54. A steel rod of length 1 m and cross sectional area 10 –4 m2 is heated from 0°C to 200°C without being
allowed to extend or bend. The compressive tension produced in the rod is_______ x104 N. (Given
Young's modulus of steel = 2×1011 Nm–2, coefficient of linear expansion = 10–5K–1)
NTA Ans. 4
Reso Ans. 4
F L
Sol. y = y( )
A L
F = Ay() = 10–4 × 2 × 1011 × 10–5 × 200 = 4 × 104 .
x
55. The ratio of wavelength of spectral lines H and H in the Balmer series is . The value of x is_____.
20
NTA Ans. 27
Reso Ans. 27
Sol. For H n 3 n 2
1 1 1 5R
R 4 9 36
for H n 4 n 2
1 1 1 12R 3R
R
4 16 64 16
3R 36 3 9 27
16 5R 5 4 20
56. The number density of free electrons in copper is nearly 8 x 1028 m–3. A copper wire has its area of cross
section= 2 × 10–6 m2 and is carrying a current of 3.2 A. The drift speed of the electrons is______×10–6
NTA Ans. 25
Reso Ans. 25
Sol. i = neAvd
i 3.2 1 5
vd = =
= = 10 4 = 125 × 10–6 .
neA 8 10 1.6 10 2 10
28 19 6
8 103 4
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57. The ratio of magnetic field at the centre of a current carrying coil of radius r to the magnetic field at
distance r from the centre of coil on its axis is √x:1. The value of x is________.
NTA Ans. 8
Reso Ans. 8
B C 0 2(R 2 R 2 )3 / 2
Sol. =
BP 2R 0 R 2
(2R 2 )3 / 2
2 2 8
3
=
R 1 1
58. A guitar string of length 90 cm vibrates with a fundamental frequency of 120 Hz. The length of the string
producing a fundamental frequency of 180 Hz will be cm.
NTA Ans. 60
Reso Ans. 60
Sol. f = f''
120 × 90 = 180 × '
' = 60 cm
59. A 600 pF capacitor is charged by 200 V supply. It is then disconnected from the supply and is connected
to another uncharged 600 pF capacitor. Electrostatic energy lost in the process is_______μJ.
NTA Ans. 6
Reso Ans. 6
1
Sol. Ui (600 ) 10 12 (200 )2 12J
2
1
Uf (1200 ) 10 12 (100 )2 6J
2
Loss = Ui – Uf = 6 J.
60. A hollow spherical ball of uniform density rolls up a curved surface with an initial velocity 3 m/s (as shown
in figure). Maximum height with respect to the initial position covered by it will be__________cm
(take, g = 10 m/s²)
NTA Ans. 75
Reso Ans. 75
1 k2
Sol. mgh mV2 1 2
2 R
V2 2 9 5 3
h 1 m = 75 cm.
2g 3 20 3 4
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JEE (Main)
PAPER-1 (B.E./B. TECH.)
2023
COMPUTER BASED TEST (CBT)
Questions & Solutions
Date: 08 April, 2023 (SHIFT-2) | TIME : (3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m)
w
SUBJECT: CHEMISTRY
PART : CHEMISTRY
61. Given below are two statements:
Statement – I : In redox titration, the indicators used are sensitive to change in pH of the solution.
Statement – II : In acid-base titration, the indicatiors used are sensitive to change in oxidation potential.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Ans. NTA (1)
Reso (1)
Sol. (I) In redox titration indicators are sensitive to change in oxidation potential.
(II) In acid-base titration, indicators are used which are sensitive to pH.
62. In Hall – Heroult process, the following is used for reducing Al 2O3 :
(1) CaF2
(2) Na3AlF6
(3) Graphite
(4) Magnesium
Ans. NTA (3)
Reso (3)
Sol. Electrolytic reduction (Hall-Heroult process) :
The purified Al2O3 is mixed with Na3AlF6 (cryolite) or CaF2 (fluorspar) which lowers the melting point of
the mixture and brings conductivity. The fused matrix is electrolysed. Steel cathode and graphite anode
are used. The graphite anode is useful here for reduction to the metal. The overall reaction may
be taken as : 2Al2O3 + 3C 4Al + 3CO2
The electolysis of the molten mass is carried out in an electrolytic cell using carbon electrodes.
In hall Heroult process graphite is act as reducing agent
63. Which of the following can reduce decomposition of H2O2 on exposure to light
(1) Alkali
(2) Dust
(3) Urea
(4) Glass containers
Ans. NTA (3)
Reso (3)
Sol. H2O2 decomposes slowly on exposure to light.
2H2O2 (l) 2H2O (l) + O2 (g)
In the presence of metal surfaces or traces of alkali (present in glass containers), the above reaction is
catalysed. It is, therefore, stored in wax-lined glass or plastic vessels in dark. Urea can be added as a
stabiliser. It is kept away from dust because dust can induce explosive decomposition of the compound
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64. The correct reaction profile diagram for a positive catalyst reaction.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
65. The product (P) formed from the following multistep reaction is:
NO2 (i) Br2
(ii) H2/Pd (P)
(iii) NaNO , HCl, O oC Product
H3C 2
(iv) H3PO2
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
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66. For a good quality cement, the ratio of lime to the total of the oxides of Si, Al and Fe should be as close
as to
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 3
Ans. NTA (2)
Reso (2)
Sol. For a good quality cement, the ratio of silica (SiO2) to alumina (Al2O3) should be between 2.5 and 4 and
the ratio of lime (CaO) to the total of the oxides of silicon (SiO2) aluminium (Al2O3) and iron
(Fe2O3) should be as close as possible to 2.
67. Henry Moseley studied characteristic X-ray spectra of elements. The graph which represents his
observation correctly is
Given v = frequency of X-ray emitted
Z = atomic number
v
(1)
(2) z
v2
(3)
(4) v
z
Ans. NTA (4)
Reso (4)
Sol. During bombardment of electron on metal surface.
Z
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68. A compound 'X' when treated with phthalic anhydride in presence of concentrated H2SO4 yields 'Y'. 'Y'
is used as an acid / base indicator. 'X' and 'Y' are respectively
(1) Anisole, methyl orange
(2) Toludine, Phenolphthalein
(3) Carbolic acid, Phenolphthalein
(4) Salicylaldehyde, Phenolphthalein
Ans. NTA (3)
Reso (3)
Sol. Carbolic acid = phenol
OH
O O
, NaOH
O O–
O
OH
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
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O
Br
O O O
Br2 Br
Sol. O–
OH NaHCO3
72. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A: Sodium is about 30 times as abundant as potassium in the oceans.
Reason R: Potassium is bigger in size than sodium.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
(1) A is true but R is false
(2) A is false but R is true
(3) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Ans. NTA (4)
Reso (4)
Sol. Statements-I sodium is about 30 times abundant as potassium in oceans.
Statements-II size of sodium is smaller than potassium.
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73. The correct order of reactivity of following haloarenes towards nucleophilic substitution with aqueous
NaOH is
A. B.
C. D.
74. The statements which are true about antagonists from the following is/are:
A. They bind to the receptor site.
B. Get transferred inside the cell for their action.
C. Inhibit the natural communication of the body.
D. Mimic the natural messenger.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A and C
(2) B only
(3) A and B
(4) A, C and D
Ans. NTA (1)
Reso (1)
Sol. NCERT Fact based.
75. Arrange the following gases in increasing order of van der Waals constant 'a'
A. Ar
B. CH4
C. H2O
D. C6H6
Choose the correct option from the following.
(1) B, C, D and A (2) D, C, B and A
(3) A, B, C and D (4) C, D, B and A
Ans. NTA (3)
Reso (3)
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Sol. Vander wall constant a depends on intermolecular force of attraction so correct order of a is
C6H6 > H2O > CH4 > Ar
Gas Vander-waal constant "a" (atm. L2. mol–2)
Ar 1.355
C6H6 18.57
CH4 2.253
H2O 5.536
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78. The descending order of acidity for the following carboxylic acid is –
A. CH3COOH
B. F3C–COOH
C. ClCH2–COOH
D. FCH2–COOH
E. BrCH2–COOH
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) B D C E A
(2) B C D E A
(3) E D B A C
(4) D B A E C
Ans. NTA (1)
Reso (1)
Sol. –I effect of F > Cl > Br and greater the extent of –I effect, greater the acidity.
CH3 H+ CH3
–O
Sol. –O 3S NH–N N
3S N=N N
CH3 CH3
Benzenoid form of anion Quinonoid form of the anion
(yellow in colour) (Pinkish red in colour)
Methyl orange is basic in nature
MeOH Me+ + OH–
Yellow Red
80. The correct IUPAC nomenclature for the following compound is:
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2-Methyl-5-oxohexanoic acid
81. If the boiling points of two solvents X and Y (having same molecular weights) are in the ratio 2:1 and
their enthalpy of vaporizations are in the ratio 1:2, then the boiling point elevation constant of X is M
times the boiling point elevation constant of Y. The value of m is ______________ (nearest integer).
Ans. NTA (8)
Reso (8)
RTb2 xMsolvent
Sol. Tb = Kb m Kb =
1000xHvap
2 2
( Tb) X (Tb) x Mx HY 2 1 2
x x = x =8
( Tb) Y (Tb) Y MY HX 1 1 1
82. The ratio of sigma and bonds present in pyrophosphoric acid is ______________.
Ans. NTA (6)
Reso (6)
Sol. Pyrophosphoric acid H4P2O7
O O O
P P P
HO OH HO O OH
OH OH OH
H3PO4 H4P2O7
Othophosphoric acid Pyrophoshoric acid
Number of bond = 12
Number of bond = 2
83. The number of atomic orbitals from the following having 5 radial nodes is _____________.
7s, 7p, 6s, 8p, 8d
Ans. NTA (3)
Reso (3)
Sol. Number of radial node = (n--1)
orbital number of radial node = (n--1)
(i) 7s (7-0-1) = 6
(ii) 7p (7-1-1) = 5
(iii) 8s (8-0-1) = 7
(iv) 8d (8-2-1) = 5
(v) 6s (6-0-1) = 5
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85. The solubility product of BaSO4 is 1x10–10 at 298K. The solubility of BaSO4 in 0.1 MK2SO4(aq) solution is
____________ x 10–9 gL–1 (nearest integer).
Given : Molar mass of BaSO4 is 233 g mol–1
Ans. NTA (233)
Reso (233)
Sol. BaSO4(s) Ba2+ + SO42–
s s + 0.1
ksp = s × 0.1
s = 10–9 mole/litre = 233 × 10–9 g/litre
86. Coagulating value of the electrolytes AlCl3 and NaCl for As2S3 are 0.09 and 50.04 respectively. The
coagulating power of AlCl3 is x times the coagulating power of NaCl. The value of x is __________.
Ans. NTA (556)
Reso (556)
1
Sol. Coagulating power
Coagulating value
Coagulating power of AlCl3 Coagulating value of NaCl
=
Coagulating power of NaCl Coagulating value of AlCl3
50.04
= = 556
0.09
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88. The observed magnetic moment of the complex [Mn(NCS) 6]x– is 6.06 BM. The numerical value of x is
___________ .
Ans. NTA (4)
Reso (4)
Sol. On the basic magnetic moment number of unpaired electron = 6
5 2
25Mn = 3d 4s
So Mn+1 = 3d5 4s1
[Mn(NCS)6 ]x – [(+1)+(-1)6] = -X
–
So x=5 ; complex is [Mn(NCS)6 ]5
89. The number of species from the following carrying a single lone pair on central atom Xenon is ______ .
XeF5+, XeO3, XeO2F2, XeF5–, XeO3F2, XeOF4, XeF4
Ans. NTA (4)
Reso (4)
Sol. XeO3, XeOF2, XeO2F2, XeOF4, XeF5–
number of lone pair of electron on central atom :
Xe
XeO3F2 O (TBP) (0)
F O F
XeOF4 (Square pyramidal) (1)
Xe
F F
F F
[XeF4] Xe (Square Planner) (2)
F F
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90. The sum of oxidation state of the metals in Fe(CO)5, VO2+ and WO3 is ____________ .
Ans. NTA (10)
Reso (10)
Sol. [Fe(CO)5] oxidation number of Fe = 0
VO2+ oxidation number of V = +4
WO3 oxidation number of W = +6
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