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The document provides the solutions to 6 mathematics questions from a JEE (Main) exam held on April 8, 2023 from 3:00-6:00 pm. The solutions include step-by-step working to find the answers to multi-step problems involving areas of quadrilaterals, trigonometric functions, probability, planes and lines, and arithmetic and geometric sequences. The last problem calculates the value of S30 - a40 as 11290.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
26 views42 pages

April 8 2

The document provides the solutions to 6 mathematics questions from a JEE (Main) exam held on April 8, 2023 from 3:00-6:00 pm. The solutions include step-by-step working to find the answers to multi-step problems involving areas of quadrilaterals, trigonometric functions, probability, planes and lines, and arithmetic and geometric sequences. The last problem calculates the value of S30 - a40 as 11290.

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JEE (Main)

PAPER-1 (B.E./B. TECH.)

2023
COMPUTER BASED TEST (CBT)
Questions & Solutions
Date: 08 April, 2023 (SHIFT-2) | TIME : (03.00 p.m. to 06.00 p.m)
w

Duration: 3 Hours | Max. Marks: 300

SUBJECT: MATHEMATICS

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| JEE(Main) 2023 | DATE : 08-04-2023 (SHIFT-2) | PAPER-1 | MATHEMATICS

PART : MATHEMATICS
1. The area of the quadrilateral ABCD with vertices
A (2, 1, 1), B(1, 2, 5), C (–2, –3, 5) and D(1, –6, –7) is equal toss
(1) 8 38 (2) 48 (3) 54 (4) 9 38
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans. (1)
Sol. AC  4 î  4 ĵ  4k̂
BD  0 î  8 ĵ  12k̂
1 1
Area = | AC  BD |  4  4 52  32  22
2 2
Area = 8 38

2. The value of 36 (4 cos29° – 1)(4 cos227° – 1)(4 cos2 81° – 1) (4 cos2 243° –1) is
(1) 27 (2) 18 (3) 54 (4) 36
NTA Ans. (4)
Reso Ans. (4)
Sol. 36(4cos2 9°–1) (4sin2 9°–1) (4cos2 27°–1) (4sin2 27°–1)
 
36 16 sin2 9 cos2 9  4  1 16 sin2 27 cos2 27  4  1 
364 sin 18  34 sin 54  3
2 2

  
2   
2 
 5  1   5  1   3
36 4   3 4
  4    4  
      
 6  2 5  12   6  2 5  12 
36  
 4  4 
  

9 3 5 3 5  
9(9–5) = 36
 1  2is in 
3. Let A =   (0, 2) : is purely im aginary The sum of elements in A is
 1 – i s in  
(1)  (2) 2  (3) 3  (4) 4 
NTA Ans. (4)
Reso Ans. (4)
 1  2i s in 1  i s in 
Sol. Re  0
 1  i s in 1  s in 
1–2sin2 = 0
1
sin= ±
2
 3 5  7
 , , ,
4 4 4 4
Sum is 4

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4. If the probability that the random variable X take values x is given by
P(X = x) = k (x + 1)3–x, x = 0, 1, 2, 3, ……, where k is a constant, then P(X ≥ 2) is
20 7 7 11
(1) (2) (3) (4)
27 18 27 18
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)
Sol. P(x = 0) + P(x = 1) + p(x = 2) + p(x = 3) +……. = 1
K 2K 3K 4K
    ........   1
3º 31 3 2 3 3
 2 3 4 
K 1   2  3  ......    1
 3 3 3 
Now
2  
Let S = 1     ....
3 3 2 33
S 1 2 3
 0   2  3  ....
3 3 3 3
2S 1 1 1
 1   2  3  ....
3 3 3 3
1

1
1
3
3 3 9
S=  
2 2 4
9
Now K.  1
4
4
K
9
Now P(x  2) = P(2) + P(3) + ……. 
 = 1 – P(0) – P(1)
 K 2K  5K
=1–    = 1
1 3  3
20 7
1 
27 27

5. For a, b Z and a – b ≤ 10, let the angle between the plane P : ax + y – z = b and the line l : x – 1 = a –

 1
y = z + 1 be cos–1   if the distance of the point (6, –6, 4) from the plane P is 3 6 , then a4 + b2 is equal
3
to
(1) 32 (2) 25 (3) 48 (4) 85
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans. (1)

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Sol. ax+y–z=b
x 1 y  a z 1
 
1 1 1

n  a î  ĵ  k̂

p  î  ĵ  k̂

n.p
sin=  
np

a  1 1 2 2

a 2 3
2 3

3(a–2)2 = 8 3 (a2+2)


5a² + 12a + 4 = 0 (5a+2) (a+2)=0
a=–2 & a = –2/5 (reject)
a = –2, a–b 
b – 8
Now distance of given point from the plane
–2x + y – z = b
2x – y + z + b = 0
12  6  4  6
 3 6
6
b+22= ±18
b = –4 and b = –40 (Reject)
a4 + b2 = 16 + 16 = 32
n
6. Let an be the nth term of the series 5 + 8 + 14 + 23 + 35 + 50 + ……. And s n = a
k 1
k . Then S30 – a40 is

equal to
(1) 11280 (2) 11290 (3) 11310 (4) 11260
NTA Ans. (2)
Reso Ans. (2)
Sol; Sn = 5+8+14+23+35+………+an + an
Sn = 5+8 +14+23

an= 5+3+6+9+12+ ………


n 1
an = 5+ 6  n  23
2
 n  1 3
an + 5 + a n  5   (3 x )  x( x  1)  5
 2  2
3x 2 3x
an   5
2 2
402 40
a 40  3   3x 5
2 2
= 2400 – 60 +5 = 2345

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3 30  31 61 3 30  31
a30   6  5  30
2 2 2 2
30  30  31 6 1
=   150
2 6 2
= 13635
S30 – q40 = 11290

nn  1  5
3
an =
2

 nn  1n  1  5n
3 1
Sn =
2 3
1 3
S30 – a40 =  30  29  31 150 –  40  39 – 5
2 2
= 11290
7. Let A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7}. Then the relation R = {(x, y) A × A : x + y = 7} is
(1) reflexive but neither symmetric nor transitive
(2) transitive but neither symmetric nor reflexive
(3) symmetric but neither reflexive nor transitive
(4) an equivalence relation
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)
Sol. Reflexive :- xRx  x + x = 7.  x  A, R is not reflexive.
Symmetric :- xRy  x + y = 7.  y + x = 7  yRx R is symmetric
Transitive :- 1R6 & 6 R 1 but 1 is not related to 1 so not transitive

11
 1 
8. The absolute difference of the coefficients of x10 and x7 in the expansion of  2x 2   is equal to
 2x 
(1) 103 – 10 (2) 133 – 13 (3) 113 – 11 (4) 123 – 12
NTA Ans. (4)
Reso Ans. (4)
Sol. Tr+1 = Cr (2x2) 11 – r(2x)–r
11

for coeff. x7 put 22 – 2r – r = 7


r=5
and for coeff x10 put 22 – 3r = 10
r=4

11 26 11 27
abs . diff. = C5 . – C 4 .
25 24

|924 – 2640| = 1716 = 123 – 12

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 x x  2 x 
       log2 x dx is equal to
9. The integral
  2 
  x  
x x x x x x x x
x 2 x 2  x 2 x x
(1)   –   + C (2)   log2   + C (3)      (4)   log2  
2 x 2 x 2  x 2 2
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans. (Bonus)

 1 5  –1
 , A =  A + I and  +  = –2, then 4 +  +  is equal to :
10. If A =  2 2 2
 10
(1) 10 (2) 19 (3) 14 (4) 12
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)
1 5 
Sol. A=  
 10
Characteristic Equation: A2 – 11x + (10 – 5)I = 0
given A–1 = A + I
A2 + A – I = 0
A2 – 11A + (10 – 5)I = 0
  1
= = = K(let)
1 – 11 5 – 10
 +  = –2
K – 11K = – 2
1
K=
5
1
=
5
–11
=
5
5 – 10 = 5
=3
4 2 + 2 + 2
1 121
=4× + + 9 = 14
25 25

11. The negation of (p q))  ( ~ p) is equivalent to 


(1) p  (q  ( ~ p)) (2) p  q (3) p  (q  (~p)) (4) p  ( ~p)
NTA Ans. (2)
Reso Ans. (2)
Sol. ~ p ~ q  ~ p
~ p ~ q  p
~ p  q  p = ~ p  p  q  p
C  p  q = p  q

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12. If  >  > 0 are the roots of the equation ax2 + bx + 1 = 0, and

 
1
 1 – cos x 2  bx  a 1 1 1 
2
lim   – 
1 21 – x 
2  = k     , then k is equal to
x  

(1) 2 (2) 2   (3)    (4)  


NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans. (1)
1 1  1  1
Sol. Equations whose roots and , is a + bx+ x2 =  x   x  
      
1
 2
 1  cos  x  1  x  1   
     
  
1
 1  1 2  1 1 1 1 1
t  2 
 x =      =  – 
  2.2      2  
2 2
x  2 1  1 
1

 2  x     x    
     

13. If the number of words, with or without meaning, which can be made using all the letters of the word
MATHEMATICS in which C and S do not come together, is (6!)k, then k is equal to
(1) 1890 (2) 2835  (3) 5670  (4) 945 
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)
11! 10!
Sol. Required no. of ways =   2!
2! 2! 2! 2! 2! 2!
910!
=
8
9 10!
now  k  6!
8
k = 9×9×10×7
= 5670

14. Let S be the set of all values of   [–, ] for which the system of linear equations

x+y+ 3z=0

–x + (tan) y + 7z=0
x + y + (tan) z = 0


120
has non-trivial solution. Then  is equal to
 s

(1) 20   (2) 30   (3) 10 (4) 10


NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans. (1)

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1 1 3
 1 tan  7
1 1 tan 
Sol.
tan2 – 3+ 7– 3 tan  – 7 + tan= 0
tan [tan +1] – 3 [tan + 1] = 0

tan =  3
 1
   
   3     3   4      4
2  
 3 26
120 120 

 

  20
6

x –1 y – 2 z  5
15. Let P be the plane passing through the line = = and the point (2, 4, –3). If the image of
1 –3 7
the point (–1, 3, 4) in the plane P is (, , ) then  +  +  is equal to
(1) 12   (2) 9   (3) 10 (4) 11
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)
Sol.

n

B(2, 4, –3)


A(1, 2, –5) P  (1, – 3, 7)


P  î – 3 ĵ  7k̂

AB  î  2 ĵ  2k̂

P  AB  –20 î  5 ĵ  5k̂

n  4 î – ĵ – k̂
eqn of plane  4(x – 1) + (–1)(y – 2) + (–1)(z + 5) = 0
4x – y – z – 7 = 0
Image of (–1, 3, 4) is (, , )
  1  – 13 –4 –2(–4 – 3 – 4 – 7)
= = = =2
4 –1 –1 16  1  1
 =7,  = 1,  = 2
 +  +  = 10

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16. Let O be the origin and OP and OQ be the tangents to the circle x2 + y2 – 6x + 4y + 8 = 0 at the points P

 1
and Q on it. If the circumcircle of the triangle OPQ passes through the point  ,  then a value of  is
 2

3 1 5
(1)    (2) –   (3) 1 (4)
2 2 2
NTA Ans. (4)
Reso Ans. (4)
Sol. Equation of circumcircle whose diametric end point is (3,– 2) & (0,0)
x(x – 3) + y(y + 2) = 0
x2 + y2 – 3x + 2y = 0
1
pt (  , ) is on circle
2
1
2 + – 3 + 1 = 0
4
5
2 – 3 + =0
4
4  2 –12  + 5 = 0
10 2
 = ,  =
4 4
5 1
 = ,
2 2
9
17. Let the mean and variance of 12 observations be and 4 respectively. Later on, it was observed that two
2
m
observations were considered as 9 and 10 instead of 7 and 14 respectively. If the correct variance is
n
,where m and n are coprime, then m + n is equal to
(1) 316  (2) 317   (3) 314 (4) 315
NTA Ans. (2)
Reso Ans. (2)

Sol.
 xi =
9
 
x i = 54.
12 2
correct  x = 54 + 7 + 14 – 9 – 10 = 56.
i
56 14
correct x i = =
12 3

2 =
x i
2
9
–   =4
2

12 2


 x2 97
 = x i2 = 291 
12 4
corr. xi2 = 291 + 64 = 355

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corr 2 =
 x 2  x2
12
2
355  14 
= –  
12  3
281 m
= 
36 n
m + n = 281 + 36 = 317

  
18. Let the vectors u1  î  ĵ  ak̂ , u 2  î  b ĵ  k̂ and u3  c î  ĵ  k̂ be coplanar. If the vectors
  
v1 = (a +b) î + c ĵ + c k̂ , v 2 = a î + (b + c) ĵ + a k̂ and v 3 = b î + b ĵ + (c + a) k̂ are also coplanar, then 6
(a + b + c) is equal to
(1) 4   (2) 0   (3) 12 (4) 6
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)
1 1 a
Sol. 1 b 1 0
c 1 1
a + b + c – 1 –1– abc =0
ab c c
& a bc a 0
b b ac
R3  R3 – (R1 + R2)
ab c c
a bc a 0
 2a  2c 0
– 2ac2 – 2a2c – 2ac (b + c) – 2ac(a + b) = 0
ac2 + a2c – abc – ac2 – a2c – abc = 0
– 2abc = 0
abc = 0
2–a–b–c=0
a + b + c = 12 6(a + b + c) = 12

19. Let A (0, 1), B(1, 1) and C(1, 0) be the mid-points of the sides of a triangle with incentre at the point D. If

the focus of the parabola y2 = 4ax passing through D is ( +  2 , 0), where  and  are rational numbers,

then is equal to
2

9
(1) 8   (2) 6   (3) (4) 12
2

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NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans. (1)
Sol.
P (0, 2)

B (1, 1)
A (0, 1)
D (x, y)

Q (0, 0) C (1, 0) R (2, 0)

040 4 
D   , 
 42 2 42 2 
 2 2 
D   , 
2 2 2 2 

D  2 – 2, 2 – 2, 
y2 = 4ax

2 – 2  2

 4a 2 – 2 
2– 2
a=
4
focus (a, 0)
1 1
– 2 =+ 2
2 4
1 1
= ,b=–
2 4
 1
2
= =8
2 1
16

20. 25190 – 19190 – 8190 + 2190 is divisible by


(1) 34 but not by 14 (2) neither 14 nor 34 (3) 14 but not by 34 (4) both 14 and 34
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans. (1)
Sol. (25 – 19190) – (8190 – 2190) is divisible by 6.
190

(25190 – 8190) – (19190 – 2190) is divisible by 17.


25190 – 8190 is not divisible by 7
but 19190 – 2190 is divisible by 7
So, 25190 – 19190 – 8190 + 2190 is divisible by 34 but not 14

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21. Let the solution curve x = x(y), 0 < y < , of the differential equation
2

loge cos y 2 cos ydx – (1+ 3x loge(cos y))sin y dy = 0 satisfy x    = 1 . If x    = 1


,
 3  2 loge 2  6  loge m – loge n
where m and n are coprime, then mn is equal to
NTA Ans. (12)
Reso Ans. (12)
dy 3 siny siny
Sol. – x =
dx ln(cosy )cos y (ln cos y ) 2 cos y
sin y

– 3
cos y. ln cos y
dy
I. f. = e
ln cosy = t
1
– . siny dy = dt
cos y
1
= e
3  t dt = e3 ln t = t3 = (ln cosy)3
siny
Sol x.(lncosy)3 =  ln cos y  cos y dy + C
– (ln cos y )2
x(lncosy)3 = – +C
2
 1
y= , x=
3 2 ln 2
3
 1
 ln 
3
1  1
 ln  = – 
2
+C
2 ln 2  2  2


ln 22 =–
ln 22 +C
2 2
C=0
1 
x= y=
2 ln cos y 6
1
x= –
3
2 ln
2
1
x= , m = 4, n = 3, mn = 12
ln 4 – ln 3

1 1 1
22. Let 0 < z < y < x be three real numbers such that , , are in an arithmetic progression and x, 2
x y z
3
y, z are in a geometric progression. If xy + yz + zx = xyz, then 3(x + y + z)2 is equal to _________
2
NTA Ans. (150)
Reso Ans. (150)

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2 1 1
Sol. = + ……(1)
y x z
1 1 1 3 3 3
+ + =  =
x y z 2 y 2
y= 2 ……(2)
x, 2 y , z are in G. P.
2y2 = xz
xz = 4……..(3)
from (1) x+z= 2 xz
x+z=4 2
now 3(x + y + z)2 = 3(4 2 + 2 )2 = 150

3 x 2  k x  1,   x  1
23. Let k and m be positive real numbers such that the function f(x) =  is

 mx  k ,
2 2
x 1
8f 8 
differentiable for all x > 0. Then is equal to __________.
 1
f  
8
NTA Ans. (309)
Reso Ans. (309)
Sol. f (1–) = f(1) = f(1+)
3 + k 2 = m + k2 --------(1)
f(1–) = f1 (1+)
k
6+ = 2m ---------(2)
2 2
from (1) & (2)
k  1 
3+k 2 =3+ + k2  k2 + k   2  = 0
4 2 4 2 
7 7 7 103
k = 0, k =  If k = ,m=3+ =
4 2 4 2 32 32
 k
6x 
f(x) =  2 x 1
 2mx
103
f(8) =
2
1 6 k.2 2 3 2 .k 4 8.f (8)
f   = + = + = now = 309
8 8 2.3 4 3 3  1
f  
8

 6x 2  5x  1  2 
24. If domain of the function loge   + cos–1  2x – 3 x  4  is (, )  (, ], then
 2x – 1    3x – 5 
  
18 (2 + 2 + 2 + 2), is equal to __________.
NTA Ans. (20)
Reso Ans. (20)

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6x 2  5x  1 2x 2 – 3 x  4
Sol. > 0 & – 1  1
2x – 1 3x – 5
(3x  1)(2x  1) 2x 2 – 6 x  9 2x 2 – 1
>0& 0& 0
2x – 1 3x – 5 3x – 5

1 1 1
– –
2 3 2

5/3

1 5
1
2 3
2

 1 1 1 1 
Common  – , –    , 
 2 3 2 2
(, )  (, ]
 1 1 1 1 10
18(2 + 2 + 2 + 2) =      18 = × 18 = 20
 4 9 4 2  9

 x dx    
2.4
25. Let [t] denote the greatest integer function. If 2
2   3   5 , then  +  +  +  is equal
0

to __________.
NTA Ans. (6)
Reso Ans. (6)
1 2 3 2 5 2.4


= 0.dx   1.dx   2.dx   3.dx   4.dx  x  5.dx = x   2x   3x   4x 2  5x 
2 3 2 5 2.4
Sol. 1 2 3 5
0 1 2 3 2 5

  2  1  2 3  2   32  3   4 5  2  52.4  5 
 1  2  3  2  12  5
9 2  3  5
= = 9, = –1, = –1, = –1
= + + + = 6

26. Let P1 be the plane 3x – y – 7z = 11 and P2 be the plane passing through the points (2, –1, 0), (2, 0, –1),
and (5, 1, 1). If the foot of the perpendicular drawn from the point (7, 4, –1) on the line of intersection of
the planes P1 and P2 is (, , ), then  +  +  is equal to__________.
NTA Ans. (11)
Reso Ans. (11)

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Sol. P1 : 3x – y –7z = 11
x  2 y 1 z
P2 : 0 1 1  0
3 2 1
(x – 2) –(y + 1) (+3) +z (+3) = 0
P2 : x – y – z – 3

P  n1  n 2

n1  3î  ĵ  7k̂

n 2  î  ˆj  k̂

n1  n 2  6î  4 ĵ  2k̂

P  3î  2 ĵ  k̂ common point on the planes

Put z = 0
3x – y = 11
x–y=3
x = 4, y = 1, z = 0
x  4 y 1 z  0
Line is  
3 2 1
Let point on this line (3 + y, 2 +1, )  N
given point is A  (7,4,–1)

AN  3  3 î  2  3  ĵ    1   0



AN .P  0

3(3 – 3) + 2(2 –3) + 1 (+1) =0


14 –14 = 0 N  (7, 3, 1)
=1 ()

27. The ordinates of the points P and Q on the parabola with focus (3, 0) and directrix x = –3 are in the ratio

2
3 : 1. If R (, ) is the point of intersection of the tangents to the parabola at P and Q, then is equal to

__________.

NTA Ans. (16)

Reso Ans. (16)

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Sol. Parabola is

y2 = 12x

R()

a=3
Q
P

P(at12,2at1), Q(at22,2at2) = at1t2 and = a(t1+t2)

2at2 = 3.2 at1

t2 = 3t1

 
 
2 a 2 t1  t 2  a 16t12
 16
 at1t 2 3t12

28. Let m and n be the numbers of real roots of the quadratic equations x2 – 12x + [x] + 31 = 0 and
x2 – 5 |x + 2 | – 4 = 0 respectively, where [x] denotes the greatest integer ≤ x. Then m2 + mn + n2 is equal
to __________.
NTA Ans. (9)
Reso Ans. (9)
Sol. x2 – 12x + 35 = 4–[x]
(x–5) (x–7) = 4–[x]

No solution so m = 0

x2  4
= |x+2|
5

Number of solution are 3 so n = 3


m2 + mn + n2 = 0 + 0 + 9 = 9

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29. Let R = {a, b, c, d, e} and S = {1, 2, 3, 4}. Total number of onto functions  : R  S such that (a)  1, is
equal to __________.
NTA Ans. (384)
Reso Ans. (180)
Sol. If f(a)  1
For a [remaining 4 to all 4 + remaining 4 to remaining 3

 4! 
3
C1  4!   3!
 2! 2! 
3 × (24 + 36) = 180

 
Let the area enclosed by the lines x + y = 2, y = 0, x = 0 and the curve f(x) = min x 2  ,1  x  where ]
3
30.
 4 
denotes the greatest integer ≤ x, be A. Then the value of 12 A is __________.
NTA Ans. (17)
Reso Ans. (17)
1
2
 3 1 3 1 2
  x   dx +   .
2
Sol. A=
4 2 2 2
0
1 1 3 1
= .  . 1
3 8 4 2

1 o
x+y=2

1/2 2

1 9
12 A = + + 12 = 17
2 2

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JEE (Main)
PAPER-1 (B.E./B. TECH.)

2023
COMPUTER BASED TEST (CBT)
Questions & Solutions
Date: 08 April, 2023 (SHIFT-2) | TIME : (3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m)
fww

Duration: 3 Hours | Max. Marks: 300

SUBJECT: PHYSICS

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PART : PHYSICS
x2
31. The trajectory of projectile, projected from the ground is given by y  x  . Where x and y are
20
measured in meter. The maximum height attained by the projectile will be.
(1) 5 m (2) 10 2 m (3) 10 m (4) 200 m
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans. (1)
Sol. dy/dx = 1 – x/10 = 0
x = 10
ymax = 10 – 100/20 = 5 m

32. The acceleration due to gravity at height h above the earth if h << R (Radius of earth) is given by

 2h   2h2   h 2   h 
(1) g' = g1   (2) g'  g1   (3) g'  g 1  (4) g'  g 1  
 R  2   2R 2   2R 
 R  
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans. (1)
GM g  2h 
Sol. g'  = = g1   .
(R  H)2  h
2
 R
1  
 R 

33. Electric potential at a point 'P' due to a point charge of 5 × 10 –9C is 50 V. The distance of 'P' from the
1
point charge is: (Assume,  9  109 Nm2C2 )
4 0
(1) 90 cm (2) 0.9 cm (3) 9 cm (4) 3 cm
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans. (1)
kq
Sol. v
r
9  109  5  109 9
 50  r   0.9m
r 10
r  0.9  100  90 cm

34. An emf of 0.08 V is induced in a metal rod of length 10 cm held normal to a uniform magnetic field of
0.4 T, when moves with a velocity of :
(1) 2 ms–1 (2) 0.5 ms–1 (3) 20 ms–1 (4) 3.2 ms–1
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans. (1)
Sol.  = BVL
0.08 = 0.4 (V) (0.1)
V = 2 m/s.

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35. Given below are two statement: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: Electromagnets are made of soft iron.
Reason R: Soft iron has high permeability and low retentivity.
In the light of above, statement, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
(1) A is not correct but R is correct
(2) A is correct but R is not correct
(3) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(4) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
NTA Ans. (4)
Reso Ans. (4)

36. A hydraulic automobile lift is designed to vehicles of mass 5000 kg. The area of cross section of the
cylinder carrying the load is 250 cm 2. The maximum pressure the smaller piston would have to bear is
[Assume g = 10 m/s2]
(1) 2 × 10+5 Pa (2) 20 × 10+6 Pa (3) 2 × 10+6 Pa (4) 200 × 10+6 Pa
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)
F Mg 5000 10
Sol. P  = = 2 × 106 N/m2 .
A A 250  10 4

37. The equivalent resistance between A and B as shown in figure is:

(1) 5 k (2) 20 k (3) 10 k (4) 30 k


NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans. (1)
1 1 1 1
Sol. Resistance are in parallel equipment =    = R = 5 k
R 20 20 10

38. In photo electric effect


(A) The photocurrent is proportional to the intensity of the incident radiation.
(B) Maximum kinetic energy with which photoelectrons are emitted depends on the intensity of incident
light.
(C) Max. K.E with which photoelectron are emitted depends on the frequency of incident light.
(D) The emission of photoelectron require a minimum threshold intensity of incident radiation.
(E) Max K.E of the photoelectrons is independent of the frequency of the incident light.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) B and C only (2) A and B only (3) A and C only (4) A and E only
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)

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39. The temperature at which the kinetic energy of oxygen molecules becomes double than its value at 27°C
is
(1) 1227°C (2) 627°C (3) 327°C (4) 927°C
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)
Sol. K.E. T
K.E T2 T2
2
K.E.T1 300
T2 = 600k = 327°C

40. Work done by carnot engine operating between temperatures 127°C and 27°C is 2kJ. The amount of
heat transferred to the engine by the reservoir is:
(1) 2.27 kJ (2) 2kJ (3) 8 kJ (4) 4kJ
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)
T2 W
Sol.   1 
T1 Q1
300 2
1 
400 Q1
Q1 = 8.

41. The width of fringe is 2 mm on the screen in a double slits experiment for the light of wavelength of
400 nm. The width of the fringe for the light of wavelength 600 nm will be:
(1) 3 mm (2) 4 mm (3) 1.33 mm (4) 2 mm
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans. (1)
Sol. 
1 1
 
2  2
2 = 3mm

42. For a given transistor amplifier circuit in CE configuration VCC = 1 V, RC = 1 k, Rb = 100 k and  = 100.
Value of base current Ib is

(1) Ib = 1.0 A (2) Ib = 0.1 A (3) Ib = 10 A (4) Ib = 100 A


NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)

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Sol. For saturation region VCE 0
VCE = VCC – iCRC = 1 – (iC) (1000) = 0  iC = 1mA
iC 1mA
iB    10A
 100

iC

RC = 1k
iB

RB

VCC = 1 volt
iB

43. For particle P revolving round the centre O with radius of circular path r and angular velocity , as shown
in below figure. the projection of OP on the x-axis at time is

    
(1) x(t) = rcos  t    (2) x(t) = rcos  t  
 6   6

 
(3) x(t) = rsin  t   (4) x(t) = rcos(t)
 6
NTA Ans. (2)
Reso Ans. (2)
  x
Sol. cost   
 6 R

  2 2 
x  R cost   where    
 6 T 6 3

t=t
R
t t=0

6

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44. The waves emitted when a metal target is bombarded with high energy electrons are
(1) X-ray (2) Microwaves (3) Radio Waves (4) Infrared rays
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans. (1)
45. Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Area under velocity-time graph given the distance travelled by the body in a given time
Statement II : Area under acceleration-time graph is equal to the change in velocity in the given time.
In the light of given statement, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are False
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is False.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
NTA Ans. (2)
Reso Ans. (2)

46. A radio active material is reduced to 1/8 of its original amount in 3 days. If 8 × 10–3 kg of the material is
left after 5 days the initial amount of the material is
(1) 40 g (2) 32 g (3) 64 g (4) 256 g
NTA Ans. (4)
Reso Ans. (4)
Sol. T 1  1 days
2

1
m0   8  10 3
32
m0  32  8  103  256 gm

47. The orbital angular momentum of a satellite is L, when it is revolving in a circular orbit at height h from
earth surface. If the distance of satellite from the earth centre is increased by eight times to its initial
value, then the new angular momentum will be-
(1) 3 L (2) 4 L (3) 9 L (4) 8 L
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans. (1)
GM
Sol. L = mvr = m r = m GM r
r
Lf 9r Lf 9r
So L r    Lf = 3Li = 3L.
Li r Li r

48. A bullet of mass 0.1 kg moving horizontally with speed 400 ms –1 hits a wooden block of mass 3.9 kg kept
on a horizontal rough surface. The bullet gets embedded into the block and moves 20 m before coming
to rest. The coefficient of friction between the block and the surface is (Given g = 10 m/s²)
(1) 0.50 (2) 0.90 (3) 0.25 (4) 0.65
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)

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Sol. By momentum conservation
0.1 × 400 = (3.9+0.1)V
V = 10 m/s
v 2  u 2  2as
O  10 2  2as
100 100
a   2.5
40 400
g = 2.5
= 0.25
49. The power radiated from a linear antenna of length  is proportional to (Given, λ = Wavelength of wave):
2
  2 
(1) (2) (3) (4)  
 2  
NTA Ans. (4)
Reso Ans. (4)

50. Match List-I with List-II


LIST-I LIST-II
(A) Torque (I) ML–2T–2
(B) Stress (II) ML2T–2
(C) Pressure gradient (III) ML–1T–1
(D) Coefficient of viscosity (IV) ML–1T–2
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I (2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III (4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
NTA Ans. (2)
Reso Ans. (2)

51. A series combination of resistor of resistance 100 , inductor of inductance 1 H and capacitor of
capacitance 6.25 F is connected to an ac source. The quality factor of the circuit will be______.
NTA Ans. 4
Reso Ans. 4
XL 1 L 1 L 1 1
Sol.     4
R LC R R C 100 6.25  10 6

52. A body of mass 5 kg is moving with a momentum of 10 kg ms –1. Now a force of 2 N acts on the body in
the direction of its motion for 5 s. The increase in the Kinetic energy of the body is________ J.
NTA Ans. 30
Reso Ans. 30
Sol. New momentum = 20 kg-m/s
102 202
Ki =  10,K f   40
25 25
Change in K.E. = 30J.

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53. Two transparent media having refractive indices 1.0 and 1.5 are separated by a spherical refracting
surface of radius of curvature 30 cm. The centre of curvature of surface is towards denser medium and
a point object is placed on the principle axis in rarer medium at a distance of 15 cm from the pole of the
surface. The distance of image from the pole of the surface is__________cm.
NTA Ans. 30
Reso Ans. 30
1 .5 1 1 .5  1
Sol.  
V  15 30
V = –30
|V| = 30.

54. A steel rod of length 1 m and cross sectional area 10 –4 m2 is heated from 0°C to 200°C without being
allowed to extend or bend. The compressive tension produced in the rod is_______ x104 N. (Given
Young's modulus of steel = 2×1011 Nm–2, coefficient of linear expansion = 10–5K–1)
NTA Ans. 4
Reso Ans. 4
F L
Sol. y = y( )
A L
F = Ay() = 10–4 × 2 × 1011 × 10–5 × 200 = 4 × 104 .
x
55. The ratio of wavelength of spectral lines H  and H in the Balmer series is . The value of x is_____.
20
NTA Ans. 27
Reso Ans. 27
Sol. For H n  3  n  2
1  1 1  5R
R  4  9   36
  
for H n  4  n  2
1  1 1  12R 3R
 R    
  4 16  64 16
 3R 36 3 9 27
    
 16 5R 5 4 20

56. The number density of free electrons in copper is nearly 8 x 1028 m–3. A copper wire has its area of cross
section= 2 × 10–6 m2 and is carrying a current of 3.2 A. The drift speed of the electrons is______×10–6
NTA Ans. 25
Reso Ans. 25
Sol. i = neAvd
i 3.2 1 5
vd = =  
= =  10  4 = 125 × 10–6 .
neA 8  10  1.6  10  2  10
28 19 6
8  103 4

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57. The ratio of magnetic field at the centre of a current carrying coil of radius r to the magnetic field at
distance r from the centre of coil on its axis is √x:1. The value of x is________.
NTA Ans. 8
Reso Ans. 8
B C  0  2(R 2  R 2 )3 / 2
Sol. = 
BP 2R  0 R 2

(2R 2 )3 / 2
2 2 8
3
 =
R 1 1
58. A guitar string of length 90 cm vibrates with a fundamental frequency of 120 Hz. The length of the string
producing a fundamental frequency of 180 Hz will be cm.
NTA Ans. 60
Reso Ans. 60
Sol. f  = f''
120 × 90 = 180 × '
' = 60 cm

59. A 600 pF capacitor is charged by 200 V supply. It is then disconnected from the supply and is connected
to another uncharged 600 pF capacitor. Electrostatic energy lost in the process is_______μJ.
NTA Ans. 6
Reso Ans. 6
1
Sol. Ui  (600 )  10 12 (200 )2  12J
2
1
Uf  (1200 )  10 12 (100 )2  6J
2
Loss = Ui – Uf = 6 J.

60. A hollow spherical ball of uniform density rolls up a curved surface with an initial velocity 3 m/s (as shown
in figure). Maximum height with respect to the initial position covered by it will be__________cm
(take, g = 10 m/s²)

NTA Ans. 75
Reso Ans. 75
1  k2 
Sol. mgh  mV2 1  2 
2  R 
 
V2  2 9 5 3
h 1      m = 75 cm.
2g  3 20 3 4

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JEE (Main)
PAPER-1 (B.E./B. TECH.)

2023
COMPUTER BASED TEST (CBT)
Questions & Solutions
Date: 08 April, 2023 (SHIFT-2) | TIME : (3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m)
w

Duration: 3 Hours | Max. Marks: 300

SUBJECT: CHEMISTRY

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PART : CHEMISTRY
61. Given below are two statements:
Statement – I : In redox titration, the indicators used are sensitive to change in pH of the solution.
Statement – II : In acid-base titration, the indicatiors used are sensitive to change in oxidation potential.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Ans. NTA (1)
Reso (1)
Sol. (I) In redox titration indicators are sensitive to change in oxidation potential.
(II) In acid-base titration, indicators are used which are sensitive to pH.

62. In Hall – Heroult process, the following is used for reducing Al 2O3 :
(1) CaF2
(2) Na3AlF6
(3) Graphite
(4) Magnesium
Ans. NTA (3)
Reso (3)
Sol. Electrolytic reduction (Hall-Heroult process) :
The purified Al2O3 is mixed with Na3AlF6 (cryolite) or CaF2 (fluorspar) which lowers the melting point of
the mixture and brings conductivity. The fused matrix is electrolysed. Steel cathode and graphite anode
are used. The graphite anode is useful here for reduction to the metal. The overall reaction may
be taken as : 2Al2O3 + 3C  4Al + 3CO2
The electolysis of the molten mass is carried out in an electrolytic cell using carbon electrodes.
In hall Heroult process graphite is act as reducing agent

63. Which of the following can reduce decomposition of H2O2 on exposure to light
(1) Alkali
(2) Dust
(3) Urea
(4) Glass containers
Ans. NTA (3)
Reso (3)
Sol. H2O2 decomposes slowly on exposure to light.
2H2O2 (l)  2H2O (l) + O2 (g)
In the presence of metal surfaces or traces of alkali (present in glass containers), the above reaction is
catalysed. It is, therefore, stored in wax-lined glass or plastic vessels in dark. Urea can be added as a
stabiliser. It is kept away from dust because dust can induce explosive decomposition of the compound

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64. The correct reaction profile diagram for a positive catalyst reaction.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Ans. NTA (2)


Reso (2)
Sol. A catalyst drives the reaction through a low energy path and hence Ea is less. That is, the function of the
catalyst is to lower down the activation energy.
Ea = Energy of activation in absence of catalyst.
E’a = Energy of activation in presence of catalyst.
Ea – E’a = lowering of activation energy by catalyst.

65. The product (P) formed from the following multistep reaction is:
NO2 (i) Br2
(ii) H2/Pd (P)
(iii) NaNO , HCl, O oC Product
H3C 2
(iv) H3PO2

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Ans. NTA (2)


Reso (2)
CH3 CH3 CH3
Br2 H2/Pd NaNO2/HCl
Sol.
O2N O 2N Br H2N Br
CH3 CH3
C2H5OH
 
ClN
2 Br Br

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66. For a good quality cement, the ratio of lime to the total of the oxides of Si, Al and Fe should be as close
as to
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 3
Ans. NTA (2)
Reso (2)
Sol. For a good quality cement, the ratio of silica (SiO2) to alumina (Al2O3) should be between 2.5 and 4 and
the ratio of lime (CaO) to the total of the oxides of silicon (SiO2) aluminium (Al2O3) and iron
(Fe2O3) should be as close as possible to 2.

67. Henry Moseley studied characteristic X-ray spectra of elements. The graph which represents his
observation correctly is
Given v = frequency of X-ray emitted
Z = atomic number

v
(1)

(2) z

v2
(3)

(4) v

z
Ans. NTA (4)
Reso (4)
Sol. During bombardment of electron on metal surface.
Z 

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68. A compound 'X' when treated with phthalic anhydride in presence of concentrated H2SO4 yields 'Y'. 'Y'
is used as an acid / base indicator. 'X' and 'Y' are respectively
(1) Anisole, methyl orange
(2) Toludine, Phenolphthalein
(3) Carbolic acid, Phenolphthalein
(4) Salicylaldehyde, Phenolphthalein
Ans. NTA (3)
Reso (3)
Sol. Carbolic acid = phenol
OH
O O
, NaOH
O O–

O
OH

69. Which of these reactions is not a part of breakdown of ozone in stratosphere ?


 
(1) Cl O ClO2(g) + C l (g)
 
uv
(2) CF2Cl2(g)   C l (g) + C F2Cl(g)
 
(3) Cl O (g) + O(g) C l (g) + O2(g)
 
(4) C l (g) + O3(g)  Cl O (g) + O2(g)
Ans. NTA (1)
Reso (4)

Sol. Formation of Ozone hole proceed with the decomposition of chlorofluorocarbons and formation of C l
radical.

70. Major product 'P' formed in the following reaction is:

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Ans. NTA (2)


Reso (2)

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 O
Br
O O O
Br2 Br
Sol. O–
OH NaHCO3

71. Match List I with List II


List I List II
Natural amino acid One letter code
A. Glutamic acid I. Q
B. Glutamine II. W
C. Tyrosine III. E
D. Tryptophan IV. Y

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
Ans. NTA (4)
Reso (4)
Sol. Based on fact.

72. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A: Sodium is about 30 times as abundant as potassium in the oceans.
Reason R: Potassium is bigger in size than sodium.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
(1) A is true but R is false
(2) A is false but R is true
(3) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Ans. NTA (4)
Reso (4)
Sol. Statements-I sodium is about 30 times abundant as potassium in oceans.
Statements-II size of sodium is smaller than potassium.

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73. The correct order of reactivity of following haloarenes towards nucleophilic substitution with aqueous
NaOH is

A. B.

C. D.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(1) A  B  D  C
(2) C  A  D  B
(3) D  C  B  A
(4) D  B  A  C
Ans. NTA (4)
Reso (4)
Sol. Chlorobenzene undergoes aromatic nucleophilic substitution via carbanion intermediate in such a
reaction greater the –M group (–NO2, –CN etc) at O & P position greater the stability of carbanion
intermediate and faster the rate of reaction.

74. The statements which are true about antagonists from the following is/are:
A. They bind to the receptor site.
B. Get transferred inside the cell for their action.
C. Inhibit the natural communication of the body.
D. Mimic the natural messenger.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A and C
(2) B only
(3) A and B
(4) A, C and D
Ans. NTA (1)
Reso (1)
Sol. NCERT Fact based.

75. Arrange the following gases in increasing order of van der Waals constant 'a'
A. Ar
B. CH4
C. H2O
D. C6H6
Choose the correct option from the following.
(1) B, C, D and A (2) D, C, B and A
(3) A, B, C and D (4) C, D, B and A
Ans. NTA (3)
Reso (3)

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Sol. Vander wall constant a depends on intermolecular force of attraction so correct order of a is
C6H6 > H2O > CH4 > Ar
Gas Vander-waal constant "a" (atm. L2. mol–2)
Ar 1.355
C6H6 18.57
CH4 2.253
H2O 5.536

76. Which of the following have same number of significant figures ?


A. 0.00253
B. 1.0003
C. 15.0
D. 163
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(1) A, C and D only
(2) B and C only
(3) C and D only
(4) A, B and C only
Ans. NTA (1)
Reso (1)
Sol. Number signification figure
(i) 0.00252 3
(ii) 1.0003 5
(iii) 15.0 3
(iv) 163 3

77. Match List I with List II


List I List II
Coordination Complex Number of unpaired electrons
A. [Cr(CN)6]3– I. 0
B. [Fe(H2O)6]2+ II. 3
C. [Co(NH3)6]3+ III. 2
D. [Ni(NH3)6]2+ IV. 4
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Ans. NTA (2)
Reso (2)
Sol. complex ion Configuration number of unpaired electron
(i) Cr(CN)6]3– 24Cr
3+ = 3d3  t12,1g,1 , e0g,0 3

(ii) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ 26Fe


2+ = 3d6  t 21,1 1,1
2g , e g 4

(iii) [Ni(NH3)6]2+ 28Ni


2+ = 3d8  t 22,g2,2 , e1g,1 2

(iv) [Co(NH3)6]3+ 27Co


3+ = 3d6  t 22,g2,2 , e0g,0 0

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78. The descending order of acidity for the following carboxylic acid is –
A. CH3COOH
B. F3C–COOH
C. ClCH2–COOH
D. FCH2–COOH
E. BrCH2–COOH
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) B  D  C  E  A
(2) B  C  D  E  A
(3) E  D  B  A  C
(4) D  B  A  E  C
Ans. NTA (1)
Reso (1)
Sol. –I effect of F > Cl > Br and greater the extent of –I effect, greater the acidity.

79. Given below are two statements:


Statement – I : Methyl orange is a weak acid.
Statement – II : The benzenoid form of methyl orange is more intense/deeply coloured than the quinonoid
form.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Ans. NTA (2)
Reso (2)

CH3 H+ CH3
–O
Sol. –O 3S NH–N N
3S N=N N
CH3 CH3
Benzenoid form of anion Quinonoid form of the anion
(yellow in colour) (Pinkish red in colour)
Methyl orange is basic in nature
MeOH  Me+ + OH–
Yellow Red

80. The correct IUPAC nomenclature for the following compound is:

(1) 5-Methyl-2-oxohexan-6-oic acid


(2) 2-Methyl-5-oxohexanoic acid
(3) 5-Formyl-2-methylhexanoic acid
(4) 2-Formyl-5-methylhexan-6-oic acid

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Ans. NTA (2)


Reso (2)
O  oxo
2
Sol. CH3–C–CH2–CH2–CH–CH3  methyl
6 5 4 3
COOH
1

2-Methyl-5-oxohexanoic acid

81. If the boiling points of two solvents X and Y (having same molecular weights) are in the ratio 2:1 and
their enthalpy of vaporizations are in the ratio 1:2, then the boiling point elevation constant of X is M
times the boiling point elevation constant of Y. The value of m is ______________ (nearest integer).
Ans. NTA (8)
Reso (8)
RTb2 xMsolvent
Sol. Tb = Kb m Kb =
1000xHvap
2 2
( Tb) X  (Tb) x  Mx HY  2   1 2
  x x =    x =8
( Tb) Y  (Tb) Y  MY HX  1   1 1

82. The ratio of sigma and  bonds present in pyrophosphoric acid is ______________.
Ans. NTA (6)
Reso (6)
Sol. Pyrophosphoric acid  H4P2O7
O O O

P P P
HO OH HO O OH
OH OH OH
H3PO4 H4P2O7
Othophosphoric acid Pyrophoshoric acid

Number of  bond = 12
Number of  bond = 2

83. The number of atomic orbitals from the following having 5 radial nodes is _____________.
7s, 7p, 6s, 8p, 8d
Ans. NTA (3)
Reso (3)
Sol. Number of radial node = (n--1)
orbital number of radial node = (n--1)
(i) 7s (7-0-1) = 6
(ii) 7p (7-1-1) = 5
(iii) 8s (8-0-1) = 7
(iv) 8d (8-2-1) = 5
(v) 6s (6-0-1) = 5

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84. For complete combustion of ethane,


C2H4(g) + 3O2(g)  2CO2(g) + 2H2O(l)
the amount of heat produced as measured in bomb calorimeter is 1406 KJ mol–1 at 300K. The minimum
value of TS needed to reach equilibrium is (–) __________ KJ. (Nearest integer)
Given : R = 8.3 JK–1 mol–1
Ans. NTA (1411)
Reso (1401)
Sol. For equilibrium G = 0
   H - TS = 0
   TS = H = E + ng RT
H = 1406 + [–2] × 8.314 × 10–3 × 300
= 1401 kJ/mol

85. The solubility product of BaSO4 is 1x10–10 at 298K. The solubility of BaSO4 in 0.1 MK2SO4(aq) solution is
____________ x 10–9 gL–1 (nearest integer).
Given : Molar mass of BaSO4 is 233 g mol–1
Ans. NTA (233)
Reso (233)
Sol. BaSO4(s) Ba2+ + SO42–
s s + 0.1
ksp = s × 0.1
s = 10–9 mole/litre = 233 × 10–9 g/litre

86. Coagulating value of the electrolytes AlCl3 and NaCl for As2S3 are 0.09 and 50.04 respectively. The
coagulating power of AlCl3 is x times the coagulating power of NaCl. The value of x is __________.
Ans. NTA (556)
Reso (556)
1
Sol. Coagulating power 
Coagulating value
Coagulating power of AlCl3 Coagulating value of NaCl
=
Coagulating power of NaCl Coagulating value of AlCl3
50.04
= = 556
0.09

87. The number of incorrect statements from the following is __________


A. The electrical work that a reaction can perform at constant pressure and temperature is equal to the
reaction Gibbs energy.
B. Eocell is dependent on the pressure.
dEcell  r s 
C. 
dT nF
D. A cell is operating reversibly if the cell potential is exactly balanced by an opposing source of potential
difference.
Ans. NTA (1)
Reso (1)
Sol. E0cell is defined at constant temperature and 1 bar pressure.

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88. The observed magnetic moment of the complex [Mn(NCS) 6]x– is 6.06 BM. The numerical value of x is
___________ .
Ans. NTA (4)
Reso (4)
Sol. On the basic magnetic moment number of unpaired electron = 6
5 2
25Mn = 3d 4s
So Mn+1 = 3d5 4s1
[Mn(NCS)6 ]x –  [(+1)+(-1)6] = -X

So x=5 ; complex is [Mn(NCS)6 ]5

89. The number of species from the following carrying a single lone pair on central atom Xenon is ______ .
XeF5+, XeO3, XeO2F2, XeF5–, XeO3F2, XeOF4, XeF4
Ans. NTA (4)
Reso (4)
Sol. XeO3, XeOF2, XeO2F2, XeOF4, XeF5–
number of lone pair of electron on central atom :

XeO3 (Pyramidal) (1)


Xe
O O O
O F

Xe
XeO3F2 O (TBP) (0)

XeO2F2 (See-saw) (1)

F O F
XeOF4 (Square pyramidal) (1)
Xe
F F

[XeF5]– (Pantagonal Planner) (2)

F F
[XeF4] Xe (Square Planner) (2)

F F

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90. The sum of oxidation state of the metals in Fe(CO)5, VO2+ and WO3 is ____________ .
Ans. NTA (10)
Reso (10)
Sol. [Fe(CO)5] oxidation number of Fe = 0
VO2+ oxidation number of V = +4
WO3 oxidation number of W = +6

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