C6 Ratios Rose
C6 Ratios Rose
1. The equity multiplier measures the amount of _____________________ for a bank and is one
principal component of the bank's ROE.
leverage (debt)
2. __________________________ risk is one that deals with the quality of the bank's assets and, in
particular, the bank's loans.
Credit
3. A phenomenon wherein interest rates and security prices in the financial marketplace move
against a troubled firm, forcing it to make crucial adjustments in policies and performance in order
to calm investors' worst fears is often referred to as __________________ by economists.
market discipline
Interest-sensitive
5. __________________________ is the risk that the value of the financial institution's asset
portfolio will decline due to falling market prices.
Market risk
6. For a bank, sources of funds like Eurodollars, Fed funds, repurchase agreements, and large CDs
are categorized as ____________________.
purchased funds
7. __________________________ is the risk that a financial institution may not be able to meet the
needs for cash of its depositors.
Liquidity risk
8. __________________________ assets, including loans, are those which are past due by 90 days
or more.
Nonperforming
asset utilization
12. __________________________ measures the amount of debt or leverage a bank has and is one
part of the evaluation of the bank's ROE. It is generally a number larger than one.
Equity multiplier
14. The cumulative impact of all the risks (market risk, credit risk, operational risk, and legal and
compliance risk) put together that can affect a financial firm's long-run survival is often referred to
as _________________________.
capital risk
15. __________________________ is the risk that shifting interest rates in the market will adversely
affect a financial institution's net income or the value of its assets or equity.
16. The ____________________ Act restricts combined auditing and consulting relationships in order
to promote auditor independence and objectivity.
Sarbanes-Oxley
17. ________________________ is one of the most widely respected private institutions that rates
the credit quality of financial institutions.
18. ________________________ refers to the uncertainty regarding a financial firm's earnings due to
failures in computer systems, errors, misconduct by employees, lightning strikes, and similar
events.
19. ________________________ refers to variability in earnings resulting from actions taken by the
legal system including unenforceable contracts, lawsuits, and adverse judgements.
Legal risk
20. ________________________ includes violations of rules and regulations. It can include failure to
hold adequate capital which can lead to costly corrective actions.
Compliance risk
21. ________________________ is the uncertainty associated with public opinion. Negative publicity
(whether true or not) can affect a financial firm's earnings by dissuading customers from using the
services of the institution.
Reputation risk
22. As data processing of financial information becomes more important, managers of financial firms
can realize cost savings from _______________________, transferring tasks from inside the firm
to other firms specializing in information technology.
outsourcing
earnings spread
24. One part of ROE is ________________________ or net income divided by pre-tax net operating
income, which measures a financial firm's use of security gains and losses and other tax
management tools to minimize tax exposure.
26. Financial institutions that pursue the "quiet life" as a goal face less risk of losing earnings or
market share.
TRUE
27. Basic principles of financial management suggest that attempting to maximize a bank's stock
value is the key objective for banks which should have priority over all other goals.
TRUE
28. If the expected stream of future dividends for a bank's shareholder rises, the bank's stock price
should also rise, other factors held constant.
TRUE
29. If the discount factor associated with the value of a bank's stock rises, the bank's stock price
should rise, other factors held constant.
FALSE
30. A bank's ROA equals its ROE times the ratio of total assets divided by total equity capital.
FALSE
31. According to the textbook, a bank's asset-utilization ratio reflects the mix and yield on a bank's
portfolio of assets.
TRUE
32. A bank's profit margin or ratio of net after-tax income to total operating revenue is a measure of
financial leverage for a bank.
FALSE
33. According to the text, the ratio of a bank's net after-tax income to pre-tax net operating income is a
measure of tax management efficiency.
TRUE
34. According to the textbook, the ratio of a bank's pre-tax net operating income to total operating
revenues is a measure of expense-control efficiency.
TRUE
35. The ratio of non-performing assets to total loans and leases is a measure of credit risk in banking
industry.
TRUE
36. One of the measures of a bank's efficiency and return is "earnings spread". It is calculated by the
ratio of total interest income to total liabilities as reduced by the ratio of total interest expenses to
total assets.
FALSE
37. In recent years, the U.S. banking industry's equity multiplier has generally risen in response to
regulatory pressure to raise more capital.
FALSE
38. If a bank adds more full-time employees and posts the same net operating income, its employee
productivity ratio, as defined in the text, must fall.
TRUE
39. According to the textbook, the most profitable U.S. banks in terms of both ROA and ROE are
medium-size institutions in the asset size range of $100 million to $10 billion.
TRUE
40. ROA measures how capably the management of a financial institution has been converting the
institution's assets into net earnings.
TRUE
FALSE
42. The ratio of nonperforming assets to total loans and leases is considered to be a measure of a
bank's market risk.
FALSE
43. Charge-offs represent the securities a bank decides to sell because they have declined in value.
FALSE
44. Loans past due for 90 days or more are classified as nonperforming assets.
TRUE
45. The ratio of cash and government securities to total assets is considered to be a measure of
liquidity risk in banking.
TRUE
46. The ratio of uninsured deposits to total deposits is considered to be a measure of credit risk in
banking.
FALSE
47. The interest rate spread between market yields on bank debt issues (such as capital notes and
CDs) and the market yields on government securities of the same maturity is considered to be a
measure of market risk in banking.
FALSE
48. The ratio of a bank's net operating income to the number of a bank's full-time-equivalent
employees is called the employee productivity ratio.
TRUE
49. Smaller banks usually have fewer liquid assets than larger banks.
FALSE
50. A bank's asset utilization ratio reflects the effectiveness of the bank's expense management.
FALSE
51. The FDIC is a private credit rating company which provides credit ratings on the short term and
long term securities issued by banks.
FALSE
52. During the 1980s, the Comptroller of the Currency, the Federal Reserve and the FDIC created a
new tool called the Uniform Bank Performance Report to help them analyze the financial condition
of banks.
TRUE
53. Liquidity risk examines the quality of a bank's assets and, in particular, the quality of the bank's
loans.
FALSE
54. A bank's degree of asset utilization (AU) or the ratio of total operating revenues to total assets is a
measure of asset management efficiency, especially in terms of the mix and yield on assets.
TRUE
55. The main reason behind the failure of Superior Bank of Chicago and eventual FDIC's takeover of
this institution in 2001 was attributed to misleading accounting practices of inflating asset values
and revenues deflating liabilities and expenses.
FALSE
56. The ratio of a bank's interest income from its loans and security investments less interest
expenses on debt issued, divided by total earning assets measures a bank's:
A. total interest income divided by total earning assets less total interest expense divided by total
interest-bearing bank liabilities.
B. total interest income less total interest expenses divided by earning assets.
C. total operating revenues less total operating expenses divided by total assets.
D. total cash and noncash expenses subtracted from interest and noninterest income divided by
total assets.
E. None of the options is correct.
A. lower-interest-business loans.
B. higher-interest business loans.
C. lower-interest consumer loans.
D. higher-interest consumer loans.
E. None of the options is correct.
64. The ratio that equals total interest income divided by total earning assets less total interest
expense divided by total interest-bearing liabilities is known as the:
A. earnings base.
B. earnings spread.
C. net income margin.
D. net return prior to special transactions.
E. None of the options is correct
A. Earning assets
B. Contra-assets
C. Discretionary accounts
D. Market-valued assets
E. None of the options is correct
66. The tax-management efficiency ratio consists of:
67. The risk that a financial institution may be forced to borrow emergency funds excessive cost to
cover its immediate cash needs is known as:
A. credit risk
B. liquidity risk
C. market risk
D. interest-rate risk
E. None of the options is correct
A. how capable the management has been in converting assets into net earnings.
B. the growth of bank's interest margin.
C. the growth of bank's earnings spread.
D. the rate of return flowing to the shareholders of the bank.
E. All of the options are correct.
69. Which of the following ratios can be used to measure a bank's credit risk?
71. A bank that has a high asset utilization (AU) ratio most likely:
72. Which of the following would be the best example of a ratio used to examine the cost of one of a
bank's liabilities?
73. Which of the following would be the best example of a ratio used to examine the return on one of
a bank's assets?
74. Which of the following would be the best example of a ratio used to examine a bank's interest rate
risk?
75. A bank expects to pay a dividend of $3.45 next year and growth rate on dividends to be 7%. If the
appropriate discount rate is 15%, what should the bank's stock price be in the market?
A. $23.00
B. $43.13
C. $46.14
D. $49.29
E. $24.61
76. Following is the information for Carter State Bank. What is the bank's ROE?
A. 8.46 percent
B. 16.03 percent
C. 15.71 percent
D. 1.36 percent
E. None of the options is correct
77. Following is the information listed below for Carter State Bank. What is the bank's ROA?
A. 8.46 percent
B. 16.03 percent
C. 15.71 percent
D. 1.36 percent
E. None of the options is correct
78. Following is the information listed below for Carter State Bank. What is the bank's net profit
margin?
A. 8.46 percent
B. 16.03 percent
C. 15.71 percent
D. 1.36 percent
E. None of the options is correct
79. Following is the information listed below for Carter State Bank. What is the bank's asset utilization
ratio?
A. 8.46 percent
B. 16.03 percent
C. 15.71 percent
D. 1.36 percent
E. None of the options is correct
80. The TRC Bank has a net profit margin of 7.5%, an asset utilization ratio of 18%, and an equity
multiplier of 20. What is the bank's ROA?
A. 27.00 percent
B. 1.35 percent
C. 7.50 percent
D. 1.50 percent
E. 3.6 percent
81. The TRC Bank has a net profit margin of 7.5%, an asset utilization ratio of 18%, and an equity
multiplier of 20. What is the bank's ROE?
A. 27.00 percent
B. 1.35 percent
C. 7.50 percent
D. 1.50 percent
E. 3.6 percent
82. The Smith-James Bank has an ROE of 17.5%, an asset utilization ratio of 13%, and a net profit
margin of 9%. What is the bank's ROA?
A. 14.96 percent
B. 1.58 percent
C. 1.17 percent
D. 134.62 percent
E. None of the options is correct
83. The Smith-James Bank has an ROE of 17.5%, an asset utilization ratio of 13%, and a net profit
margin of 9%. What is the bank's equity multiplier?
A. 14.96 times
B. 1.58 times
C. 1.17 times
D. 134.62 times
E. None of the options is correct
84. What is the equity multiplier for a bank whose equity is equal to 10 percent of total assets?
A. 90.0
B. 10.0
C. 1.
1
D. 110.0
E. 1.
0
A. more
B. less
C. a
s
D. much more
E. much less
89. Brian Smith, the CEO of Carter National Bank, anticipates that interest rates may fall in the future
and as a result buys $100 million in 30 year Treasury Bonds for the bank's security portfolio.
Instead, interest rates rise, causing the value of these bonds to fall. This would be an example of
which of the following types of risk?
A. Operational risk
B. Legal risk
C. Compliance risk
D. Strategic risk
E. Reputation risk
90. Chaos State Bank has an old computer system which can go down for weeks at a time, leaving
customers unable to access their accounts online. Many customers have left the bank for banks
with more reliable computer systems. Which type of risk would this be an example of?
A. Operational risk
B. Legal risk
C. Compliance risk
D. Strategic risk
E. Reputation risk
91. Carson County State Bank has a ratio of equity capital to total assets of 2.5%. The regulators
have asked all banks of similar size to maintain a capital adequacy ratio of 8%. They are making
the bank issue new stock in the market. In addition, they are not allowing the bank to issue
dividends to their current stockholders. Which type of risk would this be an example of?
A. Operational risk
B. Legal risk
C. Compliance risk
D. Strategic risk
E. Reputation risk
92. Everett Bank has just learned that there is a disgruntled former employee who has created a blog
that is telling everyone that Everett Bank has halved their customer service representatives and
therefore customers have great difficulty getting through to a relationship officer when there is a
problem with their account. Everett is worried that it may lose customers as a result of such a
write-up. Which type of risk would this be an example of?
A. Operational risk
B. Legal risk
C. Compliance risk
D. Strategic risk
E. Reputation risk
93. Norman Bank made a loan of $1,000,000 to Jarod LeFevre. Jarod has declared bankruptcy and
Norman Bank has just learned that the judge in the case has ruled that Jarod does not have to
pay any part of the loan back or forfeit any of his assets. Which type of risk would this be an
example of?
A. Operational risk
B. Legal risk
C. Compliance risk
D. Strategic risk
E. Reputation risk
94. Forrest Fennell is planning to invest in Capital City Bank. He is examining the ratios of
nonperforming loans to total loans and leases and the provision for loan losses to total loans and
leases. What type of risk is Forrest attempting to measure with these ratios?
A. Credit risk
B. Liquidity risk
C. Market risk
D. Interest rate risk
E. Operational risk
95. Gerald Wilkens is planning to invest in the stock of Tallahassee State Bank. He is examining the
ratios of cash assets and government securities to total assets and purchased funds to total
assets. What type of risk is Gerald attempting to measure with these ratios?
A. Credit risk
B. Liquidity risk
C. Market risk
D. Interest rate risk
E. Operational risk
96. Amy Farmer is planning to invest in the stock of Guthrie National Bank. She is examining ratios of
the book value of the assets to the market value of the assets and the market value of the bonds
held by the bank to their recorded value. What type of risk is Amy attempting to measure with
these ratios?
A. Credit risk
B. Liquidity risk
C. Market risk
D. Legal risk
E. Operational risk
97. Paul Smith is planning to invest in the stock of Capital City Bank. He is examining the ratios of
interest sensitive assets to interest sensitive liabilities and uninsured deposits to total deposits.
What type of risk is Paul attempting to measure with these ratios?
A. Credit risk
B. Liquidity risk
C. Legal risk
D. Interest rate risk
E. Operational risk
98. The Garic State Bank of New Orleans has been under water for three weeks since hurricane
Katrina hit the state. The lobby is full of mud and other debris. Many of the valuables stored in the
bank's safety deposit boxes have been ruined. John Garic, the President and CEO of the bank,
has been working night and day to reopen the bank. What type of risk has John been dealing
with?
A. Credit risk
B. Liquidity risk
C. Market risk
D. Interest rate risk
E. Operational risk
A. 20.45
%
B. 18.33
%
C. 12.22
%
D. 7.33
%
E. 2.5
%
A. 20.45
%
B. 18.33
%
C. 12.22
%
D. 7.33
%
E. 2.5
%
A. 20.45
%
B. 18.33
%
C. 12.22
%
D. 7.33
%
E. 2.5
%
102. What is the bank's asset utilization ratio?
A. 20.45
%
B. 18.33
%
C. 12.22
%
D. 7.33
%
E. 2.5
%
A. 20.45 times
B. 18.33 times
C. 12.22 times
D. 7.33 times
E. 2.5 times
A. 37.5
%
B. 22.22
%
C. 14.33
%
D. 7.89
%
E. 2.5
%
The following financial information pertains to Harrison Bank.
A. 1.6
%
B. 10
%
C. 12.8
%
D. 16
%
E. None of the options is correct
A. 1.6
%
B. 10
%
C. 12.8
%
D. 16
%
E. None of the options is correct
A. 1.6 times
B. 10 times
C. 12.8 times
D. 16 times
E. None of the options is correct
A. 1.6
%
B. 10
%
C. 12.8
%
D. 16
%
E. None of the options is correct
A. $125
B. $8,000
C. $488,281
D. $31,250,00
0
E. None of the options is correct
110. Which of the following assets are excluded from the category of risk assets?
112. The Trust-worthy Bank had declared and paid a dividend of $2 last year. The dividend amount to
shareholders is expected to grow at the rate of 10 percent while the minimum acceptable rate for
the investors on the bank's stock is 15 percent. What is the price at which the stock of
Trust-worthy bank must be valued at in the market?
A. $40
B. $44
C. $38
D. $22
E. $88
113. A financial institution with a low ROA can achieve a relatively high ROE through:
A. high leverage.
B. low leverage.
C. high owner's capital.
D. tax swap.
E. None of the options is correct.
115. Which of the following types of banks tend to enjoy the highest net-interest margins in the
industry?
A. Small-sized banks
B. Virtual banks
C. Investment banks
D. Large commercial banks
E. Federally chartered banks
116. The risk of deterioration in the value of a financial firm's assets as a result of fluctuating currency
prices is known as:
A. basis risk.
B. country risk.
C. political risk.
D. foreign-exchange risk.
E. economic risk.
117. The risk of a government's ability to repay its debt owed to international lending institutions is
known as:
A. market risk.
B. credit risk.
C. operational risk.
D. sovereign risk.
E. legal risk.
A. Rise in the market yields on debt issued by a bank and market yields on government securities
of similar maturities
B. Fall in the ratio of stock price per share to earnings per share
C. Decline in the ratio of equity capital to total assets
D. Increase in purchased funds as a percentage of total liabilities
E. All of the options are correct.