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February Monthly Magazine 2024

The document is the February 2024 monthly magazine of SPM IAS Academy. It contains articles on various topics related to polity, governance, economy, infrastructure, international relations, science and technology, environment, ethics and integrity as well as Assam specific issues. The magazine has sections dedicated to each of these topics with 3-5 articles under each section. It provides latest updates and information across these domains to help civil service aspirants in their preparation.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)

145 views158 pages

February Monthly Magazine 2024

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trishnabarman123pk

We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.

Available Formats

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FEBRUARY MONTHLY MAGAZINE 2024

SPM IAS Academy, D.S. Mansion 2nd floor, Opposite Indian Oil Petrol Pump, Near Assam State Zoo, Zoo Road,
Guwahati, Assam – 781005 Phone: 6901259799, Students’ Support Team: 7099064717,
Email: spmiasacademy@gmail.com
1
FEBRUARY MONTHLY MAGAZINE 2024

Economy and Infrastructure

February Magazine 16th Finance Commission ................................. 50

Polity and Governance Interim Budget................................................... 51
“Finance of Panchayat Raj Institutions” report .... 6 Fiscal consolidation due to tax buoyancy .......... 54
Project 39A ......................................................... 7 Other data wrt economy .................................... 55
SC on Electoral Bond Scheme ........................... 9 Environment friendly projects-Green Push and
Blue Economy ................................................... 56
Doctrine of proportionality ................................. 11
Nano DAP to be expanded ............................... 57
Article 142 of the constitution ............................ 12
e-NAM .............................................................. 58
Right to Education Act ................................... 14
PLI Scheme for White goods............................. 60
New Lokpal appointed ...................................... 15
White Paper on Indian Economy ....................... 61
4 judicial reforms proposed by CJI .................... 17
Goldilock moment of RBI monetary policy ......... 61
Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means)
Bill, 2024 .......................................................... 18 Pradhan Mantri Matsya Kisan Samridhi Sah-
Yojana (PM-MKSSY) ........................................ 62
New guidelines for Cinema halls for people with
disabilities ......................................................... 19 Statutory status to MSP .................................... 64
SWATI portal .................................................... 20 PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana ....................... 67
Assam first state to deliver 1 cr Ayushman card 21 RBI put restraints on a certain card network ...... 68
Arunachal Pradesh attains Har Ghar jal ............ 22 Anti dumping duty ............................................. 69
SC on appointment of DGP .............................. 24 India Semiconductor Mission ............................ 70
Donor gametes allowed .................................... 24 AT1 bonds ........................................................ 72
Criminalisation of Politics .................................. 26 India’s first parametric insurance for fish farmers
......................................................................... 74
28th Financial Stability and Development Council
International Relations meeting ............................................................. 75
Neighbour First Policy in Budget 2024 .............. 28 Rubber plantation in Northeast .......................... 76
India Sri Lanka fishermen issue ........................ 30 Consumption Survey ......................................... 77
Indian Ocean Conference ................................. 32
World Government Summit (WGS) 2024 .......... 33 Science and Technology
UPI in Sri Lanka and Mauritius ......................... 35
Brain Computer Interface .................................. 79
China’s border defence villages ........................ 36
CAR-T cell therapy............................................ 80
Act East Policy and Myanmar military junta rule 39
High - Altitude Pseudo Satellite vehicle ............. 81
Raisina dialogue ............................................... 43
ISRO’s Naughty boy launch .............................. 82
Permanent solution to food stockholding .......... 44
Water detected on the surface of an asteroid .... 85
Collective Security Treaty Organisation ............ 45
First commercial company to do soft landing on
Financial Action task Force ............................... 46 Moon ................................................................. 86
UNSC Reform .................................................. 47 Virtual Private Network...................................... 87

‘Hanooman’ ...................................................... 88 Assam Issues

4 Astronauts selected for Gaganyaan mission .. 89
Asam Sahitya Sabha special........................... 117
India’s Genetic map .......................................... 90
Me-Dam-Me-Phi festival.................................. 117
National Science Day ....................................... 91
Development Projects in Assam ..................... 118
Environment Practises of buffalo and bulbul fight................. 119
3. 5 more Ramsar sites..................................... 93 Green Innovation Fund ................................... 121
Snow Leopard Population Assessment in India 93 Numaligarh Refinery Expansion project .......... 121
Humboldt enigma ............................................. 94 E-governance initiatives by Assam govt .......... 123
World Sustainable Development Summit .......... 95 Highest Civilian Awards of Assam 2023 .......... 125
Climate Inequality ............................................. 96 State fruit of Assam ......................................... 126
50 years of Kaziranga National park ................. 97 Mukhya Mantri Nijut Moina scheme ................ 126
Defining Forests as per Godavarman judgement Ali Aye Ligang festival ..................................... 128
......................................................................... 99 Semiconductor plant in Assam ........................ 128
Conservation of Migratory Species-CoP14 ..... 100 Mission Basundhara 3.0.................................. 129
Anti-hydrogen Experiment: Gravity, National Turmeric Board ................................. 131
Interferometer, Spectroscopy (AEgIS) ............ 102
Reclamation of Char areas ............................. 132
Gharial presence in Assam ............................. 133
Ethics and Integrity Muslim marriage law repealed ........................ 134
Quote ‘If the… State is not built on durable Assam Financial Corporation .......................... 135
foundations, it will be futile’ ............................. 105
Corruption in education system detected through
technology ...................................................... 105 Prelims Specific

Bharat Ratna for LK Advani............................. 137

Geography and Disaster Management Stingless bees................................................. 138
Grammy Awards ............................................. 138
Atmospheric Rivers ........................................ 107
Rights Issue .................................................... 139
Land of Fire and Ice........................................ 108
Bharat Ratna awards ...................................... 140
La Nina effect on air quality ............................ 110
Quote- ‘The Internet is becoming the town square
for the global village of tomorrow’ .................... 141
History, Art & Culture And Indian Society Nazool land ..................................................... 143
Guru Ravidas Jayanti ..................................... 112 Quote: ‘Mathematics is the music of reason’ ... 144
Sangeet Natak Akademi awards ..................... 113 Khelo India University Games ......................... 146
Ajanta and Ellora caves in Swadesh Darshan Yuvika programme .......................................... 146
Scheme .......................................................... 114 Mission Aspides .............................................. 147
Gold at Asian Championship ........................... 148
Global Initiative on Digital Health .................... 149

Exercise Dosti 16............................................ 150

Sudarshan Setu .............................................. 151
Coalition to curb wildlife trafficking .................. 152
T V Somanathan committee ........................... 152

POLITY AND GOVERNANCE

“Finance of Panchayat Raj
Institutions” report
GS Paper II-Polity & Governance(Devolution of
Power) Prelims
"Youtube: DNA 7.02.2024"

Current news? Devolution index

• RBI has recently released a report titled
“Finance of Panchayat Raj Institutions” • The devolution index rates a State based on
• The report highlighted the significance of three parameters:-
financial autonomy of Panchayats. 1. The transfer of subjects such as drinking
Key findings water, rural housing, family welfare, and
1. RBI study noted that panchayats earn only women and child development under the
1% of their income through taxes, with the control of panchayats.
rest being sourced from Central and State 2. The transfer of functionaries, that is, how
grants. many positions were filled by panchayats on
2. Panchayats having more functional and their own.
financial autonomy perform well on health, 3. The transfer of finances, that is, power of
nutrition and sanitation. panchayats to raise its own funds and
3. RBI uses devolution index prepared by autonomy in decision-making.
MoPRs (ministry of Panchayat Raj) to • Basically devolution index measures
checks whether these better-performing States performance of Panchayati Raj Institutions
also have greater autonomy at the panchayat based on 3 problems faced by them known as
level.For example-Kerala has high problems of 3Fs-Funds,Functions and
devolution score and low IMR and reverse is Functionaries.
true for Assam.

Mains Practice Question

Q. Highlight the challenges faced by
Panchayati Raj institutions and possible
solution. 10 marks/150 words

Project 39A
GS Paper II-Indian Polity Prelims
"Youtube: DNA 10.02.2024"

Recent developments

What is Project 39A? • Recently Annual Death Penalty Report 2023

has been published by Project 39A.
• It is a group of National Law University. • According to the Annual Death Penalty
• It re-examine practices and policies in the Report 2023, appellate Courts in India - SC
criminal justice system. and all the HCs together - confirmed only one
• Project 39A is inspired by Article 39-A of the death sentence in 2023.
Indian Constitution. • 57 death penalty cases were disposed of in
Article 39-A of the Indian constitution 2023, in just one death sentence was awarded.
• Article 39A of the Constitution of India deals • While the rest were either commuted or saw
with the provisions of equal justice and free the prisoners acquitted altogether.
legal aid. • It is lowest since 2000.
• The article was inserted by the Constitution
(Forty-second Amendment) Act, 1976.
Death Penalty in India Report
• Death Penalty in India Report is published by
Project 39A
• It keeps a track on the death sentences
awarded by the courts in the country.

SC directives to courts while deciding on

death sentence

Bachan Singh’s case,1980 Arguments in favour and against Death

• In May 1980, when the Supreme Court upheld Penalty
the constitutional validity of the death
penalty in Bachan Singh’s case. 1. Deterrence
• It also developed a framework was • Capital punishment is often justified with
developed for future judges to follow when the argument that by executing convicted
they had to choose between life murderers, we will deter would-be
imprisonment and the death penalty. murderers from killing people.
• SC propounded the dictum of ‘rarest of rare 2. Retribution
cases’ according to which death penalty is not • People should get what they deserve in
to be awarded except in the ‘rarest of rare proportion to the severity of their crime.
cases’ when the alternative option is Arguments Against the Death Penalty
unquestionably foreclosed. 1. Deterrence Ineffective
Rarest of Rare Cases can be described: • The statistical evidence doesn’t confirm
• When the murder is committed in an that deterrence works.
extremely brutal, ridiculous, diabolical, • Death has been prescribed in rape cases
revolting, or reprehensible manner so as to since 2013 (Sec. 376A of IPC), still, rapes
awaken intense and extreme indignation of the continue to happen and in fact, the brutality
community. of rapes has increased manifold.
• When total depravity and cruelty are the 2. No Rehabilitation
motives behind a murder. • Capital punishment doesn't rehabilitate the
prisoner and return them to society.
3. Execution of the Innocent
• Innocent people may get killed, because of
mistakes or flaws in the justice system.
Way forward?
• Instead of just enhancing punishment to
tackle crime against women and children, we
need to take two pronged strategy-
1. Building moral values amongst youth
2. Strengthening investigative and reporting
mechanisms.

The Law Commission of India in its 262nd

Report (August 2015) recommended that death
penalty be abolished for all crimes other than
terrorism related offences.

Mains Practice Question

Q. Effectiveness of Capital punishment is
contested. In this light, critically examine
the need for continuance of capital
punishment in India. (250 words)
Capital punishment is manifestation of retributive
justice.
Need of Capital punishment
• Deterrent effect of death penalty
• Security in Society of vulnerables like children
and women
• Public opinion is in favour of the death penalty
for certain heinous crimes, such as terrorism, Use of Black money-Money Power in Politics
rape, murder etc.
Implications-
Even SC has reserved capital punishment for such
1. Vote-buying
‘rarest of rare’ crimes in Bachan SIngh Case 1980.
• The rise of illegitimate expenditure on
But capital punishment is often questioned on
vote-buying has become a matter of great
following grounds-
concern as it is making only the rich to
• Ambiguity of rarest of the rare cases
be more qualified to become an MP.
• No evidence of its effectiveness
2. Against the concept of Democracy
• Deterrence Ineffective proved by data
• Democracy-rule of people
• Execution of the Innocent
• In a country where majority of the
Many developed countries have abolished it.The
people are poor-yet only few individuals
Law Commission of India in its 262nd Report
get political power
(August 2015) recommended that death penalty be
3. Uneven playing field
abolished for all crimes other than terrorism related
4. Mafia-Politicians nexus
offences.
5. Criminalisation of politics
Way forward- Two pronged strategy-Building
moral values amongst youth,Strengthening Electoral Bond Scheme, 2018
investigative and reporting mechanisms
• The electoral bonds were introduced with the
SC on Electoral Bond •
Finance Bill (2017).
On January 29, 2018 government notified the
Scheme Electoral Bond Scheme 2018.
• Electoral Bond is a financial instrument for
GS Paper II-Indian Polity Prelims making donations to political parties.
"Youtube: DNA 16.02.2024" • The bonds are issued in multiples of Rs.
1,000, Rs. 10,000, Rs. 1 lakh, Rs. 10 lakh and
Rs. 1 crore without any maximum limit.
• If anyone has to make cash donation to any
political party he or she can donate only
rupees 2000 at a time.
• For donation of larger amount electoral bonds
are the only option.

January, April, July and October or as may

be specified by the Central Government.

Under the scheme, any registered political party

that has secured at least 1% of the votes in the
last General Election or Assembly elections is
eligible to receive EBs from anonymous
donors. Since the start of the scheme in 2018,
over Rs 14,000 crore has been donated to
political parties through EBs.

Issues with Electoral Bonds

Anonymity of the donor
• Donors could purchase these bonds from
authorized banks without revealing their
Electoral Bonds identity.
• This anonymity raised concerns about
transparency.
• State Bank of India is authorised to issue • Critics argued that this lack of transparency
and encash these bonds, which are valid for could lead to the possibility of black money
fifteen days from the date of issuance. being funnelled into political parties.
• These bonds are redeemable in the • Several petitions were filed in the SC that the
designated account of a registered political citizens’ right to know about donations of the
party. Political party.
• Every party that is registered under section • Several petitions were filed in the Supreme
29A of the Representation of the Peoples Court challenging the provisions of
Act, 1951 and has secured at least 1% of the anonymity in Electoral bond as violations of
votes polled in the most recent Lok Sabha or voters right to know about the political parties
State election will be allotted a verified and candidate.
account by the Election Commission of
India.
• Electoral bond transactions can be made
only via this account.
• The bonds are available for purchase by any
person (who is a citizen of India or company
incorporated or established in India) for a
period of ten days each in the months of

Directions issued by the court

Current news? Direction to SBI

• The decision by the Supreme Court (SC) • The SBI has been ordered to;
declaring Electoral Bonds (EB) scheme as a. immediately stop the issuance of any
unconstitutional in its current state. further electoral bonds and
Grounds for declaring Electoral Bond b. Furnish details of such bonds
Scheme? purchased by political parties since April 12,
• The Electoral Bond Scheme violates a 2019, to the ECI by March 6.
fundamental right ie right to information by c. Such details must include the date of
maintaining anonymity about the donor. purchase of each bond, the name of the
Right to information purchaser of the bond and the denomination of the
• In 1976, in the Raj Narain vs the State of bond purchased.
Uttar Pradesh case, the Supreme Court ruled Directions to Election Commission of India
that Right to information will be treated as a • The ECI shall subsequently publish all such
fundamental right under article 19(1)(a)- information shared by the SBI on its official
Freedom of Speech and Expression. website by 13 March 2024.
• As per SC Freedom of Speech and Expression
is hollow without right information. Q. “Electoral bonds became problem in the
• Thus both rights are organically linked. face of solution”. Discuss 10 marks/150
Note-RTI Act 2005 lays down criteria/methods to words
derive information from respective government
departments.
Doctrine of proportionality
GS Paper II-Indian Polity Prelims
"Youtube: DNA 16.02.2024"

Doctrine of proportionality
Article 142 of the
•
constitution
The doctrine of proportionality calls for striking
down of laws or administrative actions that
are excessively harsh or disproportionate. GS Paper II-Indian Polity Prelims
• Doctrine of proportionality is most relevant in "Youtube: DNA 20.02.2024"
determining reasonable restriction by Article
19(2) on Rights provided under Article 19(1).
• Proportionality is a ground for judicial review
by the SC.
• It is in line with the concept of ‘due process
of law’.

Current context
• Underlining that the restrictions on free Article 142 of the Constitution
speech by the electoral bonds scheme are
not “proportional” to its goal, a five-judge • Article 142 provides discretionary power to the
Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court, Supreme Court as it states that the Supreme
headed by Chief Justice of India (CJI) DY Court in the exercise of its jurisdiction may
Chandrachud, unanimously struck down the pass such decree or make such order as is
scheme. necessary for doing complete justice in any
• The court said state must demonstrate that its cause or matter pending before it.
action is the "least restrictive" and that no other • Any decree so passed or order so made shall
"equally effective" methods exist to achieve its be enforceable throughout the territory of
objective. India.
• It may be in such manner as may be
UPSC Prelims 2023 prescribed by or under any law made by
Q1. In essence, what does ‘Due Process of Parliament and, until provision in that behalf is
Law' mean? so made, in such manner as the President
a. The principle of natural justice may by order prescribe.
b. The procedure established by law
c. Fair application of law
d. Equality before law

Important instances when Article 142 was Current context

invoked
• In overturning the results of the January 30
Bhopal Gas tragedy case elections for the post of Mayor of the
• The SC awarded a compensation of $470 Chandigarh Municipal Corporation, the
million to the victims and held that Supreme Court on Tuesday (February 20)
“prohibitions or limitations or provisions invoked the sweeping powers conferred on
contained in ordinary laws cannot, ipso facto, the court under Article 142 of the
act as prohibitions or limitations on the Constitution.
constitutional powers under Article 142.” • In its order, the bench — comprising Chief
Babri Masjid demolition case Justice of India D Y Chandrachud, Justices
• The Supreme Court ordered framing of a J B Pardiwala and Manoj Misra — hearing
scheme by the Centre for formation of trust to the case said: “We are of the considered view
construct Ram Mandir at the Masjid that in such a case, this court is duty bound,
demolition site in Ayodhya. particularly in the context of its jurisdiction
Liquor sale ban case under Article 142 of the Constitution, to do
• The Supreme Court banned liquor shops complete justice to ensure that the process
within a distance of 500 metres from of electoral democracy is not allowed to be
National as well as State highways in order to thwarted by such subterfuges.”
prevent drunken driving.
• Application of Article 142 by the SC is
considered as judicial activism by the
supporters but judicial overreach by
critics.

UPSC Prelims 2019

Q1. With reference to the Constitution of India,
prohibitions or limitations or provisions
contained in ordinary laws cannot act as
prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional
powers under Article 142. It could mean which
one of the following?
a. The decisions taken by the Election
Commission of India while discharging its
duties cannot be challenged in any court of
law.
b. The Supreme Court of India is not
constrained in the exercise of its powers by
laws made by the Parliament.
c. In the event of grave financial crisis in
the country, the President of India can declare
Financial Emergency without the counsel from
the Cabinet.

d. State Legislatures cannot make laws on

certain matters without the concurrence of
Union Legislature.

Right to Education Act

GS Paper II-Indian Polity Prelims
"Youtube: DNA 27.02.2024"

Article 21A
Article 21A
• The State shall provide free and compulsory
education to children between age group of 6
to 14 years. For implementation of this
provision the parliament shall make a law.
• Accordingly the parliament made a law -
Right to Free and Compulsory Education
Act 2009.
Provisions of the act
1. The RTE Act aims to provide primary
Provisions in the constitution education to all children aged 6 to 14
years.
• Originally- DPSP-Art 45 Free and compulsory 2. It lays down the norms and standards
education to children 6-14 years related to:
86th Amendment, 2002- • Pupil Teacher Ratios (PTRs)- 30: 1
1. Part III-Free and compulsory education a • Buildings and infrastructure- Separate
Fundamental Right under Article 21 A. toilet for girls and boys, drinking water
2. Part IV-DPSP Art 45- Early Childhood care facility etc
of children below age of 6. 3. The act mandates 25% reservation for
3. Part IV A-Added 51A(k)-who is a parent or disadvantaged sections of the society by private
guardian to provide opportunities for schools.
education to his child or, as the case may be,
ward between the age of six and fourteen
years.
Note
• At the time of enactment of the constitution
the government was lacking in fund and
functionaries to provide free and compulsory
education to all children between age group 6-
14 years. Thus it made it a part of DPSP.
• DPSP is directive for the government, but not
justiciable.

How 25% reservation policy works?

• A key aspect of The Right Of Children To Free
And Compulsory Education Act, 2009 (RTE
Act) is the obligation placed on private
schools to ensure that 25 percent of Class 1
students admitted must belong to “weaker
section and disadvantaged group in the
neighbourhood”.
• Students admitted under this quota are given
fee concessions, with the state government
meant to reimburse private schools for the
same.

Current news?
• Maharashtra joins Kerala and Karnataka to
dilute private schools’ obligations under
The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory
Education Act, 2009. Lokpal and Lokayukta Act 2013
• The new rule states that the “local authority
shall not identify the private unaided school,
for the purposes of 25 per cent admission of • The Lokpal and Lokayukta Act, 2013
disadvantaged group and weaker section provided for the establishment of Lokpal for
under the Maharashtra Right of Children to the Union and Lokayukta for States.
Free and Compulsory Education Rules, 2013, • These institutions are statutory bodies
where government schools and aided without any constitutional status.
schools are situated within one-kilometre Need of Lokpal and Lokayuktas
radius of that school.” • The Lokpal at Union level and the
Lokayuktas at the state level are empowered
Why such changes? to investigate against even PM( by Lokpal,
CM by Lokayukta) and other cabinet
• Enrollment ratio [in government schools] ministers.
dropping drastically. • It is important because other investigative
• Parents want their children to be enrolled agencies like CBI and CVC have become
in private school only. caged parrot according to the Supreme
Critics Court.
• Forcing parents to send their children to • CBI needs permission from government
government schools without improving before investigating any case.
the quality of government schools is • Thus India needed a separate agency to curb
denial of right to education- a corruption at top level.
fundamental right.

New Lokpal appointed

GS Paper II-Indian Polity Prelims
"Youtube: DNA 28.02.2024"

• The term of office for Lokpal Chairman and

Members is 5 years or till the age of 70
years.
• The members are appointed by the president
Structure of Lokpal
on the recommendation of a Selection
• Lokpal consists of one chairperson and a Committee.
maximum of 8 members. • The selection committee is composed of the
• Chairperson of the Lokpal should be either 1. Prime Minister who is the Chairperson;
the former Chief Justice of India or the 2. Speaker of Lok Sabha,
former Judge of Supreme Court or an 3. Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha,
eminent person with special knowledge and 4. Chief Justice of India or a Judge
expertise of minimum 25 years to anti- nominated by him/her and
corruption policy. 5. One eminent jurist-nominated by
• Out of the maximum eight members, half will President on basis of consensus of first 4
be judicial members and remaining of the members.
Members will be from SC/ ST/ OBC/ Amendment in 2016
Minorities and women. • The term Leader of Opposition was
• The judicial member of the Lokpal either a changed with Leader of single largest
former Judge of the Supreme Court or a party in opposition (because technically
former Chief Justice of a High Court. there was no opposition in Lok sabha).

Current news? 1. Adjournment culture

• The President of India has appointed former • An adjournment refers to the court practice of
Supreme Court Justice A.M. Khanwilkar as delaying a scheduled hearing to a later
chairperson of the Lokpal. date.
• Adjournment requests are followed as per the
Prelims Practice Question Civil Procedure Code, 1908.
Q1. Consider the following Statement about the • The 239th Law Commission Report (2012)
Lokpal; said the lawyers use provisions of
1. Lokpal is headed by the Chief Justice of the adjournment to delay the process.
High Court. • It leads to a vicious cycle.
2. The Lokpal consists of a Chairperson with • CJI Chandrachud, quoting a famous Sunny
a maximum of 10 members of which 50% Deol dialogue, cautioned lawyers against
shall be judicial members. turning the SC into a “tareekh pe tareekh
3. The Lokpal Jurisdictions cover the Prime court”
Minister of India.
Which of the following Statement is/are
incorrect?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3

4 judicial reforms proposed

by CJI
GS Paper II-Governance-Judiciary Prelims
"Youtube: DNA 5.02.2024"

The four issues highlighted are-

2. Extensive oral arguments
• Arguments are often repeated by
lawyers.
• In the Supreme Court of the United
States, lawyers are instructed to strictly
limit their arguments to 30 minutes a
side.
• In 2009, the 230th Law Commission
Report suggested limiting oral
arguments to one-and-a-half hours,
unless the case involved constitutional
interpretation or a complex question of
law.
Current context 3. Long court vacations
• Courts work for about 210 days an year.
• Delivering the Foundation Day address on • On working days too there are fixed
the Supreme Court’s 75th year of working hours.
establishment on January 28, the CJI • CJI referred to the possibility of
highlighted four issues within the judiciary. alternatives like flexi-time for lawyers
The four issues highlighted are- and judges. This is a practice where
SPM IAS Academy, D.S. Mansion 2nd floor, Opposite Indian Oil Petrol Pump, Near Assam State Zoo, Zoo Road,
Guwahati, Assam – 781005 Phone: 6901259799, Students’ Support Team: 7099064717,
Email: spmiasacademy@gmail.com
17
FEBRUARY MONTHLY MAGAZINE 2024

employees are allowed to choose their • The Law Commission is neither a statutory nor
daily working hours so long as they work a constitutional body. The Law Commission is
for a set total number of hours in a given an executive body which is established by the
period. government for a fixed tenure.
• A similar arrangement was introduced in • The Commission submits reports to the
2022 in Philippines. government on various matters of a legal
nature. The reports are not binding on the
government, which can either reject or accept
them.

Public Examinations
(Prevention of Unfair
Means) Bill, 2024
GS Paper II-Governance Prelims
"Youtube: DNA 6.02.2024"

The four issues highlighted are-

4. A level playing field for first-generation
lawyers
• CJI Chandrachud also stressed the need to
provide a level-playing field for first-
generation lawyers and those from
marginalised segments who have the “will to
work” and “potential to succeed”.
Current news?
• Government introduced the Public
Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means)
Bill, 2024 in the Lok Sabha.
• The bill mandates a maximum jail term of 10
years and a fine of up to Rs 1 crore for
malpractices and irregularities in competitive
examinations.
The bill is applicable to central recruitment and
entrance exams conducted by:
• the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC),
Prelims Practice Question • Staff Selection Commission (SSC),
Q1. With reference to Law Commission of • Railway Recruitment Boards (RRBs),
India, consider the following: • Institute of Banking Personnel Selection
1. It is a constitutional body. (IBPS), and
2. The recommendations of law commission • National Testing Agency (NTA)
are binding on the government. The NTA conducts exams for admission to higher
Which of the statements given above is/are educational institutions, like the Joint Entrance
correct? Examination (JEE) for engineering, National
a. 1 only Eligibility Cum Entrance Test (NEET) for medical,
b. 2 only and Common University Entrance Test (CUET) for
c. Both undergraduate and postgraduate studies.
d. None
Hints
SPM IAS Academy, D.S. Mansion 2nd floor, Opposite Indian Oil Petrol Pump, Near Assam State Zoo, Zoo Road,
Guwahati, Assam – 781005 Phone: 6901259799, Students’ Support Team: 7099064717,
Email: spmiasacademy@gmail.com
18
FEBRUARY MONTHLY MAGAZINE 2024

Key Initiatives for Divyangjan Accessibility

1. Accessible India Campaign (2015)
• It aims to ensure full accessibility of
government buildings for people with
disabilities, enhancing inclusivity and
mobility.
2. Sugamya Bharat App (2016)
• Introduced by the Ministry of Social Justice
and Empowerment.
• Then app addresses accessibility
challenges faced by differently-abled
individuals in buildings and transportation
systems.
3. New Education Policy (2020)
• Rolled out in 2020, NEP 2020, under the
Samagra Shiksha Abhiyan, provides in-
service training for teachers and special
educators to ensure barrier-free access to
education for children with disabilities.
4. Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act
2016
• Safeguards the rights and dignity of
individuals with disabilities across various
spheres.
Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act 2016
Provisions-
New guidelines for Cinema • The 2016 Act recognises 21 kinds of
disabilities compared to the previous
halls for people with seven.
• Every child with disability -age group of 6
disabilities and 18 years shall have the right to free
education.
GS Paper II-Governance Prelims
Reservation
"Youtube: DNA 9.02.2024"
a. higher educational institutions 5%
b. government jobs 4%.

Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act

2016
• Sections 29 and 42 of the Rights of Persons
with Disabilities Act, 2016, which mandate
the government to take measures to promote
universal access in the information and
communication sector, including access to
films for persons with hearing and visual
disabilities.

Current news? SWATI portal

• The government has drafted new
accessibility guidelines to make watching • Principal Scientific Advisor to the Government
movies in theaters more inclusive for people of India launched “Science for Women-A
with hearing and visual impairments. Technology & Innovation (SWATI)” Portal.
• Once the guidelines are notified, film SWATI Portal
production houses and movie theatres will be • It is a single online portal representing Indian
mandated to either run dedicated shows of Women and Girls in STEMM (Science,
films for impaired, or else ensure that Technology, Engineering, Mathematics &
provisions are made for them in theatres to be Medicine).
able to enjoy the movie-going experience • The database of the SWATI Portal will serve
without any discrimination. in policy-making to address the challenges of
• The deadline for sending public comments on Gender-gap.
the draft guidelines for accessibility for the • It hosted and maintained by the National
hearing and visually impaired in movie halls Institute of Plant Genome Research
expires next week. (NIPGR), New Delhi.
Objectives:
• To scale up the effort exponentially to include
each and every Indian woman in science
(WiS)

SWATI portal
GS Paper II-Governance (Women Empowerment)
Prelims
"Youtube: DNA 12.02.2024" Prelims Practice Question
Q2. Consider the following statements with
respect to SWATI Portal
1. It is a single online portal representing
Indian Women and Girls in STEMM.
2. It is developed and maintained by the
National Institute of Plant Genome
Research (NIPGR).
3. It is India’s first portal to address the
challenges of Gender-gap.
How many of the statements given above are
correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. All Three
d. None of the above

Assam first state to deliver

1 cr Ayushman card
GS Paper II-Governance-Welfare GS Paper V-
Assam Issues Prelims
"Youtube: DNA 15.02.2024"

• Assam has become the first state in the

country to deliver more than one crore
Ayushman cards.
• Efforts such as 'Viksit Bharat Yatra' and
Ayushman Bharat-PM Jan Arogya Yojana 'Ayushman Apke Dwar Abhiyan' has helped
• World’s largest health insurance scheme. in attaining the desired outcome.
• Launched in February 2018, it offers a sum
insured of Rs.5 lakh per family for secondary
care and tertiary care.
• Health Benefit Packages covers surgery,
medical and day care treatments, cost of
medicines and diagnostics.
• Financed by the government
Funding pattern
• 60:40 for all states and UTs with their own
legislature,
• 90:10 in Northeast states, Himachal and
Prelims Practice Question
Uttarakhand Q2. With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital
• 100% Central funding for UTs without
Mission, consider the following statements::
legislature. 1. Private and public hospitals must adopt it.
Beneficiaries 2. As it aims to achieve universal health
• As per Socio-Economic Caste Census
coverage, every citizen of India should be
(SECC) data. part of it ultimately.
Implementing agency 3. It has seamless portability across the
• The National Health Authority (NHA)-
country.
registered as society at union level Which of the statements given above is/are
• State Health Agency (SHA) at state level.
correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3

Hints

• Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM) has Background

not made it mandatory for adoption by private
and public hospitals. • In the Independence Day speech of 15th
• The aim of the Ayushman Bharat Digital August 2019 Prime Minister Narendra Modi
Mission is to facilitate the ease of access to announced Jal Jeevan Mission.
medical records and it is not been mandated to • It has 2 components
have every citizen. 1. Jal Jeevan Mission(Rural)
• Objective- Tap water supply(drinkable) to
every rural household of the country by 2024.
• It will require a functional household tap
Arunachal Pradesh attains connection(FHTC) to about 16 crore rural
Har Ghar jal households.
• Tagline-'Har Ghar Jal'.
GS Paper II-Governance Prelims • Implemented by Ministry of Jal Shakti.
"Youtube: DNA 16.02.2024" 2. Jal Jeevan Mission(Urban)
• Housing and Urban Affairs Ministry to
provide universal coverage of water supply to
all households through functional taps in all
statutory towns.
• In accordance with Sustainable Development
Goal- 6.

Implementation approach
• Implementation at the village level with help
of Gram Panchayat Gram Sabha.
• 3.43 lakh Pani Samitis constituted/ made
functional.

• Next set of fund is released only when earlier

fund is used and it's proof is uploaded on the
Jal Jeevan Mission portal.
• Women in every Gram Panchayat are being
trained to report if there is any misuse of
fund.
• They have been given testing kit also to
estimate quality of water.
• Households that gets tap connection has to
pay some nominal monthly fees of about
Rs 50-60 just to make the the Gram
panchayat accountable to the
households(Freely distributed goods Current news?
diminishes accountability on the part of • Arunachal Pradesh has achieved 100 per
government agencies). cent household tap water connections
under the Centre-sponsored Jal Jeevan
Mission (JJM).
• With this, Arunachal Pradesh has become the
first State in the North East and the 10th in
the country to achieve 100 percent saturation
of Har Ghar Nal Se Jal under the JJM.
Jal Jeevan Dashboard
• Real Time monitoring of completion of work
under JJM.
How to use in Ethics mains?
• Can be used as an example of technology
based accountability system to improve good
governance.

Health Benefits of JJM

• One of the biggest reason behind child
mortality in rural India are diarrhoea and
intestinal worm
• This happens because of poor quality of Prelims Practice Question
water. Q2. With reference to Jal Jeevan Mission
• Nutritional insecurity and anaemia among (Urban), consider the following statements:
women can also be associated to poor quality 1. It complements the Goal-6 of United
of water(Since poor quality of water damages Nations Sustainable Development goals.
digestive system). 2. Implemented by Ministry of Jal Shakti.
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both
d. None
SPM IAS Academy, D.S. Mansion 2nd floor, Opposite Indian Oil Petrol Pump, Near Assam State Zoo, Zoo Road,
Guwahati, Assam – 781005 Phone: 6901259799, Students’ Support Team: 7099064717,
Email: spmiasacademy@gmail.com
23
FEBRUARY MONTHLY MAGAZINE 2024

SC on appointment of DGP • It shall, as far as practicable, choose the

people who have got a clear two years of
GS Paper II-Governance Prelims service and must give due weightage to merit
"Youtube: DNA 19.02.2024" and seniority.
• The State, in turn, shall immediately appoint
one of the persons shortlisted by the
commission.
• The tenure of the DGP appointed as per the
order of the Supreme Court should be at least
two years. Even if he retires in between, the
appointed DGP will be given a tenure of two
years.

Current developments
• The Centre submitted that of 29 States only
five have implemented the Supreme Court
direction of 2006 to consult the UPSC on the
appointment of DGPs.
• The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) has told
SC on appointment of DGP “defaulting” states to follow the SC’s
Prakash Singh Case,2006 directives (in the Prakash Singh case) on the
• In 2006 Prakash Singh Case, the court appointment of the Director General of Police
passed seven directives, primarily to ensure (DGP).
that State governments do not exercise • This development came days after a report
unwarranted influence or pressure on the highlighting the trend of state govts (Andhra
police. Pradesh, Telangana, UP, Punjab, etc) not
• The court directed the States to ensure that appointing regular police chiefs (DGPs)
the DGP is appointed through a merit-based despite the availability of eligible officers.
transparent process and secure a minimum
tenure of two years. Prelims Practice Question
Q1. Which of the following is not correct about
the appointment of State Police Chiefs
(Director General of Police)?
a. Appointments of DGPs are on the basis
of the Supreme Court judgment on police
reforms in Prakash Singh vs Union of India.
b. The consent of an officer is required for
his/her posting as DGPs.
c. Centre has the power to not relieve an
officer for posting as DGP in the state.
d. States are supposed to draw up and
send to the UPSC a list of eligible officers
• Building on its Prakash Singh judgement SC under certain conditions.
laid new directives in 2018.
New rules
• The State government concerned has to send
to the Union Public service commission the Donor gametes allowed
names of the probables three months before GS Paper II-Governance Prelims
the incumbent DGP is to retire. "Youtube: DNA 24.02.2024"
• The UPSC will prepare a list of three officers
fit to be DGP and send it back.
SPM IAS Academy, D.S. Mansion 2nd floor, Opposite Indian Oil Petrol Pump, Near Assam State Zoo, Zoo Road,
Guwahati, Assam – 781005 Phone: 6901259799, Students’ Support Team: 7099064717,
Email: spmiasacademy@gmail.com
24
FEBRUARY MONTHLY MAGAZINE 2024

Surrogacy Act 2021

Eligibility
• Under the surrogacy Act, only a married
couple can opt for surrogacy only on medical
grounds.
• The Surrogacy law defines a couple as a
married Indian “man and woman”.
• It also prescribes an age-criteria with the
woman being in the age group of 23 to 50
years and the man between 26 to 55 years.
• The couple must be married for 5 years.
Surrogacy law in India
Features of Surrogacy Act 2021
1. Defines Surrogacy
• Surrogacy Act 2021 defines ‘surrogacy’ as a
practice where a woman undertakes to give
birth to a child for another couple and
agrees to hand over the child to them after
birth.
2. Allows Only ‘altruistic surrogacy
• The Surrogacy law allows only altruistic
surrogacy wherein only the medical
expenses and insurance coverage is
provided by the couple to the surrogate mother
during pregnancy.
• No other monetary consideration will be
permitted under the surrogacy law.

Ineligibility Criteria for Surrogate Couple:

• The couple having a child of their own, will
not be eligible for Surrogacy.
• Though the law allows single women to
resort to surrogacy, she should either be a
widow or a divorcee, between the age of 35
to 45 years.
• Single men are however, not eligible.

Eligibility Criteria for Surrogate Mothers:

• Only a close relative of the couple can be a
surrogate mother, one who is able to provide
a medical fitness certificate.
Ethical argument against commercial • She should have been married, with a child
surrogacy of her own, and must be between 25 and 35
• Motherhood in India is considered very years, but can be a surrogate mother only
sacrosanct. Thus commercial surrogacy is once.
banned as it is like commercialization of
motherhood or mother’s womb.

Criminalisation of Politics
GS Paper II-Governance Prelims
"Youtube: DNA 28.02.2024"

Criminalisation of Politics
• A phenomenon when more and more
people having criminal background enters
into Politics.
• Criminalisation of politics is increasing in
India proved by following data-
• “In 2004, 24% of the Members of Parliament
Current development had criminal cases pending against them; in
• The Centre amended the surrogacy Rules 2009, that went up to 30%; in 2014 to 34%;
on Wednesday to allow couples to use donor and in 2019 as many as 43% of MPs had
eggs or donor sperm for surrogacy. criminal cases pending against them.
• This overturned a previous amendment
Recent development
• The Association for Democratic Reforms
made in March 2023 that banned the use of
donor gametes. (ADR) and the National Election Watch has
The new notification states: found that 36% of the newly elected Rajya
• “In case when the District Medical Board Sabha candidates have declared criminal
certifies that either husband or wife cases against themselves.
constituting the intending couple suffers
from medical condition necessitating use of
donor gamete, then surrogacy using donor
gamete is allowed.”

Association of Democratic Reforms(ADR)

• A non profit organization Other SC judgements in the past to limit
• Based in India criminalisation of politics
• Focus on electoral and political reform
1. Ramesh Dalal vs. Union of India (2005)
Supreme Court on Criminalisation of Politics • Established stringent disqualification
criteria to deter candidates with criminal
backgrounds.
• The Supreme Court has given following
2. Lily Thomas vs. Union of India (2013)
directives to all political parties-
• Addressed interpretation of Section 8(4) of
Union of India vs. Association for Democratic
the Representation of the People Act,
Reforms 2002
1951.
1. Publish all data regarding ongoing criminal
• Closed loopholes allowing convicted
cases against their candidates before
legislators to retain seats.
election in their official website and all
3. People’s Union for Civil Liberties vs.
social media platforms.
Union of India 2013
2. Parties also will have to explain the reason
• Introduced NOTA as a voting option,
for selecting a candidate having criminal
empowering voters to express
background.
dissatisfaction.
• Winnability cannot be cited as a reason.
• The Election Commission has been asked Mains Practice Question
to ensure the political parties follow the Q. Despite several judgements from the
directives of the Supreme Court. Supreme Court the issue of criminalisation in
• Otherwise it will be considered as contempt politics still persists. Examine the reasons for
of court. the persistence of the issue. Suggest the
Vohra Committee Report (1993) measures to deal with the issues. 15 marks/250
• The Vohra Committee investigated the words
political-criminal nexus, highlighting its
extent and proposing strategies to combat Hints
this menace. Reason the persistence of Criminalisation
1. Lack of Political will
2. Lack of Voter Education
3. Role of Media
4. Use of Muscle and Money Power
5. Social Mindset
6. Poor enforcement of court judgement
Suggestion to prevent Criminalisation
• Strengthening of Election Commission
• Voter awareness through mass
campaigns

International Relations
Neighbour First Policy in
Budget 2024
GS Paper II-International Relations Prelims
"Youtube: DNA 3.02.2024"

India’s Neighbour First policy

• It is part of India’s foreign policy.
• It is initiative of PM Modi. India’s Neighbour First policy- Initiatives
• It is part of India’s foreign policy that actively
1. Motor Vehicle Agreement across SAARC
focuses on improving ties with India's nations
immediate neighbours which is being termed
• India proposed a SAARC Motor Vehicle
as Neighbourhood first policy in the media
Agreement during the 18th SAARC summit in
• It was started well by inviting all heads of
Kathmandu in November 2014.
state/heads of government of South Asian
• This Agreement provides for the Member
countries in his inauguration of PM Modi first States allowing the vehicles of other Member
term that started in 2014.
States to ply in their territory for
transportation of Cargo and Passengers
2. SAARC satellite project

• Designated GSAT-9 also known as SAARC 3. Other regional groupings like BIMSTEC
Satellite, is a geostationary and SASEC that doesn’t include Pakistan is
communications and meteorology satellite being emphasized by India.
operated by the ISRO for the South Asian
Association for Regional Cooperation
(SAARC) region.

Budget 2024 wrt Neighbour First Policy

• The External Affairs Ministry allocated a total
of Rs 22,154 crore for the 2024-25 fiscal in the
Pakistan playing a spoilsport Interim budget.
• A part of the fund will be used for providing
• Pakistan did not allow both these projects to development aid to the neighbor countries in
get accepted at SAARC. line with India’s Neighbour First Policy.
• Pakistan intensified cross border terrorism • The largest share of aid portfolio for 2024-25
in 2016-Pathankot and Uri attack. went to Bhutan with an allocation of Rs
• Since then India adopted a policy of 2,068.
isolating Pakistan in South Asia. • Nepal would be provided Rs 700 crore.
• India abandoned SAARC and emphasised • Maldives has been kept at Rs 600 crore.
on other sub regional groupings. • The allocation for Chabahar Port has also
• Sub regional means SAARC minus been maintained at Rs 100 crore, underlining
Pakistan. India’s focus on connectivity projects with Iran.
Examples of India’s sub regional cooperation-
1. In 2017 India launched SAARC satellite
without Pakistan.
2. BBIN( Bangladesh, Bhutan, India,
Nepal) Motor Vehicle Agreement has
been signed.
• However Bhutan is now not willing to
implement it fearing environmental
concerns.

Current news
• Recently some of the Indian fishermen who
crossed maritime boundary where attacked by
maritime agencies of Sri Lanka.
• Fisherman of India mostly from Tamil Nadu
crosses the maritime boundary and enter
into Sri Lankan water.
• They are arrested by Sri Lankan
authorities.
• This creates tension between India and Sri
Lanka.
Reasons behind Indian fishermen entering into
Sri Lankan water-
1. Sri Lankan water is more rich in fishes
2. kachchativu Island
3. Continental shelf between India and Sri Lanka

India Sri Lanka fishermen

issue
GS Paper II-International Relations Prelims Why Indian fishermen enter into Sri Lankan
"Youtube: DNA 6.02.2024" water?
1. Sri Lankan water is more rich in fishes
• A civil war prevailed in Sri Lanka for more
than 4 decades( From 1976, creation of LTTE,
to 2009, end of LTTE)
• Note- Sri Lankan civil war has been covered
in detail in 1st August 2023 newspaper
analysis.
• Because of civil war not much fishing for
the purpose of domestic consumption and
export was done on the Sri Lankan side.
• While Indian fishermen kept on extracting
fisheries resources in unsustainable
manner by using trawlers and dynamite
fishing.
• Thus now Sri Lankan water is more rich in
fisheries.

result of agreement conducted between these

two countries in 1974 and 1976.
• As a result of this agreement India conceded
katchatheevu Island to Sri Lanka which was
earlier under possession of India.
• Kachchativu Island traditionally has been
used by Tamil Nadu fishermen to dry their
nets and sort their fishes.
• Because of the significance of kachchativu
island for fishermen of India the fishermen
often cross International Maritime
boundary line to reach katchatheevu Island.

Why kachchativu Island was conceded to Sri

Lanka?
• After the 1974 nuclear tests(Operation
Smiling Buddha) , India was under
enormous international pressure and there
was a need to garner support from
neighbours.
• Sri Lanka was to host the NAM summit in
1976 and it was likely that president of
UNGA may be from Sri Lanka.
• Thus, Indira Gandhi quickly signed an
agreement with Sri Lanka and ceded the
territory without any discussion with
Indian people or parliament mainly to garner
2. Kachchativu Island support from Sri Lanka.
• India and Sri Lanka team demarcated their
international Maritime boundary line as a
SPM IAS Academy, D.S. Mansion 2nd floor, Opposite Indian Oil Petrol Pump, Near Assam State Zoo, Zoo Road,
Guwahati, Assam – 781005 Phone: 6901259799, Students’ Support Team: 7099064717,
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FEBRUARY MONTHLY MAGAZINE 2024

Practice Question
Q1. Operation smiling Buddha is associated
with which of the following?
a. India's first nuclear test
b. India's first cloned baby
c. India's first HYV seed
d. India's first genetically modified crops

Indian Ocean Conference

GS Paper II-International Relations Prelims
"Youtube: DNA 12.02.2024"

3. Continental shelf
• The continental shelf of Tamil Nadu coast is
narrow.
• It is more extended in the direction of Sri
Lanka.
• Since more fishes are found only on
continental shelf thus Indian fishermen keep
on entering into Sri Lankan side.

Indian Ocean Conference

• IOC is an annual international conference
that focuses on the geopolitical, economic,
and strategic importance of the Indian Ocean
region.
• It brings together policymakers, scholars,
Solutions business leaders, and civil society
representatives.
1. India needs to find alternative means of • Aiming to foster Security and Growth for All in
livelihood for Tamil Nadu fishermen. the Region (SAGAR)
2. Unsustainable methods of fishing like • The first edition of the Conference was held
Dynamite fishing and trawlers should be in Singapore in 2016.
banned to revive fish population on Indian Organised by
side. • The India Foundation in partnership with
3. Extra deployment of Navy and Coast other organizations in the region.
Guard to restrict Indian fishermen from
entering into Sri Lankan waters. Current news?
4. Already a joint working group between India • The 7th edition of the Indian Ocean
and Sri Lanka has been has been established Conference has been held in Perth, Australia
to resolve fishermen issue. in February, 2024.

• The theme of this edition of the conference is

"Towards a Stable and Sustainable Indian World Government Summit
Ocean”.
(WGS) 2024
GS Paper II-International Relations Prelims
"Youtube: DNA 14.02.2024"

Prelims Practice Question

Q1. With reference to Indian Ocean Conference
(IOC) consider the following statements:
1. It serves as a common platform for critical World Government Summit
states and principal maritime partners to
deliberate on regional affairs, aiming to
foster Security and Growth for All in the • It is an annual global gathering that
Region (SAGAR). brings together world leaders,
2. It is a flagship consultative forum for policymakers, experts discuss global
countries in the Indian Ocean Region over issues.
regional affairs.. • It was established in 2013 under the
Select the correct statements using the codes leadership of the Vice President and
given below: Prime Minister of the UAE.
a. 1 only • It is annually held in Dubai, UAE.
b. 2 only
c. Both Current news?
d. None • The Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi
attended the World Government Summit
2024 as a guest of honour in the UAE.
• Theme: “Shaping Future Governments”

India-UAE agreements
• During his visit to UAE, PM Narendra Modi
met UAE’s President Sheikh Mohamed bin
Zayed Al Nahyan in Abu Dhabi.
• During this meeting, India and the UAE signed Other highlights of the visit
eight pacts to bolster cooperation in key "AHLAN MODI"
areas. • Interaction at the Indian Community Event in
1) Fostering regional connectivity UAE.
• For the IMEC, first announced during the G20 Temple inauguration
Summit 2023, India and the UAE have formed • On February 14, PM Modi will inaugurate the
an "Intergovernmental Framework Bochasanwasi Shri Akshar Purushottam
Agreement. Swaminarayan Sanstha (BAPS) Mandir.
• This is the first Hindu stone temple in Abu
2) Payment platform integration Dhabi.
• Agreement on interlinking of the instant • Temple a Vaishnava sect of Hinduism.
payment platforms - UPI (India) and AANI • The Abu Dhabi temple is a traditional stone
(UAE) as per internationalisation of INR Hindu temple with 7 shikhar's.
strategy. • 7 shikhars (spires) are representative of 7
3) Agreement on inter-linking domestic Emirates of the UAE.
debit/credit cards - RuPay (India) with
JAYWAN (UAE)

UPI in Sri Lanka and

Mauritius
GS Paper II-International Relations GS Paper III-
Indian Economy Prelims
"Youtube: DNA 15.02.2024"

Internationalisation of the Rupee

• Internationalisation of the rupee is a process
that involves increasing use of the local
currency in cross-border transactions.
• Basically, it is a process of promoting and
increasing the use of the INR as a widely
accepted currency for international
transactions and investments.
Unified Payments Interface (UPI) • It involves enhancing the currency's
acceptance, liquidity, and usability in
• Allows instant money transfer between two
global markets.
bank accounts.
Radha Shyam Ratho committee
• Feature or smartphones both supports
• A Reserve Bank of India appointed Radha
UPI(no need to have mobile wallets).
Shyam Ratho committee to suggest
• Online and offline mode both available.
measures to promote internationalisation of
• The top UPI apps today include PhonePe,
the rupee.
Paytm, Google Pay, Amazon Pay and BHIM,
Benefits of internationalisation of INR
the latter being the Government offering.
• Reduce dependence on dollar(de-
• Launched in 2016 by NPCI(National Payments
dollarisation)
Corporation of India)
• Reduce requirement of forex reserve.
National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)
• By Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and Indian
Banks’ Association (IBA)
• Under Payment and Settlement Systems
Act, 2007
• Purpose- To promote online transaction
,processing and settlement services

Suggestions given by the committee Current news?

• Unified Payment Interface (UPI) services are
now available in Sri Lanka and Mauritius,
the Ministry of External Affairs announced
recently.
With this an Indian traveller can make payment
in UPI in following countries-
• Bhutan,Oman,Mauritius,Sri
Lanka,Nepal,France,Southeast Asian
countries-Malaysia, Thailand, Philippines,
Vietnam, Singapore, Cambodia etc

How UPI integration can help in

internationalisation of INR?
UPSC Prelims 2014
• The National Payments Corporation of India Q1. With reference to Balance of Payments,
(NPCI) International has tied up with which of the following constitutes/ constitute
Singapore’s PayNow and transferring money the Current Account?
on the PayNow Virtual Payment Address 1. Balance of trade
(VPA) will be similar to domestic transfer on 2. Foreign assets
UPI. 3. Balance of invisibles
• An Indian tourist in Singapore can now 4. Special Drawing Rights
seamlessly pay via UPI for a coffee Select the correct answer using the code given
purchased. below:
• All a traveller would have to do is scan the QR a. 1 only
code, enter his or her PIN and have the money b. 2 and 3
debited via their app from their bank account. c. 1 and 3
• To promote more such integration NPCI has d. 1, 2 and 4
launched its international arm-NPCI
International Payments Limited (NIPL).
China’s border defence
villages
GS Paper II-International Relations Prelims
"Youtube: DNA 17.02.2024"

• Lack of precision in border demarcation has led

to major disagreements in Western sector.For
example Galwan valley conflict in 2020.

What is Line of Actual Control?

• The LAC is the demarcation that separates
Indian-administered territory from Chinese-
controlled territory.
• India considers the LAC to be 3,488 km long,
while the Chinese consider it to be only
around 2,000 km(since China disputes Aksai
chin and Arunachal Pradesh region).
It is divided into three sectors:
1. the eastern sector which spans Arunachal
Pradesh and Sikkim,
2. the middle sector in Uttarakhand and
Himachal Pradesh,
3. the western sector in Ladakh.

When did India accept the LAC?

• LAC between India and China was agreed in
Border Peace and Tranquility Agreement, China’s approach wrt border ares
1993.
• LAC is a large empty area and the armies of
India and China maintain a gap of nearly 50 to • A new law on China’s land borders was
100 km. brought into effect from January 1, 2022.
• But lack of precise border demarcation • It called for “protection and exploitation of
leads to confusion and conflict between the country’s land border areas”.
Indian and Chinese soldiers. • Under the provisions of the law China has
been constructing 628 Xiaokang or “border

defence villages” along India’s borders • Will be created by the district administration
with the Tibet. with the help of Gram Panchayats.
Xiaokang (“border defence villages”) • It will develop selected villages based on the
• They mostly comprise of double-storey, large Hub and Spoke Model.
and spacious buildings. • Other similar initiatives: Border Area
• Though their exact purpose remains unclear Development Programme (BADP); Border
• They are understood to be dual-use Infrastructure and Management Scheme etc.
infrastructure, can be used both for civil and
military purposes.
• It can a way of China to assert Chinese
claims over certain areas along the LAC.

India’s response

• The Indian government announced the

Vibrant Villages Programme in 2022 to
develop its border villages into modern
villages with all amenities and as tourist
attractions.
Vibrant Village Programme
• It was announced in the 2022-23 budget.
Prelims Practice Question
• Aim to enhance the infrastructure in border
Q1. With reference to Vibrant Villages
villages along India’s border with China. Programme (VVP) consider the following
• Activities include Housing, Tourism statements:
promotion, Road Infrastructure, Renewable 1. The scheme is based on the idea of
Energy, livelihood generation etc. competitive federalism.
• Promotes community knowledge in the 2. Vibrant Village Action Plans will be created
border management. by the district administration with the help
of Gram Panchayats.

3. It will develop selected villages based on • Thus in 1991 under Prime Ministership of
the Hub and Spoke Model. PV Narasimha Rao India started Look East
Which of the statements given above are Policy- To promote trade with Southeast
correct? Asian countries.
a. 1,2 only
b. 2,3 only
c. 1,3 only
d. 1,2,3 all

Act East Policy and

Myanmar military junta rule
GS Paper II-International Relations Prelims
"Youtube: DNA 19.02.2024"
Look East policy focused on the economic
integration of Indian with Association of
Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) countries.
Some important developments under Look
East Policy were-
1. India became a dialogue partner of ASEAN
in 1996.
2. In 2012 the relationship got up-graded into a
Strategic Partnership in 2012.
3. The time when India launched Look East
Policy in 1992, India's trade with ASEAN was
$2 billion. After signing the Free Trade
Agreement in 2010 with ASEAN, the trade
has grown to $72 billion (2017-18).

Background-Act East Policy

Look East Policy
• Till 1991 USSR was India's major trading
partner.
• But after disintegration of USSR India look
for or other trading partners.

Act East policy

• In 2014 Look East Policy was upgraded to
Act East policy by Narendra Modi
government.
How Act East is different from Look East
policy?
1. Look East Policy was limited just to
ASEAN countries but Act East policy
focuses for entire East Asia Summit
countries.
2. Look East focused only on economic
integration but Act East focuses on
security cooperation,people to people ties
along with economic integration.
Note-
• Upgradation of Look East to Act East Policy
could be seen as India’s response to
aggressive rise of China in South China
Sea.

East Asia Summit is ASEAN + 8 members

(Australia, China, Japan, India, New Zealand, the
Republic of Korea, Russia and the United States)
Infra projects under Act East Policy
Act East policy and North East
IMT trilateral highway
• Moreh in Manipur to Mae Sot in Thailand via
• It was believed that Act East Policy will Yangon in Myanmar
transform the Northeastern states,especially Kaladan Multimodal Project
their economy. • Multimodal Transit project
• Northeast India due to its location was • Connect Mizoram with the Kolkata port via
expected to benefit most with the Act East Myanmar
Policy-with Guwahati declared as nodal city • The project has three different stretches
for Act East policy. 1. Shipping: Kolkata port to Sittwe port (across
• Infrastructure projects like IMT Trilateral Bay of Bengal)
Highways and Kaladan Multimodal 2. Inland water transport: Sittwe port to
projects were to mainly help NE India. Paletwa (through River Kaladan)
3. Road stretches: From Paletwa (Myanmar) to
Lawngtlai (Mizoram,India)

Impact of the military coup on Northeast India?

1. Hamper India’s Act East Policy
implementation
• Myanmar has been gateway of India to
connect to southeast Asia.
• NE is being developed as a linking to between
India and Southeast Asia via Myanmar.
• Infact Guwahati city has been declared
nodal point for implementation of Act East
policy.
Military coup in Myanmar- hinderance to Act
• Many other projects that were part of Act
East Policy East policy like Kaladan Multi modal
Myanmar projects and IMT trilateral highway will now
• A Southeast Asian Country. be negatively impacted due to internal
Military coup in 2021 disturbance in Myanmar.
• National League for Democracy Party’s rule • These projects were crucial for economic
under leadership of Aung San Suu Kyi was development and connectivity of North
ended as a result of military coup by Military East region to Southeast asia.
Junta(A military junta is a government led
by a committee of military leaders).
• Since then a civil war like situation prevails in
Myanmar between Army and civilian
protesters.
• Since return of Military Junta-reports are
there that insurgent groups of India are
getting shelter in Myanmar.

3. Refugees crisis similar to that of

Bangladesh
• Reports from Myanmar indicated that the
junta troops engaged in fierce fighting with
the resistance group.
2. Security challenges • Clashes between the military junta and
• Military coup in Myanmar will have negative resistance forces in the neighbouring country
impact on economic development of spilled to the border areas, prompting a huge
Northeast India. exodus of Myanmarese nationals
• There may be rise of security threat as well • There has been a large influx of
because of internal disturbance in Myanmarese nationals to escape atrocities,
Myanmar. especially into Mizoram and Manipur at
• Human trafficking and drug trafficking also present.
seen rise from Myanmar to India because of
internal disturbance.
• It is reported Myanmar military regime has
signed a some secret agreement with the
IIGs(India’s Insurgent Groups like ULFA) in
order to use them to quell the internal strife
against supporters of Aung San Suu Kyi,
Rohingya etc.
• This can again increase insurgency in
northeast India.

Q. Return of military Junta in Myanmar has

hampered the prospects for Northeastern
states of India.Discuss the statement with
special emphasis on Act East policy. 10
marks/150 words

Raisina dialogue
GS Paper II-International Relations Prelims
"Youtube: DNA 22.02.2024"
Raisina Dialogue of 2024
• The ninth edition of the Raisina Dialogue will
be held from February 21 to 23rd in New Delhi.
• The theme of the 2024 edition is
“Chaturanga: Conflict, Contest, Cooperate,
Create,”
• During the three-day conference, the
participants will engage with each other over
six “thematic pillars”.
These include:
1. Tech Frontiers: Regulations & Realities
2. Peace with the Planet: Invest & Innovate
3. War & Peace: Armouries & Asymmetries
4. Decolonising Multilateralism: Institutions &
Raisina Dialogue Inclusion
5. The Post 2030 Agenda: People & Progress
• It is an annual geo-political event, organised 6. Defending Democracy: Society & Sovereignty
by the Ministry of External Affairs and
Observer Research Foundation (ORF).
• For closer coordination of Asian countries
with the rest of the world.
• The conference takes place in New Delhi and
is attended by people from political,
business, media, and civil society
backgrounds.
• The Raisina Dialogue was started in 2016.
Observer Research Foundation
• The ORF is an independent, nonpartisan
think tank that conducts policy research on
good governance, foreign policy, and
sustainable economic development for
India.
• It was established in 1990.

Permanent solution to food • All major decisions are made by the WTO's
member governments, either by ministers
stockholding (who usually meet at least every two years,
known as Ministerial Conference ).
GS Paper II-International Institutions GS Paper III- • India is a founding member of the WTO
Indian Economy Prelims since 1 January 1995 and a member of
"Youtube: DNA 27.02.2024" GATT since 8 July 1948.

Current news
• The 13th WTO Ministerial Conference of
WTO is going on in Abu Dhabi.
• India along with its G33 partner countries is
looking for a permanent solution to food
stockholding.
• The agriculture subsidy provided by
developing countries like India has been
kept in Amber box category and has been put
to limitations under WTO’s Agreement on
Agriculture.
• Limitation on agriculture subsidy may
hamper food security for developing
countries.

The World Trade Organization (WTO)

• It is the only global international

organization dealing with the rules of trade
between nations.
• It came into existence on January 1, 1995
and has its headquarters in Geneva,
Switzerland.

Prelims Practice Question

Q2. In the context of the affairs of the following
is the phrase “ Special Safeguard Mechanism”
mentioned in the news frequently?
a. United Nations Environmental Program
b. World Trade Organisation Agreement.
c. ASEAN- India Free Trade
d. G 20 Summit

Collective Security Treaty

Organisation
G33
• The G33 is also known as the Friends of GS Paper II-International Institutions Prelims
Special Products in agriculture. "Youtube: DNA 27.02.2024"
• The G33 is a coalition of developing
countries, established prior to the 2003
Cancun ministerial conference, that have
coordinated during the Doha Round of World
Trade Organization negotiations.
• The aim of the G33 group is to limit the
degree of market opening required of
developing countries.
• Despite the name, there are currently 47
member nations.
• The group is dominated by India.

Collective Security Treaty Organisation

(CSTO)

• The Collective Security Treaty Organization

(CSTO) is a Russia-led military alliance of six
former Soviet states that was created in
2002.
• The CSTO’s purpose is to ensure the
collective defence of any member that faces
external aggression.
• It is considered as the Eurasian counterpart
of NATO.
• Current CSTO members are Armenia,
Belarus, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, the
Russian Federation and Tajikistan.

Current news?
• Armenia has frozen its participation in the
Russian-led Collective Security Treaty
Organisation (CSTO).

• The headquarters of FATF is located at Paris,

France.
The main functions of FATF are-
1. Curbing Terror Finance
2. Prevent Money Laundering
• It has 38 members(including India).
How FATF started?
• It is an initiative of the G7 countries to
develop policies to combat money
laundering.
• In 2001, its mandate was expanded to
include terrorism financing.
Prelims Practice Question
• It has also started dealing with virtual
Q1. Which of the following country does not currencies.
share boundary with Russia?
a. Georgia
b. Azerbaijan
c. Armenia
d. Kazakhstan

Financial Action task Force

GS Paper II-International Institutions Prelims
"Youtube: DNA 26.02.2024"
FATF countries maintain list of countries-
• Grey List
• Black List

What is FATF?
• The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) is
an inter-governmental body established in the
1989.

UNSC Reform
GS Paper II-International Relations Prelims
"Youtube: DNA 23.02.2024"

Consequences of being in FATF Grey List

• Economic sanctions from IMF, World Bank,
ADB
• Problem in getting loans from IMF, World Bank,
ADB and other countries
• Reduction in international trade
• International boycott

Current development-
• At the plenary that concluded recently,
delegates from the Financial Action Task
Force participated in the discussions on key
money laundering, terrorism financing and
proliferation financing issues at the FATF
headquarters in Paris.
• One of the key highlights of the FATF Plenary
is that it has suspended the membership of
the Russian Federation.

Prelims Practice Question

Q1. With reference to FATF Grey list, consider
the following statements;
1. These are countries that have, in the
assessment of the FATF, failed to prevent
international money laundering and
terrorist financing.
2. At present, Pakistan has been remained in
the FATF grey list for the fifth consecutive
year.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both
d. None

Functions and Powers of UNSC

• Investigate any dispute or situation which
might lead to international friction.
• Call on Members to apply economic
sanctions to stop aggression.
• Take military action against an aggressor.
UNSC is the most important Principal organ of
UN and thus it is said UN is UNSC and UNSC is
UN.

Why India should be given permanent seat

at United Nations Security Council?
1. Founding member:India had been a
founding member of the United Nations,
signing the UN Charter in San San Francisco
Conference, along with the other countries,
on June 26, 1945.
Current news? 2. Strong economy: India is one of the
• Brazil assumed the G20 Presidency from strongest economies in the world. India is
India on December 1, 2023. world's fifth largest economy in terms of
• In recently held G20 Foreign Ministers’ exchange rate and third largest in terms of
Meeting (FMM) in Rio de Janeiro,India calls for PPP.
revamp of UNSC. 3. Population: India is world’s second
• India stressed that the current multilateral largest country in terms of population. The
governance architecture like UNSC is largest country China has already been
“outdated”. included as a permanent member.
• There is need of reformed multilateralism. 4. Contribution of India towards United
Reformed multilateralism would have 4 elements: Nations:India has been one of the largest
1. Making international financial institutions more contributor to United Nation peacekeeping
representative & effective; force. 180,000 Indian troops served in 44
2. Improving working methods of IOs; missions.
3. Multilateral system to work for common cause, 5. Leader of third world countries-Started
not individual interests; and NAM, IBSA groupings, supports concerns of
4. Comprehensive UN reforms poor countries at WTO eg Doha declaration
etc.
6. Responsible nuclear power- No first use, no
use against non Nuclear weapon states.

Prelims Practice Question

Q1. Consider the following statements with
respect to United Nations Security Council
(UNSC)
1. It is the only organ of the United Nations
that has the power to make decisions that
member states are obligated to implement.
2. Each year the UN General Assembly elects
five non-permanent members for UNSC, out
of 10 in total, for a two-year term.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
correct?
India’s strategy for UNSC reforms
1. G4 groupings
• India has also made a group of four country is a. 1 only
known as G4 for reforms at UNSC.G4 b. 2 only
includes Brazil India Germany and Japan. c. Both 1 and 2
2. G77 platform d. Neither 1 nor 2
• India continues to mobilise the idea of UNSC
reform through G77 platform.
G77
• The Group of 77 (G-77) was established in
1964 by seventy-seven developing countries
signatories of the "Joint Declaration of the
Seventy-Seven Developing Countries" issued
at the end of the first session of the United
Nations Conference on Trade and
Development (UNCTAD) in Geneva.
• Although the members of the G-77 have
increased to 134 countries, the original
name was retained due to its historic
significance.
• Its main aim is to promote South-South
cooperation for development.

Economy and Infrastructure

16th Finance Commission
GS Paper III-Indian Economy Prelims
"Youtube: DNA 1.02.2024"

Other Functions of Finance Commission

Other Functions of Finance Commission
1. Statutory Grant in aid under Article 275 of
the constitution -
• General Grant- To needy states having
shortfall in revenue or disaster relief or
local bodies.
• Specific Grant- For welfare of tribals in
Schedule areas and state of Assam.
2. Suggest the measures needed to augment
the Consolidated Fund of a State.
3. Any other matter referred to the
Commission by the President in the interests of
sound finance.
15th Finance Commission
• 2 reports -2020-21 and 2021 to 2026
• Headed by economist NK Singh
• Suggested 41% tax devolution to States.
Finance Commission
• The Finance Commission is constituted by the
President under article 280 of the
Constitution, for a period of 5 years.
Purpose - To give formula for
• Vertical distribution- recommendations on
distribution of tax revenues between the
Union and the States
• Horizontal Distribution-Distribution of taxes
amongst the States themselves.

Prelims Practice Question

Q2. On which of the following matters, does the
Finance Commission make recommendations to
the President of India?
1. The distribution between Union and States of
net proceeds of taxes and allocation between
the States of their respective shares of such
proceeds.
2. The principles which should govern the grants-
in-aid of the revenues of the States out of the
Consolidated Fund of India.
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both
d. None
Current news?
•
Interim Budget
The government has started the process of
appointing the members of 16th Finance
Commission. GS Paper III-Indian Economy Prelims
• Economist Arvind Panagariya will be the "Youtube: DNA 2.02.2024"
Chairman of the 16th Finance Commission.
• The 16th Finance Commission is expected to
submit its recommendations by October 31,
2025, covering an award period of five years
beginning April 1, 2026.
• Former Finance and Expenditure Secretary
Ajay Narayan Jha, who was also the member
of 15th Finance Commission, has been
appointed as full-time member along with
Annie George Mathew, former Special
Secretary in Department of Expenditure and
Niranjan Rajadhyaksha, Executive Director
of Artha Global.

Current context
• Union Finance Minister presented Vote on
Account or Interim Budget for year 2024-25.
What is interim budget or vote on account?
• A vote on account, also known as interim
Budget, essentially means that the government
seeks the approval of Parliament for meeting
expenditure for the first four months of the
fiscal year (April-March) — paying salaries,
ongoing programmes in various sectors etc
— with no changes in the taxation structure,
until a new government takes over and
presents a full Budget that is revised for the
full fiscal.
Why present a vote on account?
• Since the general elections are to be held in
coming months.

• It would be the prerogative of the new

government to signal its policy direction,
which is often reflected in the Budget.
Note-Vote on Account and Interim Budget are
used in interchangeable manner. But they are
not essentially same. Vote on Account is only
Expenditure side of the Interim Budget.

Highlights of the Interim Budget

3. Capital expenditure hiked 11% to ₹11.11-
lakh crore
4. Fiscal Deficit
• Fiscal deficit for FY25 projected at 5.1%,
lower than the revised estimate (5.8%) in
FY24
• Govt to borrow ₹14.13-lakh crore in next
fiscal, lower than ₹15.43 lakh crore in
Highlights of the Interim Budget FY24.
5. Disinvestment Targets
1. Tax regime • Mop-up from central public sector
• There are no changes in direct, indirect tax enterprises (CPSEs) disinvestment
rates. pegged at ₹50,000 crore for FY25, up
• The government withdrew income tax from ₹30,000 crore in FY24.
demands up to ₹25,000 (till 2009-10) and
₹10,000 from 2010-11 to 2014-15.
• This will benefit about one crore taxpayers.
• Tax benefits to start-ups and investments
made by sovereign wealth or pension funds
extended by 1 year till March 31, 2025.
2. Tax collection
• Gross tax revenue target for FY25 hiked
11.46% to ₹38.31-lakh crore, from ₹34.37
lakh crore in FY24
• Direct tax collection target set at ₹21.99-lakh
crore, while that of indirect tax is at ₹16.22-
lakh crore

5. GDP growth 11. 40000 Normal bogies to converted to

• Nominal GDP growth for FY25 is Vande Bharat standard for rail safety.
projected at 10.5%. 12. Rooftop solar for 1 cr Indian households
6. Future course of action • Participating households will be given upto
• The government will release a white paper 300 units of electricity free of cost every
on mismanagement of economy prior to month.
2014. • Savings of Rs 15k to Rs 18k for families
• The government will release a white are expected.
paper on mismanagement of economy
prior to 2014.

7. Ayush Bharat Scheme

• Will cover all Anganwadi workers,ASHA
workers and helpers.
8. Housing for Middle class
• Government to launch a scheme for
housing to all.
9. Women entrepreneurship
• 83 Lakh SHG with 9cr women will be
emphasised.
• 1 cr women already became Lakhpati
Didi.
• Target-enhance from 2cr to 3cr Lakhpati
Didi.

10. Youth Entrepreneurs

• Corpus of Rs 1 Lakh crore with 50 years
interest free loan.
• This will encourage private sector for
entrepreneurship and innovation.
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FEBRUARY MONTHLY MAGAZINE 2024

• This was mainly due to unexpected increased

expenditure during the pandemic year 2020-
21.

Fiscal consolidation due to

tax buoyancy
GS Paper III-Indian Economy Prelims
"Youtube: DNA 2.02.2024"

Current developments
• Direct tax revenues have shown a sharp
surge.
• Income tax seen overshooting the Budget
estimate for this financial year by 13.5 per
cent and Securities Transaction Tax (STT)
revenue seen exceeding budget estimate by
15.8 per cent.
• The income tax collections in 2023-24 have
shown a sharp pickup and are expected to
exceed the Budget estimate by Rs 1.2 lakh
crore.
• This has pushed tax buoyancy at 1.2.

Background
• New Fiscal Glide path was adopted in Budget
presentation of 2021-22.
• FRBM Act was amended with new FD targets.

Benefits of increased Tax buoyancy

• The increased tax buoyancy witnessed
recently has led to fiscal consolidation for
the Central government.
• The government’s aim to restrict the fiscal
deficit to 5.8 per cent of the Gross Domestic
Product (GDP) as against 5.9 per cent
budgeted earlier for the financial year 2023-
24.
• Government will now push to restrict the fiscal
deficit target to below 4.5 per cent by 2025-
26.

Prelims Practice Question

Other data wrt economy

GS Paper III-Indian Economy Prelims
"Youtube: DNA 2.02.2024"

Environment friendly projects in Budget

Practice question • In order to push environment friendly
Q2. Arrange the following subsidies provided projects the Union Finance Minister
by the government in decreasing order. announce several projects under Green
1. Fertiliser subsidy economy and Blue economy.
2. Food subsidy Green economy
3. Petroleum • The practice of sustainable development
a. 132 through the support of public and private
b. 231 investment to create infrastructure.
c. 123
d. 213

Environment friendly
projects-Green Push and
Blue Economy
GS Paper III-Indian Economy Prelims
"Youtube: DNA 2.02.2024"

Blue Economy
• While the term blue economy can simply refer
to economic activities related to the sea and
the coasts, it is generally understood to have
an element of sustainability in it.
Draft Blue Economy Policy
• The Budget document refers to blue economy
2.0. A draft policy framework on India’s Blue
Economy was first released in July 2022.
According to PIB, the policy document
SPM IAS Academy, D.S. Mansion 2nd floor, Opposite Indian Oil Petrol Pump, Near Assam State Zoo, Zoo Road,
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FEBRUARY MONTHLY MAGAZINE 2024

contained “key recommendations on 1. The distribution between Union and States

National Accounting Framework for Blue of net proceeds of taxes and allocation
Economy and Ocean Governance, Coastal between the States of their respective
Marine Spatial Planning and Tourism Priority, shares of such proceeds.
Marine Fisheries, Aquaculture and Fish 2. The principles which should govern the
Processing. Manufacturing, Emerging grants-in-aid of the revenues of the States
Industries, Trade, Technology, Services and out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
Skill Development, Logistics, Infrastructure a. 1 only
and Shipping, Coastal and Deep-Sea Mining b. 2 only
and Offshore Energy and Security, Strategic c. Both
Dimensions and International Engagement.” d. None

Nano DAP to be expanded

GS Paper III-Indian Economy Prelims
"Youtube: DNA 3.02.2024"

Prelims Practice Question

Q1. Bio hacking, recently seen in news is
related to which of the following?
a. Hacking into biological systems to steal
or modify data
b. Biological experimentation done to
improve the qualities or capabilities of living
organisms
c. The use of biotechnology to produce
new forms of life or to modify existing ones
d. Exploiting biological vulnerabilities to
cause harm or disruption

Prelims Practice Question

Q2. On which of the following matters, does the
Finance Commission make recommendations
to the President of India?

Nano liquid DAP fertilizer

• It is a concentrated phosphate-based
fertilizer.
• It provides phosphorus nutrition to the crops.
• Nano liquid DAP will be uniformly
distributed along the plants and help in
Prelims Practice Question
uniform growth.
Q1. Consider the following statements with
Benefits
respect to Nano DAP:
1. Cheaper
1. It is indigenously developed by the Indian
• It will be cheaper as compared to powder
Farmers Fertilizer Cooperative Limited.
based DAP.
2. It is the top most commonly used fertilizers
• Nano-DAP will be sold at Rs 600 per bottle of
in India.
500 ml. One bottle will be equivalent to one
3. India’s first Nano DAP plant is located in the
bag of DAP, which currently costs Rs 1,350.
state of Punjab.
2. Nano-DAP will help to bring down India’s
How many of the above statement(s) is/are
fertilizer import bill.
correct?
Note-
a. Only one
• India’s first Nano DAP Plant is located in
b. Only two
Kalol (Gandhinagar), Gujarat.
c. All three
• Indian Farmers Fertiliser Cooperative’s
d. None of the above
(IFFCO’s) produces DAP.

e-NAM
GS Paper III-Indian Economy-Agri Issues Prelims
"Youtube: DNA 6.02.2024"

After E- NAM

• Now Mandis will have digital boards that will

display the price of the crops in the market.

E- NAM( Electronic National Agriculture

Market) Scheme
• launched on 14th April 2016 as a pan-India
electronic trade portal linking Agricultural
Produce Market Committees (APMCs)
across the States.
• Before this scheme the farmers had to sell
their crops in the nearest mandi.
• In mandis there used to be many middlemen,
who bought crops at very low rates from
About the article
farmers and sold it at high cost in big towns
and cities. • Currently there are 1389 markets that are
• Under E NAM now middlemen can be linked to the e-NAM network from 23 states
removed. and 4 UT's.
• With more states facilitating the trade of
agricultural commodities on the eNAM, a
spurt in trading among various markets
within the state as well as at the inter-state
level is being witnessed.
• Small Farmers Agribusiness Consortium
(SFAC) is the lead agency for implementing
eNAM under the aegis of the Ministry of
Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare,
Government of India.

b. Higher import substitution

c. Employment generation.
• Under the new PLI scheme, companies that
set up new unit or expanded their present
units would get incentives of 4-6 per cent on
incremental sales from goods made in India.
• The total incentive to be given to each
company will be decided by an empowered
committee
• It will cover target segments that are
manufactured in India for a period of five
years.
Prelims Practice Question
The scheme initially targeted three industries:
Q2. Which of the following statements are
Mobile and allied Component Manufacturing
correct about e-NAM?
but later expanded.Later, it was extended to 14
1. The National Agriculture Market (NAM) is a
sectors including-
pan-India electronic trading portal, which
1. Advance Chemistry
links the existing Agricultural Produce
2. Electronic/Technology Products
Market Committee (APMC) mandis across
3. Automobiles and components
the country.
4. Pharmaceuticals drugs
2. NAFED is the lead agency for
5. Telecom and Networking Products
implementing eNAM.
6. Textile Products and technical textiles
a. 1 only
7. Food Products
b. 2 only
8. High Efficiency Solar PV Modules
c. Both
9. White Goods (ACs & LED)
d. None
10. Speciality Steel
11. Defence
12. Solar
PLI Scheme for White goods
GS Paper III-Indian Economy Prelims Recent development
"Youtube: DNA 8.02.2024"
• Some White Goods manufacturers
complained about delay in disbursal of
incentives.
• An official statement from government said
that applications of certain companies for
claiming incentives under the Production-
linked Incentive (PLI) scheme for white goods
(Air Conditioners and LED Lights) are under
examination and there is no delay in
disbursement.
White goods
• White goods encompass large household
appliances like air conditioners,
refrigerators, washing machines and
dryers, dishwashers, and LED Lights.
Production Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme • Although they're now available in various
colors, they retain the name "white goods."
• Launched in 2020.
• The PLI scheme was conceived with aim to-
a. Scale up domestic manufacturing
capability,
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Goldilock moment of RBI

monetary policy
GS Paper III-Indian Economy Prelims
"Youtube: DNA 9.02.2024"

White Paper on Indian

Economy
GS Paper III-Indian Economy Prelims
"Youtube: DNA 9.02.2024"

Current news
• In its latest policy review that was unveiled the
Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of the
RBI decided to maintain the status quo.
• In other words, it changed nothing.
• Unchanged stance of RBI in its monetary
policy is being said as Goldilocks moment
for RBI monetary policy.

Prelims Practice Question

Q2. The term ‘Goldilocks Zone’ is often seen in
the news in the context of
a. the limits of habitable zone above the
surface of the Earth
b. regions inside the Earth-like planets in
outer space
c. search for the Earth-like planets in outer
space
d. search for meteorites containing
precious metals

Pradhan Mantri Matsya

Goldilocks zone
Kisan Samridhi Sah-Yojana
• The area around a star where it is not too hot (PM-MKSSY)
and not too cold for liquid water to exist on GS Paper III-Indian Economy Prelims
the surface of surrounding planets. "Youtube: DNA 10.02.2024"
• There is possibility of life on the planet
which is in Goldilocks zone of a star.
• For example, the Earth is in the Sun’s
Goldilocks zone.

Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana

• The Scheme was announced in budget 2019-
20.
• The government will invest Rs 20,000 crore
rupees Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada
Yojana for the development of marine and
inland fisheries.
• Target is too increase fish production by 70
lakh tonnes in next 5 years.
• Rs 11,000 crore has been allocated for
Marine, inland fisheries and aquaculture,
while Rs 9,000 crore has been earmarked for
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development of infrastructure such as

fishing harbours, cold chains etc.

Implementation Current news?

• Recently, the government approved the
• The PMMSY is an umbrella scheme with two Pradhan Mantri Matsya Kisan Samridhi
separate Components namely (a) Central Sah-Yojana (PM-MKSSY), a sub scheme
Sector Scheme (CS) and (b) Centrally under the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada
Sponsored Scheme (CSS). Yojana.
It will have 2 components- Pradhan Mantri Matsya Kisan Samridhi Sah-
• Non-beneficiary Oriented: The entire project
Yojana
cost will be borne by the Central government • It will be implemented under the Central
(i.e. 100% central funding).This will include Sector Component of the PMMSY.
infrastructure building like market Aim-
development. 1. Gradual Formalisation of the unorganised
• Beneficiary Oriented: The individual/group
fisheries.
activities undertaken like training, skilling etc. 2. Facilitating access to institutional financing.
The central assistance will be up to 40% of the 3. Incentivizing fisheries and aquaculture based
project cost for General category and 60% micro and small enterprises
for SC/ST/Women category. Investment
• Remaining by the state government.
• Rs.6,000 crore consisting of 50% i.e.
Rs.3,000 crore public finance including the
World Bank and other external financing, and
rest 50% i.e. Rs.3,000 crore being the
anticipated investment from the
beneficiaries/private sector leverage.

Statutory status to MSP

GS Paper III-Indian Economy-Agri issues-Subsidy
Prelims
"Youtube: DNA 14.02.2024"

NITI Aayog analysed that the main reasons

behind low income of farmer are two-

Fish producing countries

• To protect farmers against crop failure the

Government of India runs Crop Insurance
Scheme- Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima
Yojana, irrigation schemes like-Pradhan
Mantri Krishi Sinchai Yojana
• To protect farmers against market failure the
Government of India runs Minimum Support
Price(MSP) scheme.

Minimum Support Price Scheme

Prelims Practice Question
Q1. With reference to the ‘Fisheries sector in • The MSP is the rate at which the government
India’ consider the following statements:: buys grains from farmers.
1. Andhra Pradesh is the leading state in • The government announces MSP before the
marine fish production. sowing season for a particular crop.
2. India is the largest fish exporter in the • This protects the farmer from market failure
world. in case of bumper production.
a. 1 only • Note- CCEA(Cabinet Committee of Economic
b. 2 only Affairs) announces MSP.
c. Both
d. None

How is MSP fixed?

• The Centre announces the MSP (which is not
legally guaranteed) for 22 mandated crops
(and Fair & Remunerative Price, or FRP, for
sugarcane) on the basis of the
recommendations of the CACP(Commission
for Agricultural Costs & Prices).
• These include 14 kharif crops (paddy, jowar,
bajra, maize, ragi, tur/arhar, moong, urad,
groundnut, soyabean, sunflower, sesamum,
• Rs 50 MSP for Crop A will now guarantee nigerseed, cotton), six are rabi crops (wheat,
the farmers that they will get a certain barley, gram, masur/lentil, rapeseed and
minimum earning for their product. mustard, and safflower) and two are
• Absence of MSP made them vulnerable in commercial crops (jute and copra).
case of Bumper production. • MSP= 1.5 times the cost of production of
farmer(on recommendation of MS
Swaminathan Committees).

Three types of costs

• The CACP calculates three types of costs —
A2, A2+FL and C2.
• A2-which is the actual paid-out cost incurred
by a farmer.
• A2+FL-the actual paid-out cost plus imputed
value of family labour
• C2, -‘Comprehensive Cost including Rental
Value of Own Land (net of land revenue and
interest on value of own fixed capital assets
(excluding land))’.
CACP eventually recommends — and the
government announces — MSP on the basis of
A2+FL

Current development
• Farmers mainly from Punjab are on a tractor
march to the national capital are primarily
seeking a legal guarantee on the minimum
support price (MSP) for various crops
announced by the Centre.
• The Delhi Police deployed at the borders are
as of now guarding the borders and ensuring
the maintenance of law and order amid the
farmers' ‘Delhi chalo’ call.
Sanjay Agrawal committee • Experts believe giving legal status to MSP will
• The government has notified a committee be-
headed Sanjay Agrawal by with making MSP 1. A logistical nightmare
more effective and transparent(no term of 2. Fiscal disaster
reference of MSP law).
• It has been constituted by the Ministry of
Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare, as a
follow-up to an announcement by Prime
Minister Narendra Modi on November
19,2021 withdrew 3 farm bills.
The farmers protesting had 3 demands-
1. Withdraw the three farm bills
2. Legal status to MSP
3. C2 price be taken for calculation of MSP(
MSP=1.5 times of cost(C2))

Why legal status to MSP could be a fiscal

disaster?
• To understand this lets see how PDS
and MSP system works in our country.

2. In the case of cereals and pulses, the MSP

is fixed in any State/UT at a level to which
the market price will never rise. Which of
the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli

Yojana
GS Paper III-Indian Economy Prelims
"Youtube: DNA 14.02.2024"

Legal status to MSP can lead to challenges for

India at WTO because of violation of agreement
on Agriculture-Explained in detail in newspaper
analysis of 29th August 2023(first topic)

Agricultural Subsidies at WTO

Background
• Prime Minister Narendra Modi on Monday
(January 22) announced the ‘Pradhan Mantri
Suryodaya Yojana’, a government scheme
under which one crore households will get
rooftop solar power systems.
• The central government is aiming to provide
300 units of free electricity per month to the
beneficiaries of the scheme by investing
worth ₹75,000 crores.
PM-KISAN or other DBT schemes will come • To provide 300 units of free electricity per
under Green Box month to 1 cr households the government
initiated PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana.
UPSC -2020 Benefits
Q1. Consider the following statements : • Savings of up to fifteen to eighteen
1. In the case of all cereals, pulses and thousand rupees annually for households
oilseeds, the procurement at Minimum from free solar electricity and selling the
Support Price (MSP) is unlimited in any surplus to the distribution companies.
State/UT of India.

Current news?
• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has issued a
directive to an unspecified card network to
halt “unauthorised payments” conducted
through business cards.
• The RBI pointed out that this card network was
facilitating payments to parties not
permitted to receive card payments,
RBI put restraints on a contravening The Payment and Settlement
Systems (PSS) Act, 2007.
certain card network • While the card network in question remains
undisclosed, Visa has confirmed that it has
GS Paper III-Indian Economy Prelims been directed to suspend all transactions
"Youtube: DNA 17.02.2024" involving Business Payment Service
Providers (BPSPs).
Where to use in Mains?
• If a question on RBI’s role-commitment to
ensuring the legality and security of
payment systems in India.

What is a card network?

• Card networks serve as a bridge between
banks, merchants, and cardholders.
• They operate behind the scenes each time
a cardholder makes a payment.
• In India, there are five approved card
networks: Visa, Mastercard, RuPay, Diners Similar news?
Club, and American Express. • The Reserve Bank of India, in a notification
issued has barred Paytm from offering all
basic payment services, including Unified
Payments Interface, IMPS, Aadhaar-enabled
payments and bill payment transactions

Q. Analyse the functions of RBI with special What is Dumping?

emphasis on payment and settlement. 10
marks/150 words Dumping- Dumping is a term used in the context
Hints of international trade. It's when a country or
• National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) company exports a product at a price that is
launched by Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and lower in the foreign importing market than the
Indian Banks’ Association (IBA) price in the exporter's domestic market.
• Under Payment and Settlement Systems Act, • This is a tactic adopted to destroy the
2007 industries of importer country to capture the
• online transaction ,processing and settlement market.
services
• Launched UPI and RuPay card
• To enable globalisation of rupee, NPCI floated
its wholly owned subsidiary NPCI International
Payments Limited to promote UPI and Rupay
card globally-Internationalisation of Rs.

UPSC Prelims 2021

Q2. In India, the central bank’s function as the
‘lender of last resort’ usually refers to which of
the following? UPSC 2021
1. Lending to trade and industry bodies when
they fail to borrow from other sources What is Anti-Dumping Duty?
2. Providing liquidity to the banks having a
temporary crisis • An anti-dumping duty is a protectionist tariff
3. Lending to governments to finance that a domestic government imposes on
budgetary deficits foreign imports that it believes are priced
Select the correct answer using the code given below fair market value.
below. • In order to protect their respective economy,
a. 1 and 2 only many countries impose duties on products
b. 2 only they believe are being dumped in their
c. 2 and 3 only national market.
d. 3 only Mechanism in India
• The Department of Commerce recommends
the anti-dumping duty.
Anti dumping duty • The Department of Revenue in Finance
Ministry acts upon the recommendation within
GS Paper III-Indian Economy Prelims three months and imposes such duties.
"Youtube: DNA 21.02.2024"

WTO and Anti-Dumping Duties b. Dumping is the ability to flood a market

• In general, the WTO agreement permits with product prices that are often considered
governments to act against dumping if it unfair.
causes or threatens material injury to an c. The WTO Agreement regulates the
established domestic industry. actions of companies engaged in “dumping”.
• WTO does NOT intervene in the activities of d. Anti-dumping duties can reduce the
companies engaged in dumping. international competition of domestic
Material Injury companies producing similar goods.
• Possibility of significant economic loss to
domestic companies due to dumping.

Current context
India Semiconductor
• India has initiated an anti-dumping probe Mission
into imports of certain solar glass from China GS Paper III-Indian Economy Prelims
and Vietnam, following a complaint by "Youtube: DNA 21.02.2024"
domestic players.
• The government may impose Anti-dumping
duty or Countervailing duty depending upon
the findings of the probe.
• Anti-dumping duty or Countervailing duty-
which to be applied depends on-reason
behind the low price of the foreign import.
Anti-dumping duty
• Anti-dumping duty is imposed to prevent low-
priced foreign goods from damaging the local
market.
Countervailing duty
• CVD will apply to foreign products that have
enjoyed government subsidies, which
eventually leads to very low prices.

Semiconductors
Prelims Practice Question
Q1. Consider the following options and select What is Conductivity?
the incorrect option with respect to the concept • Conductivity is the measure of the ease at
of ‘dumping’- which an electric charge or heat can pass
a. Directorate General of Trade Remedies, through a material.
the apex national authority under the Ministry • Semiconductors are materials which have a
of Commerce and Industry which administers conductivity between conductors (generally
all trade remedial measures including metals) and non conductors or insulators
dumping. (such as most ceramics).

• Semiconductors can be pure elements, such Semiconductor designers would be given the
as silicon or germanium, or compounds opportunity to launch start-ups. The
such as gallium arsenide or cadmium government would bear 50% of the expense
selenide. under the design-linked incentive scheme.

• The ISM was launched in 2021 by Ministry of

Electronics and IT (MeitY).
• Total financial outlay of Rs76,000 crore.
• It is part of the comprehensive program for
the development of sustainable
semiconductor and display ecosystem in the
country.
Components of the mission-
1. Scheme for setting up of Semiconductor
Fabs in India
2. Scheme for setting up of Display Fabs in India
3. The Scheme provides a fiscal support of 30%
of the Capital Expenditure to the eligible
applicants

Semiconductor manufacturers

• Semiconductors are heart and soul of

modern electronics industry.
• Bulk of semiconductor manufacturing and
supply comes from few countries like The US,
South Korea, Taiwan etc. What is a display fab?
• A fabrication unit that manufactures a display
• China has also increased its production.
Initiatives by India unit through a complex method.
• It includes sandwiching pieces of glasses
• India has started ‘Semiconductor Mission’
• Semiconductors production included with transistors cells and use of metal alloy
under PLI scheme. and silicon.
• Such plants assemble the glass with other
• “Chips to start-ups” programme-It would
develop 85,000 well-trained engineers. components to power the screen.
SPM IAS Academy, D.S. Mansion 2nd floor, Opposite Indian Oil Petrol Pump, Near Assam State Zoo, Zoo Road,
Guwahati, Assam – 781005 Phone: 6901259799, Students’ Support Team: 7099064717,
Email: spmiasacademy@gmail.com
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FEBRUARY MONTHLY MAGAZINE 2024

Note-India’s first display fab is being set up in Bureau of International Settlement

Telangana.
• Basel is also the headquarters of the Bureau
of International Settlement (BIS), which
fosters cooperation among central banks
AT1 bonds with a common goal of financial stability and
GS Paper III-Economics Prelims common standards of banking regulations.
"Youtube: DNA 29.02.2024" • It was founded in 1930.
• The Basel Committee on Banking
Supervision is housed in the BIS offices in
Basel, Switzerland.

Basel III Norms

Main Focus
• CAR(Capital adequacy ratio)
CAR(Capital adequacy ratio)
• Ratio of banks capital and its Risk Weighted
Assets.
• Basel III stipulated minimum CAR of 8%.
RBI guidelines
• Indian Scheduled Commercial Banks to
Basel Norms maintain CAR of 9%
• Indian Public Sector Banks to maintain CAR
• Basel is a city in Switzerland. of 12 %.
• In Basel the heads of the Central banks
meet to determine international norms for
safe banking under Basel Committee on
Banking Supervision.
Goal of BCBS-
1. Strengthening the international banking
system.
2. Minimise risk
• RBI represents India in Basel Committee on
Banking Supervision.
• Time to time Basel norms are revised.
• BASEL I- 1988
• BASEL II- 2004
• BASEL III- 2010

AT1 vs Plain Vanilla bond

• AT1 bonds-unsecured, perpetual bonds Banks
take to meet the Basel-III norms
• Plain-vanilla bonds-most basic type of bonds,
predetermined rate and maturity
Banks capital
• The bank's capital is divided into Tier 1 & Tier
2 funds.
• Tier 1 is further divided into Common Equity
Tier 1 and Additional Tier 1 Capital (AT1
Bonds).
• If the Tier 1 Capital goes below the specified
limit, AT1 Capital will be forfeited to provide
the capital to the bank.
AT1 capital-
• The Capital raised by the bank as a loan by
pledging special kind of bonds known as
AT1 bonds.
• AT1 bonds, also called perpetual bonds,
carry no maturity date.
• But Banks have call option.

Other focus areas of BASEL III apart from d. Neither 1 nor 2

CAR
Three focus areas (known as 3 pillars of Basel India’s first parametric
norms)-
1. Capital requirements
insurance for fish farmers
2. Supervisory Review GS Paper III-Indian Economy GS Paper V-Assam
3. Market discipline Issues Prelims
"Youtube: DNA 20.02.2024"

Prelims Practice Question Parametric insurance

Q3. Consider the following statements about
• Parametric insurance is an insurance
AT1 Bonds:
1. These are secured bonds that have contract that insures a policyholder against
perpetual tenure. the occurrence of a specific event by paying
2. These bonds are typically used by banks to a set amount based on the magnitude of the
bolster their core or tier-1 capital. event and not the magnitude of loss.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? Current news?
• India’s first parametric insurance for inland
a. 1 only
b. 2 only farmers, which seeks to provide financial
c. Both security to fish farmers by safeguarding their
d. None livelihood against unpredictable natural
calamities and other risks, has been launched
in Assam.
• The Assam Rural Infrastructure and
UPSC 2018
Agricultural Services (ARIAS) Society and
Q4. Consider the following statements:
the State fishery department has tied up with
1. Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is the
the Absolute Digisafe for this purpose.
amount that banks have to maintain in the
form of their own funds to offset any loss
that banks incur if the account holders fail
to repay dues.
2. Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is decided by
each individual bank.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2

28th Financial Stability and spread of unauthorised lending through

online apps.
Development Council Illegal lending apps in India
• A report by the RBI, published in 2022, says
meeting that India has the maximum number of
digital loan apps in the world.
GS Paper III-Indian Economy Prelims • The report has marked 600 loan apps illegal
"Youtube: DNA 22.02.2024" and said that the central bank.
Issues
1. Low-income and financial unsavvy Indians are
the targets
2. Harassment by recovery agents
3. Breach of privacy
4. Acts as a tool for money laundering
5. Trap through provisions like Buy Now Pay
Later,Zero Interest etc

Financial Stability and Development Council

• It is constituted by Executive Order of Union
Govt in 2010.
• On recommendation of Raghuram Rajan
committee (2008)
• It functions under Ministry of Finance.
• The Chairman of the Council is the Finance
Minister.
Objective
1. Stabilize the macroeconomic parameters of
Indian economy like savings, inflation, growth
rate etc.
2. It monitors macro-prudential supervision of
the economy.

UPSC Prelims 2016

Current news? Q2. With reference to 'Financial Stability and
• Addressing the 28th meeting of the Financial Development Council', consider the following
Stability and Development Council (FSDC), statements
Finance Minister asked financial sector 1. It is an organ of NITI Aayog.
regulators to take further measures to check 2. It is headed by the Union Finance Minister.

3. It monitors macroprudential supervision of • The Department of Commerce has brought

the economy. out the National Rubber Policy 2019.
Which of the statements given above is/are • The policy aims at increasing rubber
correct? production in North East India.
a. 1 and 2 only • The climate of North East also supports
b. 3 only rubber production but rubber is not produced
c. 2 and 3 only up to its potential in NE.
d. 1, 2 and 3

Rubber plantation in
Northeast
GS Paper III-Indian Economy Prelims
"Youtube: DNA 24.02.2024"

Rubber production in NE
• Rubber Cultivation In India’s Northeast - In the
year 2018-19, the Northeast accounted for
production of nearly 94,430 tonnes of natural
rubber (about 8 percent of total production
in the country).
• In NE Tripura is the the largest producer
state.
• In fact, Tripura has been declared the ‘Second
Rubber Capital of India’ after Kerala by the
Indian Rubber Board.

Rubber production in India

• India is the fourth largest rubber-producing
country in the world, after
Thailand(1st),Brazil and China.
Main producing states-
1. Kerala
2. Tamil Nadu
National Rubber Policy 2019

INROAD project Prelims Practice Question

Q2. Consider the following statements related
• In a major boost to the rubber plantation drive to Natural Rubber production in India.
in the Northeast, nearly 70,000 hectares of 1. India is world’s third largest natural rubber
land has been brought under natural rubber producer after Indonesia and Brazil.
plantation under the INROAD project in 3 2. Sikkim is the biggest producer of the rubber
years. in India.
• This represents one of the highest new 3. The most important condition for the
plantations ever achieved in the Northeast in growth of rubber tree is low temperature.
a block of 3 years. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
INROAD project a. 1,2 only
• Indian Natural Rubber Operations for Assisted b. 3 only
Development-a project for supporting the c. 2,3 only
development of 2 lakh hectares of rubber d. None of the above
plantations in the Northeast.
• INROAD is the first such project in the world Consumption Survey
where the natural rubber-consuming industry
GS Paper III-Indian Economy Prelims
(tyre sector) has come forward to
"Youtube: DNA 26.02.2024"
partner with government agencies and fund
the plantation of Natural Rubber (NR).
• Automotive Tyre Manufacturers
Association (ATMA), the apex body of tyre
manufacturers in the country has collaborated
with the Rubber Board of India for the
project
• In the process, over 3 crore trees have been
planted so far under the project benefiting
nearly 80,000 beneficiaries across 93
districts in Northeastern states.

Current news?
• The Household Consumption Expenditure
Survey (HCES) is conducted by the National
Statistical Office (NSO) every five years.
• For the first time in about 11 years, the
government released the broad findings of the
All India Household Consumption Expenditure
Survey carried out between August 2022 and
July 2023.
• Findings of the last survey, conducted in
2017-18 were never released after the
government cited “data quality” issues.
Role of the consumption data-
1. The Gross Domestic Product (GDP)-
Consumption method
2. Poverty levels
3. The Consumer Price Inflation (CPI).

Key findings
Overall
• Monthly Per Capita Consumer Expenditure
(MPCE) in urban areas Rs 6,459.
• Monthly Per Capita Consumer Expenditure
(MPCE) in rural areas Rs 3,773.
• The difference in consumption expenditure
in urban and rural areas decreased to 71.2%
from 83.9%.
Statewise
• Among the States, the Monthly Per Capita
Consumer Expenditure (MPCE) is the
highest in Sikkim for both rural (₹7,731) and
urban areas (₹12,105).

Science and Technology

• The goal of implantable BCIs is to enhance
Brain Computer Interface human capabilities especially people with
limitations like paralysis, treat neurological
GS Paper III-S&T Prelims disorders.
"Youtube: DNA 1.02.2024"
How does Brain Computer Interface
Works?

Current news?
• Recently, Elon Musk’s firm Neuralink, a
company working to develop brain-computer
interfaces, placed its first device in a patient.
• This first product from Neuralink is called
Telepathy.
• This is also known as neural decoding.
• This essentially lets a person turn their
thoughts into actions without physical
movement.
Ethical Concerns of such developments
1. Privacy of personal data is under threat
2. Threat to human identity
Brain-Computer Interface • Our ability to think makes us different from
machines.
• It is a technology that allows direct • Such technologies will blur lines between
communication between the human brain humans and machines.
and external devices. 3. Inequality in society
• It involves the surgical implantation of a chip • Creation of superhumans with enhanced
into the brain, which can detect and transmit cranial capacity
neural signals. • Importance of human efforts will be
• These signals are then decoded by a device diminished.
connected to the chip, enabling individuals to 4. Risk to Patient’s life
control devices or interact with technology
using their thoughts alone.
SPM IAS Academy, D.S. Mansion 2nd floor, Opposite Indian Oil Petrol Pump, Near Assam State Zoo, Zoo Road,
Guwahati, Assam – 781005 Phone: 6901259799, Students’ Support Team: 7099064717,
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Blood cells
• Blood cells include-
1. RBC(includes Haemoglobin)
2. Platelets-Help in Blood clotting
3. WBC
• Lymphocyte is part of WBC.
• Lymphocyte is responsible behind immune
Prelims Practice Question system of our body and protect us
Q1. Biohacking, recently seen in news is related to against diseases caused by pathogens.
which of the following? • There are two main types of lymphocytes: B
a. Hacking into biological systems to steal or cells and T cells.
modify data
b. Biological experimentation done to improve
the qualities or capabilities of living organisms
c. The use of biotechnology to produce new
forms of life or to modify existing ones
d. Exploiting biological vulnerabilities to cause
harm or disruption

CAR-T cell therapy

GS Paper III-S&T Prelims
"Youtube: DNA 7.02.2024"

• Recently the Central Drugs Standard

Control Organisation (CDSCO) this month
granted market authorisation for
NexCAR19.
• First patient has been treated with help of
indigenous CAR-T cell therapy.
• The treatment costed around 42 Lakhs Rs in
India which could cost about 3-4 cr Rs
abroad.

CAR-T cell therapy

• CAR-T is a revolutionary therapy that
modifies immune cells, specifically T-cells,
by turning them into potent cancer fighters
known as CAR-T cells.
• In CAR-T therapy, T-Cells turn into cancer-
fighting cells. UPSC Prelims 2022
• These supercharged cells are then put back Q2. Which one of the following statements best
into the body, and they go after cancer cells describes the role of B cells and T cells in the
— especially in blood cancers like leukaemia human body?
and lymphomas. a. They protect the environmental
allergens. Body
b. They alleviate the body’s pain and
inflammation.
c. They act as immunosuppressants in the
body.
d. They protect the body from the diseases
caused by pathogens.

High - Altitude Pseudo

Satellite vehicle
GS Paper III-S&T Prelims
"Youtube: DNA 10.02.2024"

Current news?
• India’s first indigenously-developed CAR-T
cell therapy has been developed by medical
company ImmunoACT( incubated by IIT
Bombay).
• The therapy has been named NexCAR19.

• This puts India among a very small group of

countries currently experimenting with this
technology.

UPSC Prelims 2022

Q2. Which one of the following statements best
reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital
Bombardment System” often talked about in
media?
High-Altitude Pseudo Satellite a. A hypersonic missile is launched into
space to counter the asteroid approaching the
• It is a new-age unmanned aerial vehicle Earth and explode it in space.
(UAV). b. A spacecraft lands on another planet,
• It is a still-developing technology. after making several orbital motions.
Features c. A missile is put into a stable orbit
• It can fly at altitudes of 18-20 km from the around the Earth and deorbits over a target on
ground, almost double the heights attained by the Earth.
commercial aeroplanes. d. A spacecraft moves along a comet with
• It has the ability to generate solar power. the same speed and places a probe on its
• It can remain in the air for months, even surface.
years, offering it advantages of a satellite.
• It does not require a rocket to get into space.
• The cost of operating HAPS is several times ISRO’s Naughty boy launch
lower than that of a satellite.
• Satellite placed at least 300 to 400 km from the GS Paper III-S&T Prelims
Earth. "Youtube: DNA 17.02.2024"

Applications
• Can significantly increase India’s
surveillance and monitoring capabilities in
the border areas.
• Useful in disaster situations.
• Provide mobile communications networks in Indian Satellite Launch Vehicles
remote areas.
• A launch vehicle is a rocket-powered vehicle
Current news? used to transport a spacecraft beyond
• Recently, the National Aerospace Earth’s atmosphere, either into orbit around
Laboratories (NAL) in Bengaluru completed Earth or to some other destination in outer
the first test of a solar-powered high- space.
altitude pseudo satellite vehicle. • In India, the launch vehicles development
program began in the early 1970s.

• The first experimental Satellite Launch

Vehicle (SLV-3) was developed in 1980.
• An Augmented version of this, ASLV, was
launched successfully in 1992.
• Then India developed operational-Polar
Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) and
Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle
(GSLV).

Rocket propellant

• A propellant is a chemical mixture burned to

produce thrust in rockets and consists of a fuel
and an oxidizer.
• Fuel is a substance that burns when
combined with oxygen-producing gas for
propulsion.
• An oxidizer is an agent that releases oxygen
for combination with a fuel.
• Propellants(fuel) are classified according to
their state – liquid, solid, or Cryogenic.
Cryogenic
• Cryogenic propellants are rocket propellants
that are stored at very low temperatures. Operational Launch Vehicles
1. Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV)
• Third generation launch vehicle of India.
• It is the first Indian launch vehicle to be
equipped with liquid stages.
• PSLV has four stages using solid and liquid
propulsion systems alternately.
• Its first successful launch in October 1994.
• Till now it has conducted more than 60
launches-57 successful(95% success rate)
• It can take up to 1,750 kg of payload to sun-
synchronous polar orbits of 600 km
altitude.
• Due to its unmatched reliability,earned its title
“the workhorse of ISRO”.

• Launched Missions → Chandrayaan-1,

Mars Orbiter Mission, Space Capsule
Recovery Experiment, IRNSS, Astrosat.

The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)

has renamed the Geosynchronous Satellite
Launch Vehicle (GSLV) Mark -III as Launch
Vehicle Mark-III, mainly to identify its task of
placing satellites into a variety of orbits.

2. Geosynchronous Satellite Launch

Vehicle (GSLV)
• It is capable of placing 2 ton class of
satellites like the INSAT and GSAT series of
communication satellites into
Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO).
• It is three stage vehicle - Solid, Liquid and
Cryogenic.
Vehicle Versions
• GSLV Mk-I : (Russian Cryogenic)
• GSLV Mk-II : (Indigenous Cryogenic)
• GSLV Mk-III : (Indigenous Cryogenic) Current news?
• Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
will launch its meteorological satellite INSAT-
3DS aboard spacecraft GSLV F14 on Saturday
evening from Sriharikota.
• INSAT-3DS- aim at more accurate and
informative weather forecasts and natural
disaster warnings.
GSLV F14

• It will be the rocket’s 16th mission overall and • While water molecules have previously been
its 10th flight using the indigenously detected in asteroid samples returned to
developed cryogenic engine. Earth, this is the first time that water molecules
• On the occasion of the launch ISRO have been found on the surface of an asteroid
scientists called GSLV “naughty boy”. in space.
Why is GSLV called ‘naughty boy’? Stratospheric Observatory For Infrared
• Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle Astronomy (SOFIA)
(GSLV) was named "naughty boy" since the • SOFIA was a Boeing aircraft modified to
rocket failed in six of its 15 flights - a 40 carry a 2.7-meter reflecting telescope.
percent fail rate. • Flying into the stratosphere-SOFIA could
observe the universe in the widest range of
infrared light.
• It was a joint project between NASA and the
German Space Agency DLR.

Water detected on the

surface of an asteroid
GS Paper III-S&T Prelims
"Youtube: DNA 21.02.2024"

UPSC Prelims 2019

Q1. With reference to the Constitution of India,
prohibitions or limitations or provisions
Recent developments contained in ordinary laws cannot act as
• Scientists have recently detected water prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional
molecules on the surface of two asteroids- powers under Article 142. It could mean which
Iris and Massalia. one of the following?
• The team made the discovery using data a. The decisions taken by the Election
from NASA's now-retired SOFIA airborne Commission of India while discharging its
observatory. duties cannot be challenged in any court of
law.
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FEBRUARY MONTHLY MAGAZINE 2024

b. The Supreme Court of India is not

constrained in the exercise of its powers by
laws made by the Parliament.
c. In the event of grave financial crisis in
the country, the President of India can declare
Financial Emergency without the counsel from
the Cabinet.
d. State Legislatures cannot make laws on
certain matters without the concurrence of
Union Legislature.

First commercial company

to do soft landing on Moon
GS Paper III-S&T Prelims
Odysseus spacecraft
"Youtube: DNA 24.02.2024"
• The Odysseus spacecraft was on board of
Space X rocket Falcon 9.
• Intuitive Machines calls its spacecraft design
Nova-C.
• It is a hexagonal cylinder with six landing
legs, about 14 feet tall and 5 feet wide.
• Odysseus and Peregrine are part of NASA’s
Commercial Lunar Payload Services program,
or CLPS.
• NASA’s Commercial Lunar Payload Services
program is part of the agency’s Artemis
program, which seeks to return astronauts to
the moon over the next few years.

Current news?
• The Odysseus spacecraft, spearheaded by
Intuitive Machines (IM) has a successful
soft landing on the lunar surface.
• This landmark event marks the first
commercial venture to accomplish such a
feat.
• The successful landing of Odysseus near
Malapert A, an impact crater situated close to
the moon’s south pole, underscores the
prowess of private industry in pushing the
boundaries of space exploration.
Prelims Practice Question
Q1. Which of the following statements are
correct?
1. The Artemis programme seeks to establish
a permanent base camp on the Moon.

2. The Peregrine lunar lander will be the first

US Spacecraft to land on the Moon after
Apollo 17.
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both
d. None

Virtual Private Network

GS Paper III-S&T Prelims
"Youtube: DNA 26.02.2024"

Government regulation on Virtual private

network
• A new directive of The Indian Computer
Emergency Response Team or Cert-In has
been released for VPN companies.
• As per new directives VPN service providers
must maintain all customer data for five
years.
CERT-IN (Computer Emergency Response
Team) - India
• By Ministry of Electronics and Information
Technology for Cyber Security
Virtual private network • To prevent cyber attacks in India.
Basics Current news?
• Devices connecting to the Internet-IP • Recently, a 21-year-old from Gujarat allegedly
address. sent five threatening emails to Mukesh
• Allows law enforcement agencies, service Ambani after masking his IP address using a
providers, etc., to identify the device and its Virtual Private Network (VPN) and was
location, thereby identifying the user. arrested by the Mumbai police.
Virtual private network
• establish secure and encrypted
connections to provide greater privacy than
even a secured Wi-Fi hotspot.
• You could be sitting in Guwahati , but your
location could appear to be New York to any
app application that you’re using.

Prelims Practice Question

Q2. What is "Virtual Private Network?
a. It is a private computer netWork of an
organization where the remote users can

transmit encrypted information through the • GPTs are a type of large language model
server of the organization (LLM) that use transformer neural networks to
b. It is a computer network across a public generate human-like text.
internet that provides users access to their
organization's network while maintaining the
security of the information transmitted
c. It is a computer network in which users
can access a shared pool of computing
resources through a service provider
d. None of the statements (a), (b) and (c)
given above is a correct description of Virtual
Private Network

‘Hanooman’
GS Paper III-S&T Prelims
"Youtube: DNA 27.02.2024"

ChatGPT
Large Language Models (LLMs) • A large language model (LLM) Pre-trained
Transformers .
• Large language models are a type of • Developed by OpenAI
computer processing that use deep learning • It can provide responses that sound like
techniques to process large amounts of text. human speech, enabling natural dialogue
• They work by processing vast amounts of between the user and the virtual assistant.
text, understanding the structure and Hanooman
meaning, and learning from it.
• LLMs are trained to identify meanings and • Hanooman is a series of large language
relationships between words. models (LLMs) that can respond in 11 Indian
• The training data is usually large datasets, languages like Hindi, Tamil, and Marathi.
such as Wikipedia, Open webText etc. • However, there are plans to expand to more
Transformers in AI than 20 languages.
• That transforms or changes an input • It has been designed to work in four fields,
sequence into an output sequence. including health care, governance, financial
• They do this by learning context and tracking services, and education.
relationships between sequence • It has been built by Bharat GPT group.
components. • Will be launched next month.
Generative Pre-trained Transformers

Bharat GPT group • It will circle Earth at a low-earth-orbit at an

altitude of 300-400 km from earth for 5-7
• Reliance Jio and IIT-Bombay set to build days.
India's 'Bharat GPT' AI • GSLV Mk III will be used to launch
Gaganyaan.
• With the success of this mission, India will
become the 4th country to send humans to
space after the USA, Russia, and China.

4 Astronauts selected for

Gaganyaan mission
GS Paper III-S&T Prelims
"Youtube: DNA 28.02.2024"

Current news?
• PM Modi announced India's four astronauts-
designate for Gaganyaan.
They are-
1. Group Captain Prasanth Balakrishnan Nair
2. Group Captain Ajit Krishnan
3. Group Captain Angad Pratap,
4. Wing Commander Shubhanshu Shukla
• All four Indian Air Force officers have had
extensive experience as test pilots and are
have been training for the mission in
Russia.
Gaganyaan mission
First Indian in Space
• It is human space flight programme, called • In 1984, Wing Commander Rakesh Sharma
the Orbital Module will have 4 Indian became the first Indian in space when he flew
astronauts. to the Salyut 7 space station on a Soviet
spacecraft.
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Genes
• Genes are made up of DNA
• DNA carries hereditary information
Genomes
• All Genes within the cell is known as
genome.
• It is complete information about a person’s
Genetic makeup.
India’s Genetic map
Genome India Project
GS Paper III-S&T Prelims
"Youtube: DNA 29.02.2024" • Launched in 2020 by Department of
Biotechnology (DBT).
• Involves 20+ institutions to collect samples
and create a reference grid.
Aim
• To sequence 10,000 Indian genomes for a
reference genome by end of 2023-Phase I.
Benefits
1. Healthcare
• To study Genetic make up Indian people -
develop medical research to curb diseases
like cancer, diabetes etc.
2. Prenatal Genetic Screening- screening
for diseases prior to the birth.
3. Evolution Puzzle-questions regarding
evolution by comparing human DNA with
primate DNA.
4. To evaluate rare disorder

Genome data storage and usage

• With each sequence requiring 80 Gb storage
space, the huge dataset of 8 petabytes will
be stored at the Indian Biological Data
Centre in Faridabad.
• This dataset will be made available to
researchers as “digital public good.”
• The data can be utilised to develop new
• Genome India Project started after taking diagnostics, targeted therapies, identify
inspiration from the Human Genome new rare diseases, and cure existing ones.
Project.
Q. What is Genome India project? Discuss its
Human Genome Project significance and potential benefits. 10
• Started in 1990. marks/150 words
• It was an international research effort to
determine the sequence of the human
Prelims Practice Question
genome.
Q1. Consider the following statements with
• The HGP has revealed that there are probably
reference to Genome sequencing:
about 20,500 human genes.
1. It refers to figuring out the order of DNA
• It was a collaborative effort led by the National
nucleotides in a genome.
Institutes of Health and the Department of 2. Human Genome Project was launched by
Energy in the USA.
India in 1990 to better understand the
genetic variations and disease-causing
Current news?
mutations specific to the Indian population.
• THE GOVERNMENT’S ambitious Genome
Which of the statements given above is/are not
India initiative achieved a significant correct?
milestone as researchers completed
a. 1 only
sequencing 10,000 healthy genomes from b. 2 only
different regions of the country, representing
c. Both 1 and 2
99 distinct populations.
d. Neither 1 nor 2

National Science Day

GS Paper III-S&T Prelims
"Youtube: DNA 29.02.2024"

does not provide useful information – this is

called Rayleigh Scatter.
• However a small amount of light (typically
0.0000001%) is scattered at different
wavelengths (or colors), which depend on the
chemical structure of the analyte – this is
called Raman Scatter.

Dr. CV Raman
• Dr. CV Raman,Physicist from India announced
his discovery of Raman spectroscopy on
28th February 1928.
• February 28th was declared celebrated as
National Science Day in 1986. By analysing Raman scattering one can know
• Raman spectroscopy is also known as Raman about the molecular structure of the chemical.
effect.
• The Raman Effect won scientist Sir CV Prelims Practice Question
Raman the Nobel Prize for physics in 1930. Q2. Which of the following statements are
• The theme of National Science Day 2024 true?
is '“Indigenous Technology for Viksit 1. National Science Day is celebrated on 28
Bharat.”. February every year.
2. It is birthday of Nobel Prize winning
physicist CV Raman.
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both
d. None

Raman spectroscopy
• Raman Spectroscopy is a non-destructive
chemical analysis technique which provides
detailed information about chemical
structure.
How it works?
• It is a light scattering technique, whereby a
molecule scatters incident light from a high
intensity laser light source.
• Most of the scattered light is at the same
wavelength (or color) as the laser source and

Environment

3. 5 more Ramsar sites

GS Paper III-Environment Prelims
"Youtube: DNA 1.02.2024"

What is the news?

• On the occasion of World Wetland Day Union
Government has designated five new
wetlands of international importance, taking
the total number of Ramsar sites in the
country to 80.
• 3 of the newly added Ramsar sites are from
Karnataka and 2 are from Tamil nadu.

Ramsar Sites
• Ramsar Convention is formally known as
Convention on Wetlands of International
Importance.
• It was signed on 2 February 1971 thus this
day is celebrated as World’s Wetland day.
• This treaty is not a legal binding treaty and is
not a part of UN & UNESCO conventions.
• To become a member of this international
agreement a country has to get its at least
one site registered as Wetland in the Ramsar
Wetland list.
•
Snow Leopard Population
Benefit of joining the agreement- Best
practices and know how of conservation of

•
wetland is provided to the member country.
UK has maximum number of Ramsar sites- Assessment in India
175. GS Paper III-Environment Prelims
• Bolivia has the largest area with 148,000 "Youtube: DNA 3.02.2024"
square km under Ramsar sites.

• The Wildlife Institute of India (WII) served as

the National Coordinator for the SPAI.

Prelims Practice Question

Q2. Consider the following:
1. Black-necked crane
2. Cheetah
3. Flying squirrel
4. Snow leopard
Which of the above are naturally found in
India?
a. 1, 2 and 3 only
b. 1, 3 and 4 only
c. 2 and 4 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Humboldt enigma
GS Paper III-Environment Prelims
"Youtube: DNA 7.02.2024"

Current news?
• A report on the Status of Snow Leopards in
India by the Union Minister of Environment,
Forest, and Climate Change (MoEFCC).
• This report is a result of the Snow Leopard
Population Assessment in India (SPAI)
Program.
• The SPAI Program is the first-ever
comprehensive scientific exercise aimed at
assessing the population of snow leopards
in India.
SPM IAS Academy, D.S. Mansion 2nd floor, Opposite Indian Oil Petrol Pump, Near Assam State Zoo, Zoo Road,
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• India’s Himalayas region are part of India’s

Biodiversity hotspot.
Biodiversity Hotspots(**)
• concept of biodiversity hotspots was
developed by the Norman Myers in 1988
• Areas rich in biodiversity
• 36 biodiversity hotspots in world
4 Biodiversity Hotspots in India
1. Western Ghats and SL
2. Himalayas
3. Indo-Burma
4. Sundaland

What is Humboldt's enigma?

• Humboldt's enigma is a theory that questions
the conventional notion that tropical
regions, fueled by ample sunlight, are the
primary centres of biodiversity on Earth.
• It contends that despite receiving less
sunlight and enduring colder temperatures, World Sustainable
mountain ecosystems defy this notion by
showcasing exceptional biodiversity. Development Summit
• It challenging traditional ecological GS Paper III-Environment Prelims
theories and prompting investigation into this "Youtube: DNA 8.02.2024"
anomaly.
• This anomaly was highlighted by Alexander
von Humboldt's.

World Sustainable Development Summit

• It is annual flagship event of the Energy and
Resources Institute (TERI).
• It is the only independently convened
Humboldt enigma international summit on sustainable
development and environment, based in the
• The best set up to investigate Humboldt
Global South.
enigma India’s Himalayan region.

• WSDS 2024 is the 23rd edition of the summit Select the correct statements using the code
in New Delhi. given below:
• WSDS 2024 will take place on the theme a. 1 only
‘Leadership for the Sustainable b. 2 only
Development and Climate Justice’. c. Both
d. None

Climate Inequality
GS Paper III-Environment Prelims
"Youtube: DNA 10.02.2024"

The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI)

• TERI is a non-profit research institution.
• Established in 1974 as Tata Energy
Research Institute and was renamed The
Energy and Resources Institute in 2003.
• It conducts research work in the fields of
energy, environment and sustainable
development.
• Its key focus lies in promoting clean energy,
water management, pollution management,
sustainable agriculture and climate
resilience.

Prelims Practice Question

Q2. With reference to World Sustainable Climate inequality
Development Summit (WSDS), consider the Climate inequality refers to disparities in-
following statements: 1. Contribution to greenhouse gas emissions
1. It is organized every year by the Ministry of 2. Exposure to climate-related risks
Ministry of Environment, Forest and 3. Access to resources for adaptation against
Climate Change (MoEFCC). climate change
2. It aims to bring together global leaders and Current context-
thinkers in the fields of sustainable • As per the recently released Oxfam report
development, energy and environment (Climate Equality: A Planet for the 99%), the
sectors on a common platform.
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richest 1% of the global population emitted

carbon equivalent to the poorest 66%.
• It lead to 1.3 million heat-related deaths.

Taylor Swift, is often criticism for her widespread

use of private jets, even for distances that could
easily be covered by road without much fuss.
Taylor Swift recently took a 13 minute long flight,
from one airport in St Louis to the other.
The fact is its not just Taylor Swift,but over all Jet
culture is on the rise amongst the rich.

50 years of Kaziranga
National park
GS Paper III-Environment GS Paper V-Assam
Issues Prelims
Recent Development "Youtube: DNA 15.02.2024"
• Jack Sweeney, 21-year-old student and
environment activist has been tracking Pop
culture icon Taylor Swift usage of private jets
and highlighted how her travels have
contributed to climate change.
The problem with private jets
• Private jets, on a per capita basis, are
amongst the biggest polluters in the world.
• A 2023 report by Transport and Environment,
a European climate NGO advocating for
cleaner transportation systems, estimated that
private jets were 5 to 14 times more
polluting, per passenger, than commercial
planes, and 50 times more polluting than
trains.

Current news?
• Kaziranga National park was declared as a
National Park on 11th February 1974.
• Thus Kaziranga National park recently
completed 50 years as a National Park.

Same place can be upgraded

• In 1908, Kaziranga was designated a
"Reserve Forest" on request of Mary
Curzon(wife of Viceroy Lord Curzon)
• In 1916, it was redesignated the "Kaziranga
Game Sanctuary" ( allowed hunting for game)
• In 1938 it was declared reserved forest
under Indian Forest Act 1927( hunting
banned).
• In 1950 it was made a Wildlife sanctuary.
• In 1974( 11th February) it was made
National Park.
• In 1985 it was identified as UNESCO natural
heritage site. Prelims Practice Question
• Declared a tiger reserve since 2007. Q2. Which one among the following is India’s
• Important Bird Area by BirdLife first ‘Mixed World Heritage Site’?
International. a. Kaziranga National Park
b. Khangchendzonga National Park
Same place can have all the three- c. Banni grassland of Gujarat
Reserved Forest- Wildlife Sanctuary and d. Western Ghats
National Park

Defining Forests as per Forest (Conservation) Amendment Act, 2023

• The Forest (Conservation) Amendment Act,
Godavarman judgement 2023, was criticised over two issues-
GS Paper III-Environment Prelims 1. Breached Godavarman ruling
"Youtube: DNA 21.02.2024" • It contained provisions that in effect undid a
1996 Supreme Court TN Godavarman
ruling.
• Expanded the definition of forests to beyond
those notified or recorded officially.
• If allowed to operate, would result in
declassification of over 197,000 square
kilometres of forests currently protected
under the 1996 definition.
2. Relaxation to non forest activities
• Raft of relaxations of conditions in which non-
forest activity can be carried out on forest
land.
• This included setting up zoos and safaris in
Godavarman judgement such areas, and allowing projects of national
importance within 100 km of international
• The case began as a Public Interest border.
Litigation (PIL) filed by T.N. Godavarman, a
retired forest officer, in the Supreme Court of
India.
• The petitioner had raised concerns about the
degradation of forest lands due to various
developmental activities, such as mining,
quarrying, and construction.
• The main issue in the case was whether
forests in India could be diverted for non-
forest purposes, and if so, under what
conditions.
• The court held that forests could be diverted
for non-forest purposes, but only under
certain conditions and after obtaining
necessary environmental clearances.
Godavarman case primarily deals with the
interpretation of-
• Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980 (FCA) and Current context
the Forest (Conservation) Rules, 1981
• The Supreme Court issued an interim order
Outcome of Godavarman judgement- on February 19, 2024, emphasizing that
1. Strengthening of forest conservation laws states and Union territories (UTs) must
2. Increased role of the judiciary in environmental adhere to the Definition of ‘Forest’ as
governance established in the TN Godavarman
3. Protection of forest lands Thirumalpad v. Union of India judgement of
4. Recognition of the rights of forest dwellers and 1996.
tribal communities • This order came during the hearing of a
5. Promotion of sustainable development public interest litigation challenging the
constitutionality of the Forest
(Conservation) Act, which was amended by
the Union government in 2023.
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Where to use in mains? times of the year, due to various factors such
• If there is a question ‘Environment vs as food, sunlight, temperature, climate, etc.
Economy’. • India is a temporary home to several
• Conclude with the idea of sustainable migratory animals and birds. The important
development,Environment Impact among these include Amur Falcons, Bar-
Assessment etc headed Geese, Black-necked cranes,
Marine turtles, Dugongs, Humpback
Whales, etc.

Conservation of Migratory
Species-CoP14
GS Paper III-Environment Prelims
"Youtube: DNA 22.02.2024"

International Convention for Protection of

Migratory Species

Convention on the conservation of migratory

species (CMS)
• It is an environmental treaty under the aegis
of the United Nations Environment
Programme.
• CMS (also referred to as the Bonn
Convention) provides a global platform for
the conservation of migratory animals and
their habitats.
• India has been a Party to the CMS since
1983.
Migratory Species • The Conference of Parties (COP) is the
decision-making organ of this convention.
• Migratory species are those animals that move • A meeting of all 133 members of CMS is
from one habitat to another during different conducted every three year.

• Such meeting is known as CoP( Conference Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild

of parties). Animals (CMS 14) has been concluded in
• 13th CoP held in Gandhinagar, Gujarat. Samarkand, Uzbekistan.
Key Highlights of CMS COP 14
1. Adoption of Listing Proposals of 14
migratory species like bearded vulture,
Blackchin guitarfish, Bull ray etc.
2. Focus on Threats
• Various threats to migratory species were
highlighted, including habitat degradation,
fragmentation, illegal trade.
3. Recognition of Endangered Status
• Several species, such as the Lahille’s
Convention on the Conservation of Migratory bottlenose dolphin, Peruvian pelican, and
Species of Wild Animals, C0P 13- adopted the Magellanic plover, were recognized as
Gandhinagar declaration where the Asian 'Vulnerable,' 'Endangered,' or 'Critically
elephant was added to the Global Wildlife Endangered' in IUCN Red List, due to
Agreement. population decline and various threats.
4. Special steps to conserve Central Asian
Flyway
Classification of animals under CMS
• Animals are classified under 2
classifications-
1. Appendix I- Migratory species threatened
with extinction are listed on Appendix I and
Parties strive towards strictly protecting these
animals, conserving or restoring the places
where they live, mitigating obstacles to
migration and controlling other factors that
might endanger them.
2. Appendix II- Other migratory species that are
not under threat of extinction are in
Appendix II.

Central Asian Flyway

• It is one of the 9 flightpath taken by
migratory birds.
Area Covered
• CAF covers a large area of Eurasia between
the Arctic and Indian Oceans.
• Including India, there are 30 countries under
Current news? the Central Asian Flyway.
• The Fourteenth Meeting of the Conference Extent
of the Parties (CoP) to the Convention on the
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• It involves migration routes of waterbirds,

extending from the northernmost breeding Anti-hydrogen Experiment:
grounds in Siberia to the southernmost non-
breeding wintering grounds in West Asia,
Gravity, Interferometer,
India, the Maldives and British Indian Ocean
Territory.
Spectroscopy (AEgIS)
GS Paper III-Environment Prelims
"Youtube: DNA 23.02.2024"

Antimatter
Prelims Practice Question • Antimatter is the same as ordinary matter
Q1. Consider the following statements, except that it has the opposite electric
1. The Convention on the Conservation of charge.
Migratory Species of Wild Animals is the • It is also known as “mirror” matter.
only global convention specializing in the • For instance, an electron, which has a
conservation of migratory species, their negative charge, has an antimatter partner
habitats and migration routes. known as positron.
2. The Convention on the Conservation of • A positron is a particle with the same mass as
Migratory Species of Wild Animals is an an electron but a positive charge.
environmental treaty under the aegis of the • The antimatter particles corresponding to
United Nations Environment Programme. electrons, protons, and neutrons are called
Which of the above statements is/are positrons, antiprotons, and antineutrons;
incorrect? collectively they are referred to as
a. 1 only antiparticles.
b. 2 only • These anti-particles can combine to form
c. Both anti-atoms and, in principle, could even form
d. None antimatter regions of our universe.
• Matter and antimatter cannot coexist at close
range.
• Antimatter was created along with matter
after the Big Bang.
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Current news?
• In a major scientific breakthrough, an
international team of researchers has
successfully demonstrated laser
cooling of Positronium for the first time.
• Positronium, comprising a bound electron
(e-) and positron (e+), is a fundamental
atomic system.

Large Hadron Collider (LHC)

• It is a particle accelerator
• 27-kilometre ring of superconducting
magnets with a number of accelerating
Human produced Antimatter and structures
experiments • accelerates protons or ions(make them
collide)
• There are also naturally produced Questions LHC will try to answer-
antiparticles made sporadically throughout 1. Why some particles are very heavy while
the universe. others have no mass at all?
• Humans have created antimatter particles 2. What are dark matter and dark energy?
using ultra-high-speed collisions at huge • The matter we know and that makes up all
particle accelerators such as the Large stars and galaxies only accounts for 4% of
Hadron Collider, which is located outside the content of the universe.
Geneva and operated by CERN (the • The search is then still open for particles or
European Organization for Nuclear Research). phenomena responsible for dark matter (23%)
Anti-hydrogen Experiment: Gravity, and dark energy (73%)
Interferometry, Spectroscopy (AEgIS)
• It is an experiment approved by CERN with
the goal of studying antihydrogen physics.
• The primary goal of AEgIS is the direct
measurement of the Earth's gravitational
acceleration, g, on antihydrogen.
• Once performed this could be the first direct
test of the gravitational interaction between
matter and antimatter.
• AEgIS is a collaboration of physicists from a
number of countries in Europe and from
India.

LHC has been developed by CERN, the

European Organization for Nuclear Research, on
the Franco-Swiss border near Geneva,
Switzerland.

Four fundamental forces — gravity,

electromagnetism, and the strong and weak
nuclear forces

Prelims Practice Question

Q2. With reference to Large Hadron
Collider(LHC), consider the following
statements;
1. ATLAS is the largest general-purpose
particle detector experiment at the LHC.
2. It is a 50-km-long track-loop located in the
UK.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

Hints
• ATLAS is the largest general-purpose particle
detector experiment at the LHC.
• The Compact Muon Solenoid (CMS)
experiment is one of the largest international
scientific collaborations in history with the
same goals as ATLAS but which uses a
different magnet-system design.

Ethics and Integrity

The quote
Quote ‘If the… State is not
“If the fabric of the State is not built on durable
built on durable foundations, it will be futile to try and fill it with
the material and moral contents of a good life.”
foundations, it will be futile’
Paper I-Essay GS Paper IV-Ethics Key idea in the above quote-
• Mere economic development or intellectual
"Youtube: DNA 5.02.2024"
enlightenment can’t help in establishing a
stable and progressive state.
• Democratic society with sense of respect
for law are necessary durable foundations
for a stable state.
• He said respect for law is essentially a matter
of political training and tradition.
• Transition from a dependent to an
independent status always makes it difficult
in the initial stages.
• Nevertheless, he emphasised that this
foundation was necessary to build other
achievements, including economic ones.
• The willing help and cooperation of all
sections of the community is required in
maintaining peace and order, in increasing
production and in avoiding internecine
Background quarrels whether among communities or
• Back in 1947 too, while presenting “the first between capital and labour.
Budget of a free and independent India”,
then Finance Minister RK Shanmukham
Chetty made references to the end of colonial Corruption in education
rule and the aftermath of the Partition of
India. system detected through
Near the end of his speech, he said-
“If the fabric of the State is not built on technology
durable foundations, it will be futile to try
GS Paper IV-Ethics and Integrity GS Paper V-
and fill it with the material and moral
Assam Issues Prelims
contents of a good life.”
"Youtube: DNA 20.02.2024"

Current news?
• More than five lakh fake students have been
identified after the launching of the Shiksha
Setu App by the State Government,
• Shiksha Setu App brought other revolutionary
changes in the school education system as the
presence of teachers in schools can be
monitored.
Reasons behind high number of fake students-
1. The teachers were apprehensive that they
might be transferred to other schools if the
enrolment was less.
2. The Government provides mid-day meals,
uniforms, textbooks, sports kits, etc for the
school students and a handful of principals, in
collusion with the school management
committees, inflated the number of students to
siphon off Government funds.

Geography and Disaster Management

Atmospheric Rivers
GS Paper I-Geography Prelims
"Youtube: DNA 7.02.2024"

Atmospheric Rivers
• Atmospheric rivers are relatively long,
narrow regions in the atmosphere – like
rivers in the sky.
• They transport most of the water vapor
outside of the tropics. Weather phenomenon associated with
• Atmospheric rivers are typically formed in the Atmospheric Rivers
tropics or subtropics where warm ocean • The heavy precipitation associated with ARs
surfaces evaporate water into the air. can contribute to flooding, landslides, and
• They often extending from the equator to snowstorms, depending on the geographic
higher latitudes. location and season.
• They often develop within the low-level jet • Because of its sudden huge rainfall it is also
stream(a fast-flowing, narrow air current). referred as ‘Bomb Cyclone’.
• These rivers in the sky can transport vast • In some regions, ARs are crucial for
amounts of water vapor, equivalent to the maintaining water supply as they contribute
flow of the Amazon River, the world’s a significant portion of annual precipitation.
largest river, but in the form of water vapor. • Atmospheric Rivers rain in Western United
• When the ARs make landfall, they often States and Canada is known as Pineapple
release this water vapor in the form of rain Express.
or snow.

c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3

Land of Fire and Ice

GS I-Geography Prelims
"Youtube: DNA 9.02.2024"

Current news?
• A powerful atmospheric river storm was
headed for Southern California recently, Land of Fire and Ice
threatening to unleash life-threatening floods
• Iceland, with its glaciers and volcanoes, is
and landslides.
the “Land of Fire and Ice.”
Why is Iceland known as Land of Fire and Ice?
• Iceland is located on the Mid-Atlantic Ridge.
• Mid-Atlantic Ridge is technically the longest
mountain range in the world.
• But it is on the floor of the Atlantic Ocean.

Prelims Practice Question

Q1. Consider the following statements:
1. Atmospheric rivers are long, narrow
regions in the atmosphere that transport
most of the water vapor outside the tropics.
2. Atmospheric rivers carry very little
moisture content.
3. When the atmospheric rivers come back-to-
back then they are called atmospheric river
families.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 only
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Current development
• Recently, the Government of Iceland has
confirmed that the volcanic eruption near the
capital Reykjanes poses no threat to human
life.
Why such volcanoes are not dangerous?
• Mid-ocean ridges are created by the
upwelling of basaltic lava and lateral rifting
of ocean crust.

Prelims Practice Question

Q1. Consider the following statements,
1. The Barren Island volcano is India’s only
active volcano.
2. It’s the only active volcano along a chain of
volcanoes from Sumatra to Myanmar.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. 1 Only
b. 2 Only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

La Nina effect on air quality

GS Paper I-Geography-Imp geophysical
phenomenon Prelims
"Youtube: DNA 20.02.2024"

La-Nina condition
• Cooling of the ocean surface-cooling of the
ocean surface
• Warming of Australian coast
• Strong Walker cycle
• Strong Mascrene HP-Good Monsoon Rain
El-Nino Southern Oscillation
• Indian climatic conditions are shaped by many
factors; one of them is El-Nino Southern
Oscillation (ENSO).
El-Nino Southern Oscillation
• The El Nino-Southern Oscillation (ENSO) is a
recurring climate pattern involving changes
in the temperature of waters in the central
and eastern tropical Pacific Ocean.
• El Nino and La Nina are the extreme phases
of the ENSO cycle.

EL-Nino condition
• The trade winds become very weak, thus
the atmospheric cycle becomes very weak-
Walker cycle gets broken
• Weaker Mascrene-Poor Monsoon
• Drought in Australia and Indian Subcontinent
region
• Increased rainfall-Peru Coast

Current context
Air pollution trend noticed in the winter of 2022-
• Northern Indian cities, including Delhi, were
cleaner than usual, while cities in the west
and the south, like Mumbai, Bengaluru and
Chennai, experienced worse-than-usual air

quality. It was this unusual behavior that the

researchers wanted to study.
What is the explanation given for this?
• Change in Wind Direction: During winter, wind
usually blows in the northwesterly direction:
for example, from Punjab towards Delhi and
further into the Gangetic plains.
• In the winter of 2022, however, the wind
circulation was in the north-south
direction.
• The pollutants being carried from Punjab and
Haryana bypassed Delhi and surrounding
areas and flew over Rajasthan and Gujarat
to southern regions.
• Experts believe wind behaviour had
something to do with the extended La Nina
which, by the winter of 2022, had been
persisting for an unusually long three years.

History, Art & Culture and Indian Society

Guru Ravidas Jayanti

GS Paper I-Indian History Prelims
"Youtube: DNA 26.02.2024"

Bhakti Movement
Guru Ravidas
• Bhakti movement originated in Tamil Nadu
• He was an Indian mystic poet-saint of the between the seventh and ninth centuries
Bhakti movement and founder of Ravidassia by the Nayanars (devotees of Shiva) and
religion during the 14th to 15th century CE. Alvars (devotees of Vishnu).
• The life details of Ravidas are uncertain and • These saints looked upon religion not as a
contested. cold formal worship but as a loving bond
• Scholars believe he was born in 1377 in based upon love between the worshipped
Chamar caste. and worshipper.
• It is believed that he was born in Varanasi in • In course of time, the ideas of the South moved
a cobbler’s family. up to the North.
• He dedicated his whole life to the abolition of • A more effective method for spreading the
the caste system and openly criticised the Bhakti ideology was the use of local
notion of a Brahminical society. languages.
• Ravidas's devotional verses were included in Examples include Jnanadeva writing in Marathi,
the Sikh scriptures known as Guru Granth Kabir, Surdas and Tulsidas in Hindi,
Sahib. Shankaradeva popularising Assamese,
Chaitanya and Chandidas spreading their
message in Bengali, Mirabai in Hindi and
Rajasthani.

Sangeet Natak Akademi

awards
GS Paper I-Art and Culture GS Paper V-Assam
Issues Prelims
"Youtube: DNA 28.02.2024"

Mains Practice Question

Q. Many factors drove the rise of the Bhakti
movement. Enumerating those factors,
mention how it enriched Indian literature. 10
marks/150 words
Bhakti movement started in 8th century AD South
India by Adi Shankaracharya and his advaita Sangeet Natak Akademi
vada philosophy. Later seen in devotional poems
written by Alvars (Vishnu devotees) and
Nayanars (Shiva devotees). • The Sangeet Natak Akademi is India's
Reasons that led to the rise of Bhakti movement: national academy for music, dance and
1. Evils in the Hindu Society drama.
2. Role of Religious Reformers-Kabir, Nanak, • It was created by a resolution of the (then)
Shri Chaitanya, Mirabai, Ramananda, Ministry of Education, Government of India, in
Namdev etc 1952 with Dr P.V. Rajamannar as its first
3. Complexity of religion Chairman.
4. Influence of Sufism: The Sufi saints of the • It is presently an autonomous Body of the
Muslim community also inspired the Ministry of Culture.
movement. Some similar chords in the two Institutions established by Sangeet Natak
evoked resonance. Akademi
5. Challenge from Rival Religion • National School of Drama, New Delhi was set
Bhakti movement laid strong foundation for socio- up in 1959
religious reforms in modern India by likes of Raja • Jawaharlal Nehru Manipur Dance Academy in
Ram Mohan Roy and IC Vidyasagar. Imphal- 1954
• Kathak Kendra (National Institute of Kathak
Dance) in New Delhi- 1964

Sangeet Natak Akademi Awards

• 2022-Gobinda Saikia (Sattriya), Karuna
Borah (Ankiya Bhaona), Gunakar Dev
Goswami (Direction),Tarawati Bori (Folk/
traditional music) and Lakshahira Das
(overall contribution in performing arts)
• 2023-Bhaben Borbayan(Sattriya)
Natak Akademi fellowship(Akademi Ratna)
• Dulal Roy has been chosen for the
Sangeet Natak Akademi fellowship
(Akademi Ratna)

UPSC Prelims 2009

Q2. Consider the following statements:
1. The National School of Drama was set up by
Sangeet Natak Akademi in 1959.
2. The highest honour conferred by the
Sahitya Akademi on a writer is by electing
Sangeet Natak Akademi has identifies 8 dances him its Fellow.
as classical dances of India. Which of the statements given above is/are
• They are- correct?
1. Bharatnatyam (Tamil Nadu) a. 1 only
2. Kathak (North India) b. 2 only
3. Kathakali (Kerala) c. Both 1 and 2
4. Kuchipudi (Andhra Pradesh) d. Neither 1 nor 2
5. Mohiniyattam (Kerala)
6. Odissi (Odisha)
7. Sattriya (Assam) Ajanta and Ellora caves in
8. Manipuri (Manipur)
Swadesh Darshan Scheme
Awards by Sangeet Natak Akademi
GS I-Art and Culture GS Paper III-Indian Economy
1. Sangeet Natak Akademi Fellowship Prelims
• Highest honour conferred by Sangeet "Youtube: DNA 8.02.2024"
Natak Akademi on a writer.
2. “Ustad Bismillah Khan Yuva Puraskar”
• Young outstanding practitioners of music,
dance and drama upto the age of 40 years.
3. Sangeet Natak Akademi Awards
• The awards are given to the artists from the
field of Music, Dance, Theatre,
Traditional/Folk/Tribal
Music/Dance/Theatre, Puppetry etc.

Current news?
• Altogether 12 artistes from Assam have
been chosen for the Sangeet Natak
Akademi awards for the years 2022 and
2023.

Swadesh Darshan Scheme

• Central Sector Scheme.
• It was launched in 2014-15 by the Ministry of
Tourism and Culture, Government of India.
• It theme-based tourist circuits in the
country.
• 15 thematic circuits have been identified
under the Swadesh Darshan for development.
Important circuits
• Ramayana and Buddhist Circuits, others
include Coastal Circuit, Desert Circuit, Eco
Circuit, Heritage, North East, Himalayan,
Sufi, Krishna, Rural, Tribal, and Tirthankar
Circuits
• Ramayana, Buddhist, and North East
Circuits are already active, while Ambedkar
will be fourth.

Current news?
• The Ministry of Tourism recently included
the UNESCO World Heritage sites of
Ajanta and Ellora caves in its Swadesh
Darshan Scheme II.
Ajanta and Ellora caves
• UNESCO World Heritage sites since 1983.

Swadesh Darshan 2.0

• The Ministry of Tourism has revamped its
Swadesh Darshan scheme as Swadesh
Darshan 2.0 (SD2.0).
Area of focus in Swadesh Darshan 2.0
1. Development of sustainable and responsible
tourist destinations
2. Covering tourism and allied infrastructure
like tourism services, human capital
development
3. Increase in private-sector investment in
tourism
4. Public Private Partnerships (PPP) in the field
of tourism in operation and maintenance of
the assets.
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Email: spmiasacademy@gmail.com
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Prelims Practice Question

Q1. Which of the following Buddhist sites in
India are also the UNESCO World Heritage
Sites?
1. Ellora Caves
2. Ajanta Caves
3. Elephanta Caves
4. Mahabodhi Temple
Select the correct answer from the codes given
below:
a. Only 1 & 2
b. Only 1, 2 & 3
c. Only 2, 3 & 4
d. 1, 2, 3 & 4

Assam Specific

Asam Sahitya Sabha

special
GS Paper V-Assam Topics Prelims
"Youtube: DNA 1.02.2024"

Me-Dam-Me-Phi festival
GS Paper V-Assam Topics Prelims
"Youtube: DNA 1.02.2024"

Me-Dam-Me-Phi festival
Current news? • It is the most important socio-religious
• The 11th special annual session of the Asam festival which is observed by the whole
Sahitya Sabha, the largest literary body of the Ahom community.
State, got under way at the Barapujia • It is an ancestor worship festival performed
Panchoraja Samannay Kshetra in Morigaon. annually on the 31st of January every year
• This year will be a significant year for the in memory of the departed at some common
Asam Sahitya Sabha as it is the 100-year venue.
completion of Lakshminath Bezbaroa • It is a festival to show respect to the
presidentship of the Sabha held in Guwahati departed ancestors and remember their
in the year 1924. contribution to society.
• On this historic occasion, the Sabha is • According to the belief of Ahom, the ancestors
holding its special session at Morigaon soon turn into gods, when an individual's
district where Bezbaroa was born. immortal soul joins with the soul of the
Supreme being.
• The word ‘Me’ means offerings. ‘Dam’
means ancestors and ‘Phi’ means gods.
• So the word ‘Me Dam Me Phi’ means
oblations offered to the Ancestors spirits.

c. Tezpur
d. Dibrugarh

Development Projects in
Assam
GS Paper V-Assam Issues Prelims
"Youtube: DNA 3.02.2024"

Practice question
Q.1. Which of the following statements are
true? Current development
1. All Rhinos in the world except Indian
Rhinos have two horns. • In his two days visit Prime Minister Narendra
2. All other Rhinos in the world are critically Modi will launch Rs 11,599 cr project in
endangered but Indian rhino is vulnerable Assam.
in IUCN red Data Book Among the major schemes Modi will launch on
a. 1 Only are:
b. 2 Only 1. New Nehru Stadium complex
c. Both • Cost of Rs 831 crore.
d. None • FIFA-standard stadium will have a capacity of
30,000 spectators.
2. Asom Mala II
Prelims Practice Question • The State Government has planned to rebuild
Q2. Which of the following statements are true 1,000 km of State highways and major district
as per the recently released Corruption roads at an estimated cost of Rs 3,444 crore.
Perceptions Index 2023? 3. 6-lane airport road
1. India is ranked better than China. 4. New GMCH building
2. Nepal is the best ranked South Asian 5. Maa Kamakhya Access Corridor
country. • The project has been planned to provide ease
a. 1 only of access to the shrine.
b. 2 only • The cost of the project is estimated at Rs 498
c. Both crore and it is being funded under the
d. None PMDevINE scheme.

Prelims Practice Question

Q3. Recently concluded 8th international
conference of world elders was conducted in
which city of Assam?
a. Guwahati
b. Jorhat

Prelims Practice Question

Q1. If a nation’s economy is said to become tax
buoyant. Which of the following statements is
correct in this regard?
a. The government is getting most of its
revenue from the imposition of direct taxes.
b. Leakages in the country’s tax structure
are manifold.
c. Tax collection is in proportion to the
country’s economic growth.
d. The changes in tax revenue are in line
with the changes in tax rate.
PM-DevINE scheme
• Prime Minister’s Development Initiative for Practice question
North-East (PM-DevINE)-announced during Q2. Arrange the following subsidies provided
Union Budget 2022-23 by the government in decreasing order.
• Implementing Agency:Ministry of 1. Fertiliser subsidy
Development of North Eastern Region 2. Food subsidy
(MDoNER) through North Eastern Council 3. Petroleum
• Funding:Outlay of Rs.6,600 crore for the four a. 132
year period from 2022-23 to 2025-26 b. 231
• Central Sector Scheme with 100% central c. 123
funding d. 213
• Project Selection:projects can be
recommended by Centre, priority will be
give to projects proposed by the states. Practises of buffalo and
bulbul fight
GS Paper IV-Assam Issues Prelims
"Youtube: DNA 5.02.2024"

Prelims Practice Question

Q3. Thrust areas of PM-DevINE are-
1. Countering insurgency
2. Livelihood for youth
3. Infrastructure creation inline with PM
Gatishakti.
a. 1 only
b. 2,3 only
c. 1,3 only
d. 1,2,3 all
SPM IAS Academy, D.S. Mansion 2nd floor, Opposite Indian Oil Petrol Pump, Near Assam State Zoo, Zoo Road,
Guwahati, Assam – 781005 Phone: 6901259799, Students’ Support Team: 7099064717,
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Current development • Participants rear birds for around two weeks

before Bihu, before they are made to fight
• The Assam government’s attempt to revive until one emerges stronger.
traditional practices of buffalo and bulbul
(songbird) fighting during Magh Bihu has
come up against a legal challenge by People
for Ethical Treatment of Animals (PETA) in
the Gauhati High Court, which admitted
petitions by PETA India seeking a ban on
both.
An age-old tradition
• These fights are part of the folk culture
associated with the Assamese winter harvest
festival of Magh Bihu, which takes place in
January, at the same time as harvest
festivals in other parts of the country such as
Makar Sankranti, Pongal and Lohri. Current news?
• PETA India has now filed two linked
petitions before the Gauhati High Court
seeking the prohibition of both activities, as
well an interim stay preventing any such
fights from taking place during the course of
the proceedings.
• In these petitions, they state that they
investigated the events in both Ahatguri and
Hajo this year.
• The claimed that in Ahatguri, in order to
instigate buffalos to fight, owners slapped,
pushed and shoved them; jabbed and struck
them with wooden sticks; and pulled them
roughly by nose ropes.
• They stated that many buffalos had injuries
on their bodies from the fights, and that the
fights lasted until one of the two buffalos
“broke away and fled”.

Buffalo fights
• Buffalo fights are held in different parts of
Assam during Magh Bihu, with Ahatguri in
Nagaon district being the biggest centre.
• There, the fights been conducted for many
decades by the Ahatguri Anchalik Moh-jooj
aru Bhogali Utsav Udjapan Samiti, drawing
huge crowds.

Bulbul fights
• Bulbul fights, on the other hand, are an
attraction at the Hayagriv Madhab Mandir in
Hajo, around 30 km from Gauhati.

PETA (People for the Ethical Treatment of

Animals)
• People for the Ethical Treatment of Animals is
an American animal rights nonprofit
organization.
• It raises voice against the cruel treatment of
animals worldwide.
Statutory provisions against animal cruelty in
India
• Section 428 and 429 of the IPC make it illegal
to maim or cause injury to any animal.
• Similar provisions have been kept in Bhartiya
Nyaya Samhita.
Cruelty to Animals Act of 1960
• Empowers the govt of India to
establish Animal Welfare Board of India
(AWBI )
• Recognizes following activities as cruelty to
animals such as Beating, kicking,
overriding, overloading, torturing and
causing unnecessary pain to any animal etc.

Prelims Practice Question

Q2. Consider the following statements with
respect to “Jallikattu”:
1. It is a traditional sport that is popular in the
Andhra Pradesh.
2. It is celebrated during the Pongal festival.
3. It is a sport in which men compete with one
another to maintain control of the humps of Numaligarh Refinery
agitated bulls that are released in an open
arena.
Expansion project
Which of the statements given above is/are GS Paper IV-Assam Issues Prelims
correct? "Youtube: DNA 8.02.2024"
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 3 only

Green Innovation Fund

GS Paper V-Assam Issues Prelims
"Youtube: DNA 5.02.2024"

Numaligarh Refinery
• Located at Morangi, Golaghat district.
• People of Assam have an emotional
attachment with Numaligarh refinery Limited.

Why emotional attachment?

• Known as Accord Refinery- because it was
established as a result of Assam Accord
1985

Future Projects of Numaligarh Refinery Limited

• Bio-Refinery-NRL is currently setting up a Prelims Practice Question
bamboo-based bio-refinery. Ethanol will be Q1. Consider the following statements:
produced from Bamboo for blending with 1. Atmospheric rivers are long, narrow regions in
petrol/diesel. the atmosphere that transport most of the
• Expansion-Investment of Rs 22,500 cr to water vapor outside the tropics.
Increase production three times from 3 2. Atmospheric rivers carry very little moisture
MMTPA to 9 MMTPA. content.
• Paradip Numaligarh Crude Pipeline-NRL is 3. When the atmospheric rivers come back-to-
also laying its 1,630 Km long Paradip back then they are called atmospheric river
Numaligarh Crude Pipeline (PNCPL) crude families.
pipeline, originating from Paradip Port, Which of the statements given above is/are
traversing through the States of Odisha, West correct?
Bengal, Jharkhand, Bihar and Assam and a. 1 and 2 only
terminates at its refinery at Numaligarh b. 1 only
(Assam). c. 1 and 3 only
• The pipeline project is part of the mega d. 1, 2 and 3
Integrated Refinery Expansion project from 3
MMTPA to 9 MMTPA. UPSC Prelims 2022
Q2. Which one of the following statements best
Current news describes the role of B cells and T cells in the
• The expansion project will be completed by human body?
2025. a. They protect the environmental allergens.
Body
b. They alleviate the body’s pain and
inflammation.
c. They act as immunosuppressants in the
body.
d. They protect the body from the diseases
caused by pathogens.

E-governance initiatives by E-governance initiatives by Assam govt

Assam govt
1. Right to Public Service Portal renamed as
Sewa Setu portal
GS Paper V-Assam paper Prelims • It has been established as per Assam
"Youtube: DNA 9.02.2024" Right to Public Services Act
2012(Amended in 2019).
2. Centralised Public Grievance Redress
and Monitoring System (CPGRAMS)
• It is an online platform available to the
citizens 24x7 to lodge their grievances to
the public authorities on any subject
related to service delivery.
3. Mission Basundhara
4. Sadbhavana portal
5. Kritagyata portal
6. Vahan app

Benefits of e-governance or Digital

initiatives
• Creating a faceless, paperless, cashless and
digital interface between government and
citizens has helped in curbing corruption,
removing middlemen, delays in service
delivery and leakages.
• This has reduced the role of government in
many areas making it an enabler rather than
a provider.
How e-governance helps?
• E-Governance is the application of
Information and Communication
Technology (ICT) in public service delivery.
• E-governance-removes human interface-
does away with issues of discretion-
ensures smooth discharge of service
delivery.
“Mission Basundhara”
• “Mission Basundhara” is a mission mode
project initiated by Assam government for
land reforms.
• Focus will be on-
1. Survey of non-cadastral villages(where no
survey has been undertaken till date).
2. Resolving land related disputes
3. Complete all pending partition and mutation
cases in a mission mode by opening a portal

4. Organizing Rajah Adalat (Rajah Adalat is

conducted in Assam to dispose off the
cases related to land revenue).
• “Mission Basundhara” was formally
launched on 2nd October 2021.
• All such pending matters were resolved within
May 10, 2022, which marked the first
anniversary of the present government.

Prelims Practice Question

Q1. Which of the following Buddhist sites in
India are also the UNESCO World Heritage
Sites?
1. Ellora Caves
2. Ajanta Caves
3. Elephanta Caves
4. Mahabodhi Temple
Sadbhavana portal Select the correct answer from the codes given
below:
• By Assam government
a. Only 1 & 2
• Launched on 1st February, 2022
b. Only 1, 2 & 3
• Aims to clear all old cases and close
c. Only 2, 3 & 4
pending files of Secretariat prior to May 10,
d. 1, 2, 3 & 4
2021 within May 10, 2022
Kritagyata portal
Prelims Practice Question
• For pensioners Q2. With reference to World Sustainable
• Can submit their life certificate from Development Summit (WSDS), consider the
anywhere. following statements:
1. It is organized every year by the Ministry of
Ministry of Environment, Forest and
Climate Change (MoEFCC).

2. It aims to bring together global leaders and Benefits to the recipient

thinkers in the fields of sustainable
development, energy and environment Assam Baibhav
sectors on a common platform. • Highest civilian award of the state.
Select the correct statements using the code • A cash of five lakh Rupees/all the medical
given below: expenses
a. 1 only • Ratan Tata was the first recipient in the year
b. 2 only 2021.
c. Both • Eminent oncologist Dr Tapan Saikia-
d. None second recipient in the year 2022.
Assam Saurav
• four lakh Rupees/medical expenses of upto

Highest Civilian Awards of

two lakh Rupees
Assam Gaurav
• Cash of three lakh Rupees/medical
Assam 2023 expenses of upto two lakh Rupees
GS Paper V-Assam Issues Prelims
"Youtube: DNA 12.02.2024"

Image of Jaapi & Leaf of Hollong tree in Assam

Baibhav medal

Prelims Practice Question

Q3. Which of the following are present in
Assam Baibhav medal?
1. Image of Jaapi
2. Words “Assam Baibhav” in English
3. Leaf of Hollong tree
a. 1,3 only
b. 1,2 only
c. 1 only
d. 1,2,3 all

State fruit of Assam

GS Paper V-Assam Issues Prelims
"Youtube: DNA 14.02.2024"

Mukhya Mantri Nijut Moina

scheme
GS Paper V-Assam Issues Prelims
"Youtube: DNA 14.02.2024"

Current news? Mukhya Mantri Nijut Moina scheme

• Assam lemon (Kaji nemu), which has been
declared as the State Fruit of Assam.
• Announced in Assam Budget 2024-25.
• This variety of ‘citrus limon’ had got the GI
• One of the 18 Ashtadasa Mukhtar Unnoyon
tag in 2019.
Mala.
• Only unmarried girls will be eligible for
benefits under the scheme and they will have
to study in a government run institution.
The scheme will fulfill two objectives-
• Increase girls enrollment in higher
education.

• Bolster Assam government mission to Prelims Practice Question

eliminate child marriage. Q3. Which of the following are present in
Assam Baibhav medal?
1. Image of Jaapi
2. Words “Assam Baibhav” in English
3. Leaf of Hollong tree
a. 1,3 only
b. 1,2 only
c. 1 only
d. 1,2,3 all

Prelims Practice Question

Q1. With reference to Indian Ocean Conference
(IOC) consider the following statements:
1. It serves as a common platform for critical
states and principal maritime partners to
deliberate on regional affairs, aiming to
foster Security and Growth for All in the
Region (SAGAR).
2. It is a flagship consultative forum for
countries in the Indian Ocean Region over
regional affairs..
Select the correct statements using the codes
given below:
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both
d. None

Prelims Practice Question

Q2. Consider the following statements with
respect to SWATI Portal
1. It is a single online portal representing
Indian Women and Girls in STEMM.
2. It is developed and maintained by the
National Institute of Plant Genome
Research (NIPGR).
3. It is India’s first portal to address the
challenges of Gender-gap.
How many of the statements given above are
correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. All Three
d. None of the above

Ali Aye Ligang festival UPSC -2020

Q1 Consider the following statements :
GS Paper V-Assam Issues Prelims 1. In the case of all cereals, pulses and
"Youtube: DNA 15.02.2024" oilseeds, the procurement at Minimum
Support Price (MSP) is unlimited in any
State/UT of India.
2. In the case of cereals and pulses, the MSP
is fixed in any State/UT at a level to which
the market price will never rise.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

Semiconductor plant in
Assam
GS Paper V-Assam Issues Prelims
"Youtube: DNA 16.02.2024"

Ali-Aye-Ligang
• Ali-Aye-Ligang is a spring festival associated
with agriculture, specially with the beginning
of the Ahu paddy cultivation.
• It is celebrated by the Mising an indigenous
tribe of Assam.
• It is celebrated on the first Wednesday of
the Assamese month of Phagun.

Semiconductors UPSC Prelims 2014

Q1. With reference to Balance of Payments,
• Semiconductors are known as heart and brain which of the following constitutes/ constitute
of all modern electronics-automobiles, the Current Account?
household gadgets etc 1. Balance of trade
• Bulk of semiconductor manufacturing and 2. Foreign assets
supply comes from few countries like The US, 3. Balance of invisibles
South Korea, Taiwan etc. 4. Special Drawing Rights
Select the correct answer using the code given
Current news? below:
• Assam will have a Rs 25,000-crore a. 1 only
semiconductor manufacturing plant, in what b. 2 and 3
could be the single largest investment in c. 1 and 3
private sector in the State. d. 1, 2 and 4
• State government has decided to allot 150
acres of the land in Jagiroad for the Prelims Practice Question
semiconductor unit for Re 1. Q2. With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital
• An agreement has been signed with the Tata Mission, consider the following statements:
group. 1. Private and public hospitals must adopt it.
2. As it aims to achieve universal health
coverage, every citizen of India should be
part of it ultimately.
3. It has seamless portability across the
country.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3

Prelims Practice Question

Q3. Which one among the following is India’s
first ‘Mixed World Heritage Site’?
a. Kaziranga National Park
b. Khangchendzonga National Park
c. Banni grassland of Gujarat
d. Western Ghats

Mission Basundhara 3.0

GS Paper V-Assam Issues Prelims
"Youtube: DNA 17.02.2024"

Mission Basundhara
Mission Basundhara 1.0
• Started on 8th May 2022
• Delivered 10 land-related services to the
people.
• Disposed eight lakh land related cases
Mission Basundhara 2.0
• Started on 14th November 2022
• Launched mainly to address the needs of the
Mission Basundhara 3.0
indigenous people. • In Mission Basundhara 3.0, the ‘definition of
• 1.6 lakh beneficiaries who were given ‘Offer of three generations’ will be waived for the tea
Settlement’ belonged to ST, SC, OBC and and Adivasi community people.
MOBC. • For the people of Gorkha community, a
Issues similar system like tea and Adivasi
• ‘Offer of Settlement’ or land rights, people community will be applicable.
living for the last three generations in the • Similarly, people belonging to ST and SC
State were considered, as a result of which communities will not have to submit
people belonging to tea and Adivasi certificate of three generations of habitation
community suffered. to get land rights
• People living in the Sunsali area of Guwahati
Current development and Tea Garden Grant areas of Dibrugarh will
• In order to address issues of Mission be given an one-time opportunity under
Basundhara 2.0 Assam Government Mission Basundhara 3.0 to apply for land
recently in state budget announced launch of pattas.
• Mission Basundhara 3.0 will be more
Mission Basundhara 3.0.
comprehensive in terms of land management
and ensuring reservation of the revenue
villages with 100 percent habitation of ST
and SC communities.

Agriculture & Farmers Welfare, Commerce &

Industry of the Union Government.
• It will have a Secretary to be appointed by the
Department of Commerce.

National Turmeric Board

GS Paper V-Assam Issues Prelims
"Youtube: DNA 17.02.2024"

Turmeric
• It is a plant belongs to the ginger family.
Soil and climate
• Well drained red loamy soil in wet or garden
lands under tropical conditions is ideal.
Rain
• It can be grown in regions receiving an annual
rainfall of 1500 mm.
Temperature
• range of 20 to 35 °C
• India is the largest producer, consumer and
Current news? exporter of turmeric in the world.
• Recently, the Government of India notified • The largest producing states of Turmeric are
the constitution of the National Turmeric Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka and
Board. Tamil Nadu.
National Turmeric Board Note-Earlier Telangana was at top but in 2023
• Development and growth of turmeric and Maharashtra have become the largest turmeric
turmeric products. producer.
• Focus on capacity building and skill
development of turmeric growers.
Composition
• The Board shall have a Chairperson, who
will be appointed by the Central Government.
• It will have members from the Ministry of
AYUSH, Departments of Pharmaceuticals,
SPM IAS Academy, D.S. Mansion 2nd floor, Opposite Indian Oil Petrol Pump, Near Assam State Zoo, Zoo Road,
Guwahati, Assam – 781005 Phone: 6901259799, Students’ Support Team: 7099064717,
Email: spmiasacademy@gmail.com
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FEBRUARY MONTHLY MAGAZINE 2024

What are Char-Chaporis?

• A char is a floating island while chaporis are
low-lying flood-prone riverbanks.

UPSC Prelims 2023

Q1. In essence, what does ‘Due Process of
Law' mean?
a. The principle of natural justice
b. The procedure established by law Inhabitants of Char Chapouris
c. Fair application of law The website of the Directorate of Char Areas
d. Equality before law Development puts the population of chars at
24.90 lakh as per a socio-economic survey in
Prelims Practice Question 2002-03. “The population is bound to have
Q2. With reference to Jal Jeevan Mission increased since.
(Urban), consider the following statements: Demography- Bengali-origin Muslims primarily
1. It complements the Goal-6 of United occupy these islands, other communities such as
Nations Sustainable Development goals. Misings, Deoris, Kocharis, Nepalis also live
2. Implemented by Ministry of Jal Shakti. here.According to UNDP these people are
a. 1 only socially and economically backward.
b. 2 only
c. Both
d. None

Reclamation of Char areas

GS Paper IV-Assam Issues Prelims
"Youtube: DNA 22.02.2024"

Gharials
• It is categorised as ‘critically endangered’ by
the IUCN.
• Gharials live in clear freshwater river
systems.
• The species is now limited to only 14 widely
spaced, restricted localities in north India
and lowland Nepal.
• Madhya Pradesh top in gharial count.
• National Chambal Sanctuary is the only
place in India where a large wild population
of India’s special crocodilian Gharial is
found.

Indian Gharial
• The Indian gharial is one of the largest river-
dwelling crocodile species of the world that
grow up to eight metres in length, and on the
average weighs around 160 kg but can attain
a weight of 600 kg.

Gharial presence in Assam

GS Paper III-Environment GS Paper Iv-Assam
Issues Prelims
"Youtube: DNA 23.02.2024"

Located on the Chambal River near the tri-point

of Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh and Uttar
Pradesh.

Current news?
• In a first-of-its-kind initiative, the presence of
the gharial (Gavialis gangeticus) was
confirmed in Assam after a gap of 75 years
during a survey covering a 160-km length of
the Brahmaputra.
SPM IAS Academy, D.S. Mansion 2nd floor, Opposite Indian Oil Petrol Pump, Near Assam State Zoo, Zoo Road,
Guwahati, Assam – 781005 Phone: 6901259799, Students’ Support Team: 7099064717,
Email: spmiasacademy@gmail.com
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FEBRUARY MONTHLY MAGAZINE 2024

• The survey area stretched from Majuli to the

Kolia Bhomora Bridge, Tezpur.

Current development
• In a step towards a Uniform Civil Code, the
Assam Cabinet decided to repeal the British
era Assam Moslem Marriages and Divorces
Registration Act, 1935.
• Under the act marriage and divorce
registration was being done by a set of
registrars.
• The Act had empowered governments to
license suitable persons to register marriages
and divorces among local Muslims.
Prelims Practice Question • The existing 94 Muslim marriage registrars
Q3. Consider the following statements about will be given a one-time compensation of Rs
Gharials 2 lakh.
1. It is categorised as ‘critically endangered’
by the IUCN.
2. Gharials live in clear freshwater river
systems.
3. Gharials are now found only in India and
Nepal.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 2 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Other important cabinet decisions
1. Introduction of the Mising, Rabha, Deuri,
Muslim marriage law Tiwa, Karbi and Dimasa languages as
medium of instruction in primary education.
repealed 2. Manipuri will be introduced as an associate
official language in four districts of the State
GS Paper V-Assam Issues Prelims – Hojai, Cachar, Hailakandi and Karimganj.
"Youtube: DNA 24.02.2024"

3. Ahom, Koch-Rajbongsi and Gorkha Which of the statements given above is/are
communities ‘protected class’ status in the correct?
Balipara tribal belt. a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

Prelims Practice Question

Q3. Consider the following statements about
Gharials
1. It is categorised as ‘critically endangered’
by the IUCN.
2. Gharials live in clear freshwater river
systems.
3. Gharials are now found only in India and
Nepal.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 2 only
d. 1, 2 and 3

Assam Financial
Corporation
Prelims Practice Question GS Paper V-Assam Economy Prelims
Q1. Consider the following statements with "Youtube: DNA 26.02.2024"
respect to United Nations Security Council
(UNSC)
1. It is the only organ of the United Nations
that has the power to make decisions that
member states are obligated to implement.
2. Each year the UN General Assembly elects
five non-permanent members for UNSC, out
of 10 in total, for a two-year term.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

Prelims Practice Question Assam Financial Corporation

Q2. With reference to Large Hadron Collider • The Assam Financial Corporation was
(LHC), consider the following statements; established as a Joint State Financial
1. ATLAS is the largest general-purpose Corporation in 1954.
particle detector experiment at the LHC. • To provide financial assistance to Micro,
2. It is a 50-km-long track-loop located in the Small & Medium scale(MSME) industries
UK. within its jurisdiction covering the North
SPM IAS Academy, D.S. Mansion 2nd floor, Opposite Indian Oil Petrol Pump, Near Assam State Zoo, Zoo Road,
Guwahati, Assam – 781005 Phone: 6901259799, Students’ Support Team: 7099064717,
Email: spmiasacademy@gmail.com
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FEBRUARY MONTHLY MAGAZINE 2024

Eastern States of Assam, Meghalaya,

Manipur and Tripura.
Sources of Capital and Operating Fund
• Share Capital from participating State Govts.
and SIDBI
• Borrowings by way of Refinance from SIDBI

Prelims Specific
Bharat Ratna for LK Advani
Prelims
"Youtube: DNA 5.02.2024"

Prelims Practice Question

Q1. Consider the following statements with
respect to Nano DAP:
1. It is indigenously developed by the Indian
Farmers Fertilizer Cooperative Limited.
2. It is the top most commonly used fertilizers
in India.
3. India’s first Nano DAP plant is located in the
Current news?
state of Punjab.
• Former Deputy Prime Minister Lal Krishna
How many of the above statement(s) is/are
Advani will be conferred the Bharat Ratna.
correct?
• The recent announcement of Bharat Ratna to
a. Only one
BJP veteran LK Advani and former Bihar Chief
b. Only two
Minister Karpoori Thakur has taken the
c. All three
number of recipients of the country’s highest
d. None of the above
civilian award to 50.
• The number of Bharat Ratna awards is
Prelims Practice Question
restricted to a maximum of three in a
Q2. Consider the following:
particular year.
1. Black-necked crane
• However, it was given to four persons in
2. Cheetah
1999.
3. Flying squirrel
• In the first year, the coveted award was
4. Snow leopard
conferred upon C Rajagopalachari,
Which of the above are naturally found in
Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan and
India?
Chandrasekhara Venkata Raman.
a. 1, 2 and 3 only
b. 1, 3 and 4 only
c. 2 and 4 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Prelims Practice Question

Q3. Thrust areas of PM-DevINE are-
1. Countering insurgency
2. Livelihood for youth
3. Infrastructure creation inline with PM
Gatishakti.
a. 1 only
SPM IAS Academy, D.S. Mansion 2nd floor, Opposite Indian Oil Petrol Pump, Near Assam State Zoo, Zoo Road,
Guwahati, Assam – 781005 Phone: 6901259799, Students’ Support Team: 7099064717,
Email: spmiasacademy@gmail.com
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b.
c.
2, 3 only
1,3 only Grammy Awards
d. 1,2,3 all Prelims
"Youtube: DNA 6.02.2024"

Stingless bees
Prelims
"Youtube: DNA 6.02.2024"

Current news?
• "Shakti", the band comprising guitarist John
McLaughlin, percussionist Ustad Zakir
Stingless bees Hussain, vocalist Shankar Mahadevan,
percussionist V Selvaganesh, and violinist
• A stingless bee is a bee that appears very Ganesh Rajagopalan won the Grammy
similar to a honeybee, but is incapable of Award in the Best Global Music Album
stinging. category for 'This Moment'.
• They are eusocial, which means that they live • Tabla maestro Zakir Hussain made history at
together in hives and produce honey. the Grammy Awards on becoming the first
• These are native to the Amazon. Indian to win three of these trophies in a
• Used for production of natural medicine. single night.
Threats: • Overall 5 Indians bagged Grammy awards.
• Deforestation of tropical forests.
• Due to decrease in population of Stingless
bees cross pollination is under decline,
threat to Amazon forest.
• Amazon is one of the most biodiverse
regions in the world and is also known as
Lungs of the Earth.

Current news?
• In Peru, conservators try to save stingless
bees to save Amazon forests.

Prelims Practice Question

Q1. With reference to Law Commission of
India, consider the following:
1. It is a constitutional body.

2. The recommendations of law commission discounted price rather than buying them in the
are binding on the government. secondary market.
Which of the statements given above is/are • It gives preferential treatment to existing
correct? shareholders, where they are given the right
a. 1 only (not obligation) to purchase shares at a lower
b. 2 only price on or before a specified date.
c. Both • The number of additional shares that can be
d. None bought depends on the existing holdings of
the shareowners.
Prelims Practice Question
Q2. Consider the following statements with
respect to “Jallikattu”:
1. It is a traditional sport that is popular in the
Andhra Pradesh.
2. It is celebrated during the Pongal festival.
3. It is a sport in which men compete with one
another to maintain control of the humps of
agitated bulls that are released in an open
arena.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 only Practice Question
c. 2 and 3 only Q1. Operation smiling Buddha is associated
d. 3 only with which of the following?
a. India's first nuclear test
b. India's first cloned baby
Rights Issue c.
d.
India's first HYV seed
India's first genetically modified crops
Prelims
"Youtube: DNA 7.02.2024"
Prelims Practice Question
Q2. Which of the following statements are
correct about e-NAM?
1. The National Agriculture Market (NAM) is a
pan-India electronic trading portal, which
links the existing Agricultural Produce
Market Committee (APMC) mandis across
the country.
2. NAFED is the lead agency for
implementing eNAM.
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both
d. None

Rights Issue
• A rights issue is an offering of rights to the
existing shareholders of a company that
gives them an opportunity to buy additional
shares directly from the company at a

Bharat Ratna awards Chaudhary Charan Singh

Prelims • National Farmers’ Day or Kisan Diwas is
"Youtube: DNA 10.02.2024" celebrated across the country on December
23 to honour India’s farmers.
History:
• To remember Chaudhary Charan Singh 5th
PM of India(1979-80).
• In 2001, the government decided to recognise
Chaudhary Charan Singh’s contribution to
the agriculture sector and welfare of farmers.
• Since then, December 23 (his birth
anniversary) has been observed as National
Farmers’ Day.

Current news?
• Prime Minister Narendra Modi announced
names of 3 new recipients of the Bharat
Ratna award, praising their contributions to
the nation.
• This brings the total number of recipients of
Bharat Ratna award to 53.
The 3 new recipients of the awards are:
1. Late P V Narasimha Rao
• 9th prime minister of India from 1991 to
1996.
• He is known for introducing various liberal
reforms to India's economy- LPG reforms of
1991.
2. Late Chaudhary Charan Singh
• 5th prime minister of India(1979-80)
Contribution of Charan Singh for the
3. Late M. S. Swaminathan
• Father of Green Revolution. farmers benefit
Helped in drafting of major agricultural
Reform bills during British era-
1. Land Utilisation Bill of 1939
• Aim was to ‘transfer the proprietary
interest in agricultural holdings of UP to
actual tillers of the soil.
2. Debt Redemption Bill in 1939
• To give relief to the peasantry from
moneylenders.

The Bharat Ratna, along with other personal civil

honours, was briefly suspended from July 1977 Prelims Practice Question
to January 1980, during the change in the Q1. Consider the following statements,
national government; and for a second time 1. The Barren Island volcano is India’s only
from August 1992 to December 1995, when active volcano.
several public-interest litigations challenged the 2. It’s the only active volcano along a chain of
constitutional validity of the awards. volcanoes from Sumatra to Myanmar.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. 1 Only
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FEBRUARY MONTHLY MAGAZINE 2024

b. 2 Only The quote

c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2 • The quote is associated with Microsoft co-
founder Bill Gates(paraphrased from other
words from him).
Prelims Practice Question
• He said such ideas to highlight about the role
Q2. The term ‘Goldilocks Zone’ is often seen in
that the Internet may play in the future as a
the news in the context of
common space where people could share
a. the limits of habitable zone above the
ideas.
surface of the Earth
What is a town square?
b. regions inside the Earth-like planets in
• In a literal sense, the term refers to a common
outer space
space in a town or a village, where people
c. search for the Earth-like planets in outer
get together, music may be played, and
space
conversations may be had among inhabitants.
d. search for meteorites containing
precious metals

Practice Question
Q3. Kritagyata portal sometimes seen in news
is related with
a. Pension disbursal of State government
employees
b. Grievance redressal of State
employees
c. Citizen awareness regarding different
schemes of Assam government
d. None of the above An open place for debate
• When billionaire entrepreneur Elon Musk
purchased the social media platform
Quote- ‘The Internet is Twitter(named as X) in 2022, he said-
“Free speech is the bedrock of a functioning
becoming the town square democracy, and Twitter is the digital town square
for the global village of
where matters vital to the future of humanity are
debated.”
• With a platform like Twitter becomes clear, in a
tomorrow’ way. Social media spaces act like areas
Paper I-Essay where everyone can talk to each other and
"Youtube: DNA 12.02.2024" engage in debate.
• Indeed, early on, Twitter and Facebook were
used during the Arab Spring, a series of
protests in various countries in the Middle East
and North Africa in the early 2010s.

• According to UNICEF,1 in 7 Indian are

depressed.
• Depression linked to lack of self
esteem,poor concentration,maladaptive
symptoms-failure to work or study
productively.
• Amplified risk of suicidal thoughts.
2. Internet persona
• As social beings we inherently have need
of social acceptance.
• The number of likes one’s post or
images garners becomes a quantitative
measures for many, in relation to their
look or intelligence and extends to their
Rise of a global village worth as a person.
3. Body dysmorphia
• Body dysmorphia, is a mental health
• The internet has provided a virtual but global condition where a person spends a lot of
town square for world community to come time worrying about flaws in their
together and discuss pressing issues. appearance.
• There can be collective discussions on 4. Lack of socialization
common issues like- climate change, • Excessive use of social media use takes
terrorism, human trafficking, risk of time away from doing other things like
cryptocurrencies, issues of tax havens etc. connecting with others in person, spending
• Canadian philosopher Marshall McLuhan is time with nature and taking care of yourself.
believed to have first spoken about a “global
village” in his 1962 book, The Gutenberg
Galaxy.

5. Post truth society

• Post truth society-a society where facts
have become less relevant or irrelevant.
Why?
• Rise of age of Infodemic-Loads of
information floating on social media.
Why infomedic?
• In the age of social media everyone is a
content generator leading to issues like fake
news.
The downside of internet Examples of fake news-
1. Depression
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1. Corona Jihad by Tablighi Jamaat during the

pandemic.
2. Bihar journalist Manish Kashyap sharing a
fake video of violence against Bihari worker
in Tamil Nadu.
Impact of post truth society on democratic
system
• Media- 4th Pillar of democracy-If media
starts presenting distorted facts-practising
representative democracy becomes
impossible.

Nazool land
Prelims
"Youtube: DNA 12.02.2024"

Aristotle highlighted issues of open debate

• In ancient Greek Society the term Agora
referred to such a space, where people could
gather.
• At the time, ‘sophists’ or those engaged
professionally in the art of rhetoric would carry
out such conversations in public view.
• However, philosophers Plato and Aristotle
describe them as being fallacious in their
reasoning and intentionally arguing in a way
that lacks merit to sway the audience towards
a point of view.
Aristotle’s measure for ethical rhetoric
• Ethos (credibility), pathos (emotions) and
logos (logic) would become the
cornerstones of proper ethical rhetoric
against which the populist claims could be
measured.

What is Nazool land? c. Both

d. None
• Nazool land is owned by the government but Note-Andhra Pradesh-largest fish producer
is most often not directly administered as Gujarat-Largest marine fish producers
state property.
• The state generally allots such land to any UPSC Prelims 2022
entity on lease for a fixed period, generally Q2. Which one of the following statements best
between 15 and 99 years. reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital
How did Nazool Land emerge? Bombardment System” often talked about in
• During British rule, kings and kingdoms media?
which opposed the British frequently a. A hypersonic missile is launched into
revolted against them, leading to several space to counter the asteroid approaching the
battles between them and the British Army. Earth and explode it in space.
• Upon defeating these kings in battle, the b. A spacecraft lands on another planet,
British would often take their land away from after making several orbital motions.
them. c. A missile is put into a stable orbit
• After India gained Independence, the British around the Earth and deorbits over a target on
vacated these lands. the Earth.
• But with kings and royals often lacking d. A spacecraft moves along a comet with
proper documentation to prove prior the same speed and places a probe on its
ownership, these lands were marked as surface.
Nazool land—to be owned by the respective
state governments.

Quote: ‘Mathematics is the

music of reason’
Paper I-Essay
"Youtube: DNA 19.02.2024"

Why in news?
• Violence erupted in Uttarakhand recently
after a mosque and a madrasa standing on
Nazool land were demolished.

Prelims Practice Question The quote

Q1. With reference to the ‘Fisheries sector in
• ‘Mathematics is the music of reason’
India’ consider the following statements::
• This was a topic for the essay paper in the
1. Andhra Pradesh is the leading state in
UPSC 2023 exam.
marine fish production.
• While it is not clear where the statement
2. India is the largest fish exporter in the
originates from, it is often attributed to the
world.
19th century English mathematician James
a. 1 only
Joseph Sylvester.
b. 2 only
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• A 1992 book by French mathematician Jean

Dieudonné is titled ‘Mathematics: The Music
of Reason’.
What it means?
• The quote can be looked at in two ways-
1. Math as the expression of what is
harmonious and beautiful.
2. Overlaps between music and math

Math as the expression of what is

harmonious and beautiful
• Let us take the example of architecture.
• All the great examples of architecture around
the world, from the Konark Sun temple and Overlaps between music and math
Taj Mahal in India to the pyramids of Egypt
to the St. Peter’s Basilica in Rome, have • “If one analyse music, you discover patterns
been created thanks to the use of the and consistencies
mathematic concepts of geometry, algebra, • The underpinning of music — rhythm and
trigonometry, etc. metre — have mathematical structures.
• To take the example of the Indian classical • Musician recognised as a genius, the
dance form of Kathak, all dance pieces are Austrian Wolfgang Amadeus Mozart, is also
performed on taals, which are broken down known for the use of math in his works.
into specific numerical matras and • On the other end is Albert Einstein, a
chhands. scientist who was an accomplished pianist
• These combine to produce the music on which and violinist.
dance is set.
• Modern hip hop dance also relies a lot on
symmetry and geometry.

You can end by contradicting the quote too-

• Music and maths have fundamental
correlations.
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• Music is perhaps best enjoyed without • The Khelo India University Games are
analysing, by just immersing oneself in it. In organised under FIT India initiative of the
this, it is the opposite of mathematics, where government.
the underlying logic and patterns are all-
important.
• Reason is the natural habitat of math,
whereas music is more about intuition and
emotion.”

Khelo India University

Games
Prelims
"Youtube: DNA 19.02.2024"

Yuvika programme
Prelims
"Youtube: DNA 19.02.2024"

Current news?
• The fourth edition of Khelo India University
Games will be hosted by Guwahati, Assam.
• Its mascot is Ashtalakshmi, the vibrant
butterfly.
• Ashtalakshmi is the embodiment of grace and
symbolism.
• It represents the rich biodiversity and natural
splendor of the Northeast India.
• This elegant butterfly adorns wings featuring
cultural motifs and colors from each state.
• The tagline is ‘Khele Bhi,Khile Bhi’

Yuvika Programme d. None

• ISRO has launched a special programme Prelims Practice Question
for school children called Yuva Vigyani Q1.With reference to Vibrant Villages
Karyakram or Young Scientist Programme. Programme (VVP) consider the following
• Launched by ISRO in 2020 statements:
• The programme aims at imparting basic 1. The scheme is based on the idea of
knowledge on space technology, space competitive federalism.
science and space applications to the 2. Vibrant Village Action Plans will be created
younger ones with the intent of arousing by the district administration with the help
their interest in the emerging areas of space of Gram Panchayats.
activities. 3. It will develop selected villages based on
• The eligibility for being chosen for the the Hub and Spoke Model.
programme includes those students who have Which of the statements given above are
finished 8th standard and are currently correct?
studying in the 9th standard. a. 1,2 only
• The selection is based on 8th Standard b. 2,3 only
academic performance and extracurricular c. 1,3 only
activities. d. 1,2,3 all

UPSC Prelims 2021

Q2. In India, the central bank’s function as the
‘lender of last resort’ usually refers to which of
the following? UPSC 2021
1. Lending to trade and industry bodies when
they fail to borrow from other sources
2. Providing liquidity to the banks having a
temporary crisis
3. Lending to governments to finance
budgetary deficits
Select the correct answer using the code given
below.
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 3 only

Mission Aspides
Prelims
Prelims Practice Question "Youtube: DNA 20.02.2024"
Q2. Which of the following statements are true
about YUVIKA programme?
1. It was launched by ISRO in 2020 to
encourage students in the field of science.
2. First and second year college students will
be encouraged in the field of science
under the program.
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both
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Prelims Practice Question

Q2. Which of the following statements are true
about YUVIKA programme?
1. It was launched by ISRO in 2020 to
encourage students in the field of science.
2. First and second year college students will
be encouraged in the field of science
under the program.
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both
d. None

Gold at Asian Championship

Current developments
• The European Union recently launched Prelims
Mission Aspides to protect commercial "Youtube: DNA 22.02.2024"
vessels in the Red Sea from attacks by Iran-
backed Houthi rebels.
• It is a European Union (EU) naval mission to
protect cargo ships in the Red Sea from
attacks from Yemen’s Houthi rebels.
• It will send European warships and airborne
early warning systems to the Red Sea, Gulf
of Aden and surrounding waters.

Woman Asia Badminton Championship

Prelims Practice Question • Led by PV Sindhu and youngster Anmol
Q1. Which of the following is not correct about Kharb, the Indian women's team won a historic
the appointment of State Police Chiefs gold medal at the Badminton Asia Team
(Director General of Police)? Championships 2024, which was held in
a. Appointments of DGPs are on the basis Shah Alam, Malaysia from February 13 to 18.
of the Supreme Court judgment on police • This was India's first-ever gold medal at the
reforms in Prakash Singh vs Union of India. Badminton Asia Team Championships.
b. The consent of an officer is required for
his/her posting as DGPs.
c. Centre has the power to not relieve an
officer for posting as DGP in the state.
d. States are supposed to draw up and
send to the UPSC a list of eligible officers
under certain conditions.

What is the news?

• Recently, the World Health Organization
(WHO) in collaboration with Indian Govt,
launched the Global Initiative on Digital
Health (GIDH), a platform for sharing
knowledge and digital products worldwide.
• This initiative constitutes one of the three
priority areas outlined during India’s G20
presidency in 2023.

Prelims Practice Question

Q1. Consider the following options and select
the incorrect option with respect to the concept
of ‘dumping’-
a. Directorate General of Trade Remedies,
the apex national authority under the Ministry
of Commerce and Industry which administers
all trade remedial measures including
dumping.
b. Dumping is the ability to flood a market
with product prices that are often considered
unfair.
c. The WTO Agreement regulates the
actions of companies engaged in “dumping”.
d. Anti-dumping duties can reduce the
international competition of domestic Global Initiative on Digital Health
companies producing similar goods. • It is a WHO managed network aimed at
implementing the Global Strategy on Digital
Health 2020-2025 and other WHO standards,
Global Initiative on Digital for digital health system transformation.
Launched by
Health • India in collaboration with the World Health
Organization (WHO).
Prelims
Features
"Youtube: DNA 23.02.2024" The initiative will consist of a network of networks
comprising four key elements–
1. Country needs tracker– Helping digital health
investments align with country priorities.
2. Country resource portal– A map of resources
available in a country.
3. Transformation toolbox– For sharing quality-
assured digital tools.
4. Convening and Knowledge Exchange–
Encouraging better collaboration and
knowledge sharing among global, regional,
and national digital health networks.

3. It monitors macroprudential supervision of

the economy.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3

Exercise Dosti 16
Prelims
"Youtube: DNA 26.02.2024"

Prelims Practice Question

Q1. Consider the following statements,
1. The Convention on the Conservation of
Migratory Species of Wild Animals is the
only global convention specializing in the
conservation of migratory species, their
habitats and migration routes.
2. The Convention on the Conservation of Exercise Dosti 16
Migratory Species of Wild Animals is an
• Dosti is a trilateral coast guard exercise
environmental treaty under the aegis of the
involving India, Sri Lanka, and the Maldives.
United Nations Environment Programme.
• Initiated in 1991 between the Indian and
Which of the above statements is/are
Maldives Coast Guards, with Sri Lanka
incorrect?
joining in 2012.
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both Current news?
• 16th edition of Dosti exercise recently began
d. None
in Male,Maldives.
• Bangladesh will participate as ‘observer’
UPSC Prelims 2016 state.
Q2. With reference to 'Financial Stability and
Development Council', consider the following
statements
1. It is an organ of NITI Aayog.
2. It is headed by the Union Finance Minister.
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Current news?
Prelims Practice Question • Prime Minister of India inaugurated the
Q1. Which of the following statements are Sudarshan Setu (also known as the Okha-
correct? Beyt Dwarka Signature Bridge)
1. The Artemis programme seeks to establish • India's longest cable-stayed bridge
a permanent base camp on the Moon. connecting the Okha mainland and the Beyt
2. The Peregrine lunar lander will be the first Dwarka island in Gujarat.
US Spacecraft to land on the Moon after • Bet Dwarka, is the second largest island off
Apollo 17. the Gujarat coast, after the Union Territory of
a. 1 only Diu.
b. 2 only • The bridge, constructed as a part of National
c. Both Highway (NH) 51.
d. None

Prelims Practice Question

Q2. Consider the following statements related
to Natural Rubber production in India.
1. India is world’s third largest natural rubber
producer after Indonesia and Brazil.
2. Sikkim is the biggest producer of the rubber
in India.
3. The most important condition for the
growth of rubber tree is low temperature.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a. 1,2 only
b. 3 only
c. 2,3 only
d. None of the above

Sudarshan Setu
Prelims
"Youtube: DNA 27.02.2024"

Prelims Practice Question Current news?

Q1. With reference to FATF Grey list, consider • Regional Investigative and Analytical Case
the following statements; Meeting (RIACM) on Exotic Species
1. These are countries that have, in the Trafficking organised by the CBI and Interpol
assessment of the FATF, failed to prevent in New Delhi.
international money laundering and • In the meeting India, Bangladesh, Thailand,
terrorist financing. Malaysia and Indonesia have planned
2. At present, Pakistan has been remained in coordinated crackdowns on wildlife
the FATF grey list for the fifth consecutive trafficking kingpins operating through their
year. jurisdiction by sharing criminal intelligence and
Which of the statements given above is/are breaking down their financial flows.
correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both
d. None

Prelims Practice Question

Q2. What is "Virtual Private Network?
a. It is a private computer netWork of an
organization where the remote users can
transmit encrypted information through the
server of the organization
b. It is a computer network across a public
internet that provides users access to their Prelims Practice Question
organization's network while maintaining the Q1. Which of the following country does not
security of the information transmitted share boundary with Russia?
c. It is a computer network in which users a. Georgia
can access a shared pool of computing b. Azerbaijan
resources through a service provider c. Armenia
d. None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) d. Kazakhstan
given above is a correct description of Virtual
Private Network Prelims Practice Question
Q2. In the context of the affairs of the following
is the phrase “ Special Safeguard Mechanism”
mentioned in the news frequently?
Coalition to curb wildlife a. United Nations Environmental Program
trafficking
b. World Trade Organisation Agreement.
c. ASEAN- India Free Trade
Prelims d. G 20 Summit
"Youtube: DNA 28.02.2024"

T V Somanathan committee
Prelims
"Youtube: DNA 29.02.2024"

UPSC Prelims 2009

Q2. Consider the following statements:
1. The National School of Drama was set up by
Sangeet Natak Akademi in 1959.
2. The highest honour conferred by the
Sahitya Akademi on a writer is by electing
him its Fellow.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
Current news? d. Neither 1 nor 2
• The government has recently established an
expert committee under Finance Secretary T
V Somanathan to make recommendations for
implementing uniform Know Your Customer
(KYC) norms across various sectors.
• Created after Financial Stability and
Development Council (FSDC) talked about a
plan for standard KYC norms.

Prelims Practice Question

Q1. Consider the following Statement about the
Lokpal;
1. Lokpal is headed by the Chief Justice of the
High Court.
2. The Lokpal consists of a Chairperson with
a maximum of 10 members of which 50%
shall be judicial members.
3. The Lokpal Jurisdictions cover the Prime
Minister of India.
Which of the following Statement is/are
incorrect?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3

PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Q1. Which of the following statements are true? Q5. On which of the following matters, does the
1. All Rhinos in the world except Indian Rhinos Finance Commission make recommendations to
have two horns. the President of India?
2. All other Rhinos in the world are critically 1.The distribution between Union and States of net
endangered but Indian rhino is vulnerable in IUCN proceeds of taxes and allocation between the
red Data Book States of their respective shares of such proceeds.
(a) 1 Only 2.The principles which should govern the grants-
(b) 2 Only in-aid of the revenues of the States out of the
(c) Both Consolidated Fund of India.
(d) None (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
Ans: d (c) Both
(d) None
Q2. Which of the following statements are true as
per the recently released Corruption Perceptions Ans: c
Index 2023?
1.India is ranked better than China. Q6. If a nation's economy is said to become tax
2. Nepal is the best ranked South Asian country. buoyant. Which of the following statements is
(a) a.1 only correct in this regard?
(b) b.2 only (a) The government is getting most of its revenue
(c) Both from the imposition of direct taxes.
(d) None (b) Leakages in the country's tax structure are
manifold.
Ans: d (c) Tax collection is in proportion to the country's
economic growth.
Q3. Recently concluded 8th international (d) The changes in tax revenue are in line with the
conference of world elders was conducted in which changes in tax rate.
city of Assam?
(a) Guwahati. Ans: c
(b) Jorhat
(c) Tezpur Q7. Arrange the following subsidies provided by
(d) Dibrugarh the government in decreasing order.
1. Fertiliser subsidy
Ans: d 2. Food subsidy
3. Petroleum
Q4. Biohacking, recently seen in news is related to (a) 1,3,2
which of the following? (b) 2,3,1
(a) Hacking into biological systems to steal or (c) 1,2,3
modify data (d) 2,1,3
(b) Biological experimentation done to improve the
qualities or capabilities of living organisms Ans: d
(c) The use of biotechnology to produce new
forms of life or to modify existing ones Q8. Consider the following statements with respect
(d) Exploiting biological vulnerabilities to cause to Nano DAP:
harm or disruption 1. It is indigenously developed by the Indian
Farmers Fertilizer Cooperative Limited.
Ans: b 2. It is the top most commonly used fertilizers in
India

3. India's first Nano DAP plant is located in the Ans: c

state of Punjab.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are Q12. Operation smiling Buddha is associated with
correct? which of the following?
(a) Only one (a) India's first nuclear test
(b) Only two (b) India's first cloned baby
(c) All three (c) India's first HYV seed
(d) None of the above (d) India's first genetically modified crops

Ans: a Ans: a

Q9. Consider the following: Q13. Which of the following statements are correct
1. Black-necked crane about e-NAM?
2. Cheetah 1.The National Agriculture Market (NAM) is a pan-
3. Flying squirrel India electronic trading portal, which links the
4. Snow leopard existing Agricultural Produce Market Committee
Which of the above are naturally found in India? (APMC)mandis across the country.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only 2. NAFED is the lead agency for implementing
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only eNAM.
(c) 2 and 4 only (a) 1 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 only
(c) Both
Ans: b (d) None

Q10. With reference to Law Commission of India,

consider the following: Ans: a
1. It is a constitutional body. Q14. Consider the following statements:
2. The recommendations of law commission are 1. Atmospheric rivers are long, narrow regions in
binding on the government. the atmosphere that transport most of the water
Which of the statements given above is/are vapor outside the tropics.
correct? 2. Atmospheric rivers carry very little moisture
(a) 1 only content.
(b) 2 only 3. When the atmospheric rivers come back-to-back
(c) Both then they are called atmospheric river families.
(d) None Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
Ans: d (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 only
Q11. Consider the following statements with (c) 1 and 3 only
respect to "Jallikattu": (d) 1, 2 and 3
1. It is a traditional sport that is popular in the
Andhra Pradesh. Ans: c
2. It is celebrated during the Pongal festival.
3. It is a sport in which men compete with one Q15. Which of the following Buddhist sites in India
another to maintain control of the humps of
are also the UNESCO World Heritage Sites?
agitated bulls that are released in an open arena.
Which of the statements given above is/are 1.Ellora Caves
correct? 2.Ajanta Caves
(a) 1 and 2 only 3. Elephanta Caves
(b) 2 only 4. Mahabodhi Temple
(c) 2 and 3 only Select the correct answer from the codes given
(d) 3 only below:
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(a) Only 1 & 2 Q19. With reference to 'Financial Stability and

(b) Only 1, 2 & 3 Development Council', consider the following
(c) Only 2, 3 & 4 statements:
(d) 1, 2, 3 & 4 1. It is an organ of NITI Aayog.
2. It is headed by the Union Finance Minister.
Ans: d 3. It monitors macroprudential supervision of the
economy.
Q16. With reference to FATF Grey list, consider Which of the statements given above is/are
the following statements; correct?
1. These are countries that have, in the (a) 1 and 2 only
assessment of the FATF, failed to prevent (b) 3 only
international money laundering and terrorist (c) 2 and 3 only
financing. (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. At present, Pakistan has been remained in the
FATF grey list for the fifth consecutive year. Ans: c
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? Q20. Consider the following options and select the
(a) 1 only incorrect option with respect to the concept of
(b) 2 only 'dumping'-
(c) Both (a) Directorate General of Trade Remedies, the
(d) None apex national authority under under the
Ministry of Commerce and Industry which
Ans: a administers all trade remedial measures
including dumping.
Q17. Which of the following statements are (b) Dumping is the ability to flood a market with
correct? product prices that are often considered unfair.
1. The Artemis programme seeks to establish a (c) The WTO Agreement regulates the actions of
permanent base camp on the Moon. companies engaged in “dumping”.
2. The Peregrine lunar lander will be the first US (d) Anti-dumping duties can reduce the
Spacecraft to land on the Moon after Apollo 17. international competition of domestic
(a) 1 only companies producing similar goods.
(b) 2 only
(c) Both Ans: c
(d) None
Q21. With reference to the Constitution of India,
Ans: a prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained
in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or
Q18. With reference to large hadron Collider limitations on the constitutional powers under
(LHC), consider the following statements: Article 142. It could mean which one of the
1. ATLAS is the largest general-purpose particle following?
detector experiment at the LHC. (a) The decisions taken by the Election
2. It is a 50-km-long track-loop located in the UK. Commission of India while discharging its
Which of the statements given above is/are duties cannot be challenged in any court of law.
correct? (b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained
(a) 1 only in the exercise of its powers by laws made by
(b) 2 only the Parliament.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) In the event of grave financial crisis in the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 country, the President of India can declare
Financial Emergency without the counsel from
Ans: a the Cabinet.

(d) State Legislatures cannot make laws on (c) Fair application of law
certain matters without the concurrence of (d) Equality before law
Union Legislature.
Ans: c
Ans: b
Q26. With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital
Q22. Which of the following statements are true Mission, consider the following statements:
about YUVIKA programme? 1. Private and public hospitals must adopt it.
1. It was launched by ISRO in 2020 to encourage 2. As it aims to achieve universal health coverage,
students in the field of science. every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately.
2. First and second year college students will be 3. It has seamless portability across the country.
encouraged in the field of science under the Which of the statements given above is/are
program. correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) Both (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) None (d) 1,2 and 3

Ans: a Ans: b

Q23. With reference to Vibrant villages Q27. Consider the following statements:
Programme (VVP) consider the following 1. In the case of all cereals, pulses and oilseeds,
statements: the procurement at Minimum Support Price (MSP)
1. The scheme is based on the idea of competitive is unlimited in any State/UT of India.
federalism. 2. In the case of cereals and pulses, the MSP is
2. Vibrant Village Action Plans will be created by fixed in any State/UT at a level to which the market
the district administration with the help of Gram price will never rise.
Panchayats. Which of the statements given above is/are
3. It will develop selected villages based on the correct?
Hub and Spoke Model. (a) 1 only
Which of the statements given above are correct? (b) 2 only
(a) 1,2 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2,3 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3 all Ans: c

Ans: b Q28. With reference to Indian Ocean Conference

(IOC) consider the following statements:
Q24. The Global Competitiveness Report is 1. It serves as a common platform for critical states
published by the- and principal maritime partners to deliberate on
(a) International Monetary Fund regional affairs, aiming to foster Security and
(b) United Nations Conference on Trade and Growth for All in the Region (SAGAR).
Development 2. It is a flagship consultative forum for countries in
(c) World Economic Forum the Indian Ocean Region over regional affairs.
(d) World Bank Select the correct statements using the codes
given below:
Ans: c (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
Q25. In essence, what does 'Due Process of Law' (c) Both
mean? (d) None
(a) The principle of natural justice
(b) The procedure established by law Ans: c
SPM IAS Academy, D.S. Mansion 2nd floor, Opposite Indian Oil Petrol Pump, Near Assam State Zoo, Zoo Road,
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157
FEBRUARY MONTHLY MAGAZINE 2024

Q29. Which one of the following statements best

reflects the idea behind the "Fractional Orbital
Bombardment System" often talked about in
media?
(a) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to
counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and
explode it in space.
(b) A spacecraft lands on another planet, after
making several orbital motions.
(c) A missile is put into a stable orbit around the
Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth.
(d) A spacecraft moves along a comet with the
same speed and places a probe on its surface.

Ans: c

Q30. Consider the following statements,

1. The Barren Island volcano is India's only active
volcano.
2. It's the only active volcano along a chain of
volcanoes from Sumatra to Myanmar.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 Only
(b) 2 Only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) d Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: c

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